8/4/2020 Full Length Mock Test 3-complete-test

Full Length Mock Test 3

English
Instruc on:

Read the passage given below and answer the ques ons that follow them.

Although European decisions during the 16th and 17th centuries to explore, trade with, and colonize large por ons of
the world brought tremendous economic wealth and vast geographic influence, the enormous success of European
mari me ventures during the age of explora on also engendered a litany of unintended consequences for most of the
na ons with which Europe interacted. Due to their incredible military force, religious zeal, and uncompromising goal of
profit, Europeans o en imposed their tradi ons, values, and customs on the people with whom they traded. They
frequently acted without regard to the long-term welfare of others as their principal concern was short-term economic
gain. Since many na ons that traded with Europe placed high value on their historical customs, some na ves became
deeply disconcerted by the changes that occurred as a result of European power. These factors, coupled with
perennial domes c poli cal instability, caused numerous countries to grow increasingly resistant to European
influence.

One potent example of this ideological shi can be seen in the ac ons of the Tokugawa government of Japan. In its
Seclusion Edict of 1636, the government a empted to extricate cultural interac ons with Europe from the in mate
fabric of Japanese society. The Edict a empted to accomplish this by focusing on three areas. First, it sought to curb
cultural exchange by elimina ng people bringing European ideas into Japan. The Edict stated, "Japanese ships shall by
no means be sent abroad. All Japanese residing abroad shall be put to death when they return home." Second, the
Edict focused on limi ng trade. Ar cles 11 through 17 of the Edict imposed stringent regula ons on trade and
commerce. Third, the government banned Chris anity, which it saw as an import from Europe that challenged the
long-established and well-enshrined religious tradi ons of Japan. The government went to considerable lengths to
protect its culture. Ar cle eight of the Edict stated, "Even ships shall not be le untouched in the ma er of
extermina ng Chris ans."

With the example of Japan and the examples of other countries that chose a different response to European influence,
it is perhaps not too far of a stretch to conclude that Japan made the right decision in pursuing a path of rela ve
isola onism. As history unfolded during the next 400 years, in general, countries that embraced European hegemony,
whether by choice or by force, tended to suffer from pernicious wealth inequality, perennial poli cal instability, and
protracted underdevelopment.

Q.1) According to the passage, which of the following cons tuted the biggest reason for the Seclusion Edict of 1636?

[A]

Japanese economic poten al would be hampered in the long-term

[B]

European trade amounted to a dispropor onate transfer of wealth

[C]

With growing European influence, the poten al for European military ac on against the Japanese government became
too large

[D]

Tradi onal Japanese culture and way of life were threatened by European influence

[E]

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Japanese rulers feared the arrival of addi onal traders and cultural imperialists

Instruc on:

Read the passage given below and answer the ques ons that follow them.

Although European decisions during the 16th and 17th centuries to explore, trade with, and colonize large por ons of
the world brought tremendous economic wealth and vast geographic influence, the enormous success of European
mari me ventures during the age of explora on also engendered a litany of unintended consequences for most of the
na ons with which Europe interacted. Due to their incredible military force, religious zeal, and uncompromising goal of
profit, Europeans o en imposed their tradi ons, values, and customs on the people with whom they traded. They
frequently acted without regard to the long-term welfare of others as their principal concern was short-term economic
gain. Since many na ons that traded with Europe placed high value on their historical customs, some na ves became
deeply disconcerted by the changes that occurred as a result of European power. These factors, coupled with
perennial domes c poli cal instability, caused numerous countries to grow increasingly resistant to European
influence.

One potent example of this ideological shi can be seen in the ac ons of the Tokugawa government of Japan. In its
Seclusion Edict of 1636, the government a empted to extricate cultural interac ons with Europe from the in mate
fabric of Japanese society. The Edict a empted to accomplish this by focusing on three areas. First, it sought to curb
cultural exchange by elimina ng people bringing European ideas into Japan. The Edict stated, "Japanese ships shall by
no means be sent abroad. All Japanese residing abroad shall be put to death when they return home." Second, the
Edict focused on limi ng trade. Ar cles 11 through 17 of the Edict imposed stringent regula ons on trade and
commerce. Third, the government banned Chris anity, which it saw as an import from Europe that challenged the
long-established and well-enshrined religious tradi ons of Japan. The government went to considerable lengths to
protect its culture. Ar cle eight of the Edict stated, "Even ships shall not be le untouched in the ma er of
extermina ng Chris ans."

With the example of Japan and the examples of other countries that chose a different response to European influence,
it is perhaps not too far of a stretch to conclude that Japan made the right decision in pursuing a path of rela ve
isola onism. As history unfolded during the next 400 years, in general, countries that embraced European hegemony,
whether by choice or by force, tended to suffer from pernicious wealth inequality, perennial poli cal instability, and
protracted underdevelopment.

Q.2) Based upon the passage, the author would likely agree most strongly with which of the following statements?

[A]

European decisions made during the 16th and 17th centuries in dealing with Japan represent an aberra on from the
typical pa ern of European decisions

[B]

Japanese rulers who responded with ferocity to European influence bear part of the responsibility for the caus c
European-Japanese rela onship that ensued

[C]

With the hindsight of history, Japan likely made the appropriate decision in extrica ng itself from European influence

[D]

European religious and cultural values conflicted with European economic behaviour toward Japan

[E]

The width and breadth of Japan's cultural fabric suffered from its seclusionist policies

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Instruc on:

Read the passage given below and answer the ques ons that follow them.

Although European decisions during the 16th and 17th centuries to explore, trade with, and colonize large por ons of
the world brought tremendous economic wealth and vast geographic influence, the enormous success of European
mari me ventures during the age of explora on also engendered a litany of unintended consequences for most of the
na ons with which Europe interacted. Due to their incredible military force, religious zeal, and uncompromising goal of
profit, Europeans o en imposed their tradi ons, values, and customs on the people with whom they traded. They
frequently acted without regard to the long-term welfare of others as their principal concern was short-term economic
gain. Since many na ons that traded with Europe placed high value on their historical customs, some na ves became
deeply disconcerted by the changes that occurred as a result of European power. These factors, coupled with
perennial domes c poli cal instability, caused numerous countries to grow increasingly resistant to European
influence.

One potent example of this ideological shi can be seen in the ac ons of the Tokugawa government of Japan. In its
Seclusion Edict of 1636, the government a empted to extricate cultural interac ons with Europe from the in mate
fabric of Japanese society. The Edict a empted to accomplish this by focusing on three areas. First, it sought to curb
cultural exchange by elimina ng people bringing European ideas into Japan. The Edict stated, "Japanese ships shall by
no means be sent abroad. All Japanese residing abroad shall be put to death when they return home." Second, the
Edict focused on limi ng trade. Ar cles 11 through 17 of the Edict imposed stringent regula ons on trade and
commerce. Third, the government banned Chris anity, which it saw as an import from Europe that challenged the
long-established and well-enshrined religious tradi ons of Japan. The government went to considerable lengths to
protect its culture. Ar cle eight of the Edict stated, "Even ships shall not be le untouched in the ma er of
extermina ng Chris ans."

With the example of Japan and the examples of other countries that chose a different response to European influence,
it is perhaps not too far of a stretch to conclude that Japan made the right decision in pursuing a path of rela ve
isola onism. As history unfolded during the next 400 years, in general, countries that embraced European hegemony,
whether by choice or by force, tended to suffer from pernicious wealth inequality, perennial poli cal instability, and
protracted underdevelopment.

Q.3) The author most likely included the quota on from Ar cle Eight of the Edict at the end of the second paragraph
to

[A]

Highlight the venomous anger many Japanese leaders felt toward the importa on of foreign religions

[B]

Emphasize the determina on of the Japanese government to protect itself from foreign influences it saw as damaging

[C]

Illustrate how pervasive foreign religious influence had become in Japanese society

[D]

Emphasize that European economic influence offered no jus fica on for the Edict and the government relied instead
on foreign religious influence to jus fy the Edict

[E]

Provide an example of Japan's effort to curb cultural and economic exchange

Instruc on:
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8/4/2020 Full Length Mock Test 3-complete-test

Read the passage given below and answer the ques ons that follow them.

Although European decisions during the 16th and 17th centuries to explore, trade with, and colonize large por ons of
the world brought tremendous economic wealth and vast geographic influence, the enormous success of European
mari me ventures during the age of explora on also engendered a litany of unintended consequences for most of the
na ons with which Europe interacted. Due to their incredible military force, religious zeal, and uncompromising goal of
profit, Europeans o en imposed their tradi ons, values, and customs on the people with whom they traded. They
frequently acted without regard to the long-term welfare of others as their principal concern was short-term economic
gain. Since many na ons that traded with Europe placed high value on their historical customs, some na ves became
deeply disconcerted by the changes that occurred as a result of European power. These factors, coupled with
perennial domes c poli cal instability, caused numerous countries to grow increasingly resistant to European
influence.

One potent example of this ideological shi can be seen in the ac ons of the Tokugawa government of Japan. In its
Seclusion Edict of 1636, the government a empted to extricate cultural interac ons with Europe from the in mate
fabric of Japanese society. The Edict a empted to accomplish this by focusing on three areas. First, it sought to curb
cultural exchange by elimina ng people bringing European ideas into Japan. The Edict stated, "Japanese ships shall by
no means be sent abroad. All Japanese residing abroad shall be put to death when they return home." Second, the
Edict focused on limi ng trade. Ar cles 11 through 17 of the Edict imposed stringent regula ons on trade and
commerce. Third, the government banned Chris anity, which it saw as an import from Europe that challenged the
long-established and well-enshrined religious tradi ons of Japan. The government went to considerable lengths to
protect its culture. Ar cle eight of the Edict stated, "Even ships shall not be le untouched in the ma er of
extermina ng Chris ans."

With the example of Japan and the examples of other countries that chose a different response to European influence,
it is perhaps not too far of a stretch to conclude that Japan made the right decision in pursuing a path of rela ve
isola onism. As history unfolded during the next 400 years, in general, countries that embraced European hegemony,
whether by choice or by force, tended to suffer from pernicious wealth inequality, perennial poli cal instability, and
protracted underdevelopment.

Q.4) Which of the following best characterizes the most significant mo va on for Europe's behaviour with Japan
during the 17th century?

[A]

Religious zeal

[B]

Long-term poli cal concerns

[C]

Short-term economic self-interest

[D]

Cultural imperialism

[E]

Territorial aggrandizement

Instruc on:

Read the passage given below and answer the ques ons that follow them.

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Although European decisions during the 16th and 17th centuries to explore, trade with, and colonize large por ons of
the world brought tremendous economic wealth and vast geographic influence, the enormous success of European
mari me ventures during the age of explora on also engendered a litany of unintended consequences for most of the
na ons with which Europe interacted. Due to their incredible military force, religious zeal, and uncompromising goal of
profit, Europeans o en imposed their tradi ons, values, and customs on the people with whom they traded. They
frequently acted without regard to the long-term welfare of others as their principal concern was short-term economic
gain. Since many na ons that traded with Europe placed high value on their historical customs, some na ves became
deeply disconcerted by the changes that occurred as a result of European power. These factors, coupled with
perennial domes c poli cal instability, caused numerous countries to grow increasingly resistant to European
influence.

One potent example of this ideological shi can be seen in the ac ons of the Tokugawa government of Japan. In its
Seclusion Edict of 1636, the government a empted to extricate cultural interac ons with Europe from the in mate
fabric of Japanese society. The Edict a empted to accomplish this by focusing on three areas. First, it sought to curb
cultural exchange by elimina ng people bringing European ideas into Japan. The Edict stated, "Japanese ships shall by
no means be sent abroad. All Japanese residing abroad shall be put to death when they return home." Second, the
Edict focused on limi ng trade. Ar cles 11 through 17 of the Edict imposed stringent regula ons on trade and
commerce. Third, the government banned Chris anity, which it saw as an import from Europe that challenged the
long-established and well-enshrined religious tradi ons of Japan. The government went to considerable lengths to
protect its culture. Ar cle eight of the Edict stated, "Even ships shall not be le untouched in the ma er of
extermina ng Chris ans."

With the example of Japan and the examples of other countries that chose a different response to European influence,
it is perhaps not too far of a stretch to conclude that Japan made the right decision in pursuing a path of rela ve
isola onism. As history unfolded during the next 400 years, in general, countries that embraced European hegemony,
whether by choice or by force, tended to suffer from pernicious wealth inequality, perennial poli cal instability, and
protracted underdevelopment.

Q.5) According to the passage, the Japanese government took all of the following ac ons in an a empt to protect
Japanese culture and way of life EXCEPT

[A]

Prohibit Japanese from visi ng other countries, even to see family

[B]

Execute Japanese ci zens who se led in other countries but later decided to return to Japan

[C]

Heavily regulate foreign economic trade

[D]

Destroy all remnants of Chris anity

[E]

Prohibit cri cism of the feudal shogun system of government

Instruc on:

Read the passage given below and answer the ques ons that follow them.

Although European decisions during the 16th and 17th centuries to explore, trade with, and colonize large por ons of
the world brought tremendous economic wealth and vast geographic influence, the enormous success of European
mari me ventures during the age of explora on also engendered a litany of unintended consequences for most of the

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na ons with which Europe interacted. Due to their incredible military force, religious zeal, and uncompromising goal of
profit, Europeans o en imposed their tradi ons, values, and customs on the people with whom they traded. They
frequently acted without regard to the long-term welfare of others as their principal concern was short-term economic
gain. Since many na ons that traded with Europe placed high value on their historical customs, some na ves became
deeply disconcerted by the changes that occurred as a result of European power. These factors, coupled with
perennial domes c poli cal instability, caused numerous countries to grow increasingly resistant to European
influence.

One potent example of this ideological shi can be seen in the ac ons of the Tokugawa government of Japan. In its
Seclusion Edict of 1636, the government a empted to extricate cultural interac ons with Europe from the in mate
fabric of Japanese society. The Edict a empted to accomplish this by focusing on three areas. First, it sought to curb
cultural exchange by elimina ng people bringing European ideas into Japan. The Edict stated, "Japanese ships shall by
no means be sent abroad. All Japanese residing abroad shall be put to death when they return home." Second, the
Edict focused on limi ng trade. Ar cles 11 through 17 of the Edict imposed stringent regula ons on trade and
commerce. Third, the government banned Chris anity, which it saw as an import from Europe that challenged the
long-established and well-enshrined religious tradi ons of Japan. The government went to considerable lengths to
protect its culture. Ar cle eight of the Edict stated, "Even ships shall not be le untouched in the ma er of
extermina ng Chris ans."

With the example of Japan and the examples of other countries that chose a different response to European influence,
it is perhaps not too far of a stretch to conclude that Japan made the right decision in pursuing a path of rela ve
isola onism. As history unfolded during the next 400 years, in general, countries that embraced European hegemony,
whether by choice or by force, tended to suffer from pernicious wealth inequality, perennial poli cal instability, and
protracted underdevelopment.

Q.6) Which of the following is the primary purpose of the given paragraph?

[A]

Explain the ac ons of the Tokugawa government of Japan

[B]

Compare the results of countries that pursued protec onism with those that pursued globaliza on

[C]

Explore the consequences of some European trade and explora on along with analysing a country’s response to it

[D]

Argue for the success of European trade as a means to create wealth and exert influence

[E]

Elucidate the root of frustra on with European imperialism

Instruc on:

Read the passage given below and answer the ques ons that follow them.

Although European decisions during the 16th and 17th centuries to explore, trade with, and colonize large por ons of
the world brought tremendous economic wealth and vast geographic influence, the enormous success of European
mari me ventures during the age of explora on also engendered a litany of unintended consequences for most of the
na ons with which Europe interacted. Due to their incredible military force, religious zeal, and uncompromising goal of
profit, Europeans o en imposed their tradi ons, values, and customs on the people with whom they traded. They
frequently acted without regard to the long-term welfare of others as their principal concern was short-term economic
gain. Since many na ons that traded with Europe placed high value on their historical customs, some na ves became

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deeply disconcerted by the changes that occurred as a result of European power. These factors, coupled with
perennial domes c poli cal instability, caused numerous countries to grow increasingly resistant to European
influence.

One potent example of this ideological shi can be seen in the ac ons of the Tokugawa government of Japan. In its
Seclusion Edict of 1636, the government a empted to extricate cultural interac ons with Europe from the in mate
fabric of Japanese society. The Edict a empted to accomplish this by focusing on three areas. First, it sought to curb
cultural exchange by elimina ng people bringing European ideas into Japan. The Edict stated, "Japanese ships shall by
no means be sent abroad. All Japanese residing abroad shall be put to death when they return home." Second, the
Edict focused on limi ng trade. Ar cles 11 through 17 of the Edict imposed stringent regula ons on trade and
commerce. Third, the government banned Chris anity, which it saw as an import from Europe that challenged the
long-established and well-enshrined religious tradi ons of Japan. The government went to considerable lengths to
protect its culture. Ar cle eight of the Edict stated, "Even ships shall not be le untouched in the ma er of
extermina ng Chris ans."

With the example of Japan and the examples of other countries that chose a different response to European influence,
it is perhaps not too far of a stretch to conclude that Japan made the right decision in pursuing a path of rela ve
isola onism. As history unfolded during the next 400 years, in general, countries that embraced European hegemony,
whether by choice or by force, tended to suffer from pernicious wealth inequality, perennial poli cal instability, and
protracted underdevelopment.

Q.7) It can best be inferred from the passage that in 1636, the Japanese government

[A]

Saw its ci zens living abroad as poten al threats

[B]

Considered all foreign religions a danger

[C]

Disagreed with the European philosophy that trade brought wealth

[D]

Foresaw the economic dangers of European trade and imperialism

[E]

Believed that ideas coming into Japan via foreign interac ons provided no posi ve impact to Japanese society

Instruc on:

In the following ques ons of sentence correc on, a part of the sentence is given in bold. Out of the given op ons, find
out the gramma cally correct statement that can replace the bold part in the given ques ons.

Q.8) Visitors to Dubai have o en gone to the top of the Burj Khalifa, the world’s tallest structure, and see the en re
city beneath them.

[A]

and see the en re city beneath them

[B]

and saw all of the en re city beneath them

[C]

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and saw beneath them the en re city

[D]

and seen beneath them the en re city

[E]

and seen the en re city beneath them

Instruc on:

In the following ques ons of sentence correc on, a part of the sentence is given in bold. Out of the given op ons, find
out the gramma cally correct statement that can replace the bold part in the given ques ons.

Q.9) Child psychologists believe that as a child grows, their range of emo ons and the way they expresses those
emo ons mature as well.

[A]

believe that as a child grows, their

[B]

believe that as children grow, their

[C]

hold the belief that when a child grows, his of her

[D]

hold the belief that when children grow, their

[E]

believing that as a child grows, his

Instruc on:

In the following ques ons of sentence correc on, a part of the sentence is given in bold. Out of the given op ons, find
out the gramma cally correct statement that can replace the bold part in the given ques ons.

Q.10) The tennis commi ee has finally decided that grass will be the chosen surface for the final compe on, like that
when Australia lost to France two years ago.

[A]

like that when Australia lost

[B]

as that for Australia’s loss

[C]

just as when Australia lost

[D]

as it has been the me that Australia lost

[E]

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as it was when Australia lost

Instruc on:

In the following ques ons of sentence correc on, a part of the sentence is given in bold. Out of the given op ons, find
out the gramma cally correct statement that can replace the bold part in the given ques ons.

Q.11) Military security personnel officers, being worried over leaks of military informa on through internet use, have
decided to look beyond the solu ons currently in use.

[A]

being worried over leaks of military informa on through internet use

[B]

worrying over leaks of military informa on through internet use

[C]

worried about leaks of military informa on through internet use

[D]

in that they were worried over leaks of military informa on through the use of the internet

[E]

because of its worry concerning leaks of military informa on through the use of the internet

Instruc on:

In the following ques ons of sentence correc on, a part of the sentence is given in bold. Out of the given op ons, find
out the gramma cally correct statement that can replace the bold part in the given ques ons.

Q.12) Of all the mentally ill pa ents hospitalized in the Tata Ins tute, the mind of the psychopathic pa ent is maybe
the more difficult for analysis.

[A]

is maybe the more difficult for analysis

[B]

is probably the most difficult to analyze

[C]

is maybe the most difficult for analysis

[D]

is probably the more difficult to analyze

[E]

is, it may be, the analysis that is most difficult

Instruc on:

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In each ques on, there is a pair of words/phrases that highlighted. From the highlighted word(s)/phrase(s), select the
most appropriate word(s)/phrase(s) to form correct sentences. Then, from the op ons given, choose the best one.

Q.13) I. The best me to visit Goa, the ideal Serene Beach Resort is during the rela vely [a]/ rela ve [b] cool winter
months between late September and mid-March.

II. The state of deep relaxa on is conducive [a]/ conduc ve [b] to healing as it helps to clear blockages both physical
and emo onal, returning to the body lots of fresh energy and life.

III. I’ve been looking a er my sister’s three troublesome children all day and I am at loggerheads [a]/ the end of my
tether [b].

[A]

bab

[B]

aab

[C]

abb

[D]

baa

[E]

aba

Instruc on: In each ques on, there is a pair of words/phrases that highlighted. From the highlighted
word(s)/phrase(s), select the most appropriate word(s)/phrase(s) to form correct sentences. Then, from the op ons
given, choose the best one.

Q.14) I.  The school has decided to go ahead [a]/ about [b] with the prepara ons for the sports day in spite of the
inclement weather.

II. Each one of us must realise that the future of India lies in religious harmony, through tolerance and co-existence,
which have been [a]/ has been [b] the essence and ethos of our culture.

III. The deadlock [a]/ lock on [b] over the agenda for the peace talks con nued with no agreement between the two
leaders.

[A]

abb

[B]

bbb

[C]

aba

[D]

aba

[E]

aaa
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Instruc on:

In each ques on, there is a pair of words/phrases that highlighted. From the highlighted word(s)/phrase(s), select the
most appropriate word(s)/phrase(s) to form correct sentences. Then, from the op ons given, choose the best one.

Q.15) I. An op mum use of irriga on water is ensured through these labour-intensive schemes, for the local farmers
are evolved [a]/ involved [b] in them to a large extent.

II. We knew Lawrence must of [a]/ must have [b] missed the appointment because train service was disrupted for
three hours this morning.

III. The chief execu ve officer and the chairman of the board agree [a]/ agrees [b] that the new benefit package
should include a dental health plan as well as eye care.

[A]

aab

[B]

bbb

[C]

abb

[D]

aaa

[E]

bba

Instruc on:

In each of these ques ons, two sentences (A) and (B) are given. Each sentence has a blank in it. Five words are
suggested in op ons. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in the context of each sentence. Select the words
and mark your op on.

Q.16) A. The site of construc on is a former ________ which is now managed for wildlife, informal recrea on,
environmental educa on and mber produc on.

B. The construc on workers had to ________ a large opening in the dirt to create the founda on for the pipes and
wires that would be housed underneath the structure.

[A]

Excavate

[B]

Quarry

[C]

Haul

[D]

Colliery

[E]
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Duct

Instruc on:

In each of these ques ons, two sentences (A) and (B) are given. Each sentence has a blank in it. Five words are
suggested in op ons. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in the context of each sentence. Select the words
and mark your op on.

Q.17) A. I want to do some ________ fishing, but I don’t know what to use for bait.

B. Avishai Cohen is an Israeli jazz musician who plays double ________ and is also a composer.

[A] Base

[B]

Boom

[C]

Bass

[D]

Pitch

[E]

Notes

Instruc on:

In each of these ques ons, two sentences (A) and (B) are given. Each sentence has a blank in it. Five words are
suggested in op ons. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in the context of each sentence. Select the words
and mark your op on.

Q.18) A. Brunch is a _____________ that is formed by combining two different terms, “breakfast” and “lunch” which
means a mean that is eaten a er breakfast but before lunch.

B. He was separated from his ___________ and assumed his suitcase had arrived before him.

[A]

Ex post facto

[B]

Posthumous

[C]

Carryall

[D]

Valise

[E]

Portmanteau

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Instruc on:

In each of the following ques ons, a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage missing and
represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five answer choices given to make the passage complete and
coherent (logically complete and sound).

Q.19) ____________. Space shu le astronauts, because they spend only about a week in space, undergo minimal
was ng of bone and muscle. But when longer stays in microgravity or zero gravity are contemplated, as in the
proposed space sta on or a two-year roundtrip voyage to Mars, these problems are of par cular concern because
they could become acute.

[A]

Space flight, especially if it is prolonged, can be hazardous to the health of the astronauts.

[B]

The ssues of human beings are ill prepared for the stresses placed upon them by space flight.

[C]

In space flight, astronauts must deal with two vexing physiological foes—muscle atrophy and bone loss.

[D]

Travel on the space shu le does less damage to an astronaut’s bones and muscles than an extended stay on a space
sta on.

[E]

Fortunately, studies show that muscle atrophy can be kept largely at bay with appropriate exercise.

Instruc on:

In each of the following ques ons, a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage missing and
represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five answer choices given to make the passage complete and
coherent (logically complete and sound).

Q.20) ________________. Rather, asthma is now understood to be a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways—
that is, inflamma on makes the airways chronically sensi ve. When these hyper-responsive airways are irritated, air
flow is limited, and a acks of coughing, wheezing, chest ghtness and difficulty breathing occur.

[A]

No longer is asthma considered a condi on with isolated, acute episodes of bronchospasm.

[B]

The true nature of asthma has only recently been understood.

[C]

Since the true character of asthma is now understood, there is more hope for a cure than there was in earlier mes.

[D]

No age is exempt from asthma, although it occurs most o en in childhood and early adulthood.

[E]

None of the above

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Instruc on: In the ques ons given below, a sentence divided into three parts is given. One or more parts may be
gramma cally incorrect. Iden fy the incorrect part(s) and choose the most suitable replacement from the given
answer choices. In the case that none of the given answer choices provide the suitable replacement for the incorrect
part(s), choose op on (e) as your answer.

Q.21) Some buildings, such as the White House, Saint Paul’s Cathedral, and the Taj Mahal, (A)/ deserve to be preserved
not only because of their ar s c excellence (B)/ but also because of their symbolic associa ons. (C)

A. Some buildings like the White House, Saint Paul’s Cathedral, and the Taj Mahal,

B. Not only deserve to be preserved because of their ar s c excellence

C. but also for their symbolic associa ons.

[A] Only B

[B] Only A

[C] Only A and B

[D] All A, B and C

[E] No correc on required

Instruc on: In the ques ons given below, a sentence divided into three parts is given. One or more parts may be
gramma cally incorrect. Iden fy the incorrect part(s) and choose the most suitable replacement from the given
answer choices. In the case that none of the given answer choices provide the suitable replacement for the incorrect
part(s), choose op on (e) as your answer.

Q.22) Kau lya, in his Arthashastra, while discussing the ci zen's right of privacy (A)/ and the king's obliga on to know
about the "na onal security risks", (B)/ advocated the deployment of spies. (C)

A. Kau lya, in his Arthashastra, during discussing the ci zen's right of privacy

B. and the king's obliga on of knowing of the "na onal security risks",

C. advocated the employment of spies.

[A] Only A and B

[B] Only C

[C] Only A and C

[D] Only A

[E] None of the above op ons provide the correct replacement

Instruc on: In the ques ons given below, a sentence divided into three parts is given. One or more parts may be
gramma cally incorrect. Iden fy the incorrect part(s) and choose the most suitable replacement from the given
answer choices. In the case that none of the given answer choices provide the suitable replacement for the incorrect
part(s), choose op on (e) as your answer.

Q.23) Ruhi moved to Mumbai to try to wipe (A)/ the memory of a tragedy that turned her life upside down
(B)/ when she is living in a small town in Gujarat. (C)
A. Ruhi moved to Mumbai to try to wipe out

B. the memory of a tragedy that rotated her life upside down

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C. when she was living in a small town in Gujarat

[A] A and C
[B] A and B

[C] Only C

[D] Only A
[E] No correction required

Instruc on:

In the following passages there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the
passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate
word in each case.

The audio commentators were the visual translators of the game of cricket in its original and purest form: Test cricket.
At home, we would be glued to the big, valve-based General Electric Corpora on radio while we listened to these
_________ [24] voices along with the background noise. Each commentator was ________ [25] and conveyed the
happenings on the field in his own _________ [26] way. Anant Setalvad had a pleasant voice and his tone would be the
same _________ [27] of the scene. Ananda Rao had a typical way of __________ [28] listeners: "Good morning, this is
Ananda Rao repor ng from the Chepauk in Madras." And, of course, one cannot forget the ________ [29] of Suresh
Saraiya. He had a dis nct accent and great storytelling skills. That was a different era. The magical voices and the
unique ways of __________ [30] the image of the game was well done at the me. It is indeed our good luck that
many of us have enjoyed the pure audio commentary of those days, and can now also watch cricket with super clarity
and in high defini on!

Q.24) Fill in the blanks

[A]

Indirect

[B]

Hazy

[C]

Husky

[D]

Familiar

[E]

Formal

Instruc on:

In the following passages there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the
passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate
word in each case.

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The audio commentators were the visual translators of the game of cricket in its original and purest form: Test cricket.
At home, we would be glued to the big, valve-based General Electric Corpora on radio while we listened to these
_________ [24] voices along with the background noise. Each commentator was ________ [25] and conveyed the
happenings on the field in his own _________ [26] way. Anant Setalvad had a pleasant voice and his tone would be the
same _________ [27] of the scene. Ananda Rao had a typical way of __________ [28] listeners: "Good morning, this is
Ananda Rao repor ng from the Chepauk in Madras." And, of course, one cannot forget the ________ [29] of Suresh
Saraiya. He had a dis nct accent and great storytelling skills. That was a different era. The magical voices and the
unique ways of __________ [30] the image of the game was well done at the me. It is indeed our good luck that
many of us have enjoyed the pure audio commentary of those days, and can now also watch cricket with super clarity
and in high defini on!

Q.25) Fill in the blanks

[A]

Unique

[B]

Single

[C]

Rare

[D]

Common

[E]

Limited edi on

Instruc on:

In the following passages there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the
passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate
word in each case.

The audio commentators were the visual translators of the game of cricket in its original and purest form: Test cricket.
At home, we would be glued to the big, valve-based General Electric Corpora on radio while we listened to these
_________ [24] voices along with the background noise. Each commentator was ________ [25] and conveyed the
happenings on the field in his own _________ [26] way. Anant Setalvad had a pleasant voice and his tone would be the
same _________ [27] of the scene. Ananda Rao had a typical way of __________ [28] listeners: "Good morning, this is
Ananda Rao repor ng from the Chepauk in Madras." And, of course, one cannot forget the ________ [29] of Suresh
Saraiya. He had a dis nct accent and great storytelling skills. That was a different era. The magical voices and the
unique ways of __________ [30] the image of the game was well done at the me. It is indeed our good luck that
many of us have enjoyed the pure audio commentary of those days, and can now also watch cricket with super clarity
and in high defini on!

Q.26) Fill in the blanks

[A]

Eerie

[B]

Flinty

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[C]

Quirky

[D]

Spooky

[E]

Creepy

Instruc on:

In the following passages there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the
passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate
word in each case.

The audio commentators were the visual translators of the game of cricket in its original and purest form: Test cricket.
At home, we would be glued to the big, valve-based General Electric Corpora on radio while we listened to these
_________ [24] voices along with the background noise. Each commentator was ________ [25] and conveyed the
happenings on the field in his own _________ [26] way. Anant Setalvad had a pleasant voice and his tone would be the
same _________ [27] of the scene. Ananda Rao had a typical way of __________ [28] listeners: "Good morning, this is
Ananda Rao repor ng from the Chepauk in Madras." And, of course, one cannot forget the ________ [29] of Suresh
Saraiya. He had a dis nct accent and great storytelling skills. That was a different era. The magical voices and the
unique ways of __________ [30] the image of the game was well done at the me. It is indeed our good luck that
many of us have enjoyed the pure audio commentary of those days, and can now also watch cricket with super clarity
and in high defini on!

Q.27) Fill in the blanks

[A]

Reasonably

[B]

According

[C]

Apart

[D]

at par

[E]

Irrespec ve

Instruc on:

In the following passages there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the
passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate
word in each case.

The audio commentators were the visual translators of the game of cricket in its original and purest form: Test cricket.
At home, we would be glued to the big, valve-based General Electric Corpora on radio while we listened to these
_________ [24] voices along with the background noise. Each commentator was ________ [25] and conveyed the
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happenings on the field in his own _________ [26] way. Anant Setalvad had a pleasant voice and his tone would be the
same _________ [27] of the scene. Ananda Rao had a typical way of __________ [28] listeners: "Good morning, this is
Ananda Rao repor ng from the Chepauk in Madras." And, of course, one cannot forget the ________ [29] of Suresh
Saraiya. He had a dis nct accent and great storytelling skills. That was a different era. The magical voices and the
unique ways of __________ [30] the image of the game was well done at the me. It is indeed our good luck that
many of us have enjoyed the pure audio commentary of those days, and can now also watch cricket with super clarity
and in high defini on!

Q.28) Fill in the blanks

[A]

Having

[B]

Acknowledge

[C]

Gree ng

[D]

Receiving

[E]

Replying

Instruc on:

In the following passages there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the
passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate
word in each case.

The audio commentators were the visual translators of the game of cricket in its original and purest form: Test cricket.
At home, we would be glued to the big, valve-based General Electric Corpora on radio while we listened to these
_________ [24] voices along with the background noise. Each commentator was ________ [25] and conveyed the
happenings on the field in his own _________ [26] way. Anant Setalvad had a pleasant voice and his tone would be the
same _________ [27] of the scene. Ananda Rao had a typical way of __________ [28] listeners: "Good morning, this is
Ananda Rao repor ng from the Chepauk in Madras." And, of course, one cannot forget the ________ [29] of Suresh
Saraiya. He had a dis nct accent and great storytelling skills. That was a different era. The magical voices and the
unique ways of __________ [30] the image of the game was well done at the me. It is indeed our good luck that
many of us have enjoyed the pure audio commentary of those days, and can now also watch cricket with super clarity
and in high defini on!

Q.29) Fill in the blanks

[A]

Flair

[B]

Glare

[C]

Chic

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[D]

Taste

[E]

Gi

Instruc on:

In the following passages there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the
passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate
word in each case.

The audio commentators were the visual translators of the game of cricket in its original and purest form: Test cricket.
At home, we would be glued to the big, valve-based General Electric Corpora on radio while we listened to these
_________ [24] voices along with the background noise. Each commentator was ________ [25] and conveyed the
happenings on the field in his own _________ [26] way. Anant Setalvad had a pleasant voice and his tone would be the
same _________ [27] of the scene. Ananda Rao had a typical way of __________ [28] listeners: "Good morning, this is
Ananda Rao repor ng from the Chepauk in Madras." And, of course, one cannot forget the ________ [29] of Suresh
Saraiya. He had a dis nct accent and great storytelling skills. That was a different era. The magical voices and the
unique ways of __________ [30] the image of the game was well done at the me. It is indeed our good luck that
many of us have enjoyed the pure audio commentary of those days, and can now also watch cricket with super clarity
and in high defini on!

Q.30) Fill in the blanks

[A]

Silencing

[B]

Handover

[C]

Touching

[D]

Conveying

[E]

Withholding

Quant
Instruc on: Direc ons (01-05) In the given ques ons, two quan es are given, one as Quan ty I and another
as Quan ty II. You have to determine rela onship between two quan es and choose the appropriate op on

Q.1) The largest possible right circular cylinder is cut out from a wooden cube of edge 7 cm.

Quan ty I : volume of the cube le over a er cu ng out the cylinder

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Quan ty II : Surface area of cube remained a er cu ng out the cylinder.

Note: compare the magnitudes of both quan es

[A] Quan ty I > Quan ty II

[B] Quan ty I < Quan ty II

[C] Quan ty I ≥ Quan ty II

[D] Quan ty I ≤ Quan ty II

[E] Quan ty I = Quan ty II or No rela on

Instruc on: Direc ons (01-05) In the given ques ons, two quan es are given, one as Quan ty I and another
as Quan ty II. You have to determine rela onship between two quan es and choose the appropriate op on

Q.2) Quan ty 1: Profit percent for a shopkeeper. The shopkeeper uses a faulty scale while buying cloth from
wholesaler. His scale measures 10% extra than the actual measurement. While selling, the shopkeeper gives
10% less and offers a discount of 10% to the customer.

Quan ty 2: Profit% for a man who calculates his profit on selling price. He marks up the cost of his item by
25% and then sells the item at a discount of 10%.

[A] Quan ty I > Quan ty II

[B] Quan ty I < Quan ty II

[C] Quan ty I ≥ Quan ty II

[D] Quan ty I ≤ Quan ty II

[E] Quan ty I = Quan ty II or No rela on

Instruc on: Direc ons (01-05) In the given ques ons, two quan es are given, one as Quan ty I and another
as Quan ty II. You have to determine rela onship between two quan es and choose the appropriate op on

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Q.3) Quan ty I: Badri when works alone, takes 7.2 hrs more than the me taken by both Badri and Suresh to
finish the work together. Suresh when works alone, takes 9.8 hrs more than the me taken by both Badri and
Suresh to finish the work together.Time taken by both of them to complete the work working together.

Quan ty II : 8.4 hrs.

[A] Quan ty I > Quan ty II

[B] Quan ty I < Quan ty II

[C] Quan ty I ≥ Quan ty II

[D] Quan ty I ≤ Quan ty II

[E] Quan ty I = Quan ty II or No rela on

Instruc on: Direc ons (01-05) In the given ques ons, two quan es are given, one as Quan ty I and another
as Quan ty II. You have to determine rela onship between two quan es and choose the appropriate op on

Q.4) Quan ty I — average income of the whole group of 75 people, if average income of the men in the group
is Rs. 4200 and that of women is Rs. 4000. (total men : total women = 8 : 7)

Quan ty II — The average income of 20 people, which decreases by Rs. 150 if a person with income of Rs.
1000 joins them.

[A] Quan ty I > Quan ty II

[B] Quan ty I < Quan ty II

[C] Quan ty I ≥ Quan ty II

[D] Quan ty I ≤ Quan ty II

[E] Quan ty I = Quan ty II or No rela on

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Instruc on: Direc ons (01-05) In the given ques ons, two quan es are given, one as Quan ty I and another
as Quan ty II. You have to determine rela onship between two quan es and choose the appropriate op on

Q.5) Quan ty I: Ram started a business with a capital Rs. 38,000. A er 5 months, Rohan joined him with a
capital of Rs. 55.000. At the end of the year, the total profit was Rs. 22,000. What is the difference between
the share of profits of Ram and Rohan?

Quan ty II: Mr. Ram invested money in two scheme X and Y offering Rate of interest 8% per annum and 9%
per annum respec vely. The total interest he gets at the end of two years through the two schemes together
is Rs. 525.24 and the total amount he invested in the two schemes together is Rs. 3000. Find the amount he
had invested in the scheme X? (It is given that the rate of interest was compounded annually)

[A] Quan ty I > Quan ty II

[B] Quan ty I < Quan ty II

[C] Quan ty I ≥ Quan ty II

[D] Quan ty I ≤ Quan ty II

[E] Quan ty I = Quan ty II or No rela on

Instruc on: Direc ons (06-08) Study the given table carefully to answer the given ques ons.

Percentage profit or loss is based on the sum of cost price and transporta on cost

Name of Cost price Selling Price Cost of Profit Loss Profit or Loss
goods ( in Rs.) ( in Rs.) transporta on ( in Rs) ( in Rs) %
( in Rs)
V 50 - 30 - -
W - 100 0 - 10
X 250 - 20 5 -
Y - 400 0 - - 4% Loss
Z 400 - 40 - - 6% Profit

Q.6) The selling price of X is what percent of the cost price of W?

[A] 150%

[B] 250%
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[C] 125%

[D] 200%

[E] 100%

Instruc on: Direc ons (06-08) Study the given table carefully to answer the given ques ons.

Percentage profit or loss is based on the sum of cost price and transporta on cost

Name of Cost price Selling Price Cost of Profit Loss Profit or Loss
goods ( in Rs.) ( in Rs.) transporta on ( in Rs) ( in Rs) %
( in Rs)
V 50 - 30 - -
W - 100 0 - 10
X 250 - 20 5 -
Y - 400 0 - - 4% Loss
Z 400 - 40 - - 6% Profit

Q.7) If the loss on V is 5%, then its selling price is what percentage less than the selling price

of Z?

[A] 85.7%

[B] 88.7%

[C] 83.7%

[D] 81.7%

[E] 79.7%

Instruc on: Direc ons (06-08) Study the given table carefully to answer the given ques ons.
Percentage profit or loss is based on the sum of cost price and transporta on cost

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Name of Cost price Selling Price Cost of Profit Loss Profit or Loss
goods ( in Rs.) ( in Rs.) transporta on ( in Rs) ( in Rs) %
( in Rs)
V 50 - 30 - -
W - 100 0 - 10
X 250 - 20 5 -
Y - 400 0 - - 4% Loss
Z 400 - 40 - - 6% Profit

Q.8) What is the ra o of the loss on Y to that on W?

[A] 133 : 255

[B] 65 : 55

[C] 75 : 43

[D] 833 : 500

[E] 233 : 155

Instruc on: Direc ons (09-12) Study the given informa on carefully and answer the ques on

Q.9) Pankaj went to the post-office at the speed of 60 km/hr while returning for his home he covered the half
of the distance at the speed of 10 km/hr, but suddenly he realized that he was ge ng late so he increased the
speed and reached the home by covering rest half of the distance at the speed of 30 km/hr. The average
speed of the Pankaj in the whole length of journey is

[A] 5.67 km/hr

[B] 24 km/hr
[C] 22.88 km/hr

[D] 5.45 km/hr

[E] none of these

Instruc on: Direc ons (09-12) Study the given informa on carefully and answer the ques on

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Q.10) When a bus started from its origin point the ra o of male passenger to female passenger was 3 : 1. At
the first stop 16 passenger get down and 6 more female passenger get into bus. Now the ra o of male to
female passenger become 2 :1. What was the total number of passenger in the bus when it started from its
orgin point ?

[A] 64

[B] 48

[C] 54

[D] 72

[E] 86

Instruc on: Direc ons (09-12) Study the given informa on carefully and answer the ques on

Q.11) A property dealer bought a rectangular plot in Chandigarh 5 year ago at the rate of 1000 per . The
cost of plot is increases by 5% in every 6 years and the worth of a rupee falls down at a rate of 2% in every 5
years. What is approximate value of land per 25 years hence?

[A] 995

[B] 1134

[C] 1500

[D] 1495

[E] 1224

Instruc on: Direc ons (09-12) Study the given informa on carefully and answer the ques on

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Q.12) In every month rajesh consume 25kg rice and 9kg wheat. The price of rice is 20% of the price of wheat
and thus he spend total Rs. 350 on the rice and wheat per month.
If the price of wheat is increased by 20% then what is percentage reduc on of rice consumma on for the
same expenditure of Rs.350. ( price of rice and consump on of wheat is constant)

[A] 36%

[B] 40%

[C] 25%

[D] 28%

[E] 38%

Instruc on: Direc ons (13-16): In each of these ques ons, two equa ons (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve
both the equa ons and give answer.

Q.13) I. x = 172 – 132 – 112

II. 4y2 – 13y + 9 = 0

[A] x > y

[B] x ≤ y

[C] x ≥ y

[D] x < y

[E] x = y or rela onship between x and y can't be established

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Instruc on: Direc ons (13-16): In each of these ques ons, two equa ons (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve
both the equa ons and give answer.

Q.14) I. (x + 22) (x – 22) = – 123

II. y2 – 43y + 462 = 0

[A] x > y

[B] x ≤ y

[C] x ≥ y

[D] x < y

[E] x = y or rela onship between x and y can't be established

Instruc on: Direc ons (13-16): In each of these ques ons, two equa ons (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve
both the equa ons and give answer.

Q.15) I. 8x2 + 30x + 27 = 0

II. 14y2 + 43y + 33 = 0

[A] x > y

[B] x ≤ y

[C] x ≥ y

[D] x < y

[E] x = y or rela onship between x and y can't be established

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Instruc on: Direc ons (13-16): In each of these ques ons, two equa ons (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve
both the equa ons and give answer.

Q.16) I. x2 – 35x + 306 = 0

II. y2 – 44y + 475 = 0

[A] x > y

[B] x ≤ y

[C] x ≥ y

[D] x < y

[E] x = y or rela onship between x and y can't be established

Instruc on: Direc ons (17-20) Study the following bar and table chart carefully and answer the ques ons given
beside

A person covers a total distance of 3000 km in 6 days, by bus, by Ola, and by Uber.

Study the pie chart and bar graph to answer these ques ons.

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Percentage distance travelled by three different in 6 days

Q.17) What is the total distance covered by Bus?

[A] 814.9 km

[B] 812.3 km

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[C] 813.3 km

[D] 821.23 km

[E] None of these

Instruc on: Direc ons (17-20) Study the following bar and table chart carefully and answer the ques ons given
beside

A person covers a total distance of 3000 km in 6 days, by bus, by Ola, and by Uber.

Study the pie chart and bar graph to answer these ques ons.

Percentage distance travelled by three different in 6 days

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Q.18) If everywhere Ola maintains an average speed of 40 km per hour then what is the total me (In hour) in
six days spent on Ola? (approximately)

[A] 24

[B] 25

[C] 26

[D] 27

[E] 28

Instruc on: Direc ons (17-20) Study the following bar and table chart carefully and answer the ques ons given
beside

A person covers a total distance of 3000 km in 6 days, by bus, by Ola, and by Uber.

Study the pie chart and bar graph to answer these ques ons.

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Percentage distance travelled by three different in 6 days

Q.19) Find the respec ve ra o of the distance travelled by Bus, Ola, and Uber

[A] 2711 : 3614 : 3675

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[B] 8133 : 10837 : 11020

[C] 2713 : 3612 : 3675

[D] 2717 : 3614 : 3681

[E] None of these

Instruc on: Direc ons (17-20) Study the following bar and table chart carefully and answer the ques ons given
beside

A person covers a total distance of 3000 km in 6 days, by bus, by Ola, and by Uber.

Study the pie chart and bar graph to answer these ques ons.

Percentage distance travelled by three different in 6 days

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Q.20) Suppose, Instead of Bus, the person uses Ola and the speed of Ola is 25% more than the speed of bus
then approximately how many hours the person would save? (The average speed of bus is 30 km per hour)

[A] 6.8 hr

[B] 7.2 hr

[C] 4.6 hr

[D] 5.4 hr

[E] 4.8 hr

Instruc on: Direc ons (21-23): Each ques on below is followed by two statements I and II. You have to determine
whether the data given in the statement is sufficient for answering the ques on. You should use the data and your
knowledge of mathema cs to choose the best possible answer

Q.21) A shopkeeper sold two items of same marked price of Rs. 1500 at a profit of 20% and 25% respec vely.
Find the selling price of item B.

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Statement I : The discount offered by the shopkeeper for item A is 20% and the ra o of the cost price of item
A to the cost price of item B is 10: 11 respec vely

Statement II : The selling price of item A and selling price of item B are in the ra o of 48: 55, respec vely

[A] The data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the ques on, while the data in statement II alone is
not sufficient to answer the ques on.

[B] The data in statements II alone is sufficient to answer the ques on, while the data in statement I alone is
not sufficient to answer the ques on.

[C] Either Statement I or Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the ques on.

[D] The data in both the statements I and II is not sufficient to answer the ques on.

[E] The data in both the statements I and II together is necessary to answer the ques on

Instruc on: Direc ons (21-23): Each ques on below is followed by two statements I and II. You have to determine
whether the data given in the statement is sufficient for answering the ques on. You should use the data and your
knowledge of mathema cs to choose the best possible answer

Q.22) Ram invested a sum of Rs. 80, 000 in scheme A offering simple interest. What is the interest earned by
him a er 2 years?

Statement I : If Rajan had invested the same money for same me at the same rate of interest but
compounded annually, he would have gained Rs. 1800 more

Statement II : Scheme B offers an interest rate of 10%, compounded annually. If Rajan had invested the money
par ally in Scheme A and rest in scheme B, then the interest earned by him a er 2 years will be Rs. 15600

[A] The data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the ques on, while the data in statement II alone is
not sufficient to answer the ques on.

[B] The data in statements II alone is sufficient to answer the ques on, while the data in statement I alone is
not sufficient to answer the ques on.

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[C] Either Statement I or Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the ques on.

[D] The data in both the statements I and II is not sufficient to answer the ques on.

[E] The data in both the statements I and II together is necessary to answer the ques on

Instruc on: Direc ons (21-23): Each ques on below is followed by two statements I and II. You have to determine
whether the data given in the statement is sufficient for answering the ques on. You should use the data and your
knowledge of mathema cs to choose the best possible answer

Q.23) A man mixes 20 litres of water in a mixture P of milk and water such that the ra o of milk and water
becomes equal in the mixture P. Another mixture Q, contains milk and water in the ra o 2 : 1 respec vely.
Now, if 25% of mixture P is added into mixture Q, then find the quan ty of milk in the resultant mixture Q

Statement I : Ini ally the ra o of water to milk in the mixture P was 3 : 8, respec vely and the quan ty of milk
in mixture Q ini ally was 15 litres more than the quan ty of water in mixture Q ini ally

Statement II : Ini ally the ra o of water to milk in the mixture P is 3 : 8, respec vely and the ra o of milk to
water in the mixture Q is 38 : 23, respec vely, a er adding 25% mixture of P.

[A] The data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the ques on, while the data in statement II alone is
not sufficient to answer the ques on.

[B] The data in statements II alone is sufficient to answer the ques on, while the data in statement I alone is
not sufficient to answer the ques on.

[C] Either Statement I or Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the ques on.

[D] The data in both the statements I and II is not sufficient to answer the ques on.

[E] The data in both the statements I and II together is necessary to answer the ques on

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Instruc on: Direc ons (24-26) In these ques on a number series is given. Only one number is wrong which
doesn’t fit in the series. Find out the wrong number.

Q.24) 7 16 73 500 5488 71314

[A] 5488

[B] 73

[C] 500

[D] 16

[E] 71314

Instruc on: Direc ons (24-26) In these ques on a number series is given. Only one number is wrong which
doesn’t fit in the series. Find out the wrong number.

Q.25) 9 20 52 100 159 226

[A] 52

[B] 100

[C] 20

[D] 226

[E] 159

Instruc on: Direc ons (24-26) In these ques on a number series is given. Only one number is wrong which
doesn’t fit in the series. Find out the wrong number.

Q.26) 1.21 2.69 4.25 5.98 7.61 9.41

[A] 2.69

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[B] 7.61

[C] 4.25

[D] 9.41

[E] 5.98

Instruc on: Direc ons (27-30) Study the given informa on carefully and answer the ques on

Q.27) Raju had to divide 1080 by N, a two-digit number. Instead, he performed the division using M, which is
obtained by reversing the digits of N, and ended up with a quo ent that was 25 less than what he should have
obtained otherwise. If 1080 is exactly divisible both by

N and M, fi nd the sum of the digits of N.

[A] 6

[B] 8
[C] 9

[D] 4

[E] 5

Instruc on: Direc ons (27-30) Study the given informa on carefully and answer the ques on

Q.28) Rakesh and Siddharth row on a river simultaneously from the same point. Rakesh rows downstream and
Siddharth rows upstream. In 15 min, they are 2.25km apart.Rakesh then turns to follow Siddharth and a er 30
min from the beginning, the boats have rowed
together 3.5km. If the speeds of Rakesh and Siddharth and the stream are constant at how many km/hour
does the stream flow?

[A] 3km

[B] 2.5km

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[C] 2km

[D] 5km

[E] 6km

Instruc on: Direc ons (27-30) Study the given informa on carefully and answer the ques on

Q.29) There are 300 coins, each coin having radius 2cm and height 1cm. The coins are so kept that each coin
touches the other two. The base has three coins and the figure is built upon this base. Find the volume of the
region enclosed by the coins.

[A] 600 ( 2

[B] 400 ( 2

[C] 100 ( 2

[D] 200 ( 2

[E] none of these

Instruc on: Direc ons (27-30) Study the given informa on carefully and answer the ques on

Q.30) The probabili es that a student passes in Mathema cs, Physics, and Chemistry are m, p, and c,
respec vely. Of these subjects, a student has a 75% chance of passing in at least one, a 50% chance of passing
in at least two, and a 40% chance of passing in exactly two subjects. Which of the following rela ons are true?

[A] p + m + c =

[B] p + m + c =

[C] pmc =

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[D] pmc =

[E] None of these

Reasoning
Instruction: Directions (Q. 1 – 3): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

An input-output is given in different steps. Some mathematical operations are done in each step. No mathematical
operation is repeated in the next step.
4 2 1 3 3 5 3 1 5 8 2 3

4 6 8 15 9 10

Step 1.

1 9 33

Step 2.

5 3

Step 3.

Step 4.

As per the rules followed in the steps given above, find out in following question the appropriate step for the given
input. Note that you may also get fractional values in the boxes.
5 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 4 6 3 2

Q.1) Find the product of the two numbers obtained in Step 3.

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[A] 16

[B] 14

[C] 11

[D] 18

[E] 20

Instruction: Directions (Q. 1 – 3): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

An input-output is given in different steps. Some mathematical operations are done in each step. No mathematical
operation is repeated in the next step.
4 2 1 3 3 5 3 1 5 8 2 3

4 6 8 15 9 10

Step 1.

1 9 33

Step 2.

5 3

Step 3.

Step 4.

As per the rules followed in the steps given above, find out in following question the appropriate step for the given
input. Note that you may also get fractional values in the boxes.
5 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 4 6 3 2

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Q.2) Find the difference between the sum of the numbers obtained in Step 1 and the sum of the numbers obtained in all
others steps.

[A] 18

[B] 15

[C] 21

[D] 19

[E] 13

Instruction: Directions (Q. 1 – 3): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

An input-output is given in different steps. Some mathematical operations are done in each step. No mathematical
operation is repeated in the next step.
4 2 1 3 3 5 3 1 5 8 2 3

4 6 8 15 9 10

Step 1.

1 9 33

Step 2.

5 3

Step 3.

Step 4.

As per the rules followed in the steps given above, find out in following question the appropriate step for the given
input. Note that you may also get fractional values in the boxes.
5 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 4 6 3 2

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Q.3) Find the sum of the digits obtained in Step 2.

[A] 27

[B] 16

[C] 17

[D] 24

[E] 12

Instruction: Directions (Q. 4 – 6): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

‘%’ means either hour hand or minutes hand at 7.

‘@’ means either hour hand or minutes hand at 5.

‘$’ means either hour hand or minutes hand at 9.

‘&’ means either hour hand or minutes hand at 4.

‘θ’ means either hour hand or minutes hand at 8.

Note: If two symbols are given then take first symbol as hour hand and second symbol as minute hand and all the
timings have been considered as PM. ie θ & → 8 : 20 PM

Q.4) If Arun takes 40 minutes to reach his office from his home and his office time is at ‘$@’ then at what time should
he leave his home to reach his office on the given office time?

[A] &%

[B] θ$

[C] %θ

[D] θ&

[E] None of these.

Instruction: Directions (Q. 4 – 6): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

‘%’ means either hour hand or minutes hand at 7.

‘@’ means either hour hand or minutes hand at 5.

‘$’ means either hour hand or minutes hand at 9.

‘&’ means either hour hand or minutes hand at 4.

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‘θ’ means either hour hand or minutes hand at 8.

Note: If two symbols are given then take first symbol as hour hand and second symbol as minute hand and all the
timings have been considered as PM. ie θ & → 8 : 20 PM

Q.5) If A runs towards Hajipur from Patna at a certain time and he takes 115 minutes to reach Hajipur. If he starts from
Patna at ‘@θ’ then at what time would he reach Hajipur?

[A] @$

[B] @%

[C] &θ

[D] &%

[E] %%

Instruction: Directions (Q. 4 – 6): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

‘%’ means either hour hand or minutes hand at 7.

‘@’ means either hour hand or minutes hand at 5.

‘$’ means either hour hand or minutes hand at 9.

‘&’ means either hour hand or minutes hand at 4.

‘θ’ means either hour hand or minutes hand at 8.

Note: If two symbols are given then take first symbol as hour hand and second symbol as minute hand and all the
timings have been considered as PM. ie θ & → 8 : 20 PM

Q.6) If a flight departed from an airport at ‘%$’ and it took 35 minutes to reach the destination then when would it reach
the destination?

[A] @$

[B] θ%

[C] θ&

[D] θ@

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (Q. 7 – 11): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

P & Q – P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q

P@Q – P is neither greater than nor equal to Q

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P*Q – P is not smaller than Q

P$Q – P is not greater than Q

P%Q – P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.

Q.7) Statements: – A*B, B$C, C%D, D&E

Conclusions: – 1) A&C 2) D&B

[A] Only conclusion 1 follows

[B] Only conclusion 2 follows

[C] Either 1 or 2 follow

[D] Both follow

[E] Neither conclusion 1 nor 2 follow

Instruction: Directions (Q. 7 – 11): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

P & Q – P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q

P@Q – P is neither greater than nor equal to Q

P*Q – P is not smaller than Q

P$Q – P is not greater than Q

P%Q – P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.

Q.8) Statements: – A@B, B$C, C*D, D%E

Conclusions: – 1) A&D 2) C&A

[A] Only conclusion 1 follows

[B] Only conclusion 2 follows

[C] Either 1 or 2 follow

[D] Both follow

[E] Neither conclusion 1 nor 2 follow

Instruction: Directions (Q. 7 – 11): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

P & Q – P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q

P@Q – P is neither greater than nor equal to Q

P*Q – P is not smaller than Q

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P$Q – P is not greater than Q

P%Q – P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.

Q.9) Statements: – A%B, B*C, C@D, D&E

Conclusions: – 1) C*A 2) B@E

[A] Only conclusion 1 follows

[B] Only conclusion 2 follows

[C] Either 1 or 2 follow

[D] Both follow

[E] Neither conclusion 1 nor 2 follow

Instruction: Directions (Q. 7 – 11): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

P & Q – P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q

P@Q – P is neither greater than nor equal to Q

P*Q – P is not smaller than Q

P$Q – P is not greater than Q

P%Q – P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.

Q.10) Statements: – M*N, N%O, O%A, A&B

Conclusions: – 1) M&B 2) N$A

[A] Only conclusion 1 follows

[B] Only conclusion 2 follows

[C] Either 1 or 2 follow

[D] Both follow

[E] Neither conclusion 1 nor 2 follow

Instruction: Directions (Q. 7 – 11): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

P & Q – P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q

P@Q – P is neither greater than nor equal to Q

P*Q – P is not smaller than Q

P$Q – P is not greater than Q

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P%Q – P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.

Q.11) Statements: – A@B, B%C, C*D, D%E

Conclusions: – 1) A&E 2) B*D

[A] Only conclusion 1 follows

[B] Only conclusion 2 follows

[C] Either 1 or 2 follow

[D] Both follow

[E] Neither conclusion 1 nor 2 follow

Instruction: Directions (Q. 12 – 15): The questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Read the question and both the statements and give answer

Q.12) Among six friends R, S, T, U, V and W, who gets the second highest marks?

I. W gets more marks then T and V but not as much as S. U gets more marks then V and R but less than S. R gets
the lowest marks whereas the marks of U and W are the same.

II. V gets more marks than R and less than T. U gets more marks than T and V but less than S.

[A] If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not
sufficient to answer the question.

[B] If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not
sufficient to answer the question.

[C] If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

[D] If the data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

[E] If the data in the both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Instruction: Directions (Q. 12 – 15): The questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Read the question and both the statements and give answer

Q.13) In a family of eight members comprising A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, how is C related to F?

I. B is father-in-law of A, who is married to E. H is a grandson of F, who is mother of C. A is sister-in-law of D.

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II. G is granddaughter of F, who is married to B. D is daughter of B, who is grandfather of H. E is father of H. E and

A are a married couple and H is the niece of D, who is sister of C.

[A] If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not
sufficient to answer the question.

[B] If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not
sufficient to answer the question.

[C] If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

[D] If the data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

[E] If the data in the both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Instruction: Directions (Q. 12 – 15): The questions below consist of a question and two statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Read the question and both the statements and give answer

Q.14) if seven person D, E, F, G, H, I and J have smartphones of different brands, viz Nokia, Samsung, Oppo, Lenovo,
Apple, Moto and Micromax but not necessarily in the same order, then H has smartphone of which brand?

I. F has Lenovo while Nokia belongs to J. Neither D nor H has Apple. I has Oppo while neither Moto nor Micromax
belongs to D. G does not have Samsung and E has Moto.

II. F has Lenovo while Nokia belongs to J. G has Apple while E and H do not have Moto. D has Micromax while I
and H do not have Oppo.

[A] If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not
sufficient to answer the question.

[B] If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not
sufficient to answer the question.

[C] If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

[D] If the data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

[E] If the data in the both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Instruction: Directions (Q. 12 – 15): The questions below consist of a question and two statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Read the question and both the statements and give answer

Q.15) E is in which direction with respect to D?

I. A is to the east of B, who is to the south of C. D is to the southwest of C and E is to the east of C.

II. A is to the east of B, who is to the north of C. D is to the west of C and E is to the north of A.
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[A] If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not
sufficient to answer the question.

[B] If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not
sufficient to answer the question.

[C] If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

[D] If the data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

[E] If the data in the both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Instruction: Directions (Q. 16 – 19): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

Ten persons Rajan, Amit, Ravi, Manish, Pankaj, Sudhir, Praveen, Sumit, Gaurav and Ashish are sitting in two parallel
rows having five persons in each row in such a way that there is an equal distance between the adjacent persons. The
persons sitting in Row 1 are facing south and the persons sitting in Row 2 are facing north. Each of them has a different
hobby, viz Reading, Netsurfing, Cycling, Acting, Dancing, Cooking, Painting, Shopping, Swimming and Walking but
not necessarily in the same order.

Only one person sits between Amit and the one whose hobby is Swimming. Ashish faces the one who sits third to the
left of the one whose hobby is Reading. Walking is not Ravi’s hobby. Rajan faces Manish’s neighbour. Only two
persons sit between Praveen and the one whose hobby is Reading. Only two persons are sitting between Rajan and
Sumit. Ravi faces the one whose hobby is Cooking. The one whose hobby is Netsurfing sits second to the left of the one
whose hobby is cooking. Manish faces south and he is opposite the one who sits third to the left of the one whose hobby
is Dancing. The one whose hobby is Shopping faces Pankaj. The one whose hobby is Painting is sitting to the
immediate right of Gaurav. Amit’s neighbour faces Praveen. The one who faces the person whose hobby is Swimming
sits third to the right of the one whose hobby is Cycling.

Q.16) Which of the following statements is true?

[A] Amit faces the one whose hobby is Painting.

[B] Only three persons sit between Ravi and the one whose hobby is Shopping.

[C] Sudhir faces north and his hobby is Swimming.

[D] Gaurav faces the one who is second to the left of Ashish.

[E] None is true.

Instruction: Directions (Q. 16 – 19): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

Ten persons Rajan, Amit, Ravi, Manish, Pankaj, Sudhir, Praveen, Sumit, Gaurav and Ashish are sitting in two parallel
rows having five persons in each row in such a way that there is an equal distance between the adjacent persons. The
persons sitting in row 1 are facing south and the persons sitting in row 2 are facing north. Each of them has a different
hobby, viz Reading, Netsurfing, Cycling, Acting, Dancing, Cooking, Painting, Shopping, Swimming and Walking but
not necessarily in the same order.

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Only one person sits between Amit and the one whose hobby is Swimming. Ashish faces the one who sits third to the
left of the one whose hobby is Reading. Walking is not Ravi’s hobby. Rajan faces Manish’s neighbour. Only two
persons sit between Praveen and the one whose hobby is Reading. Only two persons are sitting between Rajan and
Sumit. Ravi faces the one whose hobby is Cooking. The one whose hobby is Netsurfing sits second to the left of the one
whose hobby is cooking. Manish faces south and he is opposite the one who sits third to the left of the one whose hobby
is Dancing. The one whose hobby is Shopping faces Pankaj. The one whose hobby is Painting is sitting to the
immediate right of Gaurav. Amit’s neighbour faces Praveen. The one who faces the person whose hobby is Swimming
sits third to the right of the one whose hobby is Cycling.

Q.17) Who among the following sit at the extreme ends of the rows?

[A] Manish, Ashish, Sumit, Sudhir

[B] Ravi, Sumit, Sudhir, Manish

[C] Rajan, Ravi, Praveen, Pankaj

[D] Praveen, Amit, Sumit, Pankaj

[E] Sudhir, Sumit, Pankaj, Ravi

Instruction: Directions (Q. 16 – 19): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

Ten persons Rajan, Amit, Ravi, Manish, Pankaj, Sudhir, Praveen, Sumit, Gaurav and Ashish are sitting in two parallel
rows having five persons in each row in such a way that there is an equal distance between the adjacent persons. The
persons sitting in row 1 are facing south and the persons sitting in row 2 are facing north. Each of them has a different
hobby, viz Reading, Netsurfing, Cycling, Acting, Dancing, Cooking, Painting, Shopping, Swimming and Walking but
not necessarily in the same order.

Only one person sits between Amit and the one whose hobby is Swimming. Ashish faces the one who sits third to the
left of the one whose hobby is Reading. Walking is not Ravi’s hobby. Rajan faces Manish’s neighbour. Only two
persons sit between Praveen and the one whose hobby is Reading. Only two persons are sitting between Rajan and
Sumit. Ravi faces the one whose hobby is Cooking. The one whose hobby is Netsurfing sits second to the left of the one
whose hobby is cooking. Manish faces south and he is opposite the one who sits third to the left of the one whose hobby
is Dancing. The one whose hobby is Shopping faces Pankaj. The one whose hobby is Painting is sitting to the
immediate right of Gaurav. Amit’s neighbour faces Praveen. The one who faces the person whose hobby is Swimming
sits third to the right of the one whose hobby is Cycling.

Q.18) How many persons sit between Rajan and the one who faces the person whose hobby is Acting?

[A] None

[B] Three

[C] Four

[D] Two

[E] One

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Instruction: Directions (Q. 16 – 19): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

Ten persons Rajan, Amit, Ravi, Manish, Pankaj, Sudhir, Praveen, Sumit, Gaurav and Ashish are sitting in two parallel
rows having five persons in each row in such a way that there is an equal distance between the adjacent persons. The
persons sitting in row 1 are facing south and the persons sitting in row 2 are facing north. Each of them has a different
hobby, viz Reading, Netsurfing, Cycling, Acting, Dancing, Cooking, Painting, Shopping, Swimming and Walking but
not necessarily in the same order.

Only one person sits between Amit and the one whose hobby is Swimming. Ashish faces the one who sits third to the
left of the one whose hobby is Reading. Walking is not Ravi’s hobby. Rajan faces Manish’s neighbour. Only two
persons sit between Praveen and the one whose hobby is Reading. Only two persons are sitting between Rajan and
Sumit. Ravi faces the one whose hobby is Cooking. The one whose hobby is Netsurfing sits second to the left of the one
whose hobby is cooking. Manish faces south and he is opposite the one who sits third to the left of the one whose hobby
is Dancing. The one whose hobby is Shopping faces Pankaj. The one whose hobby is Painting is sitting to the
immediate right of Gaurav. Amit’s neighbour faces Praveen. The one who faces the person whose hobby is Swimming
sits third to the right of the one whose hobby is Cycling.

Q.19) Who among the following sits second to the left of the one whose hobby is Dancing?

[A] The one who faces the person who sits exactly between Sudhir and Ashish

[B] The one who faces the person whose hobby is Reading

[C] The one who sits on the immediate left of the person who faces Gaurav

[D] The one who sits second to the right of the person who faces Manish

[E] None of these

Instruction: Statement: Ministry of Tourism in its one of the reports revealed that due to recent social disturbances in
the country, the number of foreign tourists has decreased considerably, which resulted in a financial loss of Rs.100
crore.

Courses of Action: I. The Government should provide financial support to the tourism sector.

II. Foreign tourists should be informed that they visit the country at their risk

Q.20) Which of the actions will follow?

[A] If only conclusion I follows.

[B] If only conclusion II follows.

[C] If either I or II follows.

[D] If neither I nor II follows.

[E] If both conclusions I and II follows

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Instruction: Statement: Casualties of weather-related events have jumped significantly, according to data in the
National Health profile 2017. Increasing exposure to high heat and extreme cold took more lives in 2015 than the
previous year, claiming 52.9 per cent and 25.8 per cent more lives, respectively. The National Health Profile also
showed a worrying trend of increasing number of cases and deaths from diseases which had seen a dip in mortality.

Q.21) What course of action should be taken by the government to reduce deaths due to weather-related events?

[A] The government should come up with a better policy to deal with pollution.

[B] The government should make the people aware of how to deal with weather-related events.

[C] The people should take precautionary measures to prevents themselves from weather-related diseases.

[D] The government should set-up a committee to study the case and then frame a policy to prevent people from
weather-related diseases.

[E] None of these

Instruction: Statement: The ENAM portal, launched by the Centre in April 2016, has 45.4 lakh farmers and 417
mandis across the country registered with it. This number is disappointing, given that there are more than 13 crore
farmers in India. ENAM was envisioned as a unified national electronics agriculture market. To implement it, each
State has to first amend its APMC Act to make a provision for electronic auction as a mode of price discovery, allow a
single licence across the State and have market fees levied at a single point.

Q.22) Which of the following is the reason that ENAM portal will not be fully functional in any State?

[A] There are no scientific sorting/grading facilities or quality testing machines.

[B] Lack of internet connectivity, which impedes progress

[C] Most of the states have not enacted the necessary amendments.

[D] Lack of technical expertise at the state agricultural departments.

[E] None of these.

Instruction: Statement: The overreaching vision of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojna (PMKSY) is to ensure
access to some means of protective irrigation to all agricultural farms in the country, to produce ‘per drop more crop’,
thus bringing much desired rural prosperity. Krishi Sinchayee Yojana, with an outlay of ₹50,000 crore for a period of 5
years (2015 – 16 to 2019 – 20), is to achieve convergence of investments in irrigation at the field level.

Q.23) What will be the benefits of PMKSY of farmers?

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[A] It will encourage the farmers for farm production.

[B] It will boost farm production.

[C] It will create new water sources through minor irrigation.

[D] It will help achieve convergence of investments in irrigation at the field level.

[E] None of these.

Instruction: Statement: The rates of interest on Post Office recurring deposit accounts have been increased with effect
from 1st Oct. This has been done to attract more deposits.

Courses of Action: I. Efforts should also be made to make the public aware about this increase in the rate of interest.

II. If the deposits don’t increase in next six months, the rate of interest should be further increased.

Q.24) Which of the actions will follow?

[A] If only conclusion I follows.

[B] If only conclusion II follows.

[C] If either I or II follows.

[D] If neither I nor II follows.

[E] If both conclusions I and II follows.

Instruction: Statement: Every year, at the beginning or at the end of the Monsoon, we have some cases of
conjunctivitis, but this year, it seems to be a major epidemic, witnessed after nearly four years.

Courses of Action: I. Precautionary measures should be taken after every four years to check the epidemic.

II. People should be advised to drink boiled water during the Monsoon season

Q.25) Which of the actions will follow?

[A] If only conclusion I follows.

[B] If only conclusion II follows.

[C] If either I or II follows.

[D] If neither I nor II follows.

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[E] If both conclusions I and II follows

Instruction: Statement: After lowering the Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) charges, the State Bank of India (SBI)
reduced charges for National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) and Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) transactions
up to 75 percent. The reduced charges will be applicable on the transactions done through internet banking and mobile
banking services offered by the bank.

Q.26) Which of the following can be concluded from the given information?

[A] Banks are increasingly pushing for digital banking.

[B] Digital banking has become more popular than branch banking.

[C] Public sector banks are yet lagging behind private banks in terms of digital banking.

[D] The Government has made it compulsory for banks to promote digital banking.

[E] Banks are going for environment – friendly paperless banking.

Instruction: Statement: Although the India economy is still heavily dependent on agriculture, its share in global
agricultural trade is less than the share of agricultural exports to total exports.

Courses of Action: I. Efforts should be made to increase our agricultural production.

II. The exports of non-agricultural commodities should be reduced.

Q.27) Which of the actions will follow?

[A] If only conclusion I follows.

[B] If only conclusion II follows.

[C] If either I or II follows.

[D] If neither I nor II follows.

[E] If both conclusions I and II follows

Instruction: Directions (Q. 28 – 32): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A, B, C, D, E and F are six persons who have joined 6 different banks OBC Bank, Punjab National Bank, Bank of
Maharashtra, Bank of India, Bank of Baroda, and State Bank of India by scoring different marks in the written exam of
a maximum of 200 marks. (marks are an integer value) They all are sitting around a circle facing the centre with equal
distance. C is second to the right of the person who joined Bank of Baroda whose score is 169 marks which were the

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third lowest marks out of the 6 students. A is immediate to the left of the person who is opposite to the person who
joined State Bank of India, who is not near to F. B scored the 2nd highest marks and did not join Bank of India but is
2nd to the left of the person, who scored 174 marks. D is seated opposite to one who joined Bank of India. D is not near
to B. E has not scored the lowest marks. C is immediate to the left of the one who joined State Bank of India and C
scored 170 marks. The person who joined Punjab National Bank is second to the left of the one who scored 172 marks.
The person who joined OBC did not score the highest marks. One of the six students scored which was a prime number.
The lowest scored mark is 164.

Q.28) Who amongst the following is from OBC?

[A] D.

[B] E.

[C] C.

[D] A.

[E] B.

Instruction: Directions (Q. 28 – 32): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A, B, C, D, E and F are six persons who have joined 6 different banks OBC Bank, Punjab National Bank, Bank of
Maharashtra, Bank of India, Bank of Baroda, and State Bank of India by scoring different marks in the written exam of
a maximum of 200 marks. (marks are an integer value) They all are sitting around a circle facing the centre with equal
distance. C is second to the right of the person who joined Bank of Baroda whose score is 169 marks which were the
third lowest marks out of the 6 students. A is immediate to the left of the person who is opposite to the person who
joined State Bank of India, who is not near to F. B scored the 2nd highest marks and did not join Bank of India but is
2nd to the left of the person, who scored 174 marks. D is seated opposite to one who joined Bank of India. D is not near
to B. E has not scored the lowest marks. C is immediate to the left of the one who joined State Bank of India and C
scored 170 marks. The person who joined Punjab National Bank is second to the left of the one who scored 172 marks.
The person who joined OBC did not score the highest marks. One of the six students scored which was a prime number.
The lowest scored mark is 164.

Q.29) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement

and thus form a group, who is the one that does not belong to that group?

[A] A

[B] B

[C] C

[D] D

[E] E

Instruction: Directions (Q. 28 – 32): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A, B, C, D, E and F are six persons who have joined 6 different banks OBC Bank, Punjab National Bank, Bank of
Maharashtra, Bank of India, Bank of Baroda, and State Bank of India by scoring different marks in the written exam of
a maximum of 200 marks. (marks are an integer value) They all are sitting around a circle facing the centre with equal
distance. C is second to the right of the person who joined Bank of Baroda whose score is 169 marks which were the

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third lowest marks out of the 6 students. A is immediate to the left of the person who is opposite to the person who
joined State Bank of India, who is not near to F. B scored the 2nd highest marks and did not join Bank of India but is
2nd to the left of the person, who scored 174 marks. D is seated opposite to one who joined Bank of India. D is not near
to B. E has not scored the lowest marks. C is immediate to the left of the one who joined State Bank of India and C
scored 170 marks. The person who joined Punjab National Bank is second to the left of the one who scored 172 marks.
The person who joined OBC did not score the highest marks. One of the six students scored which was a prime number.
The lowest scored mark is 164.

Q.30) Who is seated between D and the person from Bank of Baroda?

[A] E

[B] A

[C] C

[D] None

[E] The person from Bank of Maharashtra

Instruction: Directions (Q. 28 – 32): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A, B, C, D, E and F are six persons who have joined 6 different banks OBC Bank, Punjab National Bank, Bank of
Maharashtra, Bank of India, Bank of Baroda, and State Bank of India by scoring different marks in the written exam of
a maximum of 200 marks. (marks are an integer value) They all are sitting around a circle facing the centre with equal
distance. C is second to the right of the person who joined Bank of Baroda whose score is 169 marks which were the
third lowest marks out of the 6 students. A is immediate to the left of the person who is opposite to the person who
joined State Bank of India, who is not near to F. B scored the 2nd highest marks and did not join Bank of India but is
2nd to the left of the person, who scored 174 marks. D is seated opposite to one who joined Bank of India. D is not near
to B. E has not scored the lowest marks. C is immediate to the left of the one who joined State Bank of India and C
scored 170 marks. The person who joined Punjab National Bank is second to the left of the one who scored 172 marks.
The person who joined OBC did not score the highest marks. One of the six students scored which was a prime number.
The lowest scored mark is 164.

Q.31) Which of the following is true regarding the given information?

[A] F is from Bank of Baroda and seated immediate right of the person who is opposite to the person who joined bank
of Maharashtra .

[B] A is from Punjab National Bank and scored 174 marks and is opposite to C.

[C] E is from OBC and is to the immediate right of B.

[D] C scored 170 marks and is opposite to one who joined Bank of Maharashtra.

[E] The person from Bank of Maharashtra is seated opposite to one who scored 164 marks.

Instruction: Directions (Q. 28 – 32): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A, B, C, D, E and F are six persons who have joined 6 different banks OBC Bank, Punjab National Bank, Bank of
Maharashtra, Bank of India, Bank of Baroda, and State Bank of India by scoring different marks in the written exam of
a maximum of 200 marks. (marks are an integer value) They all are sitting around a circle facing the centre with equal
distance. C is second to the right of the person who joined Bank of Baroda whose score is 169 marks which were the
third lowest marks out of the 6 students. A is immediate to the left of the person who is opposite to the person who
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joined State Bank of India, who is not near to F. B scored the 2nd highest marks and did not join Bank of India but is
2nd to the left of the person, who scored 174 marks. D is seated opposite to one who joined Bank of India. D is not near
to B. E has not scored the lowest marks. C is immediate to the left of the one who joined State Bank of India and C
scored 170 marks. The person who joined Punjab National Bank is second to the left of the one who scored 172 marks.
The person who joined OBC did not score the highest marks. One of the six students scored which was a prime number.
The lowest scored mark is 164.

Q.32) Which of the following order of marks in descending order is true?

[A] A > B > C > D > E > F

[B] A > B > C > F > E > D

[C] A > B > E > C > F > D

[D] A > B > C > E > F > D

[E] A > B > C > D > F > E

Instruction: Statement: India, whose Internet user base is the second largest after China, will remain the fastest
growing market, according to ‘The Future of Internet in India’ report by Nasscom and Akamai Technologies. The report
said that 75 percent of new Internet users in India will come from rural areas.

Q.33) Which of the following can be concluded from the above information?

[A] Indians like digitisation.

[B] Literacy rate of rural areas will increase continuously.

[C] People would like to share their thoughts only through social networking sites.

[D] Businesses will focus on increasing their online presence.

[E] None of these.

Instruction: Statement: Standard Chartered Bank has launched a ‘Multicurrency Forex Card’ that offers customers the
convenience of loading up to 20 widely used currencies on one card. The card comes with an online reload facility
during overseas travel and is designed to offer travellers a secure way to carry money when travelling abroad.

Q.34) Which of the following will be the benefit of the above ‘Multicurrency Forex Card’ launched by Standard
Chartered Bank?

[A] Mishappening during currency exchange will reduce.

[B] There will be secured currency exchange.

[C] People can exchange their currencies in a short span of time.

[D] It will provide insurance cover against misuse of lost card.

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[E] All the above.

Instruction: Statement: Human-induced climate change has the power to cause a significant rise in sea levels over the
next 100 years, a scientist from the intergovernmental Penel on Climate Change (IPCC) said. Valerie Masson-Demotte,
co-chair of IPCC Working Group I, said at the Australian National University (ANU) that human influence on the
climate has contributed to changes in the warming of the Greenland ice sheet, something which is affective sea levels
the world over.

Q.35) Which of the following can be inferred from the given information?

[A] Due to human actions, many islands will submerge in future.

[B] In coming years there will be no scarcity of fishes and other seafood.

[C] Water transport is set to get a boost with the rising sea level.

[D] Humans will be forced to find alternative inhabitations in the next 100 years.

[E] None of these

Instruction: Statement: In an unprecedented move the US-headquartered McDonald’s that operates the fast food chain
in north and east India has decided to shut down 43 out of 55 restaurants in Delhi.

Q.36) Which of the following will be a valid reason for the closure of outlets in Delhi?

[A] The fast food chain was not generating enough revenue to cater to the growing expanse in the city.

[B] Food quality served in the outlet was up to mark and had good feedback from the customers.

[C] Burger and Pizza being served in the outlets was quite famous in the city.

[D] Many of the employees will become jobless in the country after the closure of the restaurants.

[E] People were facing several health issues due to eating of fast food in the city.

Instruction: Directions (Q. 37 – 41): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight kids sitting around a circular table. Four of them are facing away from the centre
and four of them are facing towards the centre. Each of them like different candies Hajmola, Poppins, Kismi, Satmola,
AamPachan, Rochak, Pan pasand and Chatmola. All of them are holding a different colour balloon viz. White, Blue,
Orange, Pink, Green, Purple, Yellow and Red but not necessarily in the same order. E faces towards the centre and
holds White balloon. Both the immediate neighbours of E face away from the centre and are holding either Orange or
Pink balloon. D faces away from the centre and his favourite candy is Hajmola. Both the immediate neighbours of D do
not face away from the centre. E sits third to the right of F, who has a Green balloon and faces away from the centre. C
sits third to the left of F. The one who has an Orange balloon sits opposite to F. The one who has Blue balloon is not the
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immediate neighbour of F and faces away from the centre. A sits second to the left of C and he have neither Yellow nor
Red balloon. The one who has a Yellow balloon sits between H and F. B faces away from the centre, likes Poppins and
does not have a Blue balloon. E’s favourite candy is Pan pasand. The person who likes Satmola sits opposite to D. The
person having Purple balloon likes kismi. The person who likes Chatmola is not near to G or E. C faces the person who
likes Rochak.

Q.37) Which one of the following is related to Purple?

[A] E

[B] F

[C] B

[D] D

[E] A

Instruction: Directions (Q. 37 – 41): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight kids sitting around a circular table. Four of them are facing away from the centre
and four of them are facing towards the centre. Each of them like different candies Hajmola, Poppins, Kismi, Satmola,
AamPachan, Rochak, Pan pasand and Chatmola. All of them are holding a different colour balloon viz. White, Blue,
Orange, Pink, Green, Purple, Yellow and Red but not necessarily in the same order. E faces towards the centre and
holds White balloon. Both the immediate neighbours of E face away from the centre and are holding either Orange or
Pink balloon. D faces away from the centre and his favourite candy is Hajmola. Both the immediate neighbours of D do
not face away from the centre. E sits third to the right of F, who has a Green balloon and faces away from the centre. C
sits third to the left of F. The one who has an Orange balloon sits opposite to F. The one who has Blue balloon is not the
immediate neighbour of F and faces away from the centre. A sits second to the left of C and he have neither Yellow nor
Red balloon. The one who has a Yellow balloon sits between H and F. B faces away from the centre, likes Poppins and
does not have a Blue balloon. E’s favourite candy is Pan pasand. The person who likes Satmola sits opposite to D. The
person having Purple balloon likes kismi. The person who likes Chatmola is not near to G or E. C faces the person who
likes Rochak.

Q.38) Which one of the following related to Orange?

[A] B

[B] H

[C] F

[D] D

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (Q. 37 – 41): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight kids sitting around a circular table. Four of them are facing away from the centre
and four of them are facing towards the centre. Each of them like different candies Hajmola, Poppins, Kismi, Satmola,
AamPachan, Rochak, Pan pasand and Chatmola. All of them are holding a different colour balloon viz. White, Blue,
Orange, Pink, Green, Purple, Yellow and Red but not necessarily in the same order. E faces towards the centre and
holds White balloon. Both the immediate neighbours of E face away from the centre and are holding either Orange or
Pink balloon. D faces away from the centre and his favourite candy is Hajmola. Both the immediate neighbours of D do
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not face away from the centre. E sits third to the right of F, who has a Green balloon and faces away from the centre. C
sits third to the left of F. The one who has an Orange balloon sits opposite to F. The one who has Blue balloon is not the
immediate neighbour of F and faces away from the centre. A sits second to the left of C and he have neither Yellow nor
Red balloon. The one who has a Yellow balloon sits between H and F. B faces away from the centre, likes Poppins and
does not have a Blue balloon. E’s favourite candy is Pan pasand. The person who likes Satmola sits opposite to D. The
person having Purple balloon likes kismi. The person who likes Chatmola is not near to G or E. C faces the person who
likes Rochak.

Q.39) How many persons are there between the one who related to Pink and the one who related to

Orange when counted in anticlockwise direction from the person who related to Pink?

[A] 4

[B] 2

[C] 3

[D] CND

[E] None

Instruction: Directions (Q. 37 – 41): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight kids sitting around a circular table. Four of them are facing away from the centre
and four of them are facing towards the centre. Each of them like different candies Hajmola, Poppins, Kismi, Satmola,
AamPachan, Rochak, Pan pasand and Chatmola. All of them are holding a different colour balloon viz. White, Blue,
Orange, Pink, Green, Purple, Yellow and Red but not necessarily in the same order. E faces towards the centre and
holds White balloon. Both the immediate neighbours of E face away from the centre and are holding either Orange or
Pink balloon. D faces away from the centre and his favourite candy is Hajmola. Both the immediate neighbours of D do
not face away from the centre. E sits third to the right of F, who has a Green balloon and faces away from the centre. C
sits third to the left of F. The one who has an Orange balloon sits opposite to F. The one who has Blue balloon is not the
immediate neighbour of F and faces away from the centre. A sits second to the left of C and he have neither Yellow nor
Red balloon. The one who has a Yellow balloon sits between H and F. B faces away from the centre, likes Poppins and
does not have a Blue balloon. E’s favourite candy is Pan pasand. The person who likes Satmola sits opposite to D. The
person having Purple balloon likes kismi. The person who likes Chatmola is not near to G or E. C faces the person who
likes Rochak.

Q.40) Which one of the following related to Pink?

[A] B

[B] H

[C] F

[D] D

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (Q. 37 – 41): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

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A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight kids sitting around a circular table. Four of them are facing away from the centre
and four of them are facing towards the centre. Each of them like different candies Hajmola, Poppins, Kismi, Satmola,
AamPachan, Rochak, Pan pasand and Chatmola. All of them are holding a different colour balloon viz. White, Blue,
Orange, Pink, Green, Purple, Yellow and Red but not necessarily in the same order. E faces towards the centre and
holds White balloon. Both the immediate neighbours of E face away from the centre and are holding either Orange or
Pink balloon. D faces away from the centre and his favourite candy is Hajmola. Both the immediate neighbours of D do
not face away from the centre. E sits third to the right of F, who has a Green balloon and faces away from the centre. C
sits third to the left of F. The one who has an Orange balloon sits opposite to F. The one who has Blue balloon is not the
immediate neighbour of F and faces away from the centre. A sits second to the left of C and he have neither Yellow nor
Red balloon. The one who has a Yellow balloon sits between H and F. B faces away from the centre, likes Poppins and
does not have a Blue balloon. E’s favourite candy is Pan pasand. The person who likes Satmola sits opposite to D. The
person having Purple balloon likes kismi. The person who likes Chatmola is not near to G or E. C faces the person who
likes Rochak.

Q.41) Which of the following is B’s position with respect to F?

[A] Fourth to the left

[B] Third to the right

[C] Second to the left

[D] Second to the right

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (Q. 42 – 46): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Seven Persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V live on seven different floors of a building, but not necessarily in the same order.
The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one; the one above it is number two and so on till the topmost floor is
number seven. Each of them also likes a different subject and colour i.e. subjects are- Maths, Physics, Chemistry,
Biology, Economics, Hindi, Sanskrit and colour are- Red, Pink, Blue, White, Yellow, Orange and Violet but not
necessarily in the same order. Only one person lives between the one who likes Economics and the one who likes Hindi.
S does not like Economics. V does not like Maths. The one who likes Orange live immediate above the one who likes
Economics. T lives on one of the floors below Q, but does not live on the lowermost floor. The one who lives on 7th
floor is immediate above the one, who lives immediate below the one who likes Violet. There are three persons between
Q and T. The one who likes Biology lives on one the odd numbered floors below U. P lives immediately above U and
does not like Chemistry. U does not like White and Pink. The one who likes Blue live immediate above the one who
likes Yellow. The one who likes Hindi is also likes Pink. Only one person lives between Q and the one who likes
Chemistry.

The one who likes Yellow lives below the one who likes Red. Only two persons live between V and the one who likes
Chemistry. The one who likes Physics live on one of the even-numbered floors above the one who likes Chemistry. The
one who likes Sanskrit lives immediately above V, who does not like Hindi. S lives on one of the floors above R.

Q.42) Who among following likes White colour?

[A] R

[B] The one who likes Physics

[C] The one who likes Chemistry

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[D] The one who likes Maths

[E] Q

Instruction: Directions (Q. 42 – 46): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Seven Persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V live on seven different floors of a building, but not necessarily in the same order.
The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one; the one above it is number two and so on till the topmost floor is
number seven. Each of them also likes a different subject and colour i.e. subjects are- Maths, Physics, Chemistry,
Biology, Economics, Hindi, Sanskrit and colour are- Red, Pink, Blue, White, Yellow, Orange and Violet but not
necessarily in the same order. Only one person lives between the one who likes Economics and the one who likes Hindi.
S does not like Economics. V does not like Maths. The one who likes Orange live immediate above the one who likes
Economics. T lives on one of the floors below Q, but does not live on the lowermost floor. The one who lives on 7th
floor is immediate above the one, who lives immediate below the one who likes Violet. There are three persons between
Q and T. The one who likes Biology lives on one the odd numbered floors below U. P lives immediately above U and
does not like Chemistry. U does not like White and Pink. The one who likes Blue live immediate above the one who
likes Yellow. The one who likes Hindi is also likes Pink. Only one person lives between Q and the one who likes
Chemistry.

The one who likes Yellow lives below the one who likes Red. Only two persons live between V and the one who likes
Chemistry. The one who likes Physics live on one of the even-numbered floors above the one who likes Chemistry. The
one who likes Sanskrit lives immediately above V, who does not like Hindi. S lives on one of the floors above R.

Q.43) Who lives on immediate above the one who likes Pink colour?

[A] The one who likes Chemistry

[B] Both (a) and (e)

[C] S

[D] Q

[E] The one who likes Red

Instruction: Directions (Q. 42 – 46): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Seven Persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V live on seven different floors of a building, but not necessarily in the same order.
The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one; the one above it is number two and so on till the topmost floor is
number seven. Each of them also likes a different subject and colour i.e. subjects are- Maths, Physics, Chemistry,
Biology, Economics, Hindi, Sanskrit and colour are- Red, Pink, Blue, White, Yellow, Orange and Violet but not
necessarily in the same order. Only one person lives between the one who likes Economics and the one who likes Hindi.
S does not like Economics. V does not like Maths. The one who likes Orange live immediate above the one who likes
Economics. T lives on one of the floors below Q, but does not live on the lowermost floor. The one who lives on 7th
floor is immediate above the one, who lives immediate below the one who likes Violet. There are three persons between
Q and T. The one who likes Biology lives on one the odd numbered floors below U. P lives immediately above U and
does not like Chemistry. U does not like White and Pink. The one who likes Blue live immediate above the one who
likes Yellow. The one who likes Hindi is also likes Pink. Only one person lives between Q and the one who likes
Chemistry.

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The one who likes Yellow lives below the one who likes Red. Only two persons live between V and the one who likes
Chemistry. The one who likes Physics live on one of the even-numbered floors above the one who likes Chemistry. The
one who likes Sanskrit lives immediately above V, who does not like Hindi. S lives on one of the floors above R.

Q.44) Who among following like Sanskrit subject?

[A] Q

[B] P

[C] V

[D] T

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (Q. 42 – 46): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Seven Persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V live on seven different floors of a building, but not necessarily in the same order.
The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one; the one above it is number two and so on till the topmost floor is
number seven. Each of them also likes a different subject and colour i.e. subjects are- Maths, Physics, Chemistry,
Biology, Economics, Hindi, Sanskrit and colour are- Red, Pink, Blue, White, Yellow, Orange and Violet but not
necessarily in the same order. Only one person lives between the one who likes Economics and the one who likes Hindi.
S does not like Economics. V does not like Maths. The one who likes Orange live immediate above the one who likes
Economics. T lives on one of the floors below Q, but does not live on the lowermost floor. The one who lives on 7th
floor is immediate above the one, who lives immediate below the one who likes Violet. There are three persons between
Q and T. The one who likes Biology lives on one the odd numbered floors below U. P lives immediately above U and
does not like Chemistry. U does not like White and Pink. The one who likes Blue live immediate above the one who
likes Yellow. The one who likes Hindi is also likes Pink. Only one person lives between Q and the one who likes
Chemistry.

The one who likes Yellow lives below the one who likes Red. Only two persons live between V and the one who likes
Chemistry. The one who likes Physics live on one of the even-numbered floors above the one who likes Chemistry. The
one who likes Sanskrit lives immediately above V, who does not like Hindi. S lives on one of the floors above R.

Q.45) How money persons live between the one who likes Biology and the one who likes Pink?

[A] None

[B] Three

[C] Two

[D] Can’t be determined

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (Q. 42 – 46): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Seven Persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V live on seven different floors of a building, but not necessarily in the same order.
The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one; the one above it is number two and so on till the topmost floor is
number seven. Each of them also likes a different subject and colour i.e. subjects are- Maths, Physics, Chemistry,
Biology, Economics, Hindi, Sanskrit and colour are- Red, Pink, Blue, White, Yellow, Orange and Violet but not
necessarily in the same order. Only one person lives between the one who likes Economics and the one who likes Hindi.

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S does not like Economics. V does not like Maths. The one who likes Orange live immediate above the one who likes
Economics. T lives on one of the floors below Q, but does not live on the lowermost floor. The one who lives on 7th
floor is immediate above the one, who lives immediate below the one who likes Violet. There are three persons between
Q and T. The one who likes Biology lives on one the odd numbered floors below U. P lives immediately above U and
does not like Chemistry. U does not like White and Pink. The one who likes Blue live immediate above the one who
likes Yellow. The one who likes Hindi is also likes Pink. Only one person lives between Q and the one who likes
Chemistry.

The one who likes Yellow lives below the one who likes Red. Only two persons live between V and the one who likes
Chemistry. The one who likes Physics live on one of the even-numbered floors above the one who likes Chemistry. The
one who likes Sanskrit lives immediately above V, who does not like Hindi. S lives on one of the floors above R.

Q.46) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which one

of the following does not belong to that group?

[A] The one who likes Biology

[B] The one who likes Orange

[C] The one who lives on 5th floor

[D] The one who lives on 6th floor

[E] The one who likes Maths

Instruction: Directions (Q. 47 – 49): Each question consists of two conclusions followed by five groups of statement.
Consider the given conclusions to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read the
conclusions and then decide from which group of statements the conclusions can be drawn.

Q.47) Conclusion: I. All trucks being trains is a possibility.

II. Some buses are not trains.

[A] Statement: All trucks are not trains.

No train is a car.

All cars are buses.

[B] Statement: Some trucks are trains.

No train is a bus.

No buses are cars.

[C] Statement: All trains are trucks.

No truck is a car

No cars is a bus.

[D] Statement: Some trains are buses.

No bus is a truck

All trucks are cars.

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[E] Statement: All buses are trucks.

Some cars are buses.

No truck is a train.

Instruction: Directions (Q. 47 – 49): Each question consists of two conclusions followed by five groups of statement.
Consider the given conclusions to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read the
conclusions and then decide from which group of statements the conclusions can be drawn.

Q.48) Conclusion: I. At least some bottles are glasses.

II. Some bottles being cup is a possibility.

[A] Statement: Some glasses are bottles

No bottle is a cup.

No cup is a spoon.

[B] Statement: All bottles are spoons.

No spoon is a glass.

Some glasses are cups.

[C] Statement: All cups are spoons.

No spoon is a glass.

All glasses are bottles.

[D] Statement: Some glasses are spoons.

No spoon is a bottle.

All bottles are cups.

[E] Statement: All bottles are glasses.

No glass is a cup

Some cups are spoons.

Instruction: Directions (Q. 47 – 49): Each question consists of two conclusions followed by five groups of statement.
Consider the given conclusions to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read the
conclusions and then decide from which group of statements the conclusions can be drawn.

Q.49) Conclusions: I. Some pens can be ink.

II. Some papers can never be pencils

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[A] Statement: All pencils are pens.

No pen is a paper

All inks are papers.

[B] Statement: All inks are pens.

No pen is a pencil.

Some pencils are papers.

[C] Statement: No paper is a pencil.

Some ink are pens.

All pencils are pens

[D] Statement: All inks are papers.

No pencil is a paper.

No paper is a pen.

[E] Statement: All inks are pens.

No pen is a paper.

Some papers are pencils.

Instruction: Directions (Q. 50 – 51): Each question consists of five statements followed by five conclusions. Consider
the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions definitely does not logically follow from the given
statements using all statements together and mark that conclusion as your answer.

Q.50) Statements: Only a few pink are public.

All Metro are Pink.

Only City are Metro.

Conclusion: I: All Public can never be Pink.

II: All City are Public

[A] If only conclusion I follows.

[B] If only conclusion II follows.

[C] If either conclusion I or II follows.

[D] If neither conclusion I nor II follows

[E] If both conclusions I and II follow.

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Instruction: Directions (Q. 50 – 51): Each question consists of five statements followed by five conclusions. Consider
the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions definitely does not logically follow from the given
statements using all statements together and mark that conclusion as your answer.

Q.51) Statements: Few Bro is Sis.

Only a few Wife is Son.

No Son is Sis

Conclusion: I: Some Wife being Sis is a possibility.

II: All Bro being Sis is a possibility.

[A] If only conclusion I follows.

[B] If only conclusion II follows.

[C] If either conclusion I or II follows.

[D] If neither conclusion I nor II follows

[E] If both conclusions I and II follow.

Instruction: Directions (Q. 52 – 56): Study the given information carefully and answer the given question.

There are eight members Amit, Bipu, Chetan, Dinesh, Esha, Fiza, Geeta, Hina in a family, all are seated in row and
facing to north (but not necessarily in the same order). Among them only two are married couple , there are only 3 male
members in family. Also they are of different ages i.e. 60, 55, 36, 30, 27, 18, 16, 15 (but not necessarily n the same
order).

The Sister of Chetan sits third to the left end of the row and both are immediate neighbor of each other. Amit is married
to Dinesh’s grandmother. The Brother of Geeta sits second to the left of his grandmother. Fiza is son of Amit who is the
oldest person of the family. The Age of Chetan’s motherin-law is a multiplication of 11.The Wife of Amit sits extreme
right end of the row. Geeta sits second to the right of Esha whose age in a perfect cube. Bipu is the mother of Fiza
whose age is double of the one of his daughter. Dinesh sits between her grandmother and her father’s only son. Dinesh
is sister of Geeta and Hina. Amit sits second to the left of Fiza’s sister-in-law. Geeta is the daughter of Chetan. Chetan is
the daughter-in-law of Bipu. Fiza sits immediate right of Esha. Hina is the youngest member of the family. Geeta’s
sister age is in a perfect square.

Q.52) Who among the following is the son of Esha’s brother-in-law?

[A] Hina

[B] Geeta

[C] Dinesh

[D] Cannot be determined

[E] None of these

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Instruction: Directions (Q. 52 – 56): Study the given information carefully and answer the given question.

There are eight members Amit, Bipu, Chetan, Dinesh, Esha, Fiza, Geeta, Hina in a family, all are seated in row and
facing to north (but not necessarily in the same order). Among them only two are married couple , there are only 3 male
members in family. Also they are of different ages i.e. 60, 55, 36, 30, 27, 18, 16, 15 (but not necessarily n the same
order).

The Sister of Chetan sits third to the left end of the row and both are immediate neighbor of each other. Amit is married
to Dinesh’s grandmother. The Brother of Geeta sits second to the left of his grandmother. Fiza is son of Amit who is the
oldest person of the family. The Age of Chetan’s motherin-law is a multiplication of 11.The Wife of Amit sits extreme
right end of the row. Geeta sits second to the right of Esha whose age in a perfect cube. Bipu is the mother of Fiza
whose age is double of the one of his daughter. Dinesh sits between her grandmother and her father’s only son. Dinesh
is sister of Geeta and Hina. Amit sits second to the left of Fiza’s sister-in-law. Geeta is the daughter of Chetan. Chetan is
the daughter-in-law of Bipu. Fiza sits immediate right of Esha. Hina is the youngest member of the family. Geeta’s
sister age is in a perfect square.

Q.53) What is the age of Fiza?

[A] 55

[B] 27

[C] 36

[D] Cannot be determined

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (Q. 52 – 56): Study the given information carefully and answer the given question.

There are eight members Amit, Bipu, Chetan, Dinesh, Esha, Fiza, Geeta, Hina in a family, all are seated in row and
facing to north (but not necessarily in the same order). Among them only two are married couple , there are only 3 male
members in family. Also they are of different ages i.e. 60, 55, 36, 30, 27, 18, 16, 15 (but not necessarily n the same
order).

The Sister of Chetan sits third to the left end of the row and both are immediate neighbor of each other. Amit is married
to Dinesh’s grandmother. The Brother of Geeta sits second to the left of his grandmother. Fiza is son of Amit who is the
oldest person of the family. The Age of Chetan’s motherin-law is a multiplication of 11.The Wife of Amit sits extreme
right end of the row. Geeta sits second to the right of Esha whose age in a perfect cube. Bipu is the mother of Fiza
whose age is double of the one of his daughter. Dinesh sits between her grandmother and her father’s only son. Dinesh
is sister of Geeta and Hina. Amit sits second to the left of Fiza’s sister-in-law. Geeta is the daughter of Chetan. Chetan is
the daughter-in-law of Bipu. Fiza sits immediate right of Esha. Hina is the youngest member of the family. Geeta’s
sister age is in a perfect square

Q.54) Which of the following is the combination of male members in the family?

[A] Amit, Fiza, Hina

[B] Amit, Fiza, Chetan

[C] Fiza, Hina, Geeta

[D] Hina, Amit, Chetan

[E] Cannot be determined

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Instruction: Directions (Q. 52 – 56): Study the given information carefully and answer the given question.

There are eight members Amit, Bipu, Chetan, Dinesh, Esha, Fiza, Geeta, Hina in a family, all are seated in row and
facing to north (but not necessarily in the same order). Among them only two are married couple , there are only 3 male
members in family. Also they are of different ages i.e. 60, 55, 36, 30, 27, 18, 16, 15 (but not necessarily n the same
order).

The Sister of Chetan sits third to the left end of the row and both are immediate neighbor of each other. Amit is married
to Dinesh’s grandmother. The Brother of Geeta sits second to the left of his grandmother. Fiza is son of Amit who is the
oldest person of the family. The Age of Chetan’s motherin-law is a multiplication of 11.The Wife of Amit sits extreme
right end of the row. Geeta sits second to the right of Esha whose age in a perfect cube. Bipu is the mother of Fiza
whose age is double of the one of his daughter. Dinesh sits between her grandmother and her father’s only son. Dinesh
is sister of Geeta and Hina. Amit sits second to the left of Fiza’s sister-in-law. Geeta is the daughter of Chetan. Chetan is
the daughter-in-law of Bipu. Fiza sits immediate right of Esha. Hina is the youngest member of the family. Geeta’s
sister age is in a perfect square

Q.55) Which of the following is true regarding to the seating arrangement?

[A] Dinesh is the daughter of the one whose age is 60

[B] The one whose age is 15 is brother of Geeta

[C] No one is true

[D] Esha is the wife of Fiza

[E] Fiza has two sons

Instruction: Directions (Q. 52 – 56): Study the given information carefully and answer the given question.

There are eight members Amit, Bipu, Chetan, Dinesh, Esha, Fiza, Geeta, Hina in a family, all are seated in row and
facing to north (but not necessarily in the same order). Among them only two are married couple , there are only 3 male
members in family. Also they are of different ages i.e. 60, 55, 36, 30, 27, 18, 16, 15 (but not necessarily n the same
order).

The Sister of Chetan sits third to the left end of the row and both are immediate neighbor of each other. Amit is married
to Dinesh’s grandmother. The Brother of Geeta sits second to the left of his grandmother. Fiza is son of Amit who is the
oldest person of the family. The Age of Chetan’s motherin-law is a multiplication of 11.The Wife of Amit sits extreme
right end of the row. Geeta sits second to the right of Esha whose age in a perfect cube. Bipu is the mother of Fiza
whose age is double of the one of his daughter. Dinesh sits between her grandmother and her father’s only son. Dinesh
is sister of Geeta and Hina. Amit sits second to the left of Fiza’s sister-in-law. Geeta is the daughter of Chetan. Chetan is
the daughter-in-law of Bipu. Fiza sits immediate right of Esha. Hina is the youngest member of the family. Geeta’s
sister age is in a perfect square

Q.56) Which of the following is Amit's position with respect to Esha?

[A] Second to the left

[B] Second to the right

[C] Third to the left

[D] Cannot be determined

[E] None of these

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Instruction: Directions (Q. 57 – 58): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

P × Q means Q is mother of P.

P – Q means P is daughter of Q.

P + Q means Q is brother of P.

P ÷ Q means P is husband of Q.

P * Q means Q is son of P.

Q.57) Which of the given expressions indicates that V is aunt of P?

[A] P × S − T ÷ U + V

[B] P + S × T − U + V

[C] P × S − T * U ÷ V

[D] P * S ÷ T − U + V

[E] P ÷ S + T × U * V

Instruction: Directions (Q. 57 – 58): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

P × Q means Q is mother of P.

P – Q means P is daughter of Q.

P + Q means Q is brother of P.

P ÷ Q means P is husband of Q.

P * Q means Q is son of P.

Q.58) How is E related to C in the given expression

‘A * B + C ÷ D × E’?

[A] Sister-in-law

[B] Sister

[C] Mother-in-law

[D] Can’t be determined

[E] None of these.

Instruction: Directions (Q. 59 – 60): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

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A man walks 5m towards south to reach point P. He turns to his left and walks 7m to reach point Q. Then, he turns
to his right and walks 5m to reach point R and finally he turns to his right and walks 7m to reach point S.

Q.59) What is the distance between Point S and Point Q?

[A]

[B]

[C]

[D]

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (Q. 59 – 60): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A man walks 5m towards south to reach point P. He turns to his left and walks 7m to reach point Q. Then, he turns
to his right and walks 5m to reach point R and finally he turns to his right and walks 7m to reach point S.

Q.60) In which direction is Point P with respect to Point R?

[A] South-East

[B] North-East

[C] North-West

[D] South-West

[E] East

General Awareness
Q.1) Recently (April 2020), interest rate on Public Provident Fund (PPF) has been reduced to what
percent from 7.9%?
[A] 6.5
[B] 6.9
[C] 7.1
[D] 7.5
[E] 6.3

Q.2) Prague is capital city of which one of the following countries?

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[A] Hungary
[B] Slovakia
[C] Czech Republic
[D] Romania
[E] Austria

Q.3) Recently (April 2020), Jammu and Kashmir administra on has decided to halt the annual shi ing of
capital, also known as ‘Darbar Move’. The Civil Secretariat of Jammu and Kashmir is shi ed to _____ in
summer and ______ in winter.
[A] Kargil, Srinagar
[B] Jammu, Srinagar
[C] Srinagar, Jammu
[D] Jammu, Kathua
[E] Kathua Jammu

Q.4) Which one of the following Na onal Parks has recently (April 2020) become first na onal park in
India to develop a quaran ne facility for animals?
[A] Valmiki National Park, Bihar
[B] Indravati National Park, Chhattisgarh
[C] Bannerghatta National Park, Karnataka
[D] Balphakram National Park, Meghalaya
[E] Jim Corbett National Park, Uttarakhand

Q.5) Which one of the following countries has recently (April 2020) presided the 2nd G20 Finance
Ministers and Central Bank Governors Mee ng?
[A] India
[B] USA
[C] Saudi Arabia
[D] Mexico
[E] Australia

Q.6) Recently (April 2020), UN has suspended the rotation and deployments of the peacekeepers until
30th June 2020. Who among the following is current secretary of UN?

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[A] Amjad Hussain B Sial

[B] Ban Ki Moon
[C] Antonio Guterres
[D] K. V. Kamath
[E] Lim Jock Hoi

Q.7) Recently, Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) has celebrated CRPF Valour Day. It is being celebrated
on _______ every year.
[A] 16th April
[B] 5th April
[C] 9th April
[D] 23rd April
[E] 13th April

Q.8) Sariska Tiger Reserve is situated in which of the following states?

[A] Madhya Pradesh
[B] Mizoram
[C] Odisha
[D] Rajasthan
[E] Chattisgarh

Q.9) Recently (April 2020), in collaboration with which one of the following, Fit India has launched the
first-ever live fitness session under Fit India Active Day programme?
[A] Ministry of Human Resource Development
[B] ICSE
[C] CBSE
[D] Delhi Government
[E] IGNOU

Q.10) Recently (April 2020), Union Finance Minister has a ended the 5th Annual Mee ng of Board of
Governors of New Development Bank (NDB). NDB is located in _________.
[A] Seoul, South Korea
[B] Tokyo, Japan
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[C] Shanghai, China

[D] Beijing, China
[E] Manila, Philippines

Q.11) Recently (April 2020), Laisenia Qarase has passed away. He was former Prime Minister of which
one of the following countries?
[A] Fiji
[B] Samoa
[C] Vanuatu
[D] Maldives
[E] New Zealand

Q.12) Which of the following has launched a new health insurance product “Arogya Sanjeevani”?
[A] Life Insurance Corporation of India
[B] Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
[C] New India Assurance General Insurance Company
[D] General Insurance Corporation of India
[E] None of the above

Q.13) Recently (April 2020) Union Cabinet has decided not to operate Members of Parliament Local
Area Development Scheme (MPLADS) for how many years?
[A] 1 year
[B] 2 years
[C] 3 years
[D] 4 years
[E] 5 years

Q.14) The headquarters of the International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD) is located at
which of the following places?
[A] Vienna, Austria
[B] Geneva, Switzerland
[C] Washington, USA
[D] New Delhi, India
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[E] Rome, Italy

Q.15) Recently (April 2020), which of the following robots has been developed by the Indian Institute of
Technology (IIT), Ropar, to deliver medicines and food to COVID-19 patients?
[A] SpotBot
[B] Zafi
[C] COBOT
[D] MedBot
[E] WardBot

Q.16) Recently (May 2020), the Union Minister for Rural Development and Panchayati Raj has launched
which collection on the Government e Marketplace (GeM) portal?
[A] The Saral Collection
[B] The Swarn Collection
[C] The Sober Collection
[D] The Surya Collection
[E] The Saras Collection

Q.17) Recently (May 2020), Google has launched a new feature to help female trainers to share
authoritative health advice with their networks in rural villages?
[A] Sarthi
[B] Location F
[C] Saathis
[D] Location Safe
[E] Swawlambi

Q.18) Recently (May 2020), portal named bharatemarket.in has been launched by which of the following
companies?
[A] Walmart
[B] Reliance
[C] Confederation of All India Traders
[D] Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation
[E] Indian State Traders

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Q.19) Recently (May 2020), which of the following banks has approved the ‘Emergency Assistance
Program Loan’ to India and of what amount?
[A] World Bank, $2 billion
[B] BRICS New Development Bank, $1 billion
[C] AIIB, $1.5billion
[D] UN, $1 Billion
[E] None of the above

Q.20) Recently May (2020), which of the following portal has been developed for students in association
with UNICEF to help students in choosing a right career after completing their secondary or higher
secondary education?
[A] DIKSHA portal
[B] SIKSHA portal
[C] SAMAGRA portal
[D] Manzelein portal
[E] None of the above

Q.21) Recently (May 2020), Union Human Resource Development Minister has launched a new mobile
app developed for mock tests for JEE Main, NEET 2020. What is the name of the App?
[A] Na onal Test Abhyas
[B] IIT Test Abhyas
[C] JEE Test Abhyas
[D] Rashtriya Test Abhyas
[E] Bhar ya Test Abhyas

Q.22) Recently (May 2020), the Union Cabinet has given its approval to which of the following new
Centrally Sponsored Schemes for the Unorganized Sector with an outlay of Rs.10,000 crore?
[A] Scheme for Formaliza on of MSME
[B] Scheme for Formaliza on of Micro food Enterprises
[C] Scheme for Formaliza on of Micro food processing Enterprises
[D] None of the above
[E] All of the above

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Q.23) Birsa Munda Athle c stadium is situated in _____________

[A] Ranchi
[B] Surat
[C] Dharamshala
[D] Ahmedabad
[E] None of the above

Q.24) Recently (May 2020), women of Rural Livelihood Mission in Madhya Pradesh have started a
service for rural women for the safe delivery. What is the name of the service?
[A] Women Rural Delivery Service
[B] Didi Delivery Service
[C] Women Vehicle Service
[D] Didi Vehicle Service
[E] None of these

Q.25) Recently (May 2020), who has been elected as Chairman of the Executive Board of World Health
Organization (WHO)?
[A] Dr. Hiroki Nakatani
[B] Dr. Harsh Vardhan
[C] Dr. Randeep Guleria
[D] Dr. Ajay Dixit
[E] None of these

Q.26) Which of the following payment gateway has recently (May 2020) launched a hybrid investment
product “Super Funds”?
[A] Google Pay
[B] Paytm
[C] Phone Pe
[D] Mobikwik
[E] Payzapp

Q.27) Recently (May 2020), who has been appointed as a director on the central board of Reserve Bank
of India?

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[A] Vivek Lalwani

[B] Tarun Bajaj
[C] Mahesh Sethi
[D] Atanu Chakraborty
[E] C P Mehta

Q.28) Recently, in May 2020, the government has decided to withdraw ___ % Savings (Taxable) Bonds
scheme from the close of banking business due to declining interest rates.
[A] 6.5
[B] 6.75
[C] 7.25
[D] 7.50
[E] 7.75

Q.29) Recently, in May 2020, Na onal Payment Corpora on of India (NPCI) has launched an ar ficial
intelligence (AI) based chatbot. What is the name of the Chatbot?
[A] Pai
[B] Tai
[C] Bai
[D] Rai
[E] Kai

Q.30) Recently, in May 2020, Intellect Design Arena has ed up with ____ to launch iTurmeric FinCloud
pla orm.
[A] IBM
[B] TCS
[C] Wipro
[D] Infosys
[E] Tech Mahindra

Q.31) Recently, who among the following has designed and developed a robot named “Rail Mitra”, in
June, 2020?
[A] R. Suryanarayana

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[B] S. Murthy
[C] T. M. Hanuanth
[D] R. Nidheej
[E] D. Narsimha

Q.32) Recently (June 2020), Rajinder Goel has passed away. He was associated with which one of the
following sports?
[A] Cricket
[B] Football
[C] Kabbadi
[D] Hockey
[E] Table Tennis

Q.33) Recently (June 2020), National Research Development Corporation (NRDC) has licensed five
MSMEs for the manufacturing know-how of a PPE Suit named as “________.”
[A] Panchgavyam
[B] Astadhyai
[C] Navrakshak
[D] Trivani
[E] Rakshakavach

Q.34) Recently, Union Cabinet has given its approval for declaration of Kushinagar Airport as
International Airport, in June 2020. It is located in which one of the following states?
[A] Madhya Pradesh
[B] Uttarakhand
[C] Uttar Pradesh
[D] Rajasthan
[E] None of the above

Q.35) Recently (June 2020), World’s first yoga university outside India has been launched in Los
Angeles. It is named after which one of the following?
[A] Adi Shankara
[B] Paramhansa Yogananda

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[C] Patanjali
[D] Swami Vivekanada
[E] Ramakrishna

Q.36) Which one of the following institutes has recently (June 2020) launched its own Endowment fund
to raise Rs.1000 crore over a period of five years?
[A] IIM Ranchi
[B] IIM Lucknow
[C] IIM Bangalore
[D] IIM Rohtak
[E] IIM Ahmedabad

Q.37) Which one of the following countries has recently (June 2020) successfully launched the last
satellite of its BeiDou Navigation Satellite System (BDS)?
[A] Japan
[B] China
[C] USA
[D] India
[E] Russia

Q.38) Recently, which one of the following supercomputers has been ranked first in the “TOP500 list of
supercomputer benchmarking index”, in June 2020?
[A] Summit
[B] Sierra
[C] Fugaku
[D] Tianhe-2
[E] Sunway TaihuLight

Q.39) Microsoft India has recently (June 2020) offered a six-month free trial of its “Microsoft Teams”
platform to which one of the following organizations?
[A] Airport Authority of India
[B] Indian Railways
[C] Prime Minister’s Office

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[D] Indian Space Research Organization

[E] Defence Research and Development Organization

Q.40) Recently (June 2020), which one of the following space agencies has tied up with HeroX to launch
a Lunar Loo Challenge?
[A] NASA
[B] ISRO
[C] JAXA
[D] CNSA
[E] ROSCOSMOS

Q.41) Recently, which one of the following online payment services has launched ‘Smart Stores’ feature
in India, in June 2020?
[A] Amazon Pay
[B] PhonePe
[C] Paytm
[D] Freecharge
[E] Google Pay

Q.42) International Day against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking is observed annually on 26th June.
What was its theme for the year 2020?
[A] Health for Justice and Justice for Health
[B] Listen First- Listen Youth and children
[C] Better Knowledge for Better Care
[D] Stop Illicit Trafficking of Drugs
[E] Spread Awareness against Drug Abuse

Q.43) The Reserve Bank of India has announced the creation of a PIDF fund to encourage deployment of
Point of Sale (PoS) infrastructure (both physical and digital modes) in tier-3 to tier-6 centres and the
North-East. What is the full form of PIDF?
[A] PoS Institutions Development Fund
[B] Proper Infrastructure Development Fund
[C] Payments and Interest Debt Fund

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[D] Payments Innovation Developing Fund

[E] None of the above

Q.44) Recently, in June 2020, which of the following authorities has released a circular regarding Legal
Entity Identifier (LEI) code?
[A] RBI
[B] IRDAI
[C] SEBI
[D] NABARD
[E] None of the above

Q.45) Recently (June 2020), which of the following initiatives has been taken on the call of the Prime
Minister of India to plant at least five trees either in office campus or wherever it is possible, to ensure a
clean and healthy environment of the country?
[A] Sankalp Parva
[B] Sahayak Parva
[C] Podha Ropan Parva
[D] Hariyali Parv
[E] Nishtha Parv

Q.46) Under which of the following Schemes, loans for income generating activities up to Rs. 50,000 are
termed as Shishu loans?
[A] PMJDY
[B] PMVVY
[C] PMMY
[D] PMAY
[E] PMSPY

Q.47) Which of the following Program has been launched recently (June 2020) as a joint initiative of
Facebook and the Ministry of Tribal Affairs?
[A] SOAL
[B] USJP
[C] GOAL

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[D] ERMP
[E] BMNC

Q.48) Recently (June 2020), which of the following countries has signed MOU with India for developing
cooperation between two countries in the power sector?
[A] USA
[B] Australia
[C] UK
[D] Denmark
[E] Iran

Q.49) International Yoga Day was celebrated annually on 21 June. What was the theme of the
International Yoga Day for the year 2020?
[A] Yoga in Lockdown – Yoga at Home
[B] Yoga for Mind - Yoga in Lockdown
[C] Yoga against Corona – Yoga in Home
[D] Yoga for Self - Yoga for Immunity
[E] Yoga for Health - Yoga at Home

Q.50) India has been ranked at which of the following position in recently (June 2020) released annual
World Competitiveness Index?
[A] 43
[B] 44
[C] 45
[D] 46
[E] 47

Q.51) Jolly Grant Airport is situated in which of the following states?

[A] Uttarakhand
[B] Uttar Pradesh
[C] Telangana
[D] Andhra Pradesh
[E] None of the above
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Q.52) Where is GIFT city (India's 1st International Financial Services Centre) situated?
[A] Ahmedabad
[B] Vadodara
[C] Rajkot
[D] Gandhinagar
[E] Surat

Q.53) Which of the following Indian cities is known as “Hitech city”?

[A] Mumbai
[B] Pune
[C] Chennai
[D] Hyderabad
[E] None of the above

Q.54) Recently (July 2020), it has been announced that India will see its first privately operated train
running by ____________.
[A] April 2023
[B] January 2024
[C] December 2022
[D] March 2021
[E] December 2020

Q.55) Recently, which one of the following IITs has developed a classroom-to-home teaching setup
named as ‘Mobile Masterjee’, in July 2020?
[A] IIT Roorkee
[B] IIT Hyderabad
[C] IIT Kanpur
[D] IIT Bombay
[E] IIT Madras

Q.56) Who among the following has recently (July 2020) stepped down as International Cricket Council
(ICC) chairman?

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[A] Shashank Manohar

[B] N. Srinivasan
[C] Manu Sawhney
[D] Rahl Johri
[E] Snil Gavaskar

Q.57) Recently (July 2020), Saroj Khan has passed away due to cardiac arrest. She was a renowned
____________.
[A] Athlete
[B] Actor
[C] Choreographer
[D] Singer
[E] Music Director

Q.58) Recently (July 2020), which one of the following cricket players has been named as India's most
valuable Test player in the 21st century by the Wisden magazine?
[A] Mahendra Singh Dhoni
[B] Prithvi Shaw
[C] Virat Kohli
[D] Ravindra Jadeja
[E] Jasprit Bumrah

Q.59) In association with Sports Authority of India, which one of the following ministries has recently
(July 2020) organized ‘Fit India Talks’?
[A] Ministry of Culture
[B] Ministry of Minority Affairs
[C] Ministry of Human Resource Development
[D] Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
[E] Ministry of Defence

Q.60) What is the name of joint annual military exercise between India and Japan?
[A] Sahyog Kaijin
[B] Dharma Guardian
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[C] Shinyuu Maitri

[D] Mitra Shakti
[E] Nomadic Elephant

Q.61) Which among the following writers will be conferred with 29th Saraswa Samman?
[A] Hari Joshi
[B] Madhuri Vijay
[C] Vasdev Mohi
[D] Shankar Dayal Singh
[E] Nasira Sharma

Q.62) Which of the following initiatives is first of its kind national initiative that has been launched
recently (July 2020) for supporting drug discovery process?
[A] Drug Patent Discovery Hackathon 2020
[B] Drug Discovery Hackathon 2020
[C] COVID-19 Drug Discovery Hackathon 2020
[D] Coronavirus Vaccine Drug Discovery Hackathon 2020
[E] None the above

Q.63) Recently (July 2020), Madhya Pradesh Government has launched which of the following
campaigns to attract tourists to the state?
[A] Hindustan Ka dil Dekho
[B] Madhya Bharat
[C] Aap Aaye Hamare Rajya
[D] Abhinanadan
[E] Intzaar Aap Ka

Q.64) Recently (July 2020), the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has partnered with which
of the following companies to launch curriculum on digital safety and online well-being and Augmented
Reality for students and educators?
[A] Reliance
[B] BYJU’S
[C] Microsoft

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[D] Facebook
[E] Google

Q.65) Recently (July 2020), which of the following corpora ons has won the pres gious Confedera on of
Indian Industry (CII-ITC) Sustainability Award 2019?
[A] National Thermal Power Corporation
[B] Indian Oil Corporation
[C] Oil and Natural Gas Corporation
[D] Steel Authority of India Limited
[E] Coal India Limited

Q.66) Recently (July 2020), Government of India has proclaimed Indian Railways on MISSION MODE of
becoming a "Green Railway" by which of the following years?
[A] 2021
[B] 2023
[C] 2027
[D] 2028
[E] 2030

Q.67) Recently (July 2020), which of the following countries have become first in the South-East Asia
region to eliminate both measles and rubella ahead of the 2023 target?
[A] Pakistan
[B] Maldives
[C] Sri Lanka
[D] [1] & [2]
[E] [2] & [3]

Q.68) Recently (July 2020), NITI Aayog’s Atal Innova on Mission (AIM) in collabora on with Indian
homegrown startup Plezmo has launched which of the following module?
[A] BPL App Development Module
[B] ATL App Development Module
[C] CPL App Development Module
[D] NITI App Development Module

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[E] AIM App Development Module

Q.69) What is the capital of Albania?

[A] Dhaka
[B] Tirana
[C] Brussels
[D] Brasilia
[E] Sofia

Q.70) Recently (July 2020), which of the following corpora ons has won the pres gious Confedera on of
Indian Industry (CII-ITC) Sustainability Award 2019?
[A] National Thermal Power Corporation
[B] Indian Oil Corporation
[C] Oil and Natural Gas Corporation
[D] Steel Authority of India Limited
[E] Coal India Limited

Q.71) Recently (July 2020), which of the following States/Union Territories has launched country’s first
‘plasma bank’ to treat Covid-19 pa ents?
[A] Delhi
[B] Maharashtra
[C] Kerala
[D] Andhra Pradesh
[E] Tamil Nadu

Q.72) Recently (July 2020), Defence Research and Development Organisa on (DRDO) and Telangana
Informa on Technology Associa on (TITA) have joined hands to implement an automated management
of pa ent’s so ware SAMPARC for COVID-19. What is the full form of SAMPARC?
[A] Smart Allotted Management of Patients and Risks
[B] Systemic Automatic Management of Patients and Risks
[C] Smart Automatic Management of Patients and Risks
[D] Systematic Automated Management of Patients and Risks
[E] Smart Automated Management of Patients and Risks

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Q.73) Recently (July 2020), the Na onal Intelligence Grid (NATGRID) has signed a memorandum of
understanding with which of the following to access the centralized online database on FIRs and stolen
vehicles?
[A] Na onal Crime Records Bureau
[B] Na onal Crime Branch
[C] Na onal Crime Agency
[D] Na onal Crime Commission
[E] Na onal Crime Alliance

Q.74) Recently (July 2020), which of the following companies and the Department of MSME and Mines,
Government of Karnataka has signed a memorandum of understanding to promote the State’s arts,
cra s and handloom sectors?
[A] Amazon
[B] Flipkart
[C] Google
[D] Walmart
[E] All of the above

Q.75) Recently (July 2020), which of the following ins tutes has collaborated with NVIDIA to establish
India’s first ‘NVIDIA AI Technology Centre’ (NVAITC) that would accelerate research on Ar ficial
Intelligence and its commercial adop on?
[A] IIT Bombay
[B] IIT Delhi
[C] IIT Kanpur
[D] IIT Hyderabad
[E] IIT Indore

Q.76) Recently (March 2020), which of the following Banks has partnered with BSNL to launch a UPI-
based payment platform named ‘Bharat InstaPay’?
[A] UCO
[B] SBI
[C] ICICI
[D] AXIS

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[E] BOB

Q.77) Recently (April 2020), interest rate on Public Provident Fund (PPF) has been reduced to
___________ percent from 7.9%.
[A] 6.5
[B] 6.9
[C] 7.1
[D] 7.5
[E] 6.3

Q.78) Recently, Ministry of HRD has launched which one of the following campaigns for crowd sourcing
of ideas for Improving Online Education ecosystem of India, in April 2020?
[A] Padhe India, Badhe India
[B] Digital Bharat, Sakshar Bharat
[C] Bharat Padhe Online
[D] Bharat ab Padhega Online
[E] Pdhega Bharat, Harega Corona

Q.79) NPCI stands for which of the following?

[A] National Payments Corporation of India
[B] Non Payment Corporation of India
[C] National Profitable Corporation of India
[D] Non Profitable Corporation of India
[E] None of these

Q.80) MDR Stands for _________ Discount Rate.

[A] Merchant
[B] Money
[C] Mobile
[D] Minimum
[E] None of the above

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Full Length Mock Test 3

Answers

English

Q.1)D Q.2)C Q.3)B Q.4)C Q.5)E Q.6)C Q.7)A Q.8)E Q.9)B Q.10)E Q.11)C Q.12)B

Q.13)B Q.14)C Q.15)E Q.16)B Q.17)C Q.18)E Q.19)C Q.20)A Q.21)E Q.22)B Q.23)A

Q.24)D Q.25)A Q.26)C Q.27)E Q.28)C Q.29)A Q.30)D

Quant

Q.1)B Q.2)B Q.3)E Q.4)B Q.5)A Q.6)B Q.7)C Q.8)D Q.9)B Q.10)A Q.11)B Q.12)A

Q.13)D Q.14)D Q.15)E Q.16)D Q.17)C Q.18)D Q.19)A Q.20)D Q.21)A Q.22)A Q.23)C

Q.24)A Q.25)D Q.26)E Q.27)C Q.28)C Q.29)D Q.30)B

Reasoning

Q.1)D Q.2)A Q.3)C Q.4)B Q.5)E Q.6)C Q.7)E Q.8)B Q.9)E Q.10)A Q.11)B Q.12)A

Q.13)D Q.14)B Q.15)C Q.16)C Q.17)B Q.18)D Q.19)C Q.20)D Q.21)B Q.22)C Q.23)D

Q.24)E Q.25)B Q.26)A Q.27)A Q.28)C Q.29)E Q.30)D Q.31)D Q.32)B Q.33)D Q.34)E

Q.35)A Q.36)A Q.37)E Q.38)A Q.39)E Q.40)B Q.41)A Q.42)B Q.43)B Q.44)D Q.45)C

Q.46)D Q.47)B Q.48)C Q.49)C Q.50)D Q.51)E Q.52)A Q.53)C Q.54)A Q.55)B Q.56)A

Q.57)C Q.58)C Q.59)C Q.60)C

General Awareness

Q.1)C Q.2)C Q.3)C Q.4)E Q.5)C Q.6)C Q.7)C Q.8)D Q.9)C Q.10)C Q.11)A Q.12)B

Q.13)B Q.14)E Q.15)E Q.16)E Q.17)C Q.18)C Q.19)B Q.20)D Q.21)A Q.22)C Q.23)A

Q.24)D Q.25)B Q.26)C Q.27)B Q.28)E Q.29)A Q.30)A Q.31)D Q.32)A Q.33)C Q.34)C

Q.35)D Q.36)E Q.37)B Q.38)C Q.39)B Q.40)A Q.41)A Q.42)C Q.43)E Q.44)B Q.45)A

Q.46)C Q.47)C Q.48)D Q.49)E Q.50)A Q.51)A Q.52)D Q.53)D Q.54)A Q.55)C Q.56)A

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Q.57)C Q.58)D Q.59)C Q.60)A Q.61)C Q.62)B Q.63)E Q.64)D Q.65)A Q.66)E Q.67)E

Q.68)B Q.69)B Q.70)A Q.71)A Q.72)E Q.73)A Q.74)B Q.75)D Q.76)B Q.77)C Q.78)C

Q.79)B Q.80)A

Full Length Mock Test 3

Explanations

English

Q.1) Explanation:

The two texts of interest from the passage are:

(1) "In its Seclusion Edict of 1636, the government a empted to extricate cultural interac ons with Europe from the
in mate fabric of Japanese society."

(2) "Since many na ons that traded with Europe placed high value on their historical customs, some na ves became
deeply disconcerted by the changes that occurred as a result of European power." Op on [d] matches the above two
texts of interest. There is no men on in the passage about any of the remaining op ons.

Q.2) Explanation:

The correct answer cannot contradict any part of the author's views. An answer that has a text to support it but is later
contradicted in the passage cannot be the correct answer. Further, the author summarizes his views in the last
paragraph. Op on [c] gives the author's summary toward the end of the passage: "it is perhaps not too far of a stretch
to conclude that Japan made the right decision in pursuing a path of rela ve isola onism." Hence, it is the correct
op on. The first half of the first paragraph and the opening sentence of the second paragraph explicitly contradict this,
no ng that "numerous countries" resented Europe's imperialism. Hence, op on [a] is not correct. Op on [b] is wrong
because the passage does not deal with who is to blame for caus c rela ons, but rather Japan's response and its
ramifica ons. The author makes li le differen a on between the religious, cultural, and economic values Europe
espoused: "Due to their incredible military force, religious zeal, and uncompromising goal of profit, Europeans o en
imposed their tradi ons, values, and customs on the people with whom they traded." So, op on [d] is also wrong.
Op on [e] is not correct because the author never discusses the cultural ramifica ons of Japan's policies. The closest
the author comes to this is simply to state that Japan likely made the correct decision in implemen ng seclusionist
policies (which would imply that Japan's culture did not suffer severely).

Q.3) Explanation:

In order to understand why the quota on was used, it is essen al to examine the broader context.

Context: "Third, the government banned Chris anity, which it saw as an import from Europe that challenged the long-
established and well-enshrined religious tradi ons of Japan. The government went to considerable lengths to protect
its culture." Immediately before the quote, the author states that Japan "went to considerable lengths to protect its
culture." The author proceeds to include the quote in order to provide evidence of the lengths to which Japan went. In
other words, the quote serves as evidence of the determina on of the Japanese government to root out cultural
influences. Hence, op on [b] is correct. The ar cle provides no evidence that the Japanese government hated foreign
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religions (strictly speaking). Instead, the ar cle focuses on the government's dislike of the weakening of Japanese
culture at the hands of these religions. So, op on [a] is incorrect. Op on [c] is not right because the government's
decision to destroy ships associated in any way with Chris anity does not mean that Chris anity deeply infiltrated the
society (ships would have been the first things to have been influenced). Rather, it shows how thorough Japan was in
extrica ng Chris anity. Op on [d] is wrong because European economic influence clearly provided a jus fica on for
the Edicts "Ar cles 11 through 17 of the Edict imposed stringent regula ons on trade and commerce". As for op on
[e], although there is no doubt that this is an example of Japan's effort to curb cultural exchange, the quote does not
deal with efforts to curb economic exchange. Further, the passage already provided mul ple other examples of Japan's
effort to curb cultural exchange. So, op on [e] is also wrong.

Q.4) Explanation:

Op on [c] is correct. The sec on of the passage that is most of interest is: "Due to their incredible military force,
religious zeal, and uncompromising goal of profit, Europeans o en imposed their tradi ons, values, and customs on
the people with whom they traded. They frequently acted without regard to the long-term welfare of others as their
principal concern was short-term economic gain." Op on [a] is wrong because although the passage men ons
European "religious zeal," the passage states that the "principal concern was short-term economic gain". Further, the
passage devotes almost no a en on to elucida ng the details of prosely zing efforts. The passage explicitly
contradicts op on [b], sta ng that Europe "frequently acted without regard to the long-term welfare of others".
Op on [d] was the result of Europe's behaviour, not the mo va on for the behaviour. Further, the passage states that
the "principal concern was short-term economic gain". Op on [e] is wrong because the passage makes no men on of
Europe's a empt to take over Japan's land.

Q.5) Explanation:

Op on [e] is correct since the passage makes no men on of the feudal shogun system. All the other ac ons are taken
by the Japanese government to protect Japanese culture and way of life.

Q.6) Explanation:

Op on[c] is correct. In order to understand the purpose of a passage, we must examine the logical flow of the passage
and the conclusion of the passage. First Paragraph Introduce an issue: European cultural and economic imperialism
along with its consequences. Second paragraph discusses one example of a response to European cultural imperialism.
Third Paragraph concludes by largely vindica ng Japan's ac ons. The conclusion can be drawn as:

"Japan made the right decision in pursuing a path of rela ve isola onism.... countries that embraced European
hegemony, whether by choice or by force, tended to suffer from pernicious wealth inequality, perennial poli cal
instability, and protracted underdevelopment."

Op on [c] encapsulates the elements & logical flow in the ar cle along with the conclusion.

Q.7) Explanation:

Op on [a] is correct. This matches a sentence from the second paragraph: "The Edict stated, 'Japanese ships shall by
no means be sent abroad….All Japanese residing abroad shall be put to death when they return home.'" If those living
abroad were put to death upon returning, it is safe to conclude that the government saw these individuals as threats.
Op on [b] is wrong because the passage states that ac ons were taken against Chris anity (not all religions): "Third,
the government banned Chris anity"

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Op on [c] is not a right choice because the passage makes no men on of Japanese economic philosophy. The passage
makes no men on that Japan foresaw the dangers of trade with Europe. Further, the reasons given for Japan's ac ons
are cultural not economic so, op on [d] is incorrect. In op on [e], the phrase "provided no posi ve impact" is a strong
statement. Although the ar cle is clear that Japan felt that the European influence damaged its culture, this is not
enough evidence to claim that absolutely nothing posi ve came from European "ideas”.

Q.8) Explanation:

The best answer is op on [e]. Choice [a], [b] and [c] use “have…saw”where “have…seen” is required. Op on [d]
incorrectly places beneath them between the verb and direct object.

Q.9) Explanation:

The best answer is op on [b]. In op on [a], the plural pronoun their does not agree in number with the singular noun
child. In [c] and [d], “When” is less precise than “as” in characterizing a prolonged and gradual process such as
growing. The verb, believing, is used incorrectly in op on [e].

Q.10) Explanation:

The best answer is op on [e]. The intended comparison should be completed by a clause beginning with as and
containing a subject and verb that corresponds to the subject and verb of the main clause.

Q.11) Explanation:

The best answer is op on [c]. It uses the idioma c expression worried “about”.

Q.12) Explanation:

The best answer is op on [b]. The sentence compares one thing, the mind of the psychopath, to all other things in its
class, namely all the mentally ill pa ents hospitalized in the Tata Ins tute, therefore, the sentence requires the
superla ve form: most difficult.

Q.13) Explanation:

In I, use of rela vely is appropriate as it is being used here as an adverb which means propor onally, in rela on to
some larger scale thing. Rela ve is an adjec ve which means connected to or depending on something else. In II,
conduc ve means able to conduct electric current or heat and conducive means tending to contribute to, encourage
or bring about some result. So, use of conducive in the sentence is appropriate. In III, the preposi onal phrase “at
loggerheads” means unable to agree on something. On the other hand, “at the end of my tether” is used to show that
there is no strength or pa ence le . Since I had to look a er my sister’s troublesome children, there was no pa ence
le in me. Hence, the la er is apt. Hence, the correct op on will be “aab” or op on [b].

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Q.14) Explanation:

In I, to go ahead means to proceed or to begin something and go about means to tackle a task or to busy oneself with
some work. The school has decided to start the prepara ons for the sports day in spite of the inclement weather.
Hence, go ahead works well here. In II, the verb will come in agreement with the subject, “religious harmony” which is
singular so, use of has been is correct in the sentence. In III, deadlock means a stands ll resul ng from the opposi on
of two evenly matched forces while lock on refers to automa cally track a target. As per the sentence, use of deadlock
is appropriate to show the stands ll between the two leaders over the agenda. Hence, the correct op on will be
“aba” or op on [c].

Q.15) Explanation:

In I, involved is correct because farmers are involved in the labour-intensive schemes and not evolved in them. In II,
must have is idioma cally correct. In III, the two subjects of the sentence, chief execu ve officer and chairman of the
board, require a plural verb. So, agree is correct to use in the sentence. So, the correct op on is bba or op on [e].

Q.16) Explanation:

Op on [b] is correct. In sentence A, quarry is a noun which means a place, typically a large, deep pit, from which stone
or other materials are or have been extracted. While in sentence B, this word is used as a verb which means extract
something (stone or other materials) from Earth.

Q.17) Explanation:

Op on [c] is correct. In sentence A, bass refers to a type of common European freshwater perch while in sentence B, it
refers to the instruments that is lowest in pitch or musical notes.

Q.18) Explanation:

Op on [e] is correct. In sentence A, portmanteau (linguis c) refers to a word formed by merging the sounds and
meaning of two different words while in sentence B, it refers to a large trunk or suitcase, typically made of s ff leather
and opening into two equal parts.

Q.19) Explanation:

Op on [c] focuses mostly on the main topic of the paragraph—muscle atrophy and bone loss. Op ons [a] and [b] are
too broad for the reader to understand the paragraph. Op on [d] is too limited to make the paragraph clear. Op on [e]
can be used later in the paragraph nut not in the start. Hence, op on [c] is the correct choice.

Q.20) Explanation:

The word rather in the second sentence indicates a contrast to whatever came before. Op on [a] is the only sentence
that indicates the contrast between the old defini on of asthma and the new. Op ons [b] and [c] are less precisely
related to the new understanding of asthma. Op on [d] is not related at all with the rest of the passage. Hence, op on
[a] is correct.
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Q.21) Explanation:

The given sentence is correct in all its parts. Hence, correc on is not required. For giving examples in a sentence, we
use such as and not “like”. The placement of “not only” is correct a er the verb and a er “but also”, the sentence
should use the same logic and syntax.

Q.22) Explanation:

Part A of the sentence is correct as is. While is used to refer to a background period of me in which another ac vity
happened. It is similar to “during” but the la er should be followed by a noun and not a verb. So, in part A use of
“while” is jus fied. Part B of the sentence is correct as is. The phrase “Obliga on of knowing of” is not logical.
“Knowing of” is used when we have personal experience with what we are talking about. In part C of the sentence,
replace “deployment” with “employment”. Deployment is used for military services and arrangement while
employment refers to hire someone for a job or work. La er is more appropriate. Therefore, op on [b] is correct.

Q.23) Explanation:

In part (A), wipe out is the appropriate phrasal verb because its meaning is “to get rid of something” which is
apt for destroying the memory. For the sentence to be logical, all the verbs in the sentence should be in the
same tense, in this case past tense. Hence, “she was living” would be correct in part (C) of the sentence. Part
(B) is correct as is. Hence, op on [a] is correct.

Q.24) Explanation:

In this sentence, the author is nostalgically remembering the voices of commentators on radio. The voice may be
husky familiar or formal but not indirect or hazy. Hazy refers to confused or not clear while indirect means not direct
or deceiving. Husky means hoarse or rough sounding voice which cannot be of a radio commentator. Between formal
and familiar, use of familiar seems more appropriate to use here. Hence, op on [d] is correct.

Q.25) Explanation:

Op on [a] is correct. The words like single, rare and limited edi on seems inappropriate here because the correct word
should reflect the quality of the commentator to convey the happenings of the field. In that way, only “unique” is the
apt word.

Q.26) Explanation:

The way of conveying the happenings of the field on radio cannot be creepy, spooky or eerie. These words refer to
something which causes an uneasy fearful sensa on. “Flinty” refers to lack of emo ons. “Quirky” refers to be strange
in a silly, awkward manner which is poten ally cute. According to the meaning, the use of word “quirky” is correct.
Hence, op on [c] is correct.

Q.27) Explanation:
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The sentence said that the commentator had a pleasant voice and his tone would be same regardless of the scene on
the field. Hence, op on [e] is correct.

Q.28) Explanation:

“Gree ng” seems most appropriate here. “Receiving” and “Replying” make no sense to the sentence. Preposi on
before “acknowledge” should be “to” not “of” while “having” the listeners is not suitable. The way the commentator
speaks to welcome the listeners is described in the next part of this sentence. So, the use of “gree ng” is correct.
Hence, op on [c] is correct.

Q.29) Explanation:

“Flair” refers to the natural and innate talent or ap tude. “Glare” means an intense, blinding light. “Chic” means
stylish and elegant. According to the sentence, use of “flair” is apt here. “taste” and “gi ” does not make any sense.
Hence, op on [a] is correct.

Q.30) Explanation:

“Silencing” means an act to make someone quiet while “withholding” means the deduc ons from an employee’s
salary. “Handover” means the transference of authority, control or power from one agency to another. As per the
context of the passage, conveying would be more appropriate here. Hence, op on [d] is correct.

Quant

Q.1) Explanation:

Explanation

Quantity I

Volume of cube left = –

= 343 -

= 343 – 269.5

= 73.5

Quantity II
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Surface area of cube left = 6 -2 +2 7

= 294 – 77 – 154

= 371

Quantity II > Quantity I

Q.2) Explanation:

Explanation

Quantity I

Using multiplying factors,

= 1.1

Pro it % = 10%
Quantity II

SP = CP

SP = CP

SP = 1.125 CP

For this man,

Pro it % = =

Quantity I < Quantity II

Q.3) Explanation:

Explanation

Quantity I
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Required number of days =

= 8.4 hrs

Quantity II

= 8.4 hrs
Quantity I = Quantity II

Q.4) Explanation:

Explanation

Quantity I

men → 40, women → 35

Average =

= Rs. 4106

Quantity II

Let the average = x

= ( x- 150) x

= Rs. 4150

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Quantity I < Quantity II

Q.5) Explanation:

Explanation

Quantity I

Ratio of investment = 38000

Required difference = ( 456 – 385)

= Rs. 1857.31

Quantity II

Let the total money he invested in the scheme X is Rs. A then the total money he will invest in the
scheme Y = Rs. (3000 – A)

The total amount he will get at the end of 2 years = Rs. (3000 + 525.24) = Rs. 3525.24

A(1+ + ( 3000 – A) ( 1 +

= 3525.24

By solving we get the value of A = Rs. 1800

Quantity I > Quantity II

Q.6) Explanation:

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Explanation

Selling Price of X = (Cost price + Cost on Production + Pro it)

= 250 + 20 + 5
= 275

Cost Price of W = Selling price + Loss

= 100 + 10

= 110

Required % = = 250% of the cost price of W

Q.7) Explanation:

Explanation

Selling Price of V = (Cost price + Cost of Transportation)

= ( 50 + 30 )

= 76

Selling Price of Z = 466.4

Required % = = 83.7 %

Q.8) Explanation:

Explanation

Loss on Y = Cost price of Y – Selling price of Y

= - 400

= 16.66
Loss on W = 10
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Required Ra o = 16.66 : 10 = 833 : 500

Q.9) Explanation:

Explanation

Average speed when Pankaj was returning

= = 15 km/hr

Now the average speed of the whole journey

= 24 km/hr

Q.10) Explanation:

Explanation

Let initially the number of male and female in the bus be 3x and x respectively

Total number of passenger =4x

At the irst stop the number of male passenger

( 4x – 16)

= 3x – 12

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And female passenger

= (4x – 16) +6

=x+2

Now new ratio

3x -12 = 2x +4

X =16

Hence total number of passenger at the origin point

= 16

Q.11) Explanation:

Explanation

Total time = 25 + 5 = 30 years

Again number of time period for cost increment

= =5

Number of time period for rupee depreciation

= =6

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Now net value of plot = 1000

1134

Q.12) Explanation:

Explanation

Rice Wheat

25 9

25 45

70 = 350

Hence the price of rice = Rs 5 per kg

Pro it of wheat = Rs 25 per kg

Now the price of wheat = Rs. 30 per kg

Let the new amount of rice be M kg then

M = 16

Hence decrease in % of amount of rice

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Q.13) Explanation:

Explanation-

I. x = 172 – 132 – 112

x = 289 – 169 – 112

x=–1

II. 4y2 – 13y + 9 = 0

⇒ (4y – 9)(y – 1) = 0
⇒ y = 1, 9
4

Hence, x < y While comparing the root values of x and y, we ind that both the root values of y are
greater than x's value.
Hence, x < y.

Q.14) Explanation:

Explanation-

From : I

⇒ (x + 22) (x – 22) = – 123

⇒ x2 – (22)2 = – 123

⇒ x2 – 484 = – 123
⇒ x2 = 361

∴ x = + 19, – 19
From II

⇒ y2 – 43y + 462 = 0
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⇒ y2 – 21y – 22y + 462 = 0

⇒ y (y – 21) – 22 (y – 21) = 0
⇒ (y – 22) (y – 21) = 0

∴ y = 21, 22
Now,

x y
+ 19 < 22

+ 19 < 21

– 19 < 21
– 19 < 22

Here,
x<y.

Q.15) Explanation:

Explanation-

From I :
⇒ 8x2 + 30x + 27 = 0

⇒ 8x2 + 12x + 18x + 27 = 0

⇒ 4x (2x + 3) + 9 (2x + 3) = 0
⇒ (4x + 9) (2x + 3) = 0

∴x=– 9 ,– 3
4 2

From II :
⇒ 14y2 + 43y + 33 = 0

⇒ 14y2 + 21y + 22y + 33 = 0

⇒ 7y (2y + 3) + 11 (2y + 3) = 0
⇒ (7y + 11) (2y + 3) = 0

∴y=– 3 ,– 11
2 7
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While comparing the root values of x and y, we ind that both root values of x lies between the values
of y's.
Hence, relationship between x and y cannot be determined.

Q.16) Explanation:

Explanation-

According to the given equations:

I. x2 – 35x + 306 = 0

x2 – 18x – 17x + 306 = 0

x (x – 18) – 17 (x – 18) = 0
(x – 17) (x – 18) = 0

x = 17, 18
II. y2 – 44y + 475 = 0

⇒ y2 – 25y – 19y + 475 = 0

⇒ y(y – 25) – 19(y – 25) = 0

⇒ (y – 19)(y – 25) = 0

⇒ y = 19, 25
After comparison of both equations, the conclusion is x < y

Q.17) Explanation:

Explanation-

Day Total distance By Bus

Day 1 25% of 3000 = 750 km 30% of 750 = 225 km

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Day 2 15% of 3000 = 450 km 25% of 450 = 112.5 km

Day 3 20% of 3000 = 600 km 45% of 600 = 270 km
Day 4 10% of 3000 = 300 km 20% of 300 = 60 km
Day 5 18% of 3000 = 540 km 15% of 540 = 81 km
Day 6 12% of 3000 = 360 km 18% of 360 = 64.8 km
Total = 813.3km

Q.18) Explanation:

Explanation-

Day Total distance By Bus

Day 1 25% of 3000 = 750 km 45% of 750 = 337.5 km
Day 2 15% of 3000 = 450 km 35% of 450 = 157.5 km
Day 3 20% of 3000 = 600 km 15% of 600 = 90 km
Day 4 10% of 3000 = 300 km 20% of 300 = 60 km
Day 5 18% of 3000 = 540 km 60% of 540 = 324 km
Day 6 12% of 3000 = 360 km 32% of 360 = 115.5 km
Total = 1084.2km

The total distance travelled by Ola = 1084.2 km

Speed = 40 km per hr

Time = 1084.2 = 27.105 hours = approximately 27 hours

40

Q.19) Explanation:

Explanation-

The distance travelled by bus = 813.3 km

The distance travelled by Ola = 1084.2 km

The distance travelled by Uber = 1102.5 km

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The required Ratio = 8133 : 10842 : 11025 = 2711 : 3614 : 3675

Q.20) Explanation:

Explanation-

The average speed of bus is 30 km per hour then the average speed of Ola
= 30 × 125 = 37.5 km
100

The total distance travelled by bus = 813.3 km

The reqd. me = 813.3 – 813.3

30 37.5

= 813.3 × 7.5 = 5.422 hours = 5.4 hours approximately

30 × 37.5

Q.21) Explanation:

Explanation-

Statement I :
Marked price of item A = marked price of item B

Discount offered in item A = 20%

Selling price of item A = 0.8 × 1500 = Rs. 1200

Cost price of item A = 1200 = Rs. 1000

1.2
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Cost price of item B = 11 × 1000 = 1100

10

Selling price of item B = 1100 Selling price of item B = 1100

Selling price of item B = 1100

So statement I alone is suf icient to answer the question

Statement II :

We cannot ind the cost price or selling price of any article

So, statement II alone is not suf icient to answer the question

Q.22) Explanation:

Explanation-

Statement I :

Let the rate of interest = r%

So, simple interest after 2 years

= 80000 × 2 × r = 1600r
100

Compound interest earned after 2 years

= 80000 {(1 + r ) 2 – 1} = 8(r2 + 200r)

100

(8r2 + 1600r)

According to the question,

(8r2 + 1600r – 1600r) = 1800

8r2 = 1800

r =15%
So, interest earned in scheme A after 2 years

= 80000 × 2 × 15 = Rs. 24000

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100

So, statement I alone is suf icient

Statement II :

Let the money invested in scheme A = x

Let the money invested in scheme B = 80000 – x

Let the rate of interest in scheme A = r%

According to the question,

= 15600

+ ( 80000 – x) = 15600

Here we have two unknown variables so it is not possible to solve this equation
So, statement II alone is not suf icient to answer the question

Q.23) Explanation:

Explanation-

Statement I :
Let the quantity of milk and water in mixture P initially be 8x and 3x respectively

So, 8x = 3x + 20; x = 4
So the quantity of milk in the mixture P initially = 32 litres

So the quantity of water in the mixture P initially = 12 litres

So the quantity of water in the mixture P after adding 20 litres of water = 32 litres

Let the quantity of milk and water in mixture Q initially be 2y and y respectively

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2y – y = 15; y = 15

Quantity of milk in the resultant mixture Q = 25% of 32 + 2 × 5 = 38 litres

So, statement I alone is suf icient to answer the question

Statement II :
Initially ratio of milk and water in mixture P = 8 : 3

Let the quantity of milk and water in mixture P initially be 8x and 3x respectively
So, 8x = 3x + 20; x = 4

So the quantity of milk in the mixture P initially = 32 litres

So the quantity of water in the mixture P initially = 12 litres

So the quantity of water in the mixture P after adding 20 litres of water = 32 litres

Let the quantity of milk and water in mixture Q initially be 2y and y respectively
25% of 32 + 2y = 38 ; y = 15
25% of 32 + y 23

Quantity of milk in the resultant mixture Q = 25% of 32 + 2y = 38 litres

So, statement II alone is suf icient to answer the question

Q.24) Explanation:

Explanation-

Series Pattern

16

73

500 not 5488

5487

Q.25) Explanation:

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Explanation-

Series Pattern:
Series I : 9 20 52 100 159 224
Series II : +11 +32 +48 +59 +65
Series III : +21 +16 +11 +6
Series IV : –5 –5 –5

Hence, there must be 224 in place of 226.

Q.26) Explanation:

Explanation-

Series pattern

0 + (1.1 = 1.21

1 + ( 1.3 = 2.69

2 + ( 1.5 = 4.25

3 + ( 1.7 = 5.89 not 5.98

4 + ( 1.9 = 7.61

5 + ( 2.1 = 9.41

Q.27) Explanation:

Explanation-

1080 =

Now , N = 1080 and M

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By trial and error method , N = 27

So sum of digit will be 2 + 7 = 9

Q.28) Explanation:

Explanation-

Let the speed of Siddharth and Rakesh be x and ykm/h,

respectively.
And the speed of stream = a km/h

Case I

As Rakesh rows downstream and Siddharth

rows upstream

that is ( x-a)

x–a+y+a=9

x+y =9 (i)

Case II

( x – a) = 1.25

x – a + y –a =5

x + y – 2a = 5 (ii)

on solving (i) and (ii)

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we get a = 2km/hr

Q.29) Explanation:

Explanation

Area of the hollow space = Area of

= 2(2

Then volume of hollow space = Area of base

= 2(2

= 200 (2

Q.30) Explanation:

Explanation

Let A, B, and C be events of passing subject Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry, respectively.

Now, P(A) = m, P(B) = p, and P(C) = c.

Probability of at least two of A, B, and C is 0.5 and probability of exactly two of A, B, and

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C is 0.4. So, probability of all the three of A, B, and C is 0.1.

P(A U B U C ) = P(A) + P(B) + P(C ) – P(A B) – P(B C )–P(C A) + P(A B C )

= P(A) + P(B) + P(C ) – P(exactly 2 of A, B, and C ) – 2P(A B C )

or 0.75 = m + p + c – 0.4 – (2 × 0.1).

So, m + p + c = 1.35 = =

Reasoning

Q.1) Explanation:

5 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 4 6 3 2

5 9 6 8 4 12 Step 1.

1 8 2 6

Step 2.

4.5 4

Step 3.

0.5

Step 4.

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From input to Step 1:

5 9

5 × 1 = 5, 3 × 3 = 9, So,
6 8

1 × 6 = 6, 2 × 4 = 8, So,
4 12

2 × 2 = 4, 4 × 3 = 12, So,

From Step 1 to Step 2:

1 8

5 + 9 + 4 = 18 So,
2 6

6 + 8 + 12 = 26, So,

From Step 2 to Step 3:

So, 4.5

So, 4

From Step 3 to Step 4:

4.5 – 4 = 0.5

Required number = 4.5 × 4 = 18

Q.2) Explanation:

5 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 4 6 3 2

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5 9 6 8 4 12 Step 1.

1 8 2 6 Step 2.

4.5 4

Step 3.

0.5

Step 4.

From input to Step 1:

5 9

5 × 1 = 5, 3 × 3 = 9, So,
6 8

1 × 6 = 6, 2 × 4 = 8, So,
4 12

2 × 2 = 4, 4 × 3 = 12, So,

From Step 1 to Step 2:

1 8

5 + 9 + 4 = 18 So,
2 6

6 + 8 + 12 = 26, So,

From Step 2 to Step 3:

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So, 4.5

So, 4

From Step 3 to Step 4:

4.5 – 4 = 0.5

Sum of the numbers obtained in Step 1 = 5 + 9 + 6 + 8 + 4 + 12 = 44

Sum of the numbers obtained in all other steps = 1 + 8 + 2 + 6 + 4.5 + 4 + 0.5 = 26

Reqd difference = 44 – 26 = 18.

Q.3) Explanation:

5 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 4 6 3 2

5 9 6 8 4 12 Step 1.

1 8 2 6 Step 2.

4.5 4 Step 3.

0.5 Step 4.

From input to Step 1:

5 9

5 × 1 = 5, 3 × 3 = 9, So,
6 8

1 × 6 = 6, 2 × 4 = 8, So,
4 12

2 × 2 = 4, 4 × 3 = 12, So,

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From Step 1 to Step 2:

1 8

5 + 9 + 4 = 18 So,
2 6

6 + 8 + 12 = 26, So,

From Step 2 to Step 3:

So, 4.5

So, 4

From Step 3 to Step 4:

4.5 – 4 = 0.5

Reqd number = 1 + 8 + 2 + 6 = 17

Q.4) Explanation:

Office time is $@ → 9 : 25 PM. Arun has to leave his home at (9 : 25 – 40 minutes =) 8 : 45 PM to reach office on
time. Hence 8 : 45 PM → θ$

Q.5) Explanation:

@θ → 5 : 40 PM (5 : 40 + 1 : 55 =) 7 : 35 PM → ‘%%’

Q.6) Explanation:

%$ → 7 : 45 PM

7 : 45 + 0 : 35 = 8 : 20 PM → ‘θ&’

Q.7) Explanation:

A>= B<=C =D >=E (we can’t say relate A and C and D is greater than and equal to B)

Q.8) Explanation:

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A<B<=C>=D=E (C>A directly follows)

Q.9) Explanation:

A =B>=C<D>E (Directly C>=A and no relation between B and E)

Q.10) Explanation:

M>=N=O=A>B (M>N and N= A so second conclusion doesn’t follow)

Q.11) Explanation:

A<B=C>=D=E (no relation A and E and B>=D directly follows)

Q.12) Explanation:

From I. S > W > T, V … (i)

S > U > V, R … (ii)

U=W … (iii)

Also, R gets the lowest combination (i), (ii) and (iii)

S > U = W > T/V > V/T > R … (iv)

Thus, statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

From II. T > V > R … (v)

S > U > T, V … (vi)

But we have no information about W.

Thus, statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.

Q.13) Explanation:

From I.

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Thus the gender of C cannot be determined. So, statement I is not sufficient to answer the question.

From II.

Thus the gender of C cannot be determined. So, statement II is not sufficient to answer. Again, both statement I and II
together are also not sufficient to answer the question.

Q.14) Explanation:

From I.
Person Smartphone
D Samsung/Micromax
E Moto
F Lenovo
G Apple
H Micromax/Samsung
I Oppo
J Nokia

Thus, statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

From II.
Person Smartphone
D Micromax
E Oppo
F Lenovo
G Apple
H Samsung
I Moto
J Nokia

Thus, statement II is sufficient to answer the question.

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Q.15) Explanation:

From I.

Thus, E is to the northeast of D.

From II.

Thus, E is to the northeast of D.

Hence either statement I alone or II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Q.16) Explanation:

Q.17) Explanation:

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Q.18) Explanation:

Q.19) Explanation:

Q.20) Explanation:

Financial support to the tourism sector is not a permanent solution. Secondly, constant risk for the foreign tourists will
never encourage tourism in India. Hence, none of the courses action is the right solution in this direction.

Q.21) Explanation:

Note that the deaths are being caused due to “weather-related events” and not due to “weather-related diseases”.

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Q.22) Explanation:

This is clear from the last sentence of the given statement.

Q.23) Explanation:

Clearly stated in the last sentence of the statement.

Q.24) Explanation:

It is given in the statement that rate of interest has been increased to attract more deposits. Hence, public should be
made aware of such increase so that both the parties should be benefitted. If the response for the deposits is lukewarm,
the rate of interest should be further increased. Hence, both the actions are right courses of action

Q.25) Explanation:

It is not necessary that such an epidemic occurs after four years. Hence action I is not the right course of action.
Secondly, prevention during Monsoon season is the right step to face the problem of conjunctivitis. So, action II is the
right course of action.

Q.26) Explanation:

Making interest and mobile banking cheaper clearly indicates that banks are pushing for digital banking.

Q.27) Explanation:

Only by increasing our agricultural production, we can have a better position in international agricultural trade.
Reduction in non-agricultural commodities will further worsen our position. So, only I is the right course of action.

Q.28) Explanation:

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Q.29) Explanation:

Q.30) Explanation:

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Q.31) Explanation:

Q.32) Explanation:

Q.33) Explanation:

This seems to be the natural outcome of the rapid digitisation going on.

Q.34) Explanation:

There are several benefits of the multicurrency Forex Card.

Q.35) Explanation:

Both [a] and [d] are valid inferences. But [a] is more suitable as a direct inference. [d] is an inference of inference [a]
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Q.36) Explanation:

The main reason for shutting down of Mc Donald’s restaurant in India is that it is running in loss for the past several
months. So, option [a] is valid answer.

Q.37) Explanation:

Q.38) Explanation:

Q.39) Explanation:

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Q.40) Explanation:

Q.41) Explanation:

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Q.42) Explanation:

Q.43) Explanation:

Q.44) Explanation:

Q.45) Explanation:

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Q.46) Explanation:

Q.47) Explanation:

Check option one by one.

a All trucks are not trains (O). Thus the possibility in conclusion I does not follow. But conclusion II follow from
statement (II + III) = E + A = O = Some buses are not trains.

b Some trucks are trains (I). It means All trains being truck is a possibility. Thus the possibility in I exists. Hence
conclusion I follows.

Again, No train is a bus (E) → conversion → No bus is a train (E) → implication → Some buses are not trains (O).
Hence conclusion II follows.

Thus, option [b] is correct choice.

c All trains are trucks (A) It means All truck being trains is a possibility. Thus, the possibility in I exists.

Again, All trains are trucks (A) + No truck is a car (E) = A + E = E = No train is a car (E) + No car is a bus (E) = E + E
= No conclusion. Hence conclusion II does not follow.

d Some trains are buses (I) + No bus is a truck (E) = I + E = O = Some trains are not trucks (O). But the possibility in I
exists.

Again, Some trains are buses → conversion → Some buses are trains (I). Hence conclusion II does not follow.

e From the third statement conclusion I does not follow.

Again, All buses are trucks (A) + No truck is a train (E) = No bus is a train (E) → implication → Some buses are not
trains (O). Hence conclusion II follows.

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Q.48) Explanation:

Check options one by one.

a Some glasses are bottles (I) → conversion → Some bottles are glasses (I). Hence conclusion I follows.

Again, No bottle is a cup (E). Thus, conclusion II does not follow.

b All bottles are spoons (A) + No spoon is a glass (E) = A + E = E = No bottle is a glass. Hence conclusion I does not
follow.

Again, No bottle is a glass (E) + Some glasses are cups (I) = E + I = O = Some cups are not bottles (O). It means the
possibility in II exists.

c All glasses are bottles (A) → conversion → Some bottles are glasses (I). Hence I follows.

Again, All cups are spoons (A) + No spoon is a glass (E) = A + E = E = No cup is a glass (E) + All glasses are bottles
(A) = E + A = O = Some bottles are not cups. Thus the possibility in II also follows. Thus, [c] is correct.

d Some glasses are spoon (I) + No spoon is a bottle (E) = I + E = O = Some glasses are not bottle. Hence conclusion I
does not follow. From the third statement the possibility in II exists.

e All bottles are glasses (A) → implication → Some bottles are glasses (I). Hence I follows.

Again, All bottles are glasses (A) + No glass is a cup (E) = A + E = E = No bottle is a cup. Hence II does not follow.

Q.49) Explanation:

Check option one by one.

a All pencils are pens (A) + No pen is a paper (E) = A + E = E = No pencil is a paper. Hence II follows.

Again, All inks are papers (A) + (No pen is a paper (E) → conversion →) No paper is a pen (E) = A + E = E = No ink is
a pen. Hence I does not follow.

b All inks are pens (A) → conversion → Some pens are inks (I). Hence conclusion I follows.

Again, Some pencils are papers (I) → conversion → Some papers are pencils (I). Hence conclusion II does not follow.

c No paper is a pencil (E). So, conclusion II follows.

Again, Some inks are pens (I) → conversion → Some pens are inks (I). Hence conclusion I follows. Thus, [c] is correct.

d No pencil is a paper (E). So, conclusion II follows.

But, All inks are papers (A) + No paper is a pen (E) = A + E = E = No ink is a pen. Hence I does not follow.

e All inks are pens (A) → conversion → Some pens are inks (I). Hence I follows. Again, Some papers are pencils (I).
Hence II does not follow.

Q.50) Explanation:

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Q.51) Explanation:

Q.52) Explanation:

Q.53) Explanation:

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Q.54) Explanation:

Q.55) Explanation:

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Q.56) Explanation:

Q.57) Explanation:

Check the option one by one.

Hence V is great uncle of P.

Hence, V is great uncle of P.

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Hence, V is aunt of P. Thus, option [c] is correct.

Hence [d] is not true.

Hence V is brother-in-law of P. Thus, [e] is not correct.

Q.58) Explanation:

E is mother-in-law of C.

Q.59) Explanation:

Q.60) Explanation:

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General Awareness

Q.1) Explanation:

· Recently, government has informed that interest rate on Public Provident Fund (PPF) has reduced
to 7.1% from 7.9%

· It has also announced that interest rate on Na onal Saving Cer ficates (NSC) has been reduced to
6.8% from 7.9%.

Q.2) Explanation:

· Recently, Statue of Soviet General Ivan Konev has been removed in Prague, Czech Republic.

· He has liberated Prague in 1945.

· He has also recognized as hero of World War II by Russia.

Q.3) Explanation:

· Recently, Jammu and Kashmir administra on has decided to halt the annual shi ing of capital, also
known as ‘Darbar Move’ due to the ongoing COVID-19 crisis. The Civil Secretariat of Jammu and Kashmir
is shi ed to Srinagar in summer and Jammu in winter.

Q.4) Explanation:

· Recently, Jim Corbe na onal park has become first na onal park in India to develop a quaran ne
facility for animals.

· It has developed ten quaran ne facili es.

· The decision was taken following a report of a Malayan ger being tested posi ve for COVID-19 in
the US in March 2020.

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Q.5) Explanation:

· Recently, Saudi Arabia has presided 2nd G20 Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors
Mee ng.

· Union finance minister has a ended the 2nd G20 Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors
Mee ng.

· An Ac on Plan has been prepared during the mee ng to

o Protect lives,

o Safeguard people’s jobs and incomes,

o Restore confidence,

o Preserve financial stability,

o Revive growth and recover stronger,

o Provide help to countries needing assistance,

o Coordinate on public health and financial measures

o Minimize disrup on to global supply chain.

Q.6) Explanation:

· Recently, UN Chief Antonio Guterres has suspended the rota on and deployments of the
peacekeepers un l 30th June 2020.

· The decision has been taken to mi gate the risk of transmission of the novel Coronavirus.
About UN Peacekeeping

· UN Peacekeeping helps countries navigate the difficult path from conflict to peace.

· They help to address a range of mandates set by the UN Security Council and General Assembly.

Q.7) Explanation:

· Recently, Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) has celebrated CRPF Valour Day.

· It has been celebrated on 9th April 2020.

Q.8) Explanation:

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• Recently, Ministry of Tourism has organized Webinar "Des na on — Sariska Tiger Reserve" based
on Virtual Tour of Sariska Tiger Reserve in Rajasthan under Dekho Apna Desh Webinar Series
About Dekho Apna Desh
• The technical assistance to the program has been provided by The Na onal e-Governance Division
(NeGD) created by the Ministry of Electronics & Informa on Technology (MeitY).

Q.9) Explanation:

· Recently, first-ever live fitness sessions under Fit India Ac ve Day programme has been launched
by Fit India.

· It has been organized in collabora on with CBSE.

· It has covered all aspects of children’s fitness from daily workouts to yoga, nutri on to emo onal
well-being.

· It has been streamed on the social media handles of CBSE, GOQii and Shilpa She y App.

Q.10) Explanation:

About New Development Bank

· It was established by the BRICS countries (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa) in 2014.

· Headquarter - Shanghai, China

· Recently, Union Finance Minister has a ended the 5th Annual Mee ng of Board of Governors of
New Development Bank (NDB) through video-conference.

· She has appreciated NDB’s effort on fast tracking of financial assistance of about USD 5 billion to
BRICS countries including Emergency Assistance of USD 1 billion India to combat COVID-19 pandemic.

Q.11) Explanation:

· Recently, Former Fiji Prime Minister Laisenia Qarase has passed away.
About Fiji

· Capital – Suva

· Currency - Fijian dollar

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Q.12) Explanation:

· The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) a newly launched standard
health insurance product “Arogya Sanjeevani”.

· This will cover hospitaliza on charges of pa ents to treat coronavirus infec on.

Q.13) Explanation:

· Recently, the Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi has decided not to
operate Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS) for two years (2020-
21 and 2021-22).

· This Decision has been taken as a part of continued efforts to contain the spread of COVID 19.
· According to Union Cabinet, these funds will be used to strengthen the Government’s efforts in
managing the challenges and adverse impact of COVID19 in the country.

Q.14) Explanation:

· The Headquarters of the International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD) is located at Rome,
Italy.

Q.15) Explanation:

· A team of researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Ropar in Punjab's Rupnagar
district has come up with a design of an autonomous 'WardBot'.

· This 'WardBot' can deliver medicines and food to COVID-19 patients in isolation wards without
human intervention.

Q.16) Explanation:

• Recently, the Union Minister for Rural Development and Panchaya Raj has launched “The Saras
Collec on” on the Government e Marketplace (GeM) portal.
About The Saras Collec on
• The Saras Collec on showcases daily u lity products made by rural Self-Help Groups (SHGs).

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• Aim – To provide SHGs in rural areas with market access to Central and State Government buyers.
• It has been ini ally piloted in the states of Bihar, Chha sgarh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala,
Himachal Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, U ar Pradesh and West Bengal.
• Ini a ve of – Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana- Na onal Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM),
Ministry of Rural Development and Government e Marketplace (GeM).

Q.17) Explanation:

• Recently, Google has helped female internet "saathis" (or trainers) to share authorita ve health
advice with their networks in rural villages.
• Google Map in April 2020 has launched a feature of sharing the loca on of night and food shelters
that has helped local authori es in providing help to them.

Q.18) Explanation:

• Recently, The Confedera on of All India Traders (CAIT) has announced the launch of its portal for
kiranas.
• It has been named as “bharatemarket.in”.
• Aim - To bring 95 per cent of retail traders onboard the pla orm, who would exclusively run the
portal.
• It has been promoted by Startup India and Invest India ini a ves, along with the All India Consumer
Products Distributors Federa on, as well as small business lender Avana Capital.

Q.19) Explanation:

· Recently, the New Development Bank (https://www.business-standard.com/topic/new-development-

bank)of the BRICS (https://www.business-standard.com/topic/brics) has approved The ‘Emergency
Assistance Program Loan’ to India of $1 billion.

Q.20) Explanation:

· Online Career Guidance Portal “Manzelein” was launched for students in associa on with UNICEF.
o The portal has been developed to help students in choosing a right career a er comple ng their
secondary or higher secondary educa on.
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o It will have complete informa on on careers, colleges and 262,000 programmes in 16 countries.

Q.21) Explanation:

· Recently, Union Human Resource Development Minister has launched a new mobile app called
the ‘National Test Abhyas'.

· Developed by – National Testing Agency (NTA).

· The app works on Android-based smartphones and tablets and can be downloaded from Google Play
Store.

· The App has been launched to enable candidates to take mock tests for upcoming exams such as JEE
Main, NEET under the NTA’s purview.

Q.22) Explanation:

· Recently, The Union Cabinet has given its approval to a new Centrally Sponsored Scheme -
"Scheme for Formalization of Micro food processing Enterprises (FME)."

· It has been launched for the Unorganized Sector with an outlay of Rs.10,000 crore.

· It will be rolled out on All India basis.

· A National level portal would be set-up wherein the applicants/ individual enterprise could apply to
participate in the Scheme.

Q.23) Explanation:

· Birsa Munda Athletic stadium is situated in Ranchi , Jharkhand.

Q.24) Explanation:

· Recently, women of Rural Livelihood Mission in Madhya Pradesh have started Didi Vehicle
Service.

· It has been launched for rural women for the safe delivery.

· It has proved to be a lifeline for pregnant rural women in tribal areas.

· The vehicle service is completely free.

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· It has been started in the tribal-dominated Jhabua district.

Q.25) Explanation:

· Recently, The Union Minister of Health & Family Welfare Dr. Harsh Vardhan has been elected
as Chairman of the Executive Board of World Health Organization (WHO).

· He has been elected for the year 2020-21.

· He has replaced Dr Hiroki Nakatani of Japan.

Q.26) Explanation:

· Recently, Flipkart-owned PhonePe has launched a hybrid investment product--Super Funds.

· It will invest across equity, gold and debt funds of mutual fund companies, diversifying risk to help
investors create long-term wealth.

· PhonePe has partnered with Aditya Birla Sun Life Mutual Fund (ABSLMF) for the product.

Q.27) Explanation:

· Recently, the government has appointed Economic Affairs Secretary Tarun Bajaj as a director on
the central board of Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

· He has replaced Atanu Chakraborty, who re red recently.

· Prior to taking over as Economic Affairs Secretary, Tarun Bajaj was the Addi onal Secretary in Prime
Minister's Office. He joined the Prime Minister's Office in 2015.

Q.28) Explanation:

· The government has decided to withdraw 7.75% Savings (Taxable) Bonds scheme from the close of
banking business due to declining interest rates.

· The Reserve Bank of India too has no fied the Cessa on of 7.75% Savings (Taxable) Bonds, 2018.

Q.29) Explanation:
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· Na onal Payment Corpora on of India (NPCI) has launched an ar ficial intelligence (AI) based
chatbot ‘Pai’.

Q.30) Explanation:

· Intellect Design Arena has ed up with IBM to launch iTurmeric FinCloud pla orm through IBM
public cloud targe ng financial ins tu ons which are looking to switch to the latest tools and
technologies.

Q.31) Explanation:

· Recently, R. Nidheej of Thiruvananthapuram railway division has designed and developed a

robot named “Rail Mitra.”

· It has been developed to distribute medicines, food and water and provide supplies necessary for
coronavirus positive patients.

· It will also help in limiting the chances of direct contact with patients

Q.32) Explanation:

· Recently, domestic cricket stalwart Rajinder Goel has died.

· He had played his last Ranji Trophy match from Haryana.

Q.33) Explanation:

· Recently, National Research Development Corporation (NRDC) has licensed five Micro Small
and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) for the manufacturing know-how of a PPE Suit.

· It has been named as NavRakshak.

· Developed at– Innovation Cell of the Institute of Naval Medicine, INHS Asvini Hospital (Mumbai)
of the Indian Navy.

Q.34) Explanation:

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· Recently, Union Cabinet has given its approval for declaration of Kushinagar Airport in Uttar
Pradesh as an International Airport.
Important International Airports of Uttar Pradesh –

· Lal Bahadur Shastri Airport - Varanasi

· Chaudhary Charan Singh International Airport - Lucknow

Q.35) Explanation:

· Recently, World’s first yoga university outside India has been launched in Los Angeles.

· It has been named as Vivekananda Yoga University (VaYU).

· It would be offering programmes that combine scientific principles and modern research approaches
to the ancient Indian practice of yoga.

· Eminent Indian yoga guru Dr. H R Nagendra, Chancellor of Swami Vivekananda Yoga
Anusandhana Samsthana (SVYASA) has become the first Chairman of VaYU.

Q.36) Explanation:

· Recently, Indian Institute of Management- IIM Ahmedabad has launched the ‘IIM Ahmedabad
Endowment Fund’.

· It has been launched with an initial commitment of Rs. 100 Crore from 10 founding alumni.

· Aim - to raise Rs.1000 crore over a period of five years.

Q.37) Explanation:

· Recently, China has successfully launched the last satellite of its BeiDou Navigation Satellite
System (BDS).
About BeiDou Navigation Satellite System

· BeiDou means “Big Dipper” in Chinese.

· It has been one of the global navigation networks alongside with the US’ GPS, Russia’s
GLONASS and the European Union’s Galileo.

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Q.38) Explanation:

· Recently, Fugaku of Japan has been ranked first in the “TOP500 list of supercomputer
benchmarking index”.
About Fugaku

· Jointly Developed by - RIKEN and Fujitsu

Q.39) Explanation:

· Recently, Microsoft India has offered Indian Railways a six-month free trial of its “Microsoft
Teams” platform.

· The platform has been powered by Office 365.

· It would support various railway establishments to ensure physical distancing, avoid travelling
and facilitate work-from-home in the ongoing COVID-19
(https://www.thehindu.com/topic/coronavirus/) outbreak.

Q.40) Explanation:

· Recently, NASA has tied up with HeroX to launch a Lunar Loo Challenge.

· Under the challenge, it has called on the global community for toilet designs that will work both
in microgravity and lunar gravity.

Q.41) Explanation:

· Recently, Amazon Pay has launched Smart Stores feature in India.

· It will empower local shops with capabilities to increase footfalls, improve customer experience and
generate more sales.

· It will also enable local shops to offer Amazon Pay reward coupons to attract new customers.

Q.42) Explanation:

· International Day against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking is observed annually on 26th June.

· Aim - To raise awareness of the major problem that illicit drugs represent to society.
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· Theme - "Better Knowledge for Better Care”.

Q.43) Explanation:

· PIDF – Payments Infrastructure Development Fund

Q.44) Explanation:

· Recently, the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has released a
circular regarding Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) code.

Q.45) Explanation:

· Recently, Ministry of Culture celebrated Sankalp Parva from 28th June to 12 July 2020.

· This ini a ve has been taken on the call of the Prime Minister to plant at least five trees either in
office campus or wherever it is possible, to ensure a clean and healthy environment of the country.

Q.46) Explanation:

· Under PMMY, loans for income genera ng ac vi es up to Rs. 50,000 are termed as Shishu loans.
Eligibility

· It will be extended to loans which meet the following criteria - outstanding as on 31st March, 2020;
and not in Non-Performing Asset (NPA) category, as per Reserve Bank of India (RBI) guidelines, on 31st
March 2020 and during the period of opera on of the Scheme.

Q.47) Explanation:

· Recently, Union Minister of Tribal Affairs Arjun Munda has announced the second phase of
programme GOAL (Going Online as Leaders) for tribal women.
About GOAL Programme

· It is a joint ini a ve of Facebook and the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

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· It aims at encouraging, inspiring and guiding tribal women from across India to become local level
digitally literate leaders.

· Objec ve: To digitally mentor 5000 young women in India’s tribal-dominated districts.

· Ministry of Tribal Affairs partners with Ni Aayog and Facebook are running GOAL for tribal women.

Q.48) Explanation:

· Recently, a Memorandum of Understanding on Indo-Denmark Energy Coopera on has been signed

between India and Denmark.

· Objec ve: To develop a strong, deep and long-term co-opera on between two countries in the
power sector on the basis of equality, reciprocity and mutual benefit

Q.49) Explanation:

· The Interna onal Day of Yoga has been celebrated annually on 21 June since 2015.

· This day aims to raise awareness worldwide of the many benefits of prac cing yoga.

· Theme (2020): "Yoga for Health - Yoga at Home"

· The Ministry of AYUSH celebrated the day by promo ng “Yoga at Home, Yoga with Family”
campaign.

Q.50) Explanation:

· Recently, an annual World Compe veness Index has been released in which India has been
ranked at the 43rd posi on.

· The reason for low ranking of India is the tradi onal weaknesses such as insufficient educa on
investment and poor infrastructure.

· This Index has been compiled by Ins tute for Management Development (IMD).

Q.51) Explanation:

· Jolly Grant Airport is located in Dehradun , U arakhand.

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Q.52) Explanation:

· GIFT stands for Gujarat Interna onal Finance-Tec City.

· It is an emerging global financial and IT services hub set up in Gandhinagar.

Q.53) Explanation:

· Hyderabad is called as India’s Hitech City.

Q.54) Explanation:

· Recently, it has been announced that India will see its first privately operated train running by
April 2023. The bidding process for this will be completed by April 2021.

· The Railways indicated that the plan to rope in private players came after an estimate showed
that passenger traffic is expected to grow by 55% by 2030.

Q.55) Explanation:

· Recently, IIT Kanpur has developed a classroom-to-home teaching setup named as ‘Mobile
Masterjee’.

· It can record the lectures or instructions by the teachers while using their available smart
phones.

· It can hold, position, and focus the whole recording setup, while making the online class a
comfortable home environment.

Q.56) Explanation:

· Recently, Shashank Manohar has formally stepped down as International Cricket Council
(ICC) chairman.

· He headed International Cricket Council (ICC) for four years.

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Q.57) Explanation:

· Recently, noted Bollywood choreographer Saroj Khan has passed away due to cardiac arrest.

· She was three-time National Award winner and has been credited for choreographing over 2,000
songs.

Q.58) Explanation:

· Recently, Ravindra Jadeja has been named as India's most valuable Test player in the 21st
century by the Wisden magazine.

· He is also rated as the second most valuable Test player worldwide, behind only Sri Lanka legend
Muttiah Muralitharan.

Q.59) Explanation:

· Recently, India’s flagship program ‘Fit India’ has launched a series of interactive sessions with
some of the top sportspersons of our country intended to inspire the school children – ‘Fit India
Talks’.

· These sessions are being organized in association with the Sports Authority of India and the
Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD).

Q.60) Explanation:

· Annual Joint Exercise ‘Sahyog-Kaijin’ has taken place in January 2020 between India and Japan.

· This year, the 19th edi on of this joint exercise will be conducted between the Coast Guards of
India and Japan.

Q.61) Explanation:

· Recently, it has been announced that Eminent Sindhi writer ‘Vasdev Mohi’ will be conferred with
29th Saraswa Samman.

· He has been selected for this pres gious literary award for his short stories collec on- Chequebook.

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Q.62) Explanation:

· Recently, Union Minister for Human Resource Development and Union Minister for Health and
Family Welfare has launched Drug Discovery Hackathon.
About Drug Discovery Hackathon 2020

· It is first of its kind na onal ini a ve for suppor ng drug discovery process.

· Joint Ini a ve of – Ministry of Human Resource and Development (MHRD), All India Council for
Technical Educa on (AICTE) and Council of Scien fic and Industrial Research (CSIR).

· Supported by – Partners like CDAC, MyGov, Schrodinger and ChemAxon.

· Objec ve – To iden fy drug candidates against coronavirus (SARS-CoV-2) by in-silico drug discovery
through the hackathon follow up by chemical synthesis and biological tes ng.

Q.63) Explanation:

· Recently, Madhya Pradesh has launched 'Intzaar Aap Ka' campaign.

· It has been launched to a ract tourists to the tourist places of the state.

· Under the campaign, Madhya Pradesh Tourism board has been invi ng tourists for safe ou ng
during the monsoon season at various religious, natural and archaeological tourist places like
Mahakaleshwar, Pachmarhi, Kanha, Bandhavgarh, Amarkantak etc.

Q.64) Explanation:

· Recently, The Central Board of Secondary Educa on (CBSE) and Facebook have partnered to
launch curriculum on digital safety and online well-being and Augmented Reality for students and
educators.

· Aim – To ensure online well-being of students and preparing them for the future of work.

· Objec ve - To give the learners an opportunity and pla orm to conceptualise, create and brand
their own AR experiences.

Q.65) Explanation:

· Recently, Na onal Thermal Power Corpora on (NTPC) has won the pres gious Confedera on of
Indian Industry (CII-ITC) Sustainability Award 2019.

· It has won the award under Outstanding Accomplishment in Corporate Excellence Category.

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· It has also received Commenda on for Significant Achievement in category of CSR.

Q.66) Explanation:

· Recently, Ministry of Railways has informed about major ini a ves towards mi ga on of global
warming and comba ng climate change.

· Indian Railways on MISSION MODE of becoming a "Green Railway" by 2030 (Net Zero Carbon
Emission)

Q.67) Explanation:

· Recently, Maldives and Sri Lanka have become the first two countries in the South-East Asia region
to eliminate both measles and rubella ahead of the 2023 target.

· A country has been verified as having eliminated measles and rubella when there is no evidence of
endemic transmission for over three years by a well-performing surveillance system.

Q.68) Explanation:

· Recently, NITI Aayog’s Atal Innova on Mission (AIM) today launched the ‘ATL App Development
Module.’

· It has been launched in collabora on with Indian homegrown startup Plezmo.

· Aim – To hone the skills of school students and transforming them from App users to App makers in
the mes to come under AIM’s flagship Atal Tinkering Labs ini a ve.

Q.69) Explanation:

· Tirana is the capital of Albania.

· Albanian lek is its currency.

Q.70) Explanation:

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· Recently, Na onal Thermal Power Corpora on (NTPC) has won the pres gious Confedera on of
Indian Industry (CII-ITC) Sustainability Award 2019.

· It has won the award under Outstanding Accomplishment in Corporate Excellence Category.

· It has also received Commenda on for Significant Achievement in category of CSR.

· The NTPSC has been running a GEM (Girl Empowerment Mission) program under its Corporate
Social Responsibility (CSR).
o It has been a 4 weeks residen al program ins tu onalized in the vicinity of its power sta ons for
benefit of school going girls from underprivileged background.
o It has been used to support in their overall development.

Q.71) Explanation:

· Recently, The Delhi government has launched the country’s first plasma bank to treat Covid-19
pa ents.

· It has been launched at the Ins tute of Liver and Biliary Sciences (ILBS) Hospital

Q.72) Explanation:

· Recently, Defence Research and Development Organisa on (DRDO) and Telangana Informa on
Technology Associa on (TITA) have joined hands to implement an automated management of
pa ent’s so ware SAMPARC for COVID-19.

· SAMPAC stands for Smart Automated Management of Pa ents and Risks.

Q.73) Explanation:

· Recently, The Na onal Intelligence Grid (NATGRID) has signed a memorandum of understanding
with the Na onal Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) to access the centralised online database on FIRs and
stolen vehicles.

· The agreement would give NATGRID access to the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems
(CCTNS) database, a pla orm that links around 14,000 police sta ons.

· All State police have been mandated to file First Informa on Reports (FIR) in the CCTNS.

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Q.74) Explanation:

· Recently, Flipkart and the Department of MSME and Mines, Government of Karnataka has signed
a memorandum of understanding to promote the State’s arts, cra s and handloom sectors.

· It would be promoted by bringing them on to the e-commerce pla orm and providing market
access.

· It has been signed under the under the Flipkart Samarth programme.

Q.75) Explanation:

· Recently, The Indian Ins tute of Technology Hyderabad (IITH) has collaborated with NVIDIA.

· It has collaborated to establish India’s first ‘NVIDIA AI Technology Centre’ (NVAITC).

Q.76) Explanation:

· Recently, BSNL in collaboration with State Bank of India has launched a UPI-based payment
platform named Bharat InstaPay.

· Bharat InstaPay will help its customers to do digital transactions on a real-time basis.

Q.77) Explanation:

· Recently, government has informed that interest rate on Public Provident Fund (PPF) has reduced
to 7.1% from 7.9%

· It has also announced that interest rate on Na onal Saving Cer ficates (NSC) has been reduced to
6.8% from 7.9%.

Q.78) Explanation:

· Recently, Ministry of HRD has launched Bharat Padhe Online campaign.

· Aim - To invite all the best brains in the country to share sugges ons and solu ons directly with HRD
Ministry to overcome constraints of online educa on.

· It was a one week long campaign for crowd sourcing of Ideas for Improving Online Educa on
ecosystem of India.

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Q.79) Explanation:

· The Na onal Payments Corpora on of India is an umbrella organisa on for opera ng retail
payments and se lement systems in India.

Q.80) Explanation:

· MDR stands for Merchant Discount Rate.

· It refers to the cost paid by merchant to a bank for accep ng payment through electronic means
such as credit card, debit card etc.

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