PERSONALITY TEST

The personality test is designed to find out what you are like as a person and your work-related
personality. It asks you about the way in which you react in different situations and how you deal
with other people in the workplace. In this test, there are no right or wrong answers. Simply answer
in a way that is most like you.
In each of the 25 questions, you will be presented with a statement about a personal attribute. You
are asked to consider the extent to which the statement is relevant to you.
For example:
'I enjoy making detailed plans.'
You are required to respond to this statement by selecting how strongly you agree with it on a five-
point scale:
1. Strongly disagree
2. Disagree
3. Neutral
4. Agree
5. Strongly Agree
When you answer the questionnaire, please remember the following:
 Make sure that you answer all the questions.
 Even if a question does not seem entirely relevant, give the answer you consider would be
most like you.
It should take approximately 12 minutes to complete this test.

Question #1
To what extent do you agree or disagree with the following statement:

My goals in life are clear

1. Strongly Disagree

2. Disagree

3. Neutral

4. Agree

5. Strongly Agree
Question #2
To what extent do you agree or disagree with the following statement:

If people are rude to me I just shrug it off

1. Strongly Disagree

2. Disagree

3. Neutral

4. Agree

5. Strongly Agree

Question #3
To what extent do you agree or disagree with the following statement:

I am confident in what I do

1. Strongly Disagree

2. Disagree

3. Neutral

4. Agree

5. Strongly Agree

Question #4
To what extent do you agree or disagree with the following statement:

I can work even when things are disorganised

 1. Strongly Disagree

2. Disagree

3. Neutral

4. Agree

5. Strongly Agree

Question #5
To what extent do you agree or disagree with the following statement:

I consistently put full time and effort into everything I do

1. Strongly Disagree

2. Disagree

3. Neutral

4. Agree

5. Strongly Agree

Question #6
To what extent do you agree or disagree with the following statement:

I prefer achieving my goals than assisting others to achieve their goals

1. Strongly Disagree

2. Disagree
 3. Neutral

4. Agree

5. Strongly Agree

Question #7
To what extent do you agree or disagree with the following statement:

I would describe myself as an extremely competent person

1. Strongly Disagree

2. Disagree

3. Neutral

4. Agree

5. Strongly Agree

Question #8
To what extent do you agree or disagree with the following statement:

I prefer working within a stable rather than flexible environment

1. Strongly Disagree

2. Disagree

3. Neutral

4. Agree
 5. Strongly Agree

Question #9
To what extent do you agree or disagree with the following statement:

I am ambitious

1. Strongly Disagree

2. Disagree

3. Neutral

4. Agree

5. Strongly Agree

Question #10
To what extent do you agree or disagree with the following statement:

It's better to get a job done than aim for perfection

1. Strongly Disagree

2. Disagree

3. Neutral

4. Agree

5. Strongly Agree

Question #11
To what extent do you agree or disagree with the following statement:

I am able to complete tasks as well as, or better than other people

1. Strongly Disagree

2. Disagree

3. Neutral

4. Agree

5. Strongly Agree

Question #12
To what extent do you agree or disagree with the following statement:

I like to be in charge of other people

1. Strongly Disagree

2. Disagree

3. Neutral

4. Agree

5. Strongly Agree

Question #13
To what extent do you agree or disagree with the following statement:

I strive to do the best I can

1. Strongly Disagree

2. Disagree

3. Neutral
 4. Agree

5. Strongly Agree

Question #14
To what extent do you agree or disagree with the following statement:

I feel uneasy if I'm the centre of attention

1. Strongly Disagree

2. Disagree

3. Neutral

4. Agree

5. Strongly Agree

Question #15
To what extent do you agree or disagree with the following statement:

I am confident in my abilities to complete difficult tasks at work

1. Strongly Disagree

2. Disagree

3. Neutral

4. Agree

5. Strongly Agree
Question #16
To what extent do you agree or disagree with the following statement:

I am happy to make speeches in public

1. Strongly Disagree

2. Disagree

3. Neutral

4. Agree

5. Strongly Agree

Question #17
To what extent do you agree or disagree with the following statement:

It is very important for me to achieve my goals

1. Strongly Disagree

2. Disagree

3. Neutral

4. Agree

5. Strongly Agree

Question #18
To what extent do you agree or disagree with the following statement:

I like to react to things on the spur of the moment

 1. Strongly Disagree

2. Disagree

3. Neutral

4. Agree

5. Strongly Agree

Question #19
To what extent do you agree or disagree with the following statement:

I believe I am more intelligent than most

1. Strongly Disagree

2. Disagree

3. Neutral

4. Agree

5. Strongly Agree

Question #20
To what extent do you agree or disagree with the following statement:

I don't like unexpected responsibilities

1. Strongly Disagree

2. Disagree
 3. Neutral

4. Agree

5. Strongly Agree

Question #21
To what extent do you agree or disagree with the following statement:

I approach life in an easy-going manner

1. Strongly Disagree

2. Disagree

3. Neutral

4. Agree

5. Strongly Agree

Question #22
To what extent do you agree or disagree with the following statement:

I tend to take on other people’s problems

1. Strongly Disagree

2. Disagree

3. Neutral

4. Agree

5. Strongly Agree
Question #23
To what extent do you agree or disagree with the following statement:

I feel like a failure compared to my friends and co-workers

1. Strongly Disagree

2. Disagree

3. Neutral

4. Agree

5. Strongly Agree

Question #24
To what extent do you agree or disagree with the following statement:

I like to have plenty of time to myself

1. Strongly Disagree

2. Disagree

3. Neutral

4. Agree

5. Strongly Agree

Question #25
To what extent do you agree or disagree with the following statement:

People often comment on how comfortable I am in giving orders

1. Strongly Disagree
 2. Disagree

3. Neutral

4. Agree

5. Strongly Agree

Confident (in own ability to succeed)

This trait measures the extent to which you are confident in your ability to accomplish and achieve
challenging tasks in the workplace. This trait assists employers to learn about your self-confidence in
your ability to manage and outperform in the role. Self-confidence is one of the most important
indicators for success in the workplace. Therefore, most employers regard it as one of the most
important factors in making a selection decision.
Your result implies that you generally believe in your ability to manage and accomplish projects and
tasks. This belief, however, is not unlimited. You may sometimes feel lacking in confidence or
ineffective in your abilities to accomplish goals in the workplace.

Achievement Driven
This trait measures the extent to which you strive to achieve excellence and accomplish your goals.
This trait assists employers to learn about your inner drive and ambition for excellence in the role.
Employers are interested in taking onboard people who have an ambition to excel in what they do. It
reassures the employer that you will invest all your efforts to achieve your work-related goals.
Although some do not look favourably upon people with an extreme drive for excellence, most
employers do.
Your result indicates that you are likely to have an inner drive and ambition to do your best to
achieve successful outcomes in the workplace. Nevertheless, you are more interested in completing
the tasks assigned to you than achieving excellence in what you do. It doesn’t mean that you will not
invest effort and energy to accomplish the task at hand; it only means that your priority is to get it
done well rather than to achieve the best result that you can.
 NUMERICAL REASONING TEST 1
The numerical reasoning test measures your ability to use numerical information presented in a
variety of ways as a tool to make decisions. In this test, you will be given numerical scenarios and
asked several questions per scenario. For each question, you are given five possible answer options.
Work out the correct answer to each question using the numerical information provided in the
relevant scenario.
You may use a calculator if you wish.
You have 9 minutes to complete 12 questions.
The speed of your Internet connection (dial-up or broadband) has NO effect on the timer.

Remember to work out the correct answer to each question using only the numerical information
provided in the relevant scenario.

Question #1

Approximately how many more or less people aged 60 or under visit the Rush World compared to Fun Park on a regular
Monday to Thursday?
 1. 600 more

2. 950 more

3. 750 less

4. 600 less

5. 1200 less

Question #2

If the management at Barracuda Park raised the entrance fee by 20% for children and seniors, what is the expected daily
income on a Saturday?

1. $51,247.50

2. $42,333.50

3. $34,215.00

4. $60,102.00

5. $28,978.60

Question #3
If there were 450 workers in 2007, and 550 workers in 2010, what is the difference between the number of cashiers in
2010 and 2007?

1. 81

2. 85

3. 90

4. 92

5. 115

Question #4

Which region spent the least money on its project?

1. North

2. South

3. East
 4. West

5. Central

Question #5

If all workers are equally paid, which region paid the highest salary for a worker?

1. North

2. South

3. East

4. West

5. Central

Question #6
Which dairy produces the most blocks of cheese from an average cow?

1. Big Cow

2. Best Fresh

3. Milk Lake

4. Cream Delight

5. All dairies produce the same number of blocks of cheese

Question #7

The ratio between the number of cows at the Big Cow dairy and the Cream Delight dairy is 4:5. What is the ratio
between the daily milk produced at these two dairies?

1. 3:7

2. 2:5

3. 4:5

4. 9:10

5. 1:4

Question #8
At the Milk Lake dairy, the average daily milk production per cow decreased by 0.9 litres, and the amount of milk for a
block of cheese increased by 0.35 litres. How much profit per day will the dairy now make from cheese for each cow?

1. $3

2. $4

3. $5

4. $6

5. $7

Question #9

The Big Cow and Best Fresh dairies merged and, on average, now manufacture a block of cheese from 0.4 litres of milk.
The ratio between the number of cows in each dairy was 2:5 in favour of the Best Fresh dairy. How many blocks of
cheese can an average cow produce now?

1. 9

2. 10

3. 11

4. 12
 5. 13

Question #10

How many Jordanian dinars can I buy with 4 Australian dollars?

1. 3

2. 4

3. 5

4. 6

5. 7

Question #11

A ‘good’ employee is one who has had 4 sequential periods without a drop in sales. How many ‘good’ employees are
there?
 1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

5. 5

Question #12

In percentage terms, which employee had the highest rise in sales between Q1 and Q4?

1. Adam

2. Brenda

3. Chris

4. Daisy

5. Tom

free numerical

ANSWERS:
How to solve question 1?
To solve this question, we need to find the number of visitors aged under 60 (i.e. adults and children)
to both Rush World and Fun Park, over the course of four weekdays. In Rush World, the average
number of daily visitors is 1000 adults and 1700 children = 2700 in all. Over 4 days, this number
would be: 2700 x 4 = 10,800. Similarly, for Fun World, the average number of daily visitors is 2000
+ 850 = 2850; and over four days this will be: 2850 x 4 = 11,400. Therefore, Rush World gets 600
less visitors (i.e. 11,400 – 10,800).

How to solve question 2?

To answer this question, we need to calculate the new entrance fees for Barracuda Park after the
price increase. Based on the information provided in the question, the children’s entrance fee
increases by 20%. Therefore, the new children’s entrance fee will be $9.20 x 120% = $11.04. The
expected number of children on Saturday is 2700, so this category will generate an income of
$29,808 (i.e. $11.04 x 2700 children visitors). Adult entrance fee stay the same, so the income from
this category will be: $11.90 x 2100 adult visitors = $24,990. For seniors the entrance fee increases
by 20%. Therefore, senior’s new entrance fee will be: $6.80 x 120% = $8.16. Based on the table,
there is an average of 650 seniors per day, so the income from this group on Saturday will be: $8.16
x 650 senior visitors = $5,304. To get the answer, we must now add the expected income for the
three categories: $29,808 + $24,990 + $5,403 = $60,102.

How to solve question 3?

To solve this question we first need to find the number of cashiers in both 2007 and in 2010, then
subtract one from the other. So, in 2007, the graph shows us there were 450 workers, of whom 40%
were cashiers: 40% x 450 workers = (40/100) x 450 = 180 cashiers. In 2010, 18% were cashiers out
of 550 workers. Therefore, the number of cashiers is 18% x 550 workers = (18/100) x 550 = 99
cashiers. The difference between the two numbers is 180 – 99 = 81 cashiers.

How to solve question 4?

To answer this question we first need to find out how to calculate the cost of a project. Based on the
information provided in the table we can conclude that the cost of each project is based only on the
salaries paid through the entire project duration. For each project we have two types of salaries -
managers and workers. So, a project's cost is the sum of the managers and workers salaries
multiplied by the number of months. North Region’s project: total salaries paid per month was (2 m
+ 6 m) = 8 million. Project cost was 8 million x 24 months = $192 million. South Region’s project:
total salaries paid per month was (3.4 m + 12.3 m) = 15.7 million. Project cost was 15.7 million x 33
months = $518.1 million. East Region’s project: total salaries paid per month was (1.5 m + 4.5 m) =
6 million. Project cost was 6 million x 19 months = $114 million. West Region’s project: total
salaries paid per month was (1 m + 2.5 m) = 3.5 million. Project cost was 3.5 million x 26 months =
$91 million. Central Region’s project: total salaries paid per month was (6 m + 9.6 m) = 15.6
million. Project cost was 15.7 million x 28 months = $436.8 million. So, West Region was the lowest
cost at $91 million.

How to solve question 5?

To answer this question, we need to find out the salary of a worker in each region. To calculate the
salary of a worker, we need to divide the region’s total worker salaries by the number of workers.
For North Region, the total salary paid for workers was 6 million and the region had 165 workers.
Therefore, the salary per worker was $6 million / 165 = $36,400. For South Region, the total salary
paid for workers was $12.3 million and the region had 97 workers. Therefore, the salary per worker
was $12.3 million / 97 = $127,000. For East Region, the total salary paid for workers was $4.5
million and the region had 123 workers. Therefore, the salary per worker is $4.5 million / 123 =
$25,000. For Central Region, the total salary paid for workers was $9.6 million and the region had
118 workers. Therefore, the salary per worker is $9.6 million / 123 = $81,400. Based on the figures
above, South Region paid the highest worker salaries of around $127,000. A shorter way to solve
this question is to look at the table and notice that South Region pays the highest total salaries for
workers, but has have the least number of workers—so, without calculating the number, you can
deduce that South Region must have highest worker salaries.

How to solve question 6?

To work out how many blocks of cheese can be made from the average cow’s daily milk, you need
to divide the daily milk production per cow by the quantity of milk per block of cheese. According to
the table, an average cow at Bog Cow dairy, produces 4.5 litres of milk, and each block of cheese
uses 0.5 litres. Therefore, an average cow at this dairy produces 4.5 litres / 0.5 litres = 9 blocks of
cheese. An average cow at Best Fresh dairy, produces 3.8 litres of milk, and each block of cheese
uses 0.45 litres. Therefore, an average cow at this dairy produces 3.8 litres / 0.45 litres = 8.45 blocks
of cheese. An average cow at Milk Lake dairy, produces 4.9 litres of milk, and each block of cheese
uses 0.65 litres. Therefore, an average cow at this dairy produces 4.9 litres / 0.65 litres = 7.5 blocks
of cheese. An average cow at Cream Delight dairy, produces 4 litres of milk, and each block of
cheese uses 0.5 litres. Therefore, an average cow at this dairy produces 4 litres / 0.5 litres = 8 blocks
of cheese. This means that with 9 blocks per day, Big Cow dairy produces the most blocks of cheese.

How to solve question 7?

This is a question that requires you to work with ratios and understand what they mean. To calculate
the ratio between the milk produced at Big Cow and Cream Delight dairies, we need to multiply the
milk produced by the ratio of cows. So, at Big Cow, the daily milk production is 4.5 litres and the
ratio number of cows is 4, and this gives us a milk production ratio of 18 (i.e. 4.5 litres × 4 ratio of
cows). Similarly, for Cream Delight dairy, the daily milk production is 4 litres and the ratio number
of cows is 5. Therefore, 4 litres × 5 ratio of cows = 20. So, the ratio between the two dairies for milk
production is 18:20. This number can be reduced proportionately to 9:10 by dividing both sides of
the ratio by 2.

How to solve question 8?

To calculate how much the Milk Lake dairy earned from an average cow per day, we need to work
out how many blocks of cheese an average cow produces, and then subtract the daily cost for cow
maintenance. Based on the table, for the Milk Lake dairy, the new average daily milk production per
cow has now dropped to 4.9 litres – 0.9 litres = 4 litres. The new quantity of milk per block of cheese
production has increased to 0.65 litres + 0.35 litres = 1 litre. Therefore, the Milk Lake dairy now
makes 4 blocks of cheese from an average cow (4 litres of milk from an average cow / 1 litre of milk
per one block of cheese = 4 blocks of cheese per day from an average cow). Since each block of
cheese at Milk Lake dairy sells for $4, then the daily earnings from sales per cow is $4 × 4 blocks of
cheese per cow = $16 per cow). The daily cost to maintain a cow is $10. So, $16 – $10 = $6 profit
per cow

How to solve question 9?

To answer this question, we need to calculate the new average daily milk production per cow for the
two dairies together and then divide it by 0.4 litres, which is the amount of milk required to
manufacture a block of cheese. To work out the new average daily milk production, we need to
multiply each dairy’s average daily milk production per cow by the portion of cows in the diary and
add the two results. Based on the table, Big Cow dairy’s daily milk production per cow is 4.5 litres.
Based on the ratio in the question, the portion of cows in Big Cow dairy out of the combined new
dairy is 2 / (2+5) or 2/7. Therefore, the portion of average daily milk production in Big Cow dairy is
4.5 litres x 2/7 = 9/7. Based on the table, Best Fresh dairy’s daily milk production per cow is 3.8
litres. Based on the ratio in the question, the portion of cows in Best Fresh dairy out of the combined
new dairy is 5 / (2+5) or 5/7. Therefore, the portion of average daily milk production in Best Fresh
dairy is 3.8 litres x 5/7 = 19/7. Therefore, the new average daily milk production per cow for the
combined dairies is 9/7 + 19/7 = 28/7 = 4 litres per cow. The number of blocks of cheese
manufactured from 4 litres of milk is: 4 litres/ 0.4 = 10 blocks of cheese. Therefore, an average cow
over the two dairies produces milk sufficient for 10 blocks of cheese.

How to solve question 10?

This question measures your ability to understand and work with ratios. Based on the graph, 1
Jordanian dinar is 0.8 of an Australian dollar. This means that the ratio between the Jordanian dinar
and the Australian dollar is 1:0.8. If X is the number of Jordanian dinars I can buy with 4 Australian
dollars then the ratio of X:4 must be the same as the basic ratio between the two currencies (i.e.
1:0.8). When we work with ratios, we can multiply both sides of the ratio by any number except for
zero. However, the same multiplier must be used for both sides of the ratio. So, if 0.8 x 5 = 4
Australian dollars, then we need to also multiply the other side of the basic ratio by 5. This means, 1
Jordanian dinar x 5 = 5 Jordanian dinars. Therefore, X is 5 Jordanian dinars.

How to solve question 11?

The question, by inference, defines a ‘good’ employee as one whose sales each quarter were at least
the same or higher than the previous quarter. By looking at the graph, we can see that Adam’s sales
dropped from Q1 to Q2, Chris’s dropped from Q3 to Q4, and Daisy's dropped from Q2 to Q3.
However, Tom managed to increase his sales at every point, and while Brenda's Q2 and Q3 sales
were the same, at no point were her sales less than the previous quarter. Therefore these last two
match the criteria for a ‘good’ employee – so, the correct answer is 2.

How to solve question 12?

This question measures your ability to work with percentages. To answer this question, we first need
to ensure that you understand that the highest rise in percentage terms is not necessarily the same as
the highest rise in absolute numbers – for example, a rise from 1 to 2 is 100%, while a rise from 2 to
3 is only 50%, though the difference in absolute numbers is 1. The approximate rise for each
employee, in percentage, can by calculated by dividing the difference in sales between Q4 and Q1 by
the sales record of Q1. Based on the graph, Adam’s sales records in Q1 was 155 and in Q4 was 180.
His rise from Q1 to Q4 is calculated by dividing the difference between his Q4 and Q1 sales records:
180-155=25 by 155, giving us 0.16 or 16%. This means his sales were up by around 16%. Brenda’s
sales records in Q1 was 120 and in Q4 was 160. Her rise from Q1 to Q4, using the same formula, is
(160-120)/120 giving us 0.33 or 33%. This means her sales were up by 33%. Chris’s sales records in
Q1 was 140 and in Q4 was 165. His rise from Q1 to Q4, using the same formula, is (165-140)/140
giving us 0.18 or 18%. This means his sales were up by around 18%. Daisy’s sales records in Q1 was
155 and in Q4 was around 200. Her rise from Q1 to Q4, using the same formula, is (200-155)/155
giving us 0.29 or 29%. This means her sales were up by around 29%. Tom’s sales records in Q1 was
110 and in Q4 was 165. His rise from Q1 to Q4, using the same formula, is (165-110)/110 giving us
0.55 or 55%. This means his sales were up by around 55%. Therefore, Tom had the highest rise in
sales from Q1 to Q4.

NUMERICAL REASONING TEST 2

Question #1

Two fifths of the dogs owned by a dog breeder are Cavaliers, and one quarter are Golden Retrievers.

What is the minimum number of Golden Retrievers this breeder might have?

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

5. 5
Question #2

Tom has twice as many sales as Steve, and Nat has one quarter of the sales that Steve has. If Tom has 40 sales, how
many does Nat have?

1. 2

2. 3

3. 4

4. 5

Question #3

What is the missing number that should replace the question mark?

1. 10
 2. 14

3. 18

4. 22

Question #4

What is the missing number that should replace the question mark?

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

Question #5
Jill works twice as fast as Brian, and together they build 300 chairs in 9 hours. Gary joined Jill and Brian in building
chairs. All of them combined can build 240 chairs in 4.5 hours. How many chairs can Gary build alone in 6 hours?

1. 95
 2. 100

3. 115

4. 120

5. 125

Question #6
The sum of four consecutive numbers is 18. What is the highest of these numbers?

1. 5

2. 6

3. 7

4. 8

Question #7
Four friends are playing cards. The first player had a number of cards that, when divided by 6, gave a whole number.
Similarly, whole numbers are also achieved by dividing the second player’s number of cards by 3, the third player’s by 5,
and the fourth player’s by 4.

What is the minimum number of cards that all four players could have had?

1. 10

2. 14

3. 18

4. 22

5. 26
Question #8
Amy and Shelly are best friends, and both own lots of hats. If Amy had five more hats, then she would have half of the
number of hats that Shelly has. If Amy gave five of her hats to charity, then she would have a quarter of the number of
hats that Shelly has.

How many hats does Amy have?

1. 5

2. 10

3. 15

4. 20

ANSWERS:
How to solve question 1?

This test question is to evaluate whether you are comfortable working with fractions and whole
numbers, and whether you understand what they represent. The minimum number for each breed
must be a whole number, so we need to express the fractions we have with the same base to obtain
minimum numbers. So, 2/5 and 1/4 are the same as 8/20 and 5/20 (i.e. the common base is 5 x 4).
This means there must be a minimum of 5 Golden Retrievers from a minimum total of 20 dogs. Of
course, this also means there must also be a minimum of 7 other dogs who are neither Cavaliers nor
Golden Retrievers.

How to solve question 2?

This is a classic question that can often be solved intuitively, or by using some very simple
equations. If we use equations, then we can write the following equation based on the first half of the
first sentence: Tom = 2 x Steve From the second half of the sentence we can write a second equation:
Steve = 4 x Nat If Tom = 40, then, using the first equation, we can conclude that: Steve = Tom / 2 =
40 / 2 = 20. Now we can substitute the figure we found for Steve to find Nat’s sales: Nat = Steve / 4
= 20 / 4 = 5.

How to solve question 3?

This test question is checking whether you are capable of identifying patterns in a group of numbers.
These patterns make the number groups into number series. This table has three rows and three
columns of numbers. All rows represent pieces of the same number series, as do all columns;
however, the number series in the rows might be different from the series in the columns. To find a
pattern, we first look at the differences between the adjacent numbers in the middle and bottom rows.
Going left to right, this would give us a difference of 4 at the last step (24 – 20) of the middle row,
and a difference of 4 at the first step (10 – 6) in the bottom row. So, the pattern seems to be to add 4
at each step, which would make the ? equal to 14 (i.e. 10 + 4). We can quickly confirm this by filling
in the remaining blank squares. Alternatively, we could identify the pattern in the columns. The
middle row indicates a difference (going top to bottom) of 10 at the last step (20 – 10), while the last
column gives us a difference of 12 at the first step. We can test this by finishing each column: 28 16
6; 32 20 10; and 36 24 14. This also confirms our answer as 14.

How to solve question 4?

This question checks whether you are able to identify a pattern in a line of numbers. A pattern within
the line turns these numbers into a series, and to find the pattern, we need to consider how
consecutive numbers change, and why. By examining the series left to right, we can see that the third
number is the product of the first two: i.e. 5 x 4 = 20. If we continue to apply that rule, we see that if
we multiply the third and fourth numbers, we get the fifth number: 20 x 3 = 60. So, the final number
must be a product of the fifth and sixth numbers: i.e. 6 x ? = 240; and this resolves as 240 / 60 = 4.

How to solve question 5?

To answer this question, we need to find how many chairs Gary can make in 6 hours. Based on the
question, Jill, Brian and Gary can make 240 chairs in 4.5 hours. This means that they must be able to
make a combined 480 chairs in 9 hours (using the previous information we multiplied the two sides
by 2: 240 chairs x 2 = 4.5 hours x 2). Given that Jill and Brian will make 300 of those in the 9 hours,
Gary must be able to make the remaining chairs: 480 – 300 = 180 chairs. This equates to a work-rate
for Gary of 20 chairs per hour (i.e. 180 chairs / 9 hours = 20 chairs per hour). Therefore, in 6 hours,
Gary will make 20 chairs x 6 hours = 120 Chairs.

How to solve question 6?

This type of question is designed to check whether you understand the concept of consecutive
numbers. Consecutive numbers are ascending whole numbers, such as: 1, 2, 3, 4 … If we use the
symbol X to represents the first of the four consecutive numbers, then the next number is X + 1, the
one afterwards is X + 2, and the fourth is X + 3. If the sum of all four numbers is 18, then X + (X +
1) + (X + 2) + (X + 3) = 18. Therefore, 4X + 1 + 2 + 3 = 18; or; 4X = 18 – 6 = 12. If 4X = 12, then X
= 3. So, our lowest number of four consecutive numbers must be 3, meaning the highest is 6.

How to solve question 7?

This question is to establish whether you understand what whole numbers are. Whole numbers are
numbers with no decimal point, and they can be positive or negative. To calculate the minimum
number of cards that our four players can have, we need to consider that the smallest whole number
of cards that any player can have is 1. Therefore, the minimum number of cards each player in turn
can have is: 6 x 1; 3 x 1; 5 x 1 and 4 x 1. This means that the players must have, at least, 6, 3, 5 and 4
cards respectively, and 6 + 3 + 5 + 4 = 18. Of course, it’s possible they could each have more cards
based on higher whole numbers, but the question asks only what is the “minimum” number they
could have.

How to solve question 8?

The simplest way to solve this question is to convert the information into two simple equations. This
question checks whether you are able to think of numerical information as equations. So, let’s
substitute A for Amy and S for Shelly From the second sentence, we can now create the following
equation: A + 5 = S / 2; which can be simplified to: S = 2A + 10 From the next sentence, we can
form another equation: A – 5 = S / 4; which, simplified, is: S = 4A – 20 We can now express those
equations simply in terms of A: 4A – 20 = 2A + 10 (which is to say, S = S) Now we can move all
numbers to one side of the equation, and all variables to the other: 4A – 2A = 20 + 10 So, 2A = 30;
therefore A (Amy) = 15.

VERBAL REASONING TEST 1

The verbal reasoning test measures your ability to think logically about written information. In this
test, you will be given passages of text and several statements relating to the text. You will be asked
to decide whether each statement follows logically from the information in the passage.
For each statement there are three answer options:
True - This means that, on the basis of the information in the passage, the statement is true or
follows logically from the passage.
False - This means that, on the basis of the information in the passage, the statement is false.
Can't say - This means that you cannot say from the information in the passage whether the
statement is true or false.
When answering each question, it is important to base your answer only on the information in the
passage and not on any other knowledge you may have.
You have 5 minutes to complete 10 questions.

Question #1
Three of the following are alike in some way:

Foremost.

Prime.

Penultimate.

Paramount.

Which word from the list is different?

1. Foremost.

2. Prime.

3. Penultimate.
 4. Paramount.

Question #2
Please read the following five statements:

A. Green is the favourite colour of most home builders

B. George the builder only has green paint

C. Only green houses will survive a tornado

D. All houses were built and painted by George the builder

E. A green house is a happy house

Which two statements together prove that all houses are green?

1. Statements A & B

2. Statements B & E

3. Statements C & D

4. Statements B & D

Question #3
Expertise is to Proficiency, as Lenience is to?

1. Joy.

2. Mercy.
 3. Seriousness.

4. Generosity.

5. Casualness.

Question #4
The waiters in the Imperial Restaurant have agreed on the following rules for their rosters:

1. When Daniel works, Simon works too.

2. When Simon works, Eve is not.

3. When Eve doesn’t work, Katherine doesn’t work too.

Which of the following conclusions is derived from this information?

1. If Simon works, Daniel works too.

2. If Daniel works, Katherine doesn’t.

3. If Simon doesn’t work, Katherine doesn’t.

4. If Katherine doesn’t work, Simon doesn’t work too.

Question #5
Please read the following three statements:

Statement 1: David greeted Beth.

Statement 2: Beth greeted Gavin.

Statement 3: David did not greet Gavin

Assuming the first two statements are true. Is the final statement:

1. True

2. False

3. Can't say

Base your answer only on the information in the passage

Question #6
Four of the following are alike in some way:

Tuberculosis.

Pnuemonia.

Arthritis.

Malaria.

Cholera.

Which word from the list is different?

1. Tuberculosis.
 2. Pnuemonia.

3. Arthritis.

4. Malaria.

5. Cholera.

Question #7
Please read the following five statements:

A. Anne is in love with Bill

B. Bill wouldn’t marry any women other than Anne

C. Bill gave Anne a beautiful engagement ring

D. Anne is a happily married woman

E. Bill got married in April

Which two statements together prove that Anne is married to Bill?

1. Statements A & C

2. Statements B & E

3. Statements C & E

4. Statements D & B

Question #8
There is no child that doesn’t like chocolate.

What inference can be drawn from this statement?

1. Everyone who likes chocolate is a child.

 2. All children like chocolate.

3. There are children who don’t like chocolate.

4. Only children like chocolate.

Question #9
Please read the following three statements:

Statement 1: Sandra is responsible for ordering all office supplies.

Statement 2: Notebooks are office supplies.

Statement 3: Sandra is responsible for ordering notebooks.

If the first two statements are true then the final statement must be:

1. True

2. False

3. Can't say

Base your answer only on the information in the passage

Question #10
Please read the following facts:

A. Gavin beat Jerry in a marathon race wearing Dada running shoes.

B. Dada came out, on the same day, with an ad campaign saying that their new Dada shoes made Gavin win.

Which of the following facts weakens Dada’s conclusion?

1. Jerry was unwell on the day of the marathon.

2. Gavin has never beaten Jerry in previous marathons.

3. Jerry took steroids to increase his performance on the day of the marathon.
 free verbal

4. Jerry has been considered the fastest marathon runner till now.

ANSWERS:

How to solve question 1?

The correct answer is: Penultimate.

Three of the words in the list (Foremost, Prime, Paramount) infer that something is the first or the
main thing. However, the word ‘Penultimate’ means ‘second last’.

How to solve question 2?

The correct answer is: Statements B & D

To answer this question, we must find two statements that if they are true then the conclusion must
be that all houses are green. If we take the following two statements: ‘all houses were built and
painted by George the builder’ (statement D), and ‘George the builder only has green paint’
(statement B) then the conclusion must be that all the houses are green.

How to solve question 3?

The correct answer is: Mercy.

‘Expertise’ means the same as ‘Proficiency’ (i.e. one is a synonym of the other). The only word in
the answer options that means something similar (i.e. is a synonym) to ‘Lenience’ is ‘Mercy’.

How to solve question 4?

The correct answer is: If Daniel works, Katherine doesn’t.

Based on rule number 1, we can conclude that Daniel and Simon work on the same days. Integrating
this information with rule number 2, we can conclude that Daniel doesn’t work when Eve does.
Integrating rule number 3 with the information collected before, we can conclude that Daniel and
Katherine don’t work on the same days. Therefore, this is the conclusion derived from all three rules.

How to solve question 5?

The correct answer is: Can't say

The two first sentences offer no information to assist us in concluding whether David greeted Gavin.
Therefore, the correct answer is Can’t say.

How to solve question 6?

The correct answer is: Arthritis.

Tuberculosis, pneumonia, malaria and cholera are all infectious viral diseases, while arthritis is not a
viral disease, but inflammation of the joints. Therefore, arthritis is the odd one out in this list.

How to solve question 7?

The correct answer is: Statements B & E

To answer this question, we must find two statements that if they are true then the conclusion must
be that Anne is married to Bill. Only two of the statements actually prove that Bill and Anne are
married: ‘Bill got married in April’ (statement E), and ‘Bill wouldn’t marry any woman other that
Anne’ (statement B). The rest may be true, but don’t prove a marriage between Bill and Anne.

How to solve question 8?

The correct answer is: All children like chocolate.

The statement is a double negative: no child + doesn’t like. This turns into a positive: all children +
like. Therefore, the statement 'All children like chocolate' is the correct answer.

How to solve question 9?

The correct answer is: True

As Sandra is responsible for ordering office supplies, and notebooks are part of the office supplies,
we can conclude that Sandra is responsible for ordering notebooks. Therefore, the correct answer is
True.

How to solve question 10?

The correct answer is: Jerry was unwell on the day of the marathon.

To answer this question, we must find another explanation to why Gavin won that would offer an
alternative to Dada's conclusion that Gavin won because he had Dada running shoes. If we examine
the answer options, the fact that Jerry was unwell on the day of the marathon (first answer option)
offers an alternative explanation for Gavin’s win. Therefore, it weakens Dada’s conclusion that their
shoes have been to reason for Gavin’s win. The other facts only make Gavin’s accomplishment while
wearing Dada’s shoes more impressive and, hence, tend to support Dada’s conclusion.
 VERBAL REASONING TEST 2

Question #1
A long-established fact is that readers will be distracted by readable content on a page when looking at its layout. The
point of using Lorem Ipsum is that it has a more-or-less normal distribution of letters, as opposed to using a filler like
‘Content here, content here’; this makes it look like readable English, and avoids the distractions of a readable text. Many
desktop publishing packages and web page editors now use Lorem Ipsum as their default model text, and a search for
‘lorem ipsum’ will discover many websites still in their infancy. Various versions of Lorem Ipsum have evolved over the
years, sometimes by accident, sometimes on purpose (injected humour and the like).

Contrary to popular belief, Lorem Ipsum is not simply random text. It has roots in a piece of classical Latin literature
from 45 BC, making it over 2000 years old. Richard McClintock, a Latin professor at Hampden-Sydney College in
Virginia, looked up one of the more obscure Latin words, consectetur, from a Lorem Ipsum passage, and going through
the cites of the word in classical literature, discovered the undoubtable source. Lorem Ipsum comes from sections 1.10.32
and 1.10.33 of “de Finibus Bonorum et Malorum” (The Extremes of Good and Evil) by Cicero, written in 45 BC.

Which one of the following does NOT follow based on the content of the text?

1. Lorem Ipsum is not nonsense words that look like Latin.

2. Readers get distracted when looking at a page design with Lorem Ipsum.

3. Readers get confused when looking at a page design with Lorem Ipsum.

4. A professor discovered the source of Lorem Ipsum when looking up an old Latin word.

5. Many people believed that Lorem Ipsum is random text.

Question #2
A long-established fact is that readers will be distracted by readable content on a page when looking at its layout. The
point of using Lorem Ipsum is that it has a more-or-less normal distribution of letters, as opposed to using a filler like
‘Content here, content here’; this makes it look like readable English, and avoids the distractions of a readable text. Many
desktop publishing packages and web page editors now use Lorem Ipsum as their default model text, and a search for
‘lorem ipsum’ will discover many websites still in their infancy. Various versions of Lorem Ipsum have evolved over the
years, sometimes by accident, sometimes on purpose (injected humour and the like).

Contrary to popular belief, Lorem Ipsum is not simply random text. It has roots in a piece of classical Latin literature
from 45 BC, making it over 2000 years old. Richard McClintock, a Latin professor at Hampden-Sydney College in
Virginia, looked up one of the more obscure Latin words, consectetur, from a Lorem Ipsum passage, and going through
the cites of the word in classical literature, discovered the undoubtable source. Lorem Ipsum comes from sections 1.10.32
and 1.10.33 of “de Finibus Bonorum et Malorum” (The Extremes of Good and Evil) by Cicero, written in 45 BC.

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the text?

1. Web editors created Lorem Ipsum.

2. “Lorem Ipsum” translates as “The Extremes of Good and Evil”.

3. English has quite different text lengths to Lorem Ipsum.

4. Everyone knows that Lorem Ipsum is random text.

5. The origins of Lorem Ipsum had its roots in literature from 45 BC.

Question #3
A long-established fact is that readers will be distracted by readable content on a page when looking at its layout. The
point of using Lorem Ipsum is that it has a more-or-less normal distribution of letters, as opposed to using a filler like
‘Content here, content here’; this makes it look like readable English, and avoids the distractions of a readable text. Many
desktop publishing packages and web page editors now use Lorem Ipsum as their default model text, and a search for
‘lorem ipsum’ will discover many websites still in their infancy. Various versions of Lorem Ipsum have evolved over the
years, sometimes by accident, sometimes on purpose (injected humour and the like).

Contrary to popular belief, Lorem Ipsum is not simply random text. It has roots in a piece of classical Latin literature
from 45 BC, making it over 2000 years old. Richard McClintock, a Latin professor at Hampden-Sydney College in
Virginia, looked up one of the more obscure Latin words, consectetur, from a Lorem Ipsum passage, and going through
the cites of the word in classical literature, discovered the undoubtable source. Lorem Ipsum comes from sections 1.10.32
and 1.10.33 of “de Finibus Bonorum et Malorum” (The Extremes of Good and Evil) by Cicero, written in 45 BC.

Which one of the following could you use to replace the term ‘classical’ in the second last sentence?
 1. typical

2. category

3. tutorial

4. ancient

Question #4
In epistemology, the Munchausen trilemma is a thought experiment used to demonstrate the impossibility of proving any
truth, even in the fields of logic and mathematics. If it is asked how any knowledge is known to be true, proof may be
provided. Yet that same question can be asked of the proof, and any subsequent proof. The Munchausen trilemma is that
there are only three options when providing proof in this situation: (a) the circular argument, in which theory and proof
support each other; (b) the regressive argument, in which each proof requires a further proof, ad infinitum; and (c) the
axiomatic argument, which rests on accepted precepts. The trilemma, then, is the decision among the three equally
unsatisfying options.

The name Munchausen Trilemma was coined in 1968 by the German philosopher Hans Albert in reference to a trilemma
of “dogmatism versus infinite regress versus psychologism” used by Karl Popper. It is a reference to the problem of
‘bootstrapping’, based on the story of Baron Munchausen pulling himself and the horse on which he was sitting out of a
mire by his own hair.

Which one of the following does NOT follow based on the content of the text?

1. Karl Popper was a German philosopher.

2. There are three argument options when providing proof of whether any knowledge is
true.

3. The axiomatic argument is one which rests on accepted precepts.

4. When each proof requires further proof ad infinitum, it is called a regressive argument.

5. Baron Munchausen rode a horse.

Question #5
In epistemology, the Munchausen trilemma is a thought experiment used to demonstrate the impossibility of proving any
truth, even in the fields of logic and mathematics. If it is asked how any knowledge is known to be true, proof may be
provided. Yet that same question can be asked of the proof, and any subsequent proof. The Munchausen trilemma is that
there are only three options when providing proof in this situation: (a) the circular argument, in which theory and proof
support each other; (b) the regressive argument, in which each proof requires a further proof, ad infinitum; and (c) the
axiomatic argument, which rests on accepted precepts. The trilemma, then, is the decision among the three equally
unsatisfying options.

The name Munchausen Trilemma was coined in 1968 by the German philosopher Hans Albert in reference to a trilemma
of “dogmatism versus infinite regress versus psychologism” used by Karl Popper. It is a reference to the problem of
‘bootstrapping’, based on the story of Baron Munchausen pulling himself and the horse on which he was sitting out of a
mire by his own hair.

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the text?

1. The Munchausen Trilemma is a proof in mathematics and logic of any knowledge.

2. Karl Popper used a trilemma of arguments: ‘the circular versus the regressive versus the
axiomatic’.

3. The circular argument is one in which theory and proof support each other.

4. Hans Albert was a colleague of Karl Popper.

5. Karl Popper dragged a horse from a bog by pulling on its hair.

Question #6
In epistemology, the Munchausen trilemma is a thought experiment used to demonstrate the impossibility of proving any
truth, even in the fields of logic and mathematics. If it is asked how any knowledge is known to be true, proof may be
provided. Yet that same question can be asked of the proof, and any subsequent proof. The Munchausen trilemma is that
there are only three options when providing proof in this situation: (a) the circular argument, in which theory and proof
support each other; (b) the regressive argument, in which each proof requires a further proof, ad infinitum; and (c) the
axiomatic argument, which rests on accepted precepts. The trilemma, then, is the decision among the three equally
unsatisfying options.

The name Munchausen Trilemma was coined in 1968 by the German philosopher Hans Albert in reference to a trilemma
of “dogmatism versus infinite regress versus psychologism” used by Karl Popper. It is a reference to the problem of
‘bootstrapping’, based on the story of Baron Munchausen pulling himself and the horse on which he was sitting out of a
mire by his own hair.

The axiomatic argument is one where each proof requires a further proof, ad infinitum.

1. True

2. False

3. Can't say

Base your answer only on the information in the passage

Question #7
Lithuanian émigrés

It was a background of division and acrimony amongst the Lithuanian émigrés in Bellshill, who were regarded as
Russian citizens, that they received the news of the signing of the Anglo-Russian Military Convention on July 16 1917.
Under the terms of the Convention, all Russian males between the ages of eighteen and forty-one and who were resident
in Britain years faced the choice of conscription into the British army or deportation for military service in Russia.
Opinions varied as to the best course of action to pursue.

The Lithuanian priests advocated enlistment into the British Army, while the socialists recommended that those called up
should elect to return to Russia. An added complication was the British government's decision not to make provision for
the transport of dependents or for their maintenance in Britain. The intention, it is clear, was to force as many Russians as
possible into the British Army, as this would avoid the logistical, administrative, and political problems of arranging their
return en masse to Russia.

Which one of these statements is definitely correct in light of the text?

1. All Lithuanian émigrés were to be conscripted into the British army

2. The socialists wanted the Lithuanian men of conscription age to return to Russia

3. All Lithuanian émigrés were to be repatriated to Russia

4. The British government wanted the émigrés to enlist in the Russian army

5. The Lithuanian priests wanted the British government to pay for the transportation of
Lithuanian men to Russia

Question #8
It was a background of division and acrimony amongst the Lithuanian émigrés in Bellshill, who were regarded as
Russian citizens, that they received the news of the signing of the Anglo-Russian Military Convention on July 16 1917.
Under the terms of the Convention, all Russian males between the ages of eighteen and forty-one and who were resident
in Britain years faced the choice of conscription into the British army or deportation for military service in Russia.
Opinions varied as to the best course of action to pursue.

The Lithuanian priests advocated enlistment into the British Army, while the socialists recommended that those called up
should elect to return to Russia. An added complication was the British government's decision not to make provision for
the transport of dependents or for their maintenance in Britain. The intention, it is clear, was to force as many Russians as
possible into the British Army, as this would avoid the logistical, administrative, and political problems of arranging their
return en masse to Russia.

Which one of following words means the same as the word ‘logistical’ in the final sentence of the passage?

1. Reasonable

2. False
 3. Organisational

4. Rational

5. Legislative

Question #9
It was a background of division and acrimony amongst the Lithuanian émigrés in Bellshill, who were regarded as
Russian citizens, that they received the news of the signing of the Anglo-Russian Military Convention on July 16 1917.
Under the terms of the Convention, all Russian males between the ages of eighteen and forty-one and who were resident
in Britain years faced the choice of conscription into the British army or deportation for military service in Russia.
Opinions varied as to the best course of action to pursue.

The Lithuanian priests advocated enlistment into the British Army, while the socialists recommended that those called up
should elect to return to Russia. An added complication was the British government's decision not to make provision for
the transport of dependents or for their maintenance in Britain. The intention, it is clear, was to force as many Russians as
possible into the British Army, as this would avoid the logistical, administrative, and political problems of arranging their
return en masse to Russia.

Which of the following statements could be regarded as a logical conclusion from the passage?

1. The Lithuanian community was a hotbed of pro-Russian feeling

2. The British government was secretly preparing to go to war against Russia

3. The Lithuanian priests in Bellshill were out of step with the majority of their community

4. By refusing to pay maintenance or transport costs, the British government was forcing
the Lithuanians to become pro-Russian agitators

5. The Lithuanian community in Bellshill was divided about how to respond to the
provisions of the Anglo-Russian Military Convention.

free verbal

ANSWERS:
How to solve question 1?

The correct answer is: Readers get distracted when looking at a page design with Lorem Ipsum.

The text says, in fact, that readers get distracted when looking a page layout if there is readable
content, and Lorum Ipsum removes that distraction.

How to solve question 2?

The correct answer is: The origins of Lorem Ipsum had its roots in literature from 45 BC.

The second sentence of the final paragraph states quite clearly that Lorem Ipsum “has its roots in a
piece of classical Latin literature from 45 BC”.

How to solve question 3?

The correct answer is: ancient

The word, ‘classical’ relates to ancient Greek or Latin culture and language, and should not to be
confused with ‘classic’, which means typical of its kind.

How to solve question 4?

The correct answer is: Karl Popper was a German philosopher.

Nowhere in the text does it mention Karl Popper’s origins. The text only says that Hans Albert was a
German philosopher.

How to solve question 5?

The correct answer is: The circular argument is one in which theory and proof support each
other.

The text explicitly says, “the circular argument [is one] in which theory and proof support each
other”.

How to solve question 6?

The correct answer is: False

The text explicitly says that the ‘axiomatic’ argument “rests on accepted precepts” . It is in the
‘regressive’ argument that “each proof requires a further proof, ad infinitum”. Therefore, the correct
answer is 'True'

How to solve question 7?

The correct answer is: The socialists wanted the Lithuanian men of conscription age to return to
Russia

The passage explicitly says that the socialists were in favour of these men joining the Russian army
(fourth sentence). The other statements are either false or there is not enough information in the text
to say whether they are right or wrong.

How to solve question 8?

The correct answer is: Organisational

‘Logistics’ is a word that refers to the organisation, planning and coordination of events. It has
nothing directly to do with the science of logic.

How to solve question 9?

The correct answer is: The Lithuanian community in Bellshill was divided about how to respond
to the provisions of the Anglo-Russian Military Convention.

The whole passage is about the divisions, competing interests, and difficult choices that the
Lithuanian community in Bellshill had to make, and only the second last option fits with the thrust of
the text. The other statements may or may not be true, but none can be inferred from the information
provided in the passage.

ABSTRACT REASONING TEST 1

The abstract reasoning test measures your ability to quickly integrate new information to help you
solve problems. In this test, you will be given sets of shapes. The shapes in each set have some
relationships. You are asked to identify the most suitable next shape in each set based on the
identified relationships.
You have 6 minutes to complete 8 questions.
Work as quickly as you can while maintaining accuracy.

Question #1
What is the next shape in this series?

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Question #2

What is the next shape in this series?

 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Question #3
What is the next shape in this series?

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Question #4
What is the next shape in this series?

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.
Question #5

What is the next shape in this series?

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.
Question #6

What is the next shape in this series?

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.
Question #7

What is the next shape in this series?

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.
Question #8

What is the next shape in this series?

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.
 free abstract

ANSWERS:
How to solve question 1?

The correct answer is:

The rule here is that the white slice is growing by one-eighth of a circle (i.e. 45 degrees) clockwise
and anticlockwise alternately. This means that the next shape should have a new white slice added to
the left of that shown in the previous shape, which makes up a half white circle.

How to solve question 2?

The correct answer is:

The first rule here is that the shape turns upside down (180 degrees clockwise) at a time. The second
rule here is that one part of the line making up the shape is deleted every step, starting from the top-
right corner (in the original shape).

How to solve question 3?

The correct answer is:

The number of vertical lines decreases by one and the number of horizontal lines increases by one
every step. The black squares fill the intersections between vertical and horizontal lines, similar to a
chessboard.

How to solve question 4?

he correct answer is:

The top black slice (in the first shape) moves clockwise. The number of places it moves each time
follows an arithmetical sequence with a common difference of 2 (i.e. 2, 4, 6, … ). The second (or
lower) black slice also moves clockwise. The number of places it moves each time also follows an
arithmetical sequence with a common difference of 2 and starting at 1 (i.e. 1, 3, 5, … ). This means
that in the next shape, the top black slice (in the first shape) will be eight places away clockwise from
its previous position and the second black slice (in the first shape) will be seven places away
clockwise from its previous position.

How to solve question 5?

The correct answer is:

In this series, there are two black inner shapes – a single black square and a group of three black
squares. The first rule is that the single black square, which sits on the group’s bottom square in the
first shape, moves two places at a time clockwise along the perimeter. The second rule is that the
group of three black squares moves left, one place at a time. This means that the next shape will have
the single black square on top of the group’s bottom black square.

How to solve question 6?

The correct answer is:

The entire square turns 45 degrees (one-eighth of a circle) clockwise. The top black square, in the
first shape, moves along the perimeter clockwise. The number of places it moves each time follows
an arithmetical sequence with a common difference of 2 and starting at 2 (i.e. 2, 4, 6, … ). The
bottom black square, in the first shape, moves also along the perimeter clockwise. The number of
places it moves each time follows an arithmetical sequence with a common difference of 1 and
starting at 1 (i.e. 1, 2, 3, … ).

How to solve question 7?

The correct answer is:

Here we have four angles that are aligned in the original shape (i.e. top, right, bottom and left angles
all meeting in the middle). The left and bottom angles have a black triangle at their edge. The first
rule is that the left angle moves horizontally to the right. The second rule is that the top angle moves
vertically up (away from the middle). The third rule is that the right angle is moving horizontally to
the right (away from the middle). The fourth rule is that the bottom angle is moving vertically up.
Only the last answer shape matches all the rules above.

How to solve question 8?

he correct answer is:

Each consecutive shape includes the unique forms of the two previous shapes. To illustrate this rule,
the third shape has a circle and a big X, which are the only two forms that don’t appear in both the
first and second shapes. Therefore, the next shape must have an X and a square, as they are the only
two shapes that don’t appear in both previous shapes.
 MECHANICAL REASONING TEST 1
The mechanical reasoning test measures your ability to comprehend and apply mechanical
principles to solve problems. In this test, you will be given mechanical scenarios and asked a
question about each scenario. For each question, you are given several possible answer options.
You must then work out the correct answer to each question using the mechanical information
provided in the relevant scenario.
You have 8 minutes to complete 8 questions.
Remember, you must work out the correct answer to each question using only the mechanical
information provided in the relevant scenario.

Question #1

If the shopping trolley was moving in the direction of the big arrow and then you stopped it suddenly, which way would
the bottle fall?

1. Direction A

2. Direction B

3. Can’t say
Question #2

Two men are carrying a heavy box on a plank. Which man is carrying more of the load?

1. Man A

2. Man B

3. They each carry the same share of the load

Question #3

A mother weighs 100 Kg and her son weighs 50 Kg. If the son is sitting 6 meters from the pivot, how many metres from
the pivot should the mother sit to balance the seesaw?
 1. 1 metres

2. 2 metres

3. 3 metres

Question #4

In what direction will gear 3 turn?

1. Clockwise

2. Anticlockwise

3. Can’t say

Question #5
In which direction will the gear at the right turn?

1. Clochwise

2. Anticlockwise

Question #6

You put the same amount of weight at the end of these two pendulums. If you let go of the two pendulums at the same
time, which will swing faster?

1. A

2. B
 3. No difference

Question #7

How much force (in kg) do we need to use to lift the 120 kg weight?

1. 10 kg

2. 12 kg

3. 20 kg

4. 24 kg

Question #8
If gear A turns 5 times, how many times will gear B turn?

1. 1 time

2. 5 times

3. 10 times

4. 20 times

free mechanical

ANSWERS:
How to solve question 1?

The correct answer is: Direction A

The correct answer is direction A. This is because of two mechanical principles. First, objects in
motion tend to stay in motion. The bottle was moving in the direction of the big arrow, so it would
tend to continue moving in that direction. It might slide in that direction, but its bottom is standing on
the trolley, and there is some friction that helps hold it where it is. So rather than slide, it falls over.

How to solve question 2?

The correct answer is: Man B

If the heavy box were at the centre of the plank, each man would carry the same share of the load. As
the load shifts, so does the load distribution on the plank. As a result, the more the load is distributed
towards man B, the more he will need to carry. Imagine the load moving all the way to the right –
that would cause man B to carry all of the heavy box and half of the plank, while man A would only
carry half the plank.

How to solve question 3?

The correct answer is: 3 metres

The mother weighs twice as much as the son, so she has to sit half as far from the pivot to balance
the seesaw. Remember, unequal weights balance only if weight times distance is equal. For the son,
weight times distance is 50kg x 6 metres equals 300 metres, so for the mother, weight times distance
has to be 100kg x 3 metres equals 300 metres to ensure the seesaw is balanced. Therefore, the correct
answer is 3.

How to solve question 4?

The correct answer is: Anticlockwise

When there are three gears, the last gear will turn in the same direction as the first. This is true for
any odd number of gears. If you have an odd number of gears, the last gear turns in the same
direction as the first gear. Therefore, the correct answer is Anticlockwise.

How to solve question 5?

The correct answer is: Clochwise

When you have an odd number of gears, the last gear will turn in the same direction as the first.
Therefore, the correct answer is Clockwise.

How to solve question 6?

The correct answer is: A

When other things are equal, a pendulum with a shorter string swings faster. You can try this out for
yourself with some string and a weight. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

How to solve question 7?

The correct answer is: 24 kg

There are five sections of rope holding up the weight of 120 kg. Three sections of rope go to the
lower pulley on the left and two sections of rope go to the lower pulley on the right. Following the
general rule we divide the total weight by the number of rope sections supporting this weight: 120 kg
/ 5 sections of rope is 24. Therefore, the correct answer is 24 kg.

How to solve question 8?

The correct answer is: 20 times

Since gear A is bigger, you know that gear B will turn faster. But you have to count the number of
teeth on the gears to find out how much faster. Gear A has 40 teeth and Gear B has 10 teeth. So,
every time gear A turns once, gear B turns 4 times. The question says that gear A turns 5 times, so
gear B must tum 4 times that much, or 20 times. The correct answer is 20 times.