Mark Group NEET : 2020-21 Date : 05/07/2021

720 PCB PCB Test : 09 Time : 3 Hours

Physics - 45 Chemistry - 45 Biology - 90

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Question Paper

• Test Syllabus •
Physics : Rotational Motion + Electromagnetic Induction
Chemistry : Aldehyde Ketones And Carboxylic Acid + Amines
Biology : Respiration In Plants + Ecosystem + Living World
 Section ‘A’ : Physics
1. A wheel of mass 10 kg and radius of gyration 7. A solid sphere of mass M and radius R spins

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50 cm is rotating at 300 rpm. The rotational about an axis passing through its centre making
kinetic energy of the wheel is 600 r.p.m. What is its kinetic energy of rotation ?
1) 625 J 2) 1000 J 2
1) M 2R 2 2) 80  2 MR 2
3) 1250 J 4) 1500 J 5
2. Four similar point masses m 2 2
3) 80 R 4)  MR
are symmetrically placed 5
R
on the circumference of a 8. A body rolls down a smooth inclined plane. If
R O m
disc of mass M and radius m R its rotational kinetic energy is 40% of its
R. The moment of inertia R translational K.E., then the body must be a
of this system about an axis 1) cylinder 2) ring
passing through O and m 3) solid sphere 4) solid disc
perpendicular to the plane of the disc is 9. Two loops P and Q are made from a uniform
wire. The radii of P and Q are R 1 and R 2
MR 2 respectively and their moments of inertia are
2
1) MR + 4 mR 2
2)  4 mR 2
2 I R
IP and IQ respectively If P  8 then 1 is
IQ R2
MR 2
3) MR2 + mR2 4)  8 mR 2 1) 5 2) 4
3
3) 3 4) 2
3. A flywheel rotating about a fixed axis has a 10. A torque of magnitude 500 Nm acts on a body
kinetic energy of 225 J when its angular speed of mass 16 kg and produces an angular
is 30 rad/s. What is the moment of inertia of acceleration of 20 rad/s2. The radius of gyration
the flywheel about its axis of rotation? of the body is
1) 0.5 kg m2 2) 0.6 kg m2 1) 5 / 4 m 2) 4 / 5 m
3) 0.8 kg m2 4) 0.3 kg m2 3) 2 / 3 m 4) 3 / 2 m
11. A constant torque 31.4 Nm is applied to a
4. A circular disc of mass 2 kg and radius 0.1 m is
pivoted wheel. If the angular acceleration of
rotating at an angular speed of 2 rad/s, about
the wheel is 2 rad/s 2 , then its moment of
an axis passing through its centre and
inertia is
perpendicular to its plane. What is its
1) 5 kg m2 2) 2.5 kg m2
rotational kinetic energy ?
3) 10 kg m2 4) 1.25 kg m2
1) 0.1 J 2) 0.2 J 12. A uniform rod AB of
3) 0.02 J 4) 0.05 J length L and weight
5. The K.E. of a body is 3 joule and its moment of Mg is hinged at one
inertia is 6 kg m2. Then its angular momentum end A. The rod is kept
will be in the horizontal
position by a massless
1) 3 kg m2/s 2) 4 kg m2/s
string. If the string is cut, then the angular
3) 5 kg m2/s 4) 6 kg m2/s acceleration of the rod will be
6. A ring and a thin hollow cylinder have equal
ML2
masses and radii. If IR and IC denote their M.I. [ M.I. of the rod about A is ]
about their axes, then 3
3g 2g
I 1) 2)
1) IR = IC 2) I R  IC 2L L
2
2g g
3) IR = 2IC 4) I R  2 I C 3) 4)
3L L
PCB TEST : 09 2 Date : 05/07/2021
13. A rope is wound round a hollow cylinder of 18. A body of mass 2 kg is rotating on a circular
mass M and radius R. If the rope is pulled with path of radius 0.5 m, with an angular velocity
a force F newton, then the angular acceleration of 20 rad/s. If the radius of the path is doubled,

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of the cylinder will be then the new angular velocity will be
1) 5 rad/sec. 2) 2.5 rad/sec.
MR
1) MRF 2) 3) 10 rad/sec. 4) 8 rad/sec.
F
19. A solid cylinder has mass 'M', radius 'R' and
R F length ‘l'. Its moment of inertia about an axis
3) 4) passing through its centre and perpendicular
MF MR to its own axis is
14. Two rings have their M.I. in the ratio 2 : 1. If
2 MR 2 Ml 2 MR 2 Ml 2
their diameters are in the ratio of 2 : 1, then 1)  2) 
the ratio of their masses will be 3 12 3 12
1) 2 : 1 2) 1 : 1 3 MR 2 Ml 2 MR 2 Ml 2
3)  4) 
3) 1 : 2 4) 1 : 4 4 12 4 12
15. The M.I. of a thin uniform rod about the axis 20. A gramophone record of mass M and radius R
passing through its centre and perpendicular is rotating with angular speed . If two pieces
of wax, each of mass m are kept on it at a
Ml 2 distance of R/2 from the centre on opposite
to its lengths is . The rod is cut
12 sides, then the new angular velocity will be
transversely into two halves, which are then
 m
riveted end to end. The M.I. of the composite 1) 2)
rod about the axis passing through its centre 2 Mm
and perpendicular to its length will be M Mm
3) 4)
Ml 2 Ml 2 Mm M
1) 2) 21. A circular disc rotates about an axis passing
3 6
through its centre with a certain angular
Ml 2 Ml 2 velocity. Suddenly a small piece of the disc is
3) 4)
48 24 broken from the edge and falls down. Then
16. The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular 1) Its M.I will increase and angular velocity will
disc and a circular ring of the same radii and decrease
same mass about a tangential axis 2) Its M.I will decrease and the angular velocity
perpendicular to plane of disc or ring is will increase
3) Both the M.I. and the angular velocity will
3 increase
1) 2) 2 : 3
2 4) Both the M.I and the angular velocity will
decrease
3) 1 : 2 4) 5: 6
22. A solid sphere of mass 1 kg and radius 10 cm
17. ABC is a triangular plate of uniform thickness. rolls without slipping on a horizontal surface,
Its sides are in the ratio shown with a velocity of 20 cm/s. The total kinetic
in the figure. IAB – IBC and ICA energy of the sphere is
are the moments of inertia of 1) 0.014 J 2) 0.028 J
the plate about AB, BC and C 3) 14 J 4) 28 J
A as axes respectively. Which 23. A straight conductor of length 0.4 m is moving
one of the following relations with a velocity of 7 m/s, in a magnetic field of
is correct? induction 2 Wb/m2. The value of the maximum
1) IAB + IBC = ICA 2) ICA is maximum induced e.m.f. in the conductor is
3) IAB > IBC 4) IBC > IAC 1) 2 V 2) 3 V
3) 5.6 V 4) 2.8 V
PCB TEST : 09 3 Date : 05/07/2021
24. A coil having an area of 2m 2 is placed in a 31. The self inductance of a coil which produces 5
magnetic field which changes from 2 Wb/m2 to V when the current changes from 3 A to 2 A in
5 Wb/m2 in 3s. The e.m.f. induced in the coil one millisecond is

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will be 1) 5 milli henry 2) 50 milli henry
1) 4 V 2) 3 V 3) 5 henry 4) 10 henry
3) 2 V 4) 1 V 32. The coefficient of mutual inductance of two
25. The two rails of a railway track separated by coils is 10 mH. If the current flowing in one
1 metre and insulated from each other, are coil is 4 A then the induced e.m.f. in the second
connected to a millivoltmeter. What is the coil will be
reading of the millivoltmeter when a train 1) 40 mV 2) 20 mV
passes at a speed of 180 km/hour along the 3) zero 4) 10 mV
track? [The vertical component of earth's
33. The current in a coil decreases from 5 A to 0 in
magnetic field is 0.2 × 10–4 Wb/m2.]
0.1 sec. If the average e.m.f. induced in the coil
1) 1 volt 2) 100 mV
is 50V, then the self inductance of the coil is
3) 1 mV 4) 10 mV
1) 0.25 H 2) 0.5 H
26. A metal rod of length 1m, rotates about its one
end in a plane at right angles to a horizontal 3) 1 H 4) 2 H
34. Two coils P and S are kept very close to each
7
magnetic field of induction × 10–4 T . If its other. When the current in P changes by 10 A,
22 the magnetic flux is S changes by 1.5 weber.
frequency of rotation is 10 Hz, then the
The mutual inductance of the coils is
magnitude of induced e.m.f. is
1) 5 mV 2) 1 mV 1) 1.5 H 2) 2.5 H
3) 0.5 V 4) 1 V 3) 0.15 H 4) 0.8 H
27. A coil of effective area 2m2 is placed at right 35. What is the minimum value of inductance that
angles to a uniform magnetic field of induction can be obtained by combining three
B. When the field reduces to ten percent of its inductances of 1 H, 2 H and 3 H?
original value in 0.6 sec, an e.m.f. of 0.24 V is 1) 4 / 11 H 2) 5 / 11 H
induced in it. The magnitude of magnetic 3) 6 / 11 H 4) 8 / 11 H
induction (B) is 36. The self inductance of a coil having 100 turns
1) 0.02 Wb/m2 2) 0.04 Wb/m2 is 10 mH. What is the magnetic flux linked with
3) 0.08 Wb/m2 4) 0.1 Wb/m2 each turn of the coil, if a current of 4 mA is
28. The flux in a closed circuit of resistance 20  passed through the coil ?
varies with time according to the equation  = 1) 4 × 10–7 weber
6t2 –5t + 1. What is the induced current at time 2) 2 × 10–7 weber
t = 0.25 second? 3) 1 × 10–7 weber
1) 0.5 A 2) 0.4 A 4) 8 × 10–7 weber
3) 0.1 A 4) 0.2 A
37. If a current of 3 A flowing in the primary coil
29. At what rate a single conductor should cut the is reduced to zero in 0.01 s, the e.m.f. induced
magnetic flux so that a current of 1.5 mA flows
in the secondary coil is 750 V. What is the
through it when a resistance of 5  is
mutual inductance between the two coils ?
connected across its ends?
1) 7.5 × 10–3 Wb/s 2) 6 × 10–3 Wb/s 1) 1.5 H 2) 2 H
–3
3) 8 × 10 Wb/s 4) 4 × 10–4 Wb/s 3) 2.5 H 4) 3 H
30. An aeroplane, in which the distance between the 38. A long solenoid has 500 turns. When a current
tips of the wings is 50 m, is flying horizontally of 2 A is passed through it, the resulting
with a speed of 360 km/hour, over a place where magnetic flux linked with each turn of the
the vertical component of earth's magnetic field solenoid is 4 × 10 3 Wb. What is the self-
is 2.0 × 10–4 tesla. The potential difference between inductance of the solenoid?
the tips of the wings would be
1) 2 H 2) 1.5 H
1) 0.1 V 2) 0.5 V
3) 0.2 V 4) 1.0 V 3) 1H 4) 0.5 H

PCB TEST : 09 4 Date : 05/07/2021

39. In a car spark coil, an e.m.f. of 4000 V is induced 43. An ideal coil of 10 H is joined in series with a
in the secondary when the primary current resistance of 5 , and a battery of 5 V. What is
changes from 4 A to 0 A in 10 s. What is the the current flowing (in ampere) in the circuit,

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mutual inductance between the primary and 2 seconds after switching on the circuit?
secondary windings of the spark coil?
1) 0.1 H 2) 0.2 H
1  1
1) 2)  1  
e  e
3) 0.01 H 4) 0.5 H
40. The coefficient of mutual inductance of two 3) (1 – e) 4) e
coils is 6 mH. If the current flowing in one coil 44. A coil has an inductance of 2.5 Hand a
is 2 ampere, then the induced e.m.f. in the resistance of 0.5 . The coil is connected across
second coil will be a 6.0 volt battery. What is the time required
1) 2 mV 2) 3 V for the current to rise to 63% of its maximum
value ?
3) Zero 4) 3 mV
1) 4.5 sec 2) 5.0 sec
41. The pointer of a dead-beat galvanometer gives
a steady deflection because 3) 4.0 sec 4) 3.5 sec
1) Its pointer is very light 45. A coil of self inductance 50 henry is joined to
2) Its frame is made of ebonite the terminals of a battery of e.m.f. 2 volt
3) Eddy currents are produced in the conducting through a resistance of 10 ohm and a steady
frame over which the coil is wound current is flowing through the circuit. The
4) Its magnet is very strong battery is now disconnected. In what time the
current will decay to 1/e of its steady value ?
42. In a solenoid, if number of turns is doubled,
then self-inductance will become 1) 0.5 second 2) 10 second
1) double 2) 1/4 times 3) 50 second 4) 5 second
3) 4 times 4) half

PCB TEST : 09 5 Date : 05/07/2021

 Section ‘B’ : Chemistry

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48. In a set of reactions m-bromobenzoic acid gave a
CH3 product D. Identify the product D.
(i) KMnO KOH/ 
4
 I COOH
46. 
(ii)H 3O

NH 3 NaOH
SOCl2
  B   C  D
CH2CH2CH3 Br Br 2

A
(i) KMnO KOH/ 
4  II
(ii)H O 3 CONH2 SO2NH2
1) 2)

C(CH3)3
Br Br
( i) KMnO 4  KOH/ 

(ii)H 3 O 
 III
COOH NH2
3) 4)
Identify the products formed in the given reaction.
I II III NH2 Br
CH2OH CH2CH2CH2OH HO–C(CH3)2 49. Select the reagent for the given conversion.
CH3(CH2)8CH2OH  CH3(CH2)8COOH
1) 1) KMnO4 in acidic, neutral, alkaline media
2) K2Cr2O7 in acidic media
3) CrO3 in acidic media
COOH COOH
4) All of the above
2) No reaction will occur 50. Dry
R – Mg – X + CO2  H 3O +
 X  RCOOH
Ether

X is
COOH CH2CH2COOH HOOC–C(CH3)2 O
+
1) RH 2) R – C
3) OH

O R O
3) R – C 4) C
CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH MgX OMgX

4) O
Zn/H 2O B
51. + O3   A   OH
OH
47. In the given reaction, (C6H5CO)2O 
H 2O
I O
C6H5COOCOCH3  H 2O
 II A and B are respectively
Identify the products I and II formed in the given O
reaction. ||
1) CH3CH2CH2–CH2–CH2– C –H and P.C.C.
I II
1) 2 molecules of benzoic 2 molecules of O O
acid ethanoic acid || ||
2) H  C  (CH 2 )3  C  H and P.D.C.
2) 2 molecules of benzoic 1 molecule of benzoic
acid acid and 1 molecule of O O
ethanoic acid || ||
3) H  C  (CH 2 )4  C  H and Collins reagent
3) 1 molecule of ethanoic 1 molecule of benzoic
acid acid
O O
4) 1 molecule of benzoic 1 molecule of butanoic || ||
acid acid 4) H  C  (CH 2 )5  C  H and KMnO4

PCB TEST-09 6 Date : 05/07/2021

 +
57. Select the structure of chromium complex formed
HBr KCN H 3O
52. C6H5CH2OH   X   Y  Z when the toluene reacts with chromylchloride to

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given benzaldehyde on hydrolysis?
X, Y and Z are respectively
1) C6H5CH2Br, C6H5CH2NC, C6H5CH2NH2 CH(OCrCl2)2 CH2(OCrOHCl 2)
2) C6H5CH2Br, C6H5CH2CN, C6H5CH2COOH 1) 2)
3) C2H5CH2Br, C2H5CH2CN, C2H5CH2COOH
CH(OCrOHCl2) 2 CH(OCrOH2Cl)2
4) C6H5CH2Br, C6H5COOH, C6H5CH2NH2
3) 4)
JonesReagent
53. CH3CH2CH2CH2OH  Product
58. Which of the following substrates gives the same
Product is product on the reduction with DIBAL-H ?
1) CH3CH2CHO 1) CH3–(CH2)9–CN and CH3(CH2)9–COOH
2) CH3CH2CH2CN 2) CH3–(CH2)9–CN and CH3(CH2)9–COOC2H5
3) CH3CH2CH2CHO 3) CH3–(CH2)9–COOH and CH3(CH2)9–CHO
4) CH3CH2CH2COOH 4) CH3(CH2)9–COOH and CH3(CH2)9COOC2H5
O 59. The reaction,

– H 3O
54. C – CH3 + I2 + OH  A +B C RCN+SnCl2+HCl RCH=NH  RCHO
(yellow)
H2O
is known as
Identify B and C
1) Etard reaction 2) Haloform reaction
O 3) Gattermann-Koch reaction
–
1) CHI3 and C–O 4) Stephen-reaction
60. Which of the following reactions is/are correct
O O regarding the preparation of ketone?
2) C – O– and C – OH 1) Primary alcohol is convert into aldehyde by P.C.C.
2) When benzene or substituted benzene is treated
O with acid chloride in the presence of anhydrous
3) CHI3 + C – O– aluminium chloride, it gives the correspondings
ketone. This reaction is known as Friedel-Craft’s
O O acylation reaction
4) C – OH and C–O
–
3) Treatment a nitrile with Grignard reagent followed
by hydrolysis yields a ketone
O 4) All of the above
|| * 61. Study the mechanism given below carefully.
55. R – C –OH + NaH C O3  RCOONa + C O2 + H2O
A B x y

x and y carbon are respectively

1) A and B 2) B and A
3) A and A 4) B and B
56. The carbonyl C-atom is ....I.... hybridised and forms Select the correct statement(s) for the above diagram
....II.... -bonds. Fourth valence electron of carbon from the option given below.
remains in its p-orbital and forms a....III.... bond with 1) A nucleophile attacks the electrophilic carbon of
oxygen by overlap with p-orbital of an oxygen. the non-polar carbonyl group from direction
Identify I, II, III from the given options in order to parallel to the plane of sp2-hybridised orbital of
complete the statement. carbonyl carbon
I II III I II III 2) The hybridisation of carbon changes from sp to sp2
1) sp³ 2  2) sp³ 3  in this process
3) sp² 2  4) sp² 3  3) The net result is the addition of Nu– and H+ across
the carbon oxygen double bond
4) Both (1) and (3)

PCB TEST-09 7 Date : 05/07/2021

62. Choose the correct alternative from the following. 66. Some N substituted derivatives of aldehydes and
1) Ketones are more reactive than aldehydes towards

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ketones ( C = N – Z ) are
NAR (Nucleophillic addition reaction)
2) Aldehyde are more reactive than kentones towards Z Reagent name Carbonyl Product
NAR derivative Name
3) Formaldehyde is the least reactive carbonyl –H Ammonia I Imine
compound towards NSR
–R Amine C = NR II
4) Steric hindrance does not play a role to effect the
respectively of carbonyl compounds towards NAR III Hydroxylamine C=N–OH Oxime
63. Arrange the following carbonyl compounds in
increasing order of their reactivity in nucleophilic –NH2 IV C=N–NH2 Hydrazone
addition reaction. Identify I, II, III and IV in the given table.
1) Butanone < propanone < propanal < ethanal I II III IV
2) Butanone < propanal < propanone < ethanal 1) –C  N Schiff’s base –OH Hydrazine
3) Butanone < ethanal < propanone < propanal
2) C = NH Substituted –H Hydrazine
4) Butanone < ethanal < propanal < propanone
imine
R'OH OR' R'OH
64. R–CHO R – CH 3) –C  N Substituted –OH Hydrazine
HCl gas OH H+
imine
I
4) C =NH Schiff’s base –OH Hydrazine
OR'
R – CH + H2O 67. An organic compound X having molecular formula
OR
C5H10O yields phenyl hydrazone and gives negative
II
response to the iodoform test and Tollen’s test. It
Identify the abbreviation used for I and II for the produces n-pentane on reduction, X could be
given reaction 1) pentanal
I II 2) 2-pentanone
1) Acetal or gem-dialkoxy Hemiacetal or 3) 3-pentanone
alkoxyalcohol 4) n-amyl alcohol
2) Acetal or alkoxy alcohol Hemiacetal or gem- 68. Identify the product formed in the given reaction,
dialkoxy
H CH3
3) Hemiacetal or alkoxy Acetal or gem- CH3 + NaOCl
H3C
alcohol dialkoxy
O
4) Hemiacetal or gem- Acetal or alkoxy
dialkoxy alcohol H CH3
+ NaCl
OH
OH 1) H3C
65. C = O + H2N – Z C O
NHZ
H CH3 + CHCl3
C = N – Z + H2O CH – HC
2)
H3C COONa
Which of the following statements is/are true about
the above reaction? H CH3
3) + CHCl3
1) H2N – Z tends to add to the carbon of carbonyl H3 C COONa
group of aldehydes and ketones
H CH3
2) The reaction is reversible and catalysed by acid CH – HC + NaCl
4)
3) The equilibrium favours the products formation H3C COOH
due to rapid dehydration of the intermediate
4) All of the above

PCB TEST-09 8 Date : 05/07/2021

 Ba(OH)2 
72. Choose the correct option regarding the comparison
69. 2CH3COCH3 X 
 H2 O
Y of reactivity of benzaldehyde and propanal.

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1) Less reactive in electrophilic addition reaction than
Identify X and Y in the given reaction,
propanal
X Y
2) More reactive in nucleophilic addition reactions
CH 3 than propanal
CH3
| | 3) Less reactive in nucleophilic addition reactions
1) H3 C  C  CH  COCH3 H3 C  C  CH2 COCH3 than propanal
|
OH 4) Equally reactive in nucleophilic addition reactions
than propanal.
CH3 73. Which types of reaction(s) is/are involved in the
| Cannizzaro reaction?
2) H3C  C  CH2  COCH3 H 3C  C  CH  COCH 3 1) Reduction 2) Oxidation
| |
OH CH 3) Both (1) and (2) 4) None of these
3

74. CH3CHO + CH3CH2CHO NaOH

CH 3 CH3
| | In this reaction simple aldol product and cross
3) H3C  CH  CH  COCH 3 H3C  C  CH  COCH3 product are respectively
|
OH 1) 2, 2 2) 4, 4
3) 2, 3 4) 3, 2
OH 3 O O
| 
4) H 3C  C  CH2  COCH3 H2 C  C  CH2  COCH3 75. C–H +
OH
C – CH3  
293K
| |
CH 3 CH 3
O
70. Which of the following statements is/are correct
about the aldol reaction? 1) CH = CH – C
1) Aldehyde and ketones having at least one
-hydrogen OH O
2) The reaction is carried out in the presence of
2) C – CH2 – C
concentrated alkali
3) The product formed is -hydroxy aldehydes (aldol) H
or -hydroxy ketone (ketol)
O
4) All of the above
71. Predict the product in the given reaction, 3) C – OH
CHO
O
50%KOH
4) C – OCH3
Cl
–
CH2OH CH2COO CHO
1) + HNO 3 /H2 SO 4
76. 
273 283K
 ?
OH Cl

CH2 OH OH CHO
CHO
2) +
NO2
OH 1) 2)
OH
NO2
– +
CH2OH COO K
CHO
3) + CH 2NO2
Cl Cl

CH2OH COO
– 3) 4)
4) + NO2

OH OH

PCB TEST-09 9 Date : 05/07/2021

 82. Arrange the following, in increasing order of
77. Which of the following factor(s) affect the basic
solubility in water, C6H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, C2H5NH2

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
strength of amines ?
1) Solvation effect 2) Inductive effect
1) C2H5NH2 < (C2H5)2NH < C6H5NH2
3) Steric hindrance 4) All of the above
2) C2H5NH2 < C6H5NH2 < (C2H5)2NH
78. Arrange the following structure of quaternary salt in
the decreasing order of stability by solvation. 3) C6H5NH2 < C2H5NH2 < (C2H5)2NH
4) C6H5NH2 < (C2H5)2NH < C2H5NH2
83. In the reaction A is
OH2 OH2
NO 2
H H
|+ |+
I. R – N – H ---- OH2 II. R – N – H ---- OH2
| | Br
H R

OH2
1) HgSO4/H2SO4 2) Cu2Cl2
R 3) H3PO2 and H2O 4) H+/H2O
|+ 84. Give the structures of A, B and C in the following
III. R – N – H ---- OH 2
| reaction,
R NH NaOBr NaNO /HCl
CH3COOH 

 A  3
 B  C 2

1) I > II > III 2) I > III > II

3) II > III > I 4) II > I > III A B C
79. Name the product(s) formed during the reaction of 1) Acetamide, Methylamine. Ethanol
primary aliphatic amines with nitrous acid at room 2) Methyl amine, Acetamide, Ethanol
temperature ?
3) Acetamide, Methylamine, Methanol
1) RN2+Cl– 2) ROH
4) Acetamide, Methylamine, Diazoniumchloride
3) Both (1) and (2) 4) None of the above
80. Which of the following statement is incorrect? 85. Why are amines less acidic than alcohols of
1) The diazonium salts have the general formula comparable molecular masses?
  1) Because O—H bond is less polar than N—H bond
R N2 X
2) Because N—H bond is more polar than O—H bond
2) The N2+ group is called as diazonium group
3) Because N—H bond is less polar than O—H bond
3) C6H5N2+ HSO4– is known as benzene diazonium
sulphate 4) Both N—II and O—H bonds have equal polarity
4) All statements are correct 86. In order to prepare 1° amine from an alkyl halide with
81. In the reaction, simultaneous addition of one CH 2 group in the
carbon chain, the reagent used as source of nitrogen
is
1) sodium amide, NaNH2
2) sodium azide, NaN3
3) potassium cyanide, KCN
4) potassium phthalimide C6H4(CO)2N–K+
The product E is
87. The source of nitrogen in Gabriel synthesis of amines
is
1) 2) 1) sodium azide, NaN3
2) sodium nitrite, NaNO2
3) potassium cyanide, KCN
4) potassium phthalimide C6H4(CO)2N–K+

3) 4)

PCB TEST-09 10 Date : 05/07/2021

88. Which of the following compounds is the weakest 90. Benzylamine may be alkylated as shown in the
Bronsted base ? following equation?

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C6H5CH2NH2 + R—X  C6H5CH2NHR
Which of the following alkyl halides is best suited
for this reaction through SN1 mechanism?
1) 2) 1) CH3Br
2) C6H5Br
3) C6H5CH2Br
4) C2H5Br

3) 4)

89. Amongst the following, the strongest base in aqueous

medium is
1) CH3NH2
2) NCCH2NH2
3) (CH3)2NH
4) C6H5NHCH3

PCB TEST-09 11 Date : 05/07/2021

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
Section ‘C’ : Biology

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
91. Growth involves : 98. Living organisms
1) Increase in mass but not in number 1) May not reproduce
2) Like planaria show true regeneration
2) Increase in number but not in mass
3) Are similar to non-living things with respect
3) Increase in mass and increase in number to the property of showing growth
4) Neither increases in mass nor increase in 4) More than one correct option
number 99. Isolated metabolic reactions in-vitro are
92. The ability to respond to external 1) Living things
environmental stimuli is 2) Non-living things
1) Growth 2) Reproduction 3) Living reactions
4) Always faulty reactions
3) Metabolism 4) Consciousness
100. Match the columns
93. Incorrect about growth
Column–I Column–II
1) Growth and reproduction are mutually A. Yeast (i) Asexual spore and
exclusive events in higher plants and animals fragmentation
2) In living organisms growth occur from inside B. Amoeba (ii) Binary fission
3) Non-living substances may also show growth C. Fungi (iii) Budding
but from outside D. Planaria (iv) True regeneration
4) None 1) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (iv)
2) A = (ii), B = (iii), C = (iv), D = (i)
94. In which organism reproduction can be
3) A = (i), B = (iv), C = (iii), D = (ii)
considered as synonymous with growth?
4) A = (iii), B = (ii), C = (i), D = (iv)
1) Amoeba 2) Planaria
101. Which of the following organisms do not
3) Star fish 4) Two of the above reproduce?
95. Who known as ‘The darwin of the 20th 1) Infertile human beings
century’? 2) Worker bees
1) de Candolle 2) Ernst Mayr 3) Mules
4) More than one correct option
3) Linnaeus 4) Aristotle
102. Which of the following groups of organisms
96. Reproduction is synonymous with growth in progagate by fragementation?
1) Bacteria 1) Filamentous algae, protonema of mosses and
fungi
2) Unicellular algae
2) Fungi, Paramoecium, Chlamydomonas
3) Amoeba
3) Yeast, filamentous algae and Spirogyra
4) More than one correct option 4) Bacteria, Yeasts, Mycoplasma
97. Non-living things 103. Select a set which does not possess defining
1) Show extrinsic growth properties of living organisms?
1) Consciousness, metabolism
2) Show extrinsic as well as intrinsic growth
2) Cellular organisation, metabolims
3) Can perform metabolism
3) Reproduction, growth
4) Show intrinsic growth 4) Cellular organisatiom, consciousness

PCB TEST : (09) 12 Date :05/07/2021

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
104. Which of the following statement is correct? 110. A true regeneration was observed in

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
1) In Prokaryotes, consciousness cannot be the 1) Hydra 2) Planaria
defining property of living organisms. 3) Sponges 4) Amoeba
2) In seasonal breeders, photoperiod affect 111. Which of the following set of organisms
reproduction. Thus, they show property of reproduces by fragmentation (asexual mode
consciousness. of reproduction)?
3) Human beings and some other mammals 1) Amoeba, fungi and earthworm
have self-consciousness.
2) Fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of
4) All organisms can handle chemicals entering mosses
their bodies except plants.
3) Hydra, fungi, Amoeba and bacteria
105. Following are the steps for the processes that
4) Earthworm, bacteria and fungi
are basic to taxonomy. Arrange the steps and
112. Reproduction is synonymous with growth in
opt for appropriate answer.
which of the following set of organisms?
i. Classification ii. Identification
1) Bacteria, unicellular algae and Amoeba
iii. Characterisation iv. Nomenclature
2) Bacteria, Amoeba and fungi
1) iii  i  iv  ii 2) ii  i  iii  iv
3) Unicellular algae and fungi
3) ii  iii  i  iv 4) ii  iii  iv  i
4) Unicellular algae and filamentous algae
106. Which of the listed feature is not a unique
113. Metabolism can be best defined as
feature of living organisms?
1) The process in which a chemical is formed
1) Increase in size.
insider the body
2) Response to stimuli
2) The process in which a chemical is destroyed
3) Self-organisation
insider the body
4) Growth and reproduction
3) The sum total of all chemical reactions
107. Among the following, which is a common occurring in the body
phenomenon exhibited by living and non-
4) A complex construction process only
living organisms to show the feature of
114. The number of species that are known ranges
growth?
between
1) Increase in mass
1) 1.7-1.8 million 2) 1 million
2) Cell division
3) 50 million 4) 2 million
3) Increase in replication rate
115. The binomial nomenclature system was given
4) Cell differentiation
by
108. In majority of higher animals and plants,
1) Carol Linnaeus 2) Carolus Linnaeus
reproduction and growth are
3) Aristotle 4) Whittaker
1) Mutually exclusive events
116. ICBN stands for
2) Synonymous events
1) Indian Congress of Biological Name
3) Synonymous events during in vitro culture
2) International Code for Botanical Nomenclature
4) None of the above
109. What kind of growth is exhibited by non- 3) International Congress of Biological Name
living organisms? 4) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
1) Accumulation of material on surface 117. According to binomial nomenclature,
2) Accumulation of material inside scientific name of an organism consists of
3) Growth from inside 1) generic name 2) specific epithet
4) None of the above 3) More than 1 correct 4) none of these

PCB TEST : (09) 13 Date :05/07/2021

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
118. Scientific names are printed in _____ and are 127. Glucose is incompletely oxidised into pyruvic

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
derived from _____. acid with several intermediate steps is known
1) bold and English 2) italics and Latin as
3) italics and German 4) italics and French 1) Kreb's cycle 2) C3 cycle
119. Which one is the incorrectly written scientific 3) Glycolysis 4) ETC
name?
128. In glycolysis what happens
1) Panthera tigris 2) Mangifera indica
1) Glucose is converted into sucrose
3) Panthera leo 4) Columba LIVEA
2) Glucose is converted into CO2 and H2O
120. A species is a group of organisms which
1) can interbreed freely 3) Glucose is converted into pyruvic acid
2) do not interbreeed 4) Glucose is converted into ethyl alcohol
3) can live together 129. Glycolysis of 5 molecules of glucose will give
4) can interbreed occassionally 1) 10 pyruvic acid and 5 NADH2
121. Incomplete oxidation of glucose into pyruvic 2) 10 pyruvic acid and 10 NADH2
acid with several intermediate steps is known 3) 5 pyruvic acid and 10 NADH2
as 4) 5 pyruvic acid and 5 NADH2
1) HMS - pathway 2) TCA pathway 130. The reaction which brings about formation
3) Glycolysis 4) Kreb's cycle of 3PGA in the glycolysis involves
122. Oxidative step of glycolysis is 1) Dephosphorylation
1) 1,3 diPGA  3 PGA 2) Cleavage
2) 3 PGAL  1, 3 diPGA 3) Oxidative phosphorylation
3) PGA  PEP 4) Oxidative decarboxylation
4) Fructose 1,6 diphosphate  PGAL + DHAP 131. In which of the following step, can ATP be
123. Enzymes taking part in glycolysis are present produced?
in 1) Glucose to glucose phosphate
1) Vacuole 2) Mitochondria 2) Phosphoenol pyruvic acid to pyruvic acid
3) Cytoplasm 4) Vacuole & Cytoplasm 3) Cisaconitic acid to isocitric acid
124. Number of oxygen molecules required for 4) Fumaric acid to malic acid
glycolytic breakdown of one glucose molecule 132. The process of glycolysis was discovered by
is 1) Embden 2) Meyerhof
1) Three 2) Zero 3) Parnas 4) More than 1 correct
3) Thirty eight 4) Six 133. How many CO 2 molecules are produced
125. Site of EMP pathway within the cells is during glycolysis ?
1) Endoplasmic reticulum 1) 6 2) 2
2) Mitochondria 3) 3 4) 0
3) Cytoplasm 134. 3 PGAL is oxidised during glycolysis. What
happens to the hydrogen atom and electron
4) Ribosomes that are removed during oxidation ?
126. The number of molecules of pyruvic acid 1) They are removed completely
formed from one molecule of glucose at the end
2) They oxidise NAD+
of glycolysis is
3) They reduce NAD+
1) 1 2) 2
4) They are transferred to pyruvic acid
3) 3 4) 4

PCB TEST : (09) 14 Date :05/07/2021

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
135. Phosphorylation of glucose with the help of 141. During glycolysis, the conversion of one mole

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
ATP and hexokinase produces of 3 PGAl to C3H4O3 yield 2 moles of ATP. But
1) Fructose 1, 6 diphosphate the oxidaiotn of glucose to C3H4O3 produces a
2) Glucose 1, 6 diphosphate total of 4 moles of ATP. Where do the
3) Glucose 6, phosphate remaining 2 moles of ATP come from ?
4) Glucose -1-phosphate 1) One mole of glucose gives 2 moles of 3 PGAl
136. Which of the following is a dephosphorylation ?
2) Glycolysis produces 2 NADH
1) Glucose  glucose - 5 - phosphate
3) Fermentation of C 3 H4 O 3 produces 2 ATP
2) Glucose 6-phosphate  Fructose-6-phosphate
more
3) Glucose-6 - phosphate  Glucose -1 phosphate
4) 2ATP are used in the conversion of glucose to
4) Fr uc to sel -6 -d ip ho s ph at e  Fr uc to se -6
3 PGAl
phosphate
137. The energy yield as a result of total oxidation 142. Krebs' cycle starts with the formation of six
of one glucose molecule during cellular carbon compound by a reaction between :
respiration is to convert 1) Malic acid and acetyl coenzyme
1) 38 molecules of ADP into 38 molecules of ATP
2) Oxaloacetic acid and acetyl coenzyme
2) 38 molecules of ADP into 30 molecules of
ATP 3) Succinic acid and pyruvic acid
3) 36 molecules of ADP into 36 molecules of 4) Fumaric acid and pyruvic acid
ATP
143. Which of the following is correct sequence in
4) 32 molecules of ADP into 32 molecules of
Krebs' cycle ?
ATP
138. The scheme of glycolysis was given by 1) Isocitric acid  Oxalosuccinic acid  -
ketoglutaric acid
1) Gustav Embden
2) Otto Meyerhof 2) Oxalosuccinic acid  Isocitric acid  -
3) J. Parnas ketoglutaric acid
4) More than 1 correct 3) -keto glutaric acid  Iso citric acid 
139. Where NADH + H+ informed from NAD+ : Oxalosuccinic acid
1) When fructose 6-phosphate converted to 4) Isocitric acid  -keto glutaric acid 
fructose 1,6-diphosphate Oxalosuccinic acid
2) When 3-phosphoglycerate (PGA) is converted
144. In ETS, electron combines to
to 1,3-biphsophoglycerate (BPGA)
3) When 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL) is 1) Cytochrome 2) H2
converted to 1,3-biphosphoglycerate (BPGA). 3) O 2 4) H2 O
4) When 1,3-phosphoglycerate (PGA) is
145. Last acid formed in Kreb’ cycle is
converted to 3-phosphoglycerate (PGA)
140. In which of the following steps of Glycolysis 1) Fumaric acid 2) Malic acid
is water molecule is released ? 3) Succinic acid 4) Oxaloacetic acid
1) Fructose-6- phosphate  Fructose 1,6-
146. How many molecules of ATP are produced per
diphosphate
molecule of FADH2 oxidised?
2) 2-Phosphoenol pyruvate  Pyruvic acid
1) One 2) Two
3) Glucose  Glucose 1,6-diphosphate
4) 2-Phosphoglycerate  Phosphoenol pyruvate 3) Three 4) Four

PCB TEST : (09) 15 Date :05/07/2021

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
147. TCA or Krebs' cycle completed in following

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150. Choose the correct combination of labelling with
steps the number of carbon compounds in the
(i) Condensation of acetyl group with substrate molecules involved in citric acid cycle.
oxaloacetic acid (OAA) and water to yield
citric acid.
(ii) Citrate is then isomerised to isocitrate.
(iii) Formation ofa-ketoglutaric acid
(iv) Formation of succinyl-CoA.
(v) Succinyl-CoA is oxidised to OAA.
In which step decarboxylation occurs :
1) (iii) and (iv) 2) (iv) and (v)
3) (ii) and (iii) 4) Only (iv)
148. Read the following statements and choose
wrong statement: 1) (a) - 4C; (b) - 6C; (c) - 5C; (d) - 4C; (e) - 4C
(i) During the conversion of succinyl-CoA to
2) (a) - 6C; (b) -5C; (c) - 4C; (d) - 3C; (e) - 2C
succinic acid a molecule of GTP is
synthesised. 3) (a) - 2C; (b) - 3C; (c) - 4C; (d) - 5C; (e) - 6C
(ii) There are three points in the Krebs cycle 4) (a) - 4C; (b) - 5C; (c) - 6C; (d) - 4C; (e) - 4C
where NAD+ is reduced to NADH + H+.
151. Match the following columns :
(iii) One point in the Krebs cycle where FAD+
is reduced to FADH2 . Column I Column II
(iv) In aerobic respiration glucose has been 1. Light, temperature and
A. Inorganic substances
broken down to release CO 2 and eight . humidity
molecules of NADH + H+ ; two of FADH2 B. Organic compounds 2. Soil, pH and minerals
have been synthesised besides just two 3. Proteins, carbohydrates,
molecules of ATP. C. Climatic factors
. lipis and nucleic acid
(v) GTP synthesis is a substrate level 4. Carbon, nitrogen, oxygen
phosphorylation. D. Edaphic factors
. & water
(vi) In a Krebs' cycle during formation of -
Codes
ketoglutaric acid one NAD+ is reduced to
NADH + H+ A B C D
1) (i) and (ii) 2) (i) and (iv) 1) 3 1 2 4
3) (ii) and (vi) 4) Only (iv) and (vi) 2) 4 3 1 2
149. How many carbon atoms are in S, T and U ? 3) 1 2 3 4
4) 4 2 1 3
152. Vertical distribution of different species
occupying different levels in a biotic community
is known as
1) Divergence 2) Stratification
3) zonation 4) Pyramid
153. Which one of the following is not a functional
S T P unit of an ecosystem?
1) 3 6 4
2) 4 6 3 1) Energy flow 2) Decomposition
3) 6 3 4 3) Productivity 4) Stratification
4) 6 3 3

PCB TEST : (09) 16 Date :05/07/2021

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
154. Rate of conversion of light energy into 160. Energy enters in any ecosystem through

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chemical energy of organic molecules in an 1) Herbivores 2) Carnivores
ecosystem is
3) Producers 4) Decomposers
1) Gross primary productivity
2) Net primary productivity 161. ..... starts with green plants called producers
3) Net secondary productivity as the first trophic level. The most appropriate
4) Gross secondary productivity choice for filling blank space is
155. Identify the incorrect statement 1) detritus food chain 2) grazing food chain
1) Net primary productivity is the available 3) complex food chain 4) normal food chain
biomass for the consumption to autotrophs
162. Which food chain correctly describes the flow
2) Primary productivity depends on the
of energy in an ecosystem?
inhabitating plant species, environmental
factors, nutrient availability and 1) Grass  goat  human
photosynthetic capacity of plants 2) Caterpillar  leaf  human
3) Gross primary productivity minus respiration 3) Cow  grass  human
loss is the Net Primary Productivity (NPP)
4) Leaf  bird  caterpillar
4) The annual net primary productivity of the
whole biosphere is approx, 170 billion tonnes 163. The tiger biomass is 10 kg in grass-deer-tiger
of organic matter food chain. The grass biomass will be
156. Word detritus includes 1) 100 kg 2) 2000 kg
1) Dead plant parts 2) Remains of animals 3) 1000 kg 4) 10,000 kg
3) Animal excretions 4) All of these
164. The 10% law is related to
157. Breakdown of detritus into smaller particles
by earthworm is a process called 1) Mendelian genetics
1) Humification 2) Fragmentation 2) non-Mendelian genetics
3) Mineralisation 4) Catabolism
3) energy transfer from lower trophic level to
158. The enzymatic process by which degraded
higher trophic level
detritus is converted into simpler inorganic
substances is called 4) energy consumption during photosynthesis
1) Catabolism 2) Leaching in C4-plants
3) Mineralisation 4) Fragmentation 165. Suppose 2000 J of solar energy in incident on
159. Match the following columns : green vegetation. On the basis of 10% law of
Lindeman Identify A, B and C.
Column I Column II
A. Natural ecosystem 1. Producer
B. Decomposer 2. Consumer
C. Primary productivity 3. Forest
D. Secondary productivity 4. Bacteria

Codes
A B C D 1) A-20 J, B-2J, C-0.2 J
1) 1 2 3 4
2) A-200 J, B-20 J, C-2 J
2) 2 3 4 1
3) 3 4 1 2 3) A-400 J, B=40 J, C-4 J
4) 3 4 2 1 4) A-40 J, B-4 J, C-0.4 J

PCB TEST : (09) 17 Date :05/07/2021

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
166. Fill up the blanks 169. Given below is an imaginary pyramid of

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number. What could be one of the possibilities
I. Animals which feed directly on plants, are
about certain organisms at some of the differnt
called ...A.....
levels?
II. Consumers that feed on primary
consumers are called ....B....

III. In an ecosystem two laws of

theormodynamics govern the ....C....

Choose the correct option for A, B and C.

1) A-Hebivores, B-Carnivores, C-Flow of energy 1) Level PC is insects and level SC is small

insectivorous birds
2) A-Autotrophs, B-Heterotrophs, C-Trophic
level 2) Level PP is phytoplanktons in sea and whale
on top level TC
3) A-Photosynthesisers, B-Higher levels
3) Level one PP is peepal trees and the level SC
predators, C-Flow of energy
is sheep
4) A-Predators, B-Grazers, C-Tropic level 4) Level PC is rate and level SC is cats
167. Which one of the following statements for 170. Identify the possible link ‘A’ in the following
pyramid of energy is incorrect, whereas the food chain.
remaining three are correct? Plant  Insect  Frog  ‘A’
A’  Eagle
1) It is upright in shape 1) Rabbit 2) Wolf
2) Its base is broad 3) Cobra 4) Parrot
171. The sequential, gradual and predictable
3) It shows the energy of organisms at different
changes in the species composition in an area
trophic level
are called
4) It is sometimes inverted in shape 1) seral community
168. Give below is one of the types of ecological 2) climax community
pyramids 3) ecological succession
4) pioneer species
172. The final stable community in an ecological
succession is
1) pioneers 2) sere
3) climax 4) carnivore
173. Primary succession is the development of
This type represents communities on
1) pyramid of number in a grassland ecosystem 1) cleared forest area
2) pyramid of energy in forest ecosystem 2) previously unoccupied sites
3) pyramid of biomass in sea ecosystem 3) fresh harvested crop field

4) pyramid of biomass in terrestrial ecosystem 4) pond filled after a dry season

PCB TEST : (09) 18 Date :05/07/2021

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
174. The movement of nutrient elements through 179. Consider the following statements about

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various components (abiotic and biotic) of an pyramid of biomass
ecosystem is called I. When we plot the biomass (net dry weight)
1) carbon cycle of producers, herbivores, carnivores and so
2) geochemical cycle on we have a pyramid of biomass
3) biogechemical cycle II. Two types of pyramid of biomass are found,
i.e., upright and inverted
4) chemical cycle
III. When larger weight of producers support
175. Which one of the following is a sedimentary
a smaller of biomass weight of consumers
cycle?
and upright pyramid result.
1) Suphur cycle 2) Nitrogen cycle
IV. When smaller weight of producers support
3) Carbon cycle 4) Oxygen cycle
larger weight of consumers in inverted
176. ........ of the carbon is found dissolved in oceans pyramid of biomass is formed
which is responsible for its regulation in
Which of the statements given above are
tmosphere. Most appropriate word to fill the
correct
blank is
1) I, II and III 2) I, II and IV
1) 49% 2) 81%
3) II, III and IV 4) I, II, III and IV
3) 61% 4) 71%
180. Simplified model of phosphorus cycling in a
177. Which element is formed by the weathering
terrestrial ecosystem is given below. Idntify
of rocks and absorbed by plant form the soil?
A, B, C and D.
1) Phosphorus 2) Carbon
3) Nitrogen 4) Oxygen
178. Regarding detritus food cahin
I. It begins with dead organic mater and
decomposers called saprophytes as first
trophic level
II. A much large fraction of energy flows
through this type of food chain in 1) A-Weathering, B-Decomposition, C-
terrestrial ecosystem Conumer, D-Soil
III. Energy for detrius food chain comes from 2) A-Decomposition, B-Weathering, C-Producer,
sun D-Soil solution
Which of the statements given given above are 3) A-Weathering, B-Decomposition, C-
correct? Decomposer, D-Soil
1) I and II 2) I and III 4) A-Decomposition, B-Decomposer, C-
Weathering, D-Doil
3) II and III 4) I, II and III

PCB TEST : (09) 19 Date :05/07/2021