1 Diode Circuits: Rathi Classes
1 Diode Circuits: Rathi Classes
Q.3) The PIV rating of the diodes used in power Which of these statements is/are correct?
supply circuits are chosen by which one of the a) 1 and 2 Only b) 1, 2, 3
following criteria? (Vm is the peak input supply c) 3 Only d) 3 and 4 Only
voltage to the rectifier circuit used in the power [IES – 2010 EC]
supply)
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Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.8) A rectifier (without filter) with fundamental D
ripple frequency equal to twice the mains
frequency, has ripple factor of 0.482 and power
conversion efficiency equal to 81.2%. The 10 sin ωt R C
rectifier is 100 Ω 4 mF
f = 50 Hz
1. Bridge rectifier
2. Full – wave (non bridge) rectifier
3. Half – wave rectifier
[GATE-2014, EC-03]
Which of these are correct?
a) 2 and 3 only b) 2 only Q.6) For the circuit with ideal diodes shown in
c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3 the figure, the shape of the output (vout) for the
[IES – 2010 EC] given sine wave input (vm) will be
Vi
10V
t
-10V
a) b)
v0
v0
4.3 V
a) b)
t
t
- 4.3 V
c) d)
5V
+5 V
t
c) d)
t
-5V -5V
4
Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.14) The peak value of the output voltage Vo Q.18) The use of a rectifier filter in a capacitor
across the capacitor shown in the figure for a circuit given satisfactory performance only when
230 : 9 transformer and a 230 V, 50 Hz., input, the load
assuming 0.7 V diode drop and an ideal a) Current is high b) Current is low
transformer, is c) Voltage is high d) Voltage is low
230 V [IES – 2001 EC]
1000 mF
Vo Q.19) For a full-wave rectifier with shunt
~ capacitor filter, the peak-to-peak ripple voltage
is
230 : 9
a) 2IDC fc b) IDC fc
a) 12.73 b) 11.33 c) 7.6 d) 9.0 c) IDC 2fc d) IDC 4fc
[GATE – 2005 IE] (Where = fundamental power line frequency,
IDC = DC current)
Q.15) Consider the following statements in [IES – 2003 EC]
relation to a large value of capacitor filter used Q.20) The output Vdc from the below circuit is
in a full-wave rectifier: It gives the D(ideal)
1. low conduction period for the diode rectifier. +
2. increased peak current rating of the diode.
3. large peak inverse voltage rating of the
diode. 100µF
Which of these statements are correct? 230 V 12 V C Vdc
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 and 3 50 Hz
c) 1 and 2 d) 1 and 3
[IES – 2000 EC]
-
Q.16) Consider the following statements: 12
a) 12√2 b) 𝜋
24 12
The function of bleeder resistance in filter circuit c) d)
𝜋 √2
is to
[IES – 2010 EC]
1. Maintain minimum current necessary for
optimum inductor filter operation
Q.21) The transfer characteristic for the
2. Work as voltage divider in order to provide
precision rectifier circuit shown below is
variable output from the supply.
(assume ideal OP – AMP and practical diodes)
3. Provide discharge path to capacitors so that
+20 V
output becomes zero when the circuit has
been de-energised. R
Which of these statements are correct?
4R
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3 D2
[IES – 2001 EC] Vi -
R V0
+ D1
Q.17) Consider the following rectifier circuits for
low load:
1. Half-wave rectifier without filter.
2. Full-wave rectifier without filter. a) b)
V0
3. Full-wave rectifier with series inductance
V0
filter.
10
4. Full-wave rectifier with capacitance filter.
The sequence of these rectifier circuits in 5
decreasing order of their ripple factor is
VI VI
a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 3, 4, 1, 2 -10 -5 0 -10 -5 0
c) 1, 4, 3, 2 d) 3, 2, 1, 4
[IES – 2001 EC]
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Rathi classes Analog Electronics
R
c) d)
V0 V0 R
R +Vsat
10 vi R +Vsat
-
5 -
+
+ vo
-Vsat
VI VI R
0 +5 0 +5 -Vsat
R
[GATE – 2010 EC]
Vi Vi
c) d)
What is the function of diode D2 in the above V0
V0
circuit?
a) To avoid saturation of the Op-Amp
1 Vi Vi -1
b) To provide negative feedback when the input
is negative
c) To reduced reverse breakdown voltage of D1
[GATE-2014, EE-03]
d) As a buffer
[IES – 2004 EC]
Q.25) Assuming the diodes D1 and D2 of the
Q.23) In the circuit shown below the switch (S)
circuit shown in figure to be ideal ones, the
is closed whenever the input voltage (Vin) is
transfer characteristics of the circuit will be
positive and open otherwise.
R R D1 V0
D2
2O
R Vi RL =
- 0.5 R
R -
10 V 5V
+ S Vout
+
a) b)
Vin
Vo Vo
The circuit is a
a) Low – pass filter b) Level shifter 10 5
c) Modulator d) Precision rectifier
[GATE – 2007 IE] 10 Vi 5 Vi
10
10 Vi
6
Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.5) The equivalent circuits of a diode, during
forward biased and reverse biased conditions, c) d)
are shown in the figure 10 10
+ - + - Vo
Vo
- + 4.3 - 5.7
4.3 10 10
(a) Vi -5.7 Vi
If such a diode is used in clipper circuit of figure For the circuit shown above, which one of the
given above, the output voltage (V0) of the following is a correct statement?
circuit will be a) D2 does not conduct for any value of Vi
a) b) b) v0 = 10 V for all values of vi > 10 V
+5V
10V c) v0 = 0 V for all values of vi < 0 V
0 00 2 d) v0 = 10 V for all values of vi > 0 V
0 2
-5V
- 5.7V
Q.29) The figure given below shows the transfer
characteristics of which one of the following:
c) d) Vout
+5.7V +5.7V Vf
0 2 0 2
-10V -5V Vin
Slope ‘s’
Q.27) A clipper circuit is shown below
a) Peak clipper b) Bottom clipper
c) Clamper d) Two level clipper
[IES – 2008 EC]
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Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.5) Assuming the diodes to be ideal in the Which of the statements given above are
figure, for the output to be clipped, the input correct?
voltage vi must be outside the range a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3
[IES – 2005 EC]
10k
Q.34) Select the correct output (v0) wave-shape
vi 10k vo for a given input (vi) in the clamping network
1V 2V given below:
a) -1 V to -2 V b) -2 V to -4 V t
c) +1 V to -2 V d) +2 V to -4 V
[GATE-2014, EE-02]
a) b)
Q.32) For a given sinusoidal input voltage, the
voltage waveform at point P of the clamper
circuit shown in figure will be
Vm +12V
- + c) d)
-
C RL
+ P
-
~ Vin - 12 V
+
c) d)
12 V
-0.7
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Q.36) The circuit shown in the figure is best c) 2Vm d)-Vm
described as a [IES – 2010 EC]
9
Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.43) A zener diode regulator in the figure is to Q.46) For the circuit shown below, assume that
be designed to meet the specifications: the zener diode is ideal with a breakdown
IL = 10mA, Vo=10V and Vin varies from 30V to voltage of 6 volts. The waveform observed
50V. The zener diode has Vz = 10V and Izk across R is
(knee current) = 1mA. For satisfactory operation 6V
R
+
IL = 10mA +
RL
Vin Vo RL 12sin t R VR
Dz
- -
a)
a) R ≤1800Ω 6V
b) 2000Ω ≤ R ≤ 2200Ω
c) 3700Ω ≤ R ≤ 4000Ω
d) R > 4000Ω
[GATE – 2002 EC] b)
6V
-6V
Vi
a) 23.7 mA b) 14.2 mA
c) 13.7 mA d) 24.2 mA
[GATE – 2005 EC]
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Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.47) The power dissipation across the
transistor Q1shown in the figure is
a) 4.8 Watts b) 5.0 Watts
c) 5.4 Watts d) 6.0 Watts
[GATE – 2006 EC]
Vi
Vo
R
Vz = 4.7 V
-
Q.50) The input voltage of Zener regulator Q.54) In the circuit shown below, the Zener
varies from 20 V to 30 V. the load current varies diode is ideal and the Zener voltage is 6 V. The
from 10mA to 15 mA. If the Zener voltage is 5 output voltage V0 (in volts) is _________.
V, the value of series resistor will be
a) 1 kΩ b) 1.5 kΩ
c) 1.66 kΩ d) 2.5 kΩ
[IES – 2000 EC]
11
Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.55) In the following limiter circuit, an input 10 kΩ
voltage Vi = 10sin 100πt is applied. Assume
that the diode drop is 0.7 V when it is forward
biased. The Zener breakdown voltage is 6.8 V. 10kΩ
10 V V0 15 V
10kΩ
a) 4V b) 5V c) 7.5V d) 12.12V
[GATE – 2010 EE]
The maximum and minimum values of the Q.6) A 40 V dc supply is connected across the
output voltage respectively are network comprising of Zener and silicon diodes
a) 6.1 V, -0.7 V b) 0.7 V, -7.5 V as shown. The regulated voltages V01, V02 and
c) 7.5 V, -0.7 V d) 7.5 V. - -7.5 V source current Is are
[GATE – 2008 EC] 1.5 K
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Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.62) The diode in the circuit given below has
VON = 0.7 V but is ideal other wise. The current
(in mA) in the 4 k resistor is _________.
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Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Chapter – 2 a) Cut-off
c) normal active
b) saturation
d) reverse active
Transistor Biasing, [GATE – 2007 EC]
Stabilization &
Q.4) The transistor circuit shown uses a silicon
Current Mirror Circuit transistor with VBE = 0.7 V, IC ≈ IE and a dc
current gain of 100. The value of Vo is
Q.1) Choose the correct match for input
resistance of various amplifier configurations
shown below
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Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.6) CE configuration is the most preferred What is the output voltage V0 in the above
transistor configuration when used as a switch circuit?
because a) 0 V b) 12 V c) 9 V d) 7.5 V
a) It requires only one power supply [IES - 2004 EC]
b) It requires low voltage or current for
operating the switch Q.11) A BJT is biased in forward active mode.
c) It is easily understood by every one Assume VBE = 0.7 V, kT/q = 25 mV and reverse
d) It has small ICEO saturation current Is = 10-13 A. The
[IES – 2008 EC] transconductance of the BJT(in mA/V) is
_________.
Q.7) Why npn-transistors are preferred over [GATE – 2014, EC-01]
pnp-transistors?
a) Leakage current in npn-transistors is less Q.12) In the circuit of the figure, assume that
than pnp-transistors the transistor is in the active region. It has a
b) Mobility of majority carrier in npn-transistors large β and its base-emitter voltage is 0.7V. The
is greater than the mobility of majority carrier value of Ic is
in pnp-transistors 15V
c) Bias voltage required in npn is less than in
pnp-transistors
d) Bias voltage required in npn is greater than 10k Ω RC
in pnp-transistors. IC
[IES – 2009 EC]
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Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.14) Assuming VCEsat = 0.2V and β = 50, the 20V
minimum base current (IB) required to drive the 2kΩ Vo
430kΩ
transistor in the figure to saturation is
3V
IC
10µF
40µF
1kΩ 1kΩ
IB
2.2 kΩ
4kΩ
+
VCE
-
1kΩ
300Ω
a) 20 b) 30 c) 40 d) 50
[GATE – 2013 EC]
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Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.19) Consider the circuit shown in figure. If the
β of the transistor is 30 and ICBO is 20 nA and
the input voltage is +5 V, the transistor would be 2.5 kΩ
operating in Si Transistor
+12 V β=100
2.2 kΩ
15kΩ
Vi Q
Vz = 5V
-12 V
If the forward voltage drop of diode is 0.7 V, What is voltage difference between collector
then the current through collector will be and emitter (VCE) in the above circuit?
a) 168 mA b) 108 mA a) 10/3 V b) 0 V
c) 20.54 mA d) 5.36 mA c) 5 V d) 3 V
[GATE – 2011 EE] [IES – 2004 EC]
a) 2 V b) 4.6 V c) 8 V d) 8.6 V
[IES – 1999 EC]
17
Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.25) For a CE amplifier, d.c. load line is which 10 V
one of the following plots?
a) IC versus VCE for a given value of (RC + RE) RC
and VCC.
50 kΩ
b) IB versus VEE for a given value of (RC + RE) 5V
and VCC. RB
c) IB versus VCE for a given value of IB.
d) IC versus VCB for a given value of IE.
[IES – 2007 EC] a) For RC = 1 kΩ, the BJT operates in the
saturation region
Q.26) In the circuit shown, the PNP transistor b) For RC = 3 kΩ, the BJT operates in the
has |VBE| = 0.7 V and β = 50. Assume that RB = saturation region
100 kΩ. For V0 to be 5 V, the value of RC(in kΩ) c) For RC = 20 kΩ, the BJT operates in the cut-
is __________. off region
d) For RC = 20 kΩ, the BJT operates in the
linear region.
RC [GATE – 2014, EC-03]
V0 Q.29) The transistor in the given circuit should
always be in active region. Take VCE(sat) = 0.2
V, VBE = 0.7 V. The maximum value of RC in Ω
which can be used, is ____________.
RB VEE = 10 V
RC
+
[GATE – 2014, EC-03] RS= 2kΩ 5V
-
β =100
Q.27) For the common collector amplifier shown +
in the figure, the BJT has high β, negligible 5V
-
VCE(sat), and VBE = 0.7 V. The maximum
undistorted peak-to-peak output voltage vo(in
Volts) is ___________. [GATE – 2014, EE-02]
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Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.31) In the following circuit, the transistor is in
Vcc = 5V
active mode and VC = 2 V. To get VC = 4 V, we
R
replace RC with RC . Then the ratio C is Rc = 1kΩ
RC
______.
Vout
β = 100
+
Vin 1 mA
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Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.37) Operating point shift can occur in an Q.41) Consider the following statements:
amplifier due to which one of the following? Bias stabilization in a BJT circuit is very
a) Input frequency variation important, because it
b) Noise at the input 1. Provides high voltage and current gain.
c) Parasitic capacitances 2. Ensures large bandwidth of the amplifier.
d) Power supply fluctuation 3. Keeps the operating point unchanged with
[IES – 2007 EC] change of temperature.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Q.38) Consider the following statements: a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
The bias stability of an emitter – bias amplifier c) 3 only d) 1 and 3
circuit improves by [IES – 2008 EC]
1. Decreasing the value of RB.
2. Increasing the value of RE. Q.42) In the silicon BJT circuit shown below,
3. Decreasing the value of RE. assume that the emitter area of transistor Q1 is
4. Increasing the value of RB. half that of transistor Q2.
5. Increasing the value of RC. I0
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 R = 9.3 kΩ
c) 3 and 4 d) 4 and 5
[IES – 2009 EC]
Q1 Q2
Q.39) Consider the following statements: (β1 = 700) (β2 = 715)
The basic purpose of bias stabilization in a
transistor circuit is to
1. Increase the voltage and current gain of the
amplifier. -10 v
2. Make the operating point of the transistor
independent of temperature variation of the The value of current Io is approximately
transistor. a) 0.5 mA b) 2 mA
3. Make the operating point independent of the c) 9.3 mA d) 15 mA
replacement of the same type, Ge or Si. [GATE – 2010 EC]
Which of the statements given above are
correct? Q.43) Two perfectly matched silicon transistors
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only are connected as shown in figure. The value of
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 the current I is
[IES – 2007 EC] +3V
1kΩ I
Q.40) Assertion (A): A fixed bias BJT circuit
exhibits better performance as compared to a ß=1000 ß=1000
+
self bias BJT circuit. 0.7 V
Reason (R): A fixed bias BJT circuit uses less
components as compared to a self bias BJT
circuit.
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is -5V
the correct explanation of A. a) 0 mA b) 2.3 mA
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is c) 4.3 mA d) 7.3 mA
not the correct explanation of A. [GATE – 2004 EE]
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
[IES – 2009 EC]
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Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.44) Two perfectly matched silicon transistor Q.47) In the circuit shown in the given figure,
are connected as shown in the figure. Assuming the current flowing through resistance of 100 Ω
the β of the transistors to be very high and the would be
forward voltage drop in diodes to be 0.7 V, the
value of current is
+5V
1kΩ
Q1 Q2
-5V
a) 0 mA b) 3.6 mA
c) 4.3 mA d) 5.7 mA
V2
a) 33.9 V b) 27.8 V
c) 16.2 V d) 0.7 V
[GATE - 2010 IE]
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Rathi classes Analog Electronics
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c) Both input resistance Ri and the magnitude Q.11) The transconductance gm of the
of voltage gain Av decreases transistor shown in figure is 10 mS. The value
d) Both input resistance Ri and the magnitude of the input resistance RIN is
of voltage gain Av increase.
[GATE – 2010 EC]
RB RC
C2 a) 10.0 kΩ b) 8.3 kΩ
C1 + c) 5.0 kΩ d) 2.5 kΩ
RS V0 RL [GATE – 2004 EE]
+ -
Vs Q.12) In the amplifier circuit shown below,
- assume VBE = 0.7 V and the β of the transistor
and the values of C1 and C2 are extremely high.
If the amplifier is designed such that at the
quiescent point its VCE = VCC/2, where VCC is the
Q.8) The resistance seen by the source Vs is power supply voltage, its small signal
a) 250 Ω b) 1258 Ω c) 93 kΩ d) ∞ 𝑉
Voltage gain | 𝑉𝑜𝑢𝑡 | will be
[GATE – 2010 EC] 𝑖𝑛
a) 3.75 b) 4.5 c) 9 d) 19
[GATE - 2008 IE]
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Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.13) An amplifier circuit is shown in the given Q.17) A common emitter transistor amplifier has
figure: (VT = 25 mV) a collector load of 10 kΩ. If its
ℎ𝑓𝑒 = 100 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ℎ𝑖𝑒 = 2 𝑘𝛺 (ℎ𝑟𝑒 ≈ ℎ𝑜𝑒 ≈ 0), the
voltage amplification of the amplifier is nearly
equal to
a) 500 b) 200 c) 100 d) 50
[IES - 2011 EC]
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Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.20) If the emitter resistance in a a) 1 b) 10 c) 20 d) 100
common-emitter voltage amplifier is not [GATE – 2014, EE-01]
bypassed, it will
a) reduce both the voltage gain and the input Q.23) In the ac equivalent circuit shown, the two
impedance BJT’s are biased in active region and have
b) reduce the voltage gain and increase the identical parameters with 1. The open
input impedance circuit small signal voltage gain is approximately
c) increase the voltage gain and reduce the ________.
input impedance
d) increase both the voltage gain and the input
impedance.
[GATE – 2014 EC-04]
Vin
Vout
RE
a) gmRE<<1 b) ICRE>>VT
c) gmro>>1 d) VBE >> VT
[GATE – 2014 EC-04]
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Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Chapter – 4 ib B C
26
Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.10) The common emitter current gain-
bandwidth product of a transistor (fT) is defined
as the frequency at which
a) Alpha of the transistor falls by 3 dB
b) Beta of the transistor falls by 3 dB
c) Beta of the transistor falls to unity
d) Power gain of the transistor falls to unity
[IES – 2003 EC]
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Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Chapter – 5 a)
b)
Q.1) In the cascode amplifier shown in the IGainl
figure, if the common-emitter stages (Q1) has a
transconductance gm1, and the common base Frequency
stage (Q2) has a transconductance gm2, then the c)
overall transconductance g(=i0/Vi) of the
cascade amplifier is IGainl
Q2
I0 Frequency
V0
d)
IGainl
RL
Vi Q1
Frequency
[GATE – 2005 EE]
a) gm1 b) gm2 c) gm1/2 d) gm2/2 Q.6) The given figure shown a composite
[GATE – 1999 EC] transistor consisting of a MOSFET and a bipolar
transistor in cascade
Q.2) An amplifier is assumed to have a single-
pole high-frequency transfer function. The rise
time of its output response to a step function
input is 35 nsec. The upper -3 dB frequency (in
MHz) for the amplifier to a sinusoidal input is
approximately at C is very large
a) 4.55 b) 10 c)20 d) 28.6
[GATE – 1999 EC]
Q.3) Three identical amplifiers with each one The MOSFET has a trans-conductance gm of 2
having a voltage gain of 50, input resistance of mA/V and the bipolar transistor has 𝛽( ∆= ℎ𝑓𝑒 ) of
1KΩ and output resistance of 250Ω, are 99. The overall transconductance of the
cascaded. The open circuit voltage gain of the composite transistor is
combined amplifier is a) 198 mA/V b) 19.8 mA/V
a) 49 dB b) 51 dB c) 1.98 A/V d) 1.98 mA/V
c) 98 dB d) 102 dB [IES – 1999 EC]
[GATE – 2003 EC]
Q.7) Consider the following statements
Q.4) The cascode amplifier is a multistage regarding the bootstrap biasing arrangement for
configuration of a BJT emitter follower:
a) CC-CB b) CE-CB 1. The input impedance is very high.
c) CB-CC d) CE-CC 2. The voltage gain is exactly equal to one.
[GATE – 2005 EC] 3. The output impedance is equal to zero.
Which of these statements is correct?
Q.5) The typical frequency response of a two- a) None b) 2 alone
stage direct coupled voltage amplifier is as c) 3 alone d) 1 alone
shown in [IES – 2000 EC]
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Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.8) Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer the using the codes
The lower cut-off frequencies for an RC coupled given below:
CE amplifier depend on a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
1. input and output coupling capacitors c) 3 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 4
2. emitter bypass capacitor [IES – 2003 EC]
3. junction capacitors
Which of these statements is/are correct? Q.14) Assertion (A): If the emitter bypass
a) 1 alone b) 2 alone capacitor of an R-C coupled, CE amplifier gets
c) 1 and 2 d) 2 and 3 disconnected, its voltage gain increase.
[IES – 2000 EC] Reason (R): The unbypassed emitter resistor
gives negative feedback.
Q.9) If the Q of a single-stage signal-tuned a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
amplifier is doubled, then its bandwidth will explanation of A
a) remain same b) become half b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
c) become double d) become four times correct explanation of A
[IES – 2000 EC] c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Q.10) An RC amplifier stage has a bandwidth of [IES – 2003 EC]
500 kHz. What will be rise time of this amplifier
stage? Q.15) A tuned amplifier has a voltage gain of
a) 0.35 µs b) 0.7 µs 100 and a bandwidth of 10 kHz. It is required to
c) 1.0 µs d) 2.0 µs increase the bandwidth to 20 kHz. This can be
[IES – 2002 EC] achieved by which one of the following ways?
a) By doubling the gain
Q.11) Consider the following statements in b) By doubling the resonant frequency
respect of a transistor R-C coupled amplifier: c) By halving the Q of the coil
1. The low frequency response is determined d) By halving the power supply voltage
by the transistor junction capacitors. [IES – 2004 EC]
2. The high frequency response is limited by
coupling capacitors. Q.16) Assertion (A): In a Darlington connection,
3. The Miller capacitance reduces the gain at two transistors are connected in cascade in
high frequencies. common emitter configuration.
4. As the gain is increased the bandwidth gets
reduced. Reason (R): The Darlington connection aims at
Which of these statements are correct? making the current gain very high, almost equal
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 to the product of beta of individual transistors.
c) 3 and 4 d) 1 and 4
[IES – 2003 EC] a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
Q.12) An amplifier has two identical cascaded b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
stages. Each stage has a bandwidth of 20 kHz. correct explanation of A
The overall bandwidth shall approximately be c) A is true but R is false
equal to d) A is false but R is true
a) 10 kHz b) 12.9 kHz [IES – 2005 EC]
c) 20 kHz d) 28.3 kHz
[IES – 2003 EC] Q.17) A transistor RC coupled amplifier is
designed for a voltage and band gain of 20. But
Q.13) Which of the following components a measurement at a particular frequency shows
control the low frequency of the R-C coupled the gain to be only 14. What is the likely phase
amplifier? shift at this frequency?
1. Wiring capacitance a) 1800 b) 1350
2. Parasitic capacitance of transistor c) 900 d) 450
3. Coupling capacitances [IES – 2005 EC]
4. Emitter bypass capacitance
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Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.18) A cascaded amplifier comprises N c) 80 kHz, 2.04 MHz, 1.96 MHz
identical non-interacting of fL. If fL* is the lower 3 d) 80 kHz, 2.08 MHz, 1.92 MHz
dB frequency of the cascade amplifier, then [IES – 2007 EC]
which one of the following is correct?
Q.24) For the amplifier shown in the figure
a) 𝑓𝐿∗ = 𝑓𝐿 given below, the lower cut-off frequency
b) 𝑓𝐿∗ = 𝑓𝐿 √21/𝑁 − 1 depends on which of the following?
c) 𝑓𝐿∗ = 𝑓𝐿 /√21/𝑁 − 1 +V
+
𝑓𝐿∗
CC
d) = 𝑓𝐿 /𝑁
[IES – 2005 EC]
RC
Q.19) The two stages of a cascade amplifier R1 CC
have individual upper cut-off frequency f1 = 5 Vout
CS
MHz and f2 = 3.33 MHz. what is the best
approximation for the upper cut-off frequency of RL
the cascade combination? RS
a) 4.16 MHz b) 3.33 MHz R2
RE
c) 2.5 MHz d) 5.00 MHz CE
VS
[IES – 2006 EC]
Q.22) In an amplifier, the power output is 2W at Q.26) Which of the following components
5 kHz, and 0.5 W at 50 Hz. If the input power is control the high frequency response of the R –
constant at 10 mW, what is the variation C coupled amplifier?
(approximate) of power gain in dB at two 1. Parasitic capacitances of the transistor
frequencies? (𝑙𝑜𝑔10 2 ≈ 0.30) 2. Coupling capacitance
a) 6 dB b) 8 dB 3. Stray capacitances
c) 3 dB d) 16 dB 4. Wiring capacitance
[IES – 2007 EC] Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Q.23) A tuned amplifier has peak output at 2 a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
MHz and quality factor 50. The bandwidth and 3 c) 3 and 4 only d) 1, 3 and 4
– dB frequencies shall be at what values [IES – 2008 EC]
respectively?
a) 40 kHZ, 2.02 MHz, 1.98 MHz
b) 40 kHz, 2.04 MHz, 1.96 MHz
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Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.27) In an RC coupled transistor amplifier respectively. If the resistance RE is increased,
then .
1. Low – frequency response is determined by VCC
coupling capacitors.
2. High – frequency response is determined by RC RC
junction capacitances.
VO
3. Mid – frequency response is determined by + -
both coupling and junction capacitances. +
Which of the following will be corrc? Vi
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 -
[IES – 2011 EC]
RE IO
Q.28) The peak output of a tuned amplifier is at
6 MHz and has quality factor of 60. The
bandwidth and 3 dB frequencies shall be -VEE
a) 100 MHz, 6.05 MHz and 5.95 MHz a) Acm increases
b) 6 MHz, 9 MHz and 3 MHz b) common-mode rejection ratio increases
c) 600 kHz, 6.6 MHz and 5.4 MHz
c) Ad increases
d) 100 kHz, 6.05 MHz and 5.95 MHz
d) common-mode rejection ratio decreases
[IES – 2011 EC]
[GATE - 2014 EC-02]
Q.29) The lower 3 dB frequency of an n – stage
Q.33) A cascade connection of two voltage
amplifier with non – interacting stages is given
amplifiers A1 and A2 is shown in the figure. The
by
𝑓𝐿 open-loop gain Av0, input resistance Rin, and
a) 1/𝑛 b) 𝑓𝐿 [√21/𝑛 − 1]
√2 −1 output resistance Ro for A1 and A2 are as
follows:
𝑓𝐿
c) d) 𝑓𝐿 [√21/𝑛 − 𝑛] A1 : Av0 = 10, Rin = 10 kΩ, Ro = 1 kΩ.
√21/𝑛 −𝑛
[IES – 2012 EC] A2 : Av0 = 5, Rin = 5 kΩ, Ro = 200 Ω.
The approximate overall voltage gain Vout/Vin is
Q.30) A change in the value of the emitter __________.
resistance Re in a differential amplifier
a) Affects the difference mode gain, Ad
b) Affects the common mode gain, Ac + +
c) Affects both Ad and Ac
d) Does not affect either Ad or Ac Vin RL V
A1 A2 out
[IES – 2012 EC] 1 kΩ
- -
Q.31) The transfer function of a transistor
amplifier is given by
𝑉𝑜 4240 [GATE – 2014, EC-02]
𝐴v = =
𝑉𝑠 (1 + 𝑗 𝑓 𝑓
) (1 + 𝑗 )
4 × 105 4 × 106
Which one of the following gives the
approximate upper 3-dB frequency fH* of the
amplifier?
a) 4 × 105 𝐻𝑧 b) 2.2 × 106 𝐻𝑧
6
c) 4 × 10 𝐻𝑧 d) 4.4 × 106 𝐻𝑧
[IES - 2004 EC]
31
Rathi classes Analog Electronics
32
Rathi classes Analog Electronics
VDD = 25 V Q.10) Consider the following statements:
In JFET amplifiers, high frequency response
R = 10kΩ can be improved by using peaking circuits
containing inductors
Vout 1. In series with drain resistance RD
2. In series with the coupling capacitance
3. As a feedback element between drain and
+ gate
Vin = 2mV Which of the statements given above are
~ correct?
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
2V c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3
[IES – 2004 EC]
IDs = 1 (mA)
Vgs = 4 V Q.11) Assertion (A): The self bias technique as
4 used for a JFET cannot be used for establishing
3V an operating point for the enhancement
3
MOSFET.
2V
2
Reason (R): The voltage drop across RS is such
1V that it reverses biases the gate
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
1 explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
0 correct explanation of A
VDs(V) c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Q.7) The transconductance of the MOSFET is [IES – 2005 EC]
a) 0.75 ms b) 1 ms
c) 2 ms d) 10 ms Q.12) For the circuit shown below if gm = 3 x
[GATE – 2005 EE] 10-3 & Rs = 3000 Ω, then what is the value of
R0?
Q.8) The voltage gain of the amplifier is
a) +5 b) -7.5 c) +10 d) -10
[GATE – 2005 EE]
a) 3000 Ω b) 1000/3 Ω
c) 300 Ω d) 100 Ω
[IES – 2006 EC]
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Q.14) In an FET common-source high
frequency amplifier, which one of the following
is the correct expression for input capacitance
Ci?
a) 𝐶𝑖 = 𝐶𝑔𝑠 + (1 − 𝐴v )𝐶𝑔𝑑
b) 𝐶𝑖 = 𝐶𝑔𝑠 + (1 − 1/𝐴v )𝐶𝑔𝑑
c) 𝐶𝑖 = 𝐶𝑔𝑑 + (1 − 𝐴v )𝐶𝑔𝑠
d) 𝐶𝑖 = 𝐶𝑔𝑑 + (1 − 1/𝐴v )𝐶𝑔𝑠
[IES – 2006 EC]
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a) Shunt-series feedback +15 V
b) Shunt-shunt feedback
c) Series-shunt feedback
d) Series-series feedback
[GATE – 2003 EE] 1 µF
Vi
Q.9) The nature of feedback in the opamp
circuit shown is
+6V Vo
2kΩ
1kΩ
- 1 MΩ 1.5 MΩ
+
Vout
Vin ~ -6V
The nature of feedback in this circuit is
a) Positive current b)Negative current
a) Current – Current feedback c) Positive voltage d) Negative voltage
b) Voltage – Voltage feedback [GATE – 2007 IE]
c) Current – Voltage feedback
d) Voltage – Current feedback Q.12) (A): A large negative feedback is
[GATE – 2009 EE] deliberately introduced in an amplifier to make
its gain independent of the variation of
Q.10) In a Voltage feedback as shown below, parameters of the active device and other circuit
which one of the following statements is TRUE components.
if the gain k is increased? Reason (R): A large negative feedback result in
+ + A0 + a high value of return difference compared to
- Vin V1 - Vout -
unity, which makes the feedback gain inversely
proportional to the feedback factor.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
+ k + correct explanation of A
V f = k Vout - - c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
a) The input impedance increases and output [IES – 1999 EC]
impedance decreases.
b) The input impedance increases and output Q.13) The given circuit has a feedback factor of
impedance also increases.
c) The input impedance decreases and output
impedance also decreases.
d) The input impedance decrease and output
impedance increases.
[GATE – 2013 EC/EE]
a) – 𝑅𝐶 /𝑅𝑆 b) – 𝑅𝐸 /𝑅𝐶
c) – 𝑅𝐸 /𝑅𝑆 d) – 𝑅𝐶 /𝑅𝐸
[IES – 1999 EC]
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Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.14) The voltage gains of an amplifier without Q.19) A feedback amplifier has an open loop
feedback and with negative feedback gain of -100. If 4% of the output is fed back in a
respectively are 100 and 20. The percentage of degenerative loop, what is the closed loop gain
negative feedback (𝛽) would be of the amplifier?
a) 4% b) 5% c) 20% d) 80% a) -33.3 b) -25 c) -20 d) +25
[IES – 2000 EC] [IES – 2008 EC]
Q.15) Assertion (A): In an amplifier with Q.20) An amplifier has gain A = 100 ∠ 1800,
negative feedback, the gain-stability is improved upper cut off frequency of 100 kHz and lower
by the factor 1 + 𝐴𝛽 where A is the magnitude cut off frequency of 1 kHz. A negative feedback
of gain and 𝛽 is the feedback factor. of β = 0.1 is added. Which one of the flowing is
Reason (R): The relation between gain with not correct?
feedback Af and gain without feedback A, is a) Gain becomes 100/11
𝐴 dA 1 𝑑𝐴 b) Lower cur off frequency becomes (100/11)
𝐴𝑓 = 1+𝐴𝛽 . Thus 𝐴 f = 1+𝐴𝛽 | 𝐴 |
𝑓 kHz
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct c) Upper cut off frequency becomes 1.1 MHz.
explanation of A d) dB of feedback is 20 log10 11
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the [IES – 2008 EC]
correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false Q.21) Match List – I (Type of feedback) with
d) A is false but R is true List – II (Effect on Rin and Rout) and select the
[IES – 2001 EC] correct answer using the code given below the
lists
Q.16) In a BJT amplifier with the introduction of List – I
feedback, the input impedance is reduced, A. Voltage series
output impedance is increased, bandwidth is B. Voltage Shunt
increased and distortion is reduced. The C. Current Series
feedback is D. Current shunt
a) Voltage series b) Current series List – II
c) Voltage shunt d) Current shunt 1. Rin increases and Rout decreases
[IES – 2003 EC] 2. Rin and Rout decrease
3. Rin and Rout increase
Q.17) An amplifier has an open loop gain of 4. Rin decreases and Rout increases.
1000 ± 10. Negative feedback is provided such Codes
that the gain variation remains within 0.1%. A B C D
What is the amount of feedback 𝛽𝐹 ? a) 1 4 3 2
a) 1/10 b) 1/9 c) 9/100 d) 9/1000 b) 3 2 1 4
[IES – 2006 EC] c) 3 4 1 2
d) 1 2 3 4
Q.18) In a negative feedback amplifier, when is [IES – 2008 EC]
the input impedance increased?
a) If the signal sampled is a voltage Q.22) Consider the following:
b) If the signal sampled is a current 1. Oscillator
c) If the feedback signal is a voltage 2. Emitter follower
d) If the feedback signal is a current 3. Cascaded amplifier
[IES – 2007 EC] 4. Power amplifier
Which of these use feedback amplifiers?
a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 4 d) 3 and 4
[IES – 2009 EC]
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Q.23) Which of the following describe the Q.27) In the ac equivalent circuit shown in the
correct properties of an emitter follower circuit? figure, if iin is the input current and RF is very
1. It is a voltage series feedback circuit. large, the type of feedback is
2. It is a current series feedback circuit.
3. Its voltage gain is less than unity.
4. Its output impedance is very low.
Select the correct answer from the codes given RD
RD
below: vout
a) 1,3 and 4 b) 2, 3 and 4 M2
c) 2 and 3 only d) 2 and 4 only
[IES – 2009 EC] M1
Rc Io
a) voltage series feedback
b) voltage shunt feedback Vo
c) current series feedback
d) current shunt feedback
[IES – 2011 EC] Rs
RE
Q.25) The second – harmonic component in the Vs
output of a transistor amplifier, without
feedback, is B2. The second harmonic
a) Voltage shunt feedback
component, with negative feedback B’2 is equal
b) Current series feedback
to (where A = Amplifier gain and β = feedback
c) Current shunt feedback
factor).
𝐵2 d) Voltage series feedback
a) 1+𝐴𝛽 b) 𝐵2 ( 1 + 𝐴𝛽) [GATE - 2014 EC-02]
38
Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Chapter – 8 a)
1
b)
1
Oscillators ( 2 6RC ) ( RC )
2
1 1
c) d)
Q.1) The configuration of the figure is a
R1 R2
( 6 RC ) 3 ( 2RC )
[GATE – 2003 EC]
R C
-
Vout
a) Precision integrator + C
b) Hartley oscillator
1kΩ
c) Butterworth high pass filter
d) Wien-bridge oscillator
C
[GATE – 2000 EC]
1kΩ
Q.2) The oscillator circuit shown in the figure is
-Vcc
1
a) F b) 2F
Lc 2
1
c) F d) 2 6F
L=10μH 2 6
Vo [GATE – 2004 EC]
Cc R1
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List-II Q.9) The circuit shown in the figure has an ideal
1. RC Oscillator opamp. The oscillation frequency ane the
2. LC Oscillator condition to sustain the oscillations,
3. Negative resistance Oscillator respectively, are
4. Sweep circuits
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 2 1 4 3
[IES – 2005 EC]
1 1
Q.7) Which one of the following oscillators is a) and R1 = R2 b) and R1 = 4R2
well suited for the generation of wide range CR CR
audio – frequency sine waves? 1 1
c) and R1 = R2 d) and R1 = 4R2
a) RC phase – shift oscillator 2CR 2CR
b) Wien – bridge oscillator [GATE-2015, EC-01, 2 MARKS]
c) Colpitts oscillator
d) Hartley oscillator
[IES – 2009 EC]
C2 R2 R4
𝑅3 𝑅1 1
a) = ,𝜔 =
𝑅4 𝑅2 √𝑅1 𝐶1 𝑅2 𝐶2
𝑅2 𝐶2 1
b) = ,𝜔 =
𝑅1 𝐶1 𝑅1 𝐶1 𝑅2 𝐶2
𝑅3 𝑅1 𝐶2 1
c) = + ,𝜔 =
𝑅4 𝑅2 𝐶1 √𝑅1 𝐶1 𝑅2 𝐶2
𝑅3 𝑅1 𝐶2 1
d) = + ,𝜔 =
𝑅4 𝑅2 𝐶1 𝑅1 𝐶1 𝑅2 𝐶2
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Q.3) If a class C power amplifier has an input Q.8) Where does the operating point of a class-
signal with frequency of 200 kHz and the width B power amplifier lie?
of collector current pulses of 0.1 µs, then the a) At the middle of a.c. load line
duty cycle of the amplifier will be b) Approximately at collector cut-off on both the
a) 1 % b) 2 % c) 10 % d) 20 % d.c. and a.c. load lines
c) Inside the collector cut-off region on a.c. load
Q.4) Which one of the following power line
amplifiers has the maximum efficiency? d) At the middle point of d.c. load line
a) Class A b) Class B [IES –2006 EC]
c) Class AB d) Class C
[IES –2000 EC] Q.9) In a class – B push – pull operation, the
d.c. power drawn in 28 W. What is the power
Q.5) The power input to an amplifier is 2µW. the delivered by the amplifier at the ideal maximum
power gain of the amplifier is 40 dB. The output efficiency of power conversion?
power of the amplifier is a) 28 W b) 14 W
a) 80 µW b) 200 µW c) 22W d) 7 W
c) 20 mW d) 80 mW [IES –2007 EC]
[IES –2002 EC]
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Q.10) What is the collector circuit efficiency of a c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 2, 3 and 4
class B push – pull amplifier if [IES –2009 EC]
Q.12) In a class A amplifier, VCE(max) = 15 V and Which of these statements are correct?
VCE(min) = 1 V. The conversion efficiency for a a) 1,2,3 and 4 b) 2 and 4 only
series fed load will be equal to c) 3 and 4 only d) 1 and 2 only
a) 25% b) 23.33% [IES –2011 EC]
c) 12.5% d) 11.67%
[IES –2008 EC] Q.17) Direction
The following item consists of two statements,
Q.13) Which one of the following statements is one labelled as ‘Statement (I)’ and the other as
not correct with regard to power amplifiers? ‘Statement (II)’. You are to examine these two
a) The collector current is large statements carefully and select the answers to
b) They are used as the front end of these items using the code given below:
multi – stage amplifiers
c) They are used near the end of the Statement (I): In a transistor designed to be
multi – stage amplifiers used for power amplification, the collector size
1 is largest relative to the emitter and base.
d) They have a high power rating (> 2 𝑊)
[IES –2009 EC] Statement (II): The collector is connected to the
body of the transistor and hence to a heat sink
Q.14) Consider the following statements for heat dissipation to be effective.
regarding the class-B power amplifiers
(Complementary symmetry type) : a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
1. The efficiency of the amplifier is higher than individually true and Statement (II) is the
that of class-A amplifier. correct explanation of Statement (I).
2. The power output is low. b) Both Statement(I) and Statement(II) are
3. Cross over distortion is present. individually true but Statement(II) is not the
4. The standby power dissipation is absent. correct explanation of Statement (I).
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1, 2 and 4
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c) Statement(I) is true but Statement (II) is
false.
d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is
true.
[IES –2012 EC]
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-15V
a) 0V b) 5mV
c) +15V or – 15V d) +50V or – 50V
[GATE – 2000 EC]
Q.3) Assume that the op-amp of the figure is Q.7) The inverting OP-AMP shown in the figure
ideal. If vi is a triangular wave, then vo will be has an open-loop gain of 100. The closed-loop
V
gain V0 is
R s
R2 = 10K
C
Vi -
Vo R1 = 1K
+
-
+
Vs Vi
- + Vo
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Q.8) In the figure assume the OP-AMPs to be
ideal. The output V0 of the circuit is: a) 1 V b) 6 V c) 14 V d) 17 V
[GATE – 2003 EC]
-
Q.9) A 741-type has a gain-band width product
of 1MHz. A non-inverting amplifier using this +
opamp and having a voltage gain of 20dB will R2
+
Q.11) If the differential voltage gain and the
common mode voltage gain of a differential Ideal operational amplifier
amplifier are 48 dB and 2 dB respectively, then
its common mode rejection ratio is Ri
a) 23 dB b) 25 dB c) 46 dB d) 50 dB 30
a) kΩ b) 10kΩ
[GATE – 2003 EC] 4
c) 40kΩ d) infinite
Q.12) If the op-amp in the figure is idea, the [GATE – 2005 EC]
output voltage Vout will be equal to
5KΩ
1KΩ
2V
-
Vout
1KΩ
3V +
8KΩ
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Q.16) The voltage e0 indicated in the figure has a) – 2 V b) – 1 V c) – 0.5 V d) 0.5 V
been measured by an ideal voltmeter. Which of [GATE – 2006 EC]
the following can be calculated?
1M Q.19) In the OP-Amp circuit shown, assume
that the current follows the equation I = Is exp
(V/VT). For Vi = 2 V, V0 = V01, and for Vi = 4 V,
V0 = V02. The relationship between V01 and V02
e0 is
-
1M Vi
2kΩ -
Vo
a) Bias current of the inverting input only +
b) Bias current of the inverting and non-
inverting inputs only
c) Input offset current only
d) Both the bias currents and the input offset
current a) V02 = √2 V01
[GATE – 2005 EC] b) V02 = e2 V01
c) V02 = V01 In 2
d) V01 – V02 = VT In 2
Q.17) The OP-amp circuit shown in the figure is [GATE – 2006 EC]
a filter. The type of filter and its cut-off
frequency are respectively Statement for linked Answer Questions
20 & 21:
10 k Ω Consider the Op-Amp circuit shown in the
figure.
10 k Ω R1
- R1
-
+ Vi
Vi Vo
1 µF +
1K Ω R
C
1kΩ
1kΩ
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Q.22) Consider the following circuit using an
ideal OP – Amp. The I-V characteristics of the 𝑅
a) − 𝑅2 𝑏) − 𝑅3
𝑅
R1
Ii
-
+ +
For an input voltage Vi = -1V, the output voltage V0
V0 is -
a) 0 V b) 0.1 V
c) 0.7 V d) 1.1 V
[GATE – 2008 EC] a) low pass filter b) band pass filter
c) band stop filter d) high pass filter
Q.23) The Op – Amp circuit shown below [GATE – 2011 EC]
represents a
C
Q.26) The circuit shown is a
R2
Vi –
R1 L V0
+
1
a) High pass filter b) Low pass filter a) Low pass filter with f3dB = (R rad/s
1 + R2 )C
c) Band pass filter d) Band reject filter b) High pass filter with
1
f3dB = R C rad/s
[GATE – 2008 EC] 1
1
c) Low pass filter with f3dB = R C rad/s
Q.24) Assuming the OP – AMP to be ideal, the 1
1
voltage gain of the amplifier shown below is d) High pass filter with f3dB = (R1 + R2 )C
rad/s
R1 [GATE – 2012 EC]
-
V0 Q.27) Assertion (A): An operational amplifier
R2 + can amplify very low frequency including d.c.
signals.
Vi Reason (R): op-amp uses very large coupling
capacitor for cascading the various stages.
R3 a) Both A and R are ture and R is the correct
explanation of A
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b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the 10KΩ 10KΩ
correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false 1KΩ
d) A is false but R is true
[IES – 2002, EC]
-
Vin 1KΩ Vout
Q.28) In the circuit shown below the op – amps +
are ideal. Then Vout in Volts is
1 kΩ 1 kΩ
-2V +15V
-15V a) -1 b) -20 c) -100 d) -120
- [GATE – 2003 EE]
+
+ Vout
- Q.31) Consider the inverting amplifier, using an
-15V ideal operational amplifier shown in the figure.
1 kΩ -15V The designer wishes to realize the input
+1V 1 kΩ
resistance seen by the small-signal source to
1 kΩ be as large as possible, while keeping the
voltage gain between -10 and -25. The upper
limit on RF is 1 MΩ. The value of R1 should be.
a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 10
RF
[GATE – 2013 EC/EE]
R1
- a) Infinity b) 1kΩ c) 100kΩ d) 40kΩ
+ [GATE – 2005 EE]
Vin R Vout
C Q.32) The circuit shown in the figure is
𝑟𝑉
a) A voltage source with voltage
𝑅1 ||𝑅2
𝑟||𝑅2
b) A voltage source with voltage 𝑅1
𝑉
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𝑟||𝑅2 𝑉
c) A current source with current 𝑅 .
1 +𝑅2 𝑟 a) -5 V b) -3 V c) +3 V d) +5 V
[GATE – 2004 IE]
𝑅2 𝑉
d) A current source with current 𝑅 .𝑟
1 +𝑅2 𝑉
Q.36) The gain ( 0 ) of the amplifier circuit
[GATE – 2007 EE] 𝑉𝑖
shown in figure is
Q.33) The output of an opamp whose input is a
2.5 MHz square wave is shown in figure. The
slew rate of the opamp is
4V
-4 V
0.4 µs
a) 0.8 V/µs b) 8.0 V/µs 3𝑅
a) 8 b) 4 c) -4 d) 𝑅𝐿
c) 20.0 V/µs d) 40.0 V/µs
[GATE – 2004 IE]
[GATE – 2003 IE]
Q.37) The output voltage Vo in the circuit in
Q.34) The opamp and the 1 mA current source
figure is
in the circuit of figure are ideal. The output of
the op-amp is V
R1 R1 R2
- -
Vo
+ R(1+ R +
𝑅2 𝑅
a) 𝑉𝛿 b) 𝑅2 𝑉𝛿
a) -1.5 mA b) -1.5 V 𝑅 1
𝑅2 2𝑅
c) -7.5 V d) +1.5 V c) 𝑉 𝑑) 𝑅(1+𝛿) 𝑉
𝑅1 𝛿
[GATE – 2003 IE]
[GATE – 2004 IE]
Q.35) The value of Vo in the circuit, shown in
Q.38) V1 and V2 are the input voltages of an
figure is
instrumentation amplifier. The output of the
instrumentation amplifier is found to be 100 (V1-
V2) +10 -4 (V1 + V2). the gain and the common
mode rejection ratio (CMRR) of the
instrumentation amplifier respectively are
a) (50, 60 dB) b) (50, 120 dB)
c) (100, 60 dB) d) (100, 120 dB)
[GATE – 2004 IE]
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Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.39) The circuit in figure is a Q.41) If the value of the resistance R in the
following figure is increased by 50%, then
voltage gain of the amplifier shown in the figure
will change by
a) 1.0 mV b) 2.0 mV
c) 2.5 mV d) 3.0 mV
[GATE – 2006 IE]
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Q.44) 20kΩ
V1 100 kΩ
1 2
R1
1’ 2’ -
V2 Vo
+
1 kΩ R2
Vi -
Let V1 = V2 = 0 and R1 = 20 kΩ. Assume that
+ Vo the op – amp is ideal except for a non-zero
input bias current. What is the value of R2 for
the output voltage of the op-amp to be zero?
a) 2.2 kΩ b) 9.1 kΩ
Consider the linear circuit with and ideal op – c) 20 kΩ d) 100 kΩ
amp shown in the figure shown above:
[GATE – 2007 IE]
The Z – parameters of the two port feedback
network are:
Q.47) The op-amp circuit shown below is that of
Z11 = Z22 = 11 kΩ, and
a
Z12 = Z21 = 1 kΩ
The gain of the amplifier is
Vin +
a) +110 b) +11 c) -1 d) -120 1 µF VO
[GATE – 2007 IE] -
500Ω 10 kΩ
-
+ 50Ω 10 Ω Vo a) Low-pass filter with a maximum gain of 1
10mV +
- +
b) Low –pass filter with a maximum gain of 2
20 mV 100 kΩ c) High- pass filter with a maximum gain of 1
d) High- pass filter with a maximum gain of 2
[GATE – 2008 IE]
Which one of the following statements about the Q.48) For the op- amp circuit shown below, Vo
output is correct? is approximately equal to
a) Vo ≤ 95 𝑚𝑉
b) 95 mV < Vo ≤ 98 𝑚𝑉
c) 98 mV < Vo ≤ 101 𝑚𝑉
d) Vo > 101 𝑚𝑉
[GATE – 2007 IE]
a) 10 V b) -5 V c) +5 V d) +10 V
[GATE – 2008 IE]
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Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.49) In the circuit shown, the Zener diode has a) Remain constant at +1
ideal characteristics and a breakdown voltage b) Remain constant at -1
of 3.2 V. the output voltage Vo for an input c) Vary as (–Rf / 10,000)
voltage V1 = +1 V is closest to d) Vary as (1+ Rf/10,000)
[GATE – 2010 IE]
10kΩ
Q.52) An active filter is shown in the adjoining
figure. The dc gain and the 3 dB cut-off
frequency of the filter respectively, are nearly
1kΩ 10 kΩ
Vi - C1
Vo
R2
+
R1
Vi -
VO
+
Q.50) The input resistance of the circuit shown a) 40 dB, 3.14 kHz b) 40 dB, 1.00 kHz
in the figure, assuming an ideal op-amp is c) 20 dB, 6.28 kHz d) 20 dB, 1.00 kHz
[GATE – 2010 IE]
2R
Common Data Questions (53 and 54) :
R 3R A differential amplifier is constructed using an
ideal op-amp as shown in the adjoining figure.
Vi The values of R1 and R2 and 47kΩ and 470kΩ
-
respectively.
Vo
+ R2
R1
V1 -
Vo
V2 +
R1
R2
𝑅 2𝑅 4𝑅
a) 3
b) 3
c) R d) 3
[GATE – 2009 IE]
Q.51) In the ideal op-amp circuit given in the Q.53) The input impedances seen looking into
adjoining figure, the value of Rf is varied from the terminals V1 and V2, with respect to ground,
1kΩ to 100kΩ. The gain G = (Vo / Vi) respectively are
a) 47 kΩ and 43 kΩ b) 47 kΩ and 47 kΩ
c) 47 kΩ and 517 kΩ d) 517 kΩ and 517 kΩ
Rf [GATE – 2010 IE]
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Q.55) The output voltage V0 of the given circuit Q.58) Assertion (A): In an op-amp circuit when
one input terminal of the op-amp is grounded,
the other terminal becomes a virtual ground.
Reason (R): Input impedance of the op-amp is
high.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
[IES – 2001 EC]
a) −100 𝑉 b) −100 𝑚𝑉
c) 10 𝑉 d) −10 𝑚𝑉 Q.59) In a 741 op-amp, there is 20 dB/decade
[IES – 1999 EC] fall-off staring at a relatively low frequency. this
is due to the
a) applied load
Q.56) The voltage gain versus frequency curve
of an Op-Amp is shown in the given figure b) internal compensation
c) impedance of the source
Voltage
d) power dissipation in the chip
gain 80 dB
[IES – 2001 EC]
+ 20 dB/decade
Q.60) Assertion (A): Operational amplifiers
should have a high slew rate for good transient
frequency response.
20 Hz Reason (R): Slew rate is the maximum rate of
The gain-bandwidth product of the Op-Amp is change of the output voltage of the operation
amplifier when a large amplitude step is applied
a) 200 Hz b) 200 MHz to its input.
c) 200 kHz d) 2 MHz a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
[IES – 1999 EC] explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
Q.57) In the circuit shown in the given figure, V0 correct explanation of A
is given by c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
[IES – 2002 EC]
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Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.62) Assertion (A): An operational amplifier Q.65) The stage market X in the shown below
can amplify very low frequency including d.c. architecture of a two-stage op-amp is
signals.
Reason (R): op-amp uses very large coupling Differential Gain Emitter
capacitor for cascading the various stages. Input X Output
amplifier stage following
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A a) Direct coupled amplifier
c) A is true but R is false b) Buffer amplifier
d) A is false but R is true c) Level shifter
[IES – 2002 EC] d) Blocking oscillator
[IES – 2003 EC]
Q.64) A non-inverting op-amp is shown below What is the output voltage V0 in the above Op-
(assume ideal op-amp) Amp circuit?
a) +10 𝑉 b) −10 𝑉
c) +11 𝑉 d) −11 𝑉
[IES – 2004 EC]
a) 3/2 sin(100𝑡)
b) 3 sin(100𝑡)
c) 2 sin(100𝑡)
d) 3 sin(100𝑡) + 1/2 What is the value of R4 in the above circuit if the
[IES – 2002 EC] voltage V- and V+ are to be amplified by the
same amplification factor?
a) 7 kΩ b) 22 kΩ
c) 33 kΩ d) 35 kΩ
[IES – 2004 EC]
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Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.68) What is the load current IL in the circuit
below?
a) -11 V b) 6 V c) 11 V d) -6 V
[IES – 2007 EC]
a) −5 𝑚𝐴 b) −10 𝑚𝐴
c) +25 𝑚𝐴 d) +50 𝑚𝐴 Q.73) What is the output voltage V0 of the below
[IES – 2004 EC] circuit?
100 kΩ
Q.69) For a given o-amp, CMMR = 105 and 470 kΩ
22 kΩ
differential gain = 105. What is the common
-
mode gain of the op-amp? 10 kΩ -
a) 1010 b) 2×105 c) 105 d) 1 + 47 kΩ -
2.2 kΩ
[IES – 2005 EC] +
V0
+
1 mV
Q.70) In the circuit shown above, what is the
value of transfer function𝐼𝑜 /𝐼𝑖 ? a) -1.1 V b) +1.1 V
c) 1.0 V d) 10 V
[IES – 2007 EC]
55
Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.76) In the circuit shown, the need of the (d) Ri = 50 kΩ, Rf = 200 kΩ
resistor RF is [GATE – 2014, IN]
Ro
Q.77) For the op-amp shown in the figure, the Q.80) In the low-pass filter shown in the figure,
bias currents are Ib1= 450 nA and Ib2=350 nA. for a cut-off frequency of 5 kHz , the value of R2
The values (in kΩ) is _____________.
of the input bias current (IB) and the input offset
current (If) are: R2
C
1 kΩ 10 nF
Vi -
R1 Vo
+
(a) IB = 800 nA, If =50 nA
(b) IB = 800 nA, If =100nA
(c) IB = 400 nA, If =50nA
(d) IB = 400 nA, If =100nA
[GATE - 2014 EC]
[GATE – 2014, IN]
Q.78) The amplifier in the figure has gain of −10 Q.81) In the circuit shown, the op-amp has finite
and input resistance of 50 kΩ. The values of Ri input impedance, infinite voltage gain and zero
and Rf are: input offset voltage. The output voltage Vout is
R2
R1 I1
-
Vout
+
I2
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Q.82) Assuming that the Op-amp in the circuit c)
shown is ideal, V0 is given by
3R
π/2
V1 - π/4
R Vo 0 10 2 0
2
10 10 10
3
+ 1 10
10 3
ω 1 ω
2R V2 R -10 -π/4
-20 -π/2
-30
5 5
a) 𝑉1 − 3𝑉2 b) 2V1 - 𝑉2
2 2
3 7 11
c) − 𝑉1 + 𝑉2 d) −3𝑉1 + 𝑉2
2 2 2
[GATE – 2014, EC-03] d)
3
0 0 10 10 2 10
1 10
10 2 ω 1 ω
-10 -π/4
3
10
-20 -π/2
-30
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Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.89) In the circuit shown, assume that the
opamp is ideal. If the gain (v0/vm) is –12, the
value of R (in k ) is __________.
a) 0 b)
c) d) −
2 2
[GATE-2015, EE-01, 1 MARK]
58
Rathi classes Analog Electronics
a) 1001 Q.94) In the figure shown, RT represents a
b) 101 resistance temperature device (RTD), whose
c) 11 characteristic is given by RT = R0 (1 + T ) ,
d) 1
[GATE-2015, EE-01, 2 MARKS] where R0 R0 = 100 , = 0.0039 C −1 and T
denote the temperature in °C. Assuming the
Q.92) The operational amplifier shown in the opamp to be idea, the value of V0 in volts when
figure is ideal. The input voltage (in Volts) is T = 100 °C, is ________ V.
Vi = 2 sin ( 2 2000t ). The amplitude of the
output voltage V0 (in Volt) is _______.
2.
a) 102 b) 103
c) 104 d) 106
[GATE-2015, IN, 2 MARKS]
3.
59
Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Chapter – 11 a) b)
6 6
Waveform generators
V V
1kΩ
R
a) – 1V b) 2V c) +1V d) +15V
[GATE – 2000 EC]
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Q.5) Figure (a) shows a Schmitt trigger circuit a) -12 V and +12 V b) -7.5 and +7.5 V
and figure (b) the corresponding hysteresis c) -5 V and + 5 V d) 0 V and 5 V
characteristics. The values of VTL and V TH are [GATE - 2008 EC]
P 10kΩ
10kΩ
-10 V
V TL VTH
a) b)
(b) 5 10
a) VTL = -3.75 V, VTH = +3.75 V
-10 -5
b) VTL = -1 V, VTH = +5 V
c) VTL = -5 V, VTH = +1 V c) d)
d) VTL = -5 V, VTH = +5 V
[GATE – 2004 IE] 5 10
10 kΩ 9k Ω
1kΩ
10kΩ
-15V a) -10 V to +10 V when Vin = -1 V
A triangular wave which goes from -12 V to 12 b) -10 V to +10 V when Vin = +1 V
V is applied to the inverting input of the c) +10 V to -10 V when Vin = -1 V
OP_Amp. Assume that the output of the OP- d) +10 V to -10 V when Vin = +1 V
Amp swings from +15 V to -15 V. the voltage at [GATE – 2008 IE]
the non – inverting input switches between
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Q.9) The figure given below shows the circuit of a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
which one of the following? explanation of A
+VDD b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A
R c) A is true but R is false
V01 d) A is false but R is true
Vin V02 [IES - 1999 EC]
C
Q.14) Match List-I (Application of the circuit)
with List-II (Circuit Name) and select the correct
a) Bi – stable multi – vibrator answer using the codes given below the lists:
b) Schmitt trigger List-I
c) Monostable multi – vibrator A. Divider
d) Astable multi – vibrator B. Clips input voltage at two predetermined
[IES - 2008 EC] levels
C. Square wave generator
Q.10) Consider the following statements: D. Narrow current pulse generator
1. A Schmitt trigger circuit can be emitter- List-II
coupled bi – stable circuit. 1. Astable multivibrator
2. Schmitt trigger circuit exhibits hysteresis 2. Schmitt trigger
phenomenon. 3. Bistable multivibrator
3. The output of a Schmitt trigger will be 4. Blocking oscillator
triangular if the input is square wave. Codes:
Which of these statements are correct? A B C D
a) 1,2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 only a) 4 2 1 3
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 and 3 only b) 3 2 1 4
[IES - 2011 EC] c) 4 1 2 3
d) 3 1 2 4
Q.11) In order to obtain repetitive pulses of [IES - 2004 EC]
unequal mark space one can use:
1. A voltage comparator fed with a triangular Q.15) In the following astable multivibrator
wave signal and dc voltage. circuit, which properties of v0(t) depend on R2?
2. An astable multi – vibrator.
3. A mono – stable multi – vibrator fed with a R1
square wave input.
Which of these statements are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only b) 1 and 3 only -
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 v0(t)
[IES - 2011 EC] +
C R3
Q.12) A 1 ms pulse can be stretched to 15 ms
pulse by using R2 R4
a) an astable multivibrator
b) a monostable multivibrator
c) a bistable multivibrator a) Only the frequency
d) a Schmitt trigger circuit b) Only the amplitude
[IES - 2000 EC] c) Both the amplitude and the frequency
d) Neither the amplitude nor the frequency
Q.13) Assertion (A): A monostable multivibrator [GATE - 2009 EC]
can be used to alter the pulse width of a
repetitive pulse train.
Reason (R): Monostable multivibrator has a
single stable state
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Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.16) Consider the following two statements: a) Equal to zero because the input is zero
Statement 1: b) Dependent on element values hence nothing
A stable multivibrator can be used for can be predicted without a knowledge of
generating square wave. element values
Statement 2: c) A square wave varying between +𝑉𝐶𝐶 and
Bistable multivibrator can be used for storing −𝑉𝐶𝐶
binary information. d) A sinusoidal wave of amplifier VCC
a) Only statement 1 is correct [IES – 2002 EC]
b) Only statement 2 is correct
c) Both the statements 1 and 2 are correct Q.20) A 50 Hz symmetric square wave is
d) Both the statements 1 and 2 are incorrect applied to the RC-circuit shown in the diagram
[GATE - 2009 EC] given below:
10kΩ RkΩ ms ms
-
Input
-
+
1kΩ output
+ Which one of the following is the correct shape
of the output waveform?
a) b)
63
Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.22) Consider the following circuit: voltage waveform are
VCC
RA
RB Th Vout
Tr
C R1
C 555
Timer
IC
IC 555 3
The voltage VC across the capacitor varies 10 K
between 2,6
a) 3 V to 5 V b) 3 V to 6 V
c) 3.6 V to 6 V d)3.6 V to 5 V
[GATE - 2008 EC] 4 1
c) d)
64
Rathi classes Analog Electronics
Q.26) An Astable multivibrator circuit using a b) (td + tf) and (ts + tr)
555 IC is given in the following figure. The c) (tr + ts) and (td + tf)
frequency of oscillation is d) (td + tr) and (ts + tf)
[IES - 2012 EC]
V CC = 5 V
C = 0. 1 µF
1
+V
a) 20 kHz b) 30 kHz c) 45 kHz d) 45 kHz R
[GATE – 2006 IE] -
RB = 10 kΩ Out
Trigger
VC Threshold a) b)
C Vout
1µF ground Vout
t t
a) b) c) d)
VC
VC
2/3 VCC
2/3 V CC Vout
1/3 V CC
1/3 V CC
0 t 0 t t
b) d)
VC
VC
2/3 VCC
2/3 V CC
1/3 VCC
0 t
1/3 VCC
0 t *****
[GATE – 2007 IE]
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