WSET L2 Practice Review Questions
WSET L2 Practice Review Questions
Label,”
Issue 1: 2019
1) Which of the following conditions allows for the best impression of a wine?
a) A room that has been cleaned with bleach;
b) A room that allows natural light;
c) A palate that has been freshly brushed with toothpaste;
d) A palate after a cup of coffee.
2) Which of the following is the most common colour for red wines?
a) Purple
b) Ruby
c) Garnet
d) Tawny
3) Which of the following is the most common colour for white wines?
a) Lemon
b) Gold
c) Amber
d) Brown
4) Which of the following colours best describes a red wine with some age?
a) Ruby
b) Garnet
c) Purple
d) Gold
5) If the pigmentation of a wine reaches from the core to the rim, it should be described as:
a) Pale
b) Medium
c) Deep
d) Pronounced
8) Which structural component is the main factor that contributes to body in a wine?
a) Sugar
b) Acidity
c) Tannins
d) Alcohol
10) A wine should meet how many positive criteria to qualify as acceptable?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) None – there are problems on all criteria
11) Which of the following is true about Sweetness in food when pairing with wine?
a) It makes a wine seem more acidic
b) It makes a wine seem more bitter
c) It makes seem less fruity
d) All of the above
12) Which of the following is true about Umami in food when pairing with wine?
a) It makes a wine seem more bitter
b) It makes a wine seem less acidic
c) It makes a wine seem sweeter
d) None of the above
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14) Acidity in food can make a wine seem:
a) Drier
b) Less acidic
c) Less fruity
d) More bitter
15) Which statement is true about flavour intensity in food and wine pairing?
a) The flavour intensity of the food should be higher that the flavour intensity of the wine
b) The flavour intensity of the wine should be higher than the flavour intensity of the food
c) The food and wine should have equal flavour intensities
d) None of the above
18) A person’s sensitivities do not play an important role in matching food and wine.
a) True
b) False
19) Food has a greater impact on wine than wine has on food.
a) True
b) False
20) Acidity in wine makes the palate seem cloying and unrefreshing when paired with fatty/oily foods.
a) True
b) False
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Chapter 3 – Storage and Service of Wine
24) Which style of wine could be served at the warmest temperature range?
a) Still red wine
b) Rosé wine
c) Sparkling wine
d) Sweet wine
25) Which of the following wines should be served at the coolest temperature range?
a) Beaujolais
b) Champagne
c) Pinot Grigio
d) Shiraz
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27) When opening a bottle of sparkling wine, one should always:
a) Hold the cork secure while loosening the cage
b) Hold the bottle at an angle
c) Turn the bottle, not the cork
d) All of the above
28) When decanting an aged red wine, why should it be held near a light source?
a) It helps prevent the sediments from being agitated
b) It helps bring the wine up to room temperature
c) It helps with seeing when sediments collect in the neck
d) None of the above
29) Aromas of damp cardboard and muted fruit flavours is indicative of:
a) A wine that has been in contact with a cork contaminated with TCA
b) A wine that has been unintentionally exposed to oxygen by a failed closure
c) A wine that has been damaged by exposure to heat or sunlight
d) A wine that has thrown sediment from prolonged aging in bottle
31) Which of the following pairs are found in the pulp of a grape?
a) Carbon dioxide and alcohol
b) Colour and tannin
c) Seeds and stems
d) Sugar and acid
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33) Which environmental factor generates energy in the vine to produce sugars to grow and ripen grapes?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Nutrients
c) Sunlight
d) Water
34) Which is the correct order for grape formation and ripening?
a) Flowering, Fruit Set, Véraison, Ripening
b) Ripening, Véraison, Fruit Set, Flowering
c) Fruit Set, Flowering, Ripening, Véraison
d) Véraison, Ripening, Flowering, Fruit Set
36) An example of a grape that performs better in a warm climate but not in a cool climate is:
a) Chardonnay
b) Grenache
c) Pinot Noir
d) Sauvignon Blanc
38) A wine region with an average growing season temperature of 17°C / 63°F is considered to have a:
a) Cold Climate
b) Cool Climate
c) Moderate Climate
d) Warm Climate
39) In climates further from the equator, vineyards can maximise sunlight exposure by:
a) Planting grapes on flat, easily accessible land
b) Planting grapes on slopes that receive ample shade
c) Planting grapes on slopes facing rivers
d) Planting grapes on cool soils with no stones
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40) Which environmental factor best creates sunny summers and dry autumns that can extend the growing
season?
a) Bodies of water
b) Cloud cover
c) Mountains
d) Soils
41) Most of the world’s vineyards are found between which degrees of latitude?
a) 10 to 30
b) 20 to 40
c) 30 to 50
d) 40 to 60
42) Which weather-related issue can result in wines that are too high in acidity?
a) Cooler than usual vintages
b) Frost
c) Hail
d) High levels of rain
43) Which of the following is a challenge in the spring that can reduce the crop for the year?
a) Drought
b) Frost
c) Hail
d) Hotter than usual temperatures
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47) Grapes harvested later in the ripening process will have:
a) Higher acidity, lower sugars
b) Higher sugars, lower acidity
c) Higher sugars and acidity
d) Lower acidity and sugars
Chapter 5 – Winemaking
52) Which combination of factors would most likely increase the cost of a wine?
a) Steep vineyard, new French oak barrels, natural cork
b) Machine-harvest, used American barrels, screwcap
c) Hand-harvest, stainless steel, synthetic cork
d) High-yield, oak staves, cardboard box
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53) Which is the correct typical order for red winemaking?
a) Pressing, Draining, Fermentation, Maturation
b) Fermentation, Draining, Pressing, Maturation
c) Draining, Maturation, Pressing, Fermentation
d) Maturation, Fermentation, Draining, Pressing
54) Which process uses a plunger to extract colour and tannin for red winemaking?
a) Blending
b) Short maceration
c) Pumping over
d) Punching down
56) Short maceration followed by fermentation temperatures of 12°C – 22°C (54°F - 72°F) best describes:
a) White winemaking
b) Rosé winemaking
c) Red winemaking
d) Sweet winemaking
58) Which of the following would result in the least cost when adding oak flavours to a wine?
a) Oak staves
b) New French oak
c) Previously used barrels
d) Barrel fermentation
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60) After which step of the winemaking process is the wine unlikely to improve?
a) Pressing
b) Fermentation
c) Maturation
d) Packaging
62) If a climate or vintage is too warm, the flavours of Pinot Noir will:
a) Be well-suited for several years aging in bottle
b) Show unattractive flavours of cooked fruit
c) Show subtle flavours of clove and smoke
d) Struggle to ripen
63) Which labelling term would be the highest-quality from the best vineyards in Burgundy?
a) Cru
b) Grand Cru
c) Premier Cru
d) Villages
65) Good examples of Pinot Noir in California are generally not found in:
a) Carneros
b) Santa Barbara
c) Sonoma
d) Napa
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66) A cool region of Australia that produces quality Pinot Noir is:
a) Barossa Valley
b) Hunter Valley
c) Clare Valley
d) Yarra Valley
67) Which region of New Zealand is not famous for its Pinot Noir?
a) Central Otago
b) Hawke’s Bay
c) Marlborough
d) Martinborough
69) Which region is well known for producing high quality Pinot Noir in South Africa?
a) Mornington Peninsula
b) Oregon
c) Stellenbosch
d) Walker Bay
70) Blending Pinot Noir with other grapes is common practice in:
a) Burgundy
b) Beaujolais
c) Champagne
d) Hermitage
Chapter 7 – Zinfandel/Primitivo
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72) Which statements about White Zinfandel are true?
1) It is a white wine
2) It is medium-sweet
3) It is high alcohol
4) It is typically aged in oak
a) 2 only
b) 2&4
c) 1, 2, & 4
d) All of the above
75) Which Italian region is the source of wines made from Primitivo?
a) Piemonte
b) Puglia
c) Tuscany
d) Veneto
Chapter 8 – Riesling
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78) Which of the following terms describes a sterile grape juice that can be added to sweeten some Rieslings?
a) Prädikatswein
b) Qualitätswein
c) Süssreserve
d) Spätlese
79) What is the determining factor for each of the German Prädikatswein levels?
a) Vineyard site
b) Vintage
c) Sugar levels
d) Price
80) In order of least ripe to most ripe, which of the following is correct?
a) Kabinett, Spätlese, Auslese, Beerenauslese
b) Beerenauslese, Auslese, Spätlese, Kabinett
c) Auslese, Beerenauslese, Spätlese, Kabinett
d) Spätlese, Kabinett, Auslese, Beerenauslese
82) Which region typically has lighter-bodied Rieslings that have medium-sweetness?
a) Mosel
b) Rheingau
c) Pfalz
d) Eden Valley
83) Which term refers to a Riesling that is made from selected dried berries?
a) Halbtrocken
b) Kabinett
c) Landwein
d) Trockenbeerenauslese
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85) The Vosges Mountains allow Riesling to ripen slowly and gradually in which French region?
a) Alsace
b) Burgundy
c) Loire Valley
d) Rhône Valley
86) Chenin Blanc, Sémillon, and Furmint are often used to produce high-quality:
a) Sparkling wines made using the traditional method
b) Red wines that are often matured in oak
c) Sweet wines made from noble rot
d) Wines that are fortified after fermentation
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91) South Africa’s most widely planted white grape variety is:
a) Chenin Blanc
b) Furmint
c) Semillon
d) None of the above
92) Which region is not known for its botrytis-affected sweet wines?
a) Hunter Valley
b) Sauternes AOC
c) Tokaj
d) Vouvray AOC
Chapter 10 - Chardonnay
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97) Which best describes a typical of a warm-climate Chardonnay?
Acidity Body Primary Characters
a) High Light to medium Apple and lemon
b) Medium Full Pineapple and banana
c) Low Medium Raspberry and Plum
d) Medium to High Medium to full Peach and Melon
98) Which winemaking practice contributes flavours of butter and cream to a Chardonnay?
a) Malolactic conversion
b) Lees stirring
c) Oak barrel maturation
d) Bottle aging
99) Winemakers can use oak chips to give Chardonnay oak flavours.
a) True
b) False
101) Which of the following regions would Chardonnay most likely be unoaked?
a) Chablis AOC
b) Puligny-Montrachet AOC
c) Meursault AOC
d) Pouilly-Fuissé AOC
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104) Which Californian region would have a warmer climate for Chardonnay?
a) Carneros
b) Napa Valley
c) Santa Barbara
d) Sonoma
105) Which of the following is not an Australian region known for its Chardonnay?
a) Adelaide Hills
b) Margaret River
c) Walker Bay
d) Yarra Valley
107) Which of the following is not an AOC for Sauvignon Blanc in the Loire Valley?
a) Sancerre AOC
b) Pouilly-Fuissé AOC
c) Touraine AOC
d) Pouilly-Fumé AOC
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110) The classic home for Sauvignon Blanc in New Zealand is found in:
a) Hawke’s Bay
b) Marlborough
c) Central Otago
d) Walker Bay
112) Which pair of regions are known for Sauvignon Blanc in Australia?
a) Adelaide Hills and Margaret River
b) Hunter Valley and Barossa Valley
c) Eden Valley and Clare Valley
d) Yarra Valley and Mornington Peninsula
113) Most of California is not suited to growing fresh, herbaceous Sauvignon Blanc because:
a) Fogs keep temperatures cool
b) Soils are too fertile
c) The climate is too warm
d) The weather is too dry
114) What pair of regions in South Africa are famous for Sauvignon Blanc?
a) Casablanca Valley and Central Valley
b) Constantia and Elgin
c) Napa Valley and Sonoma
d) Walker Bay and Western Cape
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117) Which most contributes to the stylistic differences between a Pinot Grigio and a Pinot Gris?
a) Grape-growing choices
b) Fermentation choices
c) Maturation choices
d) Packaging choices
120) Pinot Grigio/Pinot Gris is often fermented and matured in a portion of new oak.
a) True
b) False
121) Which pair of regions are known for producing Pinot Grigio in Italy?
a) Campania and Venezie
b) Friuli and Veneto
c) Piemonte and Puglia
d) Tuscany and Marche
122) Typical aromas and flavours for Pinot Gris in Alsace are:
a) Lemon, apple, and honey
b) Peach, mango, and honey
c) Rose, clove and banana
d) Strawberry, clove and mushroom
123) Pinot Gris can come from a Premier Cru vineyard in Alsace.
c) True
d) False
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124) Identify the grape varieties that can be classified as vendanges tardives in Alsace.
1) Gewurztraminer
2) Pinot Gris
3) Riesling
4) Sémillon
a) 2 only
b) 2&4
c) 1, 2, & 3
d) All of the above
129) Dry, full-body, pronounced aromas of peach, apricot, and blossom best describe:
a) Albariño
b) Gewurztraminer
c) Pinot Gris
d) Viognier
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130) The Albariño grape is known for producing which of the following:
a) Sweet, high-acid, oaked white wines with tropical fruit character
b) Light to medium bodied red wines with red fruit character
c) Unoaked dry white wines with citrus and stone fruit character
d) Simple, medium-sweet unoaked rosé wines with red fruit character
Chapter 14 – Merlot
132) Riper Merlot from a warmer climate will show primary flavours of:
a) Blackcurrant and green bell pepper
b) Blackberry and black plum
c) Green apple and lemon
d) Strawberry and black pepper
134) Merlot typically needs more time to mature in oak and age in bottle than Cabernet Sauvignon.
a) True
b) False
135) Which river divides Bordeaux into a Left and Right Bank?
a) Gironde
b) Loire
c) Rhine
d) Rhône
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137) Which of the following AOCs would be mostly Merlot?
a) Haut-Médoc AOC
b) Graves AOC
c) St.-Émilion Grand Cru AOC
d) Pessac-Léognan AOC
138) Premium California Merlot typically shows light, subtle flavours of vanilla and coconut.
a) True
b) False
139) Which Chilean region typically produces medium-bodied Merlots from high yields?
a) Casablanca Valley
b) Central Valley
c) Colchagua
d) Maipo
140) In which Australian region does Merlot play an important role in blends with Cabernet Sauvignon?
a) Barossa Valley
b) Coonawarra
c) Margaret River
d) Mornington Peninsula
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144) Which of the following statements about Cabernet Sauvignon is true?
a) It ripens easily so can be grown in either a cool or warm climate
b) It has its classic home on the Right Bank of Bordeaux
c) Its high acidity and high tannins enable it to age for a long time
d) All of the above
146) Which region has established itself as a source of distinctively minty Cabernet Sauvignon in Australia?
a) Coonawarra
b) Barossa Valley
c) Hawke’s Bay
d) Oakville
147) Which of the following statements about Napa Valley Cabernet Sauvignon is false:
a) It is a powerful wine with high, ripe tannins
b) It has pronounced flavours of black fruits and oak
c) It is sometimes blended with small amounts of other grape varieties
d) It is difficult to ripen in the California climate
148) Which Chilean region is not a major source of Cabernet Sauvignon and Merlot?
a) Casablanca
b) Central Valley
c) Colchagua
d) Maipo
150) Which term in Bordeaux indicates a high ranking for the best wines of the region?
a) Château
b) Cru Bourgeois
c) Cru Classé
d) Supérieur
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Chapter 16 – Syrah/Shiraz
157) Which Australian region has a cloudy climate that results in medium-bodied Shiraz?
a) Barossa Valley
b) Clare Valley
c) Hunter Valley
d) Yarra Valley
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158) Shiraz is used to produce sparkling wines in Australia.
a) True
b) False
Chapter 17 – Gamay
160) Which region is famous for producing wines made from Gamay?
a) Beaujolais
b) Burgundy
c) Rhône Valley
d) Rioja
161) Which of these is a cru that produces wines made from Gamay?
a) Beaune
b) Fleurie
c) Hermitage
d) Minervois
Chapter 18 – Grenache/Garnacha
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164) Which pair of grape varieties are commonly blended with Grenache?
a) Cabernet Sauvignon and Merlot
b) Gamay and Pinot Noir
c) Sangiovese and Primitivo
d) Syrah and Tempranillo
166) Which region would see red wines made mostly from Grenache?
a) Côtes du Rhône
b) Côte de Beaune
c) Côte-Rôtie
d) Côte de Nuits
169) Which of the following pairs of regions is home to many old vine Grenache?
a) Barossa Valley and McLaren Vale
b) Casablanca Valley and Colchagua
c) Central Otago and Hawke’s Bay
d) Stellenbosch and Walker Bay
Chapter 19 – Tempranillo
172) Which region is the most famous for Tempranillo-based wines in Spain?
a) Catalunya DO
b) Priorat DOCa
c) Rías Baixas DO
d) Rioja DOCa
173) In Spain, the term Crianza indicates a wine that will show the most prounced tertiary aromas.
a) True
b) False
174) In which region is Tempranillo very full-bodied and have dark fruit character?
a) Rías Baixas DO
b) Ribera del Duero DO
c) Rioja DOCa
d) All of the above
175) Which is the correct order for aging minimums in Spain from shortest to longest?
a) Crianza, Joven, Gran Reserva, Reserva
b) Gran Reserva, Reserva, Crianza, Joven
c) Joven, Crianza, Reserva, Gran Reserva
d) Reserva, Gran Reserva, Joven, Crianza
177) Which variety native to southwest France is the most important black grape variety in Argentina?
a) Carmenère
b) Grenache
c) Malbec
d) Pinotage
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178) Which variety native to Bordeaux is widely grown in Chile?
a) Carmenère
b) Malbec
c) Pinotage
d) Sémillon
179) Deeply coloured, high tannins, full body, and flavours of blackberry and eucalyptus best describes a:
a) Carmenère
b) Malbec
c) Nebbiolo
d) Pinotage
180) Pinotage is sometimes blended with Cabernet Sauvignon and Merlot to create:
a) Amarone della Valpolicella
b) Cape Blends
c) Côtes du Rhône-Villages
d) Méthode Cap Classique
186) An important DOC in the Marche region is ___________ dei Castello di Jesi.
a) Cortese
b) Garganega
c) Fiano
d) Verdicchio
187) Soave wines are always white and can be either dry or sweet.
a) True
b) False
188) Which Italian white variety typically has the fuller body and lower acidity?
a) Cortese
b) Garganega
c) Fiano
d) Verdicchio
191) High acidity, high tannins, with red-fruit, dried herbs, and floral aromas best describes a:
a) Barbera
b) Corvina
c) Nebbiolo
d) Montepulciano
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192) A wine from Barbera d’Asti DOCG makes similarly powerful wines as a Barolo DOCG.
a) True
b) False
194) Which pair of wines are made using the appassimento method?
a) Amarone della Valpolicella DOCG & Valpolicella Classico DOC
b) Recioto della Valpolicella DOCG & Amarone della Valpolicella DOCG
c) Valpolicella DOC & Valpolicella Classico DOC
d) Valpolicella Classico DOC & Recioto della Valpolicella DOCG
197) Wines made from Barbera are typically more enjoyable at a younger stage than Nebbiolo.
a) True
b) False
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Chapter 23 – Sangiovese & Montepulciano
203) Which of the following best describes a wine made from Sangiovese?
Acidity Tannins Aromas
a) Low Low Red Cherry, Red Plum
b) Medium Medium Black Cherry, Black Plum
c) Medium to High Medium Peach, Pineapple
d) High High Red Cherry, Dried Herbs
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Section 4: Other Styles of Wine
Chapter 24 – Sparkling Wines
207) Generally speaking, how much will the alcohol of a base wine increase during second fermentation?
a) 1 – 2%
b) 4 - 6%
c) 10 - 12%
d) 15 – 20%
208) Stopping fermentation by filtering out the yeast results in a sparkling wine that is:
a) Sweet with low alcohol
b) Sweet with high alcohol
c) Dry with low alcohol
d) Dry with high alcohol
211) Sweet, fruity, and light-bodied best describes which sparkling wine?
a) Asti
b) Brut Champagne
c) Cava
d) All of the above
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212) Which factor adds bready complexity to a bottle-fermented sparkling wine?
a) Aging wines in oak barrels
b) Extended contact with dead yeast cells
c) Adding a mixture of sugar and yeasts
d) Adding a mixture of sugar and wine
213) What is the correct order for the production of a bottle-fermented sparkling wine?
a) Second-fermentation, yeast autolysis, disgorgement, dosage
b) Dosage, second-fermentation, yeast autolysis, disgorgement
c) Second-fermentation, disgorgement, dosage, yeast autolysis
d) Yeast autolysis, disgorgement, second-fermentation, dosage
214) What is added to a base wine to inaugurate a second-fermentation in a bottle-fermented sparkling wine?
1) Alcohol
2) Sugar
3) Wine
4) Yeast
a) 3 only
b) 2&4
c) 1, 2, & 4
d) All of the above
215) Biscuity, bready flavours in a bottle-fermented sparkling wine are described as:
a) Frizzante
b) Autolytic
c) Dosage
d) Remuage
216) “Riddling” refers to which part of the traditional method of making sparkling wine?
a) Adding sugar and yeast to start a second-fermentation
b) Aging sparkling wines on their lees
c) Turning the bottles to collect yeast cells at the neck
d) Removing dead yeast cells and topping up with a sugar and wine mixture
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218) Which term refers to an automated system for riddling?
a) Dosage
b) Gyropalette
c) Liqueuer d’expédition
d) Méthode traditionelle
219) Base wines for sparkling wine are usually a blend from different:
a) Grape varieties
b) Villages
c) Vineyards
d) All of the above
223) Due to the very cool climate, most base wines in Champagne are:
a) Low alcohol and high acidity
b) Low acidity and high alcohol
c) Low alcohol and low acidity
d) High alcohol and high acidity
224) What is the minimum legal period for aging Champagne on its lees?
a) 6 months
b) 12 months
c) 24 months
d) 36 months
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225) A Vintage Champagne is a blend of grapes harvested in different years.
a) True
b) False
226) A sparkling wine labelled as Demi-sec is dryer than one labelled as Brut.
a) True
b) False
228) Which pair of French grapes are occasionally used in the production of Cava?
a) Chardonnay and Pinot Noir
b) Chenin Blanc and Sémillon
c) Gewurztraminer and Viognier
d) Cabernet Sauvignon and Merlot
229) Which grape variety is often used with Champagne varieties in South Africa?
a) Chenin Blanc
b) Pinot Gris
c) Sauvignon Blanc
d) Semillon
230) Which grape variety is popular in tank-fermented sparkling wines in such regions as California and Australia?
a) Chardonnay
b) Chenin Blanc
c) Muscat
d) Pinot Noir
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Chapter 25 – Sherry & Port
231) Identify the factors that Sherry and Port share in common.
1) They are both fortified
2) They are both from Spain
3) They are both always sweet
4) They are both always red
a) 1 only
b) 1&3
c) 1, 2, & 4
d) All of the above
232) What is the name of the Spanish region that produces Sherry?
a) Catalunya
b) Douro Valley
c) Jerez de la Frontera
d) Rioja
233) Which of the following best describes the sweetness level of Sherry?
a) Dry
b) Medium
c) Sweet
d) All of the above
234) The local white grape responsible for Sherry production is:
a) Albariño
b) Flor
c) Palomino
d) Tempranillo
235) What is the name of the aging technique responsible for producing Sherry?
a) Gran Reserva
b) Malolactic Conversion
c) Solera System
d) Traditional Method
236) Which style of sherry is does not show oxidative characters of walnuts and caramel?
a) Amontillado
b) Cream
c) Fino
d) Oloroso
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237) What role does flor play in Sherry?
a) It is a type of white, chalky soil unique to the region
b) It is a type of grape that is neutral in flavour
c) It is an aging process that allows for blending from many different vintages
d) It is a type of yeast that forms a protective layer on the wine
239) Which style of Sherry is refortified to 17% partway through the aging process?
a) Amontillado
b) Fino
c) Pale Cream
d) Pedro Ximénez
240) Which style of Sherry is both the name of a grape and a sweet, sun-dried wine?
a) Amontillado
b) Oloroso
c) Palomino
d) Pedro Ximénez
243) Which style of Port will have oxidative characters of walnut and caramel?
a) Reserve Ruby
b) Vintage
c) LBV
d) Tawny
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244) Which style of Port is from a single year?
a) 20-Year Tawny
b) LBV
c) Ruby
d) Reserve Ruby
250) Port is sweetend with the addition of sweet wines made by sun-drying.
a) True
b) False
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FINE VINTAGE LEVEL 2 PRACTICE EXAM ANSWERS
1) Which of the following conditions allows for the best impression of a wine?
b) A room that allows natural light
2) Which of the following is the most common colour for red wines?
b) Ruby
3) Which of the following is the most common colour for white wines?
a) Lemon
4) Which of the following colours best describes a red wine with some age?
b) Garnet
5) If the pigmentation of a wine reaches from the core to the rim, it should be described as:
c) Deep
7) A fortified wine such as Fino Sherry with 15% alcohol is described as having:
a) Low alcohol
8) Which structural component is the main factor that contributes to body in a wine?
d) Alcohol
10) A wine should meet how many positive criteria to qualify as acceptable?
a) One
11) Which of the following is true about Sweetness in food when pairing with wine?
d) All of the above
12) Which of the following is true about Umami in food when pairing with wine?
a) It makes a wine seem more bitter
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13) Salt can enhance the flavour in wine.
a) True
15) Which statement is true about flavour intensity in food and wine pairing?
c) The food and wine should have equal flavour intensities
18) A person’s sensitivities do not play an important role in matching food and wine.
b) False
19) Food has a greater impact on wine than wine has on food.
a) True
20) Acidity in wine makes the palate seem cloying and unrefreshing when paired with fatty/oily foods.
b) False
24) Which style of wine could be served at the warmest temperature range?
a) Still red wine
25) Which of the following red wines should be served at the coolest temperature range?
b) Champagne
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26) An ice-bucket will efficiently chill a wine if:
c) The bucket is filled with both parts ice and cold water
28) When decanting an aged red wine, why should it be held near a light source?
c) It helps with seeing when sediments collect in the neck
29) Aromas of damp cardboard and muted fruit flavours is indicative of:
a) A wine that has been in contact with a cork contaminated with TCA
31) Which of the following pairs are found in the pulp of a grape?
d) Sugar and acid
33) Which environmental factor generates energy in the vine to produce sugars to grow and ripen grapes?
c) Sunlight
34) Which is the correct order for grape formation and ripening?
a) Flowering, Fruit Set, Véraison, Ripening
36) An example of a grape that performs better in a warm climate but not in a cool climate is:
b) Grenache
38) A wine region with an average growing season temperature of 17°C / 63°F is considered to have a:
c) Moderate Climate
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39) In climates further from the equator, vineyards can maximise sunlight exposure by:
c) Planting grapes on slopes facing rivers
40) Which environmental factor best creates sunny summers and dry autumns that can extend the growing
season?
c) Mountains
41) Most of the world’s vineyards are found between which degrees of latitude?
c) 30 to 50
42) Which weather-related issue can result in wines that are too high in acidity?
a) Cooler than usual vintages
43) Which of the following is a challenge in the spring that can reduce the crop for the year?
b) Frost
Chapter 5 – Winemaking
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52) Which combination of factors would most likely increase the cost of a wine?
a) Steep vineyard, new French oak barrels, natural cork
54) Which process uses a plunger to extract colour and tannin for red winemaking?
d) Punching down
56) Short maceration followed by fermentation temperatures of 12°C – 22°C (54°F - 72°F) best describes:
b) Rosé winemaking
58) Which of the following would result in the least cost when adding oak flavours to a wine?
a) Oak staves
60) After which step of the winemaking process is the wine unlikely to improve?
d) Packaging
62) If a climate or vintage is too warm, the flavours of Pinot Noir will:
b) Show unattractive flavours of cooked fruit
63) Which labelling term would be the highest-quality from the best vineyards in Burgundy?
b) Grand Cru
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65) Good examples of Pinot Noir in California are generally not found in:
d) Napa
66) A cool region of Australia that produces quality Pinot Noir is:
d) Yarra Valley
67) Which region of New Zealand is not famous for its Pinot Noir?
b) Hawke’s Bay
69) Which region is well known for producing high quality Pinot Noir in South Africa?
d) Walker Bay
70) Blending Pinot Noir with other grapes is common practice in:
c) Champagne
Chapter 7 – Zinfandel/Primitivo
75) Which Italian region is the source of wines made from Primitivo?
b) Puglia
Chapter 8 – Riesling
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77) Naturally high acidity in Riesling means:
a) It is suitable for late-harvesting when conditions are right
78) Which of the following terms describes a sterile grape juice that can be added to sweeten some Rieslings?
c) Süssreserve
79) What is the determining factor for each of the German Prädikatswein levels?
c) Sugar levels
80) In order of least ripe to most ripe, which of the following is correct?
a) Kabinett, Spätlese, Auslese, Beerenauslese
82) Which region typically has lighter-bodied Rieslings that have medium-sweetness?
a) Mosel
83) Which term refers to a Riesling that is made from selected dried berries?
d) Trockenbeerenauslese
85) The Vosges Mountains allow Riesling to ripen slowly and gradually in which French region?
a) Alsace
86) Chenin Blanc, Sémillon, and Furmint are often used to produce high-quality:
c) Sweet wines made from noble rot
92) Which region is not known for its botrytis-affected sweet wines?
a) Hunter Valley
Chapter 10 - Chardonnay
98) Which winemaking practice contributes flavours of butter and cream to a Chardonnay?
a) Malolactic conversion
99) Winemakers can use oak chips to give Chardonnay oak flavours.
a) True
101) Which of the following regions would Chardonnay most likely be unoaked?
a) Chablis AOC
105) Which of the following is not an Australian region known for its Chardonnay?
c) Walker Bay
107) Which of the following is not an AOC for Sauvignon Blanc in the Loire Valley?
b) Pouilly-Fuissé AOC
110) The classic home for Sauvignon Blanc in New Zealand is found in:
b) Marlborough
112) Which pair of regions are known for Sauvignon Blanc in Australia?
a) Adelaide Hills and Margaret River
113) Most of California is not suited to growing fresh, herbaceous Sauvignon Blanc because:
c) The climate is too warm
114) What pair of regions in South Africa are famous for Sauvignon Blanc?
b) Constantia and Elgin
120) Pinot Grigio/Pinot Gris is often fermented and matured in a portion of new oak.
b) False
121) Which pair of regions are known for producing Pinot Grigio in Italy?
b) Friuli and Veneto
122) Typical aromas and flavours for Pinot Gris in Alsace are:
b) Peach, mango, and honey
123) Pinot Gris can come from a Premier Cru vineyard in Alsace.
b) False
124) Identify the grape varieties that can be classified as vendanges tardives in Alsace.
c) 1, 2, & 3 (Gewurztraminer, Pinot Gris, & Riesling)
129) Dry, full-body, pronounced aromas of peach, apricot, and blossom best describe:
d) Viognier
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130) The Albariño grape is known for producing which of the following:
c) Unoaked dry white wines with citrus and stone fruit character
Chapter 14 – Merlot
132) Riper Merlot from a warmer climate will show primary flavours of:
b) Blackberry and black plum
134) Merlot typically needs more time to mature in oak and age in bottle than Cabernet Sauvignon.
b) False
135) Which river divides Bordeaux into a Left and Right Bank?
a) Gironde
138) Premium California Merlot typically shows light, subtle flavours of vanilla and coconut.
b) False
139) Which Chilean region typically produces medium-bodied Merlots from high yields?
b) Central Valley
140) In which Australian region does Merlot play an important role in blends with Cabernet Sauvignon?
c) Margaret River
146) Which region has established itself as a source of distinctively minty Cabernet Sauvignon in Australia?
a) Coonawarra
147) Which of the following statements about Napa Valley Cabernet Sauvignon is false:
d) It is difficult to ripen in the California climate
148) Which Chilean region is not a major source of Cabernet Sauvignon and Merlot?
a) Casablanca
150) Which term in Bordeaux indicates a high ranking for the best wines of the region?
c) Cru Classé
Chapter 16 – Syrah/Shiraz
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156) Why are Syrah grapes hand-harvested in the Rhône Valley?
d) Vineyards are planted on steep slopes
157) Which Australian region has a cloudy climate that results in medium-bodied Shiraz?
c) Hunter Valley
Chapter 17 – Gamay
160) Which region is famous for producing wines made from Gamay?
a) Beaujolais
161) Which of these is a cru that produces wines made from Gamay?
b) Fleurie
Chapter 18 – Grenache/Garnacha
164) Which pair of grape varieties are commonly blended with Grenache?
d) Syrah and Tempranillo
166) Which region would see red wines made mostly from Grenache?
a) Côtes du Rhône
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168) The most powerful expression of Garnacha in Spain is from:
c) Priorat DOCa
169) Which of the following pairs of regions is home to many old vine Grenache?
a) Barossa Valley and McLaren Vale
Chapter 19 – Tempranillo
172) Which region is the most famous for Tempranillo-based wines in Spain?
d) Rioja DOCa
173) In Spain, the term Crianza indicates a wine that will show the most prounced tertiary aromas.
b) False
174) In which region is Tempranillo very full-bodied and have dark fruit character?
b) Ribera del Duero DO
175) Which is the correct order for aging minimums in Spain from shortest to longest?
c) Joven, Crianza, Reserva, Gran Reserva
177) Which variety native to southwest France is the most important black grape variety in Argentina?
c) Malbec
179) Deeply coloured, high tannins, full body, and flavours of blackberry and eucalyptus best describes a:
a) Carmenère
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180) Pinotage is sometimes blended with Cabernet Sauvignon and Merlot to create:
b) Cape Blends
186) An important DOC in the Marche region is ___________ dei Castello di Jesi.
d) Verdicchio
187) Soave wines are always white and can be either dry or sweet.
a) True
188) Which Italian white variety typically has the fuller body and lower acidity?
c) Fiano
191) High acidity, high tannins, with red-fruit, dried herbs, and floral aromas best describes a:
c) Nebbiolo
192) A wine from Barbera d’Asti DOCG makes similarly powerful wines as a Barolo DOCG.
b) False
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193) Which is the main grape of a Valpolicella blend?
b) Corvina
194) Which pair of wines are made using the appassimento method?
b) Recioto della Valpolicella DOCG & Amarone della Valpolicella DOCG
197) Wines made from Barbera are typically more enjoyable at a younger stage than Nebbiolo.
a) True
203) Which of the following best describes a wine made from Sangiovese?
Acidity Tannins Aromas
d) High High Red Cherry, Dried Herbs
207) Generally speaking, how much will the alcohol of a base wine increase during second fermentation?
a) 1 – 2%
208) Stopping fermentation by filtering out the yeast results in a sparkling wine that is:
a) Sweet with low alcohol
211) Sweet, fruity, and light-bodied best describes which sparkling wine?
a) Asti
213) What is the correct order for the production of a bottle-fermented sparkling wine?
a) Second-fermentation, yeast autolysis, disgorgement, dosage
214) What is added to a base wine to inaugurate a second-fermentation in a bottle-fermented sparkling wine?
b) 2 & 4 (Sugar & Yeast)
215) Biscuity, bready flavours in a bottle-fermented sparkling wine are described as:
b) Autolytic
216) “Riddling” refers to which part of the traditional method of making sparkling wine?
c) Turning the bottles to collect yeast cells at the neck
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219) Base wines for sparkling wine are usually a blend from different:
d) All of the above
223) Due to the very cool climate, most base wines in Champagne are:
a) Low alcohol and high acidity
224) What is the minimum legal period for aging Champagne on its lees?
b) 12 months
226) A sparkling wine labelled as Demi-sec is dryer than one labelled as Brut.
b) False
228) Which pair of French grapes are occasionally used in the production of Cava?
a) Chardonnay and Pinot Noir
229) Which grape variety is often used with Champagne varieties in South Africa?
a) Chenin Blanc
230) Which grape variety is popular in tank-fermented sparkling wines in such regions as California and Australia?
c) Muscat
231) Identify the factors that Sherry and Port share in common.
a) 1 only (they are both fortified)
232) What is the name of the Spanish region that produces Sherry?
c) Jerez de la Frontera
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233) Which of the following best describes the sweetness level of Sherry?
d) All of the above
234) The local white grape responsible for Sherry production is:
c) Palomino
235) What is the name of the aging technique responsible for producing Sherry?
c) Solera System
236) Which style of sherry is does not show oxidative characters of walnuts and caramel?
c) Fino
239) Which style of Sherry is refortified to 17% partway through the aging process?
a) Amontillado
240) Which style of Sherry is both the name of a grape and a sweet, sun-dried wine?
d) Pedro Ximénez
243) Which style of Port will have oxidative characters of walnut and caramel?
d) Tawny
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247) Port is a sweet fortified wine from:
d) The Upper Douro in Portugal
250) Port is sweetend with the addition of sweet wines made by sun-drying.
b) False
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