Q.

1 The compressive strength of M-25 concrete is

(A) 25 kg/sqm (B) 25 N/sqmm (C) 250 N/sqmm (D) 2.5 N/sqmm Answer (B)

Q.2 In Critical Path Method (CPM) for time scheduling, ‘forward pass calculation’ is carried out for

determining

(A) Late start and early finish time (B) Early start and early finish time

(C) Late start and late finish time (D) Early start and late finish time Answer (B)

Q.3 Collapse of the World Trade Center (WTC), New York, in 2001, was due to

(A) Wind load failure

(B) Foundation failure

(C) Thermal performance failure of reinforcement steel in RCC

(D) Thermal performance failure of structural steel Answer (D)

Q.4 During the construction of tall buildings, the equipment used for hoisting building materials to
the upper floors is a

(A) Goods lift (B) Capsule lift (C) Gantry crane (D) Tower crane Answer (D)

Q.5 A Rock-cut style of architecture is represented by

(A) Shyama Rama Temple, Bishnupur (B) Kailasa Temple, Ellora

(C) Kandariya Mahadeva Temple, Khajuraho (D) Sanchi Stupa, Sanchi Answer (B)

Q.6 Hip roof is formed by surfaces sloping in

(A) One direction (B) Two directions (C) Three direction (D) Four directions Answer (D)

Q.7 In case of residential apartments, the effective floor area available for use within an apartment,
is

known as

(A) Carpet Area (B) Built-up Area

(C) Plinth Area (D) Super Built-up Area Answer (A)

Q.8 Star Rating of an Air Conditioner is determined by its

(A) Power Consumption (B) Energy Efficiency Ratio

(C) Cooling Capacity (D) Power of Compressor Answer (B)

Q.9 V7 concept given by Le Corbusier refers to

(A) Neighbourhood Planning (B) Housing Typologies

(C) Architecture Design Principle (D) Hierarchy of Roads Answer (D)

Q.10 In AUTOCAD, a line of infinite length in the direction defined by starting point and through
point,

is known as

(A) RAY (B) LINE (C) PLINE (D) XLINE Answer (A)

Q.11 Orbit Tower built at the London Olympic Park has been designed by

(A) Foster & Partners (B) Anish Kapoor & Cecil Balmond

(C) Zaha Hadid & Antony Gormley (D) Richard Rogers & Renzo Piano Answer (B)

Q.12 As per National Building Code 2005, the minimum size of a habitable room in m2 is

(A) 9.5 (B) 10.5 (C) 11.5 (D) 12.5 Answer (A)

Q.13 The urban form of Srirangam town in Tamil Nadu refers to

(A) Dandaka (B) Swastika (C) Nandyavarta (D) Sarvotabhadra Answer (D)

Q.14 PMGSY, a programme of Government of India, deals with

(A) Urban Employment Generation (B) Rural Employment Generation

(C) Rural Electrification (D) Rural Road Development Answer (D)

Q.15 Beam or lowest division of the entablature which extends from column to column, is

known as

(A) Arabesque (B) Arcade (C) Architrave (D) Arbour Answer (C)

Q.16 The information that is NOT essential to be submitted for sanction of any building plan is
(A) Site Plan (B) Floor Plans (C) Title Deed (D) Land Cost Answer (D)

Q.17

Answer (A)

Q.18 Gantt Chart DOES NOT provide information about

(A) List of Jobs (B) Duration of Jobs

(C) Interdependency of Jobs (D) Progress of Work Answer (C)

Q.19 If threshold of hearing has a sound level of zero decibels and the sound level in a
broadcasting

studio is 100 times the threshold of hearing, its value in decibels would be

(A) 0 (B) 10 (C) 20 (D) 100 Answer (C)

Q.20 The width to height ratio of the front facade of Parthenon (without the pediment) is

(A) 9:4 (B) 4:9 (C) 1:1.618 (D) 1.618:1 Answer (A)

Q.21 The face of an Icosahedron is

(A) Equilateral Triangle (B) Isosceles Triangle

(C) Square (D) Pentagon Answer (A)

Q.22 The term ‘Zeitgist’, used in contemporary architecture, refers to

(A) Iconicity (B) Spirit of Times (C) Kinesthetics (D) Semantic Associations Answer (B)

Q.23 Alhambra, a UNESCO world heritage site, is classified as an example of

(A) Moorish Architecture (B) Mudejar Architecture

(C) Mozarabic Architecture (D) Tudor Architecture Answer (A)

Q.124 Wythenshawe and Becontree are examples of

(A) Factory Town (B) Satellite Town

(C) Garden City (D) Vertical Neighborhood Answer (B)

Q.25 National Ceremonial Plaza at Thimpu in Bhutan has been designed by

(A) Christopher Charles Benninger (B) Charles Correa

(C) Karan Grover (D) I. M. Pei Answer (A)

Q.26 Identify which is NOT a green building rating system

(A) LEED (B) CASBEE (C) ENERGY BUILD (D) BREEAM Answer (C)

Q.27 In 3DS Max, smooth 3D surfaces, by blending a series of selected shape curves, can be created
by

(A) Lofting (B) Sweeping (C) Filleting (D) Extruding Answer (A)

Q.28 Travel behavior characteristics of an urban area can be derived from

(A) Parking Survey (B) Demographic Survey

(C) Socio Economic Survey (D) Origin & Destination Survey Answer (D)

Q.29 In GIS, the set of entities representing vector data type is

(A) Point, Line, Polygon, TIN (B) Pixel, Voxel

(C) DEM, DSM, DTM (D) Coordinates, Elevation, Slope Answer (A)

Q.30 A common flowering shrub is

(A) Tectona grandis (B) Mimusops elengi (C) Dalbergia sisso (D) Ixora coccinea Answer (D)

Q.31 In case of residential apartments, the effective floor area available for use within an apartment,
is known as

(A) Carpet Area (B) Built-up Area (C) Plinth Area (D) Super Built-up Area Answer (A)

Q.32 Star Rating of an Air Conditioner is determined by its

(A) Power Consumption (B) Energy Efficiency Ratio

(C) Cooling Capacity (D) Power of Compressor Answer (B)

Q.33 V7 concept given by Le Corbusier refers to

(A) Neighbourhood Planning (B) Housing Typologies

(C) Architecture Design Principle (D) Hierarchy of Roads Answer (D)

Q.34 In AUTOCAD, a line of infinite length in the direction defined by starting point and through
point, is known as

(A) RAY (B) LINE (C) PLINE (D) XLINE Answer (A)

Q.35 Orbit Tower built at the London Olympic Park has been designed by

(A) Foster & Partners (B) Anish Kapoor & Cecil Balmond

(C) Zaha Hadid & Antony Gormley (D) Richard Rogers & Renzo Piano Answer (B)

Q.36 As per National Building Code 2005, the minimum size of a habitable room in m2 is

(A) 9.5 (B) 10.5 (C) 11.5 (D) 12.5 Answer (A)

Q.37 The urban form of Srirangam town in Tamil Nadu refers to

(A) Dandaka (B) Swastika (C) Nandyavarta (D) Sarvotabhadra Answer (D)

Q.38 PMGSY, a programme of Government of India, deals with

(A) Urban Employment Generation (B) Rural Employment Generation

(C) Rural Electrification (D) Rural Road Development Answer (D)

Q.39 Beam or lowest division of the entablature which extends from column to column, is known as

(A) Arabesque (B) Arcade (C) Architrave (D) Arbour Answer (C)

Q.40 The information that is NOT essential to be submitted for sanction of any building plan is

(A) Site Plan (B) Floor Plans (C) Title Deed (D) Land Cost Answer (D)

Q.41 The tendency of an ecosystem to maintain its balance by regulatory mechanisms when
disrupted, is known as

(A) Homeostasis (B) Entropy (C) Succession (D) Evolution Answer (A)

Q.42 Gantt Chart DOES NOT provide information about

(A) List of Jobs (B) Duration of Jobs (C) Interdependency of Jobs (D) Progress of Work Answer (C)

Q.43 If threshold of hearing has a sound level of zero decibels and the sound level in a broadcasting
studio is 100 times the threshold of hearing, its value in decibels would be

(A) 0 (B) 10 (C) 20 (D) 100 Answer (C)

Q.44 The width to height ratio of the front facade of Parthenon (without the pediment) is

(A) 9:4 (B) 4:9 (C) 1:1.618 (D) 1.618:1 Answer (A)

Q.45 The face of an Icosahedron is

(A) Equilateral Triangle (B) Isosceles Triangle (C) Square (D) Pentagon Answer (A)

Q.46 The term ‘Zeitgist’, used in contemporary architecture, refers to

(A) Iconicity (B) Spirit of Times (C) Kinesthetics (D) Semantic Associations Answer (B)

Q.47 Alhambra, a UNESCO world heritage site, is classified as an example of

(A) Moorish Architecture (B) Mudejar Architecture

(C) Mozarabic Architecture (D) Tudor Architecture Answer (A)

Q.48 Wythenshawe and Becontree are examples of

(A) Factory Town (B) Satellite Town (C) Garden City (D) Vertical Neighborhood Answer (B)

Q.49 National Ceremonial Plaza at Thimpu in Bhutan has been designed by

(A) Christopher Charles Benninger (B) Charles Correa (C) Karan Grover (D) I. M. Pei Answer (A)

Q.50 Physiochemical process of removing micro-organisms, colour and turbidity from sullage and
sewage is known as

(A) Putrefaction (B) Clarification

(C) Liquefaction (D) Infiltration Answer (Marks to all)

Q.51 If the area coverage of one sprinkler is 20 m2, with a maximum and minimum spacing of 4.6 m
and 1.8 m respectively, the minimum number of sprinklers required to be arranged in a regular
orthogonal grid to cover the area of a 15 m x 20 m room would be _______. Answer (3.4 to 3.6)

Q.52 If the slope of a hipped roof is 60 degrees and height of the roof is 3 m, span of the room, in m,
would be _______. Answer (0.5 to 0.6)

Q.53 Volume of coarse aggregate in m3 present in 1.0 m3 of 1 : 1.5 : 3 concrete mix made by volume
batching is _______. Answer (13 to 14)

Q.54 A tank of internal dimension 3 m x 5 m x 4 m (Length x Breadth x Height) has 200 mm thick
brick wall on all sides. Volume of brickwork in m3 would be _______. Answer (12 to 13)

Q.55 Flux emitted from a 1cd light source in all directions, in lumens, would be _______. Answer
(105 to 107)

Q.56 50 Hectare of residential sector has 65% buildable area. The FAR of the buildable area is 1.5.
Within the residential sector, 60% of dwelling units are of area 100 m2 each and 40% of the dwelling
units are of area 80 m2 each.

The gross residential density, in dwelling units per Hectare, would be _______. Answer (1)

Q.57 A student is required to demonstrate a high level of comprehension of the subject, especially in
the social sciences.

The word closest in meaning to comprehension is

(A) understanding (B) meaning (C) concentration (D) stability Answer (A)

Q.58 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.

One of his biggest ______ was his ability to forgive.

(A) vice (B) virtues (C) choices (D) strength Answer (B)

Q.59 Rajan was not happy that Sajan decided to do the project on his own. On observing his
unhappiness, Sajan explained to Rajan that he preferred to work independently.Which one of the
statements below is logically valid and can be inferred from the above sentences?

(A) Rajan has decided to work only in a group.

(B) Rajan and Sajan were formed into a group against their wishes.

(C) Sajan had decided to give in to Rajan’s request to work with him.

(D) Rajan had believed that Sajan and he would be working together. Answer (D)

Q.60 If y = 5x2 + 3, then the tangent at x = 0, y = 3

(A) passes through x = 0, y = 0 (B) has a slope of +1

(C) is parallel to the x-axis (D) has a slope of −1 Answer (C)

Q.61 A foundry has a fixed daily cost of Rs 50,000 whenever it operates and a variable cost of Rs
800Q, where Q is the daily production in tonnes. What is the cost of production in Rs per tonne for a
daily production of 100 tonnes? Answer (1300 TO 1300)

Q.62 Find the odd one in the following group: ALRVX, EPVZB, ITZDF, OYEIK

(A) ALRVX (B) EPVZB (C) ITZDF (D) OYEIK. Answer (D)

Q.63 The smallest angle of a triangle is equal to two thirds of the smallest angle of a quadrilateral.
The ratio between the angles of the quadrilateral is 3:4:5:6. The largest angle of the triangle is twice
its smallest angle. What is the sum, in degrees, of the second largest angle of the triangle and the
largest angle of the quadrilateral? Answer (180 TO 180)

Q.64 One percent of the people of country X are taller than 6 ft. Two percent of the people of
country Y are taller than 6 ft. There are thrice as many people in country X as in country Y. Taking
both countries together, what is the percentage of people taller than 6 ft?

(A) 3.0 (B) 2.5 (C) 1.5 (D) 1.25 Answer (D)

Q.65 Toothing is a construction technique used in

(A) Wood construction (B) Steel construction

(C) Reinforced cement concrete construction (D) Brick masonry Answer (D)

Q.66 ‘Skeleton and Skin’ concept in building design and construction evolved during the

(A) Roman period (B) Renaissance period

(C) Gothic period (D) Greek period Answer (C)

Q.67 As per the IRC standards, the minimum width (in m) of a two lane urban carriageway without a
raised kerb is

(A) 6.0 (B) 6.5 (C) 7.0 (D) 8.0 Answer (C)

Q.68 Pritzker Architecture Prize 2013 has been awarded to

(A) Mario Botta (B) Toyo Ito (C) Rem Koolhaas (D) Arata Isozaki Answer (B)

Q.69 Hip roof is formed by surfaces sloping in

(A) One direction (B) Two directions (C) Three directions (D) Four directions. Answer (D)

Q.70 Hiroshima Peace Memorial Museum in Japan has been designed by

(A) Kenzo Tange (B) Kisho Kurokawa (C) Tadao Ando (D) I M Pei. Answer (A)

Q.71 In AutoCAD, the maximum number of points which can be snapped in a circle using OSNAP
command is

(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 Answer (D)

Q.72 Development authorities in India are established under the provision of

(A) Municipal Act (B) 74th Constitutional Amendment Act

(C) Town and Country Planning Act (D) Land Acquisition Act. Answer (C)

Q.73 In escalators, the angle of inclination with the horizontal plane should be in the range of

(A) 10°-20° (B) 20°-30° (C) 30°-35° (D) 35°-45° Answer (C)

Q.74 As per the Census of India 2011, ‘ Metropolitan Urban Agglomeration’ is a contiguous spread of
several urban settlements where the minimum population size (in Lakh) is

(A) One (B) Five (C) Ten (D) Fifty Answer (C)

Q.75 BEES is an acronym for

(A) Building for Environmental and Economic Sustainability

(B) Built Environment and Ecological Society

(C) Building for Energy and Environment Sustainability

(D) Built Environment and Engineering Services Answer (A)

Q.76 In a single-stack system of plumbing

(A) All the appliances and traps are fully ventilated

(B) Only WC branches are connected with anti-siphonage pipes

(C) Anti-siphonage pipes are omitted

(D) Only the stack is vented above the branch connection at each floor level. Answer (C)

Q.77 The maximum bending moment (kNm) in a simply supported beam of 8 m span subjected to a
uniformly distributed load of 20 kN/m (inclusive of its self-weight) over the entire span is

(A) 40 (B) 160 (C) 240 (D) 380 Answer (B)

Q.78 Criteria for background noise (in NC) in hospitals and apartments is

(A) 10 - 20 (B) 20 - 30 (C) 30 - 40 (D) 40 – 50 Answer (B)

Q.79 As per the National Building Code, the minimum width (in m) of a staircase flight in an
educational building above 24 m height should be

(A) 1.0 (B) 1.5 (C) 2.0 (D) 2.5 Answer (C)

Q.80 Among the following, the one that is NOT a land assembly technique is

(A) Land Use Zoning (B) Accommodation Reservation

(C) Town Planning Scheme (D) Transfer of Development Right Answer (A)

Q.81 The Grand Gallery in Egyptian Architecture is provided only at

(A) Great Pyramid (B) Temple (C) Mastaba (D) Bent Pyramid. Answer (A)

Q.82 In the Taipei 101 building, the steel sphere as TMD (Tuned Mass Damper) is suspended to
reduce horizontal sway due to

(A) Settlement & Wind Load (B) Wind & Geothermal Load

(C) Seismic & Geothermal Load (D) Seismic & Wind Load. Answer (D)

Q.83 ‘Finger Plan’ concept of urban planning was initially adopted in

(A) Canberra (B) Paris

(C) Copenhagen (D) Tokyo. Answer (C)

Q.84 The most important property of concrete in its fresh state is

(A) Compressive strength (B) Tensile strength

(C) Elastic modulus (D) Workability. Answer (D)

Q.85 An element constructed at intervals along the length of a wall to stabilize it against overturning
is

(A) Barrel Vault (B) Pilaster (C) Squinch Arch (D) Buttress. Answer (D)

Q.86 Landscape design of Shakti Sthal, the ‘Samadhi’ of late Prime Minister Smt. Indira Gandhi, was
done by architect

(A) Ram Sharma (B) Mohammad Shaheer

(C) Ravindra Bhan (D) Raj Rewal. Answer (C)

Q.87 Horizontally Wedge-shaped Treads in stairways are termed as

(A) Stringers (B) Winders (C) Scotia (D) Newel. Answer (B)

Q.88 The sequence of development in a Site-and-Services scheme is

(A) Land – Service – House – Occupant (B) Occupant – Land – House – Service

(C) Occupant – Land – Service – House (D) Land – Occupant – House – Service. Answer (A)

Q.89 Which of the following is NOT a classical spatial theory of land use planning?

(A) Concentric Zone theory (B) Multiple Nuclei Theory

(C) Centripetal Theory (D) Sector Theory. Answer (C)

Q.90 A housing project is proposed to be designed in a plot of 2 hectare. Maximum permissible FAR
is 2. The share of the numbers of dwelling units (DU) for MIG, LIG and EWS is 1:2:3 having sizes of 55,
35 and 25 sq.m respectively. The maximum number of DU which can be accommodated in the plot is
_______________. Answer (1200 TO 1200)

Q.91 Arrange the following in ascending order of width

P. Collector Street

Q. Arterial Road

R. Local Street

S. Sub-Arterial Road

(A) P, Q, S, R (B) R, P, S, Q (C) Q, S, R, P (D) Q, S, P, R. Answer (B)

Q.92

Answer (D)

Q.93 Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of bond resistance in reinforced concrete?

(A) Chemical adhesion (B) Friction

(C) Mechanical interlock (D) Aggregate interlock. Answer (D)

Q.94 A neighborhood has 250 units of 80 sq.m each and 200 units of 100 sq.m each. If the
mandatory parking requirement is one per 100 sq.m of built space then, the total area(sq.m)
required for parking considering 30 percent additional area for circulation is ________________
. Answer (6240 TO 6760)

Q.95 A brick wall 19 cm thick has a thermal conductivity 0.811 W/m °C. The outside and inside
surface conductance of the wall are 16 W/m2 °C and 8 W/m2 °C respectively, then the U-value of
the wall in W/m2 °C is ____________ Answer (2.30 TO 2.45)

Q.96 A house located in Delhi has 111 m2 of flat terrace area (runoff coefficient = 0.85) and 55 m2 of
ground area covered with grass (runoff coefficient = 0.15). If annual average rainfall is 611.8 mm,
then rain water harvesting potential (L/year) from runoff will be ______________

Answer (62700 TO 62800)

Q.97 At a site, based on percolation test, the allowable rate of treated sewage application was
determined as 65 L/m2/day. The effective depth (m) of a soak pit with a diameter of 2.5 m for the
disposal of 1020 L/day of septic tank effluent is ______________. Answer (1.98 TO 2.02)

Q.98 The arithmetic average value of the sound absorption coefficient for a specific material and
particular mounting condition for four frequencies is

(A) Transmission coefficient (B) Noise reduction coefficient

(C) Absorption coefficient (D) Reflection coefficient. Answer (B)

Q.99 A single span simply supported reinforced concrete beam (250 mm wide and 480 mm effective
depth) is subjected to a concentrated load of 120 kN at its mid-span. Neglecting self-weight of the
beam, the nominal shear stress (MPa) at the support section is ______________. Answer (0.5)

Q.100 The optimistic time, the pessimistic time and the most likely time of a job are 6, 13 and 8 days
respectively. The variance for this job is _______________. Answer (1.34 TO 1.37)

Q.101 A refuse collection system consisting of two chutes is to be provided in a 20 storied residential
building with 2 flats/floor (average family size = 5) and with each chute serving one flat on each
floor. Average quantity of refuse and its density are 880 g/person/day and 240 kg/m3 respectively. If
the cleaning interval is two days, then the minimum size of the refuse container (litre) at the bottom
of each chute is _______________. Answer (730 TO 740)

Q.102 In a dance hall the indoor and outdoor temperatures are 28°C and 18°C respectively. There is
an internal heat gain of 5 kW and the specific heat of air (on volume basis) is 1300 J/m3 °C, then the
necessary cross sectional area (m2) of a duct with an air velocity of 2 m/s required for cooling by
ventilation is ____________. Answer (0.190 TO 0.195)

Q.103 Assuming full compaction, strength of concrete is inversely proportional to

(A) Water - cement ratio (B) Water - sand ratio

(C) Water - coarse aggregate ratio (D) Water - plasticiser ratio. Answer (A)

Q.104 If yield stress of steel is 415 MPa, then strain in tensile reinforcement at the limit state of
collapse shall be at least _____________. For steel, the Young’s Modulus, E = 2 X 105 MPa.

Answer (0.0037 TO 0.0039)

Q.105 A room of internal dimension 4m x 5m x 3.5m (LxBxH) has 20 cm thick walls and two doors of
size 1m x 2m. The required area of Damp Proof Course (sq.m) is _____________.Answer (3.3 TO 3.4)

Q.106 A load of 30 kN is applied vertically downward at the free end of a cantilever of span 5 m. If
the elastic modulus of the cantilever is 30 GPa and the section has a width of 0.3 m and a depth of
0.6 m, then, the elastic deflection (in mm) is ______________. Answer (7.65 TO
7.75)
Q.107 The capacity of a hall is 600 persons and its volume is 3000 cu.m. If an optimum reverberation
time of 1.0 second is to be achieved then the required total absorption (m2sabine) is
_____________. Answer (475 TO 485)

Q.108 A solid straight steel rod of diameter 100 mm is bent in single curvature into a circular arc by a
moment of 50 kNm applied at its ends. If elastic modulus, E, for steel is 2 x 105 MPa, the radius of
curvature (mm) of the arc assuming π=3.14 is _____________. Answer (19615 TO 19635)

Q.109 In a Colour Wheel, Red and Blue colours are

(A) Tertiary (B) Complementary (C) Secondary (D) Primary Answer (D)

Q.110 In a bird’s eye perspective view of a cuboid, the maximum number of vanishing points is

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 6 Answer (C)

Q.111 The compressive strength of M-25 concrete is

(A) 25 kg/sqm (B) 25 N/sqmm (C) 250 N/sqmm (D) 2.5 N/sqmm Answer (B)

Q.112 In Critical Path Method (CPM) for time scheduling, ‘forward pass calculation’ is carried out for
determining

(A) Late start and early finish time (B) Early start and early finish time

(C) Late start and late finish time (D) Early start and late finish time Answer (B)

Q.113 Collapse of the World Trade Center (WTC), New York, in 2001, was due to

(A) Wind load failure

(B) Foundation failure

(C) Thermal performance failure of reinforcement steel in RCC

(D) Thermal performance failure of structural steel Answer (D)

Q.114 During the construction of tall buildings, the equipment used for hoisting building materials to
the upper floors is a

(A) Goods lift (B) Capsule lift

(C) Gantry crane (D) Tower crane Answer (D)

Q.115 A Rock-cut style of architecture is represented by

(A) Shyama Rama Temple, Bishnupur

(B) Kailasa Temple, Ellora

(C) Kandariya Mahadeva Temple, Khajuraho

(D) Sanchi Stupa, Sanchi Answer (B)

Q.116 ‘Area based development’ and ‘Pan city development’ are part of

(A) Smart City Mission (B) Digital India Mission

(C) Swachh Bharat Mission (D) Atal Innovation Mission Answer (A)

Q.117 In mass transportation, LRTS stands for

(A) Light Rail Transit System

(B) Linear Rail Transit System

(C) Light Rail Transportation System

(D) Linear Rail Transportation System Answer (A)

Q.118 Assuming other variables remaining constant, the Tropical Summer Index

(A) Increases with increase in air velocity

(B) Decreases with increase in wet-bulb temperature

(C) Decreases with increase in globe temperature

(D) Increases with increase in vapour pressure Answer (D)

Q.119 Government of India’s urban development program ‘HRIDAY’ stands for

(A) Heritage Rejuvenation Implementation Development Aayog Yojana

(B) Heritage Review Implementation Development Augmentation Yojana

(C) Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana

(D) Heritage City Improvement and Development Aawas Yojana Answer (C)

Q.120 As per the Urban and Regional Development Plan Formulation and Implementation (URDPFI)
guidelines, the plan period considered in a ‘Perspective plan’ is

(A) 1-10 years (B) 11-15 years (C) 20-30 years (D) 35-45 years Answer (C)
Q.121 The Hall of Nations, New Delhi, was designed by

(A) Charles Correa (B) Raj Rewal

(C) Joseph Allen Stein (D) A. P. Kanvinde Answer (B)

Q.122

Answer (C)

Q.123 Sidi Bashir Mosque with ‘Shaking Minarets’ is located in

(A) Ajmer (B) Allahabad

(C) Ahmedabad (D) Amritsar Answer (C)

Q.124

Answer (A)

Q.125 In India, the term ‘Town Planning Scheme’ refers to

(A) Land renewal (B) Land rejuvenation

(C) Land reclamation (D) Land readjustment Answer (D)

Q.126 Bamboo is a type of

(A) Shrub (B) Timber

(C) Evergreen tree (D) Perennial grass Answer (D)

Q.127 According to the UN, one of the components for measuring ‘inclusive growth’ is

(A) Economic well-being (B) Physical infrastructure

(C) Education (D) Life expectancy Answer (A OR B OR C)

Q.128 The unit of measurement of Damp Proof Course (DPC) in building construction is

(A) kg (B) cum (C) sqm (D) rm Answer (C)

Q.129 Which of the following is NOT a Building Information Modeling software tool

(A) Adobe Illustrator (B) Bentley Microstation

(C) Autodesk Revit (D) Graphisoft ARCHICAD Answer (A)

Q.130 The concentric circles in a solar chart represent

(A) Azimuth angle (B) Altitude angle

(C) Horizontal shadow angle (D) Vertical shadow angle Answer (B)

Q.131 A room of 3m × 3m × 3m has a reverberation time of 0.8 sec. Using Sabine’s method, the total
absorption in the room is _____________ sabin (up to one decimal place). Answer (5.3 TO 5.7)

Q.132

Q.133 A Single Phase Neutral (SPN) electrical circuit has a power consumption of 330W. Considering
a voltage of 110V and power factor of 0.8, the electrical current drawn is ___________ Amp (up to
one decimal place). Answer (3.7 TO 3.8)

Q.134 A building with 100 sqm roof area is connected to a 72 cum rainwater collection tank. If the
rainfall is 60 mm per hour and the loss during water storage is 20%, then the time taken to fill the
tank completely is_______ hours. Answer (15.0 TO 15.0)

Q.135 In a mixed use development on a 2.0 hectare site with 2.0 FAR, the ratio of residential to
commercial floor area is 3:2. The minimum parking (in ECS) needed per 100 sqm of residential and
commercial floor area is 1.0 and 1.25 respectively. Considering full FAR utilization, the total parking
requirement is ____________ ECS. Answer (440 TO 440)

Q.136 A plotted housing scheme on a site of 12 hectare has 60% saleable area. The average unit cost
of land development is INR 300 million per hectare. If the profit margin is 20%, then the selling price
of land per hectare is __________ million INR. Answer (600 TO 600)

Q.137 A 5m × 5m × 3m room has four 230 mm thick external brick walls. Total wall fenestrationis 10
sqm. The temperature difference between indoor and outdoor is 2 degC. The air to air transmittance
values for 230 mm thick brick wall and 200 mm thick aerated concrete block wall are 2.4 and 1.7
W/sqm degC respectively. If the brick walls are replaced with theaerated concrete block walls, then
the change in conductive heat flow through the walls is _________W. Answer (69.5 TO70.5)

Q.138 For an activity, ‘optimistic time duration’ is 4 days, ‘pessimistic time duration’ is 11 days and
‘most-likely time duration’ is 8 days. The PERT value of time duration is______ days(up to one
decimal place). Answer (7.8 TO 7.9)
Q.139 The water consumption of a high rise apartment building with 60 dwelling units having an
average household size of 5 persons is 135 lpcd. Assuming 80% of the total use is met with recycled
water supply, the daily domestic demand for the building is _________ litres.

Answer (8100 TO 8100)

Q.140 In India, for 1.0 cum of M-20 grade concrete, the number of cement bags required is
________ (up to two decimal places). Answer (5 TO 9)

Q.141 The sound power level of an outdoor non-directional point source is 90 dB. Considering an
atmospheric impedance of 400 rayls, the sound pressure level at 10 m distance from the source is
_______ dB. Answer (58 TO 60)

Q.142 The live load and dead load in a three storeyed residential building, transferred through a
single column, is 12 tons and 18 tons respectively. If the soil bearing capacity is 10 ton/sqm and the
factor of safety is 1.5, the area of column footing is _____________ sqm (up to one decimal place).

Answer (4.0 TO 5.0)

Q.143 The indoor illumination requirement for a building is 350 Lux. If the daylight factor is 2.7 and
the design sky illuminance is 9000 Lux, then the required supplementary artificial lighting is
____________ Lux. Answer (107 TO 107)

Q.144 Two design options of a business building on a 10.0 hectare site are being compared for built
up area. Floor to floor height of Option A is 3.6 m and that of Option B is 4.5 m. If the maximum
allowable building height is 45 m with same ground coverage for both options, the additional built
up area achievable in Option A over Option B is______percent. Answer (20 TO 10)

Q.145 “When she fell down the _______, she received many _______ but little help.”

The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are

(A) stairs, stares (B) stairs, stairs

(C) stares, stairs (D) stares, stares Answer (A)

Q.146 “In spite of being warned repeatedly, he failed to correct his _________ behaviour.”

The word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is

(A) rational (B) reasonable (C) errant (D) good Answer (C)
Q.147 The area of an equilateral triangle is √3. What is the perimeter of the triangle?

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8 Answer (C)

Q.148 Arrange the following three-dimensional objects in the descending order of their volumes:

(i) A cuboid with dimensions 10 cm, 8 cm and 6 cm

(ii) A cube of side 8 cm

(iii) A cylinder with base radius 7 cm and height 7 cm

(iv) A sphere of radius 7 cm

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

(C) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)

(D) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i) Answer (D)

Q.149 An automobile travels from city A to city B and returns to city A by the same route. The speed
of the vehicle during the onward and return journeys were constant at 60 km/h and 90 km/h,
respectively. What is the average speed in km/h for the entire journey?

(A) 72 (B) 73 (C) 74 (D) 75 Answer (A)

Q.150 A set of 4 parallel lines intersect with another set of 5 parallel lines. How many parallelograms
are formed?

(A) 20 (B) 48 (C) 60 (D) 72 Answer (C)

Q.151 To pass a test, a candidate needs to answer at least 2 out of 3 questions correctly. A total of
6,30,000 candidates appeared for the test. Question A was correctly answered by 3,30,000
candidates. Question B was answered correctly by 2,50,000 candidates. Question C was answered
correctly by 2,60,000 candidates. Both questions A and B were answered correctly by 1,00,000
candidates. Both questions B and C were answered correctly by 90,000 candidates. Both questions A
and C were answered correctly by 80,000 candidates. If the number of students answering all
questions correctly is the same as the number answering none, how many candidates failed to clear
the test?

(A) 30,000 (B) 2,70,000 (C) 3,90,000 (D) 4,20,000 Answer (D)