Os PDF
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Vishal KumarOs PDF
Uploaded by
Vishal Kumar1. What is operating system?
a) collection of programs that manages hardware resources
b) system service provider to the application programs
c) link to interface the hardware and application programs
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
2. To access the services of operating system, the interface is provided by the ___________
a) System calls
b) API
c) Library
d) Assembly instructions
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3. Which one of the following is not true?
a) kernel is the program that constitutes the central core of the operating system
b) kernel is the first part of operating system to load into memory during booting
c) kernel is made of various modules which can not be loaded in running operating system
d) kernel remains in the memory during the entire computer session
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
4. Which one of the following error will be handle by the operating system?
a) power failure
b) lack of paper in printer
c) connection failure in the network
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
5. What is the main function of the command interpreter?
a) to get and execute the next user-specified command
b) to provide the interface between the API and application program
c) to handle the files in operating system
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. By operating system, the resource management can be done via __________
a) time division multiplexing
b) space division multiplexing
c) time and space division multiplexing
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
7. If a process fails, most operating system write the error information to a ______
a) log file
b) another running process
c) new file
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
8. Which facility dynamically adds probes to a running system, both in user processes and in the
kernel?
a) DTrace
b) DLocate
c) DMap
d) DAdd
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
9. Which one of the following is not a real time operating system?
a) VxWorks
b) Windows CE
c) RTLinux
d) Palm OS
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
10. The OS X has ____________
a) monolithic kernel
b) hybrid kernel
c) microkernel
d) monolithic kernel with modules
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
1. The systems which allow only one process execution at a time, are called __________
a) uniprogramming systems
b) uniprocessing systems
c) unitasking systems
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Those systems which allows more than one process execution at a time, are called
multiprogramming systems. Uniprocessing means only one processor.
2. In operating system, each process has its own __________
a) address space and global variables
b) open files
c) pending alarms, signals and signal handlers
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
3. In Unix, Which system call creates the new process?
a) fork
b) create
c) new
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. A process can be terminated due to __________
a) normal exit
b) fatal error
c) killed by another process
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
5. What is the ready state of a process?
a) when process is scheduled to run after some execution
b) when process is unable to run until some task has been completed
c) when process is using the CPU
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When process is unable to run until some task has been completed, the process is in
blocked state and if process is using the CPU, it is in running state.
6. What is interprocess communication?
a) communication within the process
b) communication between two process
c) communication between two threads of same process
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. A set of processes is deadlock if __________
a) each process is blocked and will remain so forever
b) each process is terminated
c) all processes are trying to kill each other
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
8. A process stack does not contain __________
a) Function parameters
b) Local variables
c) Return addresses
d) PID of child process
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
9. Which system call returns the process identifier of a terminated child?
a) wait
b) exit
c) fork
d) get
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. The address of the next instruction to be executed by the current process is provided by the
__________
a) CPU registers
b) Program counter
c) Process stack
d) Pipe
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
1. A Process Control Block(PCB) does not contain which of the following?
a) Code
b) Stack
c) Bootstrap program
d) Data
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
2. The number of processes completed per unit time is known as __________
a) Output
b) Throughput
c) Efficiency
d) Capacity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
3. The state of a process is defined by __________
a) the final activity of the process
b) the activity just executed by the process
c) the activity to next be executed by the process
d) the current activity of the process
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
4. Which of the following is not the state of a process?
a) New
b) Old
c) Waiting
d) Running
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
5. What is a Process Control Block?
a) Process type variable
b) Data Structure
c) A secondary storage section
d) A Block in memory
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
6. The entry of all the PCBs of the current processes is in __________
a) Process Register
b) Program Counter
c) Process Table
d) Process Unit
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
7. What is the degree of multiprogramming?
a) the number of processes executed per unit time
b) the number of processes in the ready queue
c) the number of processes in the I/O queue
d) the number of processes in memory
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
8. A single thread of control allows the process to perform __________
a) only one task at a time
b) multiple tasks at a time
c) only two tasks at a time
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
9. What is the objective of multiprogramming?
a) Have some process running at all times
b) Have multiple programs waiting in a queue ready to run
c) To minimize CPU utilization
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
1. Which of the following do not belong to queues for processes?
a) Job Queue
b) PCB queue
c) Device Queue
d) Ready Queue
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2. When the process issues an I/O request __________
a) It is placed in an I/O queue
b) It is placed in a waiting queue
c) It is placed in the ready queue
d) It is placed in the Job queue
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3. What will happen when a process terminates?
a) It is removed from all queues
b) It is removed from all, but the job queue
c) Its process control block is de-allocated
d) Its process control block is never de-allocated
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. What is a long-term scheduler?
a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
b) It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. If all processes I/O bound, the ready queue will almost always be ______ and the Short term
Scheduler will have a ______ to do.
a) full, little
b) full, lot
c) empty, little
d) empty, lot
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
6. What is a medium-term scheduler?
a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
b) It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
7. What is a short-term scheduler?
a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
b) It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
8. The primary distinction between the short term scheduler and the long term scheduler is
__________
a) The length of their queues
b) The type of processes they schedule
c) The frequency of their execution
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
9. The only state transition that is initiated by the user process itself is __________
a) block
b) wakeup
c) dispatch
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. In a time-sharing operating system, when the time slot given to a process is completed, the
process goes from the running state to the __________
a) Blocked state
b) Ready state
c) Suspended state
d) Terminated state
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
11. In a multiprogramming environment __________
a) the processor executes more than one process at a time
b) the programs are developed by more than one person
c) more than one process resides in the memory
d) a single user can execute many programs at the same time
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
12. Suppose that a process is in “Blocked” state waiting for some I/O service. When the service is
completed, it goes to the __________
a) Running state
b) Ready state
c) Suspended state
d) Terminated state
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
13. The context of a process in the PCB of a process does not contain __________
a) the value of the CPU registers
b) the process state
c) memory-management information
d) context switch time
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
14. Which of the following need not necessarily be saved on a context switch between processes?
a) General purpose registers
b) Translation lookaside buffer
c) Program counter
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
15. Which of the following does not interrupt a running process?
a) A device
b) Timer
c) Scheduler process
d) Power failure
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
1. Which process can be affected by other processes executing in the system?
a) cooperating process
b) child process
c) parent process
d) init process
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2. When several processes access the same data concurrently and the outcome of the execution
depends on the particular order in which the access takes place, is called?
a) dynamic condition
b) race condition
c) essential condition
d) critical condition
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
3. If a process is executing in its critical section, then no other processes can be executing in their
critical section. This condition is called?
a) mutual exclusion
b) critical exclusion
c) synchronous exclusion
d) asynchronous exclusion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. Which one of the following is a synchronization tool?
a) thread
b) pipe
c) semaphore
d) socket
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
5. A semaphore is a shared integer variable __________
a) that can not drop below zero
b) that can not be more than zero
c) that can not drop below one
d) that can not be more than one
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. Mutual exclusion can be provided by the __________
a) mutex locks
b) binary semaphores
c) both mutex locks and binary semaphores
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Binary Semaphores are known as mutex locks.
7. When high priority task is indirectly preempted by medium priority task effectively inverting the
relative priority of the two tasks, the scenario is called __________
a) priority inversion
b) priority removal
c) priority exchange
d) priority modification
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
8. Process synchronization can be done on __________
a) hardware level
b) software level
c) both hardware and software level
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
9. A monitor is a module that encapsulates __________
a) shared data structures
b) procedures that operate on shared data structure
c) synchronization between concurrent procedure invocation
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
10. To enable a process to wait within the monitor __________
a) a condition variable must be declared as condition
b) condition variables must be used as boolean objects
c) semaphore must be used
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
1. Restricting the child process to a subset of the parent’s resources prevents any process from
__________
a) overloading the system by using a lot of secondary storage
b) under-loading the system by very less CPU utilization
c) overloading the system by creating a lot of sub-processes
d) crashing the system by utilizing multiple resources
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
2. A parent process calling _____ system call will be suspended until children processes terminate.
a) wait
b) fork
c) exit
d) exec
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3. Cascading termination refers to termination of all child processes before the parent terminates
______
a) Normally
b) Abnormally
c) Normally or abnormally
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. With _____________ only one process can execute at a time; meanwhile all other process are
waiting for the processor. With ______________ more than one process can be running
simultaneously each on a different processor.
a) Multiprocessing, Multiprogramming
b) Multiprogramming, Uniprocessing
c) Multiprogramming, Multiprocessing
d) Uniprogramming, Multiprocessing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
5. In UNIX, each process is identified by its __________
a) Process Control Block
b) Device Queue
c) Process Identifier
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
6. In UNIX, the return value for the fork system call is _____ for the child process and _____ for the
parent process.
a) A Negative integer, Zero
b) Zero, A Negative integer
c) Zero, A nonzero integer
d) A nonzero integer, Zero
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
7. The child process can __________
a) be a duplicate of the parent process
b) never be a duplicate of the parent process
c) cannot have another program loaded into it
d) never have another program loaded into it
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
8. The child process completes execution, but the parent keeps executing, then the child process is
known as __________
a) Orphan
b) Zombie
c) Body
d) Dead
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
1. What is Inter process communication?
a) allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions when using the same address
space
b) allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions without using the same address
space
c) allows the processes to only synchronize their actions without communication
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2. Message passing system allows processes to __________
a) communicate with one another without resorting to shared data
b) communicate with one another by resorting to shared data
c) share data
d) name the recipient or sender of the message
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3. Which of the following two operations are provided by the IPC facility?
a) write & delete message
b) delete & receive message
c) send & delete message
d) receive & send message
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
4. Messages sent by a process __________
a) have to be of a fixed size
b) have to be a variable size
c) can be fixed or variable sized
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
5. The link between two processes P and Q to send and receive messages is called __________
a) communication link
b) message-passing link
c) synchronization link
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. Which of the following are TRUE for direct communication?
a) A communication link can be associated with N number of process(N = max. number of processes
supported by system)
b) A communication link can be associated with exactly two processes
c) Exactly N/2 links exist between each pair of processes(N = max. number of processes supported by
system)
d) Exactly two link exists between each pair of processes
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. In indirect communication between processes P and Q __________
a) there is another process R to handle and pass on the messages between P and Q
b) there is another machine between the two processes to help communication
c) there is a mailbox to help communication between P and Q
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
8. In the non blocking send __________
a) the sending process keeps sending until the message is received
b) the sending process sends the message and resumes operation
c) the sending process keeps sending until it receives a message
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
9. In the Zero capacity queue __________
a) the queue can store at least one message
b) the sender blocks until the receiver receives the message
c) the sender keeps sending and the messages don’t wait in the queue
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
10. The Zero Capacity queue __________
a) is referred to as a message system with buffering
b) is referred to as a message system with no buffering
c) is referred to as a link
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
11. Bounded capacity and Unbounded capacity queues are referred to as __________
a) Programmed buffering
b) Automatic buffering
c) User defined buffering
d) No buffering
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None
1. Remote Procedure Calls are used ____________
a) for communication between two processes remotely different from each other on the same
system
b) for communication between two processes on the same system
c) for communication between two processes on separate systems
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
2. To differentiate the many network services a system supports ______ are used.
a) Variables
b) Sockets
c) Ports
d) Service names
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
3. RPC provides a(an) _____ on the client side, a separate one for each remote procedure.
a) stub
b) identifier
c) name
d) process identifier
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. What is stub?
a) transmits the message to the server where the server side stub receives the message and invokes
procedure on the server side
b) packs the parameters into a form transmittable over the network
c) locates the port on the server
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
5. To resolve the problem of data representation on different systems RPCs define _____________
a) machine dependent representation of data
b) machine representation of data
c) machine-independent representation of data
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
6. What is the full form of RMI?
a) Remote Memory Installation
b) Remote Memory Invocation
c) Remote Method Installation
d) Remote Method Invocation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
7. The remote method invocation __________
a) allows a process to invoke memory on a remote object
b) allows a thread to invoke a method on a remote object
c) allows a thread to invoke memory on a remote object
d) allows a process to invoke a method on a remote object
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
8. A process that is based on IPC mechanism which executes on different systems and can
communicate with other processes using message based communication, is called ________
a) Local Procedure Call
b) Inter Process Communication
c) Remote Procedure Call
d) Remote Machine Invocation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
1. The initial program that is run when the computer is powered up is called __________
a) boot program
b) bootloader
c) initializer
d) bootstrap program
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
2. How does the software trigger an interrupt?
a) Sending signals to CPU through bus
b) Executing a special operation called system call
c) Executing a special program called system program
d) Executing a special program called interrupt trigger program
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
3. What is a trap/exception?
a) hardware generated interrupt caused by an error
b) software generated interrupt caused by an error
c) user generated interrupt caused by an error
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. What is an ISR?
a) Information Service Request
b) Interrupt Service Request
c) Interrupt Service Routine
d) Information Service Routine
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
5. What is an interrupt vector?
a) It is an address that is indexed to an interrupt handler
b) It is a unique device number that is indexed by an address
c) It is a unique identity given to an interrupt
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. DMA is used for __________
a) High speed devices(disks and communications network)
b) Low speed devices
c) Utilizing CPU cycles
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
7. In a memory mapped input/output __________
a) the CPU uses polling to watch the control bit constantly, looping to see if a device is ready
b) the CPU writes one data byte to the data register and sets a bit in control register to show that a
byte is available
c) the CPU receives an interrupt when the device is ready for the next byte
d) the CPU runs a user written code and does accordingly
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
8. In a programmed input/output(PIO) __________
a) the CPU uses polling to watch the control bit constantly, looping to see if a device is ready
b) the CPU writes one data byte to the data register and sets a bit in control register to show that a
byte is available
c) the CPU receives an interrupt when the device is ready for the next byte
d) the CPU runs a user written code and does accordingly
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
9. In an interrupt driven input/output __________
a) the CPU uses polling to watch the control bit constantly, looping to see if a device is ready
b) the CPU writes one data byte to the data register and sets a bit in control register to show that a
byte is available
c) the CPU receives an interrupt when the device is ready for the next byte
d) the CPU runs a user written code and does accordingly
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
10. In the layered approach of Operating Systems __________
a) Bottom Layer(0) is the User interface
b) Highest Layer(N) is the User interface
c) Bottom Layer(N) is the hardware
d) Highest Layer(N) is the hardware
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
11. How does the Hardware trigger an interrupt?
a) Sending signals to CPU through a system bus
b) Executing a special program called interrupt program
c) Executing a special program called system program
d) Executing a special operation called system call
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
12. Which operation is performed by an interrupt handler?
a) Saving the current state of the system
b) Loading the interrupt handling code and executing it
c) Once done handling, bringing back the system to the original state it was before the interrupt
occurred
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
1. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term scheduler?
a) dispatcher
b) interrupt
c) scheduler
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute are kept on
a list called _____________
a) job queue
b) ready queue
c) execution queue
d) process queue
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
3. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed as
____________
a) waiting time
b) turnaround time
c) response time
d) throughput
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU first?
a) first-come, first-served scheduling
b) shortest job scheduling
c) priority scheduling
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. In priority scheduling algorithm ____________
a) CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority
b) CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority
c) Equal priority processes can not be scheduled
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is
compared with the priority of ____________
a) all process
b) currently running process
c) parent process
d) init process
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?
a) shortest job scheduling algorithm
b) round robin scheduling algorithm
c) priority scheduling algorithm
d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
8. Process are classified into different groups in ____________
a) shortest job scheduling algorithm
b) round robin scheduling algorithm
c) priority scheduling algorithm
d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
9. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm ____________
a) a process can move to a different classified ready queue
b) classification of ready queue is permanent
c) processes are not classified into groups
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. Which one of the following can not be scheduled by the kernel?
a) kernel level thread
b) user level thread
c) process
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: User level threads are managed by thread library and the kernel is unaware of them.
1. CPU scheduling is the basis of ___________
a) multiprocessor systems
b) multiprogramming operating systems
c) larger memory sized systems
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2. With multiprogramming ______ is used productively.
a) time
b) space
c) money
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3. What are the two steps of a process execution?
a) I/O & OS Burst
b) CPU & I/O Burst
c) Memory & I/O Burst
d) OS & Memory Burst
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. An I/O bound program will typically have ____________
a) a few very short CPU bursts
b) many very short I/O bursts
c) many very short CPU bursts
d) a few very short I/O bursts
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
5. A process is selected from the ______ queue by the ________ scheduler, to be executed.
a) blocked, short term
b) wait, long term
c) ready, short term
d) ready, long term
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
6. In the following cases non – preemptive scheduling occurs?
a) When a process switches from the running state to the ready state
b) When a process goes from the running state to the waiting state
c) When a process switches from the waiting state to the ready state
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There is no other choice.
7. The switching of the CPU from one process or thread to another is called ____________
a) process switch
b) task switch
c) context switch
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
8. What is Dispatch latency?
a) the speed of dispatching a process from running to the ready state
b) the time of dispatching a process from running to ready state and keeping the CPU idle
c) the time to stop one process and start running another one
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
9. Scheduling is done so as to ____________
a) increase CPU utilization
b) decrease CPU utilization
c) keep the CPU more idle
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. Scheduling is done so as to ____________
a) increase the throughput
b) decrease the throughput
c) increase the duration of a specific amount of work
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
11. What is Turnaround time?
a) the total waiting time for a process to finish execution
b) the total time spent in the ready queue
c) the total time spent in the running queue
d) the total time from the completion till the submission of a process
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
12. Scheduling is done so as to ____________
a) increase the turnaround time
b) decrease the turnaround time
c) keep the turnaround time same
d) there is no relation between scheduling and turnaround time
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
13. What is Waiting time?
a) the total time in the blocked and waiting queues
b) the total time spent in the ready queue
c) the total time spent in the running queue
d) the total time from the completion till the submission of a process
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
14. Scheduling is done so as to ____________
a) increase the waiting time
b) keep the waiting time the same
c) decrease the waiting time
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
15. What is Response time?
a) the total time taken from the submission time till the completion time
b) the total time taken from the submission time till the first response is produced
c) the total time taken from submission time till the response is output
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
1. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of ____________
a) Non-preemptive scheduling
b) Preemptive scheduling
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system ____________
a) using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm
b) using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm
c) using extremely small time slices increases performance
d) using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: All the processes will be able to get completed.
3. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with ____________
a) assigning ready processes to CPU
b) assigning ready processes to waiting queue
c) assigning running processes to blocked queue
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. Complex scheduling algorithms ____________
a) are very appropriate for very large computers
b) use minimal resources
c) use many resources
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Large computers are overloaded with a greater number of processes.
5. What is FIFO algorithm?
a) first executes the job that came in last in the queue
b) first executes the job that came in first in the queue
c) first executes the job that needs minimal processor
d) first executes the job that has maximum processor needs
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
6. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily suspended is called
____________
a) Non preemptive scheduling
b) Preemptive scheduling
c) Shortest job first
d) First come First served
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. What is Scheduling?
a) allowing a job to use the processor
b) making proper use of processor
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
8. There are 10 different processes running on a workstation. Idle processes are waiting for an input
event in the input queue. Busy processes are scheduled with the Round-Robin time sharing method.
Which out of the following quantum times is the best value for small response times, if the
processes have a short runtime, e.g. less than 10ms?
a) tQ = 15ms
b) tQ = 40ms
c) tQ = 45ms
d) tQ = 50ms
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
9. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if _______ rule sequences the jobs.
a) earliest due date
b) slack time remaining
c) first come, first served
d) critical ratio
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
10. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?
a) First come First served
b) Shortest Job First
c) Earliest Deadline First
d) Longest Job First
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
11. Under multiprogramming, turnaround time for short jobs is usually ________ and that for long
jobs is slightly ___________
a) Lengthened; Shortened
b) Shortened; Lengthened
c) Shortened; Shortened
d) Shortened; Unchanged
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
12. Which of the following statements are true? (GATE 2010)
I. Shortest remaining time first scheduling may cause starvation
II. Preemptive scheduling may cause starvation
III. Round robin is better than FCFS in terms of response time
a) I only
b) I and III only
c) II and III only
d) I, II and III
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: I) Shortest remaining time first scheduling is a preemptive version of shortest job
scheduling. It may cause starvation as shorter processes may keep coming and a long CPU burst
process never gets CPU.
II) Preemption may cause starvation. If priority based scheduling with preemption is used, then a low
priority process may never get CPU.
III) Round Robin Scheduling improves response time as all processes get CPU after a specified time.
1. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?
a) FCFS – First come First served
b) SJF – Shortest Job First
c) RR – Round Robin
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is ____________
a) it is too good an algorithm
b) knowing the length of the next CPU request
c) it is too complex to understand
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
3. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for ____________
a) time sharing systems
b) multiprogramming systems
c) multiprocessor systems
d) operating systems
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a time sharing system, each user needs to get a share of the CPU at regular intervals.
4. Consider the following set of processes, the length of the CPU burst time given in milliseconds.
Process Burst time
P1 6
P2 8
P3 7
P4 3
Assuming the above process being scheduled with the SJF scheduling algorithm.
a) The waiting time for process P1 is 3ms
b) The waiting time for process P1 is 0ms
c) The waiting time for process P1 is 16ms
d) The waiting time for process P1 is 9ms
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. Preemptive Shortest Job First scheduling is sometimes called ____________
a) Fast SJF scheduling
b) EDF scheduling – Earliest Deadline First
c) HRRN scheduling – Highest Response Ratio Next
d) SRTN scheduling – Shortest Remaining Time Next
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
6. An SJF algorithm is simply a priority algorithm where the priority is ____________
a) the predicted next CPU burst
b) the inverse of the predicted next CPU burst
c) the current CPU burst
d) anything the user wants
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The larger the CPU burst, the lower the priority.
7. Choose one of the disadvantages of the priority scheduling algorithm?
a) it schedules in a very complex manner
b) its scheduling takes up a lot of time
c) it can lead to some low priority process waiting indefinitely for the CPU
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
8. What is ‘Aging’?
a) keeping track of cache contents
b) keeping track of what pages are currently residing in memory
c) keeping track of how many times a given page is referenced
d) increasing the priority of jobs to ensure termination in a finite time
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
9. A solution to the problem of indefinite blockage of low – priority processes is ____________
a) Starvation
b) Wait queue
c) Ready queue
d) Aging
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
10. Which of the following statements are true? (GATE 2010)
i) Shortest remaining time first scheduling may cause starvation
ii) Preemptive scheduling may cause starvation
iii) Round robin is better than FCFS in terms of response time
a) i only
b) i and iii only
c) ii and iii only
d) i, ii and iii
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
11. Which of the following scheduling algorithms gives minimum average waiting time?
a) FCFS
b) SJF
c) Round – robin
d) Priority
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
1. What is a reusable resource?
a) that can be used by one process at a time and is not depleted by that use
b) that can be used by more than one process at a time
c) that can be shared between various threads
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2. Which of the following condition is required for a deadlock to be possible?
a) mutual exclusion
b) a process may hold allocated resources while awaiting assignment of other resources
c) no resource can be forcibly removed from a process holding it
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
3. A system is in the safe state if ____________
a) the system can allocate resources to each process in some order and still avoid a deadlock
b) there exist a safe sequence
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. The circular wait condition can be prevented by ____________
a) defining a linear ordering of resource types
b) using thread
c) using pipes
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. Which one of the following is the deadlock avoidance algorithm?
a) banker’s algorithm
b) round-robin algorithm
c) elevator algorithm
d) karn’s algorithm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. What is the drawback of banker’s algorithm?
a) in advance processes rarely know how much resource they will need
b) the number of processes changes as time progresses
c) resource once available can disappear
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
7. For an effective operating system, when to check for deadlock?
a) every time a resource request is made
b) at fixed time intervals
c) every time a resource request is made at fixed time intervals
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
8. A problem encountered in multitasking when a process is perpetually denied necessary resources
is called ____________
a) deadlock
b) starvation
c) inversion
d) aging
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
9. Which one of the following is a visual ( mathematical ) way to determine the deadlock
occurrence?
a) resource allocation graph
b) starvation graph
c) inversion graph
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. To avoid deadlock ____________
a) there must be a fixed number of resources to allocate
b) resource allocation must be done only once
c) all deadlocked processes must be aborted
d) inversion technique can be used
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
1. The number of resources requested by a process ____________
a) must always be less than the total number of resources available in the system
b) must always be equal to the total number of resources available in the system
c) must not exceed the total number of resources available in the system
d) must exceed the total number of resources available in the system
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
2. The request and release of resources are ___________
a) command line statements
b) interrupts
c) system calls
d) special programs
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
3. What are Multithreaded programs?
a) lesser prone to deadlocks
b) more prone to deadlocks
c) not at all prone to deadlocks
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Multiple threads can compete for shared resources.
4. For a deadlock to arise, which of the following conditions must hold simultaneously?
a) Mutual exclusion
b) No preemption
c) Hold and wait
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
5. For Mutual exclusion to prevail in the system ____________
a) at least one resource must be held in a non sharable mode
b) the processor must be a uniprocessor rather than a multiprocessor
c) there must be at least one resource in a sharable mode
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If another process requests that resource (non – shareable resource), the requesting
process must be delayed until the resource has been released.
6. For a Hold and wait condition to prevail ____________
a) A process must be not be holding a resource, but waiting for one to be freed, and then request to
acquire it
b) A process must be holding at least one resource and waiting to acquire additional resources that
are being held by other processes
c) A process must hold at least one resource and not be waiting to acquire additional resources
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. Deadlock prevention is a set of methods ____________
a) to ensure that at least one of the necessary conditions cannot hold
b) to ensure that all of the necessary conditions do not hold
c) to decide if the requested resources for a process have to be given or not
d) to recover from a deadlock
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
8. For non sharable resources like a printer, mutual exclusion ____________
a) must exist
b) must not exist
c) may exist
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A printer cannot be simultaneously shared by several processes.
9. For sharable resources, mutual exclusion ____________
a) is required
b) is not required
c) may be or may not be required
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: They do not require mutually exclusive access, and hence cannot be involved in a
deadlock.
10. To ensure that the hold and wait condition never occurs in the system, it must be ensured that
____________
a) whenever a resource is requested by a process, it is not holding any other resources
b) each process must request and be allocated all its resources before it begins its execution
c) a process can request resources only when it has none
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: c – A process may request some resources and use them. Before it can can request any
additional resources, however it must release all the resources that it is currently allocated.
11. The disadvantage of a process being allocated all its resources before beginning its execution is
____________
a) Low CPU utilization
b) Low resource utilization
c) Very high resource utilization
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
12. To ensure no preemption, if a process is holding some resources and requests another resource
that cannot be immediately allocated to it ____________
a) then the process waits for the resources be allocated to it
b) the process keeps sending requests until the resource is allocated to it
c) the process resumes execution without the resource being allocated to it
d) then all resources currently being held are preempted
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
13. One way to ensure that the circular wait condition never holds is to ____________
a) impose a total ordering of all resource types and to determine whether one precedes another in
the ordering
b) to never let a process acquire resources that are held by other processes
c) to let a process wait for only one resource at a time
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
1. Each request requires that the system consider the _____________ to decide whether the current
request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.
a) resources currently available
b) processes that have previously been in the system
c) resources currently allocated to each process
d) future requests and releases of each process
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2. Given a priori information about the ________ number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system will
never enter a deadlock state.
a) minimum
b) average
c) maximum
d) approximate
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
3. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the __________ to ensure that a circular
wait condition can never exist.
a) resource allocation state
b) system storage state
c) operating system
d) resources
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Resource allocation states are used to maintain the availability of the already and
current available resources.
4. A state is safe, if ____________
a) the system does not crash due to deadlock occurrence
b) the system can allocate resources to each process in some order and still avoid a deadlock
c) the state keeps the system protected and safe
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
5. A system is in a safe state only if there exists a ____________
a) safe allocation
b) safe resource
c) safe sequence
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
6. All unsafe states are ____________
a) deadlocks
b) not deadlocks
c) fatal
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. A system has 12 magnetic tape drives and 3 processes : P0, P1, and P2. Process P0 requires 10
tape drives, P1 requires 4 and P2 requires 9 tape drives.
Process
P0
P1
P2
Maximum needs (process-wise: P0 through P2 top to bottom)
10
Currently allocated (process-wise)
Which of the following sequence is a safe sequence?
a) P0, P1, P2
b) P1, P2, P0
c) P2, P0, P1
d) P1, P0, P2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
8. If no cycle exists in the resource allocation graph ____________
a) then the system will not be in a safe state
b) then the system will be in a safe state
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
9. The resource allocation graph is not applicable to a resource allocation system ____________
a) with multiple instances of each resource type
b) with a single instance of each resource type
c) single & multiple instances of each resource type
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. The Banker’s algorithm is _____________ than the resource allocation graph algorithm.
a) less efficient
b) more efficient
c) equal
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
11. The data structures available in the Banker’s algorithm are ____________
a) Available
b) Need
c) Allocation
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
12. The content of the matrix Need is ____________
a) Allocation – Available
b) Max – Available
c) Max – Allocation
d) Allocation – Max
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
13. A system with 5 processes P0 through P4 and three resource types A, B, C have A with 10
instances, B with 5 instances, and C with 7 instances. At time t0, the following snapshot has been
taken:
Process
P0
P1
P2
P3
P4
Allocation (process-wise : P0 through P4 top TO bottom)
A B C
0 1 0
2 0 0
3 0 2
2 1 1
0 0 2
MAX (process-wise: P0 through P4 top TO bottom)
A B C
7 5 3
3 2 2
9 0 2
2 2 2
4 3 3
Available
A B C
3 3 2
The sequence <P1, P3, P4, P2, P0> leads the system to ____________
a) an unsafe state
b) a safe state
c) a protected state
d) a deadlock
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
1. The wait-for graph is a deadlock detection algorithm that is applicable when ____________
a) all resources have a single instance
b) all resources have multiple instances
c) all resources have a single 7 multiple instances
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that ____________
a) Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs
b) Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs
c) Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system
d) Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3. If the wait for graph contains a cycle ____________
a) then a deadlock does not exist
b) then a deadlock exists
c) then the system is in a safe state
d) either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. If deadlocks occur frequently, the detection algorithm must be invoked ________
a) rarely
b) frequently
c) rarely & frequently
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
5. What is the disadvantage of invoking the detection algorithm for every request?
a) overhead of the detection algorithm due to consumption of memory
b) excessive time consumed in the request to be allocated memory
c) considerable overhead in computation time
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
6. A deadlock eventually cripples system throughput and will cause the CPU utilization to ______
a) increase
b) drop
c) stay still
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. Every time a request for allocation cannot be granted immediately, the detection algorithm is
invoked. This will help identify ____________
a) the set of processes that have been deadlocked
b) the set of processes in the deadlock queue
c) the specific process that caused the deadlock
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
8. A computer system has 6 tape drives, with ‘n’ processes competing for them. Each process may
need 3 tape drives. The maximum value of ‘n’ for which the system is guaranteed to be deadlock
free is?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
9. A system has 3 processes sharing 4 resources. If each process needs a maximum of 2 units then,
deadlock ____________
a) can never occur
b) may occur
c) has to occur
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. ‘m’ processes share ‘n’ resources of the same type. The maximum need of each process doesn’t
exceed ‘n’ and the sum of all their maximum needs is always less than m+n. In this setup, deadlock
____________
a) can never occur
b) may occur
c) has to occur
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
1. A deadlock can be broken by ____________
a) abort one or more processes to break the circular wait
b) abort all the process in the system
c) preempt all resources from all processes
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2. The two ways of aborting processes and eliminating deadlocks are ____________
a) Abort all deadlocked processes
b) Abort all processes
c) Abort one process at a time until the deadlock cycle is eliminated
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
3. Those processes should be aborted on occurrence of a deadlock, the termination of which?
a) is more time consuming
b) incurs minimum cost
c) safety is not hampered
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. The process to be aborted is chosen on the basis of the following factors?
a) priority of the process
b) process is interactive or batch
c) how long the process has computed
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
5. Cost factors for process termination include ____________
a) Number of resources the deadlock process is not holding
b) CPU utilization at the time of deadlock
c) Amount of time a deadlocked process has thus far consumed during its execution
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
6. If we preempt a resource from a process, the process cannot continue with its normal execution
and it must be ____________
a) aborted
b) rolled back
c) terminated
d) queued
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. To _______ to a safe state, the system needs to keep more information about the states of
processes.
a) abort the process
b) roll back the process
c) queue the process
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
8. If the resources are always preempted from the same process __________ can occur.
a) deadlock
b) system crash
c) aging
d) starvation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
9. What is the solution to starvation?
a) the number of rollbacks must be included in the cost factor
b) the number of resources must be included in resource preemption
c) resource preemption be done instead
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
1. Concurrent access to shared data may result in ____________
a) data consistency
b) data insecurity
c) data inconsistency
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
2. A situation where several processes access and manipulate the same data concurrently and the
outcome of the execution depends on the particular order in which access takes place is called
____________
a) data consistency
b) race condition
c) aging
d) starvation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
3. The segment of code in which the process may change common variables, update tables, write
into files is known as ____________
a) program
b) critical section
c) non – critical section
d) synchronizing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. Which of the following conditions must be satisfied to solve the critical section problem?
a) Mutual Exclusion
b) Progress
c) Bounded Waiting
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
5. Mutual exclusion implies that ____________
a) if a process is executing in its critical section, then no other process must be executing in their
critical sections
b) if a process is executing in its critical section, then other processes must be executing in their
critical sections
c) if a process is executing in its critical section, then all the resources of the system must be blocked
until it finishes execution
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. Bounded waiting implies that there exists a bound on the number of times a process is allowed to
enter its critical section ____________
a) after a process has made a request to enter its critical section and before the request is granted
b) when another process is in its critical section
c) before a process has made a request to enter its critical section
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
7. A minimum of _____ variable(s) is/are required to be shared between processes to solve the
critical section problem.
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
8. In the bakery algorithm to solve the critical section problem ____________
a) each process is put into a queue and picked up in an ordered manner
b) each process receives a number (may or may not be unique) and the one with the lowest number
is served next
c) each process gets a unique number and the one with the highest number is served next
d) each process gets a unique number and the one with the lowest number is served next
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
1. An un-interruptible unit is known as ____________
a) single
b) atomic
c) static
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2. TestAndSet instruction is executed ____________
a) after a particular process
b) periodically
c) atomically
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
3. Semaphore is a/an _______ to solve the critical section problem.
a) hardware for a system
b) special program for a system
c) integer variable
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
4. What are the two atomic operations permissible on semaphores?
a) wait
b) stop
c) hold
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. What are Spinlocks?
a) CPU cycles wasting locks over critical sections of programs
b) Locks that avoid time wastage in context switches
c) Locks that work better on multiprocessor systems
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
6. What is the main disadvantage of spinlocks?
a) they are not sufficient for many process
b) they require busy waiting
c) they are unreliable sometimes
d) they are too complex for programmers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. The wait operation of the semaphore basically works on the basic _______ system call.
a) stop()
b) block()
c) hold()
d) wait()
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
8. The signal operation of the semaphore basically works on the basic _______ system call.
a) continue()
b) wakeup()
c) getup()
d) start()
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
9. If the semaphore value is negative ____________
a) its magnitude is the number of processes waiting on that semaphore
b) it is invalid
c) no operation can be further performed on it until the signal operation is performed on it
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. The code that changes the value of the semaphore is ____________
a) remainder section code
b) non – critical section code
c) critical section code
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
11. The following program consists of 3 concurrent processes and 3 binary semaphores. The
semaphores are initialized as S0 = 1, S1 = 0, S2 = 0.
Process P0
while(true)
wait(S0);
print '0';
release(S1);
release(S2);
Process P1
wait(S1);
release(S0);
Process P2
wait(S2);
release(S0);
How many times will P0 print ‘0’?
a) At least twice
b) Exactly twice
c) Exactly thrice
d) Exactly once
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
12. Each process Pi, i = 0,1,2,3,……,9 is coded as follows.
repeat
P(mutex)
{Critical Section}
V(mutex)
forever
The code for P10 is identical except that it uses V(mutex) instead of P(mutex). What is the largest
number of processes that can be inside the critical section at any moment (the mutex being
initialized to 1)?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Any one of the 9 processes can get into critical section after executing P(mutex) which
decrements the mutex value to 0. At this time P10 can enter critical section by incrementing the
value to 1. Now any of the 9 processes can enter the critical section by again decrementing the
mutex value to 0. None of the remaining processes can get into their critical sections.
13. Two processes, P1 and P2, need to access a critical section of code. Consider the following
synchronization construct used by the processes.
Process P1 :
while(true)
w1 = true;
while(w2 == true);
Critical section
w1 = false;
Remainder Section
Process P2 :
while(true)
w2 = true;
while(w1 == true);
Critical section
w2 = false;
Remainder Section
Here, w1 and w2 have shared variables, which are initialized to false. Which one of the following
statements is TRUE about the above construct?
a) It does not ensure mutual exclusion
b) It does not ensure bounded waiting
c) It requires that processes enter the critical section in strict alternation
d) It does not prevent deadlocks but ensures mutual exclusion
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
1. The bounded buffer problem is also known as ____________
a) Readers – Writers problem
b) Dining – Philosophers problem
c) Producer – Consumer problem
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
2. In the bounded buffer problem, there are the empty and full semaphores that ____________
a) count the number of empty and full buffers
b) count the number of empty and full memory spaces
c) count the number of empty and full queues
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3. In the bounded buffer problem ____________
a) there is only one buffer
b) there are n buffers ( n being greater than one but finite)
c) there are infinite buffers
d) the buffer size is bounded
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. To ensure difficulties do not arise in the readers – writers problem _______ are given exclusive
access to the shared object.
a) readers
b) writers
c) readers and writers
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
5. The dining – philosophers problem will occur in case of ____________
a) 5 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
b) 4 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
c) 3 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
d) 6 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. A deadlock free solution to the dining philosophers problem ____________
a) necessarily eliminates the possibility of starvation
b) does not necessarily eliminate the possibility of starvation
c) eliminates any possibility of any kind of problem further
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. All processes share a semaphore variable mutex, initialized to 1. Each process must execute
wait(mutex) before entering the critical section and signal(mutex) afterward.
Suppose a process executes in the following manner.
signal(mutex);
.....
critical section
.....
wait(mutex);
In this situation :
a) a deadlock will occur
b) processes will starve to enter critical section
c) several processes maybe executing in their critical section
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
8. All processes share a semaphore variable mutex, initialized to 1. Each process must execute
wait(mutex) before entering the critical section and signal(mutex) afterward.
Suppose a process executes in the following manner.
wait(mutex);
.....
critical section
.....
wait(mutex);
a) a deadlock will occur
b) processes will starve to enter critical section
c) several processes maybe executing in their critical section
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
9. Consider the methods used by processes P1 and P2 for accessing their critical sections whenever
needed, as given below. The initial values of shared boolean variables S1 and S2 are randomly
assigned. (GATE 2010)
Method used by P1 :
while(S1==S2);
Critical section
S1 = S2;
Method used by P2 :
while(S1!=S2);
Critical section
S2 = not(S1);
Which of the following statements describes properties achieved?
a) Mutual exclusion but not progress
b) Progress but not mutual exclusion
c) Neither mutual exclusion nor progress
d) Both mutual exclusion and progress
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
1. A monitor is a type of ____________
a) semaphore
b) low level synchronization construct
c) high level synchronization construct
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
2. A monitor is characterized by ____________
a) a set of programmer defined operators
b) an identifier
c) the number of variables in it
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3. A procedure defined within a ________ can access only those variables declared locally within the
_______ and its formal parameters.
a) process, semaphore
b) process, monitor
c) semaphore, semaphore
d) monitor, monitor
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
4. The monitor construct ensures that ____________
a) only one process can be active at a time within the monitor
b) n number of processes can be active at a time within the monitor (n being greater than 1)
c) the queue has only one process in it at a time
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. What are the operations that can be invoked on a condition variable?
a) wait & signal
b) hold & wait
c) signal & hold
d) continue & signal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. Which is the process of invoking the wait operation?
a) suspended until another process invokes the signal operation
b) waiting for another process to complete before it can itself call the signal operation
c) stopped until the next process in the queue finishes execution
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
7. If no process is suspended, the signal operation ____________
a) puts the system into a deadlock state
b) suspends some default process execution
c) nothing happens
d) the output is unpredictable
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
1. A collection of instructions that performs a single logical function is called ____________
a) transaction
b) operation
c) function
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2. A terminated transaction that has completed its execution successfully is ____________
otherwise it is __________
a) committed, destroyed
b) aborted, destroyed
c) committed, aborted
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
3. The state of the data accessed by an aborted transaction must be restored to what it was just
before the transaction started executing. This restoration is known as ________ of transaction.
a) safety
b) protection
c) roll – back
d) revert – back
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
4. Write ahead logging is a way ____________
a) to ensure atomicity
b) to keep data consistent
c) that records data on stable storage
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
5. In the write ahead logging a _____________ is maintained.
a) a memory
b) a system
c) a disk
d) a log record
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
6. An actual update is not allowed to a data item ____________
a) before the corresponding log record is written out to stable storage
b) after the corresponding log record is written out to stable storage
c) until the whole log record has been checked for inconsistencies
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
7. The undo and redo operations must be _________ to guarantee correct behaviour, even if a
failure occurs during recovery process.
a) idempotent
b) easy
c) protected
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Idempotent – Multiple executions of an operation have the same result as does one
execution.
8. The system periodically performs checkpoints that consists of the following operation(s)
____________
a) Putting all the log records currently in main memory onto stable storage
b) putting all modified data residing in main memory onto stable storage
c) putting a log record onto stable storage
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
9. Consider a transaction T1 that committed prior to checkpoint. The <T1 commits> record appears
in the log before the <checkpoint> record. Any modifications made by T1 must have been written to
the stable storage either with the checkpoint or prior to it. Thus at recovery time ____________
a) There is a need to perform an undo operation on T1
b) There is a need to perform a redo operation on T1
c) There is no need to perform an undo and redo operation on T1
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
10. Serializable schedules are ones where ____________
a) concurrent execution of transactions is equivalent to the transactions executed serially
b) the transactions can be carried out one after the other
c) a valid result occurs after execution transactions
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
11. A locking protocol is one that ____________
a) governs how locks are acquired
b) governs how locks are released
c) governs how locks are acquired and released
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
12. The two phase locking protocol consists of ____________
a) growing & shrinking phase
b) shrinking & creation phase
c) creation & growing phase
d) destruction & creation phase
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
13. The growing phase is a phase in which?
a) A transaction may obtain locks, but does not release any
b) A transaction may obtain locks, and releases a few or all of them
c) A transaction may release locks, but does not obtain any new locks
d) A transaction may release locks, and does obtain new locks
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
14. The shrinking phase is a phase in which?
a) A transaction may obtain locks, but does not release any
b) A transaction may obtain locks, and releases a few or all of them
c) A transaction may release locks, but does not obtain any new locks
d) A transaction may release locks, and does obtain new locks
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
15. Which of the following concurrency control protocols ensure both conflict serializability and
freedom from deadlock?
I) 2-phase locking
II) Timestamp ordering
a) I only
b) II only
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
1. What will happen if a non-recursive mutex is locked more than once?
a) Starvation
b) Deadlock
c) Aging
d) Signaling
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If a thread which had already locked a mutex, tries to lock the mutex again, it will enter
into the waiting list of that mutex, which results in a deadlock. It is because no other thread can
unlock the mutex.
2. What is a semaphore?
a) is a binary mutex
b) must be accessed from only one process
c) can be accessed from multiple processes
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
3. What are the two kinds of semaphores?
a) mutex & counting
b) binary & counting
c) counting & decimal
d) decimal & binary
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. What is a mutex?
a) is a binary mutex
b) must be accessed from only one process
c) can be accessed from multiple processes
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
5. At a particular time of computation the value of a counting semaphore is 7.Then 20 P operations
and 15 V operations were completed on this semaphore. The resulting value of the semaphore is?
(GATE 1987)
a) 42
b) 2
c) 7
d) 12
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: P represents Wait and V represents Signal. P operation will decrease the value by 1
every time and V operation will increase the value by 1 every time.
6. A binary semaphore is a semaphore with integer values ____________
a) 1
b) -1
c) 0.8
d) 0.5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
7. The following pair of processes share a common variable X.
Process A
int Y;
A1: Y = X*2;
A2: X = Y;
Process B
int Z;
B1: Z = X+1;
B2: X = Z;
X is set to 5 before either process begins execution. As usual, statements within a process are
executed sequentially, but statements in process A may execute in any order with respect to
statements in process B.
How many different values of X are possible after both processes finish executing?
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) eight
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Here are the possible ways in which statements from A and B can be interleaved.
A1 A2 B1 B2: X = 11
A1 B1 A2 B2: X = 6
A1 B1 B2 A2: X = 10
B1 A1 B2 A2: X = 10
B1 A1 A2 B2: X = 6
B1 B2 A1 A2: X = 12.
8. The program follows to use a shared binary semaphore T.
Process A
int Y;
A1: Y = X*2;
A2: X = Y;
signal(T);
Process B
int Z;
B1: wait(T);
B2: Z = X+1;
X = Z;
T is set to 0 before either process begins execution and, as before, X is set to 5.
Now, how many different values of X are possible after both processes finish executing?
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The semaphore T ensures that all the statements from A finish execution before B
begins. So now there is only one way in which statements from A and B can be interleaved:
A1 A2 B1 B2: X = 11.
9. Semaphores are mostly used to implement ____________
a) System calls
b) IPC mechanisms
c) System protection
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
10. Spinlocks are intended to provide __________ only.
a) Mutual Exclusion
b) Bounded Waiting
c) Aging
d) Progress
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
) Which of the following is not an operating system?
Windows
Linux
Oracle
DOS
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (c) Oracle
Explanation: Oracle is an RDBMS (Relational Database Management System). It is known as Oracle
Database, Oracle DB, or Oracle Only. The first database for enterprise grid computing is the Oracle
database.
2) What is the maximum length of the filename in DOS?
12
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (c) 8
Explanation: The maximum length of the filename is 8 characters in the DOS operating system. It is
commonly known as an 8.3 filename.
3) When was the first operating system developed?
1948
1949
1950
1951
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (c) 1950
Explanation: The first operating system was developed in the early 1950's. It was also called a single-
stream batch processing system because it presented data in groups.
4) When were MS windows operating systems proposed?
1994
1990
1992
1985
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (d) 1985
Explanation: The first MS Windows operating system was introduced in early 1985.
5) Which of the following is the extension of Notepad?
.txt
.xls
.ppt
.bmp
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (a) .txt
Explanation: The .txt file extension is a standard text document extension that contains the
unformatted text. It is the default file extension for the notepad.
6) What else is a command interpreter called?
prompt
kernel
shell
command
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (c) shell
Explanation: The command interpreter is also called the shell.
7) What is the full name of FAT?
File attribute table
File allocation table
Font attribute table
Format allocation table
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (b) File allocation table.
Explanation: The FAT stands for File allocation table. The FAT is a file system architecture. It is used
in computer systems and memory cards. A FAT of the contents of a computer disk indicates which
field is used for which file.
8) BIOS is used?
By operating system
By compiler
By interpreter
By application software
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (a) By operating system
Explanation: BIOS is used by the operating system. It is used to configure and identify the hardware
in a system such as the hard drive, floppy drive, optical drive, CPU, and memory.
9) What is the mean of the Booting in the operating system?
Restarting computer
Install the program
To scan
To turn off
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (a) Restarting computer
Explanation: Booting is a process of the restart the computer. After restarting it, there is no software
in the computer's main memory.
10) When does page fault occur?
The page is present in memory.
The deadlock occurs.
The page does not present in memory.
The buffering occurs.
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (c) The page does not present in memory.
Explanation: Page faults occur when a process tries to access a block page of the memory and that
page is not stored in RAM (Read only memory) or memory.
11) Banker's algorithm is used?
To prevent deadlock
To deadlock recovery
To solve the deadlock
None of these
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (a) To prevent deadlock
Explanation: Banker's algorithm is used to prevent the deadlock condition. The banker algorithm is
sometimes called the detection algorithm. It is named the banker algorithm because it is used to
determine whether a loan can be granted in the banking system or not.
12) When you delete a file in your computer, where does it go?
Recycle bin
Hard disk
Taskbar
None of these
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (a) Recycle bin
Explanation: When you delete a file on your computer device, it is transferred to your computer
system's recycle bin or trash.
13) Which is the Linux operating system?
Private operating system
Windows operating system
Open-source operating system
None of these
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (c) Open-source operating system
Explanation: The Linux operating system is an open-source operating system made up of a kernel. It
is a very safe operating system.
14) What is the full name of the DSM?
Direct system module
Direct system memory
Demoralized system memory
Distributed shared memory
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (d) Distributed shared memory
Explanation: The DSM stands for Distributed Shared Memory.
15) What is the full name of the IDL?
Interface definition language
Interface direct language
Interface data library
None of these
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (a) Interface definition language
Explanation: The IDL stands for Interface Definition Language. It is used to establish communications
between clients and servers in RPC (Remote Procedure Call).
16) What is bootstrapping called?
Cold boot
Cold hot boot
Cold hot strap
Hot boot
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (a) Cold boot
Explanation: Bootstrapping is also known as the cool boot.
17) What is the fence register used for?
To disk protection
To CPU protection
To memory protection
None of these
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (c) To memory protection
Explanation: The fence register is used for memory protection on the computer. It is a way to access
the memory in the computer.
18) If the page size increases, the internal fragmentation is also?..?
Decreases
Increases
Remains constant
None of these
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (b) Increases
Explanation: None
19) Which of the following is a single-user operating system?
Windows
MAC
Ms-Dos
None of these
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (c) Ms-Dos
Explanation: The single-user operating system is the operating system in which only one user can
access the computer system at a time, and Ms-DOS is the best example of a single-user operating
system.
20) The size of virtual memory is based on which of the following?
CPU
RAM
Address bus
Data bus
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (c) Address bus
Explanation: The size of virtual memory is based on the address bus.
21) If a page number is not found in the translation lookaside buffer, then it is known as a?
Translation Lookaside Buffer miss
Buffer miss
Translation Lookaside Buffer hit
All of the mentioned
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (a) Translation Lookaside Buffer miss
Explanation: A Translation Lookaside Buffer miss arises when the page table entry needed to
translate a virtual address to a physical address is not available in the translation lookaside buffer.
22) Which of the following is not application software?
Windows 7
WordPad
Photoshop
MS-excel
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (a) Windows 7
Explanation: Windows 7 is not an application software because it is a operating system.
23) Which of the following supports Windows 64 bit?
Window XP
Window 2000
Window 1998
None of these
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (a) Window XP
Explanation: Windows XP supports the 64-bits. Windows XP is designed to expand the memory
address space. Its original name is Microsoft Windows XP Professional x64 and it is based on the x86-
64 architecture.
24) Which of the following windows does not have a start button?
Windows 7
Windows 8
Windows XP
None of these
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (b) Windows 8
Explanation: Windows 8 does not have a start button because it uses the tablet mode, but windows
8.1 has a start button.
25) Which of the following operating systems does not support more than one program at a time?
Linux
Windows
MAC
DOS
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (d) DOS
Explanation: DOS stands for Disk operating system. Disk operating system is a single-user operating
system that does not support more than one program at a time.
26) Which of the following is a condition that causes deadlock?
Mutual exclusion
Hold and wait
Circular wait
No preemption
All of these
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (e) All of these
Explanation: None
27) Who provides the interface to access the services of the operating system?
API
System call
Library
Assembly instruction
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (b) System call
Explanation: The system call provides an interface for user programs to access the services of the
operating system through the API (Application Program Interface).
28) Where are placed the list of processes that are prepared to be executed and waiting?
Job queue
Ready queue
Execution queue
Process queue
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (b) Ready queue
Explanation: The ready queue is a set of all the processes that processes are ready to execute and
wait.
29) Who among the following can block the running process?
Fork
Read
Down
All of these
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (d) All of these
Explanation: None
30) Which of the following does not interrupt the running process?
Timer interrupt
Device
Power failure
Scheduler process
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (b) Scheduler process
Explanation: Scheduler process does not interrupt in any running process. Its job is to select the
processes for long-term, short-term, and short-term scheduler.
31) What is Microsoft window?
Operating system
Graphics program
Word Processing
Database program
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (a) Operating system
Explanation: Microsoft Windows is an operating system that was developed by Microsoft company.
The Microsoft Windows is available in 32-bits and 64-bits in the market.
32) Which of the following is group of programs?
Accessories
Paint
Word
All of above
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (a) Accessories
Explanation: The windows accessories are a group of programs in the operating system. Windows XP
offers many accessories or software that you can use to help with your work. The accessories are not
full features programs, but it is useful for a specific task in the operating systems. It provides many
programs such as a painting program, a calculator, a word processor, a notepad, and Internet
software.
33) Which of the following is an example of a Real Time Operating System?
MAC
MS-DOS
Windows 10
Process Control
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (d) Process Control
Explanation: Process control is a best example of a Real time operating system.
34) Which of the following operating systems do you use for a client-server network?
MAC
Linux
Windows XP
Windows 2000
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (d) Windows 2000
Explanation: Windows 2002 operating systems were used to implement a client Server Network. It is
a server OS that was developed by Microsoft in April 24, 2002. It includes some features of Windows
XP.
35) Which windows was introduced to My Computer?
Windows 10
Windows XP
Windows 95
Windows 98
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (c) Windows 95
Explanation: Windows 95 was first window to introduced the My Computer.
36) What type of commands are required to perform various tasks in DOS?
Internal commands
External commands
Valuable commands
Primary commands
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (b) External commands
Explanation: External commands are required to perform various tasks in DOS.
37) What is the number of characters contained in the primary name of the file of MS-DOS?
Up to 8 characters
3 characters
Up to 10 characters
None of the above
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (a) Up to 8 characters
Explanation: MS-DOS operating system uses the file system that supports the 8.3 characters. The
eight characters are used to the filename, and three characters are used to the extension.
38) Which command is used to fetch a group (.doc) of files that have just been deleted?
Undelete
Undelete/all
Undelete *.doc
All of above
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (c) Undelete *.doc
Explanation: Undelete *.doc command is used to fetch a group (.doc) of files that have just been
deleted.
39) Which of the following is system software?
Operating system
Compiler
Utilities
All of the above
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation: The system software is a type of computer program designed to run hardware and
software programs on a computer.
According to some definitions, system software also includes system utilities, system restore,
development tools, compilers, and debuggers.
40) Which program runs first after booting the computer and loading the GUI?
Desktop Manager
File Manager
Windows Explorer
Authentication
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: (d) Authentication
Explanation: The authentication program is run first after booting the computer and loading the GUI.
Authentication is a process of verifying the person or device. For example, when you log in to
Facebook, you enter a username and password.
1. Which of the following is NOT a valid deadlock prevention scheme? (GATE CS 2000)
(a) Release all resources before requesting a new resource
(b) Number the resources uniquely and never request a lower numbered resource than the last one
requested.
(c) Never request a resource after releasing any resource
(d) Request and all required resources be allocated before execution.
Answer: (c)
References:
http://www.cs.jhu.edu/~yairamir/cs418/os4/sld013.htm
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Deadlock
2. Let m[0]…m[4] be mutexes (binary semaphores) and P[0] …. P[4] be processes.
Suppose each process P[i] executes the following:
wait (m[i]); wait(m[(i+1) mode 4]);
------
release (m[i]); release (m[(i+1)mod 4]);
This could cause (GATE CS 2000)
(a) Thrashing
(b) Deadlock
(c) Starvation, but not deadlock
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
You can easily see a deadlock in a situation where..
P[0] has acquired m[0] and waiting for m[1]
P[1] has acquired m[1] and waiting for m[2]
P[2] has acquired m[2] and waiting for m[3]
P[3] has acquired m[3] and waiting for m[0]
3. A graphics card has on board memory of 1 MB. Which of the following modes can the
card not support? (GATE CS 2000)
(a) 1600 x 400 resolution with 256 colours on a 17 inch monitor
(b) 1600 x 400 resolution with 16 million colours on a 14 inch monitor
(c) 800 x 400 resolution with 16 million colours on a 17 inch monitor
(d) 800 x 800 resolution with 256 colours on a 14 inch monitor
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Monitor size doesn’t matter here. So, we can easily deduce that answer should be (b) as this has the
highest memory requirements. Let us verify it.
Number of bits required to store a 16M colors pixel = ceil(log2(16*1000000)) = 24
Number of bytes required for 1600 x 400 resolution with 16M colors = (1600 * 400 * 24)/8 which is
192000000 (greater than 1MB).
4 Consider a virtual memory system with FIFO page replacement policy. For an arbitrary page access
pattern, increasing the number of page frames in main memory will (GATE CS 2001)
a) Always decrease the number of page faults
b) Always increase the number of page faults
c) Some times increase the number of page faults
d) Never affect the number of page faults
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Incrementing the number of page frames doesn’t always decrease the page faults (Belady’s
Anomaly). For details see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Belady%27s_anomaly
5. Which of the following requires a device driver? (GATE CS 2001)
a) Register
b) Cache
c) Main memory
d) Disk
Answer: (d)
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