ĐỀ ÔN THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT LẦN 1

Mã đề 01 NĂM 2021
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Facebook is a for-profit online social media and social networking service. The Facebook website was
launched on February 4th, 2004. Since 2006, anyone aged 13 and older has been allowed to become a
registered user of Facebook though variations exist in the minimum age requirement, depending on applicable
local laws.
Over 25 million people in the UK use Facebook. That's 45% of the population! And on average, each user
spends over six hours a month on Facebook. Though not the highest, this is a considerable number. Is
Facebook a dangerous obsession or just harmless fun? Seventeen-year-old Bethan has written on her blog
about what it was like to stop using Facebook.
“I think I am a Facebook addict. I log on to Facebook every day to chat with my friends - real friends and
loads of online friends. Sometimes I have ten conversations going at the same time, and I update my Facebook
profile all the time. But recently I've started to feel worried if I am offline for more than a few hours. And then
last week I forgot to meet a real friend because I was online! I've realized I could have a problem. So I've
decided to give it up for a while.”
“I found it really hard. Facebook and my friends demanded to know why I had left. I spent the first few
evenings wondering what everyone was chatting about on Facebook. I even phoned a couple of friends to find
out. The fourth night wasn't so bad. I actually concentrated on my homework better, and I spoke to my friends
during the day at school. At the end of the first week, I reactivated my accounts. I think Facebook is fun and
it's useful for posting messages to friends and sharing photos. But I'll try not to spend so much time on it in
the future.”
Question 1: The word "applicable" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. different B. opposite C. relevant D. unsuitable
Question 2: Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Facebook users in the UK?
A. 45% of the country's population used Facebook.
B. More than 25 million of Brits use Facebook.
C. The amount of time British users spent on Facebook is highest.
D. Averagely, 6 hours per month are spent by British users.
Question 3: The word "it" in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. worrying B. meeting her real friend
C. a problem D. Facebook
Question 4: When she decided to give up Facebook, __________.
A. she found it difficult to continue B. her friends didn't care much
C. she made progress after some days D. she couldn't focus on her homework
Question 5: What does Bethan conclude about Facebook?
A. Facebook is great as long as not too much time is spent on.
B. Facebook is not as good as TV.
C. Users should spend more time on Facebook.
D. The best use of Facebook is to share photos and messages.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 6: She put ___________ money little by little until she had enough to open her own shop.
A. down B. on C. aside D. out
Question 7: Many teachers have ___________ their personal life for a better quality of education in
mountainous areas.
A. dedicated B. given C. devoted D. sacrificed
Question 8: I first met her two years ago when we ________ at Oxford University.
A. were studying B. have been studying C. had been studying D. are studying
Question 9: _________, the more knowledge you get.
A. The less you study B. The more you study
C. The most you study D. The more and more you study
Question 10: The coronavirus, known as COVID-19, spreads from person to person in close proximity,
similar to other ________ illnesses.
A. respiratorily B. respiration C. respirator D. respiratory
Question 11: You've never been to Italy, _________?
A. have you B. had you C. haven't you D. been you
Question 12: We bought some __________.
A. German old lovely glasses B. old lovely German glasses
C. German lovely old glasses D. lovely old German glasses
Question 13: The poem was too long, so I had _________ learning it by heart.
A. problem B. nuisance C. issue D. difficulty
Question 14: _________, he will take the children for a walk to a nearby playground.
A. As soon as he has finished dinner B. While he was finishing dinner
C. Before he finished dinner D. After he had finished dinner
Question 15: My mother ________ as a nurse since she graduated from college.
A. had worked B. has worked C. worked D. works
Question 16: The Trade Union is in ________ of the welfare of the workers.
A. success B. charge C. time D. danger
Question 17: ___________ the work was physically demanding, and at times we felt really exhausted, seeing
the end result was very satisfying.
A. No matter B. As though C. Even though D. Owing to
Question 18: Many species of plants and animals are ________ the brink of extinction.
A. on B. at C. to D. in
Question 19: ___________ a terrible toothache, Felicia called the dentist for an appointment.
A. Having B. To have C. Have D. Having had
Question 20: Why don't you have the documents ___________ instead of rewriting them?
A. be photocopied B. photocopying C. photocopied D. photocopy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 21: In 1903, when the Wright brothers announced they had invented a flying machine, his news was
generally ignored.
A. his B. flying C. generally D. had invented
Question 22: A laser cane, which the blind find it useful, sends out beams that detect obstacles.
A. find it B. sends out C. detect D. A
Question 23: There is a distinctive difference in the perception of wearing face masks between the West and
the East.
A. between B. distinctive C. in D. wearing
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Social distancing is the public health practice of encouraging people to keep their physical distance from
each other during disease (24) ________ in order to slow the spread of infection. The purpose of social
distancing is to reduce the spread of influenza and to lessen the impact on society and especially on the medical
care system. (25) ________, it may enable some people to avoid infection until a vaccine is available. If you
are sick with the influenza pandemic, the best way to keep it from spreading is to stay home because of the
following reasons. During a pandemic, everyone is susceptible to pandemic influenza and you could then
transmit it to others more vulnerable than you. Small groups are better than big groups because they (26)
________ the risk of exposure. Contaminated surfaces can transmit the influenza virus for 24 hours. People
may not show signs and could be contagious. You can be contagious 24-48 hours before illness onset. People
are the most contagious when they are ill. Social distancing slows and decreases transmission of influenza,
(27) ______ limits the effects on individuals plus schools, workplaces and the health care system. However,
there are costs to this method. The costs are related to not only lost school days, missed work but also the loss
of social relationships which are key to a community's resilience. When socially distancing, remember not to
take it to the extreme and remove yourself from the world. You still have to participate, but do it in a safe way
until the (28) _______ clears.
(Adapted from http://dh.1A.gov/assets)
Question 24: A. break-ins B. breakthroughs C. break-outs D. outbreaks
Question 25: A. So that B. In addition C. Meanwhile D. However
Question 26: A. reduce B. fall C. plummet D. decline
Question 27: A. that B. where C. which D. who
Question 28: A. pandemic B. ailment C. illness D. disaster
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 29: A. athlete B. enthusiast C. theory D. southern
Question 30: A. enough B. wounded C. cousin D. country
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 31: If he had studied instead of goofing off all semester, then he wouldn't be so worried about
tomorrow's exam.
A. passing time studying B. hardly trying to work
C. behaving well D. passing time in a relaxed way
Question 32: There is growing concern about the way man has destroyed the environment.
A. speculation B. attraction C. ease D. consideration
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best joins each of the
following pairs of sentences in each of the following questions.
Question 33: The date of the conference was chosen. Invitations were sent out.
A. Hardly had the date of the conference been chosen when invitations were sent out.
B. After choosing the date of the conference, invitations were sent out.
C. Before sending out invitations, the date of the conference been chosen.
D. Choose the date of the conference before sending out invitations.
Question 34: They are not a close-knit family. Serious arguments often occur among the members.
A. No matter how serious their arguments are, they are a close-knit family.
B. Without serious arguments among the members, they would be a close-knit family.
C. Unless they have serious arguments, they won't be a close-knit family.
D. If the family members hadn't had serious arguments, they would be a close-knit family.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 35: Old people often reminisce about the days when they had good deeds.
A. revise B. recall C. repeat D. revive
Question 36: E-learning will become more common as an alternative to traditional learning.
A. a substitute B. a variety C. a means D. a solution
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Cultural characteristics influence what is appropriate and effective communication within the classroom.
That is, culture shapes what is considered to be desirable and undesirable classroom behaviors. From the
expectations for students interacting with their teachers, to the manner in which they relate with one another,
to the language and topics considered appropriate for teachers and students to discuss, to the overall structure
of interaction within a classroom - culture affects perceptions of competent classroom interaction.
 Students from collectivistic cultures, such as those of Japan, Korea, and China, are generally more
accepting of messages about appropriate classroom behaviors and will comply with teachers' requests about
classroom management. Even the nature of teachers' persuasive messages differs across cultures. Chinese
college teachers, for instance, appeal to the group in gaining student compliance, whereas European American
teachers, with a cultural preference for individualism, stress the benefit to the specific student.
Classroom displayed and participation also vary greatly across cultures. Donal Carbaugh, who studies how
culture is displayed in people's conversations, makes a comparison between European American expectations
for classroom interaction and those of the Blackfeet, one of the Native American tribes in the United States.
It is easy to imagine a classroom with a European American teacher and students from both cultures; the
European American students would, in all likelihood, feel much more comfortable and would thus have a
better learning experience. Similarly, many Native American and Asian American students are unwilling to
volunteer, speak out, or raise problems or concerns unless the teacher specifically calls on them by name.
Korean students, for instance, are often unwilling to talk with their teachers even when the teachers have
incorrectly calculated the students' scores on an exam. Questions for clarification are rarely asked of the
teacher directly; to do so might be regarded as a challenge to the teacher's authority and could threaten her or
his face should the answer not be known.
Students from many cultures who go to school in the United States sometimes find it difficult to adapt to
the verbal style expected of them. Conversely, when U.S. students study overseas, they often experience
similar difficulties in understanding the cultural expectations related to the educational context. Yet a
willingness to speak in class is a communication characteristic highly valued by European American teachers
and students, whose cultural framework celebrates individual achievement and responsibility. However, to
students from cultures that emphasize the collective good and the maintenance of face, such behaviors in the
classroom are too competitive, as they disrupt the group's harmony and separate people from one another.
(Source: passage adapted from Intercultural Competence (sixth edition) by Myron W. Lustig &
Jolene Koester, chapter 11, pages 293 & 294)
Question 37: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Collectivistic Cultures vs Individualistic Cultures
B. Highly Valued Communication Characteristics
C. Culture's Influence on Classroom Interaction
D. Classroom Discussion and Participation
Question 38: Which is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as a perception affected by culture?
A. suitable language and topics for discussion
B. communication in the multicultural classroom
C. expectations for student-teacher interaction
D. the ways students behave towards other students
Question 39: The word “comply” in paragraph 2 is CLOSEST in meaning to _________.
A. decline B. receive C. agree D. obey
Question 40: The word 'those in paragraph 3 refers to _________.
A. European American students B. expectations for classroom interaction
C. people's conversations D. Native American tribes
Question 41: Why don't Korean students directly ask their teachers to clarify?
A. Because, like European American students, they are unwilling to raise their concerns.
B. Because their teachers do not allow them to ask for clarification in the classroom.
C. Because that might threaten their teachers' face if the teachers don't know the answer.
D. Because that is widely regarded as an enormous challenge to the teacher's authority.
Question 42: The word “adapt” in paragraph 4 is CLOSEST in meaning to _________.
A. adopt B. lead C. support D. change
Question 43: Which of the following statements is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Donal Carbaugh makes a comparison of expectations for classroom interaction in two cultures.
B. To gain student compliance, Chinese college teachers stress the benefit to the specific student.
C. The willingness to speak in class is highly valued by European American teachers and students.
 D. The European American students would have a better learning experience than their counterparts.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.
Question 44: Nam is politely declining Lan's invitation to her birthday party next weekend.
- Nam: “I'd love to but I won't be able to attend your birthday party. I'm taking my final exam next weekend.”
- Lan: “___________”
A. Sounds like fun. B. Oh, that's annoying.
C. Great. See you soon. D. Well, never mind. Good luck to you!
Question 45: Cooper and Kevin are talking about the Internet.
- Cooper: "I think the Internet should be free for all.”
- Kevin: “ ________. If so, who will pay for the software engineers?”
A. That's just what I think B. You're dead wrong
C. I quite agree D. Sure!
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 46: A. offer B. believe C. respond D. maintain
Question 47: A. establish B. entertain C. introduce D. understand
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 48: I'm certain Luis will be on cloud nine when his wife gives birth to their first child.
A. Luisa may be on cloud nine when his wife gives birth to their first child.
B. Luisa can be very on cloud nine when his wife gives birth to their first child.
C. Luisa could be on cloud nine when his wife gives birth to their first child.
D. Luisa must be on cloud nine when his wife gives birth to their first child.
Question 49: “You're always making terrible mistakes,” said the teacher.
A. The teacher asked his students why they always made terrible mistakes.
B. The teacher made his students not always make terrible mistakes.
C. The teacher realized that his students always made terrible mistakes.
D. The teacher complained about his students making terrible mistakes.
Question 50: My train had just left the station when I came.
A. The train had left the station before I came.
B. I came before the train left the station.
C. I came to the station in time to catch the train.
D. My train left after I came to the station.
--------THE END------

ĐỀ ÔN THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT LẦN THỨ 2

Mã đề thi 02 Bài thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. looked B. stopped C. played D. finished
Question 2: A. save B. date C. name D. hat
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
other three of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. confidence B. tradition C. memory D. government
Question 4: A. belief B. weather C. coffee D. student
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: I don't think we should _________ a decision yet; we should wait until everything is examined.
A. do B. create C. take D. make
Question 6: _________ the weather is, the more comfortable we feel.
A. The more cool B. The cooler C. The coolest D. The cool
Question 7: The injured victims in the accident _______ to hospital by an ambulance.
A. were taken B. is taken C. has taken D. taken
Question 8: __________, I will have worked at this school for 30 years.
A. By the time I reach 55 years old B. Until I will reach 55 years old
C. When I reached 55 years old D. Before I had reached 55
Question 9: Nam didn't go to school yesterday ______ his illness.
A. although B. because of C. in spite of D. because
Question 10: ________ adult responsibilities, little kids sometimes think adults are no fun.
A. Not having B. Having not C. Not having had D. Not to have
Question 11: After missing a term through illness, he had to work hard to _______ the others.
A. get away from B. put up with C. look forward to D. catch up with
Question 12: I ________ dinner with my family when she phoned.
A. had B. am having C. was having D. have
Question 13: You should make an __________ with your doctor whenever you have a health concern.
A. appoint B. appointing C. appointment D. appointed
Question 14: He _________ a second clear foul and was sent off.
A. made B. created C. committed D. caused
Question 15: She can type, _________?
A. can't she B. can she C. isn't she D. doesn't she
Question 16: After three years of _______ the country's economy is finally looking a lot healthier.
A. letdown B. bankrupt C. overdraft D. recession
Question 17: I had to face the ________ all by myself although I was not the only one responsible for the
problem.
A. song B. music C. novel D. film
Question 18: She was attracted to the __________ dress at the shop.
A. Korean blue long B. long blue Korean C. blue long Korean D. blue Korean long
Question 19: Many people in my village are surprised _________ his success.
A. for B. at C. of D. in
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: This dress is the most expensive one I've ever bought.
A. cheap B. costly C. priceless D. valuable
Question 21: Two days ago, representatives from the World Bank came to Vietnam to attend a special
meeting to negotiate how much money should be spent on education.
A. standings B. suspects C. attendants D. delegates
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: It is believed that conflicts between parents and children can be resolved through heart-to heart
talks.
A. differences B. similarities C. harmonies D. disagreements
Question 23: Tom was too wet behind the ears to be in charge of such a difficult task.
A. without money B. full of sincerity C. lack of responsibility D. full of experience
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Jenifer and Kathy are in the middle of their conversation.
- Jenifer: "I believe that supermarkets are much better than traditional markets."
- Kathy: “________. Each has its own features.”
A. I disagree with you B. That's completely true
C. I couldn't agree with you more D. I can't help thinking the same
Question 25: Tim and Mark are university students. They are going on a field trip.
- Tim: "What do we have to bring for the trip?” - Mark: "__________.”
A. We'll set off very early, you know. B. All the course books, of course.
C. Well, don't make a fuss. D. What an interesting book you have!
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Although education in Singapore is free, all families must pay small ‘miscellaneous' fees, (26) _______
are explained by the Ministry of Education. These fees are fairly small for public schools but don't necessarily
cover additional costs for things like uniforms, transport, and school materials. Independent schools, even if
part government-funded, can (27) _______ fees beyond the small amounts seen in the public school system.
If you do not choose the state system and decide to find a fully private or international school, the costs are
higher.
Singapore has a huge range of international schools, teaching in English and (28) _______ major world
languages. Schools might use the International Baccalaureate syllabus, or a (29) ________ of another national
curriculum such as the American core or Australian standard curriculum. International schools are generally
of a high standard, and (30) ________ typically competitive, with testing and interviews to secure admission.
You can expect the fees to vary widely depending on the specific school and the program they offer. Fees
of anything from USD 15,000 to USD 30,000 a year aren't uncommon, with extras such as registration fees
and deposits.
Question 26: A. who B. where C. that D. which
Question 27: A. earn B. pay C. count D. charge
Question 28: A. another B. every C. the other D. other
Question 29: A. variant B. difference C. divergence D. variety
Question 30: A. moreover B. therefore C. however D. otherwise
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Vietnam's population is ageing quickly. In 2017, more than 10 percent of the population will be 60 and
older, and in 15-20 years the elderly will account for one-third of the total population. This raises concerns
about healthcare, welfare and pensions for the elderly at a time when Vietnam is focusing on economic
integration and requires a large labor force. So far two solutions have been proposed to loosen the two-child
policy and to increase the retirement age to 58 for women and 62 for men. By ending the two-child policy the
government expects to make up for the ageing population within the next 20 years. But its effect could be
creating an uncontrollable boom in the Vietnamese population. When the government loosened the two child
policy in 2015 in a trial period, in the first 6 months of 2016 the third childbirth rate increased remarkably by
7.5 percent.
Raising the retirement age has been proposed by the Ministry of Labor pending parliamentary evaluation
in May 2017. While the policy is beneficial in utilizing the work experience of the elderly while creating
savings in the pension budget, it also means fewer job prospects and promotion opportunities for younger
generations. It is also not in the interest of all the elderly, especially the 70 percent of Vietnam's labor force
working in manual labor-intensive sectors such as agriculture, manufacturing and construction in which
working above the age of 50 can be at risk and unproductive. Despite these drawbacks, raising the retirement
age is still considered by policymakers as one of the key solutions to the ageing population problem in
Vietnam. However, these are only temporary solutions.
Question 31: The best title for this passage could be ________.
A. Stopping the Two-child Policy in Vietnam B. Raising the Retirement Age in Vietnam
C. How to Solve the Aging Population in Vietnam D. Vietnam's Struggle against Ageing Population
Question 32: The word "loosen" in paragraph 1 means ________.
A. tighten B. strengthen C. apply D. weaken
Question 33: In the 2nd paragraph, the writer suggests that __________.
A. the Ministry of Labor has applied raising the retirement age in May 2017
B. raising the retirement age and stopping the two-child policy can be long-term solutions
C. raising the retirement age can reduce job opportunities for younger generations
D. the elderly whose age is 50 would be dangerous if they continued to work
Question 34: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. policy B. experience C. budget D. evaluation
Question 35: According to the passage, 70 percent of Vietnam's labor force is working in these following
sectors EXCEPT _________.
A. garment industry B. construction C. agriculture D. manufacturing
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
In our connected globalized world, the languages which dominate communications and business, are
placing small languages spoken in remote places under increasing pressure. Fewer and fewer people speak
languages such as Liki, Taushiro and Dumi as their children shift away from the language of their ancestors
towards languages that promise education, success, and the chance of a better life.
While to many parents, this may appear a reasonable choice, giving their offspring the opportunity to
achieve the sort of prosperity they see on television, the children themselves often lose touch with their roots.
However, in many places, the more reasonable option of bilingualism, where children learn to speak both a
local and a national language, is being promoted. While individuals are free to choose if they wish to speak a
minority language, national governments should be under no obligation to provide education in an
economically unproductive language, especially in times of budget constraints.
Furthermore, governments have a duty to ensure that young people can fulfill their full potential, meaning
that state education must provide them with the ability to speak and work in their national language and so
equip them to participate responsibly in national affairs. People whose language competence does not extend
beyond the use of a regional tongue have limited prospects. This means that while many people may feel a
sentimental attachment to their local language, their government's position should be one of benign neglect,
allowing people to speak the language, but not acting to prevent its eventual disappearance.
Many Ph.D. students studying minority languages lack the resources to develop their language skills, with
the result that they have to rely on interpreters and translators to communicate with speakers of the language
they are studying. This has a detrimental effect on the quality of their research. At the same time, they have to
struggle against the frequently expressed opinion that minority languages serve no useful purpose and should
be allowed to die a natural death. Such a view fails to take into account the fact that a unique body of
knowledge and culture, built up over thousands of years, is contained in a language and that language
extinction and species extinction are different facets of the same process. They are part of an impending global
catastrophe which is beginning to look unavoidable.
Question 36: Which of the following could best serve as the main topic of the passage?
A. The domination of business languages for some parts of the world.
B. The trend of young generation in choosing a second language.
C. The reasons for the decrease in the number of local languages speakers.
D. The comparison of national languages in the past and the modern world.
Question 37: The word "constraints” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. restrictions B. surplus C. depressions D. crises
Question 38: The word "prospects" in the 3rd paragraph could be best replaced by _________.
A. opportunities B. products C. possibilities D. procedures
Question 39: What can be concluded about the government in paragraph 3?
A. The government does not appreciate the importance of minority languages.
B. People who are not in the government will be allowed to speak their local languages.
C. The local people will be neglected at work if they use their ancestors' languages.
D. It's better to allow these minority languages to die naturally by neglecting them.
Question 40: What does the word "they” in the fourth paragraph refer to?
 A. resources B. Ph.D. students C. minority languages D. language skills
Question 41: What is the influence of the shortage of minority language resources on many Ph.D. students
mentioned in paragraph 4?
A. They have to be under the pressure that the language is admitted to be extinct for good.
B. These students are unable to convince people to use the language they are learning.
C. They encounter several obstacles in understanding the language with the interpreters.
D. Their qualified research is unlikely to accomplish due to the local people's ignorance.
Question 42: Which statement is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Lack of language resources has a negative effect on the quality of Ph.D. students' research.
B. Local languages can't bring as many future education opportunities as national languages.
C. State education must ensure that young people speak and work in their regional languages.
D. Each citizen has their right to decide whether they want to speak a minority language or not.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43: Mary's voice is so beautiful that everyone likes to hear them sing.
A. them B. beautiful C. likes D. voice
Question 44: When I came home last Sunday evening, my parents prepare for the meal.
A. home B. When C. prepare D. evening
Question 45: Speech sounds are produced as a continuous sound signal rather than discreet units.
A. are produced B. discreet C. signal D. Speech
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: The last time my mom cooked chicken soup was last week.
A. My mother last cooked chicken soup for one week.
B. My mother hadn't cooked chicken soup since last week.
C. My mother hasn't cooked chicken soup since last week.
D. My mother didn't cook chicken soup one week
Question 47: "You didn't return my book on time. It was your mistake." Mike said.
A. Mike advised me to return his book on time.
B. Mike blamed me for not returning his book on time.
C. Mike accused me for not returning his book on time.
D. Mike complained to me about returning his book on time.
Question 48: The likelihood is that the surgery will be successful.
A. The surgery must not be successful. B. The surgery probably will be successful.
C. The surgery is unnecessary to be successful. D. The surgery absolutely will be successful.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: They didn't discuss before the final presentation. Now they regret that.
A. If they had discussed before the final presentation, they would not have regretted it now.
B. If only they could discuss before the final presentation.
C. They wished they had discussed before the final presentation.
D. If it hadn't been for the discussion before the final presentation, they regret it now.
Question 50: The university finally decided to grant the most three excellent students. Right before that, they
discussed and considered the candidate's potential.
A. But for the final decision to grant the most three excellent students, the university discussed and
considered the candidate's potential.
B. Hardly had the university discussed and considered the candidate's potential when they finally decided
to grant the most three excellent students.
 C. Only after the university discussed and considered the candidate's potential that they finally decided to
grant the most three excellent students.
D. Not until the university discussed and considered the candidate's potential did they finally decided to
grant the most three excellent students.
ĐỀ ÔN THI THPT –No3
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Mã đề thi 03
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other three
in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. agency B. encounter C. influence D. memory
Question 2: A. decide B. combine C. explain D. happen
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 3: Automaker VinFast has tested its first _________ car model in Hanoi with plans to introduce
it in a U.S. auto show later this year.
A. electricity B. electrify C. electric D. electrically
Question 4: Online Vietnamese bookstores _________ in Europe by Quynh Hanh, an overseas Vietnamese
woman living in Finland.
A. initiated B. was initiating C. initiate D. were initiated
Question 5: Most students face the _________ of funding themselves while they are studying.
A. matters B. issues C. questions D. problems
Question 6: _________ COVID-19 continues to spread terribly, the voters across Vietnam are going to elect
new National Assembly and People's Council members safely.
A. Because B. Although C. Because of D. In spite of
Question 7: Don't go without _________ goodbye to me, will you?
A. speaking B. saying C. telling D. talking
Question 8: I _________ along the street when I suddenly heard footsteps behind me.
A. walk B. am walking C. was walking D. walked
Question 9: Are you aware _________ the risk of the transmissions of the COVID-19 pandemic?
A. at B. in C. of D. on
Question 10: _________ your education is, the greater your opportunities are.
A. The better B. The best C. Better D. Best
Question 11: The test's so easy for you, _________?
A. won't it B. doesn't it C. isn't it D. hasn't it
Question 12: The 2021 APhO was _________ to this year and eventually took place online due to COVID
19.
A. turned on B. carried on C. shown off D. put off
Question 13: Many people are finding a _________ orchid.
A. beautiful 200-year-old blue Persian B. Persian 200-year-old beautiful blue
C. 200-year-old beautiful blue Persian D. 200-year-old blue beautiful Persian
Question 14: The Vietnamese football squad will have played against Jordan _________.
A. after they had arrived in the UEA B. as soon as they arrived in the UEA
C. by the time they arrive in the UEA D. when they arrived in the UEA
Question 15: _________ intense playoffs with Lebanon, Vietnam claimed the ticket to the Fusal World Cup.
A. To overcome B. Having overcome C. Overcame D. Being overcome
Question 16: These measures have been taken with a _________ to increasing the company's profits.
A. prospect B. sight C. opinion D. view
Question 17: All the orders were given by word of _________ so that no written evidence could be discovered
later.
A. head B. mouth C. hand D. ear
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. fact B. talk C. add D. hand
Question 19: A. listened B. retired C. involved D. completed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 20: "I'll call you as soon as I arrive at the airport,” he said to me.
A. He reminded me to call him as soon as he arrived at the airport.
B. He objected to calling me as soon as he arrived at the airport.
C. He promised to call me as soon as he arrived at the airport.
D. He denied calling me as soon as he arrived at the airport.
Question 21: She last visited her home country ten years ago.
A. She hasn't visited her home country for ten years.
B. She hasn't visited her home country since ten years.
C. She was in her home country for ten years.
D. She has visited her home country for ten years.
Question 22: It's against the law if you hunt the endangered species.
A. You mustn't hunt the endangered species. B. You shouldn't hunt the endangered species.
C. You needn't hunt the endangered species. D. You can't hunt the endangered species.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 23: You are not tactful; that is why you are always offending other people.
A. If you were tactful, you would satisfy other people.
B. You should have been tactful so that you didn't offend other people.
C. I wish you were tactful so that you don't offend other people.
D. You must have offended other people because you are not tactful.
Question 24: Mary left home to start an independent life. Then she realised how much her family meant
to her.
A. Mary left home to start an independent life with a view to realising how much her family meant to her.
B. Not until Mary had left home to start an independent life did she realise how much her family meant
to her.
C. To realise how much her family meant to her, Mary decided to leave home to start an independent life.
D. Only when Mary realised how much her family meant to her did she leave home to start an
independent life.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 25 to 29.
Ever feel like your parents don't understand you at all? I know it sounds horribly stereotypical but you
can't deny feeling misunderstood. This is common and it isn't just our teen-angst making us feel like a NOFX
song. Parents really just don't understand us; it is as simple as that.
This lapse of understanding is mainly due to the rather large generation gap between us and our
parents. Times have changed, and for some reason, they have a hard time understanding this at times. Back
when they were growing up, things that we find socially acceptable were considered horribly inappropriate.
For example, guys and girls just hanging out is a lot more common than in the 60's and 70's. And don't even
get me started on conduct at dances. Back then a guy politely asked a girl if she would like to dance. Now
they just come up behind a girl, grab her and sweep her to the floor, and all this while the girl's wondering,
“Do I know him? Is he attractive or what?” In the older days, girls wouldn't have to wildly signal to their
friends to help them out of a dance.
 So considering we are a much more desensitized and open generation, it is only fair that people who
grew up before us may have a hard time comprehending our actions. And, while I'm not trying to completely
justify their intolerance, we do have to understand that it's just new to them. Try explaining what you are doing
and remind them that times have changed; in the nicest way possible of course.
(Adapted from Exam preparation in school by Rebecca Sandy)
Question 25: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Comprehending the actions B. Parents' misunderstanding
C. Large generation D. Generation gap
Question 26: The word "inappropriate" in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by _______.
A. inconsiderate B. unreasonable C. unacceptable D. unsuitable
Question 27: The word "who" in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. generation B. people C. time D. actions
Question 28: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned when a guy wants to dance
with a girl?
A. He just comes up behind her. B. He sings and dances with her.
C. He grabs her. D. He sweeps her to the floor.
Question 29: According to the text, young people _______
A. keep politely asking a girl to dance. B. adopt stereotypical values about life.
C. believe they are mistreated by others. D. feel their parents are intolerant towards them.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 30: Students' motivation for language learning really varies.
A. emotion B. sense C. feeling D. inspiration
Question 31: That he was too late to transfer the donated money to the victims of catastrophe was obviously
wrong.
A. especially B. strongly C. clearly D. probably
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.
Question 32: Lora has just bought a new skirt that she likes very much.
- Jane: "You look great in that red skirt, Lora!”
- Lora: “_____________”
A. Thanks, I bought it at Macy's. B. Thanks, my mum bought it.
C. No, I don't think so. D. Oh, you don't like it, do you?
Question 33: Silas is talking to his roommate, Salah, about the Olympic Games.
- Silas: “Do you think our country can host the Olympic Games someday in the future?
- Salah: “_________. We can't afford such a big event.”
A. I can't agree with you more B. You can say that again
C. Yes, you're right D. No, I don't think so
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs to correction
on each of the following questions.
Question 34: The young teachers use technology to give her students the opportunity to have the experiences
of “global citizens”.
A. young B. her C. to have D. of
Question 35: The candidates wore face masks while taking the test in the national high school exam next
year.
A. wore B. taking C. test D. national
Question 36: In your capacity as a judge, you have to work with high concentration. You must make
uninterested judgment.
A. In B. capacity C. high D. uninterested
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 37: It would be helpful if you were to precede the report with an introduction.
A. follow B. develop C. obey D. begin
Question 38: It's a risk for new investors to enter the crypto market because they are probably wet behind
the ears.
A. improved and developed B. frightened and endangered
C. mature and experienced D. young and inexperienced
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 45.
Both native English speakers and non-native speakers find the spelling of English one of its most
difficult characteristics. The English spelling system is not based on a phonetic link between sounds and
letters, as is the spelling of Spanish and certain other languages. Instead, English spelling is affected by the
historical development of the language. Some words are pronounced in several different ways; similarly,
different combinations of letters can produce the same pronunciation.
The six different pronunciations of “ough” provide an outstanding example of the differences between
spelling and pronunciation, as in “bough, cough, thorough, thought, through”, and “rough”. The
spellings come from a time when “gh” represented a sound that was pronounced. Another difference is the
many different spellings of the “sh” sound, as for example in anxious, fission, fuchsia, and ocean.
The link between sound and spelling in English is not phonetically exact for two main reasons. First,
spelling changes did not keep pace with changes in the sound system after the development of printing and of
conventions for spelling. For example, the “k” in “knife” and the “gh” in “right” come from the
Middle English period (from about 1100 to about 1500), when they were pronounced as separate sounds.
Second, there are some spelling conventions that are based on other languages. For example, during the 16th
century the 'b' was inserted into the word doubt (formerly spelled “doute”). This reflected the Latin
word, “dubitare”, even though the 'b' was not pronounced in English.
There have been many attempts to reform English spelling. The author and playwright George Bernard
Shaw proposed a completely new alphabet, but this had very limited success. American English has developed
some of its own spelling conventions, largely as a result of the work of spelling reformer Noah Webster.
Webster attempted to remove some of the irregularities from the English spelling system and distance
American English from British English. Nevertheless, the system as a whole remains particularly complex,
and English is widely regarded as having the worst spelling of any language in the world.
(Extracted from Bl exam preparation in school)
Question 39: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. British and American English. B. The Development of Printing.
C. A contrast between Sound and Spelling. D. English Spelling.
Question 40: The word "conventions" in paragraph 3 is probably closest in meaning to __________.
A. conferences B. contracts C. customs D. status
Question 41: What has made English spelling so complicated?
A. The link between sound and spelling. B. Its similarities with Spanish.
C. It has more letters than sounds. D. Its history.
Question 42: The word "complex" in paragraph 4 is probably closest in meaning to __________.
A. troublesome B. complicated C. distinguishable D. different
Question 43: The word “its” in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. English spelling B. American English C. success D. alphabet
Question 44: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. After the Middle English period, English pronunciation began to change.
B. George Bernard Shaw and Noah Webster wanted to make spelling simpler.
C. The words ending in “ough” is given to show the same letters can be pronounced in same ways.
D. Some spelling conventions depends on the different languages.
Question 45: Which of the following can be inferred from passage 4?
 A. Noah Webster wanted to limit the irregularities from the English spelling.
B. English spelling is unnecessarily complicated.
C. The former reformers were both successful playwrights.
D. English is widely considered as the worldwide popularity.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 46 to 50.
Formed in 1995 and coming from humble beginnings, the band Bức Tường was one of the first successful
rock bands in Vietnam. Bức Tường’s (46) ______ were simple yet rich in humanity, creating a whole
new audience for Vietnamese rock.
Through their career, the band released six studio albums, performed a series of live shows, and toured
domestically and internationally. Bức Tường is also one of the (47) ______ rock bands to be honored by the
prestigious Dedication Music Award - with two nominations and a win for the show of the year.
Unfortunately, in 2016, Trần Lập, (48) ______ was considered as the front man and composer, passed
away after his battle with cancer. Bức Tường was in danger of disbanding, potentially leaving their 2014
album Đất Việt as their last. (49) ______, the members of Bức Tường decided to continue their unfinished
journey.
When releasing the song "XXV" in early 2020, it marked the band's 25th anniversary. Sharing how they
(50) ______ in making their way forward without their late leader, the band said, “Just as in our music,
everywhere we walked was roses, but our feet were in pain because of the thorns."
(Adapted from https://www.billboard.com)
Question 46: A. compositions B. developments C. backgrounds D. entertainments
Question 47: A. few B. some C. little D. another
Question 48: A. whom B. which C. who D. that
Question 49: A. However B. Furthermore C. Moreover D. Therefore
Question 50: A. coped B. surged C. gripped D. strove
-----THE END-----

Mã đề thi: 04 ĐỀ ÔN THI 04 - 12A2

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. attracted B. repaired C. invited D. decided
Question 2: A. measure B. ready C. leave D. weather
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. borrow B. invite C. advise D. attract
Question 4: A. disappear B. biology C. engineer D. entertain
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 5: When the factory (A) closes (B), over a hundred people (C) were made (D) redundant.
A. factory B. closes C. people D. made
Question 6: Robert Hooke was (A) head of the Royal Society, and (B) one of the most (C) respected scientist
(D) in the country.
A. was B. and C. most D. scientist
Question 7: When the teacher told the children that their excursion (A) would be cancelled (B), all he could
see was (C) a room full of disappointing (D) faces.
A. their excursion B. cancelled C. was D. disappointing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 8: The last time the US President Barrack Obama visited Viet Nam was in 2016.
A. The US President Barrack Obama hasn't been visited Viet Nam since 2016.
B. The US President Barrack Obama visited Viet Nam since 2016.
C. I have visited The US President Barrack Obama for the last five years.
D. The US President Barrack Obama hasn't visited Viet Nam since 2016.
Question 9: "Don't forget to write the answers on the answer sheet," the teacher said.
A. The teacher reminded me not to write the answers on the answer sheet.
B. The teacher reminded me to write the answers on the answer sheet.
C. The teacher agreed to write the answers on the answer sheet.
D. The teacher promised to write the answers on the answer sheet.
Question 10: It isn't necessary to book tickets for the flight in advance.
A. You mightn't book tickets for the flight in advance.
B. You mustn't book tickets for the flight in advance.
C. You needn't book tickets for the flight in advance
D. You shouldn't book tickets for the flight in advance.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentence in the following questions.
Question 11: My sister didn't apply for the job in the summer. She now regrets it.
A. My sister wishes that she applied for the job in the summer.
B. My sister feels regret because she had applied for the job in the summer.
C. If only my sister didn't apply for the job in the summer.
D. My sister wishes that she had applied for the job in the summer.
Question 12: Overeating is a cause of several deadly diseases. Physical inactivity is another cause of several
deadly diseases.
A. Both overeating and physical inactivity result from several deadly diseases.
B. Apart from physical activities, eating too much also contributes to several deadly diseases.
C. Not only overeating but also physical inactivity may lead to several deadly diseases.
D. Overeating and physical inactivity are caused by several deadly diseases.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 13: She can speak English, __________?
A. can't she B. wasn't she C. can she D. was she
Question 14: I didn't see anyone but I felt as though I _________
A. am watched B. was being watched C. have been watched D. be watched
Question 15: Right now, scientists and medical professionals are giving ________ the best information
currently available about corona virus.
A. on B. in C. about D. out
Question 16: _________ advice we take from the government, we get through the corona pandemic.
A. The more/ the faster B. The most/ the faster
C. The most/ the fastest D. The more/ the fastest
Question 17: Many girls enjoy spending money buying ________ hats.
A. red woolen lovely B. lovely red woolen
C. red lovely woolen D. lovely woolen red
Question 18: Yesterday afternoon, my brother _________ football when it started raining.
A. play B. was playing C. has played D. had played
Question 19: Many exam candidates lose marks simply ___________ they do not read the questions properly.
A. because B. in spite of C. because of D. although
Question 20: ________ here tomorrow, the work will have been finished.
A. By the time you will come B. When you came
 C. By the time you come D. As soon as you come
Question 21: ________ at home for 4 weeks to keep away coronavirus, they decided to go out to have lunch
at an expensive restaurant.
A. Having been stayed B. Having stayed C. Staying D. Being stayed
Question 22: The top model was __________ dressed in an elegant evening gown.
A. beautify B. beauty C. beautiful D. beautifully
Question 23: After applying for the job, don't neglect the thank-you note or _________ letter.
A. follow-up B. turn-up C. start-up D. break-up
Question 24: Before signing the contract, the client wished to ____________ some enquiries into the matter.
A. keep B. make C. have D. do
Question 25: In the United States, volunteering is ________ as a good way to give children a sense of
community responsibility and to bring the family together.
A. respected B. viewed C. inspected D. showed
Question 26: My brother has just moved to a new flat in the residential area on the ______ of Paris.
A. side B. suburbs C. outskirts D. outside
Question 27: Our house has been on ________ for over two months but we haven't been able to sell it yet.
A. the market B. the sale C. business D. the goal
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 28: I started describing what had happened to the police officer but my sister broke in to tell him
something I had forgotten.
A. interrupted B. moved back C. started suddenly D. backed up
Question 29: Blue is an old hand at such compositions and has never had any trouble with them.
A. relaxed about B. reserved about C. uninterested in D. experienced in
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 30: Many young people have objected to contractual marriage, which is decided by the parents of
the bride and groom.
A. supported B. shared C. fought D. sacrificed
Question 31: I'm not an impulsive person, I don't generally do things on the spur of the moment.
A. quickly B. industriously C. intentionally D. attentively
Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 32: Jack and John are talking to each other at the cafeteria.
- Jack: "How often do you go to the English club?”
- John: “_____________.”
A. Once a week B. I come there by train
C. I like English club D. The English club is very interesting
Question 33: Lisa is discussing to Peter about their plan.
- Lisa: "Let's go to the theatre.”
- Peter: “__________. The number of people infected with the coronavirus (COVID-19) is increasing day by
day."
A. No problem B. Just bring yourself
C. Oh, I don't think it's a good idea D. Yes, let's do that
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
GOOD FRIENDS
Psychologists have long known that having a set of cherished companions is crucial to mental well-being.
A recent study by Australian investigators concluded that our friends even help to (34) _______ our lives. The
study concentrated on the social environment, general health, and lifestyle of 1,477 persons older than 70
years. The participants were asked how (35) ________ contact they had with friends, children, relatives and
acquaintances.
Researchers were surprised to learn that friendships increased life (36) ________ to a far greater extent
than frequent contact with children and other relatives. This benefit held true even after these friends had
moved away to another city and was independent of factors such as socio-economic status, health, and way of
life. According to scientists, the ability to have relationships with people to (37) ________ one is important
has a positive effect on physical and mental health. Stress and tendency towards depression are reduced, and
behaviours that are damaging to health, such as smoking and drinking, occur less frequently. (38) _________,
our support networks, in times of calamity in particular, can raise our moods and feelings of self-worth and
offer helpful strategies for dealing with difficult personal challenges.
(Source: Academic Vocabulary in Use by Michael McCarthy and Felicity O'Dell)
Question 34: A. prolong B. lengthen C. stretch D. expand
Question 35: A. much B. many C. few D. lots of
Question 36: A. expectation B. insurance C. expectancy D. assurance
Question 37: A. who B. whom C. what D. that
Question 38: A. Otherwise B. For example C. Moreover D. However
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Health promotion and disease prevention programs focus on keeping people healthy. Health promotion
programs aim to engage and empower individuals and communities to choose healthy behaviours and make
changes that reduce the risk of developing chronic diseases and other morbidities. Defined by the
World Health Organization, health promotion is: "The process enabling people to increase control over, and
to improve their health. It moves beyond a focus on individual behaviour towards a wide range of social and
environmental interventions."
Disease prevention differs from health promotion because it focuses on specific efforts aimed at reducing
the development and severity of chronic diseases and other morbidities.
Wellness is related to health promotion and disease prevention. Wellness is described as the attitudes and
active decisions made by an individual that contribute to positive health behaviours and outcomes.
Health promotion and disease prevention programs often address social determinants of health, which
influence modifiable risk behaviours. Social determinants of health are the economic, social, cultural, and
political conditions in which people are born, grow, and live that affect health status. Modifiable risk
behaviours include, for example, tobacco use, poor eating habits, and lack of physical activity, which
contribute to the development of chronic disease.
(Adapted from https://www.realhealthinfo.org/)
Question 39: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Understanding Health Promotion
B. Social Determinants of Health
C. Defining Health Promotion and Disease Prevention
D. What do you know about disease prevention?
Question 40: The word "empower" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. affect B. pursue C. allow D. insist
Question 41: What does disease prevention focus on?
A. Wide range of social and environmental interventions.
B. Specific efforts reducing the development and severity of chronic diseases.
C. Attitudes and active decisions made by an individual.
D. Positive health behaviours and outcomes.
Question 42: The word "that" in paragraph 3 refers to ________.
A. attitudes and active decisions B. wellness
C. health behaviours D. outcomes
Question 43: According to the last paragraph, modifiable risk behaviours contribute to the development
of ________.
 A. tobacco use B. eating habits C. physical activity D. chronic disease
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
GREEK THEATER
Plays are one of the oldest forms of literature we have. Long before there were any novels, people around
the world were writing and acting out plays. One society which did much to develop plays as we know them
today was the society of the ancient Greeks. Originally Greek plays began as part of a religious festival to the
Greek god Dionysus, the god of song, wine, and nature. For the three days of the festival, Greek writers would
present their plays. At the end of the three days, judges would choose the best play.
Greek plays had two forms: tragedy and comedy. Greek tragedies are now by far the most famous form of
Greek play. Tragedies focus on a great character, such as a king or a great warrior. During the play, this
character would suffer terrible misfortune, until at the end of the play they either were dead or had lost their
status. Their fall from their high position was usually caused by some flaw in their personality. For example,
in the famous tragedy Oedipus, the main character is searching for the murderer of his father. Throughout the
play, he receives many warnings to stop his search, but he refuses to listen. At the end of the play, he discovers
that he is actually his father's murderer, and his life is destroyed. In this case, the character's tragic flaw is his
stubborn attitude. The Greeks watched tragedies because they believed that they took negative emotions such
as fear and disgust out of them and left them emotionally clean. This process was called catharsis.
Greek comedies were not like the comedies we have today. Greek comedies were not necessarily funny.
The basis of a Greek comedy was the opposite of a Greek tragedy, a normal person would enjoy a period of
good luck and would rise in status at the end of the play. Greek comedies were less serious than tragedies and
were generally used to lighten the mood of the audience after they saw a tragedy.
Question 44: According to the passage, all of the following are true of Greek plays EXCEPT _________.
A. They began as part of a religious festival
B. There were two kinds of Greek plays
C. They were the first plays in the world
D. They were judged in contests to find the best play
Question 45: According to the passage, what influence did the ancient Greeks have on plays as an art form?
A. They invented tragedies.
B. They made plays more similar to the form of play we have these days.
C. They made comedies that were not funny.
D. They cleansed their emotions with plays.
Question 46: The word 'misfortune' in the passage is closest in meaning to __________.
A. illness B. pain C. bad luck D. sadness
Question 47: Why does the author mention Oedipus?
A. Because it is the most famous Greek tragedy. B. To show that being stubborn is a very bad
thing.
C. To give an example of a tragic flaw. D. To better explain why Greeks liked tragedies.
Question 48: The word 'they' in the passage refers to _______.
A. emotions B. Greeks C. tragedies D. tragic flaws
Question 49: Based on the information in the passage, the term 'catharsis' can be best explained as _____.
A. not wanting to have negative emotions
B. watching a story of terrible events to rid yourself of negative emotions
C. watching powerful people ruin their lives to free yourself of negative emotions
D. a ceremony to leave yourself emotionally clean
Question 50: Based on the information in the passage, it can be inferred that ___________.
A. comedies were more popular than tragedies B. comedies usually came after tragedies
C. tragedies required better actors D. comedies are very exciting
-----HẾT-----
 ĐỀ ÔN THI 05-
Mã đề 05
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. say B. stand C. face D. came
Question 2: A. compromised B. invented C. revised D. advised
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. cancer B. practice C. listen D. prefer
Question 4: A. disastrous B. expensive C. symbolic D. confident
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: I don't like John. His ________ complaints make me angry.
A. continuously B. continuous C. continuation D. continual
Question 6: She got the job ________ the fact that she had very little experience.
A. although B. because of C. despite D. because
Question 7: The flower girl wore a __________ dress at the wedding ceremony last night.
A. silk pretty white B. white pretty silk C. silk white pretty D. pretty white silk
Question 8: Before you left, remember to __________ goodbye to the interviewer.
A. say B. tell C. talk D. speak
Question 9: The better the joke is, ________ the laughter is.
A. loudest B. louder C. the louder D. the loudest
Question 10: The jury _______ her compliments on her excellent knowledge of the subject.
A. paid B. gave C. said D. made
Question 11: The Titanic _________ the Atlantic when it struck an iceberg.
A. had crossed B. crossed C. is crossing D. was crossing
Question 12: They finish their work at 7.pm, _________?
A. aren't they B. doesn't they C. don't they D. won't they
Question 13: You __________ the package by the time your flight takes off.
A. will have received B. will receive C. will be received D. had received
Question 14: _________ their work, they went to the cafe with their friends.
A. Being finished B. Finished C. Having finished D. Had finished
Question 15: Can the sales team meet its financial _________?
A. aims B. objectives C. goals D. purposes
Question 16: I was late for work because my alarm clock did not _________.
A. send off B. turn off C. put off D. go off
Question 17: The patient _______as soon as possible by the doctor.
A. is operated B. would operate C. be operated D. operated
Question 18: He was independent __________ his parents when he was 15.
A. on B. at C. in D. of
Question 19: At school, people always used to take the _________ out of him for having red hair.
A. rat B. mickey C. dog D. cat
Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: School uniform is mandatory in most of Vietnamese schools.
A. compulsory B. depended C. divided D. paid
Question 21: This organization was formed to do the mission of the preservation of biological diversity,
sustainable use of natural resources, and the reduction of pollution and wasteful consumption.
A. development B. contamination C. extinction D. energy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: She grabbed it firmly, got to her feet and walked past him with her nose in the air.
A. proudly B. arrogantly C. hastily D. modestly
Question 23: Ships crossing the oceans can receive signals from satellites that enable them to calculate their
position accurately.
A. uneasily B. carelessly C. untruthfully D. imprecisely
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24: Linda can't find the way to the post office.
- Linda: "Excuse me! Where's the post office?"
- Maria: “_____________”
A. Yes, I think so B. I’m afraid not C. Don't worry D. It's over there
Question 25: Peter and Thomas are talking about the reason why nature is threatened.
- Peter." I think the primary cause is discharging chemical pollutants into the environment"
- Thomas: “_______. Releasing pollutants into the river results in the pollution."
A. What a good idea! B. I can't agree with you more.
C. Don't mention it. D. I agree with you.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
In such a costly and competitive society and world, no one of us can live without money. We need money
to fulfill our basic needs of the life such as buying food, and (26) _____ necessities of life which are almost
impossible to buy without money. People in the society (27) _______ are rich and have property are looked
as honourable and respectful person of the society
Money increases the position of the person in the society and (28) _______ a good impression to him. All
of us want to be rich by earning more money through good job or business in order to fulfil all the increasing
demands of the modern age. (29) _____, only few people get this chance of completing their dreams of being
a millionaire.
So, money is the thing of great importance all through the life. Money is required by everyone whether
he/she is rich or poor and living in urban areas or rural areas. People in the urban areas are causing more
money than the people living in backward or rural areas as the people of the urban areas have more (30) ___
access ____ to the technologies and get more opportunity because of the easy sources.
Question 26: A. other B. some C. many D. few
Question 27: A. where B. what C. who D. which
Question 28: A. gives B. does C. takes D. draws
Question 29: A. Besides B. Therefore C. Moreover D. However
Question 30: A. way B. exit C. access D. order
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Some doctors think that you should drink a glass of water each morning. You should drink this water first
thing, before doing anything else. The temperature of the water should be similar to body temperature; neither
too hot nor too cold.
Why should you drink this water? Water helps your body in many ways. It helps clean out your kidneys.
It prepares your stomach for digestion. Water can also help your intestines work better. After drinking water,
the intestines can more easily take out nutrients from our food. Water also helps us go to the bathroom more
easily.
Scientists suggest that people take in 1,600 milliliters of water each day. But don't drink all of that water
in one sitting. If you do, your kidneys will have to work much harder to eliminate it. It's better to drink some
in the morning and some in the afternoon. Some people think it's better to drink between meals and not during
meals. They think water dilutes the juices produced in our stomachs. This can interfere with normal digestion.
Are you drinking enough water every day? Check the color of your urine. If it is light yellow, you are
probably drinking enough. If your urine is very dark yellow, you probably need to drink more water. A little
more water each day could make you much healthier.
(Adapted from Reading Challenge 1 by Casey Malarcher and Andrea Janzen)
Question 31: The pronoun “It” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. your kidney B. your body C. your stomach D. water
Question 32: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. You shouldn't drink too much water at the same time.
B. Drinking water while having meals may interfere with normal digestion.
C. You need to drink more water if your urine is light yellow.
D. The first thing you should do every morning is to drink water.
Question 33: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. How to drink water correctly? B. The advice of the doctors
C. The importance of water D. The best amount of water to drink
Question 34: The word "eliminate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. absorb B. process C. preserve D. remove
Question 35: According to the passage, water is good for the following organs of the body, EXCEPT _______
A. intestines B. livers C. kidneys D. stomach
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Times are tough. The nightly news is filled with stories of people who have lost their jobs due to the
economic crisis, or lost their homes in a fire or natural disaster. Have you ever seen people who have just
endured an awful situation? Some focus on what they have lost, and this is easy to understand. But other
people focus on what they did not lose, and they start thinking about a better future.
One good piece of advice to remember is that you cannot always control situations or other people. The
only thing you can control is your own personal reaction to bad situations. Sometimes a situation may really
be overwhelming. However, in many cases, you really can influence our own moods by the way you think
about negative situations.
Imagine two families: Both have lost their homes and all their belongings in a devastating storm. One
family cannot mask their grief. They feel that everything they hold dear has been destroyed. They cannot
imagine how they will ever be able to replace things and start over again. Their normal life seems to have
been completely lost. In contrast, a second family is crying with joy. All of the people in their family are
unharmed and safe. This family is just happy that everyone has survived. This family is already trying to figure
out how they can recover. You can't really blame the first family for experiencing a very normal reaction to a
terrible situation. However, the second family certainly seems to be better off. They are thinking about making
progress rather than focusing on the tragic events.
Though this scenario is extreme, everyone experiences setbacks that seem just awful at the time. This
could be a job loss, illness, or problems with family members. Nobody gets through life without having some
bad things happen. In these situations, try to focus on the steps you can take to remedy the situation, instead
of how awful the setback is. By doing this, you will be laying the foundation for a better tomorrow. And you
will not suffer as much pain today.
Actually, controlling how you feel and trying to maintain a positive attitude can help you through many
tough situations. The bottom line is, no matter what the problem is, you are more likely to fix it if you can stay
positive and work out a plan. Also, never be afraid to seek help when you need it. The advice of a friend,
family member, or even a professional may be all it takes to get back on track.
It may sound like a cliché. While a positive attitude may not be the answer to every problem, it can
certainly give you an advantage in surviving most of life's minor setbacks.
(Adapted from "Select Readings - Upper Intermediate" by Linda Lee and Erik Gundersen)
Question 36: According to paragraph 5, what is the major thing you should do when you have troubles?
A. Ask other people for help when necessary. B. Control your emotions.
 C. Be optimistic and make out a plan. D. Determine how serious the problem is.
Question 37: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. To have a good foundation for the future, you should not undergo bad situations today.
B. Everyone will suffer some terrible experiences in their life.
C. The thing people have to remember is managing their own reaction to bad situations.
D. Paying attention to the solutions of the setback is better than focusing on the damage it causes.
Question 38: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Keeping positive or negative thoughts is the own choice of each person
B. There seems to have more pessimists than optimists
C. Being optimistic is an effective way to get over bad situations
D. Positive thoughts are necessary conditions to be successful
Question 39: The word "grief" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. problem B. disappointment C. sorrow D. damage
Question 40: The word “scenario” in paragraph 4 mostly means ___________.
A. circumstance B. background C. trouble D. imagination
Question 41: It can be inferred from the third paragraph that _______.
A. your attitude will decide the way you react to terrible situations
B. optimists often suffer less terrible situations than pessimists
C. disappointment and sadness are all people's common emotions in terrible situations
D. your attitude in terrible situations is more important than how serious the problems are
Question 42: What does the word "they” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. tragic events B. the second family C. all of the people D. the first family
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43: The novel was so (A) interesting that I read them (B) from the beginning (C) to the end in (D) 4
hours.
A. so B. them C. the beginning D. in
Question 44: Nowadays, sleeping (A), resting, and drinking (B) fruit juice were (C) the best ways to cure for
(D) a cold.
A. sleeping B. drinking C. were D. for
Question 45: I don't think (A) it would be political (B) to ask (C) for loan just now (D).
A. don't think B. political C. ask D. just now
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: She bought a new mobile phone 3 years ago.
A. She hasn't bought a new mobile phone for 3 years.
B. She has bought a new mobile phone for 3 years.
C. She didn't buy a new mobile phone 3 years ago.
D. She bought a new mobile phone for 3 years.
Question 47: "I'm sorry I have to leave so early," he said.
A. He apologized for having to leave early. B. He imagined having to leave early.
C. He urged to have to leave early. D. He denied having to leave early.
Question 48: If I were you, I would go to bed early every day.
A. You must go to bed early every day. B. You needn't go to bed early every day.
C. You should go to bed early every day. D. You may not go to bed early every day.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: He did not appear at work. His colleagues then became suspicious.
A. Having become suspicious, he did not appear at work.
 B. Not until he hadn't appeared at work did his colleagues become suspicious.
C. Had his colleagues become suspicious, he wouldn't appear at work.
D. Only after his colleagues became suspicious did he not appear at work.
Question 50: I deeply regret having spoken to her so severely yesterday. She was badly hurt.
A. She must have been badly hurt because I had spoken to her severely yesterday.
B. If only I could apologize to her for having spoken to her so severely yesterday.
C. I wish I hadn't spoken to her so severely yesterday.
D. If I hadn't spoken to her so severely yesterday, she wouldn't be badly hurt.
-------THE END-----
ĐỀ ÔN THI No 6
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Mã đề: 06
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 1: It's two years since I paid a visit to Canada.
A. I didn't visit Canada two years ago.
B. I have paid a visit to Canada since last year.
C. I have been in Canada for two years.
D. I haven't come back to Canada for two years.
Question 2: "Tom, stop playing with the knife, or else you will get a cut." said the father.
A. The father asked Tom to play with the knife.
B. The father warned Tom not to play with the knife.
C. The father accused Tom of getting a cut.
D. The father ordered Tom to get a cut.
Question 3: Evidence shows that the athletes won a lot of medals with hard practice for the games.
A. The athletes might have practiced hard for the games.
B. The athletes must have practiced hard for the games.
C. The athletes should have practiced hard for the games.
D. The athletes couldn't have practiced hard for the games.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 4: In the past, polite men had stood up when women entered the room.
A. In B. polite C. had stood up D. entered
Question 5: Kate didn't enjoy the roller coaster ride because it was the most terrifying experience of their life.
A. enjoy B. coaster ride C. the most terrifying D. of their
Question 6: As the students were working on their projects, the teacher was walking around the classroom
and peering at their work.
A. were working B. the teacher C. around D. peering
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 7 to 11.
The common cold is the world's most widespread illness, which is plagues that flesh receives. The most
widespread fallacy of all is that colds are caused by cold. They are not. They are caused by viruses passing on
from person to person. You catch a cold by coming into contact, directly or indirectly, with someone who
already has one. If cold causes colds, it would be reasonable to expect the Eskimos to suffer from them forever.
But they do not. And in isolated arctic regions, explorers have reported being free from colds until coming
into contact again with infected people from the outside world by way of packages and mail dropped from
airplanes.
 During the First World War soldiers who spent long periods in the trenches cold and wet showed no
increased tendency to catch colds. In the Second World War, prisoners at the notorious Auschwitz
concentration camp, naked and starving, were astonished to find that they seldom had colds.
At the Common Cold Research Unit in England, volunteers took part in experiments in which they gave
themselves to the discomforts of being cold and wet for long stretches of time. After taking hot baths, they put
on bathing suits, allowed themselves to be sipped with cold water, and then stood about dripping wet in drafty
room. Some wore wet socks all day while others exercised in the rain until close to exhaustion. Not one of the
volunteers came down with a cold unless a cold virus was actually dropped in his nose.
If, then, cold and wet have nothing to do with catching cold, why are they more frequent in the winter?
Despite the most painstaking research, no one has yet found the answer. One explanation offered by scientists
is that people tend to stay together indoors more in cold weather than at other times, and this makes it easier
for cold viruses to be passed on. No one has yet found a cure for the cold. There are drugs and pain suppressors
such as aspirin, but all they do is to relieve the symptoms.
(Adapted from Doc Hieu Tieng Anh THPT by Hoang Tuan, NXB Giao Duc)
Question 7: The reading passage mainly discusses _________.
A. the reason and the way of catching colds B. the common cold during the two World Wars
\ C. the experiments on the common cold D. the continued spread of common colds
Question 8: The word "fallacy" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. epidemics B. disbelief C. illness D. misconception
Question 9: Which of the following does NOT agree with the reading passage?
A. The Eskimos do not suffer from colds all the time.
B. A person may catch a cold by touching someone who already has one.
C. Colds are not caused by cold.
D. People suffer from colds just because they like to stay indoors.
Question 10: Volunteers taking part in the experiments in the Common Cold Research Unit ________.
A. often caught colds B. never caught colds C. suffered a lot D. became very
strong
Question 11: The word "they” in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. cold viruses B. scientists C. people D. common colds
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 12: No one survived the plane crash, ________?
A. didn't he B. don't they C. did they D. didn't they
Question 13: The system which was installed two years ago _________ to meet customers' needs recently.
A. has been upgraded B. is upgraded C. have been upgraded D. has upgraded
Question 14: There will be a sharp increase __________ the number of student enrolments for vocational
training this year.
A. on B. in C. from D. with
Question 15: The closer it gets to December 21st, the first day of winter, _________.
A. the short the days become B. the days become shorter
C. the shortest the days become D. the shorter the days become
Question 16: The report form is available on the two _________ discs in my drawer.
A. small round green B. small green round C. green small round D. round small green
Question 17: Ann ________ more when the allotted time was over, which annoyed other students.
A. were writing B. had written C. wrote D. was writing
Question 18: Jane had butterflies in her stomach _________ having prepared carefully for the interview.
A. due to B. though C. despite D. because
Question 19: ___________ there, organizers will have made final preparations for the festival.
A. After all the guests had come B. By the time all the guests come
C. When all the guests will come D. Until all the guests come
Question 20: Mountaineers ________ climb Mount Everest must make reservations to do so, often up to
seven years in advance.
A. they want to B. who wanted C. want to D. wanting to
Question 21: Researchers who are conducting a survey may find it __________ to talk to experts in the field.
A. advantaged B. disadvantaged C. advantageous D. advantageously
Question 22: Everyone in the room burst into laughter when he _______ the other man so well.
A. looked up B. sent off C. called up D. took off
Question 23: People are supposed to avoid _______ their own beliefs on others in any case.
A. focusing B. breaking C. imposing D. judging
Question 24: The magic show had a lot of __________ participation, with people shouting things to the
performers and going up on stage.
A. viewer B. watcher C. audience D. passer-by
Question 25: She knew that her father _________ when he threatened to ground her if she failed the test.
A. was a glutton for punishment B. meant business
C. was like a red rag to a bull D. hit the nail on the head
Question 26: I bought that camera with a real _________. It's cheaper than I expected.
A. trade B. chance C. bargain D. price
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 27: A. existed B. complained C. repaired D. conveyed
Question 28: A. ink B. smile C. cite D. life
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 29 to 33.
Although the plane is the fastest means of transport, the idea of travelling by plane does not appeal to everyone
because of the frequent delays. It is extremely frustrating when you allow yourself (29) _________. of time
to get to the airport and - once there - it is brought to your (30) _________ that there is a problem with your
flight. The staff at the check-in are trying to convince you that it won't be long before the problem is solved.
Yet, hours later you feel let down, as you continue waiting patiently for your boarding call. Of course, you
won't gain anything by complaining. By this stage, you realize you are going to miss your connecting flight
and now you must change your bookings. You feel as if you're never going to get to your destination. (31)
________, there is a slight chance that you could be one of the lucky ones spending the night at a top-class
hotel at the expense of the airline (32) _________ caused your problem in the first place. Admittedly, you
would rather be heading for your original destination. Regular (33) _______ advise us just to accept the fact
that no matter how frustrating this situation might be, it's unavoidable and shouldn't affect us that much.
(Adapted from Use of English for All Exams by E Moutsou)
Question 29: A. several B. little C. many D. plenty
Question 30: A. warning B. interest C. view D. attention
Question 31: A. As a result B. Therefore C. However D. So
Question 32: A. where B. when C. who D. which
Question 33: A. guests B. visitors C. customers D. clients
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 34 to 40.
Roman gladiators are intriguing figures in history. We get "gladiator" from the Latin word gladius, which
means sword. Gladiators were professional combatants who originally performed, to the death, at Etruscan
funerals. The losers became armed attendants in the next world to the person whose funeral was being held.
In Rome, these exhibitions became very popular and increased in size from 3 pairs at the first known
exhibition in 264 B.C. to 300 pairs in the middle of the first century B.C. These spectacles increased to as
many as 100 pairs under the emperor Titus, while the emperor Trajan in 107 A.D. had 5,000 pairs of gladiators
for his triumph.
There were various classes of gladiators, distinguished by their arms or modes of fighting. The Samnites
fought with the national weapons - a large oblong shield, a visor, a plumed helmet, and a short sword.
Thracians had a small round shield, called a buckler. And a dagger curved like a scythe. They usually fought
the Mirmillones, who were armed in the Gallic fashion with helmet, sword and shield. Similarly, a Retiarius
or net man, was often matched with a Secutor, or pursuer. The net man wore nothing but a short tunic or apron
and tried to entangle the fully armed pursuer with the cast net he carried in his right hand. If successful, the
net man dispatched the pursuer with a large, three pronged weapon called a trident, which the net man carried
in his left. Others fought on horseback, and some carried a short sword in each hand. There were also gladiators
who fought from chariots and others who tried to lasso their antagonists.
Gladiators came from a variety of social classes. Though they were usually slaves and criminals, a ruined
man of high social position might hire himself out as a gladiator. Emperor Domitian had unusual gladiators,
dwarfs and women, and the half-mad emperor Commodus fought in the arena, where he won his bouts with
the aid of his Praetorian Guard.
To a victorious gladiator was given branches of palm and sometimes money. If they survived a number of
combats, they were often freed from gladiatorial service. However, many gladiators reentered after discharge.
Some became politically important bodyguards to controversial politicians.
(Adapted from Peterson's master TOEFL reading skills)
Question 34: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The emperors of Rome B. The social status of gladiators
C. The life of Roman gladiators D. The weapons used in the Roman arena
Question 35: According to the passage, where did gladiators originally perform?
A. In Roman arenas B. At Etruscan funerals C. In Trajan's triumph D. At Thracian cities
Question 36: Which of the words below is closest in meaning to the word "spectacles” as used in paragraph
2?
A. Displays B. Eyeglasses C. Prospects D. Corpses
Question 37: The word "They” in paragraph 3 refers to which of the following?
A. Daggers B. Samnites C. Thracians D. Gladiators
Question 38: All of the following were used as weapons by gladiators EXCEPT _________.
A. a trident B. a cast net C. a buckler D. a tunic
Question 39: Which word is closest in meaning to the word "antagonists” as used in paragraph 2?
A. Injured soldiers B. Enemies C. Horsemen D. Fighters
Question 40: From the passage, it can be inferred that
A. emperors fought on horseback. B. gladiators could become Emperor.
C. gladiators sometimes gained their freedom. D. emperors enjoyed fighting gladiators.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 41: David is talking to Tom about their final project plan.
- David: "When will you give us your final decision?”
- Tom: “_________”
A. It will be nice. B. I am working here.
C. A fortnight. How does that sound? D. Don't know.
Question 42: Tung and Hoa are talking about time management skills.
- Tung: "I reckon that time management skill is very essential to our study."
- Hoa: “____________. We should spend our time wisely to study well."
A. It's time to go B. I quite agree with you C. That's wrong D. I can't think about
it
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 43: A. select B. practice C. involve D. review
Question 44: A. survival B. influence C. consequence D. obstacle
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 45: All the students were all ears when the teacher started informing them about the changes in the
final test.
A. attentive B. smiling C. restless D. silent
Question 46: If the examiner can't make sense of what your essay is about, you'll get a low mark.
A. understand B. declare C. estimate D. communicate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 47: My father's really out of shape, so he starts exercising at the gym.
A. out of work B. worried and stressed C. physically fit D. always joyful
Question 48: She has a bee in her bonnet about online shopping and it is the subject of most of her
conversations.
A. has intention of shopping online soon B. talks about everything but online shopping
C. has no idea about online shopping D. gives others advice about online shopping
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Jenifer missed her chance to be promoted. What a shame!
A. Jenifer regretted having wasted her chance to be promoted.
B. If only Jenifer had seized her chance of promotion.
C. That Jenifer missed her chance to be promoted is shameful for all.
D. Despite feeling ashamed, Jenifer lost her chance of promotion.
Question 50: I locked the room. I realized I hadn't turned off the stove.
A. Had I not locked the room, I would have turned on the stove.
B. Hardly had I forgot to turn off the stove than I locked the room.
C. Only when I turned off the stove did I realize that I had locked the room.
D. Not until I locked the room did I realize that I hadn't turned off the stove.
-------THE END-----

ĐỀ ÔN THI NO 7
Mã đề thi 07
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 1: A. believed B. contained C. attracted D. delayed
Question 2: A. angry B. abandon C. danger D. language
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. historic B. marvelous C. dedicate D. similar
Question 4: A. cover B. party C. human D. preserve
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 5: "Why don't you take part in Miss Universe 2021?" said Adam.
A. Adam reminded me to take part in Miss Universe 2021.
B. Adam advised me to take part in Miss Universe 2021.
C. Adam prevented me from taking part in Miss Universe 2021.
D. Adam dreamed of taking part in Miss Universe 2021.
Question 6: He last ate Chinese food two months ago.
A. The last time he ate Chinese food was for two months.
B. He didn't eat Chinese food two months ago.
 C. He has eaten Chinese food for two months.
D. He hasn't eaten Chinese food for two months.
Question 7: She probably buys this house next week.
A. She should buy this house next week. B. She must buy this house next week.
C. She doesn't have to buy this house next week. D. She may buy this house next week.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
People who daydream are often thought of in negative terms, such as being lazy or not doing what
they should be doing. However, scientists who study the brain have learned many interesting things,
especially from studying the brains of daydreamers. In fact, far from being a waste of time, some scientists
believe that daydreaming is a healthy and useful activity for all of our brains.
In order to study the brain, scientists use special devices that scan the brain and show pictures of
which parts of the brain are active at certain times. By using this technique, they proved that when a person
is daydreaming, the device will show a distinct pattern of activity in the brain called the "default" mode
of thinking. In the default mode, the top or outside part of the brain is very active. Actually, several regions
of the brain are interacting in this mode. Some scientists describe this mode as a time when the brain focuses on
itself rather than focusing on the environment around the person. Typically, this occurs when a person is doing
simple, tedious work or performing routine actions that don't need much attention, like walking to school or
cooking simple foods. People tend to daydream during such activities.
The importance of daydreaming lies in developing both creative and social skills. When the mind is
not engaged in dealing with one's immediate situation or problem, then it is free to wonder about things. A
time of wandering allows the mind to create things. New inventions may be imagined, or possible solutions
to a problem can be planned. For example, solutions for problems in relationships with other people may
come to mind. In fact, most daydreams involve situations with others. Perhaps these are daydreams based
on memories of the past, or daydreams of what might be in the future. In either case, daydreams help
us develop the appropriate skills we can use in real interactions with others.
As neurologist Dr. Marcus Raichle of Washington University explains: "When you don't use a muscle, that
muscle really isn't doing much. But when your brain is supposedly doing nothing and daydreaming, it's really
doing a tremendous amount." During the so-called "resting state" the brain isn't resting at all!
Question 8: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How is daydreaming different from sleeping? B. Can daydreams reduce the hours we sleep?
C. Who daydreams more, men or women? D. Why is daydreaming good for people?
Question 9: The word "they" in the second paragraph refers to _________.
A. scientists B. pictures C. devices D. parts
Question 10: Which of the following is NOT involved in daydreaming?
A. one's immediate environment B. the outside part of the brain
C. several regions of the brain D. the default mode of thinking
Question 11: What does the brain focus on in the "default" mode?
A. routine actions B. a person's immediate situation
C. itself D. appropriate relationships
Question 12: The word "wonder" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. drag B. consume C. question D. celebrate
Question 13: According to the reading, which of the following would NOT be a result of letting the mind
wonder about things?
A. new invention B. a solution to a problem
C. a way to act in a relationship D. a job that needs close attention
Question 14: What does Raichle mean by the quote used in the reading?
A. The brain develops one's muscles. B. The brain is different than a muscle.
C. The brain and our muscles both need rest. D. The brain is a lot like a muscle.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 15: They _______ this story by their grandmother when they visited her last week.
A. were telling B. tell C. told D. were told
Question 16: Mr. John is held in high _______ for his dedication to the school.
A. respect B. esteem C. homage D. honor
Question 17: Before each game, the coach would give the team a _______ talk to keep the spirit up.
A. motivation B. motivator C. motivational D. motivate
Question 18: We _______ our PowerPoint presentation on the theme: "UNESCO World Heritage Sites” when
the computer broke down.
A. were giving B. gave C. give D. are giving
Question 19: _______ the reading comprehension questions are, the more interested the boy becomes.
A. Most difficult B. The more difficult C. More difficult D. The most difficult
Question 20: They will have suffered from coldness and hunger for 6 hours _______ them on a snow covered
mountain.
A. by the time we find B. after we had found
C. when we found D. as soon as we had found
Question 21: Street vendors can _______ a fortune from humble tea stalls with dirt cheap nosh and
simple drinks.
A. take B. hold C. cost D. make
Question 22: He was studying the similarities and differences _______ humans and animals.
A. with B. between C. of D. for
Question 23: _______ the COVID-19 pandemic, online education is adopted in almost all places of the world.
A. Because of B. In spite of C. Because D. Though
Question 24: Mom, it isn't safe to go on vacation at present, _______?
A. did it B. was it C. is it D. does it
Question 25: There is a _______ table, which is a gift from my best friends on my housewarming.
A. wooden large round beautiful B. beautiful large round wooden
C. beautiful round large wooden D. large beautiful round wooden
Question 26: The letters he would write were full of doom and _______. We still do not know what made him
so depressed.
A. gloom B. tuck C. duck D. drib
Question 27: ________ the instructions twice, I still couldn't understand how to use this machine.
A. Being read B. Read C. Having read D. To read
Question 28: He didn't tell anyone about his situation, he kept it under his _______.
A. hat B. rug C. bag D. tongue
Question 29: In these difficult times, the company may have to _______ up to 100 laborers.
A. take up B. turn down C. put off D. lay off
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 30: The results of my oral exam are out today so I hope they don't put it up on the notice board.
A. my B. today C. they D. it
Question 31: The company made improper use of highly confident information, such as names and addresses
of its customers.
A. improper B. confident C. such as D. customers
Question 32: Many countries were now concerned by the low level of economic activity.
A. Many B. were C. by D. low level
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 33: He has been jobless and often has to ask his parents for money.
A. unemployed B. excited C. surprised D. exhausted
Question 34: Overhunting is an activity that results in a serious reduction of species population or harm
to wildlife.
A. loss B. decrease C. consequence D. rise
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 35: I would go mad if I had to do a dead-end job.
A. boring B. demanding C. fascinating D. monotonous
Question 36: He is very stubborn but flattery usually works like a charm on him.
A. has no effect on B. has a strong effect on
C. is completely successful in D. turns out to be a disaster for
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 37: A student is asking the librarian to help her to fax a report.
- Student: "Could you help me to fax this report?"
- Librarian: “____________”
A. It's very kind of you to say so. B. Sorry, I have no idea.
C. Certainly, what's the fax number? D. What rubbish! I don't think it's helpful.
Question 38: Jolie is reading a magazine on famous people, asking her friend.
- Jolie: "Do you think celebrities today tend to focus more on wealth rather than achievements?"
- Jolie's friend: “___________. And this sets bad examples for young people."
A. It's out of the question B. I think you're right on this
C. I think they focus more on achievements D. Not at all

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Going Inside Black Holes
One of the strangest phenomena in the universe is the black hole. For years, scientists have studied black
holes in an (39) ______ to better understand how they function. Like vacuum cleaners, black holes will suck
up anything (40) ______ crosses their path. The incredible sucking power that black holes generate comes
from gravity. They can quickly swallow up anything including planets, space debris, and anything else
imaginable. Even light cannot escape the (41) ______ of black holes. Since they are able to pull in light, black
holes are nearly impossible to see even with high-powered telescopes. (42) ______, scientists are able to detect
the presence of black holes in space because of their effect on an observed area.
Black holes can originate in a few ways. One type of black holes occurs when a star comes to the end of
its lifecycle and it dies in a supernova explosion. They can also occur when the mass of a neutron star becomes
so great that it collapses in on itself. Black holes may also occur when several large and dense stars collide
with one (43) _____in space.
Question 39: A. attempt B. impression C. experience D. effect
Question 40: A. who B. whose C. what D. that
Question 41: A. embrace B. achievement C. grasp D. catch
Question 42: A. Moreover B. In fact C. However D. Therefore
Question 43: A. other B. another C. others D. each
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Carnegie Hall, the famous concert hall in New York City, has again undergone a restoration. While this
is not the first, it is certainly the most extensive in the building's history. As a result of this new
restoration, Carnegie Hall once again has the quality of sound that it had when it was first built. Carnegie Hall
owes its existence to Andrew Carnegie, the wealthy owner of a steel company in the late 1800s. The Hall
was finished in 1891 and quickly gained a reputation as an excellent performing arts hall where
accomplished musicians gained fame. Despite its reputation, however, the concert hall suffered from several
detrimental renovations over the years. During the Great Depression, when fewer people could afford to
attend performances, the directors sold part of the building to commercial businesses. As a result, a coffee
shop was opened in one corner of the building, for which the builders replaced the brick and terra cotta walls
with windowpanes. A renovation in 1946 seriously damaged the acoustical quality of the hall when the makers
of the film Carnegie Hall cut a gaping hole in the dome of the ceiling to allow for lights and air vents. The
hole was later covered with short curtains and a fake ceiling but the hall never sounded the same afterwards.
In 1960, the violinist Isaac Stern became involved in restoring the hall after a group of real estate
developers unveiled plans to demolish Carnegie Hall and build a high-rise office building on the site. This
threat spurred Stern to rally public support for Carnegie Hall and encourage the City of New York to buy the
property. The movement was successful, and the concert hall is now owned by the city. In the current
restoration, builders tested each new material for its sound qualities, and they replaced the hole in the ceiling
with a dome. The builders also restored the outer walls to their original appearance and closed the coffee shop.
Carnegie has never sounded better, and its prospects for the future have never looked more promising.
Question 44: This passage is mainly about ________.
A. Carnegie Hall's history during the Great Depression
B. changes to Carnegie Hall
C. the appearance of Carnegie Hall
D. damage to the ceiling in Carnegie Hall
Question 45: The word "it" in the first paragraph refers to ________.
A. Carnegie Hall B. restoration of C. New York City D. a plan
Question 46: What major change happened to the hall in 1946?
A. The stage was renovated.
B. Space in the building was sold to commercial businesses.
C. The walls were damaged in an earthquake.
D. The acoustic dome was damaged.
Question 47: What was Isaac Stern's relationship to Carnegie Hall?
A. He opened a coffee shop in Carnegie Hall during the Depression.
B. He tried to save the hall, beginning in 1960.
C. He made the movie "Carnegie Hall" in 1946.
D. He performed on opening in 1891.
Question 48: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "unveiled" in paragraph 3?
A. restricted B. overshadowed C. announced D. located
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Mike didn't follow his parents' advice on choosing his career. He regrets it now.
A. As long as Mike follows his parents' advice on choosing his career, he won't regret.
B. If only Mike followed his parents' advice on choosing his career.
C. If Mike had followed his parents' advice on choosing his career, he would regret it now.
D. Mike wishes he had followed his parents' advice on choosing his career.
Question 50: The researchers developed the first flu vaccination recently. There was a reliable
protection against flu in this country.
A. But for the first flu vaccination, there wouldn't be a reliable protection against flu in this country.
B. Not until the researchers developed the first flu vaccination recently was there a reliable protection
against flu in this country.
C. So reliable was the protection against flu in this country that the researchers developed the first flu
vaccination recently.
D. Scarcely the researchers developed the first flu vaccination recently when there was a reliable
protection against flu in this country.
-----THE END------
 ĐỀ ÔN NO 8
Mã đề thi: 08
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 5.
The outbreak of COVID-19 is an unprecedented public health crisis, touching nearly all countries and
(1) _______ across the world. The health impacts of COVID-19 are devastating and, rightly, in the forefront
of our minds, cross our media, and impacting people's lives and livelihoods across the world. One of the most
tangible outcomes of COVID-19 is the ever-increasing socio-economic gap between learners. Over 365
million children are missing out on important school feeding programmes (2) _______ keep them healthy and
motivated to learn. Moreover, families may be pushed to (3) _______ to negative coping mechanisms to meet
their needs, including child labour or reducing the number and quality of meals at a time when staying healthy
and keeping a strong immune system is particularly important. Home learning may itself be a source of stress
for families and learners, with pressure to take on new responsibilities. Many children are suffering from
anxiety, living without access to the internet or other means required to benefit from distance learning. (4)
_______ older children are stressed about missing months of education (5) _______ they have to care for
younger children in the home while parents and caregivers are working.
(Adapted from https://en.unesco.org/news/)
Question 1: A. communities B. contexts C. basics D. backgrounds
Question 2: A. who B. when C. which D. why
Question 3: A. mitigate B. resort C. offer D. worry
Question 4: A. Some B. Others C. Much D. Every
Question 5: A. although B. as C. therefore D. however
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 6: The last time I was going swimming was when I was in Nha Trang.
A. The last time B. was going C. was D. I was
Question 7: Sharks can detect minute electrical discharges coming from its preys.
A. can detect B. electrical C. coming D. its
Question 8: The expert says progress and economical development depend on educating children.
A. says B. economical C. depend D. educating
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 9: John began playing the piano 10 years ago.
A. John played the piano 10 years ago.
B. John has played the piano for 10 years.
C. John used to play the piano 10 years ago.
D. John doesn't play the piano anymore.
Question 10: “You ought to take a break, Andrew”, said Matthew.
A. Matthew advised Andrew to take a break.
B. Matthew asked Andrew to take a break.
C. Matthew suggested Andrew to take a break.
D. Matthew suggested Andrew took a break.
Question 11: Every student is required to write an essay on the topic.
A. Every student might write an essay on the topic.
B. Every student must write an essay on the topic.
C. They require every student can write an essay on the topic.
D. Every student should write an essay on the topic.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 12: The car driver in front stopped so suddenly. Therefore, the accident happened.
A. If the car driver in front didn't stop so suddenly, the accident wouldn't happen.
B. If the car driver in front hadn't stopped so suddenly, the accident wouldn't have happened.
C. If the car driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident would have happened.
D. If the car driver in front had stopped suddenly, the accident would have happened.
Question 13: Harry had packed his luggage. After that, he loaded it into the car and set off for the airport.
A. Packing his luggage, Harry loaded it into the car and set off for the airport.
B. Only after Harry had packed his luggage, did he load it into the car and set off for the airport.
C. No sooner had Harry packed his luggage when he loaded it into the car and set off for the airport.
D. Not until had Harry packed his luggage did he load it into the car and set off for the airport.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 14: A. mended B. objected C. waited D. reached
Question 15: A. nice B. rise C. light D. gift
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 16: A. replace B. happen C. discuss D. destroy
Question 17: A. production B. concentrate C. company D. interview
Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 18: You'll be home before midnight, _______?
A. will you B. won't you C. are you D. aren't you
Question 19: In both adults and children, the intake of free sugars should _______ to less than 10% of total
energy intake.
A. be reduced B. reduce C. be reducing D. reduced
Question 20: As far as I can judge, she was completely unaware _______ the seriousness of the situation.
A. on B. about C. of D. with
Question 21: _______ she is, the more attractive she gets.
A. More beautiful B. The most beautiful C. Most beautiful D. The more
beautiful
Question 22: Andrea has a _______ rug on the floor in her bedroom.
A. sheepskin lovely white B. white lovely sheepskin
C. lovely sheepskin white D. lovely white sheepskin
Question 23: Since we came here, we _______ a lot of acquaintances.
A. have had B. had C. have D. are having
Question 24: _______ making up just 4 percent of the world's population, our nation produces a sobering
13 percent of all global CO2 emissions.
A. Although B. Despite C. Because D. Because of
Question 25: _______, she had studied English.
A. Before she came to London B. By the time she comes to London
C. While she was in London D. After she came to London
Question 26: _______ to the party, we could hardly refuse to go.
A. Having invited B. To have invited C. Having been invited D. To have been
invited
Question 27: Economic growth is an increase in the _______ of economic goods and services, compared from
one period of time to another.
A. produce B. productive C. production D. productively
Question 28: They decided to _______ their journey till the end of the month because of the epidemic.
A. take up B. turn round C. put off D. do with
Question 29: Our basketball team successfully _______ the championship.
A. protected B. held C. assured D. defended
Question 30: Since Elgin was fired from the university, he has been forced to work hard to earn his _______.
A. tuition B. debt C. livelihood D. finance
Question 31: He refused to eat meat that had been fired. He had _______ in his bonnet about it causing
cancer.
A. a bug B. a bee C. a bull D. an ant
Question 32: The inner city's traffic eventually came to a _______ as the seriously-injured
accident happened.
A. delay B. inaction C. standstill D. gridlock
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 33: Recognised as a World Heritage Site in 1983, the Taj Mahal Complex, including the
tomb, mosque, guest house, and main gate, has preserved the original qualities of the buildings.
A. initial B. ancient C. unique D. perfect
Question 34: It's a common practice to look at the person you are talking to.
A. exercise B. policy C. skill D. habit
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 35: Overpopulation in big cities has severely affected the air and water quality.
A. seriously B. insignificantly C. largely D. commonly
Question 36: We have been discussing unimportant things all morning. Let's get the show on the road and
start getting down to business.
A. paying all attention to the work B. putting off doing what needs to be done
C. getting involved in what we are doing D. placing trust in someone
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 37: Peter is in Hanoi and wants to change some money. He asks a local passer-by the way to
the bank.
- Peter: "Can you show me the way to the nearest bank, please?”
- Passer-by: “____________”
A. No way, sorry. B. Just round the corner over there.
C. Look it up in a dictionary! D. There's no traffic near here.
Question 38: John and Jenifer are talking about a book they have just read.
- John: "The book is really interesting and educational."
- Jenifer: “_____________.”
A. Don't mention it B. That's nice of you to say so
C. I'd love it D. I couldn't agree more
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
It was widely reported last year that sales of guidebooks are falling fast, thanks to developments in
the Internet and mobile phones. It makes sense. Why bother taking a heavy book with you when you can down
all the information you need to your phone as you walk around the cathedral?
Writing a new book about a place is a rewarding job, but one that is becoming a rarity. Publishers are more
concerned with keeping existing books up to date than bringing out new ones in an already crowded market.
This is understandable, since every guidebook is actually out of date as soon as it is published. It may have
been researched a year before being printed and it could have sat on the bookshop shelf for a year or two, so
its information might be three years old by the time the reader uses it in practice. It is hardly surprising,
therefore, that some publishers are inviting almost as much in updating and redesigning their books as they
did creating them. Updating guides is nowadays a good way for new writers to get started.
 But if the Internet via a mobile phone can deliver information just as well as printed paper but much faster,
at almost no cost, is there a future for printed guidebook? Other books you read at home, but a travel guide's
main purposes for urgent reference when you're desperate to find accommodation or somewhere to eat. Using
a modern cellphone, any traveller can now enjoy a “paperless holiday”. Want to know the opening times of
the museum? Look them up online. Need some information on the ancient building you're standing in?
Download it.
(Adapted from Cambridge FCE book)
Question 39: Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. Guidebooks Flourishing Despite the IT Revolution?
B. Enjoying a Paperless Holiday
C. Guidebooks in Decline: What's the Future?
D. Guidebooks on the Brink of Extinction
Question 40: The word "rewarding” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. satisfying B. disappointing C. worthless D. frustrating
Question 41: In paragraph 2, before writing and publishing their books, _______.
A. publishers usually spend a year researching information needed for their books
B. many publishers still prefer an already crowded market for their books
C. publishers' actions may prove incomprehensible to lay people
D. some publishers find almost as many resources to the update and redesign of their books as to
the creation of them
Question 42: The word "them” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. purposes B. books C. times D. guides
Question 43: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The primary aim of a travel guide is for suggestions when travellers are in a hurry.
B. Before embarking on a journey, most people bring with them a guidebook in case they get into trouble.
C. The information found in a guidebook is always up-to-date and reliable.
D. Users cannot obtain information about the opening times of museums on the Internet.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
It is estimated that by 2050 more than two thirds of the world's population will live in cities, up from about
54 percent today. While the many benefits of organized and efficient cities are well understood, we need to
recognize that this rapid, often unplanned urbanization brings risks of profound social instability, risks to
critical infrastructure, potential water crises and the potential for devastating spread of disease. These risks
can only be further exacerbated as this unprecedented transition from rural to urban areas continues.
How effectively these risks can be addressed will increasingly be determined by how well cities
are governed. The increased concentration of people, physical assets, infrastructure and economic
activities mean that the risks materializing at the city level will have far greater potential to disrupt society
than ever before.
Urbanization is by no means bad per se. It brings important benefits for economic, cultural and
societal development. Well managed cities are both efficient and effective, enabling economies of scale and
network effects while reducing the impact on climate of transportation. As such, an urban model can make
economic activity more environmentally-friendly. Further, the proximity and diversity of people can spark
innovation and create employment as exchanging ideas breeds new ideas.
But these utopian concepts are threatened by some of the factors driving rapid urbanization. For example,
one of the main factors is rural-urban migration, driven by the prospect of greater employment
opportunities and the hope of a better life in cities. But rapidly increasing population density can create severe
problems, especially if planning efforts are not sufficient to cope with the influx of new inhabitants. The result
may, in extreme cases, be widespread poverty. Estimates suggest that 40% of the world's urban expansion is
taking place in slums, exacerbating socio-economic disparities and creating unsanitary conditions that
facilitate the spread of disease.
The Global Risks 2015 Report looks at four areas that face particularly daunting challenges in the face
of rapid and unplanned urbanization: infrastructure, health, climate change, and social instability. In each of
these areas we find new risks that can best be managed or, in some cases, transferred through the mechanism
of insurance.
(Adapted from https://www.zurich.com)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Infrastructure and Economic Activities in Cities
B. The Risks of Rapid Urbanization in Developing Countries
C. What Has Driven Rapid Urbanization?
D. The Global Risks 2015 Report on Developing Countries
Question 45: The word "profound” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. meaningful B. severe C. deep D. right
Question 46: The word “It” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. Population B. Development C. Urbanization D. Unsanitary
condition
Question 47: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 3?
A. Urbanization minimizes risks for economic, cultural and societal development.
B. Urbanization makes water supply system both efficient and effective.
C. Weather and climate in the city will not be improved.
D. People may come up with new ideas for innovation.
Question 48: The word "disparities” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. inequalities B. developments C. advantages D. outcomes
Question 49: According to the passage, urban expansion facilitates the spread of disease because _______.
A. most of the world's urban expansion is taking place in slums
B. too many people hope for a better life in cities
C. employment opportunities in cities are greater
D. poverty cannot be eliminated thoroughly
Question 50: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. About 54% of the world's population will live in cities by 2050.
B. Risks cannot be addressed effectively no matter how well cities are governed.
C. Urbanization brings important benefits for development as well.
D. Rapidly increasing population density can help solve poverty.
------THE END-----

ĐỀ ÔN No 9
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Mã đề 09
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 1 to 7.
Companies big and small are plotting their post-pandemic working futures, and it seems likely that
ever fewer of us will fully return to the office as it was before. If the Covid-19 crisis subsides and economies
can largely reopen, the experiences of so many people working from home over the past year will surely
shape what happens next. For many of us, this could emerge as a return to the office for three days a
week. Patterns will obviously vary, but a common thread would be something like Monday, Tuesday and
Thursday in the office and Wednesday and Friday at home.
This coming shift will largely be driven by employers making a calculation between two different, equally
important forces. One is what companies see as the need for in-person creativity and connections, which will
spur their desire to bring people back into offices. For many, we are at our most creative working face to face,
meeting people, talking over lunch and coffee, or gathering in groups. At home, however, we tend to be more
efficient in the daily tasks that make up much of working life. This is the competing force that may keep many
of us out of the office, even after Covid. Working at home under the right conditions - which means in your
own room with good broadband and no children around - can be highly efficient. This greater efficiency on
current tasks also combines with other factors, like the time saved by avoiding the daily commute, offering a
compelling reason for people to stay at home. The past year of Covid home working has perhaps opened many
more people's eyes to this.
As companies come to decisions on new working arrangements, they will be essentially making a
basic trade-off: the expectation of greater creativity in new projects at the office, but greater productivity on
existing tasks at home. And, as with most trade-offs, the right answer is not all or nothing - but something
in the middle. Employees seem to prefer this working pattern too. In a recent survey of 5,000 employees
in Britain, working in the office for three days a week was the most popular choice. Not only is this
pattern more efficient for companies, then, but it also helps to keep employees happy and motivated.
(Adapted from https://www.theguardium.com)
Question 1: Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. Advantages of home working B. Home working: happier and more efficient
C. Post-pandemic working pattern D. While-pandemic working pattern
Question 2: The word “One” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. Calculation B. Shift C. Employer D. Force
Question 3: The word "compelling” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. effective B. various C. convenient D. sensible
Question 4: What can be inferred about future working arrangements from this passage?
A. Employees should consider the benefits of a new working pattern.
B. Many businesses are likely to opt for a new working pattern.
C. Businesses must apply a new working pattern for the sake of their employees.
D. Many employers' awareness of a new working pattern needs raising.
Question 5: According to the passage, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT:
A. Working at home can save time spent on the daily commute.
B. Companies still want to have staff at office to increase their creativity.
C. Working at home is productive under proper conditions.
D. The Covid-19 pandemic will not affect future working arrangement.
Question 6: The word “spur" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. force B. encourage C. limit D. discourage
Question 7: According to paragraph 2, which of the following would best facilitate working from home?
A. Well-equipped working place B. Daily commuting between home and office
C. Good internet connection and no kids surrounding D. Face to face interaction with co-workers
Mark: the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 8: Are you willing to take on the job, with all of its associated risks?
A. collaborated B. joined C. separated D. related
Question 9: Cats rub their bodies against their owners' legs to show their affection.
A. message B. love C. feelings D. movement
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 10: It isn't necessary for us to prepare a present for him.
A. We needn't prepare a present for him. B. We can't prepare a present for him.
C. We shouldn't prepare a present for him. D. We may not prepare a present for him.
Question 11: They have owned this car for three and a half years.
A. They bought this car three and a half years ago.
B. They was buying this car for three and a half years.
C. This car belonged to them for three a half years.
D. They have bought this car for three and a half years.
Question 12: “I am sorry mum, I slipped and broke the glass” the boy said.
 A. The boy apologized to his mum for breaking the glass.
B. The boy denied having broken the glass.
C. The boy told his mum to break the glass.
D. The boy refused to have broken the glass.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 13: He is an economist who believes in the advantages of _______ competition.
A. rich B. healthy C. fertile D. wealthy
Question 14: _______ the apartment is, the cheaper the rent is.
A. The smaller B. Smaller C. Smallest D. The smallest
Question 15: I'm going to take part in this contest, _______?
A. hasn't I B. don't I C. am I D. aren't I
Question 16: More than 120,000 people _______ by the two atomic bombs in Hiroshima and Nagasaki
in August, 1945.
A. were killing B. were killed C. killed D. kill
Question 17: I will send you the report _______________.
A. until I received it B. after I had received it
C. the moment I receive it D. when I received it
Question 18: We are _______ an experiment to test how the metal reacts with water.
A. getting B. doing C. making D. taking
Question 19: Maintaining biodiversity is important _______ us in many ways.
A. for B. about C. with D. of
Question 20: I have the greatest respect for his ideas _______ I don't agree with them.
A. although B. because of C. in spite of D. because
Question 21: _______ difficult times together, they were very close friends.
A. Lived through B. To live through C. Having lived through D. Being lived
through
Question 22: Scientists discovered the _______ butterfly at the Park Floral in Paris.
A. beautiful French pink B. pink beautiful French
C. beautiful pink French D. French beautiful pink
Question 23: The new regulations may cause more _______ among the teachers.
A. confuse B. confused C. confusion D. confusing
Question 24: I _______ a terrifying dream when the alarm clock went off at six o'clock this morning.
A. had B. is having C. have D. was having
Question 25: You're refusing to speak to her now, but I suspect you'll feel differently in the cold _______
of day.
A. night B. air C. light D. time
Question 26: We need to find the _______ cause of our employees’ lack of motivation.
A. origin B. roof C. base D. root
Question 27: They _______ our electricity because we hadn't paid the bill.
A. put off B. took off C. got off D. cut off
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 28: A. accept B. support C. window D. employ
Question 29: A. embarrass B. introduce C. defining D. encourage
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 30: When I told him what I'd done to his car, he was obviously very angry. He was literally shaking
with rage.
 A. furious B. relaxed C. anxious D. upset
Question 31: Journalists shouldn't spend their time digging up dirt on celebrities. It's not in the
public interest
A. publishing positive information B. providing positive information
C. investigating negative information D. concealing negative information
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 32 to 36.
In a major policy revision intended to encourage more schools to welcome children back to in-
person instruction, federal health officials on Friday relaxed the six-foot distancing rule for elementary
school students, saying they need only remain three feet apart in classrooms as long as everyone is wearing a
mask. The three-foot rule also now applies to students in middle schools and high schools, as long as (32)
_______ transmission is not high, officials said. When transmission is high, (33) _______, these students must
be at least six feet apart, unless they are taught in cohorts, or small groups that are kept separate from others
and the cohorts are kept six feet apart. The six-foot rule still applies in the community at large,
officials emphasized, and for teachers and other adults (34) _______ work in schools, who must maintain
that distance from (35) _______ adults and from students. Most schools are already operating at least partially
in person, and evidence suggests they are doing so relatively safely. Research shows in-school spread can be
mitigated with simple safety (36) _______ such as masking, distancing, hand-washing and open windows.
(Adapted from https://www.nytimes.com/)
Question 32: A. publicity B. society C. community D. nation
Question 33: A. however B. and C. moreover D. but
Question 34: A. that B. whose C. which D. who
Question 35: A. other B. the other C. the others D. others
Question 36: A. means B. procedures C. approaches D. measures
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 37: Nam and his tutor are talking about the entrance examination into high schools.
Nam: “I think it is not sensible to ask students to take 4th subject in this entrance examination."
Tutor: “__________. This will put unnecessary pressure on them."
A. I am not so sure B. That's not true
C. Absolutely D. I completely disagree
Question 38: Kathy and Barbara are talking about Kathy's new dress.
Barbara: “Where did you buy this nice dress?”
Kathy: “____________”
A. It's very beautiful, isn't it? B. It's at my house.
C. My mum bought it. D. At the boutique on Park Avenue.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 39: The film was frightening. The children remained perfectly calm during the film.
A. Frightening though the film was, the children remained perfectly calm.
B. So frightening was the film that the children remained perfectly calm.
C. Frightening as was the film, the children remained perfectly calm.
D. But for the frightening film, the children remained perfectly calm.
Question 40: I'd prefer to be out with my friends. I have too much homework now.
A. I wish I had no homework now and can be out with my friends.
B. If only I didn't have too much homework now and could be out with my friends.
C. If I don't have much homework now, I will be out with my friends.
D. Provided I have no homework now, I will be out with my friends.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 41 to 45.
 In a recent interview with Quartz, an online publication, Bill Gates expressed skepticism about society's
ability to manage rapid automation. To prevent a social crisis, he mused, governments should consider a tax on
robots; if automation slows as a result, so much the better. It is an intriguing if impracticable idea, which
reveals a lot about the challenge of automation. Mr. Gates argues that today's robots should be taxed
either their installation, or the profits firms enjoy by saving on the costs of the human labour displaced. The
money generated could be used to retrain workers, and perhaps to finance an expansion of health care
and education, which provide lots of hard-to-automate jobs in teaching or caring for the old and sick.
Mr. Gates seems to suggest that investment in robots is a little like investing in a coal-fired generator: it
boosts economic output but also imposes a social cost, what economists call a negative externality.
Perhaps rapid automation threatens to remove workers from old jobs faster than new sectors can absorb them.
That could lead to socially costly long-term unemployment, and potentially to support for destructive
government policy. A tax on robots that reduced those costs might well be worth implementing, just as a tax
on harmful blast-furnace emissions can discourage pollution and leave society better off. Reality, however, is
more complex. Investments in robots can make human workers more productive rather than expendable;
taxing them could leave the employees affected worse off. Particular workers may suffer by being displaced
by robots, but workers as a whole might be better off because prices fall. Slowing the use of robots in
health care and herding humans into such jobs might look like a useful way to maintain social stability. But if
it means that health-care costs grow rapidly, gobbling up the gains in workers' income.
(Adapted from https://www.economist.com/finance-und-economics)
Question 41: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Bill Gates' proposal for taxing robots B. Bill Gates' opposition to taxing robots
C. Bill Gates' opinion on automation D. Bill Gates' support for automation
Question 42: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. robot B. investment C. generator D. cost
Question 43: The word “displaced” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. changed B. located C. replaced D. exchanged
Question 44: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT TRUE about Gates' idea of
taxing robots?
A. A tax on robots might have a negative impact on competitiveness and innovation.
B. Considering a tax on robots may help government to prevent a social crisis.
C. A tax on robots can be used to retrain displaced workers.
D. A tax on robots that replace human labour is a way to slow down the spread of automation.
Question 45: Employees in general may benefit from the taxation on robots because ___________.
A. they get more opportunities B. investment in robots increases
C. there is a drop in prices D. the productivity improves
Mark the letters A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 46: Women's access to position of leader and decision-making is constrained from the local
to international level.
A. leader B. decision-making C. access D. level
Question 47: Every family has their own rules, and so does mine.
A. their B. Every family C. and D. does
Question 48: At school, he is always helping other students in his class.
A. is always helping B. other C. in D. at
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 49: A. applied B. permitted C. reviewed D. dissolved
Question 50: A. bread B. dear C. dead D. head
-----THE END-----
 ĐỀ ÔN No 10
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
Mã đề: 10

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions
Question 1: Susan didn't apply for the summer job in the cafe. She now regrets it.
A. Susan wishes that she applied for the summer job in the cafe.
B. Susan feels regret because she didn't apply for the summer job in the cafe.
C. If only Susan didn't apply for the summer job in the cafe.
D. Susan wishes that she had applied for the summer job in the cafe.
Question 2: He arrived in class. He realised he had forgotten his book on the bus.
A. No sooner had he realized he had forgotten his book on the bus than he arrived in class.
B. Had he arrived in class, he would have realized he had forgotten his book on the bus.
C. Only after he had realized he had forgotten his book on the bus did he arrive in class.
D. Not until he arrived in class did he realize he had forgotten his book on the bus.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or on your answer sheer to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions
Culture is a word in common use with complex meanings, and is derived, like the term broadcasting, from
the treatment and care of the soil and of what grows on it. It is directly related to cultivation and the adjectives
cultural and cultured are part of the same verbal complex. A person of culture has identifiable attributes,
among them a knowledge of and interest in the arts, literature, and music. Yet the word culture does not refer
solely to such knowledge and interest nor, indeed, to education. At least from the 19th century onwards, under
the influence of anthropologists and sociologists, the word culture has come to be used generally both in the
singular and the plural (cultures) to refer to a whole way of life of people, including their customs, laws,
conventions, and values.
Distinctions have consequently been drawn between primitive and advanced culture and cultures, between
elite and popular culture, between popular and mass culture, and most recently between national and global
cultures. Distinctions have been drawn too between culture and civilization; the latter is a word derived not
like culture or agriculture, from the soil, but from the city. The two words are sometimes treated as
synonymous. Yet this is misleading. While civilization and barbarism are pitted against each other in what
seems to be a perpetual behavioural patter, the use of the word culture has been strongly influenced
by conceptions of evolution in the 19th century and of development in the 20th century. Cultures evolve or
develop. They are not static. They have twists and turns. Styles change. So do fashions. There are cultural
processes. What, for example, the word cultured means has changed substantially since the study of
classical (that is, Greek and Roman) literature, philosophy, and history ceased in the 20th century to be central
to school and university education. No single alternative focus emerged, although with computers has
come electronic culture, affecting kinds of study, and most recently digital culture. As cultures express
themselves in new forms not everything gets better or more civilized.
The multiplicity of meanings attached to the word made and will make it difficult to define. There is no
single, unproblematic definition, although many attempts have been made to establish one. The only non
problematic definitions go back to agricultural meaning (for example, cereal culture or strawberry culture)
and medical meaning (for example, bacterial culture or penicillin culture). Since in anthropology and
sociology we also acknowledge culture clashes, culture shock, and counter-culture, the range of reference is
extremely wide.
Question 3: What is the best title of the passage?
A. the figurative meanings of the word culture B. the distinction between culture and civilization
C. the derivatives of the word culture D. the multiplicity of meanings of the word
culture
Question 4: The word "attributes" in paragraph I most likely means _________.
A. qualities B. skills C. aspects D. fields
Question 5: According to the passage, the word culture _________.
 A. comes from a source that has not been identified
B. develops from Greek and Roman literature and history
C. is related to the preparation and use of land for farming
D. derives from the same root as civilization does
Question 6: The word "static" in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by _________.
A. regular B. dense C. balanced D. unchanged
Question 7: The word "They" in paragraph 2 refers to _________.
A. Cultures B. Developments C. Evolutions D. Conceptions
Question 8: Which of the following is NOT stated in the passage?
A. The use of the word culture has been changed since the 19th century.
B. Distinctions have been drawn between culture and civilization.
C. The word culture can be used to refer to a whole way of life of people.
D. Anthropology and sociology have tried to limit the references to culture.
Question 9: It can be inferred from the passage that since the 20th century, _________.
A. classical literature, philosophy, and history have not been taught as compulsory subjects
B. all schools and universities have taught classical literature, philosophy, and history
C. schools and universities have not taught classical literature, philosophy, and history
D. classical literature, philosophy, and history have been considered as core subjects
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 10: ______ the age of 21, he was able to gamble in Las Vegas.
A. When reached B. Reached C. As reaching D. Upon reaching
Question 11: John's ______ and efficiency at the company led to his promotion to Sales Manager.
A. punctuality B. punctual C. punctuate D. punctually
Question 12: I try to be friendly but it is hard to ______ some of my colleagues.
A. get on with B. watch out for C. come up with D. stand in for
Question 13: They ______ ends meet when they were young even they had to work hard.
A. came B. made C. did D. had
Question 14: The ______ of living in some places can be very high. Prices in London are particularly
exorbitant.
A. value B. price C. worth D. cost
Question 15: Jimmy always takes the ______ by the horns at every chance in order to become a famous
pop star, which is why he is so successful now.
A. bull B. horse C. cow D. buffalo
Question 16: Environmental groups try to stop farmers from using harmful ______ on their crops.
A. economy B. agriculture C. investments D. chemicals
Question 17: This is what we need for our new house, ________?
A. is it B. isn't this C. isn't it D. don't we
Question 18: The ancient houses ______ by the fire. They are now under reconstruction.
A. were destroyed B. destroyed C. have destroyed D. were destroying
Question 19: Jenny reminds me ______ that famous actress we saw on television last night.
A. about B. to C. of D. with
Question 20: ______ you plan, the better the result will be.
A. The most carefully B. The carefully C. The more carefully D. Carefully
Question 21: Her husband bought her a ______ scarf when he went on holiday in Singapore last week.
A. beautiful silk yellow B. beautiful yellow silk
C. yellow silk beautiful D. yellow beautiful silk
Question 22: After David ______ his homework, he went straight to bed.
A. had finished B. has finished C. was finished D. finished
Question 23: I have decided to buy that house, I won’t change my mind ______ what you say.
 A. no matter B. although C. because D. whether
Question 24: I will tell him to call you ______.
A. as soon as he returned B. until I saw him C. when he returns D. after I'd seen him
Mark the letter A, B, C, or on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s)in each of the following questions.
Question 25: People of diverse background now go to different places for pleasure, business or education
A. different B. distant C. beautiful D. isolated
Question 26: When I was going shopping yesterday, I accidentally met one of my old friends in high school.
A. repeatedly B. regularly C. unexpectedly D. rarely
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 27: A. approached B. noticed C. supported D. finished
Question 28: A. funny B. rubbish C. upper D. student
Mark the letter A, B, C, or to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary
stress in each of the following questions.
Question 29: A. cartoon B. answer C. reason D. paper
Question 30: A. remember B. dedicate C. memorize D. clarify
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 31: Today, illegal hunting still threatens many species, especially large mammals such as tigers,
rhinoceros, bears and even primates.
A. allowed by law B. forbidden by law C. introducing a law D. imposing a law
Question 32: Tom was too wet behind the ears to be in charge of such a difficult task.
A. full of experience B. lack of responsibility C. without money D. full of sincerity
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 33: Cindy informs her aunt about her high school graduation exam results.
- Cindy: "Aunty, I've passed the exam with flying colours."
- Aunt: “__________________”
A. Sorry to hear that. B. That's right. C. Congratulations! D. How many
colours?
Question 34: Sarah and Kathy are talking about bad habits of children.
- Sarah: "Children under ten shouldn't stay up late to play computer games."
- Kathy: “_____________. It's not good for their health."
A. I don't quite agree with you B. Yes, I share your opinion
C. You are absolute wrong D. Surely, they shouldn't
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.
Some doctors think that you should drink a glass of water each morning. You should drink this water
first thing, before doing anything else. The temperature of the water should be similar to body temperature;
neither too hot nor too cold.
Why should you drink this water? Water helps your body in many ways. It helps clean out your kidneys.
It prepares your stomach for digestion. Water can also help your intestines work better. After drinking water,
the intestines can more easily take out nutrients from our food. Water also helps us go to the bathroom more
easily.
Scientists suggest that people take in 1,600 milliliters of water each day. But don't drink all of that water
in one sitting. If you do, your kidneys will have to work much harder to eliminate it. It's better to drink some
in the morning and some in the afternoon. Some people think it's better to drink between meals and not during
meals. They think water dilutes the juices produced in our stomachs. This can interfere with normal digestion.
Are you drinking enough water every duy? Check the color of your urine. If it is light yellow, you are
probably drinking enough. If your urine is very dark yellow, you probably need to drink more water. A
little more water each day could make you much healthier.
 (Adapted from Reading Challenge 1 by Casey Malarcher and Andrea Janzen)
Question 35: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The importance of water B. The advice of the doctors
C. How to drink water correctly? D. The best amount of water to drink
Question 36: According to the passage, water is good for the following organs of the body, EXCEPT
_________.
A. kidneys B. stomach C. intestines D. livers
Question 37: The pronoun "It" in paragraph 2 refer to _________.
A. your body B. your kidney C. water D. your stomach
Question 38: The word "eliminate" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_________.
A. preserve B. remove C. absorb D. process
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. The first thing you should do every morning is to drink water.
B. You shouldn't drink too much water at the same time.
C. Drinking water while having meals may interfere with normal digestion.
D. You need to drink more water if your urine is light yellow.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 40: It is necessary that one met a lawyer before signing an important contract.
A. that B. met C. before signing D. important
Question 41: A vulnerable species is one that is likely to become extinct if the circumstances threatening their
survival do not improve.
A. vulnerable B. to become C. their D. do not
Question 42: Many successful film directions are former actors who desire to expand their experience in
the film industry.
A. successful B. film directions C. former D. expand
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 43: I haven't met my grandparents for five years.
A. I often met my grandparents five years ago. B. I last met my grandparents five years ago.
C. I have met my grandparents for five years. D. I didn't meet my grandparents five years ago.
Question 44: "No, no, you really must stay a bit longer!" said the boys.
A. The boys denied my staying a bit longer. B. The boys refused to let me stay a bit longer.
C. The boys didn't agree to let stay a bit longer. D. The boys insisted on my staying a bit longer.
Question 45: You are not permitted to use your mobile phone during the test.
A. You should use your mobile phones during the test.
B. You may use your mobile phone during the test.
C. You mustn't use your mobile phones during the test.
D. You needn't use your mobile phones during the test.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Have you ever had the feeling that people older than you are hard to understand? Or, have you felt like
people from younger generations just don't get it? Maybe you find it easier to connect with people (46)
_______ are closer to your age than those who are older or younger than you. You can probably thank the
generation gap for these feelings. There are currently six generations living in the United States: the
Greatest Generation, Silent Generation, Baby Boomers, Generation X, Millennials, and Generation Z. (47)
_______ generation has its own unique set of characteristics and norms. For (48) _______, the Greatest
Generation (born 1901-1924) is known for its patriotism, hard workers, and loyalty to institutions. The
Millennials (born 1980-2000) are characterized by their dependence on technology, detachment from
traditional institutions, optimism, and open-mindedness. It is no (49) _______ that many people from different
generations have a hard time understanding each other. Generation gap refers to differences in actions, beliefs,
interests, and opinions that (50) _______ between individuals from different generations. So, what causes
these differences?
(Adapted from https://study.com)
Question 46: A. who B. which C. when D. what
Question 47: A. Another B. Very C. All D. Each
Question 48: A. answer B. process C. example D. study
Question 49: A. wonder B. picture C. business D. training
Question 50: A. trade B. exist C. credit D. target
-----THE END------

Mã đề 11 ĐỀ ÔN THI No 11
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the
following question.
Question 1: In many western cultures, the White Lily is a flower that is representative of purity
and sweetness.
A. marvelous B. advantageous C. symbolic D. universal
Question 2: I can't figure out Daisy's attitude toward the trip - she is blowing hot and cold about it. First she's
all excited, but then she seems reluctant to go.
A. keeps going B. keeps changing her mood
C. keeps making you confused D. keeps talking about trivial things
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the following question.
Question 3: It is a good idea to drink as much fruit juice as possible in order to get enough vitamins for
our bodies.
A. We should drink as much fruit juice as possible in order to get enough vitamins for our bodies.
B. We can drink as much fruit juice as possible in order to go enough vitamins for our bodies.
C. We ought not to drink as much fruit juice as possible in order to get enough vitamins for our bodies.
D. We must drink as much fruit juice as possible in order to get enough vitamins for our bodies.
Question 4: I didn't have a chance to visit my hometown until recently.
A. Only recently did I have a chance to visit my hometown.
B. A chance to visit my hometown came up by sudden until recently.
C. Recently my dream of visiting my hometown would come true.
D. Only recently I had a chance to visit my hometown.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each of the numbered blanks.
People all around the world are more and more associated with social networking, (5) _____ is a useful tool
for those in the digital era. Social networking aims at promoting and aiding communication. (6) _____, this
type of technology may be doing more (7) _____ than good. It is not only changing how we communicate,
but how we associate with each other in everyday life. Sarah Zay, of USA Today, expressed that “With the
growth of websites such as Facebook, social networking may be (8) _____ of replacing traditional personal
interactions for the future generation”. Traditional interactions will continue to be at risk if we don’t (9) _____
the impacts of our social media. Social networking affects our lives in many ways, including our
communication, self-expression, bullying, isolations, companionships, and even our very own sense of
humanity.
Question 5: A. which B. it C. that D. this
Question 6: A. Moreover B. Otherwise C. However D. As a result
Question 7: A. benefits B. harm C. drawbacks D. disadvantages
Question 8: A. at danger B. at risk C. on edge D. on the verge
Question 9: A. admit B. realize C. recognize D. find
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions.
Robots are useful for exploring and working in space. In particular, many robots have been sent to explore
Mars. Such robots have usually looked like a box with wheels. Though these robots are useful, by their very
nature they are unreliable, extremely expensive, and they break easily. Also, they cannot do many tasks.
Because of these problems, scientists have been developing a new and unusual kind of robot. These new robots
move like snakes, so they have been given the name ‘snakebots’.
The way a snake is shaped lets it get into very small spaces, like cracks in rocks. It can also push its
way below the ground or climb up different kinds of objects like high rocks and trees. Such abilities account
for the usefulness of a robot designed like a snake. A snakebot would be able to do these things, too, making
it much more effective than regular robots with wheels, which easily get stuck or fall over. Since they
can carry tools, snakebots would be able to work in space, as well. They could, for example, help repair
the International Space Station.
But how can such a robot shape be made? A snakebot is built like a chain made of about thirty parts,
or modules. Each module is basically the same in that they all have a small computer and a wheel to
aid movement. The large computer in the "head" of the snake makes all of the modules in a snakebot
work together.
The modular design of the snakebot has many advantages. If one module fails, another can be added easily.
Snakebot modules can also carry different kinds of tools, as well as cameras. Since each module is actually a
robot in itself, one module can work apart from the rest if necessary. That is, all the modules can separate and
move on their own, and then later, reconnect back into a larger robot. Researchers are also trying to develop
snakebots made of a special kind of plastic that can change its shape using electricity, almost like animal
muscles. Snakebots made with this plastic will be very strong and hard to break.
Overall, the snakebot design is much simpler than that of common robots. Thus, snakebots will be
much less expensive to build. For example, a robot recently sent to Mars cost over a hundred million
dollars, whereas snakebots can cost as little as a few hundred dollars. With their versatility and affordability,
snakebots seem to be the wave of the future, at least as far as space robots are concerned.
Question 10: What is the focus of this reading?
A. The mission of the first working snakebot B. Similarities between snakes and robots
C. How snakebots were invented D. What a snakebot looks like and can do
Question 11: What does the word in bold "they" in the second paragraph refer to?
A. Wheels B. these things C. regular robots D. snakebots
Question 12: Which of the following best describes the attitude of the author toward the new kind of robot?
A. appreciate B. disapprove C. admire D. criticize
Question 13: Why are snakebots useful for exploring other planets?
A. They can move freely. B. They have many modules.
C. They will be made of plastic. D. They can fly.
Question 14: What could cause a snakebot to fail?
A. If it fell into a hole B. If its head came off
C. If all its modules were broken D. If its tail were broken
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions.
The coming decades will witness considerable changes in the way energy is supplied and utilized. In some
major oil-producing nations "peak oil" has already been reached, and they are unable to manufacture so much
oil as in the past. Consequently, many countries are focusing on the switch to a low carbon economy
considering global warming as well. This transition will lead to major changes in the supply and use of
electricity. To meet these challenges, countries are investing in Smart Grid technology.
Smart Grid technology basically involves the application of a computer system to the electricity
network. The computer system can be used to collect information about supply and demand. With better
information about electricity demand, the network will be able to increase the amount of electricity delivered
per unit generated, leading to potential reductions in fuel needs and carbon emissions.
Smart Grid technology brings benefits to the consumer too. They will be able to collect real-
time information on their energy use. Varying tariffs throughout the day will give customers the incentive to
use appliances at times when supply greatly exceeds demand, leading to great reductions in bills. Smart
meters can also be connected to the internet or telephone system, allowing customers to switch appliances on
or off remotely.
However, we are facing a range of challenges related to these changes. The first involves managing
the supply and demand. Sources of renewable energy such as wind, wave and solar are
notoriously unpredictable, and nuclear power, which is also set to increase as nations switch to alternative
energy sources is inflexible. With oil and gas, it is relatively simple to increase the supply of energy to match
the increasing demand during peak times of the day or year. With alternative sources, this is far more
difficult, and may lead to blackouts or system collapse. Potential solutions include investigating new and
efficient ways to store energy and encouraging consumers to use electricity at off-peak times.
Another problem is that a number of renewable power generation sources are located in remote areas, such
as windy uplands and coastal regions, where there is a lack of electrical infrastructure. New infrastructures
therefore must be built. Thankfully, with improved smart technology, this can be done more efficiently by
reducing the reinforcement or construction costs.
Though Smart Technology is still in its infancy, pilot schemes to promote and test it are already underway.
Consumers are currently testing the new smart meters which can be used in their homes to manage electricity
use. There are also a number of demonstrations being planned to show how the smart technology could
practically work and trials are in place to test the new electrical infrastructure. Cities are prime candidates for
investment into smart energy, due to the high population density and high energy use it is here where Smart
Technology is likely to be promoted first utilising a range of sustainable power sources, transport solutions
and an infrastructure for charging electrically powered vehicles. The infrastructure is already changing fast.
By the year 2050, changes in the energy supply will have transformed our homes, our roads and our behavior.
Question 15: According to paragraph 1, what has happened in some oil producing countries?
A. The supply of oil is unpredictable
B. They are unwilling to sell their oil any more
C. They are not producing as much oil as they used to
D. Global warming more severe here than in other countries
Question 16: Which of the following is NOT a benefit of Smart Grid technology to consumers?
A. It can reduce the amount of energy needed to power appliances.
B. It can tell them how much energy each appliance is using.
C. It can allow them to turn appliances on and off when they are not at home.
D. It can reduce their electricity bills.
Question 17: According to paragraph 4, what is the problem with using renewable sources of power?
A. They can't be used at off-peak times.
B. They do not provide much energy.
C. They always cause system failure and blackouts.
D. They do not supply a continuous flow of energy.
Question 18: In paragraph 6, what can be inferred about cities in the future?
A. Smart Grid technology will only be available in cities.
B. More people will be living in cities in the future than nowadays.
C. All buildings will generate their own electricity.
D. People in cities will be using cars and buses powered by electricity.
Question 19: What does the word “it” in paragraph 6 refer to?
A. energy B. infancy C. Smart Technology D. pilot
Question 20: The word in bold "underway" in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. in progress B. complete C. permanent D. beneficial
Question 21: What is the main idea of paragraph 6?
 A. To describe how, where and when Smart Technology will be introduced
B. To describe who will benefit from Smart Grid technology first
C. To outline the advantages of Smart Grid technology
D. To summarise the main ideas in the previous paragraphs
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in the following question.
Question 22: A. looked B. decided C. finished D. helped
Question 23: A. respectable B. preservation C. reputation D. presentation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the option that best completes the following exchange.
Question 24: Binh is inviting Nam to join the football club.
- Binh: "I know you are very good at playing football. Would you like to join our club?"
- Nam: “_______________”
A. What do you think? B. What a good friend you are!
C. Yeah. That's a good idea. I'd love to. D. Yes I am very busy.
Question 25: Jane is talking to Billy about the plan for the field trip next week.
- Jane: "Are you happy with the plan we have just made?"
- Billy: “____________”
A. No, have you? B. That sounds like fun.
C. Not really. D. Yes, it is certainly.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the following question.
Question 26: What happened in the center of the city yesterday were a reaction from city workers, including
firemen and policemen who had been laid off from their jobs.
A. had been laid off B. were C. What D. including
Question 27: Echoes occur as sound waves strike a smooth surface and bounces backwards.
A. waves B. smooth C. as D. bounces
Question 28: These newly developed tablets have big batteries and are very responsible to screen taps.
A. to screen B. responsible C. batteries D. newly developed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary
stress in the following question.
Question 29: A. invite B. promise C. divide D. attract
Question 30: A. dynamic B. counterpart C. argument D. excellence
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines the following sentences into one.
Question 31: I did not do a careful preparation for the final test. I got the disappointing result.
A. If I didn't prepare carefully for the final test, I would not get the disappointing result.
B. If I had prepared carefully for the final test, I would have got the disappointing result.
C. If I hadn't prepared carefully for the final test, I would have got the disappointing result.
D. If I had prepared carefully for the final test, I wouldn't have got the disappointing result.
Question 32: Her ambition of emulating her father's success was realised after all of the hardship she had
to overcome without anybody's help.
A. As she had a successful father, she did not bother to set herself a goal to achieve.
B. She attained success after sailing through the ordeals thanks to the valuable assistance from her father.
C. The realization of her aim did not happen until she finished all of the challenging tasks set by her father
without any aid.
D. After getting over all obstacles by herself, she became as successful as her father, achieving her
ambition.
Question 33: The airplane took off, then Paul realized he was on the wrong flight.
A. Hardly had Paul realized he was on the wrong flight when the airplane took off
B. Not until the airplane had taken off did Paul realize he was on the flight.
C. No sooner had the airplane taken off than Paul had realized he was on the wrong flight.
 D. It was not until the airplane had taken off, did Paul realize he was on the wrong flight.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to the following question.
Question 34: Being burnt out after a hard day she sat down on a ________ sofa to relax.
A. comfortable black leather B. comfortable leather black
C. black leather comfortable D. black comfortable leather
Question 35: Computers offer a much greater degree of _______ in the way work can be organized.
A. flexible B. inflexible C. flexibly D. flexibility
Question 36: Mr. John has just cleaned his motorbike, ______?
A. has he B. didn't he C. did he D. hasn't he
Question 37: When Rose arrived home after a day at work, _____________.
A. her children were sleeping soundly B. her children have been sleeping soundly
C. her children slept soundly D. her children are sleeping soundly
Question 38: The harder students study for the test, ___________.
A. the higher their scores will be B. the more higher their scores
C. their scores will be higher D. the higher will be their scores
Question 39: Smoking cigarettes can cause several health problems for smokers. ________, it can affect the
health of others who breathe in second hand smoke.
A. Subsequently B. However C. Moreover D. Therefore
Question 40: "Roger, remember that you won't be able to cancel the contract __________.”
A. until you have signed B. after you are signing
C. once you've signed D. as soon as you signed
Question 41: The gardener told me that everything __________ by the end of the year.
A. will have been planted B. had been planted
C. would have been planted D. have been planted
Question 42: _________, the ancient palace is still popular with modern tourists.
A. Constructed hundreds of years ago B. It was constructed hundreds of years ago
C. Constructing hundreds of years ago D. To have constructed hundreds of years ago
Question 43: I'll give you some _______ of advice that can help you escape from the trouble.
A. piles B. sheets C. pieces D. packs
Question 44: These fish live _________ small sea creatures such as the shrimps.
A. with B. on C. by D. from
Question 45: When it comes to finding a new house, all the conditions for the sake of the children such
as education and entertainment should be ______ by parents.
A. kept pace with B. taken into account C. taken care of D. made room for
Question 46: We must get to the ________ of the problem and solve it once and for all.
A. fruit B. seed C. stem D. root
Question 47: Linda and I have been together through _______ in our friendship, and won't desert each
other now.
A. high and low B. thick and thin C. collar and tie D. null and void
Question 48: The preparations for the Olympic Games 2022 in Beijing are on _______ according to
the committee in charge.
A. target B. progress C. goal D. aim
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
the following question.
Question 49: Working long hours in basement offices, the human body clock and the hormonal system can
be disrupted by artificial light which can cause health problems.
A. genuine B. true C. natural D. real
Question 50: Suddenly my best friends are at odds with each other so now I have to see them separately.
A. on good terms with B. in conflict with
 C. on the outs with D. in disagreement with
------THE END-----
ÔN THI NO 12
Mã đề 12
Bài thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. celebrate B. confidence C. effective D. handicapped
Question 2: A. success B. access C. problem D. culture
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 3: You didn't pay enough attention. Now you ask such a question.
A. Had you paid enough attention, you wouldn't have asked such a question now.
B. Had it not been for your attention, you wouldn't ask such a question now.
C. Had you not paid enough attention, you wouldn't ask such a question now.
D. Had it not been for your inattention, you wouldn't ask such a question now.
Question 4: He is a rich man. However, he leads a simple life.
A. If he were a rich man, he would lead a simple life.
B. Rich as he is, he leads a simple life.
C. As he is rich, he leads a simple life.
D. He leads a simple life in case he is a rich man.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 5: The lion has long been a symbol of strength, power and its being cruel.
A. has long been B. symbol C. strength D. its being cruel
Question 6: The first half of the game was pretty boring because the players did not take enough effort.
A. The B. pretty C. because D. take
Question 7: Aristotle believed that everything in the universe were composed of four basic elements: earth,
water, air, and fire.
A. believed B. were C. basic D. fire
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 8: She usually spends one hour going shopping every week.
A. She usually goes to shopping one hour every week.
B. It usually takes her one hour to go shopping every week.
C. It usually takes her one hour going shopping every week.
D. It usually takes her one hour to shop on her car every week.
Question 9: "Why don't you try using a screw-driver?” he said to me.
A. He ordered me to try using a screw-driver.
B. He said that using a screw-driver didn't work.
C. He suggested to use a screw-driver.
D. He suggested that I try using a screw-driver.
Question 10: We understand that Ben wants to train to be a pilot.
A. It is understood that Ben wants to train to be a pilot.
B. It is to understand that Ben wants to train to be a pilot.
C. It understands that Ben wants to train to be a pilot.
D. Ben understands that he wants to train to be a pilot.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 11: A. hoped B. gathered C. remained D. received
Question 12: A. feature B. measure C. feather D. pleasure
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 13: What ________ at 9 o'clock last night? I phoned you but couldn't get through to you.
A. did you do B. were you doing C. would you do D. had you done
Question 14: The committee plans to ________ again in about six months.
A. conduct B. condense C. contest D. convene
Question 15: We've been together through ________ in our friendship, and we won't desert each other now.
A. bad and good B. thick and thin C. odds and ends D. high and low
Question 16: Now I do apologise for what I said about you. I know I shouldn't ________ that.
A. have said B. tell C. say D. have spoken
Question 17: Language is so ________ woven into human experience that it is scarcely possible to
imagine life without it.
A. tightly B. loosely C. rigidly D. stiffly
Question 18: I did not approve ________ people throwing trash on the streets and in public places.
A. with B. on C. at D. of
Question 19: Having been found guilty of theft, ________ to find a job in his chosen field as an accountant.
A. was it difficult for Henry Jones B. Henry Jones found it difficult
C. did Henry Jones found difficult D. it was found by Henry Jones difficult
Question 20: The more she practises, ________ she becomes.
A. the more confident B. the most confident
C. the greater confidence D. the more confidently
Question 21: The man was wearing a ________ shirt.
A. fashionable cotton blue B. blue cotton fashionable
C. cotton fashionable blue D. fashionable blue cotton
Question 22: We decided ________ at home this afternoon.
A. staying B. stay C. having stayed D. to stay
Question 23: Meteorologists use special________ to measure changes in the weather.
A. instrument B. instruments C. instrumental D. instrumentation
Question 24: When they give you the contract, please ________ the document before you sign it.
A. go over B. sum up C. see to D. check in
Question 25: Everyone in both cars was injured in the accident last night, ________?
A. weren't they B. wasn't he C. was he D. were they
Question 26: In Korea, all men have to ________ military service for a period of time in their lives.
A. do B. make C. have D. take
Question 27: My father still seems optimistic ________ many difficulties he has to overcome.
A. though B. whatever C. despite D. but
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.
Question 28: Sophia and Kyoko talked to each other about how to learn English.
- Sophia: "How did you learn English?"
- Kyoko: “________________.”
A. I picked it up from movies and songs
B. I found it very difficult when I started learning it
C. I've learned English for about 10 years
D. I liked learning English very much
Question 29: Burt and Kevin talked about Burt's absence from the class.
- Burt: "Why didn't you show up for class this morning?"
- Kevin: “__________. You know, I live far from the school."
A. It's a fine day B. My car broke down
C. It's not the case D. That's good
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 30: A person who suffers from stage fright is easily intimidated by a large audience.
A. improved B. encouraged C. applauded D. frightened
Question 31: The Native Americans would not allow anyone to trespass on their sacred burial ground.
A. holy B. public C. private D. secret
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 32: This is a difficult topic. Please, explain it in plain language.
A. easy B. complicated C. different D. detailed
Question 33: The captain ordered his troops to advance when they were attacked by the enemy.
A. retreat B. conquer C. gather D. remain
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word(s) to each of the questions.
You get off your plane and make your way to the Baggage Reclaim area. After quite some time
spent waiting, there is no sign of your bags and you begin to consider the possibility that they may have gone
(34) ________. What should you do?
Firstly, don't panic. The most likely (35) ________ is that your bags simply didn't make it onto the
flight, perhaps because they were mislaid at the departure airport, or perhaps because the aircraft had already
(36) ________ its weight allowance. If they fail to appear on the carousel, report the loss before you leave
the baggage hall and go through customs. Recovering your luggage should be no problems, (37)
________ you've kept hold of your baggage checks – those little barcodes stuck to the back of your tickets at
check-in.
Go to the handling agent's desk and complete a Property Irregularity Report (PIR) form, (38) ________
describes the checked bag and its contents. Then, ask the baggage-service manager for a contact telephone
number and confirm that your bags will be forwarded to your final destination.
Question 34: A. lost B. missing C. absent D. misplaced
Question 35: A. example B. understanding C. clarification D. explanation
Question 36: A. surpassed B. overtaken C. exceeded D. outdone
Question 37: A. as soon as B. provided C. so that D. already
Question 38: A. that B. what C. which D. how
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Each advance in microscopic technique has provided scientists with new perspectives on the function
of living organisms and the nature of matter itself. The invention of the visible-light microscope late in
the sixteenth century introduced a previously unknown realm of single-celled plants and animals. In
the twentieth century, electron microscopes have provided direct views of viruses and minuscule
surface structures. Now another type of microscope, one that utilizes X-rays rather than light or electrons,
offers a different way of examining tiny details; it should extend human perception still farther into the
natural world.
The dream of building an X-ray microscope dates to 1895; its development, however, was virtually
halted in the 1940's because the development of the electron microscope was progressing rapidly. During the
1940's, electron microscopes routinely achieved resolution better than that possible with a visible-
light microscope, while the performance of X-ray microscopes resisted improvement. In recent years,
however, interest in X-ray microscopes has revived, largely because of advances such as the development of
new sources of X-ray illumination. As a result, the brightness available today is millions of times that of X-
ray tubes, which, for most of the century, were the only available sources of soft X-rays.
 The new X-ray microscopes considerably improve on the resolution provided by optical microscopes.
They can also be used to map the distribution of certain chemical elements. Some can form pictures
in extremely short times; others hold the promise of special capabilities such as three-dimensional
imaging. Unlike conventional electron microscopy, X-ray microscopy enables specimens to be kept in air and
in water, which means that biological samples can be studied under conditions similar to their natural state.
The illumination used, so-called soft X rays in the wavelength range of twenty to forty angstroms (an angstrom
is one ten-billionth of a meter), is also sufficiently penetrating to image intact biological cells in many cases.
Because of the wavelength of rays used, soft X-ray microscopes will never match the highest resolution
possible with electron microscopes. Rather, their special properties will make possible investigations that will
complement those performed with light- and electron-based instruments.
Question 39: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Sources of illumination for microscopes B. The detail seen through a microscope
C. Outdated microscopic technique D. A new kind of microscope
Question 40: According to the passage, the invention of the visible-light microscope allowed scientists to
________.
A. understand more about the distribution of the chemical elements
B. develop the electron microscope later on
C. discover single-celled plants and animals they had never seen before
D. see viruses directly
Question 41: The word “minuscule" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. complex B. tiny C. circular D. dangerous
Question 42: Why does the author mention the visible-light microscope in the first paragraph?
A. To explain how it functioned
B. To show how limited its uses are
C. To begin a discussion of sixteenth century discoveries
D. To put the X-ray microscope in historical perspective
Question 43: Why did it take so long to develop the X-ray microscope?
A. Funds for research were insufficient
B. The source of illumination was not bright enough until recently
C. Materials used to manufacture X-ray tubes were difficult to obtain
D. X-ray microscopes were too complicated to operate
Question 44: The word "those" in paragraph 3 refers to ________
A. investigations B. microscopes C. properties D. X-rays
Question 45: Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about X-ray microscopes in
the future?
A. They will eventually change the illumination range that they now use
B. They will provide information not available from other kinds of microscopes.
C. They will eventually be much cheaper to produce than they are now.
D. They will probably replace electron microscopes altogether.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Apples are one of the healthiest foods you can eat every day. A traditional American proverb states:
"An apple a day keeps the doctor away". But it does not specifically say anything about the best time of day
to eat apples. It is generally believed that eating an apple in the morning is good for people, but eating an
apple in the evening is like eating poison.
There is actually a scientific reason behind this belief. One benefit of apples is that they are a
favorable source of fructose, which is a natural form of sugar that gives you a big boost of energy. The energy
you get from an apple is longer lasting than that provided by a cup of coffee. Clearly, this is something most
people would rather experience in the morning than right before bedtime.
Apples also contain high levels of pectin, a kind of dietary fiber. Fiber stimulates bowel
movements, which help maintain the health of your digestive system. But if you eat an apple shortly before
going to bed, this can cause problems. While you are asleep, your bowels can fill up with gas, making you
feel bloated and uncomfortable. You may also wake up several times to use the bathroom, which will prevent
you from getting a good night's sleep.
Other health benefits of apples come from flavonoids, beta carotene, and B vitamins. Flavonoids are
the material that gives flowers and fruits their bright colors, such as the deep red of apples. When
eaten, flavonoids can decrease your risk of heart disease, diabetes, and other illnesses. Meanwhile, beta
carotene helps prevent cancer, and B vitamins provide the body with a wide variety of important
benefits. Apparently, starting your day with an apple really can keep the doctor away.
Question 46: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Apples are not as good as people may think. B. Eating an apple in the morning proves
beneficial.
C. Pectin can cause digestive problems at night. D. Flavonoids are as good as beta carotene.
Question 47: The word "that" in paragraph 2 refers to ________
A. an apple B. energy C. sugar D. a cup of coffee
Question 48: The word "stimulates” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________
A. prevents B. avoids C. encourages D. creates
Question 49: Which of the following gives people a big boost of energy?
A. Fructose B. Flavonoids C. Beta Carotene D. Pectin
Question 50: Which of the following is TRUE about flavonoids?
A. They make apples' colors brighter than those of other fruits.
B. They are less important than beta carotene and B vitamins.
C. They help prevent the risks of several health problems.
D. They may lead to the feeling of being bloated and uncomfortable.
------THE END------

ĐỀ ÔN THI No 13
Mã đề 13 Bài thi môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát để

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 1: Jane is talking to Mary about her new handbag.
- Jane: "What a fashionable handbag you have got, Mary!"
- Mary: “_____________.”
A. Thank you very much. I am afraid B. You are telling a lie
C. Thank you. I bought it in London D. I don't like your sayings
Question 2: David is talking about air pollution in their city.
- David: "Too many vehicles on the streets cause not only air pollution but also many other problems.”
- Mary: “______________. Noise pollution and road accidents are becoming increasingly serious."
A. I couldn't agree more B. Are you absolutely sure?
C. Oh, I don't know D. That really surprises me.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. capture B. picture C. ensure D. pleasure
Question 4: A. enormous B. annoying C. similar D. dependent
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: She's finished the course, ________?
A. isn't she B. doesn't she C. didn't she D. hasn't she
Question 6: My wedding ring _______ of yellow and white gold.
A. is made B. is making C. made D. maked
Question 7: Jim is _______ London, looking after his aunt in the hospital.
A. on B. onto C. in D. from
Question 8: _______ we walk, the sooner we will get there.
A. The more quick B. The C. The most quickly D. The more quickly
Question 9: They take their _______ children to the park every day.
A. lovely African small young B. African small young lovely
C. lovely small young African D. young lovely African small
Question 10: He was playing football when he _______.
A. fallen over B. fell over C. was falling D. fall over
Question 11: She is fed up with sharing a house with others; _______, she is looking for her own flat.
A. moreover B. therefore C. however D. although
Question 12: _______, we will leave.
A. As soon as it has stopped raining B. Once it stopped raining
C. When it had stopped D. While it was stopping raining
Question 13: _______ her homework, she watched her favorite movie.
A. Having finished B. Finished C. To finish D. Being finished
Question 14: Nowadays there are many _______ forms of entertainment everywhere.
A. variety B. vary C. various D. variously
Question 15: Please turn _______ the volume on the radio - it's far too loud!
A. down B. up C. into D. on
Question 16: Penny _______ a good impression on my parents. She is so polite.
A. did B. made C. built D. caused
Question 17: In modern family, each member should give a hand to share the household _______.
A. chores B. works C. contributions D. charges
Question 18: The commission estimates that at least seven companies took _______ of the program.
A. advantage B. use C. benefit D. dominate
Question 19: She's a very strict teacher. If any of her students step out of _______, she gets really angry.
A. place B. order C. line D. position
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: But for your support, our band couldn't have won the Grand Music competition.
A. show B. quiz C. contest D. tour
Question 21: It wasn't a serious heart attack, but it gave him a terrible scare.
A. surprising B. sudden C. minor D. severe
Mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 22: A. booked B. pronounced C. described D. missed
Question 23: A. agent B. capture C. compact D. span
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 24 to 28.
The (24) _______ of COVID-19 is an unprecedented public health crisis, touching nearly all countries and
communities across the world. The health impacts of COVID-19 are (25) _______and, rightly, in the forefront
of our minds, across our media, and impacting people's lives and livelihoods across the world.
One of the most tangible outcomes of COVID-19 is the ever-increasing socio-economic gap between
learners. Over 365 million children are missing out on important school feeding programmes, (26) _______
keep them healthy and motivated to learn. Moreover, families may be pushed to resort to negative
coping mechanisms to meet their needs, including child labour or reducing the number and quality of meals
at a time when staying healthy and keeping a strong immune system is particularly important.
Home learning may itself be a source of stress for families and learners, with pressure to take on
new responsibilities. Many children are suffering from anxiety, living without access to the internet or (27)
_______ means required to benefit from distance learning. Some older children are stressed about
missing months of education (28) _______ they have to care for younger children in the home while parents
and caregivers are working.
(Adapted from https://en.unesco.org)
Question 24: A. danger B. beginning C. outbreak D. seriously
Question 25: A. mitigating B. worrying C. devastating D. deteriorating
Question 26: A. that B. who C. when D. which
Question 27: A. other B. another C. the other D. all
Question 28: A. but B. although C. so D. as
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
to each of the questions from 29 to 33.
Recently fans of top soaps, dramas and reality shows in the USA have started to get angry about the
number and frequency of the adverts in the middle of the programmes. Sometimes it seems that the adverts are
more important than the programmes themselves. For example, American dramas aren't as long as they were
in the past. Nowadays in the US, an hour-long drama lasts about 40 minutes, whereas in the 1980s the
programmes lasted 48 minutes. The rest is adverts.
The ABC channel had slightly more adverts than other channels. But recently they've changed, which is
even worse than before! Before, all their dramas had four sections. But now its producers separate
each programme into six sections. Usually the first section is approximately ten minutes long. Then they have
the first break. When people have watched a programme for ten minutes, it’s much less probable that they
will stop watching or change channels. But then, in the next 45 minutes, there are four more commercial
breaks. Each break is about three and a half minute long.
All of this makes it much more difficult for dramas writers to write good stories. Quiet scenes make
no impact because there are more and more adverts which are longer and longer. “It's OK for game shows
or more exciting adventure series." says American TV producer David Kelley. “But for programmes that
don't depend on violence or melodramatic scenes, it's more difficult to make a story with six sections. The
only thing you can do is be more aggressive, cither with the music or the visual impact, just to attract
people's attention after the adverts.”
(Adapted from Gateway B1)
Question 29: Which could be the best title of the passage?
A. Adverts turn TV viewers off. B. Commercial breaks increase productivity.
C. TV commercials are no longer in favour. D. Modern advertising is an advantage.
Question 30: The phrase "the programmes" in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. reality shows B. the ABC channels
C. American dramas D. the adverts
Question 31: The word "probable" in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. causing worry B. unable to believe
C. very difficult to deal with D. likely to happen
Question 32: According to the passage, previously all of the ABC channel's dramas _______.
A. lasted 40 minutes B. consisted of 4 parts
C. had six segments D. were divided into 5 separate parts
Question 33: Which of the following is TRUE about game shows as stated in the passage?
A. Quiet scenes in game shows are important factors in attracting people's attention.
B. It is possible to make them as six-part programmes.
C. They rely neither on violence nor melodramatic scenes.
D. They attract TV viewers by adverts lasting for three minutes.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 34: My father hasn't smoked cigarettes for a month.
A. It's a month since my father last smoked cigarettes.
B. It's a month ago that my father smoked cigarettes.
C. It's a month that my father hasn't smoked cigarettes.
D. It's a cigarette that my father smoked a month ago.
Question 35: “I will ring you up after I get home" Peter said to Mary.
A. Peter promised to give Mary a wedding ring after he got home.
B. Peter asked Mary to pay him a visit after he got home.
C. Peter promised to visit Mary after he got home.
D. Peter promised to telephone Mary after he got home.
Question 36: Susan will be ready any minute, and then we must leave.
A. We must leave as soon as Susan will be ready.
B. We must leave the moment Susan must be ready.
C. We must leave as soon as Susan is ready.
D. We will leave any minute when Susan will be ready.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 37 to 43.
The transition of digital photography from the privilege of rich people to an ordinary home appliance
has caused some problems. That is the reason a modern man has a set of questions concerning digital
cameras. The basic problem in choosing a digital camera is the guarantee that the device you are purchasing
will "grow old" in a couple of months due to constant improvements and developments of technology. The
only factor that may delay this process of "growing old" is purchasing a device with the price twice or three
times higher than the average market price for a digital camera at the moment. If a person chooses a
digital camera, there are several criteria of a great priority he needs to keep in mind: the price and the image
resolution of the camera, the capacity of the memory card, the presence of an LCD display, the interface of the
device and its weight and size.
The price of a digital camera depends on its quality factors. The resolution of a digital camera or the "size
of a digital image", is measured in pixels which are photosensitive elements. It is common knowledge that the
bigger the amount of pixels in the camera properties is the better it is. Therefore, if a high-detailed photo is
required, the usage of the zoom on a digital camera with low resolution will not give the desired result. In this
case, person choosing a digital camera needs to exactly know what it will be used for and to choose it according
to its future destination. It is necessary to mention that the resolution of 640 x 480 is the lowest resolution any
customer should be orientated to. It is the minimal resolution with which the purchase of a digital camera still
remains reasonable.
The lens of the camera or the zoom properties allows saving a lot on the price of the device but hits
the quality of the pictures. The memory card is a very important issue, too. It is much better to choose a
good camera with a small memory capacity than an average digital camera with a larger memory capacity.
The presence of an LCD display is no longer a wish. It is a requirement for any digital camera. It allows
people to check the future image, to anticipate it and to delete bad images and therefore to save space.
(Adapted from TOELF Junior Reading)
Question 37: What is the best title for this passage?
A. How to Choose a Digital Camera B. The Transition of Digital Photoraphy
C. Problems in Purchasing a Camera D. Elements of a Digital Camera
Question 38: In the first paragraph, the word “guarantee” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. employee B. guidance C. chance D. assurance
Question 39: What does the word “its” in paragraph 1 refer to?
A. the memory card B. the camera C. the display D. the price
Question 40: In the second paragraph, the phrase "depends on" is closest in meaning to_______.
A. is decided by B. is created by C. consists of D. makes up
Question 41: According to paragraph 2, when we are talking about the resolution of a digital camera, all of the
following are what we should be aware of EXCEPT _______.
A. the future destination of the camera
B. the lowest resolution any customer should be orientated to
C. the size and weight of the camera
D. the purpose the camera will be used for
Question 42: What can we infer from the passage?
A. The larger the capacity of the memory card is, the better the camera is.
B. It is not so necessary to pay attention to the presence of an LCD display.
C. The lens of the camera is useless.
D. The quality of the camera is much more important than the capacity of the memory card.
Question 43: According to the passage, which kind of cameras may a customer NOT buy?
A. A camera with a much higher price than the average market price
B. A camera with minimal resolution but still sounds reasonable to purchase
C. An average camera with a large memory capacity
D. An excellent camera with a small memory capacity
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 44: She phoned me this afternoon at the office and we had a brief chat.
A. lengthy B. friendly C. short D. private
Question 45: You should take the bull by the horns and go and see him now.
A. face directly B. respond eagerly C. avoid completely D. change slightly
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 46: There used to be a movie theater here, but it closes a long time ago.
A. used B. be C. closes D. long
Question 47: Setting a fixed contribution makes it easy for students to know what is expected of him.
A. Setting B. easy C. is D. him
Question 48: The company had better develop more rapid and reliant systems for handling
customers' complaints.
A. The B. had better C. reliant D. handling
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: She can't apply for the job because she isn't good at English.
A. As long as she is good at English and she could apply for the job.
B. She wishes she were good at English and she could apply for the job.
C. If she is good at English, she can apply for the job.
D. If only she had been good at English, she could apply for the job.
Question 50: The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.
B. Not only did the basketball team lose the match but they blamed each other as well.
C. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.
D. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match.
------THE END------
 ĐỀ ÔN THI No 14
Mã đề: 14
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 1: A. performs B. opens C. regrets D. pretends
Question 2: A. hot B. know C. dog D. pop
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 3: A. disaster B. attention C. adventure D. character
Question 4: A. decide B. copy C. concern D. arrive
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
Light pollution is the existence of too much unwanted, artificial light in the environment. Too much light
pollution has (5) _______ effects on people. It upsets ecosystems, has bad health effects, and wastes energy.
In upsetting ecosystems, light pollution poses a serious threat in particular to night wildlife, having
damaging impacts on plant and animal physiology. It can affect the migratory patterns of animals, change
competitive interactions of animals, and cause physiological harm. The rhythm of life as we know it
is controlled by the natural daily patterns of light and dark. (6) _______, the disruption to these patterns
does harm to the ecological dynamics.
With respect to adverse health effects, many species, especially humans, are dependent on natural body
cycles, and the production of melatonin, (7) _______ are regulated by light and dark (e.g., day and night).
If humans are exposed to light while sleeping, melatonin production can be affected. This can lead to
sleep disorders and (8) _______ health problems such as increased headaches, worker fatigue, stress, some
forms of obesity due to lack of sleep and increased anxiety. Health effects are not only due to over-illumination
or excessive (9) _______ of light over time, but also improper spectral composition of light.
(Adapted from https://www.globeatnight.org/light-pollution.php)
Question 5: A. essential B. helpful C. positive D. negative
Question 6: A. However B. Conversely C. Whereas D. Therefore
Question 7: A. that B. whom C. which D. whose
Question 8: A. another B. the other C. other D. others
Question 9: A. coverage B. inauguration C. exposure D. contact
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions
I left school and university with my head packed full of knowledge; enough of it, anyway, to pass all the
examinations that were put in my path. As a well-educated man I rather expected my work to be a piece
of cake, something at which my intellect would allow me to excel without undue effort. It came as
something of a shock, therefore, encounter the world outside for the first time, and to realize that I was ill-
equipped, not only for the necessary business of earning a living, but more importantly, for coping with all
the new decisions which came my way, in both life and work.
I was soon to discover that my mind had been trained to deal with closed problems, whereas most of what
I now had to deal with were open-ended problems. 'What is the cost of sales?' is a closed problem, one with a
right or a wrong answer. 'What should we do about it?' is an open problem, one with any number of possible
answers, and I had no experience of taking this type of decision.
I had been educated in an individualist culture. My scores were mine. No one else into it, except as
competitors in some imagined race. I was on my own in the learning game at school and university. Not so in
my work, I soon realized. Being an individual star would not help me there if it was in a failing group. I had
discovered, rather later than most, the necessity of others.
So much of the content of what I had learned was irrelevant, while the process of learning it had cultivated
a set of attitudes and behaviors which were directly opposed to what seemed to be needed in real life. Although
I had studied philosophy, I hadn't applied it to myself. It would be nice to think that our schools today prepare
people better for life and for work. The subjects may appear to be a little more relevant, but we are still left to
learn about work at work, and about life by living it. I believe we could do more to make sure that the process
of education had more in common with the processes of living and working as they are today, so that the shock
of reality is less cruel.
(Adapted from New proficiency Gold Coursebook by Jacky Newbrook and Judith Wilson)
Question 10: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The necessity of being exposed to the harsh reality. B. The complexity of the world outside.
C. The urgent need for educational reforms. D. The gap between education and the real world.
Question 11: The word "undue" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. negligible B. inconsiderable C. extensive D. constant
Question 12: The word "this type" in paragraph 2 refers to _______
A. the type with some possible answers B. the type related to the cost of sales
C. the type with a right answer D. the type with a wrong answer
Question 13: According to the passage, _______.
A. The author was ill-prepared for real-life experiences
B. The author found it necessary to view his colleagues as competitors
C. The author could deal with new decisions
D. The author realized the importance of individualism in his work
Question 14: The word "cultivated" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. changed B. developed C. weakened D. required
Question 15: Which of the following is NOT mentioned, according to the passage?
A. The author realized that he needed the company of his colleagues at work.
B. The author found that he should have taken advantage of his intellectual ability.
C. The author found that he had been trained to deal with problems in the wrong way.
D. The author expected to succeed by using the qualities his education had developed when
leaving university.
Question 16: Which of the following can be inferred about the author's thoughts from paragraph 4?
A. Students should be aware of applying philosophy to their life.
B. Relevance of learning contents has reduced the gap between school and work.
C. Work and life experience plays a little role in dealing with the harsh reality.
D. Today's educational system does not give students a much better preparation.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 17: She enjoyed the chance to converse with those who speak her language.
A. teach B. translate C. preserve D. talk
Question 18: The most diligent students, who always put efforts into what they do, will succeed.
A. competitive B. intelligent C. hard-working D. lazy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: Before he went on vacation, Mike left explicit instructions for the decoration of his office and
everyone got it.
A. simple B. clear C. direct D. vague
Question 20: Although they hold similar political views, their religious beliefs present a striking contrast.
A. great disparity B. significant difference
C. minor comparison D. complete coincidence
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 21: Lily has been invited to Wendy's party and she is talking to Wendy at the end of the party.
– Lily: "Thank you for a wonderful evening!"
- Wendy: “_____________”
A. You're welcome. B. Never mind.
C. Have a great day! D. It's very kind of you to say so.
Question 22: Jenny and Anna are having a discussion about interesting career options.
- Jenny: "I think teaching is one of the most rewarding jobs because it gives you a chance to create impacts on
future generations."
- Anna: “_________________”
A. Let's drop it. B. Why not?
C. No doubt about it. D. Let me think about that and get back to you.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions
A recent study suggests that teens' relationship with parents, friends and teachers may have a lot to do with
why they don't get a good night's sleep.
David Maume, a sociologist and sleep researcher, analyzed federal health data, which interviewed 974
teenagers when they were 12, and then again at 15. He found that family dynamics have much to do with how
well kids sleep. Teens, who had warm relations with their parents and felt like they could talk to them or their
parents were supportive of them, tended to sleep better. However, families that were going through a divorce
or a remarriage tended to affect teens' sleep.
And problems at school also affected teens' sleep. Feeling safe at school and having good relations with
teachers tended to promote better sleep. As did good relationships with friends. Kids who took part in sports or
other positive social activities or shared similar academic goals with their friends were also more likely to get
a good night's sleep.
These add up to what makes lots of sense: a general feeling of well-being helps teens sleep. If we're happy
and contented, we're much more likely to sleep better than if we're sad and anxious. Now, of course, teens can
hardly resist being drawn to their computers and social networking. Maume also found that when parents were
strict not only about bedtime, but also about limiting technology, kids slept better. It's a finding that seems
obvious, but parents really do matter when it comes to health habits of their teenagers. Clearly, teenagers aren't
getting 9 to 10 hours a night, which puts them at risk for all the consequences of lack of sleep, including poor
academic performance, colds and stress.
(Adapted from www.mofangge.com/html/qDetail/03/93/.../61359303219584.html)
Question 23: What is the passage mainly about?
A. It is necessary for teens to join in sports and positive social activities.
B. Lack of adequate sleep puts teens at risk of performing poorly at school
C. Modern technology has something to do with teens' sleep problems.
D. Teens' sleep is linked to their relationship with people around them.
Question 24: What does the word "them" in the passage refer to?
A. parents B. family dynamics C. warm relations D. teens
Question 25: According to Maume's analysis, who will probably have a poor night's sleep?
A. Teens who feel like talking with their parents. B. Teens who lack a sense of security at school.
C. Teens who have friends sharing their dreams. D. Teens who feel contented about themselves.
Question 26: The word "well-being" in paragraph 4 probably means _______.
A. insecurity B. happiness C. excitement D. worrying
Question 27: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Teens whose parents broke up can't sleep well.
B. Parents can help their children sleep better by restricting their use of technology.
C. Parents have nothing to do with their children's health habits.
D. Teens are unable to perform well at school if they don't get sufficient sleep.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions
Question 28: Some ancient philosophers such as Pythagorus and Aristotle were ahead of their time because
he thought that the earth was round.
 A. he thought B. ahead of C. Some D. because
Question 29: I woke up late for my interview because I have been worrying about it all night and didn't get
much sleep.
A. woke up late B. get much sleep C. have been worrying D. all night
Question 30: A panel of uninterested judges who had never met the contestants before judged the
singing contest with justice.
A. A panel B. uninterested judges C. contestants D. judged
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions
Question 31: The dry season is coming to an end, ________?
A. does it B. doesn't it C. isn't it D. is it
Question 32: Last night, she _______ a big diamond ring by her husband-to-be at her birthday party
A. gave B. gives C. was giving D. was given
Question 33: _______ she studies, the better results she will probably get.
A. The harder B. Hardest C. Harder D. The hardest
Question 34: He _______ on his report when his computer suddenly shut down.
A. worked B. was working C. works D. is working
Question 35: We didn't enjoy the day _______ the weather was so awful.
A. because B. due to C. although D. in spite of
Question 36: Jeff will have traveled to 20 countries _______ at the end of next month.
A. after he had turned fifty B. by the time he turns fifty
C. when he turned fifty D. as soon as he turned fifty
Question 37: When you grow up, you must learn how to become independent _______ your parents.
A. of B. with C. in D. on
Question 38: _______ on the project, he felt absolutely exhausted when it finished.
A. Being spent a lot of time B. Spent a lot of time
C. Having spent a lot of time D. To spend a lot of time
Question 39: At the farewell party, Jane gave Danny a _______ mug with her portrait outside so that he would
always remember her.
A. lovely big Japanese B. big Japanese lovely C. Japanese big lovely D. lovely Japanese
big
Question 40: In Asian countries, _______ is a form of connection between two families or two clans
rather than two people.
A. marry B. marriage C. marrying D. married
Question 41: When I first traveled by plane, I really felt excited as the plane _______ from the ground.
A. took off B. filled in C. stood up D. turned down
Question 42: In order to become a member of the country club, applicants have to _______ set by the club
president.
A. enhance communication B. widen the gap
C. meet the requirements D. gain confidence
Question 43: The website is managed by volunteers who put in _______ hours of work helping students deal
with situations of bullying.
A. generous B. countless C. overwhelming D. widespread
Question 44: IT has developed to a very high level, _______ the community and transforming the
residents' lives positively.
A. creating impacts on B. doing harm to
C. causing trouble for D. making bad decisions on
Question 45: The journalist had to _______ because what he had written in his article about the celebrity's
private life was wrong.
A. rest on his laurels B. put himself in other people's shoes
 C. eat humble pie D. call it a day
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions
Question 46: I started to learn English 10 years ago.
A. I have been learning English for 10 years.
B. I learnt English for 10 years.
C. The last time I learnt English was 10 years ago.
D. I have started learning English for 10 years.
Question 47: "I will pay back the money, Linda," said Helen.
A. Helen insisted on paying the money back to Linda.
B. Helen suggested paying the money back to Linda.
C. Helen promised to pay the money back to Linda.
D. Helen apologized to Linda for borrowing her money.
Question 48: You were supposed to hand in this assignment two days ago.
A. You ought to have handed in this assignment two days ago.
B. You must have handed in this assignment two days ago.
C. You should have been supposed to hand in this assignment two days ago.
D. You may have handed in this assignment two days ago.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions
Question 49: You didn't perform well in the interview. I feel sorry for you.
A. Had you performed better in the interview, I didn't feel sorry for you.
B. I wish you performed better in the interview.
C. I regret that you couldn't have performed better in the interview.
D. I wish you had performed better in the interview.
Question 50: I posted the letter. I realized that I had forgotten to put on a stamp.
A. Not only did I realize that I had forgotten to put a stamp on the letter but I posted it as well.
B. Scarcely had I posted the letter when I realized that I had forgotten to put on a stamp.
C. No sooner had I posted the letter than I forgot to put on a stamp.
D. Only before posting the letter did I realize that I had forgotten to put on a stamp.
-----THE END------

Mã đề 15 ĐỀ ÔN No 15
Thời gian: 60 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. sought B. fought C. drought D. bought
Question 2: A. involved B. damaged C. kidnapped D. explained
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. popular B. potential C. primary D. generous
Question 4: A. answer B. region C. success D. athlete
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: _______ the task is, the sweeter the success is.
A. The more difficult B. The most difficult C. Most difficult D. Difficult
Question 6: He is French, _______?
A. does he B. isn't he C. was he D. didn't he
Question 7: _______, we will have moved in a new house.
A. After you had come next time B. After you come next time
C. When you come next time D. When you came next time
Question 8: _______ well in the interview, she hopes to be given the job.
A. To perform B. Be performed C. Performed D. Having
performed
Question 9: Alex's class is enjoying the picnic _______ the bad weather.
A. although B. in spite of C. because D. because of
Question 10: This old castle _______ hundreds of years ago.
A. was built B. built C. build D. was building
Question 11: Last night, I _________ in bed when I suddenly heard a scream.
A. read B. reads C. is reading D. was reading
Question 12: It's great you got that job - you should be proud _______ yourself.
A. on B. at C. of D. from
Question 13: We bought a(n) _______ rug on our holiday to Iran last year.
A. beautiful old Persian B. beautiful Persian old
C. old Persian beautiful D. Persian beautiful old
Question 14: We didn't want to bother Paul. He was in his room and it looked like he was lost in
_______ thought.
A. serious B. great C. heavy D. deep
Question 15: I've been trying to _______ smoking, but I simply can't do it.
A. break down B. put away C. take off D. give up
Question 16: It is always very _______ to drive at such a high speed.
A. danger B. endanger C. dangerously D. dangerous
Question 17: Mark would prefer to go to university and do a _______ in astronomy, rather than start work.
A. degree B. licence C. certificate D. diploma
Question 18: It took some time to get _______ to the slower pace of life in the country after the
frantic atmosphere of the city.
A. caught B. fixed C. lost D. accustomed
Question 19: There, I knew there was something I had to do today, but now it's completely _________
my mind.
A. glided B. slipped C. sailed D. slid
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The task was not challenging enough for the team, so everyone got bored soon.
A. hard B. routine C. simple D. harmful
Question 21: It is amazing how quickly the new foreign students adapt to the local culture.
A. boring B. awful C. dangerous D. surprising
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The government is taking active steps to prevent the rapid spread of the disease.
A. determined B. changed C. bold D. hesitant
Question 23: He bent over backwards to please his new girlfriend, but she never seemed satisfied.
A. gave someone a nice surprise B. tried to do something which is difficult
C. did some physical exercise D. tried to do something which is easy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24: David is asking Carl about his playing football.
- David: "How long have you been playing football?”
- Carl: “______________”
A. For 5 years. B. About 5 kilometres. C. It's so interesting. D. Not very near.
Question 25: Laura and Mitchell are talking about their school days.
- Laura: "Do you think school days are the happiest time of your life?”
- Mitchell: “_____________. I wish my school days would last forever!"
A. It's out of the question B. I think so
C. I don't think that's a good idea D. I totally disagree
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
CATS
Cats of all kinds are present in the legends, religion, mythology, and history of many different cultures.
Cave paintings created by early humans display different types of wild cats (26) ______ are now extinct, or
no longer around. Cats (27) ______ to the ones kept as pets today started showing up in artwork thousands
of years ago. For example, the ancient Egyptians believed cats were the sacred, or special, animal of a
goddess named Bast. They believed that Bast often appeared as a cat, so many ancient Egyptians respected
and honoured cats and kittens. (28) ______, other cultures feared cats or thought that they brought illnesses
and bad luck. Today, with millions kept as pets in homes around the world, cats have become
important members of (29) ______ families. No one knows for sure when or how cats became very popular
household pets. It's possible that people noticed how cats hunted mice and rats, so they set food and milk out
to keep the cats near their homes. This helped to prevent too many of these rodents from coming into homes
and eating people's food or (30) ______ sickness.
(Adapted from https://www.englishrevealed.co.uk)
Question 26: A. why B. which C. who D. where
Question 27: A. close B. same C. like D. similar
Question 28: A. However B. Consequently C. For instance D. Furthermore
Question 29: A. a lot B. much C. many D. every
Question 30: A. suffering B. spreading C. treating D. experiencing
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Living on my own
When I tell people about the idea of moving out, many people's reaction is like, “what do your
parents say?” because they assume parents would not like their children to leave them. I don't know if my
parents like it, but they always support and respect my decisions. They think it is good for me to try and live
on my own and then I would know it is the best to stay with my family. The most important reason for
independent living is to save the travelling time to work. It used to take me one hour fifteen minutes to travel
to work from my previous living place.
From my new apartment, it just takes me thirty minutes, so I saved forty-five minutes' travelling time.
I don't have to get up early, and I save two thirds of my traveling cost. In addition, I gain my personal space and
freedom by independent living. I make my own decisions; I don't have to say whether I would go home for
dinner; I can invite my friends to come and stay late.
Money is the main issue in living on your own. You have to be responsible for all the expenses. Therefore,
you've got to be well prepared and save up for your bills. Although I find my transportation time much shorter,
the saved time is spent on other things, such as cooking and other household chores. Preparing and cooking
the food do occupy a significant portion of my time, therefore I always try to make simple meals. Moreover,
I have to regularly tidy up my apartment and wash my clothes, so it doesn't really save much of my time after
all.
Now I'm getting used to my new life, and I'm enjoying it. I feel that moving out makes it easier for me
to strike a balance between my work, my social life, my study and my family. It may be troublesome, but
it may be worth it.
(Adapted from https://learnenglish.britishcouncil.org/general-english)
Question 31: Why does the writer want to move out?
A. Because it makes his travelling to work more convenient.
 B. Because many people assume that he should live independently.
C. Because his parents do not support and respect his decision.
D. Because his parents would like him to live far from them.
Question 32: According to paragraph 3, which of the following is the most time consuming to the writer?
A. Saving up for household bills B. Tidying up the apartment
C. Transportation time D. Cooking and doing the housework
Question 33: The word "strike" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to______.
A. reach B. upset C. destroy D. consider
Question 34: The word "It" in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. enjoying life B. moving out C. my work D. my social life
Question 35: What conclusion does the writer make about moving out?
A. It is too troublesome to live on his own. B. It is easier for others, not for him.
C. It enables him to gain balance in life. D. He is enjoying the trouble that it brings.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
An education pioneer born into rural poverty in Nepal has opened 30 schools in a bid to boost prospects for
his country's children.
The World Bank ranks Nepal as the globe's 31st poorest country, with almost 10 million people living
on daily incomes between £1.48 and £2.50. Many rural villages remain unreached by government schooling
and adult literacy stood at just 60 percent in 2011.
Surya Karki and his charity United World Schools Nepal (UWS) are tackling high illiteracy and
poverty rates by funding and improving education.
The first school opened in 2015. Since then 92 percent of children have completed primary
education, which finishes at age eight, and continued into secondary education with UWS schools, in
comparison to 39 percent of students continuing education who attended government schools.
Mr Karki was born into poverty in rural Nepal. Speaking to the Telegraph he said: "School is the
only solution to the poverty cycle that we live in. I was raised by a single mother in a male-dominated
society. The school that I went to was approximately two hours’ walk away. My house was on top of a hill
and my mother had to drag me across rivers. We used to walk 10 miles a day. The schooling was really bad."
Karki's mother was a firm believer in education, and at age eight Karki secured a scholarship to study in
the capital, Kathmandu. From there he won scholarships and completed Master's degrees in China and
the United States. He returned to Nepal in 2015 and decided to stay and develop the education system.
Karki said: "Inequalities in a country can only be decreased if there is access to knowledge."
The devastating earthquake in 2015 damaged 9,300 schools, displacing hundreds of thousands of families
and pushing 700,000 people into poverty. As of January 2018, only 2,891 schools had been rebuilt. Karki said:
“We came at a crucial time, where we could redo or undo what had been done badly. Education was really
bad in terms of infrastructure, quality of teachers and training. It was an opportunity for us to really make
things better."
UWS Nepal has so far built 30 schools and has seven more in construction. The schools run between 10 am
and 3:30 pm, and have an 86 percent average attendance rate, which Karki says is almost double the attendance
rate for government schools in the vicinity. Sexual health classes are taught to the children in the later years.
(Adapted from https://www.telegraph.co.uk/global-health/climate-and-people)
Question 36: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. It was not easy to be educated by a single mother in a male-dominated society.
B. The disastrous earthquake in 2015 deteriorated the schooling system in Nepal.
C. A man born into poverty in Nepal inspired thousands of children to finish school.
D. Nepal successfully got rid of illiteracy thanks to the financial aid from the World Bank.
Question 37: The word "tackling" in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. suffering B. discussing C. addressing D. planning
Question 38: The word "there" in the passage refers to ________.
A. the school in China where Karki studied his Master's degree
 B. Karki's house in Nepal
C. the school in Kathmandu where Karki studied
D. the school in the United States Karki studied his Master's degree
Question 39: The word "displacing” in the passage mostly means ________.
A. making people homeless B. causing people to panic
C. making people lose directions D. bringing people safety
Question 40: What can we learn about Nepal from the passage?
A. Governmental schooling could reach even the most remote rural villages.
B. In 2011, just more than 50% of its population were able to read and write.
C. It currently has the population of just under 10 million people.
D. It used to have higher literacy rates than 31 other countries in the world.
Question 41: All of the following is TRUE about Surya Karki EXCEPT ________
A. he was not raised by his father, which was a disadvantage in a male-dominated society.
B. he used to travel a long way in order to get to school.
C. he obtained his first academic achievement at a very young age.
D. he and his charity UWS started building their first school in 2015.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Karki and his organisation have generally outperformed Nepal governmental schools in inspiring
children to continue their schooling.
B. The obstacles faced by schools in Nepal were made more serious due to the harsh weather and
the disastrous earthquake in 2015.
C. The schooling offered to Karki had been of higher quality than that offered to current students in Nepal.
D. School children in Nepal are bored with attending governmental schools and opting for attending
UWS schools at higher levels.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43: Yesterday morning I get stuck in a traffic jam for an hour on the way to work.
A. get B. a C. an hour D. work
Question 44: Being almost unknown ten years ago, these firms are now famous for its high-quality
products and services.
A. unknown B. these C. its D. services
Question 45: For a man in eminent danger of losing his job, he appeared quite unruffled and cool.
A. eminent B. losing C. unruffled D. cool
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: It's necessary to listen to opinions that are different from ours.
A. We mustn't listen to opinions that are different from ours.
B. We may listen to opinions that are different from ours.
C. We should listen to opinions that are different from ours.
D. We needn't listen to opinions that are different from ours.
Question 47: He last saw her two weeks ago.
A. He didn't see her two weeks ago.
B. He saw her for two weeks.
C. He hasn't seen her for two weeks.
D. He has seen her for two weeks.
Question 48: "You should come, it's going to be a lot of fun," she said.
A. She reminded me to come. B. She persuaded me to come.
C. She decided to come. D. She promised to come.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: She contracted a severe illness. She realized the importance of good health only then.
A. But for her realization of the importance of good health, she could have contracted a severe illness.
B. Only after she had contracted a severe illness did she realize the importance of good health.
C. Not until she realized the importance of good health did she contract a severe illness.
D. Hardly had she realized the importance of good health when she contracted a severe illness.
Question 50: My parents aren't here now. I want to share this triumph with them.
A. If only my parents had been here and could have shared this triumph with me.
B. If my parents are here now, they can share this triumph with me now.
C. I wish my parents were here now, so I could share this triumph with them.
D. As long as my parents are here, they will be able to share this triumph with me.
------THE END-----

ĐỀ ÔN No 16
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
Mã đề: 16

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 1: My secretary is away from the office. I really need his help now.
A. I wish my secretary were in the office and could help me now.
B. If my secretary is in the office, he can help me now.
C. If only my secretary had been in the office and could have helped me.
D. As long as my secretary is in the office, he will be able to help me.
Question 2: Lan went to the airport. She then realized that she had forgotten the passport.
A. Not until Lan had gone to the airport did she realize that she had forgot the passport.
B. Only after Lan realized that she had forgot the passport did she go to the airport.
C. Having realized that she had forgotten the passport, Lan went to the airport.
D. Had Lan realized that she had forgotten the passport, she would go to the airport.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Researchers in the field of psychology have found that one of the best ways to make an important decision,
such as choosing a university to attend or a business to invest in, involves the utilization of a decision
worksheet. Psychologists who study optimization compare the actual decisions made by people to theoretical
ideal decisions to see how similar they are. Proponents of the worksheet procedure believe that it will yield
optimal results, that is, the best decisions. Although there are several variations on the exact format that
worksheets can take, they are all similar in their essential aspects. Worksheets require defining the problem in
a clear and concise way and then listing all possible solutions to the problem. Next, the pertinent
considerations that will be affected by each decision are listed, and the relative importance of
each consideration or consequence is determined. Each consideration is assigned a numerical value to reflect
its relative importance. A decision is mathematically calculated by adding these values together. The
alternative with the highest number of points emerges as the best decision.
Since most important problems are multifaceted, there are several alternatives to choose from, each with
unique advantages and disadvantages. One of the benefits of a pencil and paper decision-making procedure is
that it permits people to deal with more variables than their minds can generally comprehend and remember.
On average, people can keep about seven ideas in their minds at once. A worksheet can be especially useful
when the decision involves a large number of variables with complex relationships. A realistic example for
many college students is the question “What will I do after graduation?” A graduate might seek a position that
offers specialized training, pursue an advanced degree, or travel abroad for a year.
 A decision-making worksheet begins with a succinct statement of the problem that will also help to narrow
it. It is important to be clear about the distinction between long-range and immediate goals because long-range
goals often involve a different decision than short-range ones. Focusing on long-range goals, a graduating
student might revise the question above to “What will I do after graduation that will lead to a successful
career?”
Question 3: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. A tool to assist in making complex decisions
B. Research on how people make decisions
C. A comparison of actual decisions and ideal decisions
D. Differences between long-range and short-range decision making
Question 4: Of the following steps, which occurs before the others in making a decision worksheet?
A. Deciding which consequences are most important
B. Calculating a numerical summary of each solution
C. Listing the consequences of each solution
D. Writing down all possible solutions
Question 5: The author develops the discussion in paragraph 1 by means of __________.
A. describing a process B. providing historical background
C. explaining a theory D. classifying types of worksheets
Question 6: The word "optimal" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. satisfactory B. suitable C. perfect D. creative
Question 7: It can be inferred from the paragraph 2 that __________.
A. pencil and paper allow people to relax their minds when they make a decision
B. there is only one suitable solution to each problem
C. college students can use a worksheet to seek a job after graduation
D. human mental capacity has limitations
Question 8: The word "it" in paragraph 3 refers to__________.
A. problem B. decision C. worksheet D. distinction
Question 9: The word “revise” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. predict B. ask C. change D. explain
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the following
questions.
Question 10: _______ her poor conditions, she won a scholarship to study abroad.
A. Even though B. Despite C. Due to D. Because
Question 11: The more you think about the good things, _______ you become.
A. the most relaxed B. the more relaxed C. more relaxed D. most relaxed
Question 12: The bank will insist you produce a driving _______ or passport as a form of ID.
A. certificate B. degree C. licence D. diploma
Question 13: I've never enjoyed going to the ballet or the opera; they're not really my _______.
A. piece of cake B. piece of biscuit C. a glass of milk D. cup of tea
Question 14: The jobs give you lots of chances to travel abroad; it's certainly a very _______ offer.
A. attraction B. attracted C. attractive D. attractively
Question 15: _______ at the party, we had finished the second dish.
A. Before they arrive B. As soon as they arrive
C. By the time they arrived D. After they had arrived
Question 16: When she arrives, she _______ us about the change in the schedule.
A. will tell B. tells C. will be telling D. was telling
Question 17: The kitchen _______, so we need to go out for dinner.
A. paints B. is being painted C. painted D. is painting
Question 18: They were all surprised _______ her amazing performance yesterday.
 A. from B. in C. on D. at
Question 19: The party has started for 20 minutes, but very few people _______.
A. went over B. turned up C. came after D. saw through
Question 20: _______ the instructions carefully, she started to operate the machine.
A. To read B. Having read C. Reading D. Being read
Question 21: My father bought a _______ clock at the weekly fair last weekend.
A. wonderful old German B. old wonderful German
C. German old wonderful D. old German wonderful
Question 22: He put on a large hat and glasses as a disguise and hoped no one would _______ him.
A. recognize B. see C. realize D. watch
Question 23: Destruction of natural habitats accounts for the reason why many species are in _______
of extinction.
A. risk B. threat C. danger D. harm
Question 24: Your sister informed them of her health situation, _______?
A. didn't she B. did she C. did they D. didn't they
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
The generation gap that was so in evidence during the 60s has resurfaced, but a 2009 study showed that
it was not the disruptive force. The Pew Research Center study found that 79% of Americans see
major differences between younger and older adults in the way they look at the world. In 1969, a Gallup Poll
found that a smaller percentage, 74%, perceived major differences.
Today, however, although more Americans see generational differences, most do not see them as divisive.
That is partly because of the areas of difference. The top areas of disagreement between young and old people,
according to the Pew Research Study, are the use of technology and taste in music. Grandparents are likely to
have observed these differences in their grandchildren who are tweens, teens, and young adults.
If large differences between the generations exist, why don't they spawn conflict? The answer is
twofold. First, the two largest areas of difference - technology and music - are less emotionally charged than
political issues. The older generation is likely to be proud of the younger generation's prowess in technology
rather than to view it as a problem. As for the musical differences, each generation wants its own style of
music, and the older generation generally can relate to that desire. Second, in the other areas of difference, the
younger generation tends to regard the older generation as superior to their own generation – clearly
a difference from the 1960s with its rallying cry of "Don't trust anyone over thirty!". According to the
Pew study, all generations regard older Americans as superior in moral values, work ethics and respect for
others.
Question 25: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Different points of view are the main problem between generations in America.
B. Generation gap doesn't cause a big problem in American families.
C. The areas of difference in generation gap have changed over the years.
D. The generation gap in the past was different from that in the modern time.
Question 26: The word "them” in the second paragraph refers to _______.
A. adults B. Americans C. differences D. areas
Question 27: The word “prowess” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. skill B. enrichment C. creation D. awareness
Question 28: According to paragraph 3, what are the two reasons why large differences between generations
don't cause disagreement?
A. The generosity of the elder generation and the attitude of the younger generation
B. The different styles of music and the knowledge of the elder generation
C. The pride of the elder generation and the obedience of the younger one
D. The major areas of difference between generations and the respect for the elder generation
Question 29: According to the passage, which is NOT true?
A. Grandparents feel uncomfortable with their grandchildren because of their better technology skills.
 B. The majority of Americans agree that there are major differences in generations' viewpoints.
C. The elderly in America are admired in moral values, work ethics and respect for others.
D. Technology is one of the two biggest areas creating the gap between the old and the young.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 30: Bill Gates is famous for his generosity. He has donated a large part of his possessions to
charities.
A. hospitality B. kindness C. greediness D. responsibility
Question 31: At present, I have to work and study at the same time, so I often have to burn the midnight
oil.
A. go to bed late B. get up late
C. go to bed early D. work until late at night
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 32: He's really out of shape, so he'd better start exercising every day.
A. out of work B. extremely joyful C. out of order D. physically fit
Question 33: The critical issue is whether genuine artificial intelligence can ever be truly realized.
A. unpretentious B. authentic C. fake D. true
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 34: The last time she met her grandmother was three years ago.
A. About three years ago, she used to meet her grandmother.
B. She has met her grandmother for three years.
C. She has not met her grandmother for three years.
D. She has often met her grandmother for the last three years.
Question 35: It's optional for students to learn French in this school.
A. Students needn't learn French in this school.
B. Students mustn't learn French in this school.
C. Students might learn French in this school.
D. Students must learn French in this school.
Question 36: "You'd better stay at home during this time," he said to Lam.
A. He thanked Lam for staying at home during that time.
B. He ordered Lam to stay at home during that time.
C. He warned Lam against staying at home during that time.
D. He advised Lam to stay at home during that time.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word that best fits each
of the numbered blanks.
Culture beliefs differ as to whether directness or indirectness is considered positive. In the
mainstream American culture, the ideal (37) _______ of communication includes being direct rather than
indirect (“ideal" here means that the culture values this style, although not everyone speaks directly). There
are several expressions in English (38) _______ emphasize the importance of being direct: “Get to the
point! Don't beat around the bush! Let's get down to business!". These sayings all indicate the importance
of dealing directly with issues rather than avoiding them. One way to determine whether a culture favours
a direct or indirect style in communication is to find out how the people in that culture express disagreement or
how they say “No”. In Japan, there are at least fifteen ways of saying "No", without actually saying the word.
(39) _______, in some countries, there are different ways to express disagreement. For example, it would be
considered rude to say directly “I disagree with you!” or “You're wrong!".
(40) _______ Americans believe that honesty is the best policy, and their communication style reflects
this. Honesty and directness in communication are strongly related. It is not a(n) (41) _______ then, to find out
that cultural groups misjudge each other based on different beliefs about directness and honesty
in communication.
Question 37: A. phrase B. form C. shape D. word
Question 38: A. when B. what C. who D. which
Question 39: A. Frankly B. Differently C. Similarly D. Honestly
Question 40: A. A lot B. Each C. Many D. Every
Question 41: A. anger B. surprise C. disappointment D. interest
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 42: A. town B. brown C. how D. slow
Question 43: A. demanded B. employed C. consumed D. maintained
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 44: Robots can replace humans at work because it can complete tasks very fast.
A. at work B. because C. it D. fast
Question 45: The country has been in a very poor economical state since the outbreak of coronavirus
happened.
A. has been B. in C. economical D. happened
Question 46: They have been working here since they are very young.
A. working B. here C. are D. very young
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 47: Sue and Mira are talking about the use of mobile phones in class.
- Sue: "Students should not be allowed to use mobile phones in class."
- Mira: “_____________. This will distract them from studying."
A. No way! It's useful B. Not really
C. I quite agree D. I'm of the opposite opinion
Question 48: Claudia is being interviewed by the manager of the company she's applied for.
- Manager: “____________”
- Claudia: "I work hard and I enjoy working with other people."
A. Would you describe yourself as ambitious? B. What are some of your main strengths?
C. Why have you applied for this position? D. Can you do jobs on your own?
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 49: A. appear B. obtain C. employ D. settle
Question 50: A. difference B. comedy C. character D. importance
--------THE END------

ĐỀ ÔN No 17
Mã đề thi 17
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 1: You are going to come to the party, _______?
A. do you B. aren't you C. won't you D. will you
Question 2: The city _______ during the war has been rebuilt.
A. destroyed B. was destroyed C. destroy D. was destroying
Question 3: She is looking _______ a new place to live because she does not want to depend on her
parents anymore.
A. up B. at C. for D. after
Question 4: _______ he studies, the better results he gets.
A. The harder B. Harder C. The hardest D. Hardest
Question 5: Helen has just bought two _______ scarves.
A. black new wool B. black wool new C. new black wool D. new wool black
Question 6: Their son _______ his English recently because he attended a three-month English course.
A. had improved B. has improved C. is improving D. improved
Question 7: _______ the very hot weather, they continued playing football.
A. Because B. Because of C. In spite of D. Although
Question 8: I am reading this novel. _______ back from work, I will have finished it.
A. As soon as you came B. By the time you come
C. After you had come D. When you came
Question 9: _______ every major judo title, Mark retired from international competitions.
A. Winning B. Having won C. Won D. To win
Question 10: The atmosphere at the international meeting was very _______ and everyone was on first name
terms.
A. informal B. informality C. formality D. formal
Question 11: I'm not sure if my brother will ever get married because he hates the feeling of being _______.
A. tied in B. tied down C. tied up D. tied in with
Question 12: This director has _______ some famous films but I think this one is the best.
A. done B. conducted C. made D. composed
Question 13: I like that photo very much. Could you make an _______ for me?
A. extension B. expansion C. enlargement D. increase
Question 14: I've never really enjoyed going to the ballet or the opera, they're not really my _______.
A. piece of cake B. sweets and candy C. biscuit D. cup of tea
Question 15: Fire crews have been operating at full _______.
A. effort B. power C. strength D. energy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 16: Peter is thanking Michelle for giving him the gift on his birthday.
- Peter: "Thanks for the nice gift you brought to me!"
- Michelle: “_____________”
A. Welcome! I'm glad you like it. B. Not at all.
C. Actually, I myself don't like it. D. All right! Do you know how much it costs?
Question 17: In a restaurant. The waiter is asking a customer about the menu.
- Waiter: "How would you like your steak?"
- Customer: “______________.”
A. I really like eating steak B. Rare, please
C. Steak is my favourite food D. Steak? No, thanks
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. toured B. jumped C. solved D. rained
Question 19: A. decorate B. candle C. celebration D. cake
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. future B. involve C. prospect D. guidance
Question 21: A. motivate B. furniture C. advantage D. ambulance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: My neighbor is a reckless driver. He has been fined for speeding and has his license suspended
for 3 months.
A. famous B. enormous C. dangerous D. cautious
Question 23: You should pat yourself on the back for having achieved such a high score in the
graduation exam.
A. criticize yourself B. wear a backpack C. praise yourself D. check up your
back
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Corn, domesticated by the American Indians, was bro to Europe by Columbus.
A. implanted B. cultivated C. reared D. trained
Question 25: When the Titanic crashed into an iceberg, the crew quickly sent out distress signals to
alert nearby ships of the disaster and request their help.
A. amusing B. strange C. bold D. help
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
"Parents today want their kids to spend time on things that can bring them success, but (26) _______ we've
stopped doing one thing that's actually been a proven predictor of success – and that's household chores," says
Richard Rende, a developmental psychologist in Paradise Valley, Ariz, (27) _______ co-author of
the forthcoming book "Raising Can-Do Kids.” Decades of studies show the benefits of chores - academically,
emotionally, and even professionally. Giving children household chores at an early age helps to build (28)
_______ lasting sense of mastery, responsibility and self-reliance, according to a research by Marty
Rossmann, professor emeritus at the University of Minnesota. In 2002, Dr. Rossmann analyzed data from
a longitudinal study (29) _______ followed 84 children across four periods in their lives - in preschool, around
ages 10 and 15, and in their mid-20s. She found that young adults who began chores at ages 3 and 4 were
more likely to have good relationships with family and friends, to achieve academic and early career success
and to be self-sufficient, as (30) _______ with those who didn't have chores or who started them as teens.
Chores also teach children how to be empathetic and responsive to others' needs, notes psychologist Richard
Weissbourd of the Harvard Graduate School of Education.
(Adapted from http://www.wsj.com/articles/why-children-need-chores)
Question 26: A. brutally B. especially C. ironically D. bitterly
Question 27: A. but B. therefore C. or D. and
Question 28: A. every B. a C. many D. much
Question 29: A. whom B. when C. what D. that
Question 30: A. compared B. competed C. reflected D. compassed
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
It used to be that people would drink coffee or tea in the morning to pick them up and get them going for
the day. Then cola drinks hit the market. With lots of caffeine and sugar, these beverages soon became
the pick-me-up of choice for many adults and teenagers. Now drink companies are putting out so-called
"energy drinks”. These beverages have the specific aim of giving tired consumers more energy.
One example of a popular energy drink is Red Bull. The company that puts out this beverage has stated
in interviews that Red Bull is not a thirst quencher. Nor is it meant to be a fluid replacement drink for
athletes. Instead, the beverage is meant to revitalize a tired consumer's body and mind. In order to do this, the
makers of Red Bull, and other energy drinks, typically add vitamins and certain chemicals to their beverages.
The added chemicals are like chemicals that the body naturally produces for energy. The vitamins, chemicals,
caffeine, and sugar found in these beverages all seem like a sure bet to give a person energy.
Health professionals are not so sure, though. For one thing, there is not enough evidence to show that all of
the vitamins added to energy drinks actually raise a person's energy level. Another problem is that there are
so many things in the beverages. Nobody knows for sure how all of the ingredients in energy drinks work
together. Dr. Brent Bauer, one of the directors at the Mayo Clinic in the US, cautions people about believing
all the claims energy drinks make. He says, “It is plausible if you put all these things together, you will get a
good result." However, Dr. Bauer adds the mix of ingredients could also have a negative impact on the body.
"We just don't know at this point,” he says.
(Source: Reading Challenge 2, Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen, Compass Publishing)
Question 31: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Teenagers should not choose energy drinks. B. Caffeine is bad for people to drink.
C. Red Bull is the best energy drink. D. It is uncertain whether energy drinks are
healthy.
Question 32: According to the passage, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT ______.
A. Colas have been on the market longer than other so-called "energy drinks".
B. The makers of Red Bull say that it can revitalize a person.
C. Bauer does not seem to believe the claims of energy drink makers.
D. It has been scientifically proved that energy drinks work.
Question 33: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. one example B. Red Bull C. the company D. thirst quencher
Question 34: Researchers find it difficult to know if an energy drink gives people energy because of ______.
A. the number of beverage makers B. the average age of the consumers
C. the mixture of various ingredients D. natural chemicals in a person's body
Question 35: The word "plausible" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. reasonable B. unlikely C. typical D. impossible
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Today we take electricity for granted and perhaps we do not realize just how useful this discovery has
been. Steam was the first invention that replaced wind power. It was used to drive engines and was passed
through pipes and radiators to warm rooms. Petrol mixed with air was the next invention that provided power.
Exploded in a cylinder, it drove a motor engine. Beyond these simple and direct uses, those forms have not
much adaptability.
On the other hand, we make use of electricity in thousands of ways. From the powerful voltages that drive
our electric trains to the tiny current needed to work a simple calculator, and from the huge electric magnet
in steel works that can lift 10 tons to the tiny electric magnet in a doorbell, all are powered by electricity. An
electric current can be made with equal ease to heat a huge mass of molten metal in a furnace, or to boil a jug
for a cup of coffee.
Other than atomic energy, which has not as yet been harnessed to the full, electricity is the greatest power
in the world. It is flexible, and so adaptable for any task for which it is wanted. It travels so easily and
with incredible speed along wires or conductors that it can be supplied instantly over vast distances.
To generate electricity, huge turbines or generators must be turned. In Australia they use coal or water
to drive this machinery. When dams are built, falling water is used to drive the turbines without polluting
the atmosphere with smoke from coal. Atomic power is used in several countries but there is always the fear
of an accident. A tragedy once occurred at Chernobyl, in Ukraine, at an atomic power plant used to
make electricity. The reactor leaked, which caused many deaths through radiation.
Now scientists are examining new ways of creating electricity without harmful effects to the environment.
They may harness the tides as they flow in and out of bays. Most importantly, they hope to trap sunlight more
efficiently. We do use solar heaters for swimming pools but as yet improvement in the capacity of the solar
cells to create more current is necessary. When this happens, electric cars will be viable and the world will rid
itself of the toxic gases given off by trucks and cars that burn fossil fuels.
Question 36: The best title for this passage could be ______.
A. Types of Power Plants B. Electricity: Harmful Effects on Our Life
C. How to Produce Electricity D. Why Electricity Is So Remarkable
Question 37: It can be inferred that the author mentions the sources of energy such as wind, steam, petrol
in paragraph 1 to ______.
A. suggest that electricity should be alternated with safer sources of energy
B. emphasize the usefulness and adaptability of electricity
 C. imply that electricity is not the only useful source of energy
D. discuss which source of energy can be a suitable alternative to electricity
Question 38: "Electric magnets" in paragraph 2 are used in steel works to ______.
A. lift heavy weights up to ten tons B. test the steel for strength
C. heat the molten steel D. boil a jug of water
Question 39: What does the author mean by saying that electricity is “flexible”?
A. It is cheap and easy to use. B. It is used to drive motor engines.
C. It can be adapted to various uses. D. It can be made with ease.
Question 40: What do we call machines that make electricity?
A. Voltages B. Electric magnets
C. Generators or turbines D. Pipes and radiators
Question 41: The main forms of power used to generate electricity in Australia are ______.
A. atomic power and water B. water and coal
C. sunlight and wind power D. wind and gas
Question 42: The word "They” in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. harmful effects B. the tides C. scientists D. new ways
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43: Our new neighbors have been living in Paris for ten years before moving to New York.
A. Our new B. have been living C. before moving D. to
Question 44: In an effort to solve the problem of extinction, many countries have allocated large amounts of
its land to animal reserves.
A. to solve B. extinction C. its D. to
Question 45: The villagers are highly appreciable of the volunteers' efforts in reconstructing their houses after
the devastating storm.
A. highly appreciable B. volunteers' efforts C. reconstructing D. devastating
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: All the guests will have dinner before we arrive tonight.
A. All the guests will have dinner when we arrive tonight.
B. By the time we arrive, all the guests will start dinner tonight.
C. All the guests will be having dinner by the time we arrive tonight.
D. By the time we arrive tonight, all the guests will have started dinner.
Question 47: "I'll drop you from the team if you don't train harder," said the captain to John.
A. John was reminded to train harder so as not to be dropped from the team.
B. The captain threatened to drop John from the team unless he trained harder.
C. The captain urged that John should train harder in order not to be dropped from the team.
D. The captain promised to drop John from the team in case he trained harder.
Question 48: He must speak English well as he has lived in England since his childhood.
A. Perhaps he speaks English well as he has lived in England since his childhood.
B. He may speak English well as he has lived in England since his childhood.
C. I am sure he speaks English well as he has lived in England since his childhood.
D. He speaks English well though he has not lived in England since his childhood.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: I made two minor mistakes. That's why I did not get full marks for the test.
A. If I didn't make two minor mistakes, I would have got full marks for the test.
B. I would have got full marks for the test if there hadn't been two minor mistakes.
C. Had I made two minor mistakes, I would have got full marks for the test.
 D. If the mistakes hadn't been minor, I could have got full marks for the test.
Question 50: The substance is very toxic. Protective clothing must be worn at all times.
A. Since the substance is very toxic, so protective clothing must be worn at all times.
B. So toxic is the substance that protective clothing must be worn at all times.
C. The substance is such toxic that protective clothing must be worn at all times.
D. The substance is too toxic to wear protective clothing at all times.
-------THE END-------

Mã đề thi 18 ĐỀ ÔN THI NO 18
Bài thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from

the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. coughed B. asked C. watched D. smiled

Question 2: A. pipe B. mind C. bike D. pity
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. restaurant B. engineer C. hospital D. chemistry
Question 4: A. open B. reply C. arrive D. assist
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: I will phone you immediately _________ in New York.
A. when I will arrive B. as soon as I arrive
C. by the time I had arrived D. after I arrived
Question 6: You like films, _________?
A. will you B. do you C. won't you D. don't you
Question 7: He _________ a striking resemblance to one of my friends.
A. bears B. owns C. holds D. shows
Question 8: When he phoned, we _________ with our friends at home.
A. had sung B. are singing C. sand D. were singing
Question 9: Brian lost so much money as he didn't know how to _________ his business.
A. run B. make C. do D. put
Question 10: _________ the content, we are now looking for supporting information.
A. To plan B. Having been planned C. Having planned D. To be planned
Question 11: He lost the race because he _________ petrol on the last lap.
A. ran out of B. got out of C. put out of D. made out of
Question 12: A number of _________ buyers have expressed their interests in the company.
A. potential B. potentiality C. potentially D. potention
Question 13: People in this area _________ with clothes and food by the government every year.
A. are providing B. provided C. provide D. are provided
Question 14: The later you get up, _________ you will be.
A. the tired B. the more tired C. the most tired D. the tireder
Question 15: Many young people are now interested _________ Korean music.
A. on B. by C. at D. in
Question 16: I've got a promotion at work, but all John did was make a joke about it. He has a real chip on his
_________. I think he is just jealous.
 A. head B. shoulder C. nose D. mount
Question 17: We bought a _________ cat at the flea market last week.
A. nice British white B. British nice white C. nice white British D. white British nice
Question 18: Numerous _________ have prevented us from going to the lakeside again this year.
A. disadvantages B. impairments C. obstacles D. adversities
Question 19: He was late for school this morning _________ he had missed the bus.
A. in spite of B. although C. despite D. because
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Sewage from this company has definitely contaminated the vast area of the river, the habitat of
numerous aquatic species.
A. polluted B. corrupted C. defiled D. purified
Question 21: Female kangaroos carry their young in pouches that are external to their bodies.
A. woman B. man C. male D. gender
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Mr. Brown is a very generous old man. He has given most of his wealth to a
charity organization.
A. honest B. hospitable C. mean D. kind
Question 23: Both universities speak highly of the programme of student exchange and hope to
cooperate more in the future.
A. resolve a conflict over B. voice opinions on
C. find favor with D. express disapproval of
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Nick and Peter are talking about sports.
- Nick: "What sports do you like?"- Peter: "_____________”
A. Yes, it's my favorite sport B. Well, I love volleyball
C. I think it's boring D. No, I don't
Question 25: Maria and Alex are talking about the environment.
- Maria: "Our environment is getting more and more polluted. Do you think so?"
- Alex: “________________. It's really worrying."
A. I don't think so B. I don't agree C. I can't agree more D. I'll think about
that
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Culture refers to the customs, practices, languages, values, and world views that define social groups
such as those based on nationality, ethnicity, region, or common interests. Cultural identity is important for
people's (26) _________ of self and how they relate to others. A strong cultural identity can contribute to
people's overall well-being.
Cultural identity based on ethnicity is not necessarily exclusive. People may identify themselves as
New Zealanders in some circumstances and as part of a particular culture (e.g. Māori, Chinese or Scottish) in
(27) _________ circumstances. They may also identify with more than one culture.
Cultural identity is an important contributor to people's well-being. Identifying with a particular
culture helps people feel they belong and gives them a sense of security. An established cultural identity has
also been linked with positive outcomes in areas such as health and education. It provides access to
social networks, (28) _________ provide support and shared values and aspirations.
(29) _________, strong cultural identity expressed in the wrong way can contribute to barriers
between groups. Members of smaller cultural groups can feel (30) _________ from society if others obstruct,
or are intolerant of their cultural practices.
Question 26: A. sense B. opinion C. thinking D. feeling
Question 27: A. the other B. another C. other D. others
Question 28: A. where B. which C. who D. that
Question 29: A. But B. Therefore C. However D. And
Question 30: A. debarred B. eliminated C. excluded D. exhausted
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
One way of training for your future occupation in Germany is by pursuing a dual vocational
training programme. Such programmes offer plenty of opportunities for on-the-job training and work
experience. Programmes usually last between two and three and a half years and comprise theoretical as well
as practical elements. You will spend one or two days a week, or several weeks at once, at a vocational school
where you will acquire the theoretical knowledge that you will need in your future occupation. The rest of the
time will be spent at a company. There you get to apply your newly acquired knowledge in practice, for
example by learning to operate machinery. You will get to know what your company does, learn how it
operates and find out if you can see yourself working there after completing your training.
This combination of theory and practice gives you a real head start into your job: by the time you
have completed your training, you will not only have the required technical knowledge, but you will also have
hands-on experience in your job. There are around 350 officially recognised training programmes
in Germany, so chances are good that one of them will suit your interests and talents. You can find out which
one that might be by visiting one of the jobs and vocational training fairs which are organised in many German
cities at different times in the year.
Employment prospects for students who have completed a dual vocational training programme are
very good. This is one of the reasons why this kind of training is very popular with young Germans: around
two thirds of all students leaving school go on to start a vocational training programme.
Question 31: Which of the following is probably the best title of the passage?
A. Employment Opportunities and Prospects in Germany
B. Dual Vocational Training System in Germany
C. Higher Education System in Germany
D. Combination of Theory and Practice in Studying in Germany
Question 32: The word "it" in the first paragraph refers to ________.
A. machinery B. knowledge C. company D. organisation
Question 33: How many German school leavers choose this vocational training programme?
A. around one out of five B. about 70% C. well over 75% D. less than a third
Question 34: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about vocational
training programmes in Germany?
A. They last two and three and a half years. B. They offer opportunities for on-the-job
training.
C. They provide work experience. D. They are organised in one city in Germany.
Question 35: The word "hands-on" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. theoretical B. integral C. practical D. technical
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Do you feel like your teenager is spending most of the day glued to a phone screen? You're not too far off.
A new survey from the Pew Research Center reveals the surprising ways that technology intersects with teen
friendships - and the results show that 57 percent of teens have made at least one new friend online. Even
more surprisingly, only 20 percent of those digital friends ever meet in person. While teens do connect with
their friends face-to-face outside of school, they spend 55 percent of their day texting with friends, and only
25 percent of teens are spending actual time with their friends on a daily basis. These new forms
of communication are key in maintaining friendships day-to-day - 27 percent of teens instant message
their friends every day, 23 percent connect through social media every day, and 7 percent even video chat
daily. Text messaging remains the main form of communication - almost half of the survey respondents say
it's their chosen method of communication with their closest friend.
 While girls are more likely to text with their close friends, boys are meeting new friends and
maintaining friendships) in the gaming world - 89 percent play with friends they know, and 54 percent play
with online only friends. Whether they're close with their teammates or not, online gamers say that playing
makes them feel "more connected" to friends they know or gamers they've never met.
When making new friends, social media has also become a major part of the teenage identity - 62
percent of teens are quick to share their social media usernames when connecting with a new friend. Despite
the negative consequences, 21 percent of teenage users feel worse about their lives because of posts they see
on social media - teens also have found support and connection through various platforms. In fact, 68 percent
of teens received support during a challenging time in their lives via social media platforms
Just as technology has become a gateway for new friendships, or a channel to stay connected with
current friends, it can also make a friendship breakup more public. The study reveals that girls are more likely
to block or unfriend former allies, and 68 percent of all teenage users report experiencing "drama among
their friends on social media."
Question 36: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The difference of making new friends between girls and boys.
B. Social media affects friendship positively and negatively.
C. Teenagers are making and keeping friends in a surprising way.
D. Social friendship is longer and more open than a real-life one.
Question 37: The word "intersect" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. interrupt B. generate C. maintain D. involve
Question 38: According to the passage, what is the proportion of teenagers experiencing daily
online communication?
A. 27 percent B. 57 percent C. 7 percent D. 23 percent
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT true, according to paragraph 1?
A. Most teenagers use video chat and text messages to maintain a relationship with friends.
B. New forms of communication make a huge contribution in keeping friendships.
C. Teens only encounter in real life a part of their online friends they have made.
D. According to the survey, more than half of teens have ever made new friends online.
Question 40: The word "they" in paragraph 3 refers to _________.
A. friends B. teenage users C. their teammates D. online-only
friends
Question 41: The word "breakup" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. termination B. popularity C. division D. commencement
Question 42: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. A larger number of teens are reluctant to give others their online usernames.
B. Most teenage users agree that social media has negative consequences in their lives.
C. More than two-thirds of teens is helped online when facing challenges in their lives.
D. It is less likely that boys are going to make new relationships faster than girls.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43: It started to rain while we play on the swing at the park at 3 yesterday afternoon.
A. play B. to rain C. afternoon D. at
Question 44: Human beings are changing the environment in all respects through the action in his habits.
A. through B. environment C. are D. his
Question 45: They have carried out exhausting research into the effects of smartphones on
schoolchildren's health and their academic results.
A. into B. exhausting C. health D. academic results
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: It's about time she got more practical experiences for her job.
 A. She should have got more practical experiences for her job.
B. Getting more practical experiences for her job is necessary
C. She ought to get more practical experiences for her job.
D. It is possible to get more practical experiences for her job.
Question 47: It is 3 months since the last time we came to the national park.
A. We last came to the national park for 3 months ago.
B. It is 3 months when we first came to the national park.
C. We haven't come to the national park for 3 months.
D. I haven't come to any national parks for 3 months.
Question 48: The lifeguard told the children "Don't swim farther than 5 meters".
A. The lifeguard reminded the children to swim farther than 5 meters.
B. The lifeguard warned the children not to swim farther than 5 meters.
C. The lifeguard stopped the children from swimming farther than 5 meters.
D. The lifeguard allowed the children not to swim farther than 5 meters.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: They've decided to install an online classroom application to keep track of all lessons at school.
It's the only way.
A. Only by installing an online classroom application do they keep track of all lessons at school.
B. By installing an online classroom application do they only keep track of all lessons at school.
C. The way they can keep track of all lessons at school is by installing an online classroom application.
D. The only way to install an online classroom application is keeping track of all lessons at school.
Question 50: She didn't revise her lesson yesterday. That's why she can't finish the test today.
A. As long as she had revised her lesson, she could finish the test today.
B. Without revising her lesson yesterday, she could finish the test today.
C. If she had revised her lesson yesterday, she could finish the test today.
D. She wished she had revised her lesson yesterday, so she can't finish the test today.

-----THE END----

Mã đề 19 ĐỀ ÔN THI No 19
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 1: She was very angry. She managed to keep herself calm.
A. Angry as was she, she managed to keep herself calm.
B. She was so angry that she was not able to control herself.
C. Angry though she was, she managed to keep herself calm.
D. Such was her anger that she managed to keep herself calm.
Question 2: Tom didn't install an alarm. The thieves broke into his house.
A. Had Tom installed an alarm, his house wouldn't have been broken into.
B. Tom had installed an alarm, the thieves wouldn't break into his house.
C. If Tom installed an alarm, the thieves wouldn't break into his house.
D. Tom wishes he would installed an alarm and the thieves wouldn't have broken into his house.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
 Although the "lie detectors" are being used by governments, police departments, and businesses that all
want guaranteed ways of detecting the truth, the results are not always accurate. Lie detectors are properly
called emotion detectors, for their aim is to measure bodily changes that contradict what a person says.
The polygraph machine records changes in heart rate, breathing, blood pressure, and the electrical activity of
the skin (galvanic skin response, or GSR). In the first part of the polygraph test, you are electronically
connected to the machine and asked a few neutral questions ("What is your name?", "Where do you live?").
Your physical reactions serve as the standard (baseline) for evaluating what comes next. Then you are asked
a few critical questions among the neutral ones ("When did you rob the bank!). The assumption is that if you
are guilty, your body will reveal the truth, even if you try to deny it. Your heart rate, respiration, and GSR
will change abruptly as you respond to the incriminating questions.
That is the theory: but psychologists have found that lie detectors are simply not reliable. Since
most physical changes are the same across all emotions, machines cannot tell whether you are feeling
guilty, angry, nervous, thrilled, or revved up from an exciting day. Innocent people may be tense and nervous
about the whole procedure. They may react physiologically to a certain word (“bank”) not because they robbed
it, but because they recently bounced a check. In either case the machine will record a "lie". The
reverse mistake is also common. Some practiced liars can lie without flinching, and others learn to beat the
machine by tensing muscles or thinking about an exciting experience during neutral questions.
Question 3: This passage was probably written by a specialist in ____________.
A. sociology B. mind reading C. anthropology D. criminal
psychology
Question 4: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. How lie detectors are used and their reliability
B. Lie detectors distinguish different emotions
C. Physical reaction reveal guilty
D. Lie detectors make innocent people nervous
Question 5: The word “ones” in paragraph 1 refers to _________.
A. evaluations B. reactions C. standards D. questions
Question 6: According to the test, polygraph _________.
A. make guilty people angry B. record a person's physical reactions
C. always reveal the truth about a person D. measure a person's thoughts
Question 7: The word "assumption" in paragraph 1 could best be replaced with _________.
A. faith B. imagining C. belief D. statement
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 8: A. ancestor B. chamber C. ancient D. danger
Question 9: A. laughed B. explained C. sacrificed D. cooked
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 10: A. electric B. architect C. luxury D. mineral
Question 11: A. persuade B. decade C. apply D. offer
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 12: The windows are in _________ frames.
A. wooden huge circular B. huge wooden circular
C. huge circular wooden D. circular huge wooden
Question 13: _________, I decided to stop trading with them.
A. Despite of the fact that they were the biggest dealer
B. Even though they were the biggest dealer
C. Though being the biggest dealer
D. Being the biggest dealer
Question 14: There were 30 students in the class who _________ an exam when the bell went off.
 A. was taking B. were taking C. had been taking D. has been taking
Question 15: Vietnam's rice export this year will decrease ______ about 10%, compared with that of last year.
A. with B. at C. on D. by
Question 16: The architects have made _________ use of glass and transparent plastic.
A. imaginative B. imagination C. imaginatively D. imagine
Question 17: It's very cold in here. Do you mind if I _________ the heating?
A. put off B. put up with C. put on D. put down with
Question 18: Many young people in rural areas don't want to spend their lives on the farm like
their _________ parents. So they leave their home villages to find well-paid jobs in the fast-growing industrial
zones.
A. up-to-date B. weather-beaten C. wide-ranging D. long-term
Question 19: If we didn't _________ any measures to protect whales, they would disappear forever.
A. make B. take C. use D. do
Question 20: It seems that you have to cope with the stresses and strains of the job, _________?
A. don't you B. haven't you C. doesn't it D. isn't it
Question 21: The more challenging the job is, _________.
A. the more interesting he finds B. he finds it more interesting
C. the more he finds it interesting D. the more interesting it is to him
Question 22: _________ his term paper before the deadline, he delivered it to the professor before the class.
A. Having finished B. Being finished C. To finish D. Finishing
Question 23: The preparation _________ by the time the guest _________.
A. will have finished - are arriving B. will have been finished - arrives
C. will have finished – arrive D. will have been finished - are arrived
Question 24: The lady along with her friends _________ because of using drugs.
A. have arrested B. were arrested C. was arrested D. arrested
Question 25: I _________ sight of the robber just before he disappeared around the corner.
A. took B. got C. caught D. had
Question 26: He was a natural singer with a voice that was as clear as _________
A. a mirror B. a waterfall C. a bell D. a lake
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 27: New books are displayed in a prominent position on tables at the front of the store.
A. incredible B. enjoyable C. noticeable D. memorable
Question 28: Peter is the black sheep of the family, so he is never welcomed there.
A. a bad and embarrassing member B. the eldest child
C. a beloved member D. the only child
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 29: It was necessary to divide the movie "Roots" into five parts in order to show it on television.
A. transact B. adapt C. merge D. segment
Question 30: Sorry, I can't come to your party. I am snowed under with work at the moment.
A. busy with B. relaxed about C. free from D. interested in
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes the following
exchanges.
Question 31: Grace: "Your hairstyle is terrific, Ariana!" - Ariana: -“________________”
A. Never mention it. B. Thanks, Grace. I had it done yesterday.
C. Thanks, but I'm afraid. D. Yes, all right.
Question 32: Mary is talking to her professor in his office.
- Mary: "Can you tell me how to find material for my science report, professor?"
- Professor: “_____________”
A. You mean the podcasts from other students? B. You can borrow books from the library.
C. Try your best, Mary. D. I like it that you understand.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or
phrase that best fits each other numbered blanks.
SPORTS IN SOCIETY
The position of sport in today's society has changed out of all recognition. People no longer seem to think
of sports as 'just a game' - to be watched or played for the (33) ________ of enjoyment. Instead, it has become
big business worldwide. It has become accepted practice for leading companies to provide sponsorship. TV
companies pay large sums of money to screen important matches or competitions. The result has been huge
rewards for athletes, some of (34) ________ are now very wealthy, particularly top footballers, golfers and
tennis players.
(35) ________, it is not unusual for some athletes to receive large fees on top of their salary, for advertising
products or making personal appearances. A trend towards shorter working hours means that people generally
tend to have more free time, both to watch and to take in sporting activity; sport has become a significant part
of the recreation industry that we now rely (36) ________ to fill our leisure hours. Professional sport is a vital
part of that industry, providing for millions of (37) ________ people all over the world.
Question 33: A. benefit B. good C. sake D. advantage
Question 34: A. whom B. who C. whose D. that
Question 35: A. In contrast B. However C. Therefore D. In addition
Question 36: A. for B. on C. with D. in
Question 37: A. ordinary B. abnormal C. mighty D. extremist
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
The need for a surgical operation, especially an emergency operation, almost always comes as a severe
shock to the patient and his family. Despite modern advances, most people still have an irrational fear
of hospitals and anesthetics. Patients do not often believe they really need surgery- cutting into a part of
the body as opposed to treatment with drugs.
In the early year of the 20" century, there was little specialization in surgery. A good surgeon was
capable of performing almost every operation that had been advised up to that time. Today the situation is
different. Operations are now being carried out that were not even dreamed of fifty years ago. The heart can
be safely opened and its valves repaired. Clogged blood vessels can be cleaned out, and broken ones mended
and replaced. A lung, the whole stomach, or even part of the brain can be removed and still permit the patient
to live a comfortable and satisfactory life. However, not every surgeon wants to, or is qualified to carry
out every type of modern operation.
The scope of surgery has increase remarkable in the past decades. Its safety has increased, too. Deaths
from most operations are about 20% of what they were in 1910 and surgery has been extended in
many directions, for example, to certain types of birth defects in new born babies, and at the other end of the
scale, to life-saving operation for the octogenarian. The hospital stay after surgery has been shortened to as
little as a week for most major operations. Most patients are out of bed on the day after an operation and may
be back at work in two or three weeks.
One of the most revolutionary areas of modern surgery is that of organ transplants. Until a few
decades ago, no person, except an identical twins, was able to accept into his body the tissues of another
person without reacting against them and eventually killing them. Recently, however, it has been discovered
that with the use of X-rays and special drugs, it is possible to graft tissues from one person to another which
will survive for periods of a year or more. Kidneys have been successfully transplanted between non-
identical twins. Heart and lung transplants have also been reasonably successful.
"Spare parts" surgery, the simple routine replacement of all worn-out organs by new ones, is still a
dream of the future but surgery is ready for such miracles. In the meantime, you can be happy if the doctors
say to you: "Yes, I think it is possible to operate on you for this condition".
Question 38: Today, compared with 1910, __________.
A. 20% of all operation patients recover
 B. operation deaths have increased by 20%
C. 20% fewer of all operation patients die
D. five times fewer patients die after being operated on
Question 39: You can be happy if your surgeon can operate because it means __________
A. he is a good doctor B. he thinks your condition may be curable
C. he knows you will survive D. you are getting better already
Question 40: The main difficulty with organ transplants is __________
A. only identical twins can give permission for their organs to be exchanged
B. the body's tendency to reject alien tissues
C. the patient is not allowed to use drugs after them
D. it is difficult to find organs of the same size
Question 41: Surgeons in the early 20 century compared with modern ones __________
A. needed more knowledge B. had less to learn about surgery
C. were more trusted by their patients D. could perform every operation known today
Question 42: Most people are afraid of being operated on __________.
A. in spite of improvements in modem surgery B. unless it is an emergency operation
C. because they do not believe they need anesthetics D. because they think modern drugs are
dangerous
Question 43: A patient can still live a comfortable life even after the removal of __________
A. part of the stomach or the whole liver B. his brain
C. his lungs D. a major organ such as the stomach or one lung
Question 44: The word "Clogged" is most likely to correspond to __________
A. clean B. unwashed C. blocked D. covered
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 45: Several people had apparently tried to change the man's mind, but he refuses to listen.
A. Several B. refuses C. apparently tried D. to listen
Question 46: Rabbit and hares look much like and are often mistaken for each other.
A. like B. look C. mistaken for D. each other
Question 47: No one bought jeans from her since its color was not trendy.
A. her B. jeans C. its D. not trendy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 48: No one has seen Linda since the day of the party.
A. No one has seen Linda for ages.
B. Linda is nowhere to be seen at the party.
C. The party is going on without Linda.
D. Linda has not been seen since the day of the party
Question 49: John was not here yesterday. Perhaps he was ill.
A. John might have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.
B. John must have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.
C. John couldn't be here yesterday because he was ill.
D. Because of his illness, John shouldn't have been here yesterday.
Question 50: "How beautiful is the dress you have just bought!" Peter said to Mary.
A. Peter asked Mary how she had just bought her beautiful dress.
B. Peter complimented Mary on her beautiful dress.
C. Peter said thanks to Mary for her beautiful dress.
D. Peter promised to buy Mary a beautiful dress.
-----THE END-----
 ĐỀ ÔN THI No 20
Mã đề thi 20 Môn: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 1: I can't write that kind of letter unless I'm in the right frame of mind.
A. high spirits B. low spirits C. good mood D. bad mood
Question 2: Tom was not popular with younger colleagues because he adopted a rather patronizing
attitude towards them.
A. respectful B. disapproving C. friendly D. defiant
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 3: She managed to express her thoughts to the interviewer _______ her poor English.
A. in spite of B. though C. because D. because of
Question 4: She never wants to become his wife. I'm sure she will _______ him _______ if he asks her to
marry him.
A. turn-down B. give – up C. put – down D. put – up
Question 5: Since the beginning of April, Sam Son Flower Festival has attracted thousands of _______ to the
beach.
A. customers B. visitors C. clients D. guests
Question 6: As many as 49.743 people in 19 provinces and cities across Vietnam _______ against COVID -
19 in March.
A. vaccinated B. were vaccinating C. were vaccinated D. vaccinate
Question 7: The faster we walk, _______ we will get there.
A. the soon B. the sooner C. the soonest D. the more soon
Question 8: This is a picture of a/an _______ castle.
A. white Egypt ancient B. ancient white Egypt C. Egypt ancient white D. Egypt white
ancient
Question 9: _______ all the exercises, she went to bed.
A. To do B. Having done C. Being done D. Had done
Question 10: The students are excited _______ the coming summer holiday.
A. for B. with C. to D. about
Question 11: The injury _______ her compliments on her excellent knowledge of the subject.
A. gave B. said C. made D. paid
Question 12: She completed the remaining work at her office in great _______ so as not to miss the last bus to
her home.
A. hurry B. haste C. rush D. speed
Question 13: I can't go out this morning. I'm up to my _______ in reports.
A. nose B. ears C. lips D. eye
Question 14: On April 10th, the advertisement for Vinfast VF-e36 model car on CNN instantly caught
_______ of TV viewers and netizens worldwide.
A. attends B. attention C. attentive D. attentively
Question 15: When I went out, the sun _______.
A. was shining B. is shining C. shines D. shone
Question 16: She's beautiful, _______?
A. isn't she B. doesn't she C. didn't she D. won't she
Question 17: The secretary will have finished the preparations for the meeting _______.
A. by the time the boss arrives B. after the boss had arrived
 C. as soon as the boss had arrived D. when the boss arrived
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. noticed B. finished C. supported D. approached
Question 19: A. stone B. zone C. phone D. none
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. relax B. enter C. behave D. allow
Question 21: A. altitude B. stimulate C. company D. decision
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Children brought up in a caring environment tend to grow more sympathetic towards others.
A. loving B. dishonest C. healthy D. hateful
Question 23: A series of programs have been broadcast to raise public awareness of healthy living.
A. assistance B. confidence C. understanding D. experience
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24: Ted and Kate are talking about the school curriculum.
- Ted: "Swimming should be made part of the school curriculum."
- Kate: “_________. It is an essential life skill."
A. I can't agree with you more B. Oh, that's a problem
C. You can make it D. Not at all
Question 25: Tom is talking to John, his new classmate, in the classroom.
- Tom: "How did you get here?”
- John: “__________________”
A. I came here by train. B. Is it far from here?
C. The train is so crowded. D. I came here last night.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Imaginary friends in early childhood
Many children have an imaginary friend – that is a friend they have invented. It was once thought that only
children (26) _______ had difficulty in creating relationships with others had imaginary friends. In
fact, having an imaginary friend is probably a common aspect of a normal childhood (27) _______ many
children with lots of real friends also have an imaginary friend. The imaginary friend may help some children
cope with emotional difficulties, but for (28) _______, having an imaginary friend is just fun.
There is no firm evidence to say that having an imaginary friend (29) _______ us anything about what
a child will be like in the future. One (30) _______ of research, though, has suggested that adults who once had
imaginary friends may be more creative than those who did not.
(Adapted from First Certificate in English, Cambridge University Press)
Question 26: A. whom B. who C. whose D. which
Question 27: A. so B. as C. although D. but
Question 28: A. many B. much C. another D. every
Question 29: A. advises B. informs C. tells D. reveals
Question 30: A. piece B. unit C. item D. section
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 31: Lan had some shocking words on her facebook. Then, everyone knew her.
A. Hardly when Lan had some shocking words on her facebook everyone knew her.
B. Only after Lan had some shocking words on her facebook everyone knew her.
C. Only when Lan had some shocking words on her facebook did everyone know her.
 D. Until Lan had some shocking words on her facebook did everyone knew her.
Question 32: My brother is away on business. I really need his help now.
A. As long as my brother is at home, he will be able to help me.
B. If only my brother had been at home and could have helped me.
C. If my brother is at home, he can help me now.
D. I wish my brother were at home and could help me now.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 33 to 39.
How do children learn about wildlife? And is what they learn the sort of thing they should be learning?
It is my belief that children should not just be acquiring knowledge of animals but also developing attitudes
and feelings towards them based on exposure to the real lives of animals in their natural habitats. But is
this happening?
Some research in this area indicates that it is not. Learning about animals in school is often completely
disconnected from the real lives of real animals, with the result that children often end up with little or
no understanding or lasting knowledge of them. They learn factual information about animals, aimed
at enabling them to identify them and have various abstract ideas about them, but that is the extent of
their learning. Children's storybooks tend to personify animals as characters rather than teach about them.
For direct contact with wild and international animals, the only opportunity most children have is visiting
a zoo. The educational benefit of this for children is often given as the main reason for doing it but research has
shown that zoo visits seldom add to children's knowledge of animals – the animals are simply like exhibits in
a museum that the children look at without engaging with them as living creatures. Children who belong to
wildlife or environmental organizations or who watch wildlife TV programmes, however, show significantly
higher knowledge than any other group of children studied in research. The studies show that if children learn
about animals in their natural habitats, particularly through wildlife-based activities, they know more about
them than they do as a result of visiting zoos or learning about them in the classroom.
Research has also been done into the attitudes of children towards animals. It shows that in general
terms, children form strong attachments to individual animals, usually their pets, but do not have strong
feelings for animals in general. This attitude is the norm regardless of the amount or kind of learning about
animals they have at school. However, those children who watch television wildlife programmes show an
interest in and affection for wildlife in its natural environment, and their regard for animals in general is
higher.
(Adapted from New English File, by Christina Latham -Koenig, Oxford University Press)
Question 33: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Zoos: The Best Opportunity to Learn About Animals
B. Methods of Learning About Animals at School
C. Learning About Animals at School
D. Research on Learning About Animals
Question 34: The word “disconnected” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. separated B. removed C. divided D. disagreed
Question 35: What opinion does the writer express in the second paragraph?
A. What children learn about animals at school is often inaccurate.
B. The amount of acquired knowledge about animals at school is adequate.
C. Children's storybooks are an effective way of teaching them about animals.
D. Children's learning about animals at school has the wrong emphasis.
Question 36: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. ideas B. children's storybooks C. children D. animals
Question 37: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Children's storybooks give factual information about animals.
B. The writer raises the issue of the outcome of what children learn about animals.
C. Learning about animals in their natural habitats teaches children more about animals than other
methods. D. Zoo visits have less educational benefit than they are believed to have.
Question 38: It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that children's attitudes to animals ______.
A. depend on whether or not they have pets
B. differ from what adults might expect them to be
C. based on how much they know about the animals
D. are not affected by what they learn about them at school
Question 39: The word “regard” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to______.
A. opinion B. respect C. attitude D. sympathy
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 40: A Tokyo newspaper - television company has organized the climb in 1975.
A. Tokyo B. company C. has organized D. in
Question 41: I felt annoyed by his continuous interruptions at the meeting this morning.
A. annoyed B. continuous C. interruptions D. at
Question 42: Ordinary Americans are friendly and not afraid to show its feelings.
A. Ordinary B. are C. not D. its
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 43 to 47.
Charles Lutwidge Dodgson is perhaps not a name that is universally recognized, but Dodgson did
achieve enormous success under the pseudonym Lewis Carroll. He created this pseudonym from the
Latinization, Carolus Ludovicus, of his real given name. It was under the name Lewis Carroll that Dodgson
published the children's books Alice's Adventures in Wonderland (1865) and its sequel Through the Looking
Glass (1872). Though Dodgson achieved this success in children's literature, he was not an author of children's
books by training or profession. His education and chosen field of pursuit were far removed from the field
of children's literature and were instead focused on theoretical mathematics.
Dodgson graduated with honors from Christ Church, Oxford, in 1854 and then embarked on a career in
the world of academia. He worked as a lecturer in mathematics at Oxford and, later in his career, published
a number of theoretical works on mathematics under his own name rather than under the pseudonym that
he used for his children's stories. He produced a number of texts for students, such as A Syllabus of
Plane Algebraical Geometry (1860), Formulae of Plane Trigonometry (1861), which was notable for the
creativity of the symbols that he used to express trigonometric functions such as sine and cosine, and A Guide
for the Mathematical Student (1866). In a number of more esoteric works, he championed the principles of
Euclid; in Euclid and his Modern Rivals (1879), he presented his ideas on the superiority of Euclid over
rival mathematicians in a highly imaginative fashion, by devising, a courtroom trial of anti-
Euclid mathematicians that he named "Euclid-wreakers" and ultimately finding the defendants guilty as
charged. Curiosa Mathematica (1888-1893) made a further defense of Euclid's work, focusing on Euclid's
definition of parallel lines. These academic works never had the universal impact of Dodgson's works for
children using the name Lewis Carroll, but they demonstrate a solid body of well-regarded academic material.
Question 43: The word "pseudonym" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. real name B. family name C. pen pal D. pen name
Question 44: The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. Dogson's works for children B. children
C. these academic works D. parallel lines
Question 45: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. The Works of Lewis Carroll
B. Dodgson and Carroll: Mathematics and Children's Stories
C. Charles Dodgson and Euclid
D. The Story of Alice's Adventures in Wonderland
Question 46: According to the passage, Dodgson ______.
A. used the same name on all his published works
B. used a pseudonym for the work about courtroom trial
C. did not use his given name on his stories for children
 D. used the name Caroll on his mathematic works
Question 47: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Dodgon was an outstanding student. B. Dodgon attended Christ Church, Oxford.
C. Dodgon was a published author of academic works. D. Dodgon studied children's literature.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 48: “Would you like to go to the cinema with me?” Jane said to Mary.
A. Jane encouraged Mary to go to the cinema with her.
B. Jane reminded Mary to go to the cinema with her.
C. Jane invited Mary to go to the cinema with her.
D. Jane persuaded Mary to go to the cinema with her.
Question 49: They last saw each other six months ago.
A. They haven't seen each other for six months. B. They haven't seen each other since six months.
C. They have seen each other for six months. D. They didn't see each other six months ago.
Question 50: I'm sure Luisa was very disappointed when she failed the exam.
A. Luisa could have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.
B. Luisa may be very disappointed when she failed the exam.
C. Luisa might be very disappointed when she failed the exam.
D. Luisa must have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.
-----THE END-----

Mã đề thi: 21 ĐỀ ÔN THI No 21
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 1: They finished one project. They started working on the next.
A. Only if they had they finished one project did they start working on the next.
B. Hardly had they finished one project when they started working on the next.
C. Had they finished one project, they would have started working on the next.
D. Not until they started working on the next project did they finish the previous one.
Question 2: Susan didn't apply for the summer job in the café. She now regrets it.
A. Susan wishes that she had applied for the summer job in the café.
B. Susan wishes that she applied for the summer job in the café.
C. Susan feels regret because she applied for the summer job in the café.
D. If only Susan didn't apply for the summer job in the café.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. decided B. installed C. visited D. appointed
Question 4: A. put B. nut C. shut D. cut
Mark the letter B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) each of the following questions.
Question 5: I'll take the new job whose salary is fantastic.
A. reasonable B. acceptable C. wonderful D. decisive
Question 6: The African rhino is an endangered species and needs protecting.
A. unstable B. dangerous C. insecure D. independent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: I was going to have a go at parachuting but lost my nerve at the last minute.
A. was determined to go ahead B. lost my temper
C. was discouraged from trying D. began to dislike it
Question 8: Smart robots have replaced humans in stressful and hazardous jobs and in assembly lines.
A. dangerous B. risky C. safe D. perilous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.
Question 9: Two friends, Peter and Linda are talking about family.
- Peter: "I think it is a good idea to have three or four generations living under one roof."
- Linda: “_______. They can help each other a lot."
A. I totally agree B. It's not true C. That’s wrong D. I don't agree
Question 10: Marry is talking to Linda over the phone.
- Mary: "Thank you for helping me prepare for the party."
- Linda: “____________”
A. The meal was out of this world. B. My pleasure.
C. Never mention the incident again. D. Of course not.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 11: ______ the difficulty, they managed to climb to the top of the mountain.
A. Although B. Because C. In spite of D. Because of
Question 12: Marie Curie is famous ______ her contribution to science.
A. with B. for C. at D. on
Question 13: ______ he traveled, the more he learned.
A. Far B. Farthest C. The farthest D. The farther
Question 14: If you want to be healthy, you should ______ your bad habits in your lifestyles.
A. give up B. call off C. break down D. get over
Question 15: He was offered the job thanks to his ______ performance during his job interview.
A. impress B. impression C. impressively D. impressive
Question 16: Students can _____ a lot of information just by attending class and taking good notes of
the lectures.
A. absorb B. provide C. transmit D. read
Question 17: Make sure you ______ us a visit when you are in town again.
A. give B. do C. pay D. have
Question 18: Hung will have finished his project on sustainable development______.
A. when he came back B. after he had come back
C. as soon as he had come back D. by the time he comes back
Question 19: Jane really loves the ______ jewelry box that her parents gave her as a birthday present.
A. nice brown wooden B. nice wooden brown
C. wooden brown nice D. brown wooden nice
Question 20: After a good night's sleep he woke up feeling as fresh as a ______ and eager to start work again.
A. daisy B. fruit C. kitten D. maiden
Question 21: Your store needs a bold sign that will catch the ______ of anyone walking down the street. That
may help to sell more products.
A. eye B. peek C. flash D. glimpse
Question 22: She's your sister-in-law, ______?
A. won't she B. didn't she C. doesn't she D. isn't she
Question 23: This issue ______ up by the employees during the meeting.
A. brought B. was bring C. bring D. was brought
Question 24: He saw a terrible accident yesterday while he ______ along Ben Luc Bridge.
 A. was walking B. is walking C. walked D. walks
Question 25: ______ on the topic of the presentation, he started finding relevant information for it.
A. Having decided B. Decided C. To decide D. Being decided
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The invention of the mobile phone has undoubtedly revolutionized the way people communicate
and influenced every aspect of our lives. The issue is whether this technological innovation has (26)
______ more harm than good. In order to answer the question, we must first turn to the types of consumers.
Presumably, most parents (27) ______ are always worrying about their children's safety buy mobile phones
for them to track their whereabouts. We can also assume that (28) ______ phones to avoid missing out
on social contact. In this context, the advantages are clear. (29) ______ teenagers want mobile cannot deny
the fact that text messages have been used by bullies to intimidate fellow students. There is also (30)
______ evidence that texting has affected literacy skills.
Question 26: A. done B. played C. made D. brought
Question 27: A. which B. whom C. who D. what
Question 28: A. each B. much C. every D. most
Question 29: A. Moreover B. However C. Therefore D. So that
Question 30: A. indisputable B. arguable C. doubtful D. hesitated
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Body language is a vital form of communication. In fact, it is believed that the various forms of
body language contribute about 70 percent to our comprehension. It is important to note, however, that
body language varies in different cultures. Take for example, eye movement. In the USA a child is expected
to look directly at a parent or teacher who is scolding him/her. In other cultures the opposite is true.
Looking directly at a teacher or parent in such a situation is considered a sign of disrespect.
Another form of body language that is used differently, depending on the culture, is distance. In
North America people don't generally stand as close to each other as in South America. Two North Americans
who don't know each other well will keep a distance of four feet between them, whereas South Americans in
the same situation will stand two to three feet apart. North Americans will stand closer than two feet apart
only if they are having a confidential conversation or if there is intimacy between them.
Gestures are often used to communicate. We point a finger, raise an eyebrow, wave an arm – or move
any other part of the body – to show what we want to say. However, this does not mean that people all over
the world use the same gestures to express the same meanings. Very often we find that the same gestures
can communicate different meanings, depending on the country. An example of a gesture that could
be misinterpreted is sticking out the tongue. In many cultures it is a sign of making a mistake, but in some
places it communicates ridicule.
The dangers of misunderstanding one another are great. Obviously, it is not enough to learn the language
of another culture. You must also learn its non-verbal signals if you want to communicate successfully.
(Adapted from "Reading Academic English" by Judy Rapoport, Ronit Broder and Sarah Feingold)
Question 31: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Misunderstandings in communication B. Interpretations of gestures in different cultures
C. The significance of non-verbal signals in America D. Non-verbal communication across cultures
Question 32: The word "misinterpreted" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. mispronounced B. misbehaved C. misspelled D. misunderstood
Question 33: The word "it" in paragraph 3 refers to_________.
A. the country B. an example
C. sticking out the tongue D. making a mistake
Question 34: As stated in the last paragraph, in order to communicate successfully with people from
another culture, it is advisable for a person _________.
A. to use the body language of the people from that culture
B. to learn both the language and non-verbal signals of that culture
 C. to learn only non-verbal signals of that culture
D. to travel to as many countries as possible
Question 35: Which form of body language is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. distance B. posture C. gesture D. eye movement
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
What picture do you have of the future? Will life in the future be better, worse or the same as now? What
do you hope about the future?
Futurologists predict that life will probably be very different in 2050 in all the fields, from entertainment
to technology. First of all, it seems that TV channels will have disappeared. Instead, people will choose
a program from a 'menu' and a computer will send the program directly to the television. Today, we can use the
World Wide Web to read newspaper stories and see pictures on a computer thousands of kilometers away. By
2050, music, films, programs, newspapers and books will come to us by computer.
In what concerns the environment, water will have become one of our most serious problems. In
many places, agriculture is changing and farmers are growing fruit and vegetables to export. This uses a lot
of water. Demand for water will increase ten times between now and 2050 and there could be
serious shortages. Some futurologists predict that water could be the cause of war if we don't act now.
In transport, cars running on new, clean fuels will have computers to control the speed and there won't
be any accidents. Today, many cars have computers that tell drivers exactly where they are. By 2050,
the computer will control the car and drive it to your destination. On the other hand, space planes will
take people halfway around the world in two hours. Nowadays, the United States Shuttle can go into space
and land on Earth again. By 2050, space planes will fly all over the world and people will fly from Los
Angeles to Tokyo in just two hours.
In the domain of technology, robots will have replaced people in factories. Many factories already
use robots. Big companies prefer robots - they do not ask for pay rises or go on strike, and they work 24 hours
a day. By 2050, we will see robots everywhere - in factories, schools, offices, hospitals, shops and homes.
Last but not least, medicine technology will have conquered many diseases. Today, there are
electronic devices that connect directly to the brain to help people hear. By 2050, we will be able to help blind
and deaf people see and hear again. Scientists have discovered how to control genes. They have already
produced clones of animals. By 2050, scientists will be able to produce clones of people and decide how they
look, how they behave and how much intelligence they have.
(Source: Cambridge English for Schools by Andrew Littlejohn, Diana Hicks)
Question 36: The word "This" in paragraph 3 refers to _________.
A. the possible war B. the cash crop planting
C. the serious shortage D. the demand for water
Question 37: The word "domain" in the fifth paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. way of life B. interest C. field of expertise D. challenge
Question 38: The word "conquered" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. controlled B. diagnosed C. transmitted D. caused
Question 39: What may NOT be true about life in 2050?
A. Many forms of entertainment will come to us thanks to computer.
B. Blind and deaf people will be helped by scientists to see and hear again.
C. Scientists will be able to produce clones of people and decide how intelligent they are.
D. Our sources of water for agriculture will increase ten times.
Question 40: The passage mainly discusses_________.
A. The effect of the futurologists' prediction on our lives.
B. The effect of telecommunication on our future life.
C. The changes in our future life compared with our life today.
D. The importance of cloning in the future.
Question 41: We can conclude from the passage that in 2050 _________
A. people will be able to travel around the world in two hours.
 B. fewer cars will be used to keep the environment green and clean.
C. no one will be injured or die because of accidents.
D. space planes will take the place of cars as a means of transport.
Question 42: What can be inferred about the life in 2050 according to the passage?
A. Life in 2050 will be much better than that of today.
B. TV will be an indispensable means of communication and business.
C. People will not suffer from the shortage of water due to the polar melting.
D. The deaf will not have to depend any longer on the electronic hearing devices.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43: At 8 o'clock last night, she is reading an interesting detective story.
A. At B. interesting C. is D. story
Question 44: Germany, in companion with France, has now lifted the ban on the export of live animals to
Europe.
A. has B. in companion C. lifted the ban D. to
Question 45: Many women prefer to use cosmetics to enhance her beauty and make them look younger.
A. prefer B. cosmetics C. and D. her
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: He last had his eyes tested ten months ago.
A. He had not tested his eyes for ten months then.
B. He had tested his eyes ten months before.
C. He hasn't had his eyes tested for ten months.
D. He didn't have any test on his eyes in ten months.
Question 47: "Would you like to have dinner with me?", Miss Hoa said to me.
A. Miss Hoa told me to have dinner with her.
B. Miss Hoa invited me to have dinner with her.
C. Miss Hoa asked me if she liked to have dinner with me.
D. Miss Hoa suggested me if I would like to have dinner with her or not.
Question 48: Every student is required to write an essay on the topic.
A. Every student might write an essay on the topic.
B. Every student should write an essay on the topic
C. They require every student can write an essay on the topic.
D. Every student must write an essay on the topic.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 49: A. explore B. design C. require D. threaten
Question 50: A. entertain B. solution C. referee D. afternoon
--------THE END------

ĐỀ ÔN THI No 22
Mã đề 22 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.
Hi! I'm Susan and I've decided to start this blog to document my Life in Lockdown. We've been in
Lockdown now for a week in the UK. That means we have to stay at home almost all the time. We're allowed
out once a day to exercise and we can go to the supermarket to buy essentials. You have to try and stay two
meters away from other people when you go out. I'm starting to get used to the situation now but it still feels
like a dream sometimes. It's pretty surreal when I look outside and there's no one around.
My mum is a nurse, so she is classed as a key worker and is still going to work every day. The
company where my dad works has had to close its stores and furlough all of their employees – that means my
dad is still employed but he is not allowed to go to work until his company say he can return.
I went to school before and I was studying for exams, so my life has changed quite a lot. I found
the situation a bit overwhelming at first. The hardest part has been social distancing. I really miss seeing
my friends in person but we chat every day online. I also have to study a lot by myself now and I find that
really challenging.
My little brother sometimes distracts me when I'm trying to study because he always wants to
play. However, one of the positives of the lockdown has been spending more time with my family. I try to
stick to a routine each day that also includes time for exercise, some online socializing and something fun
or creative like playing a board game with my family. This is helping me make the best of it! I'd love to
know what you are doing to stay positive during the lockdown. Let me know in the comments!
(Adapted from https://www.cambridgeenglish.org)
Question 1: What could be the best title for this passage?
A. Occupation in lockdown B. Lockdown in the UK
C. Life in lockdown D. How my life has changed
Question 2: Which did the writer mention as the most difficult part of studying during the lockdown?
A. being away from her friends B. preparing for exams
C. overwhelming workload D. being distracted by her brother
Question 3: What is NOT true about the life in Lockdown?
A. People are allowed to go out once a day to exercise or to buy essentials.
B. People are not allowed to go out.
C. People keep the distance of two meters away from others when they go out.
D. People stay at home almost all the time.
Question 4: What can be inferred about her father?
A. His job is not important. B. He does not earn as much as her mother does.
C. He has lost his job. D. He is not working temporarily.
Question 5: The word "surreal” in the paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ……….
A. uncomfortable B. frightening C. strange D. very real
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 6: A. politics B. society C. biology D. attraction
Question 7: A. survive B. finish C. damage D. threaten
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines of each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 8: Hans told us about his investing in the company. He did it on his arrival at the meeting.
A. Not until Hans told us that he would invest in the company did he arrive at the meeting.
B. Only after investing in the company did Hans informs us of his arrival at the meeting.
C. Hardly had he informed us about his investing in the company when Hans arrived at the meeting.
D. No sooner had Hans arrived at the meeting than he told us about his investing in the company.
Question 9: Nam didn't take his close friend's advice. That's why he is out of work.
A. If Nam took his close friend's advice; he wouldn't be out of work.
B. If Nam takes his close friend's advice, he will not be out of work.
C. If Nam had taken his close friend's advice, he wouldn't be out of work.
D. If Nam had taken his close friend's advice; he wouldn't have been out of work.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
part in each of the following questions.
Question 10: Henry is interested in wildlife and takes pleasure in watching animals in their natural habitats.
 A. sadness B. change C. delight D. surprise
Question 11: I take my hat off to all the doctors who have worked hard to keep us safe in this pandemic.
A. trust B. disrespect C. admire D. respect
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Australians place a high value on independence and personal choice. This means that a teacher or course
tutor will not tell students what to do, but will give them a number of options and suggest they work out which
one is the best in their circumstances. It also means that they are expected to take action if something goes
wrong and seek out resources and support for themselves.
Australians are also prepared to accept a range of opinions rather than believing there is one truth.
This means that in an educational setting, students will be expected to form their own opinions and defend
the reasons for that point of view and the evidence for it.
Australians are uncomfortable with differences in status and hence idealise the idea of treating
everyone equally. An illustration of this is that most adult Australians call each other by their first names.
This concern with equality means that Australians are uncomfortable taking anything too seriously and are
even ready to joke about themselves.
Australians believe that life should have a balance between work and leisure time. As a consequence, some
students may be critical of others who they perceive as doing nothing but study. Australian notions of privacy
mean that areas such as financial matters, appearance and relationships are only discussed with close friends.
While people may volunteer such information, they may resent someone actually asking them unless the
friendship is firmly established. Even then, it is considered very impolite to ask someone what they earn. With
older people, it is also rude to ask how old they are, why they are not married or why they do not have children.
It is also impolite to ask people how much they have paid for something, unless there is a very good reason
for asking.
(Adapted from Complete IELTS student book by Guy Brook Hart and Vanessa Jakeman)
Question 12: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The story about Australia B. Australian culture
C. Australian culture shock D. What should we do when we come to
Australia?
Question 13: The word "critical” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to........
A. faultfinding B. complimentary C. grateful D. appreciative
Question 14: In paragraph 3, most adult Australians call each other by their first names because.....
A. Australians are difficult to remember people's surnames.
B. Australians get on well with each other.
C. Calling each other by their first names make them more friendly.
D. Australians restrict class discrimination.
Question 15: The word "status" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to……….
A. position B. marriage C. qualification D. job
Question 16: The word "them" in paragraph 1 refers to............
A. Australians B. circumstances C. students D. options
Question 17: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. A teacher or course tutor will not tell students what to do.
B. Australians are always prepared to believe that there is one truth.
C. Australians are also prepared to accept a range of opinions.
D. Students in Australia will be expected to form their own opinions.
Question 18: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 5?
A. It is polite when Australians ask each other about their salary.
B. It is unacceptable to discuss financial issues with people you do not know well.
C. Australians often ask each other their ages and tell each other about children.
D. It is wise to ask how old they are.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
part in each of the following questions.
Question 19: President Ho Chi Minh is a distinguished cultural celebrity. He opened the way of liberation for
all oppressed people in the world.
A. generous B. emotional C. outstanding D. friendly
Question 20: The soup was so tasty that Harry asked for another serving.
A. tough B. soft C. delicious D. awful
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 21: This is the first time I have attended such an enjoyable wedding party.
A. My attendance at the first wedding party was enjoyable.
B. I had the first enjoyable wedding party.
C. I have never attended such an enjoyable wedding party before.
D. The first wedding party I attended was enjoyable.
Question 22: "Why don't you put a better lock on the door, John?” Mary said.
A. Mary begged John to put a better lock on the door.
B. Mary wondered why John hadn't put a better lock on the door.
C. Mary forced John to put a better lock on the door.
D. Mary suggested that John should put a better lock on the door.
Question 23: Joey put all his money on the lottery, which was his big mistake.
A. Joey may not have put all his money on the lottery.
B. Joey can't have put all his money on the lottery.
C. Joey shouldn't have put all his money on the lottery.
D. Joey needn't have put all his money on the lottery.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 24: …………... you study, ............. marks you will get.
A. The more / the much B. The harder / the best
C. The harder / the better D. The hardest / the best
Question 25: My father refused to eat meat that had been fired. He had …………... in his bonnet about
it causing cancer.
A. a bee B. an ant C. a bull D. a bug
Question 26: She turned over a new …………... and began getting to work on time.
A. leaf B. style C. person D. image
Question 27: Everyone loves music, ........?
A. aren't they B. don't they C. are they D. do they
Question 28: My mother bought me a …………... car on the occasion of my birthday.
A. modern black Japanese B. Japanese modern black
C. black Japanese modern D. black modern Japanese
Question 29: …………... he is more than 65 years old now, he is still quite active.
A. Because B. Because of C. Despite D. Although
Question 30: …………... it further with her husband, she decided to accept the job offer.
A. Discussing B. Having discussed C. Discussed D. After discuss
Question 31: English is a language that …………... all over the world.
A. is spoken widely B. is widely spoken C. widely spoken D. widely is spoken
Question 32: Many students in this high school are not familiar ............... ICT assessment tools.
A. on B. with C. about D. to
Question 33: Project-based learning provides wonderful opportunities for students to develop
their …………...
 A. creativity B. create C. creative D. creatively
Question 34: They are tired now because they …………...in the field since early morning.
A. have been working B. are working C. worked D. work
Question 35: …………....., we will have a game of tennis.
A. Once you had finished work B. As soon as you finish work
C. Until you finished work D. When you finished work
Question 36: Thousands of American innovators came …………... thousands of practical ideas and
technologies in the fight against the coronavirus.
A. on B. up with C. in D. off
Question 37: The scholarship Jane was granted…………... a big difference to her life and her career.
A. made B. found C. gave D. got
Question 38: PF has installed more than 60 air …………... devices in campus buildings and 238 in
campus elevators.
A. adjustment B. purification C. pollution D. absorption
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 39: A. sesame B. radio C. page D. state
Question 40: A. translated B. landed C. pretended D. raised
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.
Question 41: Mrs Brown and Mrs Smith are talking about teaching teamwork skills to children.
- Mrs Brown: "Teamwork skills should be taught to children.”
- Mrs Smith: “........ They are necessary for their future life.”
A. You're wrong. B. You're welcome.
C. I don't either. D. I totally agree with you.
Question 42: Lucia is calling to Mrs. Mary's home.
- Lucia: "Hello, may I speak to Mrs. Mary, please?”
- Call receiver: “…………...”
A. Of course, not B. Wait here C. Hold on, please D. Yes, please
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that need to be corrected
in each of the following questions.
Question 43: They point out that Internet banking did not result in the closure of its high-street branches
as was predicted.
A. point B. in C. its D. was
Question 44: Food prices have raised so rapidly in the past few months that many families have to change their
eating habit.
A. Food prices B. raised C. in the past D. that
Question 45: Last week Mark tells me that he got very bored with his present job and was looking for a new
one.
A. tells B. got C. was looking D. new one
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each
of the numbered blank space in the following passage.
Benefits of Laughter Yoga
Laughing is good for the body and the mind. When we laugh, we breathe more oxygen into our body, (46)
_______ helps to keep us healthy. Endorphins, or happy chemicals, are released in the body, and you feel
more relaxed and happier. Laughter also brings people together to (47) _______ some fun.
Companies who have (48) _______ laughter yoga workshops find that they have advantages for
both employers and employees. People who are happy at work are more hard-working and make more money
for the company. Also, people who can laugh together communicate more successfully. (49) _______,
people do better at work when they feel happy and relaxed.
 A Danish company who used Laughter Yoga for (50) _______ year reported an increase in sales of
40 percent over the previous year. Following Laughter Yoga session, a Hawaiian timeshare company
reported the highest sales of the year - double their target figures.
Question 46: A. what B. which C. that D. how
Question 47: A. share B. give C. offer D. divide
Question 48: A. run B. built C. stood D. jumped
Question 49: A. In general B. Although C. Beside D. However
Question 50: A. few B. one C. certain D. many
-------THE END------

ĐỀ ÔN THI No 23
Mã đề thi 23 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.
All North American canids have a doglike appearance characterized by a graceful body, long muzzle, erect
ears, slender legs, and bushy tail. Most are social animals that travel and hunt in groups or pairs. After years
of persecution by humans, the populations of most North American canids, especially wolves and foxes, have
decreased greatly. The coyote, however, has thrived alongside humans, increasing in both numbers and range.
Its common name comes from coyotl, the term used by Mexico's Nahuatl Indians, and its scientific name,
canis latrans, means "barking dog." The coyote's vocalizations are varied, but the most distinctive are given
at dusk, dawn, or during the night and consists of a series of barks followed by a prolonged howl and ending
with a short, sharp yap. This call keeps the band alert to the locations of its members. One voice usually
prompts others to join in, resulting in the familiar chorus heard at night throughout the west.
The best runner among the canids, the coyote is able to leap fourteen feet and cruise normally at 25-30
miles per hour. It is a strong swimmer and does not hesitate to enter water after prey. In feeding, the coyote is
an opportunist, eating rabbits, mice, ground squirrels, birds, snakes, insects, many kinds of fruit, and carrion
- whatever is available. To catch larger prey, such as deer or antelope, the coyote may team up with one or
two others, running in relays to tire prey or waiting in ambush while others chase prey toward it. Often a
badger serves as involuntary supplier of smaller prey: while it digs for rodents at one end of their burrow, the
coyote waits for any that may emerge from an escape hole at the other end.
Predators of the coyote once included the grizzly and black bears, the mountain lion, and the wolf, but
their declining populations make them no longer a threat. Man is the major enemy, especially since coyote
pelts have become increasingly valuable, yet the coyote population continues to grow, despite efforts at
trapping and poisoning.
Question 1: The passage supports all of the following statements EXCEPT _________.
A. the coyote is a threat to humans
B. the coyote is a social animal
C. the coyote lives successfully near human populations
D. the coyote is an efficient and athletic predator
Question 2: The author mentions wolves and foxes as examples of _________.
A. prey B. canids C. rodent D. coyote
Question 3: The word "band" in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by __________.
A. group B. leader C. orchestra D. choir
Question 4: The word "opportunist" in paragraph 3 means the one who __________.
A. always has good luck B. likes to team up with others
,
C. is very narrow in his interests D. takes advantage of circumstances
Question 5: The word "any” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. badgers B. coyotes C. rodents D. burrows
Question 6: The author makes the point that the chief predator of the coyote is __________.
A. the human being B. the wolf C. the grizzly bear D. the mountain lion
Question 7: It can be inferred from the passage that _________.
A. efforts to trap and poison the coyote will increase
B. the coyote is an intelligent and adaptable creature
C. people will continue to fear the coyote
D. the coyote is an endangered species
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 8:
- Jenny: "Are you going to see the movie "Kieu" today?"
- Jack: “____________”
A. Yes, I'm going to stay in B. Yes, I enjoyed it very much
C. I think so D. Maybe I'll be out
Question 9:
- Jim: "Would you like to do something interesting tomorrow?"
- Jane: “___________”
A. Yes, I do B. No, I hate it
C. Yes, it's very expensive D. Sure, I'd love to
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 10: Certain groups of people are not given work ________ their race or religion.
A. in spite of B. because of C. although D. because
Question 11: While many people choose to watch films at ________ home, I prefer going to _______ cinema.
A. the/the B. x/the C. the/x D. x/a
Question 12: Jack was ___________ envy when his colleagues drove up in a brand-new BMV.
A. black with B. pale with C. green with D. red with
Question 13: The officer __________ Linda on the highway gave her a ticket for speeding.
A. whom stopped B. which stopped C. who stopped D. stopped
Question 14: At the centre of the Earth's solar system ________.
A. is where the Sun lies B. lies the Sun C. the Sun lies D. does the Sun lie
Question 15: Contagious diseases like Covid-19 _________ big problem facing human beings.
A. is a B. is C. are D. are a
Question 16: __________ tired, you should go to bed early.
A. So as not to feel B. In order for not feeling
C. In order to feel D. So as to not feel
Question 17: If Joan had done as I told her, I think she ___________.
A. would have succeeded B. had succeeded C. would succeed D. could succeed
Question 18: Even though she was _________ the other girls, Jenny didn't win the beauty contest.
A. more prettier than B. the prettiest than C. the prettiest among D. much prettier
than
Question 19: Like many countryside people, I __________ a glass of green tea every morning.
A. am used to drink B. used to drinking C. am used to drinking D. use to drink
Question 20: I can't _________ what James is doing because it is so dark down there.
A. turn up B. look into C. see through D. make out
Question 21: Melisa works hard _________ her brother is very lazy.
A. when B. even if C. whereas D. unless
Question 22: Charles is very keen __________ collecting stamps in his leisure time.
A. of B. on C. about D. of
Question 23: What _______ at 8 o'clock last night? I phoned you but couldn't get through to you.
A. had you done B. would you do C. were you doing D. did you do
Question 24: They were fortunate ___________ from the fire before the building collapsed.
A. rescuing B. to have rescued C. to have been rescued D. to rescue
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 25: It is essential that you attend the class regularly.
A. You must have attended the class regularly.
B. You must attend the class regularly.
C. You will ought to attend the class regularly.
D. You might attend the class regularly.
Question 26: Many people believe that doing sports is a good way to lose weight.
A. Doing sports is believed to be a good way to lose weight.
B. It is believed that doing sports be a good way to lose weight.
C. A good way to lose weight is to be doing sports.
D. Doing sports is believed that it is a good way to lose weight.
Question 27: "Get away now or I will call the police", shouted the girl to the man.
A. The girl said that she would call the police if the man didn't get away.
B. The girl promised to call the police if he didn't get away.
C. The girl informed the man that she would call the police if he didn't get away.
D. The girl threatened to call the police if the man didn't get away.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the following numbered blanks.
Development economics is the branch of economics that focuses on the special (28) ________ problems
faced (29) _________ poor and underdeveloped countries. (30) ________ classical economics, development
economics studies the social and political factors that affect economic growth. It addresses the problem of the
Third World debt and the role of the World Bank and International Monetary Fund in continuing that debt
with strict repayment rules. Scholars in the field have proposed that the best long-term solution
(31) __________ to excuse much of the debt. Debtor nations also must be helped to establish stable
governments and self-sustaining economies. The goal is to help them become trading partners with creditor
nations. An important means to that end is to (32) _________ the growth of a strong middle class. Some ways
to do that include guaranteeing education for all, allowing free trade, and providing medical care. Governments
must allow for elected representatives and independent court systems.
Question 28: A. economize B. economy C. economic D. economical
Question 29: A. of B. by. C. down D. for
Question 30: A. Unlike B. Dislike C. Unlikely D. Dissimilar
Question 31: A. is B. are C. was D. were
Question 32: A. encourage B. discourage C. weaken D. popularize
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 33: A. likes B. boys C. wants D. heaps
Question 34: A. technician B. commercial C. machine D. necessary
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 35: I thought they might be thirsty. I offered them something to drink.
A. They might be thirsty as I thought, but offered them something to drink.
B. Although they were thirsty, I offered them something to drink.
C. They might be thirsty, so I thought I would offer them something to drink.
 D. Thinking they might be thirsty, I offered them something to drink.
Question 36: Jim's mother was very busy. She still played with him.
A. Jim's mother was busy enough to play with him.
B. Jim's mother was so busy that she could not play with him.
C. Busy as Jim's mother was, she still played with him.
D. Because of playing with Jim, her mother was very busy.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 37: A. impressive B. advocate C. bacteria D. computer
Question 38: A. Vietnamese B. preferential C. calculation D. accompany
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.
At the turn of the twentieth century, people's attitudes toward money were far more conservative than they
are today. Borrowing and being in debt were viewed as a moral failing, almost as a disgrace. Thrift and saving
were highly prized, and people who needed to borrow to make ends meet were seen as careless, unreliable, or
extravagant. The focus in the economy as a whole was on developing large corporations like railroads, oil
companies, and other companies that produced basic goods and services.
Then, in the 1920s, the economy changed. A huge network of banks and financial institutions developed,
helping money to move more quickly and easily through the economy. At the same time, the economy was
increasing its focus on consumer goods-clothing, cars, household appliances, and other things that individuals
buy. To help promote the sale of these items, consumers were encouraged to buy on credit. If they could not
afford an item right away, a store or a bank might lend them the money, which they could pay back in
installments.
With the development of consumer credit and installment purchases, people's attitudes toward debt and
spending changed. The model citizen was no longer someone who was thrifty, buying only what he or she
needed. People were respected less for being thrifty than for knowing how to use their money to buy as many
things as possible - an attitude that persists at the turn of the twenty-first century.
Question 39: What is the main point the author makes in the passage?
A. Being thrifty is a value that persists at the turn of the twentieth century.
B. In the 1920s, the economy focused more on consumer goods than on corporations.
C. Changes in the economy and consumer credit have altered attitudes toward money.
D. People are generally less conservative than they were in the past.
Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a belief that was commonly held in
the early twentieth century?
A. People who buy as many things as possible are respectable.
B. Owing someone's money is a moral failing.
C. People who save their money are respectable.
D. People who borrow money for necessities are careless and unreliable.
Question 41: What helped money move more quickly through the economy in the 1920s?
A. The rate of loan repayment B. The growth of railroads
C. The increase in installment purchases D. The growth of banks and financial institutions
Question 42: The author mentions cars as an example of __________.
A. an extravagant purchase B. a consumer goods
C. a household appliance D. a new invention
Question 43: According to the passage, how did the rise of consumer credit change people's attitudes toward
debt and spending?
A. Attitudes toward debt and spending became more conservative.
B. Extravagant borrowing and spending became highly prized.
C. Spending wisely became more respectable than being thrifty.
D. People used credit to buy only what they needed.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 44: The couple got divorced because they found they were incompatible.
A. able to share an apartment or a house B. able to budget their money
C. capable of having children D. capable of living harmoniously
Question 45: While looking for the dictionary, the boy came across some of the childhood photos.
A. took by mistake B. discovered by accident
C. looked for a reason D. found on purpose
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 46: Neither the boss nor all the members of the staff is working overtime today.
A. Neither B. nor all C. is D. overtime
Question 47: Nadine fancies watching TV, reading books and hang out with her classmates after school.
A. fancies B. reading C. hang out D. her
Question 48: Ambitious parents often feel disappointing if their children do not meet their expectations.
A. Ambitious B. disappointing C. do not D. their expectations
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 49: Everyone hopes that the Covid-19 vaccine will be mass-produced soon.
A. produced in great numbers B. produced with high cost
C. produced in small numbers D. produced with low cost
Question 50: Jack gave a detailed chronology of the events of the World War I in his essay.
A. discrepancy B. time sequence C. disaster D. catastrophe
------THE END------

ĐỀ ÔN THI No 24
Mã đề 24 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Part of what makes summers so hot is also what causes thunderstorms. As heat from the sun beats down
on Earth, the heat evaporates some of the water in lakes and oceans. The evaporated water stays in the air.
This evaporated water makes the air feel heavy and humid. Humid air is what makes you feel hot and sticky
(1) _______ the summer.
Warm humid air usually does not stay in one place. The wind can move it higher in the sky (2) _______ it
will cool off. When warm humid air cools, it forms clouds. As more water is moved from lakes and oceans to
the airs, the clouds get bigger and bigger.
Since summer, the air near the ground is hotter than it is during other seasons of the year. When this hot
air mixes with cool air from (3) _______ area, there will be changes in the weather. Greater differences
between the (4) _______ of the hot and cold air will cause greater changes in the weather. Imagine putting an
ice (5) _______ in a warm drink. As soon as the ice hits the warm drink, it will crack and pop. But if you put
the ice cube in a cool drink, it will not crack or pop as much. When warmer and cooler clouds get close to
one another, there may be some popping and cracking as the weather changes. There may be more clouds
or storms. A thunderstorm may be on its way.
(Adapted from Elfrieda H. Hiebert 2010)
Question 1: A. for B. while C. on D. during
Question 2: A. where B. who C. which D. that
Question 3: A. another B. much C. others D. other
Question 4: A. climates B. temperatures C. latitudes D. atmospheres
Question 5: A. cubic B. cubicle C. cubical D. cube
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 6: Those two pictures hanging on the gallery wall_________ in France, and they are very well
known.
A. were painted B. were paint C. were painting D. painted
Question 7: _______, she often wears in red and black.
A. After I have met my beloved teacher B. Until I will meet my beloved teacher
C. By the time I meet my beloved teacher D. Whenever I meet my beloved teacher
Question 8: _______ you study for these exams, _______ you will do.
A. The hardest / the best B. The more / the much
C. The harder / the better D. The more hard / the more good
Question 9: He was pleased that things in his university were going on __________.
A. satisfying B. satisfactorily C. satisfactory D. satisfied
Question 10: I’m taking an intensive 2 day _______ course in computing. I want to learn the basics
quickly before I start my new job.
A. splash B. smash C. flash D. crash
Question 11: James could no longer bear the _______ surroundings of the decrepit old house.
A. domineering B. oppressive C. overbearing D. pressing
Question 12: My mother bought a ___________belt from a shop on Ba Dinh street.
A. nice brown leather B. brown nice leather C. nice leather brown D. leather brown
nice
Question 13: I agreed that the shop treated you very badly. But just write a polite letter of complaint. It’s not
worth making a _______ about it.
A. song and dance B. tooth and nail C. pins and needles D. length and
breadth
Question 14: Those cars are very expensive, _______?
A. are they B. are cars C. aren't they D. aren't cars
Question 15: She applied for training as a pilot, but they turned her down _______ her poor eyesight.
A. because of B. in spite of C. although D. because
Question 16: Many young people travel all over the world, and then do all kinds of jobs before they _______.
A. settle down B. put down C. go down D. touch down
Question 17: He came when I ________ the film “Man from the star”.
A. was watching B. watched C. am watching D. has watched
Question 18: Would you kindly inform me who is responsible __________the travel arrangements?
A. to B. in C. for D. on
Question 19: If the work-force respected you, you wouldn't need to ______ your authority so often.
A. assert B. inflict C. affirm D. maintain
Question 20: ___________ the book, I wrote down some notes.
A. Being read B. Read C. To read D. Having read
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: Both universities speak highly of the programme of student exchange and hope to
cooperate more in the future.
A. resolve a conflict over B. voice opinions on
C. find favor with D. express disapproval of
Question 22: Never punish your children by hitting them. This might teach them to become hitters.
A. accept B. give C. reward D. bring
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 23: A living cell is a marvel of detailed and complex structure.
A. wonder B. magnification C. invention D. swiftness
Question 24: When two people get married, it is with the assumption that their feelings for each other
are immutable and will never alter.
A. constantly B. alterable C. everlasting D. unchangeable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 25: I don’t think Max broke your vase because he wasn’t here then.
A. Max was likely to break your vase because he wasn’t here then.
B. Max wouldn’t have broken your vase because he wasn’t here then.
C. Max wasn’t able to break your vase because he wasn’t here then.
D. Max can’t have broken your vase because he wasn’t here then.
Question 26: Eating Korean food is new to me.
A. I did not use to eating Korean food. B. I used to eat Korean food.
C. I have never eaten Korean food before. D. I no longer eat Korean food.
Question 27: “Would you like some more beer?” he asked.
A. He asked me would I like some more beer. B. He offered me some more beer.
C. He asked me if I liked some more beer. D. He wanted to invite me for a glass of beer.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 28: A. final B. survival C. liberty D. reliable
Question 29: A. received B. concealed C. attached D. concerned
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 30: After John eats dinner, he wrote several letters and went to bed.
A. eats B. letters C. went D. he wrote
Question 31: Their children learn primarily by directly experiencing the world around it.
A. primarily B. it C. experiencing D. world
Question 32: If you have some sufficient knowledge of English, you can make yourself understand almost
everywhere.
A. almost B. of C. some D. understand
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
It is estimated that by 2050 more than two-thirds of the world's population will live in cities, up from about
54 percent today. While the many benefits of organized and efficient cities are well understood, we need to
recognize that this rapid, often unplanned urbanization brings risks of profound social instability, risks to
critical infrastructure, potential water crises and the potential for devastating spread of disease. These risks
can only be further exacerbated as this unprecedented transition from rural to urban areas continues.
How effectively these risks can be addressed will increasingly be determined by how well cities
are governed. The increased concentration of people, physical assets, infrastructure and economic
activities mean that the risks materializing at the city level will have far greater potential to disrupt society
than ever before.
Urbanization is by no means bad by itself. It brings important benefits for economic, cultural and
societal development. Well managed cities are both efficient and effective, enabling economies of scale and
network effects while reducing the impact on the climate of transportation. As such, an urban model can
make economic activity more environmentally-friendly. Further, the proximity and diversity of people can
spark innovation and create employment as exchanging ideas breeds new ideas. But these utopian concepts
are threatened by some of the factors driving rapid urbanization. For example, one of the main factors is rural
urban migration, driven by the prospect of greater employment opportunities and the hope of a better life
in cities. But rapidly increasing population density can create severe problems, especially if planning efforts
are not sufficient to cope with the influx of new inhabitants. The result may, in extreme cases, be
widespread poverty. Estimates suggest that 40% of the world's urban expansion is taking place in slums,
exacerbating socio-economic disparities and creating unsanitary conditions that facilitate the spread of
disease.
The Global Risks 2015 Report looks at four areas that face particularly daunting challenges in the face
of rapid and unplanned urbanization: infrastructure, health, climate change, and social instability. In each of
these areas we find new risks that can best be managed or, in some cases, transferred through the mechanism of
insurance.
(Adapted from zurich.com)
Question 33: The word “that" in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. unsanitary conditions B. urban expansion
C. socio-economic disparities D. disease
Question 34: According to paragraph 3, what is one of the advantages of urbanization?
A. It makes water supply system both efficient and effective.
B. It minimizes risks for economic, cultural and societal development.
C. People may come up with new ideas for innovation.
D. Weather and climate in the city will be much improved.
Question 35: Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Rapidly increasing population density can help solve poverty.
B. 54% of the world's population will live in cities by 2050.
C. Risks cannot be addressed effectively no matter how well cities are governed.
D. Urbanization brings important benefits for development as well.
Question 36: The word "addressed" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. aimed at B. agreed on C. dealt with D. added to
Question 37: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Poverty may be a foregone conclusion of unplanned urbanization.
B. The increasing number of people in cities can create more employment.
C. Urbanization can solve the problem of environmental pollution in cities.
D. Diseases are caused by people migrating to cities.
Question 38: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. The Risks of Rapid Urbanization in Developing Countries
B. The Global Risks 2015 Report on Developing Urban Areas
C. Infrastructure and Economic Activities in Cities
D. Rapid Urbanization Put Cities in Jeopardy
Question 39: The word “spark” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. encourage B. design C. need D. start
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 40: The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match.
B. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.
C. Not only did the basketball team lose the match but they blamed each other as well.
D. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.
Question 41: I did not see Susan off at the airport. I feel bad about it now.
A. It suddenly dawns on me that I should have seen Susan off at the airport.
B. I could have seen Susan off at the airport.
C. If only I had seen Susan off at the airport.
D. That I did not see Susan off at the airport escapes me now.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
 During times of crisis, people find themselves faced with lifestyle changes. One of the earliest and
most noticeable changes seen during the Covid-19 lockdown was how we consume media-and especially how
we read.
People tend to find comfort in certain books, and reading habits and genre preferences can change
during periods of stress. This helps to explain why much genre fiction has roots in times of significant
social, political or economic upheaval. Gothic literature is, in part, a British Protestant response to the
French Revolution.
Respondents generally reported that they were reading more than usual. This was largely due to
having more free time (due to being furloughed, or not having a commute or the usual social obligation or
leisure activities). This increased reading volume was complicated for those with caring responsibilities.
Many people with children reported that their reading time had increased generally because of their shared
reading with children, but had less time than normal for personal reading. Reading frequency was
further complicated by a quality vs. quantity snag. People spent more time reading and seeking escape, but
an inability to concentrate meant they made less progress than usual. In short, people spent more time
reading but the volume they read was less.
Unsurprisingly, lockdown also made re-reading a physical necessity for some. Some respondents
noted how they were unable to visit the library or browse at the bookshop for new books. Others reported that
they simply wished to save money. On the other hand, the participants who reported re- reading less than
normal during the lockdown period wanted to use their newfound time to seek out new topics and genres.
(Adapted from theconversation.com)
Question 42: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Different kinds of people B. Different types of books
C. Changing in reading habits D. Different types of reading
Question 43: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Reading is unable to help people find comfort during stress time.
B. Many great fiction books have been born in times of significant social upheaval.
C. Gothic literature was born during the French Revolution.
D. Reading habits can change during periods of stress.
Question 44: The word “commute” in paragraph 3 is closet in meaning to _______.
A. retirement B. a talk to other people C. unemployed person D. road to go to work
Question 45: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ________.
A. reading habit and reading time B. progresses in reading
C. reading time and ability to concentrate D. people spent time reading
Question 46: According to paragraph 4, which of the following is the reason why people re-read more during
lockdown?
A. They love books so much. B. They want to save money.
C. They think it is necessary. D. They try to seek out new topics in books.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 47: Mai: “Don’t forget to send your parents my regards.” - Nga: “________”
A. Good idea, thanks B. It’s my pleasure C. Thanks, I will D. Never mind
Question 48: Mary: “Why are there generally so few women in top positions?” - Peter: “ ________ ”
A. I guess men tend to make better leaders.
B. Women also want to climb to top positions.
C. Top positions are the highest in the career ladder.
D. Top positions are high to climb to.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 49: A. popular B. beautiful C. favourite D. effective
Question 50: A. pressure B. cancel C. level D. respect
-------THE END------
 ĐỀ ÔN THI No 25
Mã đề 25 Bài thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions from 1 to 2.
Question 1: You cannot completely avoid stress in your life. You need to find ways to cope with it.
A. As you cannot completely avoid stress in your life, you need to find ways to cope with it.
B. While you cannot completely avoid stress in your life, you needn't find ways to cope with it.
C. After you can completely avoid stress in your life, you need to find ways to cope with it.
D. As long as you can completely avoid stress in your life, you need to find ways to cope with it.
Question 2: These students may be excellent. They will not get used to dealing with practical situations.
A. Excellent as may be, these students will not get used to dealing with practical situations.
B. These students will get used to dealing with practical situations although they may be excellent.
C. Excellent as may these students be, they will not get used to dealing with practical situations.
D. These students may be too excellent to get used to dealing with practical situations.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 3 to 7.
As the twentieth century began, the importance of formal education in the United States increased.
The frontier had mostly disappeared and by 1910 most Americans lived in towns and cities. Industrialization
and the bureaucratization of economic life combined with a new emphasis upon credentials and expertise
to make schooling increasingly important for economic and social mobility. Increasingly, too, schools
were viewed as the most important means of integrating immigrants into American society.
The arrival of a great wave of southern and eastern European immigrants at the turn of the
century coincided with and contributed to an enormous expansion of formal schooling. By 1920 schooling to
age fourteen or beyond was compulsory in most states, and the school year was greatly
lengthened. Kindergartens, vacation schools and extracurricular activities, and vocational education and
counseling extended the influence of public schools over the lives of students, many of whom in the larger
industrial cities were the children of immigrants. Classes for adult immigrants were sponsored by public
schools, corporations, unions, churches, settlement houses, and other agencies.
Reformers early in the twentieth century suggested that education programs should suit the needs of
specific populations. Immigrant women were once such population. Schools tried to educate young women so
they could occupy productive places in the urban industrial economy, and one place many
educators considered appropriate for women was the home. Although looking after the house and family was
familiar to immigrant women, American education gave homemaking a new definition. In preindustrial
economies, homemaking had meant the production as well as the consumption of goods, and it commonly
included income-producing activities both inside and outside the home, in the highly industrialized early-
twentieth century United States, however, overproduction rather than scarcity was becoming a problem. Thus,
the ideal American homemaker was viewed as a consumer rather than a producer. Schools trained women to
be consumer homemakers cooking, shopping, decorating, and caring for children "efficiently" in their
own homes, or if economic necessity demanded, as employees in the homes of others. Subsequent reforms
have made these notions seem quite out-of-date.
Question 3: Women were trained to be consumer homemakers as a result of __________.
A. income-producing activities in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
B. economic necessity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
C. scarcity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
D. overproduction in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
Question 4: The word "it" in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. production B. consumption C. education D. homemaking
Question 5: The phrase "coincided with" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
 A. ensured the success of B. was influenced by
C. began to grow rapidly D. happened at the same time as
Question 6: It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that one important factor in the increasing importance
of education in the United States was __________.
A. an increase in the number of trained teachers
B. the expanding economic problems of schools
C. the growing number of schools in frontier communities
D. the increased urbanization of the entire country
Question 7: According to the passage, early-twentieth-century education reformers believed that _______.
A. different groups needed different kinds of education
B. more women should be involved in education and industry
C. special programs should be set up in frontier communities to modernize them
D. corporations and other organizations damaged educational progress
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
following questions from 8 to 10.
Question 8: It is now obligatory for visitors to leave umbrellas and sticks in the cloakroom.
A. Visitors can't leave umbrellas and sticks in the cloakroom.
B. Visitors needn't leave umbrellas and sticks in the cloakroom.
C. Visitors may leave umbrellas and sticks in the cloakroom.
D. Visitors must leave umbrellas and sticks in the cloakroom.
Question 9: “You are a newcomer here, aren't you?" she asked me.
A. She wanted to know why I was a newcomer here. B. She said that I was a newcomer here.
C. She asked me whether I was a newcomer there. D. She told me that she was a newcomer there.
Question 10: As Keanu Reeves became more famous, it was more difficult for him to avoid
newspaper reporters.
A. The more famous Keanu Reeves became, the more difficult it was for him to avoid newspaper reporters.
B. The more famous Keanu Reeves became, the more difficult for him it was to avoid newspaper reporters.
C. The more difficult it was for Keanu Reeves to avoid newspaper reporters, the more famous he became.
D. The more Keanu Reeves became famous, the more difficult for him to avoid newspaper reporters it
was.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 11 to 12.
Question 11: She was a woman of great courage and she will long be remembered by her grief-stricken
family and friends.
A. becoming thoroughly miserable B. being financially insecure
C. feeling extremely happy D. getting much involved
Question 12: It was the first time that we had been reunited since I had all my heart and soul upon her.
A. integrated B. separated C. repeated D. stabilized
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions from 13 to 15.
Question 13: The number of nature reserves have increased dramatically so as to protect endangered species.
A. have increased B. nature reserves C. dramatically D. endangered
species
Question 14: According to most medical experts, massage relieves pain and anxiety, cases depression
and speeding up recovery from illnesses.
A. relieves B. illnesses C. most medical experts D. speeding up
Question 15: We have conducted exhausting research into the effects of wearing masks on slowing the spread
of the coronavirus that causes COVID-19.
A. into B. the spread C. exhausting D. causes
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 16 to 22.
The term "folk song" has been current for over a hundred years, but there is still a good deal
of disagreement as to what it actually means. The definition provided by the International Folk Music
Council states that folk music is the music of ordinary people, which is passed on from person to person by
being listened to rather than learned from the printed page. Other factors that help shape a folk song
include: continuity (many performances over a number of years): variation (changes in words and melodies
either through artistic interpretation or failure of memory); and selection (the acceptance of a song by
the community in which it evolves).
When songs have been subjected to these processes, their origin is usually impossible to trace. For
instance, if a farm laborer were to make up a song and sing it to a couple of friends who like it and memorize
it, possibly when the friends come to sing it themselves, one of them might forget some of the words and make
up new ones to fill the gap, while the other, perhaps more artistic, might add a few decorative touches to the
tune and improve a couple of lines of text. If this happened a few times, there would be many different
versions, the song's original composer would be forgotten, and the song would become common property.
This constant reshaping and re-creation is the essence of folk music. Consequently, modem popular songs
and other published music, even though widely sung by people who are not professional musicians, are not
considered folk music. The music and words have been set by a printed or recorded source, limiting scope for
further artistic creation. These songs' origins cannot be disguised and therefore they belong primarily to the
composer and not to a community.
The ideal situation for the creation of folk music is an isolated rural community. In such a setting folk songs
and dances have a special purpose at every stage in a person's life, from childhood to death. Epic tales of
heroic deeds, seasonal songs relating to calendar events, and occupational songs are also likely to be sung.
(Source: http://www.thereadingplanet.com)
Question 16: The word "essence" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. basic nature B. full extent C. growing importance D. first phase
Question 17: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a characteristic of the typical
folk song?
A. It is passed on to other people by being performed.
B. It is usually impossible to trace its origin.
C. It is constantly changing over time.
D. It contains complex musical structures.
Question 18: Which of the following statements about the term "folk song" is supported by the passage?
A. The International Folk Music Council invented it. B. It has been used for several centuries.
C. It is considered to be out-of-date. D. There is disagreement about its meaning.
Question 19: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Elements that define folk music
B. Influences of folk music on popular music
C. Themes commonly found in folk music
D. The standards of the International Folk Music Council
Question 20: The word "it" in paragraph 1 refers to______.
A. selection B. song C. community D. acceptance
Question 21: According to the passage, why would the original composers of folk songs be forgotten?
A. Folk songs are not considered an important form of music.
B. Singers dislike the decorative touches in folk song tunes.
C. Audience prefers songs composed by professional musicians.
D. Numerous variations of folk songs come to exist at the same time.
Question 22: The author mentions that published music is not considered folk music because ______.
A. the songs attract only the young people in a community
B. the composers write the music in rural communities
C. the original composer can be easily identified
 D. the songs are generally performed by professional singers
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions from 23 to 37.
Question 23: She came in quietly ______ not to wake the baby.
A. such as B. so as C. as if D. if so
Question 24: You may borrow as many books as you like, provided you show them to ______ is at the desk.
A. whom B. who C. whoever D. which
Question 25: Not until the dedication of Yellowstone Park in the late nineteenth century ______
national park.
A. that the United States had B. when the United States had
C. did the United States have D. the United States had
Question 26: When ______ on July 4, 1789, the federal tariff was remarkably evenhanded.
A. was first enacted B. was entered first C. first enacted D. it first enacted
Question 27: To our ______, Geoffrey's illness proved not to be as serious as we had feared.
A. judgment B. eyes C. relief D. anxiety
Question 28: With a nod and a smile, she ______ her friends.
A. took leave of B. felt pity for C. lost touch with D. gave birth to
Question 29: Marie Curie was the first and only woman ______ two Nobel prizes.
A. to be won B. to have won C. won D. that win
Question 30: By the time you receive this letter, I ______ for Japan.
A. will leave B. will have left C. have left D. would have left
Question 31: Remember ______ your answer before handing in your exam paper.
A. check B. to check C. checking D. being checked
Question 32: You had better keep a box of matches ______ in case the lights go out again.
A. handshake B. handful C. handy D. hands-on
Question 33: If I had enough money, ____________.
A. I could have bought that house B. I would buy that house
C. I will buy that house D. I bought that house
Question 34: She has just bought ______________.
A. a French old interesting painting B. an old interesting painting French
C. an interesting old French painting D. a French interesting old paint
Question 35: He hardly ever makes a mistake, ______?
A. didn't he B. does he C. did he D. doesn't he
Question 36: They decided to place _______ African elephant on their List of Endangered Species.
A. x (no article) B. a C. an D. the
Question 37: Shall we ______ across this field instead of going along the road?
A. take B. cut C. come D. set
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 38 to 39.
Question 38: A. finished B. punched C. swallowed D. practiced
Question 39: A. modal B. modest C. model D. modern
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions from 40 to 41.
Question 40: A. machine B. student C. career D. guitar
Question 41: A. researcher B. lecturer C. conference D. reference
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 42 to 46.
There is (42) _______ debate between archeologists about when and where the first
civilizations developed. That is because the answer to that question depends on what one defines as a
civilization. If a civilization is simply a small group of people having a similar culture and beliefs, then
civilizations have existed in many parts of the world for thousands of years. If a civilization is defined as a
larger, more complex society (43) _______ a government and the construction of cities, then the first
civilization was probably the Sumerian civilization in what is now Iraq. The Sumerians were (44) _______
from the Ubaid culture, which was made up of small villages of farmers who lived slightly farther north.
Sometime around 4,000 B.C. these farmers moved down into the valley along the Tigris River.
This land received little rain, and was unsuitable for farming. Therefore, it was empty and the Sumerians
had plenty of (45) _______ and little competition from other peoples. What allowed the Sumerians
to successfully farm in this dry land was their knowledge of irrigation, the practice of taking water from a
river or lake and moving it to fields through the use of man-made canals. This allowed the Sumerians to farm
here successfully (46) _______ the lack of rain. We know that the Sumerians had a great understanding
of irrigation because their language is filled with words related to it.
(Source: TOEFL IBT - Reading)
Question 42: A. many B. a number of C. the number of D. much
Question 43: A. with B. of C. in D. off
Question 44: A. deselected B. descended C. desecrated D. declined
Question 45: A. garden B. house C. village D. room
Question 46: A. as a result B. because of C. on account of D. in spite of
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges from 47 to 48.
Question 47: Jack and Jane are talking about the skills for teenagers.
Jack: “______________”
Jane: “Absolutely. They also encourage interest and interaction from others in your team.”
A. That's true! Lacking this skill may lead me to feel depressed and lose my temper easily.
B. Ok. So, are you going to take up a French course besides improving your English?
C. I believe that interpersonal communication skills can help us to get along well with everyone.
D. I expect the practical experience as a volunteer will make my CV look good.
Question 48: Mark and Tam are discussing the places they want to visit.
Tam: “Well, there are a lot of things to see in Hue. How about visiting Quoc Hoc High School?”
Mark: “___________”
A. Sounds interesting! Hope we can have a nice time there.
B. Great! Let's see the royal tombs first.
C. We may visit Phong Nha - Ke Bang National Park.
D. It'd be fun to explore Ha Long Bay at night on board.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 49 to 50.
Question 49: Indeed, learning a martial art makes one self-reliant and disciplined, and also greatly
boosts one's confidence.
A. respectful B. ambitious C. decisive D. independent
Question 50: Environmental concerns must be given precedence over commercial interest.
A. victory B. priority C. reference D. vacancy
-------THE END------

ĐỀ ÔN THI No 26
Mã đề 26 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
Mark the fetter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. agreed B. intended C. managed D. revealed
Question 2: A. prepare B. expert C. select D. effect
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. prefer B. produce C. practice D. provide
Question 4: A. sufficient B. approachable C. educate D. production
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: She didn't deserve to get fired after working so hard, _______?
A. doesn't she B. did she C. won't she D. is she
Question 6: On 5th April, 2021, Mr. Pham Minh Chinh _______ as the 8th Prime Minister of Viet Nam.
A. elected B. was electing C. was elected D. elects
Question 7: Many wild animals are _______ threat _______ extinction.
A. at – of B. on – with C. under – of D. in – with
Question 8: The more time he spends with his children, _______ he is.
A. the more happy B. happier C. more happy D. the happier
Question 9: They cook a _______ meal for their children.
A. delicious traditional Vietnamese B. Vietnamese delicious traditional
C. traditional delicious Vietnamese D. delicious Vietnamese traditional
Question 10: _______ his poor English, he managed to communicate his problem very clearly.
A. In spite of B. Even though C. Because of D. Because
Question 11: He came when I _______ the film "Man from the star”.
A. has watched B. watched C. was watching D. am watching
Question 12: He will have moved to England _______.
A. until we finished the project B. by the time we finish the project
C. before we will finish the project D. when we had finished the project
Question 13: University students __________ in linguistics may take courses including phonetics, semantics,
and pragmatics.
A. major B. to major C. majored D. majoring
Question 14: Sports can be an effective way to foster blood circulation, burn extra fat as well as improve our
stamina and _______.
A. flexible B. flexile C. flexibility D. flextime
Question 15: Some high school students often _______ helping the disadvantaged or handicapped children.
A. look after B. clean up C. make out D. participate in
Question 16: TV companies _______ their programmes across the country or even across the world.
A. broadcast B. refresh C. connect D. publish
Question 17: _______ people are those who share the same interests, or points of view.
A. Light-hearted B. Like-minded C. Even-handed D. Open-minded
Question 18: My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television, but he _______ to the
occasion wonderfully.
A. rose B. raised C. fell D. faced
Question 19: She will have to _______ if she wants to pass the final exam.
A. pull up her socks B. work miracles C. take the trouble D. keep her hand in
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Mother Teresa devoted herself to caring for the sick and the poor.
A. spent B. contributed C. gave up D. dedicated
Question 21: Everyone agreed with Janice's point that the accounts could have been falsified.
A. forged B. innovated C. revealed D. improvised
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: In the early 21st century, with the explosion of mobile communication technology, the
mobile phone has emerged as a new and unique channel.
A. disappearance B. destruction C. exploitation D. exploration
Question 23: Her career ground to a halt when the twins were born.
A. stopped suddenly B. was interrupted C. made her tired D. developed
quickly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24: Ella is asking Eric about self-study.
- Ella: “Do you think people with self-education can succeed nowadays?"
- Eric: “________ because they tend to be very independent and self-disciplined."
A. I'm not so sure about that B. That's what I was thinking
C. It's out of the question D. I don't think it's right
Question 25: Huy was asking Mai, his classmate, for her opinion about the book he had lent her.
- Huy: "What do you think about the book?"
- Mai: “____________________”
A. Yes, let's read it together. B. The best I've ever read!
C. I can't agree with you more. D. I wish I could buy one.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: Friendly though she may seem, she's not to be trusted.
A. However friendly she seems, she's not to be trusted.
B. She's too friendly to be trusted.
C. However she seems friendly, she's not to be trusted.
D. She may have friends, but she's not to be trusted.
Question 27: "Believe me. It's no use reading that book," Janet told her boyfriend.
A. Janet suggested to her boyfriend that reading the book was useful.
B. Janet managed to persuade her boyfriend that reading the book was worthwhile.
C. Janet tried to convince her boyfriend that the book was not worth reading.
D. Janet opposed her boyfriend's idea that reading the book was not useful.
Question 28: The last time I saw David was when I went to my friend's birthday party.
A. I haven't seen David since my friend's birthday party.
B. When I last went to my friend's birthday party, I met David.
C. It's long time ago when I last saw David at my friend's birthday party.
D. I finally saw David when I was going to my friend's birthday party.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: Mary was not here yesterday. Perhaps she was ill.
A. Mary needn't be here yesterday because she was ill.
B. Because of her illness, Mary shouldn't have been here yesterday.
C. Mary might have been ill yesterday, so she was not here.
D. Mary must have been ill yesterday, so she was not here.
Question 30: I didn't know that you were at home. I didn't visit you.
A. If I knew that you were at home, I would visit you.
B. If I had known that you were at home, I would have visited you.
C. If I knew that you had been at home, I would have visited you.
D. If I would know that you were at home, I visited you.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
 People in the UK enjoy fewer years of good health before they die than the citizens of most
comparable European countries as well as Australia and Canada, a major report shows. While life expectancy
has improved by 4.2 years in the UK over the two decades, other countries have improved faster. In 2010,
Spain topped the league. Its people could expect 70.9 years of healthy life - before disease and disability began
to take a toll. Second came Italy, with 70.2 years and third was Australia, on 70.1 years. In the UK, we
can expect 68.6 healthy years of life. Hunt said the UK was a long way behind its global counterparts and
called for action by local health commissioners to tackle the five big killers - cancer, heart disease,
stroke, respiratory and liver diseases. Drinking and drug use have been the main issues behind the worsening
of the UK's ranking in early deaths among adults aged 20-54. In 2010, drugs were the sixth leading cause of
death in this age group and alcohol was 18th - up from 32nd and 43rd place respectively 20 years earlier.
Hunt will on Tuesday announce a strategy to tackle cardiovascular disease, which he says could
save 30,000 lives a year. “Despite real progress in cutting deaths, we remain a poor relative to our global
cousins on many measures of health, something I want to change," he said. "For too long we have been
lagging behind and I want the reformed health system to take up this challenge and turn this shocking
underperformance around." However, the problem is only in part to do with hospital care - much of it is about
the way we live. Our diet, our drinking and continuing smoking habits all play a part, which assumes its
responsibilities on 1st April.
(Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com)
Question 31: The best title for this passage could be ________.
A. Life expectancy in the UK in comparison with other countries
B. The causes of early deaths in the UK
C. Life expectancy in the UK and its efforts to solve health problems
D. Five big killers in the UK
Question 32: The word "cardiovascular" in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by
A. respiratory B. digestive C. skeletal D. cardiac
Question 33: According to the passage, what is NOT the cause of death in the UK?
A. drug B. alcohol C. drinking D. food
Question 34: According to the passage, Hunt is showing his attempt to ________.
A. lower death rates B. better the health system in the UK
C. take up more challenge D. change people's diet
Question 35: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. challenge B. diet C. problem D. disease
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
If you could travel back in time five centuries, you'd encounter a thriving Aztec empire in Central Mexico,
a freshly painted "Mona Lisa" in Renaissance Europe and cooler temperatures across the
Northern Hemisphere. This was a world in the midst of the Little Ice Age (A.D. 1300 to 1850) and a period
of vast European exploration now known as the Age of Discovery. But what if we could look 500 years into
the future and glimpse the Earth of the 26th century? Would the world seem as different to us as the 21st
century would have seemed to residents of the 16th century? For starters, what will the weather be like?
Depending on whom you ask, the 26th century will either be a little chilly or infernally hot. Some
solar output models suggest that by the 2500s, Earth's climate will have cooled back down to near Little Ice
Age conditions. Other studies predict that ongoing climate change and fossil fuel use will render much of
the planet too hot for human life by 2300.
Some experts date the beginning of human climate change back to the Industrial Revolution in the 1800s,
others to slash-and-burn agricultural practices in prehistoric times. Either way, tool-wielding humans alter
their environment - and our 26th century tools might be quite impressive indeed.
Theoretical physicist and futurist Michio Kaku predicts that in a mere 100 years, humanity will make
the leap from a type zero civilization to a type I civilization on the Kardashev Scale. In other words,
we'll become a species that can harness the entire sum of a planet's energy. Wielding such power, 26th-
century humans will be masters of clean energy technologies such as fusion and solar power. Furthermore,
they will be able to manipulate planetary energy in order to control global climate. Physicist Freeman Dyson,
on the other hand, estimates the leap to a type 1 civilization would occur within roughly 200 years. Technology
has improved exponentially since the 1500s, and this pace will likely continue in the centuries to come.
Physicist Stephen Hawking proposes that by the year 2600, this growth would see 10 new theoretical physics
papers published every 10 seconds. If Moore's Law holds true and both computer speed and complexity
double every 18 months, then some of these studies may be the work of highly intelligent machines.
What other technologies will shape the world of the 26th century? Futurist and author Adrian
Berry believes the average human life span will reach 140 years and that the digital storage of human
personalities will enable a kind of computerized immortality. Humans will farm the oceans, travel in starships
and reside in both lunar and Martian colonies while robots explore the outer cosmos.
(Source: https://science.howstuffworks.com)
Question 36: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. How would the world change in the next 500 years?
B. What would we do in the next five centuries?
C. What problems would happen in the 26th century?
D. How would technology improve the life in the far future?
Question 37: The word "infernally" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. differently B. extremely C. permanently D.
contemporaneously
Question 38: The word "harness" in paragraph 4 could best be replaced by ________.
A. renew B. adjust C. exploit D. discover
Question 39: What does the word "they" in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. fusion and solar energy B. clean energy technologies
C. masters D. 26th century humans
Question 40: Which of the following is TRUE about the future predictions?
A. Michio Kaku believes that the progress from type 0 to type I civilization will take about two centuries.
B. People in the 2500s are likely to control the energy of the Earth to limit the global climate.
C. The speed of technology improvement will remain changeable in the far future.
D. Solar energy will be the main power for the 26th century citizens.
Question 41: According to Adrian Berry the following are what future humans can do, EXCEPT ________.
A. cultivating in the oceans B. traveling between the stars
C. exploring the universe by robots D. living as long as they want
Question 42: It can be inferred from the passage that ________.
A. no one could be sure what the life would be like in the 2500s.
B. what we imagine about the life in the 26th century may be the same what the 16th-century people
thought about the current life.
C. the predictions of different scientists may draw the same world in the next 500 years.
D. technology will affect most of the fields in the future life.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43: To everyone's surprising, it wasn't in Da Nang City that he made his fortune, although that's
where he was born.
A. Το B. that C. made D. surprising
Question 44: For many years, people have used some kinds of refrigerator cooling beverages and
preserve edibles.
A. have used B. edibles C. kinds D. cooling
Question 45: The guest of honors, along with his wife and children, were sitting at the first table when we had
a party yesterday.
A. his wife B. were C. when D. at
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 46 to 50.
 Amy Tan was born on February 19, 1952 in Oakland, California. Tan grew up in Northern California, (46)
_____ when her father and older brother both died from brain tumors in 1966, she moved with her mother and
younger brother to Europe, where she attended high school in Montreux, Switzerland. She returned to the
United States for college. After college, Tan worked as a language development consultant and as a corporate
freelance writer. (47) _____ 1985, she wrote the "Rules of the Game” for a writing workshop, which laid the
early foundation for her first novel The Joy Luck Club. Published in 1989, the book explored the (48) _____
between Chinese women and their Chinese-American daughters, and became the longest running New York
Times bestseller for that year. The Joy Luck Club received numerous awards, including the Los Angeles Times
Book Award. It has been translated into 25 languages, including Chinese, and was made into a major motion
picture for (49) _____ Tan co-wrote the screenplay. Tan's (50) _____ works have also been adapted into
several different forms of media.
Question 46: A. however B. moreover C. so D. but
Question 47: A. Until B. Before C. Since D. In
Question 48: A. association B. correspondence C. relationship D. solidarity
Question 49: A. whom B. that C. what D. which
Question 50: A. another B. other C. the other D. others
-------THE END-------

ĐỀ ÔN THI No 27
MÔN TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Câu 1: A. continued B. mixed C. dressed D. hiked
Câu 2: A. design B. preserve C. physical D. basic

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Câu 3: A. adventure B. advantage C. advertise D. adverbial
Câu 4: A. actor B. rubbish C. cocktail D. career

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions
Câu 5: The captain as well as all the passengers __________ very frightened by the strange noise on their last
voyage.
A. are B. was C. is D. were
Câu 6: Unfortunately, the company closed down because it couldn't keep _________ with rapidly changing
technology.
A. pace B. speed C. fast D. time
Câu 7: When a fire broke out in the Louvre, at least twenty __________ paintings were destroyed, including
two by Picasso.
A. worthless B. priceless C. worthy D. valueless
Câu 8: The International Red Cross helps people in need without any discrimination based on ________, race,
religion, class or political opinions.
A. national B. nationally C. nationality D. native
Câu 9: Lack of funds prevented him ___________ continuing with his studies.
A. to B. from C. in D. with
Câu 10: The Principal usually has his pupils ___________ waste paper for their mini-project.
A. collect B. collected C. to collect D. collecting
Câu 11: __________ broken several world records in swimming.
A. She is said that she has B. It is said to have
C. People say she had D. She is said to have
Câu 12: The incredible journey in search of the Blue Fairy is in _____________.
A. advance B. vain C. end D. danger
Câu 13: They live on a busy road. ____________ a lot of noise from traffic.
A. There must be B. It must be C. It must have been D. There must have
Câu 14: One of the popular ___________ used in smartphones at present is voice recognition.
A. apply B. applicant C. applications D. applicable
Câu 15: Do you know who _________ the fact that sound travels in waves?
A. found B. invented C. discovered D. developed
Câu 16: It is imperative __________ what to do when there is a fire.
A. he must know about B. that everyone know
C. that he knew D. we knew
Câu 17: ____________ he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.
A. Not until had B. No sooner had C. No longer has D. Hardly had
Câu 18: Looking after the child is __________ more difficult than I thought it would be.
A. far B. farther C. further D. father
Câu 19: Without ____________, all the resources necessary for life would be damaged, wasted or destroyed.
A. conversation B. destruction C. extinction D. biodiversity

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Câu 20: The whole village was wiped out in the bombing raids.
A. removed quickly B. cleaned well
C. destroyed completely D. changed completely
Câu 21: Trees have to be pruned seasonally or annually to ensure that they continue to bear fruit.
A. harvested B. fertilized C. trimmed D. Weeded

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Câu 22: She was too wet behind the ears to be in charge of such demanding tasks.
A. without money B. full of sincerity
C. lack of responsibility D. full of experience
Câu 23: There is no excuse for your discourtesy. Think twice before you are going to say anything.
A. bravery B. politeness C. impoliteness D. boldness

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Câu 24: Rose is talking to her friend on the phone.
Rose: "Could you pick me up at the airport tomorrow?"
Rose's friend: “______________. I will be in a meeting then.”
A. I'm afraid I can't B. Sure C. Yes no problem D. It's so soon
Câu 25: Jolie is reading a magazine on famous people, asking her friend.
Jolie: “Do you think celebrities today tend to focus more on wealth rather than achievements?”
Jolie's friend: “__________________. And this sets bad examples for young people.”
A. Not at all B. I think you're right on this
C. I think they focus more on achievements D. It's out of the question
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The invention of the mobile phone has undoubtedly revolutionized the way people communicate and in
fluenced every aspect of our lives. The issue is whether this technological innovation has (26) _________
more harm than good. In order to answer the question, we must first turn to the types of Presumably, most
parents (27) _________ are always worrying about their children's safety buy mobile phones for them to track
their whereabouts. We can also assume that most teenagers want mobile phones to avoid missing out on social
contact. In this context, the advantages are clear. (28) _____________, we cannot deny the fact that text
messages have been used by bullies to intimidate fellow students. There is also (29) ___________ evidence
that texting has affected literacy skills.
The widespread use of mobile phone has, out of question, affected adult consumers too. What employee,
on the way home from work, would be reluctant to answer a call from their boss? Apparently, only 18% of
us, according to a survey, are willing to switch off our mobile phones once we've left the office.
Admittedly, mobile phones can be intrusive but there are obvious benefits to possessing one. Personally
speaking, they are invaluable when it comes to making social or business arrangements at short (30) ______.
They also provide their owners with a sense of security in emergency situations.
Câu 26: A. made B. brought C. played D. done
Câu 27: A. whom B. who C. what D. which
Câu 28: A. Therefore B. Moreover C. So that D. However
Câu 29: A. indisputable B. indisputably C. dispute D. disputation
Câu 30: A. notice B. term C. time D. warning

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant
language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having
incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion of 1066. Until the
1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not extended even as far as two
centuries. English began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade),
colonization, and missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English speakers became established and grew in
various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary language
of international business, banking and diplomacy.
Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is English. Two
thirds of the world's science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology, advertising,
media, international airports, and air traffic controllers - Today there are more than 700 million English users
in the world, and over half of these are nonnative speakers, constituting the largest number of nonnative users
than any other language in the world.
Câu 31: What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The French influence on the English Language.
B. The expansion of English as an international language.
C. The use of English for Science and Technology.
D. The long history of English language.
Câu 32: Approximately when did English begin to be used beyond England?
A. Around 1350. B. In 1066. C. After 1600. D. Before 1600.
Câu 33: According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the world
EXCEPT ___________.
A. the slave trade B. colonization C. the Norman invasion D. missionaries
Câu 34: The word "enclaves” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. regions B. communities C. organizations D. countries
Câu 35: The word “these” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. computer systems B. international airports C. air traffic controllers D. English users
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
In 2011, on the popular American TV quiz show, Jeopardy!, two champions competed against a brand
new opponent. Both Ken Jennings and Brad Rutter had won millions of dollars on Jeopardy!. Jennings once
won 74 games in a row, the most ever. Then Rutter beat him in a tournament and set a new record for the
most money won on Jeopardy!. Their new opponent, Watson, had never appeared on the game show and had
only played practice games before, in which he often got answers wrong.
However, Watson isn't human. He, or rather it, is a machine, a wonder of technology made by researchers
at IBM. In the game, Watson used math to decide on an answer. When a question was read out, Watson was
immediately given the same question in electronic form. It analyzed the question and searched its memory
bank - about the same as one million books of information - for possible answers. It then narrowed the options
down to one answer. If Watson felt around 75 percent confident about the answer, it would answer the
question.
The way Watson thinks is very different from the way humans think. People often make decisions by
listening to their emotions and feelings, even if they are unsure of the answer. As a computer, Watson couldn't
do this. People also watch and listen to those around them. Watson was not able to “listen” to the wrong
answers given by his competitors. In one question, Jennings answered the question incorrectly and Watson
later answered with the same wrong answer. Watson also made silly mistakes. In a question in the category
U.S. Cities, Watson incorrectly answered Toronto, even though the city of Toronto is in Canada. An IBM
researcher said Watson got confused because it saw in its memory bank that the U.S. is often called America.
Toronto is considered a North American city, so that was the answer that Watson gave.
Still, Watson defeated his human opponents somewhat easily and received the $1 million prize. The other
players also won money for participating in the special game. Everyone left the game happy, as each player
was earning money for different charities.
Câu 36: What best serves as the title for the passage?
A. A Technological Marvel B. Human is Smarter
C. Champions of Jeopardy! D. Competitors of Jeopardy!
Câu 37: Which of the following is a silly mistake of Watson?
A. He based on other people's clues to answer questions.
B. He gave many answers to one question.
C. He repeated his opponent's answer that was wrong.
D. He repeated the question.
Câu 38: The word "him” in paragraph 1 refers to __________.
A. Brad Rutter B. an IBM researcher
C. Ken Jennings D. Watson
Câu 39: How can Watson understand the question read out by humans?
A. He searches for the same question in his memory.
B. He reads the question in an electronic form.
C. He is helped by an IBM researcher.
D. He just listens to it.
Câu 40: The word "bank” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. stored information B. a financial service C. money D. side
Câu 41: All of the following statements are true about Watson EXCEPT
A. He'd never been in an official Jeopardy! before he joined the show with Jennings and Rutter.
B. In order to answer questions, Watson uses math.
C. The way Watson produces an answer is the same as that of humans.
D. His memory bank is equal to one million books.
Câu 42: The word "defeated" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. lost B. understood C. won D. broke
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Câu 43: Venus approaches the Earth more closely than any other planet is.
A. approaches B. the Earth C. any other D. is
Câu 44: The more time you spend on prepare for the test, the higher scores you may get.
A. prepare for B. The more time C. may get D. the higher scores
Câu 45: Air pollution, together with littering, have been causing many problems in our large, industrial cities
in the last few years.
A. have been B. few year C. together with D. many

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Câu 46: The film didn't come up to my expectation.
A. The film was as good as I expected. B. I expected the film to end more abruptly.
C. I expected the film to be more boring. D. The film fell short of my expectation.
Câu 47: "Be careful or you may get lost and run out of money," she said.
A. She ordered me to be careful and I might get lost and run out of money.
B. She told me to be careful if I got lost and run out of the money.
C. She warned me to be careful or I had to get lost and run out of money.
D. She advised me to be careful or I might get lost and run out of money.
Câu 48: Although the teacher explained the theory clearly, the students found it hard to understand it.
A. Although the teaching theory was clear, it was a real challenge to the students.
B. Though explained clearly, the theory of teaching was difficult to the students.
C. In spite of explaining the theory clearly, the students themselves found it hard to understand it.
D. Despite the teacher's clear explanation of the theory, the students had difficulty understanding it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Câu 49: We should quickly find the solution to the problem. Otherwise, its impact on those concerned will
increase.
A. If all those concerned lower their impact, the problem will be better solved
B. By the time we solve this problem, the impact on those concerned will have been lowered
C. If we can solve this problem soon, we'll lower the impact on all of our concerns
D. The sooner we find the solution to the problem, the lower the impact it has on those concerned.
Câu 50: Luisa was very disappointed when she failed the exam. I'm sure about that.
A. Luisa must be very disappointed when she failed the exam.
B. Luisa must have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.
C. Luisa could have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.
D. Luisa may be very disappointed when she failed the exam.
---------------- THE END --------------

ĐỀ ÔN THI No 28
Mã đề thi 28 Bài thi: Ngoại ngữ
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 1: Drug abuse has became one of America's most serious social problems.
A. has became B. one of C. most serious D. social problems
Question 2: To grow well, a tree must be well-suited to the area where it was planted.
A. To grow B. a tree C. well-suited D. it was
Question 3: He enjoys listening to the works of classic composers while he is studying.
A. enjoys listening B. the works C. classic composers D. is studying
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 4: - Nam: If you like, I can check the deadline for our assignment. - Lan: ___________
A. Assignments are just a waste of time. B. I am scared of deadlines.
C. Thanks, but that won't be necessary. D. I don't really like this assignment.
Question 5: - Mike: "Can you help me carry this vacuum cleaner upstairs?” - Susan: "___________.”
A. Why not? B. I think that, too. C. Yes, I'm afraid not. D. Not completely.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
New Zealand is a small country of four million inhabitants, a long-haul flight from all the major tourist
generating markets of the world. Tourism currently makes up 9% of the country's gross domestic product and
is the country's largest export sector. Unlike other export sectors, which make products and then sell them
overseas, tourism brings its customers to New Zealand. The product is the country itself the people, the places,
and the experiences. In 1999, Tourism New Zealand launched a campaign to communicate a new brand
position to the world. The campaign focused on New Zealand's scenic beauty, exhilarating outdoor activities
and authentic Maori culture, and it made New Zealand one of the strongest national brands in the world.
A key feature of the campaign was the website www.newzealand.com, which provided potential visitors
to New Zealand with a single gateway to everything the destination had to offer. The heart of the website was
a database of tourism services operators, both those based in New Zealand and those based abroad which
offered tourism service to the country. Any tourism-related business could be listed by filling in a simple form.
This meant that even the smallest bed and breakfast address or specialist activity provider could gain a web
presence with access to an audience of long-haul visitors. In addition, because participating businesses were
able to update the details they gave on a regular basis, the information provided remained accurate. And to
maintain and improve standards, Tourism New Zealand organized a scheme whereby organizations appearing
on the website underwent an independent evaluation against a set of agreed national standards of quality. As
part of this, the effect of each business on the environment was considered.
To communicate the New Zealand experience, the site also carried features relating to famous people and
places. One of the most popular was an interview with former New Zealand All Blacks rugby captain Tana
Umaga. Another feature that attracted a lot of attention was an interactive journey through a number of the
locations chosen for blockbuster films which had made use of New Zealand's stunning scenery as a backdrop.
As the site developed, additional features were added to help independent travelers devise their own
customized itineraries.
Question 6: According to paragraph 4, why did the website conduct an interview with Tana Umaga?
A. to advertise the New Zealand experience B. to show off the beauty of New Zealand
C. to attract a lot of attention D. to encourage tourists to visit New Zealand
Question 7: The word "it" in paragraph 1 refers to ___________.
A. campaign B. tourism
C. website D. New Zealand's scenic beauty
Question 8: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The tourism in New Zealand B. The tourist attractions in New Zealand
C. The website of New Zealand D. The website for New Zealand's tourism
Question 9: Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. New Zealand's products are not about its food, people, places and experiences.
B. New Zealand is a small country, with a population of fourteen million.
C. New Zealand cuisine has made New Zealand one of the world's biggest national brands.
D. Blockbuster films had used New Zealand's stunning scenery as a backdrop.
Question 10: The word "evaluation" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.
 A. comparison B. assessment C. score D. result
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 11: I chose to submit my application in writing, but I ___________ do it that way.
A. hadn't to B. didn't have to C. shouldn't have D. mustn't have
Question 12: Before each game, the coach would give the team a _________ talk.
A. motivator B. motivated C. motivational D. motivate
Question 13: Ben started to shiver with cold, _________ we decided to go home.
A. why at that point B. at that time C. by this time D. at which point
Question 14: The mayor's recommendation that ___________ was approved by the city council.
A. building a pool B. would build a pool
C. a pool be built D. they would build a pool
Question 15: I remember ___________ about the management course.
A. having informed B. informing C. that I informed D. having been
informed
Question 16: Mocha is a tasty __________ of chocolate, coffee and milk.
A. congestion B. brand C. flavor D. blend
Question 17: After it had been ___________ the air for only two months, the series was cancelled.
A. over B. above C. on D. in
Question 18: I wish my daughter __________ while she was doing her homework.
A. wouldn't turn on music so loudly B. hadn't turned on music so loudly
C. couldn't turn on music so loudly D. didn't turn on music so loudly
Question 19: I was happy to ____________ her suggestions.
A. fall out B. fall for C. fall through D. fall in with
Question 20: My neighbor is driving me mad! It seems that _________ it is at night, _________ he plays his
music!
A. the less/ the more loud B. the later/the louder
C. the latter / the less noisy D. the more late/ the more loudly
Question 21: Some people feel it's their moral ___________ to help the poor.
A. period B. duty C. arrangement D. activity
Question 22: Scarcely had the eagle been released ____________ from view.
A. that it was disappearing B. but it had disappeared
C. when it disappeared D. than it has disappeared
Question 23: A new TV show has sparked __________ by showing the positive side of dropping out of
college.
A. argument B. discussion C. controversy D. debate
Question 24: ___________ we leave at three o'clock, we should get to the airport on time.
A. Assuming B. Assumed C. To assume D. Having assumed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25: His clothes were old and worn. They looked clean and of good quality.
A. His clothes looked clean and of good quality but they were old and worn.
B. No matter what good quality his clothes had, they looked old and worn.
C. His clothes, though old and worn, looked clean and of good quality.
D. He was fond of wearing such old and worn clothes because they were of good quality.
Question 26: They didn't have breakfast. That's why they are hungry now.
A. If they had breakfast, they wouldn't be hungry now.
B. If they had breakfast, they would have been hungry now.
C. If they had had breakfast, they wouldn't be hungry now
 D. If they had had breakfast, they wouldn't have been hungry now
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27: Many species are threatened in the wild due to habitat destruction by man.
A. place of living B. rituals C. usual behaviour D. favourite activity
Question 28: She got the job in the teeth of considerable competition.
A. owing to B. regardless of C. as regards D. in respect to
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
There are two main hypotheses when it comes to explaining the emergence of modern humans. The "Out
of Africa" theory holds that homo sapiens burst onto the scene as a new species around 150,000 to 200,000
years ago in Africa and subsequently replaced archaic humans such as the Neanderthals. The other model,
known as multi-regional evolution or regional continuity, posits far more ancient and diverse roots for our
kind. Proponents of this view believe that homo sapiens arose in Africa some 2 million years ago and evolved
as a single species spreading across the Old World, with populations in different regions linked through genetic
and cultural exchange.
Of these two models, Out of Africa, which was originally developed based on fossil evidence, and
supported by much genetic research, has been favored by the majority of evolution scholars. The vast majority
of these genetic studies have focused on DNA from living populations, and although some small progress has
been made in recovering DNA from Neanderthal that appears to support multi-regionalism, the chance of
recovering nuclear DNA from early human fossils is quite slim at present. Fossils thus remain very much a
part of the human origins debate.
Another means of gathering theoretical evidence is through bones. Examinations of early modern human
skulls from Central Europe and Australia dated to between 20,000 and 30,000 years old have suggested that
both groups apparently exhibit traits seen in their Middle Eastern and African predecessors. But the early
modern specimens from Central Europe also display Neanderthal traits, and the early modern Australians
showed affinities to archaic Homo from Indonesia. Meanwhile, the debate among paleoanthropologists
continues, as supporters of the two hypotheses challenge the evidence and conclusions of each other.
Question 29: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT _________
A. DNA studies offer one of the best ways in future to provide clear evidence.
B. three methods of gathering evidence are mentioned in the passage.
C. the multi-regional model goes back further in history.
D. the Out of Africa model has had more support from scholars.
Question 30: It can be inferred from the passage that ___________
A. the debate will interest historians to take part in.
B. there is likely to be an end to the debate in the near future.
C. there is little likelihood that the debate will die down.
D. the debate is likely to be less important in future.
Question 31: According to the passage, which of the following information is NOT true?
A. The vast majority of genetic studies have focused on living populations.
B. Examinations of early modem human skulls all support the same conclusions.
C. Both hypotheses focus on Africa as a location for the new species.
D. Early modem Australian skulls have similarities to those from Indonesia.
Question 32: Which of the following statements is NOT true about the two hypotheses?
A. Both hypotheses cite Africa as an originating location.
B. Genetic studies have supported both hypotheses.
C. One hypothesis dates the emergence of homo sapiens much earlier than the other.
D. Both hypotheses regard Neanderthals to be the predecessors of modern humans.
Question 33: The passage primarily discusses which of the following ________
A. two hypotheses and some evidence on the human origins debate.
B. evidence that supports the "Out of Africa" theory.
 C. that fossils remain very much a part of the human origins debate.
D. the difficulties in obtaining agreement among theorists on the human origins debate.
Question 34: In paragraph 3, the word “their” refers to __________
A. Central Europeans and Australians B. traits
C. skulls D. Middle Easterners and Africans
Question 35: The word "predecessors" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________
A. off-spring B. ancestors C. pioneers D. juniors
Question 36: The word "Proponents" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. Historians B. Inspectors C. Advocates D. Experts
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 37: A. theaters B. attends C. shifts D. authors
Question 38: A. evolve B. protection C. operate D. robot
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
option for each of the blanks.
Many of us enjoy art, and a beautiful painting often evokes a positive response, such as admiration and
wonder. (39) ________ for some people, viewing a work of art can set in motion a series of disturbing physical
effects, such as rapid heart rate, dizziness and even fainting.
In 1817, the author Stendhal had such an experience while visiting Florence, an Italian city (40) ________
by churches and museums famous for their art treasures. When Stendhal looked up at church ceiling, he was
so astonished by the beauty of the frescoes that his heart began to beat rapidly. His symptoms (41) ________
and he almost fainted. Since then, some people visiting Florence – foreign tourists, by and (42) ________
have experienced a reaction. The effects are usually mild and quickly disappear, but sometimes they are
substantial (43) ________ to require medical attention.
Question 39: A. Otherwise B. However C. Therefore D. Moreover
Question 40: A. determined B. communicated C. dominated D. indicated
Question 41: A. intensified B. simplified C. distorted D. pursued
Question 42: A. wide B. large C. huge D. broad
Question 43: A. fully B. very much C. incredibly D. enough
Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 44: I would go mad if I had to do a dead-end job.
A. monotonous B. demanding C. boring D. fascinating
Question 45: During my time in Paris, I stayed in a cramped top-floor flat.
A. immense B. full C. spacious D. huge
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 46: A. sector B. desert C. willing D. diverse
Question 47: A. ingredient B. optimistic C. traditional D. significant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 48: It is apparent that Nancy was at home last night.
A. I am not sure whether Nancy was at home last night or not.
B. No one knows whether Nancy was at home last night.
C. Nancy should have been at home last night.
D. Nancy must have been at home last night.
Question 49: It is not possible for me to sleep in a filthy place like this.
A. I have difficult in sleeping in a filthy place like this.
B. I can't possibly sleep in a filthy place like this.
C. I find it possible to have a good sleep in the quiet place.
 D. I have difficulty to sleep in such a filthy place like this.
Question 50: "It's marvelous that you were accepted to university" Dad said to me.
A. Dad praised me for my flying colour in the university entrance exam.
B. Dad told to me that it was wonderful that I had been accepted to university.
C. Dad encouraged me to make efforts to be accepted to university.
D. Dad congratulated me on being accepted to university.
-----THE END-----

Mã đề thi: 29 ĐỀ ÔN THI No 29
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 1 to 7.
Birds that feed in flocks commonly retire together into roosts. The reasons for roosting communally are not
always obvious, but there are some likely benefits. In winter especially, it is important for birds to keep warm
at night and conserve precious food reserves. One way to do this is to find a sheltered roost. Solitary roosters
shelter in dense vegetation or enter a cavity – horned larks dig holes in the ground and ptarmigan burrow into
snow banks - but the effect of sheltering is magnified by several birds huddling together in the roosts, as wrens,
swifts, brown creepers, bluebirds, and anis do. Body contact reduces the surface area exposed to the cold air,
so the birds keep each other warm. Two kinglets huddling together were found to reduce their heat losses by
a quarter, and three together saved a third of their heat.
The second possible benefit of communal roosts is that they act as “information centers”. During the
day, parties of birds will have spread out to forage over a very large area. When they return in the evening
some will have fed well, but others may have found little to eat. Some investigators have observed that when
the birds set out again next morning, those birds that did not feed well on the previous day appear to
follow those that did. The behavior of common and lesser kestrels may illustrate different feeding behaviors
of similar birds with different roosting habits. The common kestrel hunts vertebrate animals in a small,
familiar hunting ground, whereas the very similar lesser kestrel feeds on insects over a large area. The
common kestrel roosts and hunts alone, but the lesser kestrel roosts and hunts in flocks, possibly so one bird
can learn from others where to find insect swarms.
Finally, there is safety in numbers at communal roosts since there will always be a few birds awake at
any given moment to give the alarm. But this increased protection is partially counteracted by the fact that
mass roosts attract predators and are especially vulnerable if they are on the ground. Even those in trees can
be attacked by birds of prey. The birds on the edge are at greatest risk since predators find it easier to
catch small birds perching at the margins of the roost.
(Source: Toefl-reading/1298-toefl-readings-2)
Question 1: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Why some species of birds nest together. B. How birds find and store food.
C. How birds maintain body heat in the winter. D. Why birds need to establish territory.
Question 2: The word "conserve" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. share B. locate C. watch D. retain
Question 3: The author mentions kinglets in paragraph 1 as an example of birds that ________.
A. protect themselves by nesting in holes B. usually feed and nest in pairs also
C. nest with other species of birds D. nest together for warmth
Question 4: The word "communal” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. personal B. sociable C. individual D. shared
Question 5: Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
A. The common kestrel nests in trees; the lesser kestrel nests on the ground.
B. The common kestrel nests in larger flocks than does the lesser kestrel.
 C. The lesser kestrel and the common kestrel have similar diets.
D. The lesser kestrel feeds sociably but the common kestrel does not.
Question 6: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as an advantage derived by birds
that huddle together while sleeping?
A. Some birds in the flock function as information centers for others who are looking for food.
B. Some members of the flock warn others of impending dangers.
C. Several members of the flock care for the young.
D. Staying together provides a greater amount of heat for the whole flock.
Question 7: The word “they” refers to ________.
A. a few birds B. mass roosts C. trees D. predators
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 8 to 12.
Different cultures follow their own special customs when a child's baby teeth fall out. In Korea,
for example, they have the custom of throwing lost teeth up on the roof of a house. According to tradition,
a magpie will come and take the tooth. Later, the magpie will return with a new tooth for the child. In
other Asian countries, such as Japan and Vietnam, children follow a similar tradition of throwing their lost
teeth onto the roofs of houses. Birds aren't the only animals thought to take lost teeth. In Mexico and
Spain, tradition says a mouse takes a lost tooth and leaves some money. However, in Mongolia, dogs
are responsible for taking teeth away.
Dogs are highly respected in Mongolian culture and are considered guardian angels of the
people. Tradition says that the new tooth will grow good and strong if the baby tooth is fed to a guardian
angel. Accordingly, parents in Mongolia will put their child's lost tooth in a piece of meat and feed it to a dog.
The idea of giving lost teeth to an angel or fairy is also a tradition in the West. Many children in
Western countries count on the Tooth Fairy to leave money or presents in exchange for a tooth. The exact
origins of the Tooth Fairy are a mystery, although the story probably began in England or Ireland centuries
ago. According to tradition, a child puts a lost tooth under his or her pillow before going to bed. In the wee
hours, while the child is sleeping, the Tooth Fairy takes the tooth and leaves something else under the pillow.
In France, the Tooth Fairy leaves a small gift. In the United States, however, the Tooth Fairy usually
leaves money. These days, the rate is 1 USD to 5 USD per tooth, adding up to a lot of money from the Tooth
Fairy!
(Source: Reading Challenge 2 by Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen)
Question 8: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Customs concerning children's new teeth B. Traditions concerning children's lost teeth
C. Animals eating children's lost teeth D. Presents for young children's lost teeth
Question 9: The word “their” in paragraph 1 refers to ________.
A. countries' B. houses’ C. roofs’ D. children's
Question 10: According to paragraph 2, parents in Mongolia feed their child's lost tooth to a dog because
________.
A. they hope that their child will get some gifts for his or her tooth
B. they believe that this will make their child's new tooth good and strong
C. they know that dogs are very responsible animals
D. they think dogs like eating children's teeth
Question 11: The word "origins" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. beginnings B. families C. countries D. stories
Question 12: According to the passage, which of the following NOT true about the tradition of tooth giving in
the West?
A. Children put their lost teeth under their pillows.
B. Children give money to the Tooth Fairy.
C. Lost teeth are traditionally given to an angel or fairy.
D. Children hope to get money or gifts from the Tooth Fairy.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 13: A. ancient B. applicant C. animal D. annual
Question 14: A. enabled B. featured C. announced D. valued
(Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 15 to 19.
Going Inside Black Holes
One of the strangest phenomena in the universe is the black hole. For years, scientists have studied
black holes in an (15) ______ to better understand how they function. Like vacuum cleaners, black holes will
suck up anything (16) ______ crosses their path. The incredible sucking power that black holes generate
comes from gravity. They can quickly swallow up anything including planets, space debris, and anything
else imaginable. Even light cannot escape the (17) ______ of black holes. Since they are able to pull in
light, black holes are nearly impossible to see even with high-powered telescopes. (18) ______ scientists are
able to detect the presence of black holes in space because of their effect on an observed area.
Black holes can originate in a few ways. One type of black holes occurs when a star comes to the end of its
lifecycle and it dies in a supernova explosion. They can also occur when the mass of a neutron star becomes
so great that it collapses in on itself. Black holes may also occur when several large and dense stars collide
with one (19) ______ in space.
Question 15: A. effect B. impression C. attempt D. experience
Question 16: A. who B. what C. whose D. that
Question 17: A. catch B. embrace C. grasp D. achievement
Question 18: A. Therefore B. However C. In fact D. Moreover
Question 19: A. another B. each C. others D. other
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer three in the position of primary stress in each of the following
questions.
Question 20: A. alive B. happy C. patient D. honest
Question 21: A. influence B. employer C. industry D. instrument
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The power failure at dinnertime caused consternation among the city's housewives.
A. anger B. anxiety C. boredom D. calm
Question 23: Don't egg him on! He gets himself into enough trouble without your encouragement.
A. exploit him B. strongly encourage him C. help him out D. discourage him
(Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 24: There has been an appreciative drop in the number of unemployed people since the
new government came to power.
A. since B. in C. appreciative D. came to power
Question 25: A large number of popular expressions in our language has interesting backgrounds.
A. backgrounds B. expressions C. A large number D. has
Question 26: The Oxford Dictionary is well-known for including many different meanings of words and
to give real examples.
A. The B. to give C. meanings D. well-known
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 27: The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. Not only did the basketball team know they lost the match but they blamed to each other as well.
B. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match.
C. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.
D. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.
Question 28: We cannot completely avoid stress in our lives. We need to find ways to cope with it.
 A. As long as we can completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
B. Since we cannot completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
C. After we can completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
D. Because stress can completely be avoided in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 29: I ______ Alan for hours but he just doesn't answer his mobile. I hope nothing's wrong.
A. am calling B. called C. have been calling D. call
Question 30: You should use this cream ______ the sun from damaging your skin.
A. to preventing B. for prevent C. to prevent D. preventing
Question 31: Carrie says she will join the company if the starting salary ______ her expectations.
A. met B. meets C. has met D. had met
Question 32: In his students’ days, he was as poor as a church ______.
A. pauper B. miser C. mouse D. beggar
Question 33: They have heard the news from her, ______?
A. haven't they B. have they C. did they D. didn't they
Question 34: We always unite and work together whenever serious problems ______.
A. arise B. devise C. encounter D. approach
Question 35: My brother hopes to travel around the world ______ next summer.
A. Ø (no article) B. an C. the D. a
Question 36: For some subjects, face-to-face interaction can result ______ better learning outcomes.
A. about B. of C. in D. on
Question 37: ______ she is busy, she manages to pick her children up after school every day.
A. In spite of B. Although C. Despite D. Because
Question 38: It is the recommendation of many psychologists that a learner ______ mental image to associate
words and remember names.
A. use B. must use C. uses D. is used
Question 39: Hemingway, who was a _______writer, won the Nobel Prize in literature in 1954.
A. notorious B. respective C. distinguished D. excessive
Question 40: In Hawaii, it is ______ to greet visitors to the country with a special garland of flowers.
A. custom B. customary C. customer D. customize
Question 41: ______ at the campsite, it had stopped raining.
A. By the time they arriving B. After they arrived
C. By the time they arrived D. By the time they arrive
Question 42: I caught ______ of a lion lying under the tree, and my heart jumped.
A. sight B. scene C. view D. look
Question 43: More out-of-school activities are expected to be incorporated in the new school
______ proposed by Ministry of Education and Training.
A. schedule B. agenda C. handout D. curriculum
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 44: “No, it's not true. I didn't steal the money!” Jean said.
A. Jean denied having stolen the money. B. Jean refused to steal the money.
C. Jean admitted stealing the money. D. Jean did not intend to steal the money.
Question 45: It's possible that Joanna didn't receive my message.
A. Joanna needn't have received my message. B. Joanna shouldn't have received my message.
C. Joanna can't have received my message. D. Joanna mightn't have received my message.
Question 46: They think the owner of the house is abroad.
A. It is thought that the owner of the house to be abroad.
 B. The owner of the house is thought to be abroad.
C. It is thought to be abroad by the owner of the house.
D. The owner of the house is thought by them that he will be abroad.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.
Question 47:
- Anna: "Hi, I wonder if you could help me.”
- Tom: “_____________”
A. Sure. What's the problem? B. I need a book for my IT class.
C. Thanks. I will. D. No wonder. You're always busy, Tom.
Question 48:
- Mary: “Would you like to join my wildlife protection team?”
- Laura: “_________________”
A. Thank you. I've always wanted to do something to help.
B. Yes, I like working for this organization very much.
C. There are so many wildlife protection teams.
D. Where is it located?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 49: Although we argued with him for a long time, he stood his ground.
A. refused to change his opinion B. changed his decision
C. wanted to continued D. felt sorry for us
Question 50: The restaurant entices more and more customers with its cozy interior and special daily events.
A. convinces B. frees C. refuses D. attracts

ĐỀ ÔN THI No 30
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Mã đề thi 30
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 5.
A stinky gym bag in your kitchen? Who will be more upset by the smell - the men or the women in
your family? (1) _______ scientists suggest that women not only smell, but feel, taste, and hear more
accurately than men.
Take colors, for example. Ono study suggests that men are not as good as women at distinguishing between
(2) _______ of color, although they focus well on rapidly changing images. As for touch, small fingers have
a finer sense of touch, whether male or female.
Hearing is possibly one of the most debated areas, when talking about the senses. Evidence shows
that boys hear as well as girls at birth, but with age, a man's hearing may soon deteriorate. (3)
_______, environmental factors could play a role in this. Women may also be better at identifying different
flavors (4) _______ need both taste and smell to experience, as studies have shown that they have more taste
buds on their tongue.
Going back to the smelly gym bag - yes, it's likely that Mom will be the most (5) _______ out by it. But is
that because women's brains have more 'smell cells' or because you were too lazy to move it?
Question 1: A. Each B. Some C. Another D. Every
Question 2: A. smells B. senses C. shadows D. shades
Question 3: A. Moreover B. Therefore C. However D. Due to
Question 4: A. who B. which C. where D. whom
Question 5: A. taken B. sprung C. mazed D. freaked
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 6: Aren't you putting the cart before the horse by deciding what to wear for the wedding
before you're invited to it?
A. knowing the horse cart B. do things in the right order
C. doing things in the wrong order D. upsetting the horse cart
Question 7: He is writing a letter of acceptance to the employer with the hope to get his favorite position in
the company.
A. confirmation B. refusal C. agree D. admission
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 8: The letters he would write were full of doom and ________. We still do not know what made
him so depressed.
A. drib B. gloom C. duck D. tuck
Question 9: ________ the person is the more privilege he enjoys.
A. The rich B. The richest C. As rich as D. The richer
Question 10: My grandparents are quite old now and sometimes they have to ________ up and down steps.
A. be helping B. helped C. help D. be helped
Question 11: Unless we do something now, hundreds of plant and animal species will ________.
A. point out B. die out C. cut up D. make up
Question 12: While she was taking her exams, she ________ a terrible headache.
A. will have B. has C. had D. is having
Question 13: Sceptics claim that looking for alien forms of life in space is like squaring the ________ as they
do not exist.
A. ground B. circle C. flag D. school
Question 14: ________ the promotion, I began to search for other goals.
A. Having attained B. To attain C. Being attained D. Attained
Question 15: They offered her the job because she was very ________ on the design front.
A. creatively B. creative C. create D. creation
Question 16: The restaurant is well-known ________ its friendly atmosphere and excellent service.
A. for B. on C. in D. off
Question 17: Researchers have ________ to the conclusion that personality is affected by your genes.
A. got B. reached C. arrived D. come
Question 18: John crashed his truck ________ he was driving too fast.
A. despite B. although C. because D. because of
Question 19: She'll take the flight for the early meeting, _______?
A. won’t she B. hasn’t she C. didn't she D. doesn't she
Question 20: She bought a ________ jacket as a present for her daughter.
A. new Italian leather B. new leather Italian C. leather new Italian D. leather Italian
new
Question 21: The popular press often contains a lot more ________ than hard facts.
A. tolerance B. influence C. speculation D. realism
Question 22: I hope these machines will have worked very well ________.
A. as soon as you would come back next month B. when you came back next month
C. by the time you come back next month D. after you were coming back next month
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 23: A. concerned B. devoted C. renewed D. improved
Question 24: A. thrill B. hide C. prize D. crime
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 25: She is a confidential and practiced speaker who always impresses her audience.
A. confidential B. practiced C. impresses D. audience
Question 26: My sister finally got his own favorite piano to practice every day.
A. finally B. his C. to practice D. every
Question 27: Last night, she stays up so late to study for her exams.
A. stays B. so C. to study D. her
Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 28: The book was interesting. I've read it three times.
A. Such was the interesting book that I have read it three times.
B. So interesting was the book that I have no time to read it.
C. Only if it is an interesting book have I read it three times.
D. Should the book be interesting, I have read it three times.
Question 29: She bought an old TV. She has regrets about it now.
A. Provided she bought an old TV, she wouldn't have regrets.
B. If she hadn't bought an old TV, she would have regrets.
C. If only she had bought an old TV.
D. She wishes she hadn't bought an old TV.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.
Question 30: Peter is talking to Mary about eating habits.
Peter: "You should eat more fruits and vegetables."
Mary: “________”
A. Yes, I will. Thanks. B. No, thanks. C. My pleasure. D. You're welcome.
Question 31: Mrs Brown and Mr Smith are talking about teaching soft skills at school.
Mrs Brown: "Some soft skills should be taught to children."
Mr Smith: “_____________. They are necessary for them."
A. I don't either B. I agree with you C. You're quite wrong D. You're welcome
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 32: A. document B. holiday C. location D. journalist
Question 33: A. listen B. agree C. escape D. deny
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 34: Please give me some recommendation to buy suitable books for my ten-year-old girl.
A. advice B. defense C. interest D. question
Question 35: He has been jobless and often has to ask his parents for money.
A. out of fashion B. out of practice C. out of order D. out of work
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 36: Every student is required to write an essay on the topic.
A. Every student might write an essay on the topic.
B. Every student must write an essay on the topic.
C. Every student can't write an essay on the topic.
D. Every student needn't write an essay on the topic.
Question 37: "If I were you, I would rent another room" said my friend.
A. My friend threatened me to rent another room.
B. My friend was thinking about renting another room.
C. My friend insisted on renting another room.
D. My friend advised me to rent another room.
Question 38: He last cooked for the whole family five months ago.
A. He didn't cook for the whole family five months ago.
B. He has cooked for the whole family for five months.
C. He hasn't cooked for the whole family for five months.
D. He would cook for the whole family in five months.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word for each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Dogs originally came from wolves. Wolves look a lot like dogs, but they are bigger. They are also
quite fierce. At some point, some wolves changed through evolution. Some of them were smaller and gentler.
These nicer wolves were the first dogs. No one knows for sure when this happened or why. Some people say it
happened naturally over 50,000 years ago. Others say people made it happen between 15,000 and 50,000 years
ago.
However they came to be, people quickly saw that dogs were useful. Scientists who study humans say
the first tame dogs appeared with humans about 13,000 years ago in the Middle East. Not long after, there
were dogs in Asia, Africa, Europe and eventually, North America. These dogs were probably used mostly
for hunting and traveling. They were also good companions.
Dogs were an important part of life in ancient Egypt. Egyptian dogs were used not only for hunting, but as
guards and warriors as well. They believed the god that guarded hell was a dog. Ancient Egyptians also named
their pet dogs. Some popular names meant Brave One, Reliable, North-wind, Blacky, and Useless.
Dogs were also good ancient Roman warriors. The Roman army used dogs all over Europe. Sometimes the
dogs were attack dogs, but her times the dogs were messengers.
There are many different kinds of dogs today. How could they all come from wolves? There are
many different explanations. Some scientists believe that dogs mixed with other animals from the Canidae
family. This includes coyotes, foxes and jackals. Most scientists also believe that evolution and breeding
influenced the variation. Later, people found breeds of dogs they liked and combined them to make all new
breeds. In this way, people are still helping new breeds to appear today!
Question 39: Which of the following best states the main idea of the reading?
A. No one knows for sure where dogs first appeared with humans.
B. There are two theories about the evolution of dogs.
C. Evolution and breeding have made dogs what they are
D. Human beings used dogs for many jobs, so dogs are the first tame animals.
Question 40: The word “they” in the first paragraph refers to _______.
A. people B. years C. dogs D. wolves
Question 41: According to some scientists, when did the first tame dogs appear with humans?
A. About 15,000 years ago B. Between 15,000 and 50,000 years ago
C. Over 50,000 years ago D. About 13,000 years ago
Question 42: The word "companions” in the second paragraph mostly means _______.
A. messengers B. co-workers C. traveling friends D. hunting animals
Question 43: According to the reading, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Most people like to name their dogs Reliable, Blacky, and Useless.
B. The Roman always used dogs as messengers.
C. The first tame dogs appeared in ancient Egypt.
D. According to some studies, dogs mixed with coyotes and jackals.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word for each of the questions from 44 to 50.
 Many people see large urban cities as a wonder of human imagination and creativity. They represent
how far the human population has come in terms of community development. Despite its positive things,
there are also negatives from urbanization on the physical health of humans living.
As it would be expected, developing countries tend to see more negative physical health effects
than modern countries in regard to urbanization. One example of a developing country experiencing
these problems is China. China is a country that in the past 30-40 years went from being an agrarian
based society to a significant industrialized country. This industrialization has in effect caused the need for
more centralized cities, centralized meaning having lots of jobs and living spaces within a close proximity.
In most recent decades, since China's change to being more of an industrial based economy, the country
has experienced record high numbers of people migrating within its borders. In effect, the number of cities
with over 500,000 people has more than doubled. These migrations are typically of people from rural areas
of China moving to the new urban areas. Due to this large influx in the urban population, there are
many possibilities for health challenges among these people.
One very common and fairly obvious negative aspect of highly congested urban areas is air pollution.
It could include particulate matter, most commonly attributed to industrial plants and refineries waste,
or chemicals like CO2 or Methane. Due to a vast number of people in these urbanized cities, the air pollution
is known to be very extreme. These conditions can lead to many different health problems such as:
Asthma, cardiovascular problems or disease. When exposed to these conditions for a prolonged period of time,
one can experience even more detrimental health effects like: the acceleration of aging, loss of lung capacity
and health, being more susceptible to respiratory diseases, and a shortened life span.
Another way that urbanization affects the populations' health is people's change in diet. For instance, urban
cities tend to have lots of accessible, quick, and easy to get food. This food is also more than likely not as high
quality as well as contains a large amount of sodium and sugar. Because this food is so accessible, people tend
to eat it more. This increase in consumption of low-quality food can then lead to diabetes, hypertension, heart
disease, obesity, or many other health conditions.
Question 44: Which of the following could be served as the best title for the passage?
A. Urban cities - The new opportunity for community development
B. Urbanization - Pros and cons
C. Urbanization - How people's health is impacted?
D. Developing countries – The fastest urbanization
Question 45: The word “agrarian” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. farming B. industry C. city D. modernizing
Question 46: The word “congested” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. fresh B. overcrowded C. sparse D. contaminated
Question 47: The following are the air pollution sources mentioned in paragraph 3, EXCEPT _______.
A. industrial plants B. sewage C. refineries waste D. chemicals
Question 48: The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to _______.
A. quality B. sugar C. food D. sodium
Question 49: Why are urban populations easy to get diseases from food, according to the last paragraph?
A. Because of the change in people's diet.
B. Because this food is so delicious that people have a tendency to eat more than normal.
C. Because the way people get this food is rather accessible, quick and easy.
D. Because of the low quality and the high proportion of sodium and sugar in this food.
Question 50: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. One of the negative health effects comes from the overpopulation in industrialized countries.
B. Living in urban areas for a long time will certainly make the life expectancy of inhabitants shorten.
C. People in developed countries suffer less harmful health effects from urbanization than those in
developing nations.
D. The bad health effects from urbanization are not greater than the benefits it brings to people in
urban cities.
------THE END------
 ĐỀ ÔN THI NO 31
Mã đề 31 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the option the best completes the following
exchanges
Question 1: Jenny and Peter are talking about Peter's coat.
Jenny: "Wow! What a nice coat you are wearing!" – Peter: "___________”
A. Thanks. My mother bought it for me. B. Certainly. Do you like it, too?
C. Yes, of course. It's expensive. D. I like you to say that.
Question 2: Jenifer and Kathy are in the middle of their conversation.
Jenifer: "I believe that supermarkets are much better than traditional markets."
Kathy: “___________. Each has its own features."
A. I disagree with you B. That's completely true
C. I couldn't agree with you more D. I can't help thinking the same
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the corrected answer to each of the following
questions
Question 3: Not all the winners will receive great prizes, but nobody leaves ________.
A. empty-handed B. clear-handed C. white-handed D. blank-banded
Question 4: Michael returned to his hometown last summer, _______?
A. doesn't he B. didn't he C. won't he D. hasn't be
Question 5: He was a natural singer with a voice that was as clear as ______.
A. a waterfall B. a mirror C. a bell D. a lake
Question 6: Football is by far ______ most popular sport in the world.
A. an B. the C. x D. a
Question 7: After marriage, Mrs. Hoa always keeps a good ______ with her mother-in-law.
A. relationship B. friendship C. relation D. association
Question 8: The first week of classes at university was a little ______ because so many students get
lost, change classes or go to the wrong place.
A. uncontrolled B. disarranged C. famous D. chaotic
Question 9: Nam is motivated to study ______ he knows that a good education can improve his life.
A. because of B. in spite of C. because D. although
Question 10: If she ______ all the requirements for the job, she would be offered it.
A. will meet B. meets C. had met D. met
Question 11: ______ the terrible weather forecast, we decided not to travel.
A. To be heard B. Being heard C. To have heard D. Having heard
Question 12: When the manager of our company retires, the deputy manager will ______ that position.
A. hold on B. catch on C. stand for D. take over
Question 13: We should participate in the movements ______ to conserve the natural environments.
A. organizing B. are organizing C. organized D. are organized
Question 14: He was offered the job thanks to his ______ performance during his job interview.
A. impression B. impressively C. impressive D. impress
Question 15: Vietnam ______ announcing a nationwide lockdown to fight COVID-19 on April 1, 2020.
A. will start B. started C. starts D. has started
Question 16: They were deeply shocked ______ her rebellious behavior.
A. for B. with C. to D. at
Question 17: Our father planned ______ to Da Nang for summer holiday.
A. go B. to go C. to going D. going
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Coincident with concerns about the accelerating loss of species and habitats has been a
growing appreciation of the importance of biological diversity, the (18) ______ of species in a particular
ecosystem, to the health of the Earth and human well-being. Much has been written about the diversity of
terrestrial organisms, particularly the exceptionally rich life associated tropical rainforest habitats. Relatively
little has been said, (19) ______, about the diversity of life in the sea even though coral reef systems are
comparable to rain forest in terms of richness of life.
An alien exploring Earth would probably (20) ______ priority to the planet's dominants – most
distinctive feature - the ocean. Humans have a bias toward land (21) ______ sometimes gets in the way of
truly examining global issues. Seen from far away, it is easy to realize that landmasses occupy only one-third
of the Earth's surface. Given that two thirds of the Earth's surface is water and that marine life lives at all
levels of the ocean, the total three-dimensional living space of the ocean is perhaps 100 times (22) ______
than that of land and contains more than 90 percent of all life on Earth even though the ocean has fewer
distinct species.
(Adapted from: <https://goo. 91/GRvin7V>)
Question 18: A. number B. few C. each D. amount
Question 19: A. otherwise B. however C. moreover D. therefore
Question 20: A. give B. have C. bring D. make
Question 21: A. Who B. when C. that D. whose
Question 22: A. greater B. higher C. bigger D. larger
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 23: Right after the boy got out of his house, it started to rain heavily.
A. No sooner had the boy got out of his house than it started to rain heavily.
B. Not until it started to rain heavily did the boy got out of his house.
C. Hardly had it started to rain heavily when the boy got out of his house.
D. It had rained heavily before the boy got out of his house.
Question 24: She has much money, so she can buy a big house in the city.
A. Unless she has much money, she can't buy a big house in the city.
B. If she had much money, she could buy a big house in the city.
C. If she had had much money, she could buy a big house in the city.
D. Without money, she couldn't buy a big house in the city.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheer to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 25: Until the invention of the telephone, skyscrapers were not considered very practicable.
A. considered B. invention C. practicable D. skyscrapers
Question 26: Children love playing in the mud, to run through the paddles, and getting very dirty.
A. dirty B. to run C. playing D. paddles
Question 27: Each nurse report to the operating room when his or her name is called.
A. when B. is called C. report D. operating
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 28: Mai is less beautiful than her mother.
A. Mai is more beautiful than her mother. B. Mai's mother is not as beautiful as her.
C. Mai's mother is less beautiful than her. D. Mai is not as beautiful as her mother.
Question 29: "I'll call you as soon as I arrive at the airport”, he said to me.
A. He promised to call me as soon as he arrived at the airport.
B. He denied calling me as soon as he arrived at the airport.
C. He reminded me to call him as soon as he arrived at the airport.
 D. He objected to calling me as soon as he arrived at the airport.
Question 30: It is possible that Hoa didn't hear her name being called.
A. Hoa might not have heard them call her name. B. Hoa needn't have heard them call her name.
C. Hoa should not have heard them call her name. D. Hoa can't have heard them call her name.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 31: A. electric B. eternal C. opponent D. personal
Question 32: A. appeal B. confide C. reserve D. happen
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
There was a man who had four sons. He wanted his sons to learn not to judge things too quickly. So he sent
them each on a quest, in turn, to go and look at a pear tree that was a great distance away. The first son went
in the winter, the second in the spring, the third in summer, and the youngest son in the fall. When they had
all gone and come back, he called them together to describe what they had seen.
The first son said that the tree was ugly, bent, and twisted. The second son said no - it was covered with
green buds and full of promise. The third son disagreed, he said it was laden with blossoms that smelled
so sweet and looked so beautiful, it was the most graceful thing he had ever seen. The last son disagreed
with all of them; he said it was ripe and drooping with fruit, full of life and fulfilment.
The man then explained to his sons that they were all right, because they had each seen but one season
in the tree's life. He told them that you cannot judge a tree, or a person, by only one season, and that the essence
of who they are - and the pleasure, joy, and love that come from that life- can only be measured at the end,
when all the seasons are up. If you give up when it's winter, you will miss the promise of your spring, the
beauty of your summer, fulfilment of your fall.
Don't judge a life by one difficult season. Don't let the pain of one season destroy the joy of all the rest.
(Adapted from https://www.beliefner.com)
Question 33: According to the paragraph 4, what is the lesson the father wanted to import to his children?
A. Moral lessons can come from the most unexpected and ordinary things
B. No matter what season it is outside, you always have to cherish it.
C. The old age of humans is similar to the winter of nature.
D. Persevere through the difficulties and better times are sure to come sometime sooner or later.
Question 34: The word "they" in paragraph 3 refers to _________.
A. the pleasure, joy and love B. green buds
C. the four sons D. trees, people
Question 35: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Father and Four Sons B. The Observation of a Tree
C. The Seasons of Life D. Love all the Seasons in a Year
Question 36: According to the paragraph 2, what did the second son see in his turn?
A. The tree was blossoming and gave off a sweet scent.
B. The tree was bountifully fruitful, brimming with life force.
C. The tree was in buds and teeming with vigor.
D. The tree was gloomy, withered and crooked.
Question 37: The word "laden" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. decorated B. given C. enhanced D. loaded
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 38: The use of lasers in surge has become relatively commonplace in recent years.
A. absolutely B. relevantly C. comparatively D. almost
Question 39: Efforts by the company to it prove its productivity were hampered by lack of funds.
A. encouraged B. assisted C. endangered D. prevented
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 40: It was obvious that the deal was no longer tenable so we kicked it into touch.
A. mention it B. forgot it C. approved it D. measure it
Question 41: Her physical condition was not an impediment to her career as a singer. She has won a lot
of prizes.
A. obstacle B. barrier C. advantage D. disadvantage
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 42: A. engaged B. decided C. appeared D. threatened
Question 43: A. funny B. student C. rubbish D. upper
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Many people see large urban cities as a wonder of human imagination and creativity. They represent how
far the human population has come in terms of community development. Many positive things come
from urbanization, but there are also negatives. This article will discuss and present data on the implications
of urbanization on the physical health of humans living in these large urban areas.
As it would be expected, developing countries tend to see more negative physical health effects
than modern countries in regard to urbanization. One example of a developing country experiencing
these problems is China. China is a country that in the past 30-40 years went from being an agrarian based
society to a significant industrialized country. This industrialization has in effect caused the need for
more centralized cities, centralized meaning having lots of jobs and living spaces within a close proximity.
This is what is known as urbanization. In most recent decades, since China’s change to being more of an
industrial based economy, the country has experienced record high numbers of people migrating within its
borders. In effect, the number of cities with over 500,000 people has more than doubled. These migrations are
typically of people from rural areas of China moving to the new urban areas. Due to this large influx in the
urban population, there are many possibilities for health challenges among these people.
One very common and fairly obvious negative aspect of highly congested urban areas is air pollution.
Air pollution is defined as any harmful substance being suspended in the air. This could include particulate
matter, most commonly attributed to industrial plants and refineries waste, or chemicals like CO2 or Methane
(which are also products of plants and refineries as well as cars and other modes of transportation). Due to a
vast number of people in these urbanized cities, the air pollution is known to be very extreme. These conditions
can lead to many different health problems such as: Asthma, cardiovascular problems or disease, and different
types of cancer (most commonly lung cancer). When exposed to these conditions for a prolonged period of
time, one can experience even more detrimental health effects like the acceleration of aging, loss of lung
capacity and health, being more susceptible to respiratory diseases, and a shortened life span.
Another way that urbanization affects the populations' health is people's change in diet. For instance, urban
cities tend to have lots of accessible, quick, and easy to get food. This food is also more than likely not as high
quality as well as contains a large amount of sodium and sugar. Because this food is so accessible, people tend
to eat it more. This increase in consumption of low quality food can then lead to diabetes, hypertension, heart
disease, obesity, or many other health conditions.
(Adapted from https://medium.com)
Question 44: The following are the air pollution sources mentioned in paragraph 3, EXCEPT ______.
A. chemicals B. industrial C. factories sewage D. refineries waste
Question 45: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. The bad health effects from urbanization are not greater than the benefits it brings to people in
urban cities.
B. One of the negative health effects comes from the overpopulation in industrialized countries.
C. Living in urban areas for a long time will make the life expectancy of inhabitants shorten.
D. People in developed countries suffer less harmful health effects from urbanization than those
in developing nations.
Question 46: What does the phrase "these problems" in paragraph 2 refer to?
 A. industrialized countries B. negative physical health effects
C. lots of jobs and living spaces D. immigrants
Question 47: Why are urban populations easy to get diseases from food, according to the last paragraph?
A. Because of the low quality and the high proportion of sodium and sugar in this food.
B. Because this food is so delicious that people have a tendency to eat more than normal.
C. Because of the change in people's diet.
D. Because the way people get this food is rather accessible, quick and easy.
Question 48: The word "detrimental" in paragraph 3 mostly means ______.
A. beneficial B. positive C. harmful D. dangerous
Question 49: The word "congested" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. sparse B. overcrowded C. fresh D. contaminated
Question 50: Which of the following could be served as the best title for the passage?
A. Urban cities - The new opportunity for community development
B. Urbanization - Pros and cons
C. Developing countries - The fastest urbanization
D. Urbanization - How people's health is impacted
-----THE END----

ĐỀ ÔN THI No 32
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
Mã đề thi 32

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 1 to 8.
One of the most interesting authors of the twentieth century, J.R.R Tolkien, achieved fame through
his highly inventive trilogy. The Lord of the Rings. Born in 1892, Tolkien received his education from
Oxford and then served in World War I. After the war, he became a professor of Anglo-Saxon and English
language and literature at Oxford University.
Although published in 1965, the three books that comprise the Lord of the Rings were written in
intervals from 1936 to 1949. This was mainly due to Tolkien's responsibilities as a professor and the outbreak
of World War II. By the late 1960s, this fascinating trilogy had become a sociological phenomenon as
young people intently studied the mythology and legends created by Tolkien.
The trilogy is remarkable not only for its highly developed account of historical fiction but also its success
as a modern heroic epic. The main plot describes the struggle between good and evil kingdom as they try to
acquire a magic ring that has the power to rule the world. The novels, which are set in a time called Middle
Earth, describe a detailed fantasy world. Established before humans populated the Earth, Middle Earth was
inhabited by good and evil creatures such as hobbits, elves, monsters, wizards, and some humans. The
characters and the setting of Middle Earth were modeled after mythological stories from Greece and Northern
Europe.
Although readers have scrutinized the texts for inner meaning and have tried to connect the trilogy
with Tolkien's real life experiences in England during World War II, he denied the connection. He claims that
the story began in his years as an undergraduate student and grew out of his desire to create mythology
and legends about elves and their language.
Tolkien was a masterful fantasy novelist who used his extensive knowledge of folklore to create a body of
work that is still read and enjoyed throughout the world today.
Question 1: What can we assume is NOT true about Middle Earth?
A. People dominated Middle Earth. B. Middle Earth was a fictional world.
C. The good and evil kingdom fought for the power. D. Middle Earth was based on European
folktales.
Question 2: The word "scrutinized” in the fourth paragraph could be replaced by ____________.
 A. denied B. enjoyed C. criticized D. examined
Question 3: What does this paragraph mainly discuss?
A. The popularity of J.R.R Tolkien. B. J.R.R Tolkien's work as a professor.
C. All of J.R.R Tolkien's fantasy books. D. J.R.R Tolkien and his trilogy.
Question 4: According to the passage, when did "the Lord of the Rings" trilogy become popular with
young people?
A. In 1892 B. In the late 1960s
C. After World War II D. Between 1936 and 1946
Question 5: When did Tolkien begin to create this trilogy?
A. During World War I B. When he was a professor
C. When he was a student D. During World War II
Question 6: What does the word "trilogy" in the first paragraph mean?
A. A specific type of fantasy novel. B. A group of three literary books.
C. An unrelated group of books. D. A long novel.
Question 7: What is the setting of Tolkien's trilogy?
A. Oxford University. B. England in the 1800's.
C. Modem - day Greece. D. Middle Earth.
Question 8: The word "fascinating" in the second paragraph could be replaced by ____________.
A. thrilling B. boring C. terrifying D. extremely
interesting
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions from 9 to 10.
Question 9: Julie had a training course in alternative medicine. She was able to help the man out of danger.
A. Much as Julie had a training course in alternative medicine, she was able to help the man out of danger.
B. But for a training course in alternative medicine, Julie could have helped the man out of danger.
C. Despite training in alternative medicine, Julie was able to help the man out of danger.
D. Having been trained in alternative medicine, Julie was able to help the man out of danger.
Question 10: Hans told us about his investing in the company. He did it on his arrival at the meeting.
A. No sooner had Hans arrived at the meeting than he told us about his investing in the company.
B. Only after investing in the company did Hans inform us of his arrival at the meeting.
C. Not until Hans told us that he would invest in the company did he arrive at the meeting.
D. Hardly had he informed us about his investing in the company when Hans arrived at the meeting.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 11 to 12.
Question 11: A. suggest B. difficult C. industrial D. supply
Question 12: A. laughed B. checked C. weighed D. washed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions from 13 to 15.
Question 13: This film is interesting but the film we saw last week was more interesting.
A. The film we saw last week was more interesting as this one.
B. The film we saw last week was as interesting as this one.
C. The film we saw last week was less interesting than this one.
D. The film we saw last week was more interesting than this one.
Question 14: “I'm sorry I gave you the wrong number", said Paul to Susan.
A. Paul denied giving Susan the wrong number.
B. Paul apologized to Susan for giving the wrong number.
C. Paul accused Susan of giving him the wrong number.
D. Paul thanked to Susan for giving the wrong number.
Question 15: It was careless of you to leave the windows open last night.
 A. You might have been careless because you left the windows open last night.
B. You shouldn't have left the windows open last night.
C. You shouldn't leave the windows open last night.
D. You are so careless that you left the windows open last night.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 16 to 17.
Question 16: I think it's impossible to abolish school examinations. They are necessary to evaluate
students' progress.
A. organize B. extinguish C. continue D. stop
Question 17: They believe that life will be far better than it is today, so they tend to look on the bright side
in any circumstance.
A. be pessimistic B. be optimistic C. be smart D. be confident
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.
Higher education also provides a competitive edge in the career market. We all know that in the
economic times we are living in today, finding jobs is not guaranteed. The number of people unemployed is
still relatively high, and the number of new career (18) _______ isn't nearly enough to put people in jobs they
are seeking. As a job seeker, you're competing with a high number of experienced workers (19) _______
have been out of the workforce for a while and are also seeking work. (20) _______, when you have a
higher education, it generally equips you for better job security. Generally speaking, employers tend to value
those who have completed college than those who have only completed high school and are more likely to
replace that person who hasn't (21) _______ a higher education. Furthermore, some companies even go so far
as to pay your tuition because they consider an educated (22) _______ to be valuable to their organization.
A college education is an investment that doesn't just provide you with substantial rewards. It benefits
the hiring company as well.
Question 18: A. activities B. responsibilities C. opportunities D. possibilities
Question 19: A. who B. where C. which D. whose
Question 20: A. Moreover B. Otherwise C. Therefore D. However
Question 21: A. refused B. received C. permitted D. applied
Question 22: A. unemployed B. employment C. employer D. employee
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions from 23 to 36.
Question 23: If Tom __________ an alarm, the thieves wouldn't have broken into his house.
A. have installed B. installs C. installed D. had installed
Question 24: He is exhausted. He __________ around the whole afternoon trying to clean the house before the
guests arrive.
A. has been running B. has run C. be running D. was running
Question 25: No one enjoys __________ in public.
A. being made fun of B. to make fun of C. to be made fun of D. making fun of
Question 26: __________ number of boys were swimming in the lake, but I didn't know __________
exact number of them.
A. A/an B. The/the C. A/the D. The/an
Question 27: The goal is to make higher education available to everyone who is willing and capable
__________ his financial situation.
A. in terms of B. regardless of C. owing to D. with reference to
Question 28: __________ the table, Mr. Robert called the family for support.
A. Being laid B. Having lying C. Having laid D. Have laid
Question 29: In 1959, the political philosopher Hannah Arendt became the first women __________ as a full
professor at Princeton University.
A. to appoint B. who be appointed C. to be appointed D. was appointed
Question 30: __________ you like what I want to do or not, you won't make me change my mind.
 A. If B. When C. Whatever D. Because
Question 31: Do you think doing the household chores is the __________ of women?
A. responsibility B. responsible C. responsive D. responsibly
Question 32: Remember that things such as language, food and clothing are simply expressions of our cultural
__________.
A. celebration B. identity C. assimilation D. solidarity
Question 33: Peter has a separate room for his musical __________.
A. instruments B. facilities C. tools D. equipment
Question 34: You will have to __________ your holiday if you are too ill to travel.
A. put aside B. call off C. back out D. cut down
Question 35: Ischaemic heart disease and stroke are the world's biggest killers, __________ for a
combined 15.2 million deaths in 2016.
A. calling B. applying C. caring D. accounting
Question 36: _________, Nam Cao is a realistic writer, but he still used a lot of romance in his stories.
A. On the other hand B. On the contrary C. On my part D. On the whole
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 37 to 41.
Rainforests
Have you ever entered a tropical rainforest? It's a special, dark place completely different from
anywhere else. A rainforest is a place where the trees grow very tall. Millions of kinds of animals, insects, and
plants live in the rainforest. It is hot and humid in a rainforest. It rains a lot in the rainforest, but sometimes
you don't know it's raining. The trees grow so closely together that rain doesn't always reach the ground.
Rainforests make up only a small part of the Earth's surface, about six percent. They are found in
tropical parts of the world. The largest rainforest in the world is the Amazon in South America. The Amazon
covers 1.2 billion acres, or almost five million square kilometers. The second largest rainforest is in Western
Africa. There are also rainforests in Central America, Southeast Asia, Northeastern Australia, and the
Pacific Islands.
Rainforests provide us with many things. In fact, the Amazon Rainforest is called the "lungs of our planet"
because it produces twenty percent of the world's oxygen. One fifth of the world's fresh water is also found in
the Amazon Rainforest. Furthermore, one half of the world's species of animals, plants, and insects live in the
Earth's rainforests. Eighty percent of the food we eat first grew in the rainforest. For example, pineapples,
bananas, tomatoes, corn, potatoes, chocolate, coffee, and sugar all came from rainforests. Twenty-five percent
of the drugs we take when we are sick are made of plants that grow only in rainforests. Some of these drugs
are even used to fight and cure cancer. With all the good things we get from rainforests, it's surprising to find
that we are destroying our rainforests. In fact, 1.5 acres, or 6,000 square meters, of rainforest disappear every
second. The forests are being cut down to make fields for cows, to harvest the plants, and to clear land for
farms. Along with losing countless valuable species, the destruction of rainforests creates many problems
worldwide. Destruction of rainforests results in more pollution, less rain, and less oxygen for the world.
Question 37: What is the passage mainly about?
A. How much oxygen rainforests make. B. Facts about rainforests.
C. Where rainforest are located. D. Kinds of forests.'
Question 38: According to the passage, rainforests provide human all of the following EXCEPT?
A. Lung problems. B. Drugs used to fight and cure cancer.
C. Oxygen. D. Fresh water.
Question 39: The pronoun "They" in bold in the passage refers to ______.
A. trees. B. plants. C. rainforests. D. insects.
Question 40: Where would you find the largest rainforest in the world?
A. Northeastern Australia. B. Southeast Asia.
C. Western Africa. D. South America.
Question 41: The word "harvest" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. gather B. destroy C. reduce D. create
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions from 42 to 43.
Question 42: A. confide B. appeal C. tension D. reserve
Question 43: A. stimulate B. devastate C. sacrifice D. deliver
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions from 44 to 46.
Question 44: The number of students attending universities to study economics have increased steadily
A. attending B. of students C. have D. economics
Question 45: Hardly did he enter the room when all the lights went out.
A. the lights B. did he enter C. went D. when
Question 46: I am not fond of reading fiction books as they are imaginable ones which are not real.
A. imaginable B. are C. as D. fond of
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges from 47 to 48.
Question 47: Interviewer: "What sort of job are you looking for?" - Curtis: “_____________”
A. Oh, for me the most important is job satisfaction and I can have some work experience.
B. As a student, the most interesting thing about the job is working with people.
C. Well, I'm still in school, so I want something either in the evening or on the weekend.
D. No, I don't think so. I'd really prefer something outdoors.
Question 48: Peter: "Hi, David, do you think it's possible for you to have a talk sometime today?" - David:
"_____”
A. I wish I had been free yesterday to have time with you.
B. I'd love to, but I've got a pretty tight schedule today.
C. No more time for me. I have to work with my boss.
D. Excuse me; however, I'm so busy all day from morning.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 49 to 50.
Question 49: I'm becoming increasingly absent-minded. Last week, I locked myself out of my house twice.
A. being considerate of things B. often forgetting things
C. forgetful of one's past D. remembering to do right things
Question 50: Peter is the black sheep of the family, so he is never welcomed there.
A. the eldest child B. a beloved member
C. the only child D. a bad and embarrassing member

ĐỀ ÔN THI No 33
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH
Mã đề thi 33
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. formed B. ranged C. failed D. backed
Question 2: A. bought B. caught C. drought D. sought
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. dental B. sandal C. rental D. canal
Question 4: A. biology B. scientific C. geography D. activity
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: Of the two landscapes that you have shown me, this one is ________.
A. the more picturesque B. the most picturesque C. picturesque D. by far picturesque
Question 6: In my opinion, we shouldn't speak to the media at all before the most basic facts concerning
the explosion ________ established.
A. being B. will have been C. were D. have been
Question 7: There has not been a great response to the sale, ________?
A. hasn't there B. does there C. hasn't it D. has there
Question 8: ________, he began to make friends more easily.
A. Having entered school in the new city, it was found that
B. After entering the new school
C. When he had been entering the new school
D. Upon entering into the new school
Question 9: We thanked the hosts for their generous ________ and got under way.
A. hospitality B. hospitable C. hospitably D. hospitalize
Question 10: The scandal ruined his ________ and he never worked in the stock market again.
A. work B. career C. job D. profession
Question 11: In 1919, Sir Reginald Fleming Johnston was ________ as a tutor to Puyi, who was the
last emperor of China.
A. taken on B. brought about C. caught out D. kept in
Question 12: Although the queen of UK has in fact little authority of her own, she ________ informed
of events, and sometimes, she ________ by the government.
A. keeps - has consulted B. can be kept – should consult
C. is kept - is consulted D. will keep - was consulted
Question 13: It was hard to ________ the temptation to watch the late night show even though I was so tired.
A. resist B. defy C. refuse D. oppose
Question 14: There was a _______ on board the Bounty and the crew put the captain in a lifeboat and set
it drift.
A. insurrection B. rebellion C. mutiny D. revolution
Question 15: When his boss dismissed him from his jab, he ________ there for 10 years.
A. worked B. was working C. had been working D. has been working
Question 16: Laboratory tests carried ________ by three independent teams of experts have given
similar results.
A. about B. out C. forth D. up
Question 17: Scientifically-minded people generally believe in cause-and-effect relationships ________ they
feel there is a perfect natural explanation for most things.
A. because B. because of C. though D. in spite of
Question 18: It is a ________.
A. blue sleeping polyester bag B. polyester sleeping blue bag
C. blue polyester sleeping bag D. sleeping blue polyester bag
Question 19: It was an act of considerable bravery, way beyond the call of duty, and we will forever be in his
________.
A. help B. debit C. bill D. debt
Mark the letter. A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: These machines are older models and have to be operated by hand.
A. spiritually B. manually C. automatically D. mechanically
Question 21: If your smartphone rings in class, it will be very annoying and disruptive.
 A. supportive B. interruptive C. discouraging D. confusing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: My little daughter would spend an inordinate amount of time in the shop, deciding
exactly which four comics she was going to buy.
A. limited B. excessive C. required D. abundant
Question 23: One of the country's legendary tenor saxophone players, his name might not ring a bell for those
who are not in tune with Jazz in India, but he deserves to be remembered.
A. sound strange B. sound familiar C. be famous D. be announced
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24: Tony and Bob are talking in their classroom.
- Tony: “We are buying Lily a graduation present.”
- Bob: “__________”
A. She's out of my league. B. Can you all be more down-to-earth?
C. I'm raking in money now. D. Could I chip in?
Question 25: Bill and Jerry are in a coffee shop.
- Bill: “Can I get you another drink?”
- Jerry: “_________”
A. Not just now B. No, it isn't C. No, I'll think it over D. Forget it
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 26 to 30.
Many of the major supermarket chains have come under fire with accusations of various unethical
acts over the past decade. They've wasted tons of food, they've underpaid their suppliers and they've
contributed to excessive plastic waste in their packaging, which has had its impact on our environment.
But supermarkets and grocers are starting to sit up and take notice. In response to growing
consumer backlash against the huge amounts of plastic waste generated by plastic packaging, some of the
largest UK supermarkets have signed up to a pact promising to transform packaging and cut plastic wastage.
In a pledge to reuse, recycle or compost all plastic wastage by 2025, supermarkets are now beginning to take
some responsibility for the part they play in contributing to the damage to our environment with one
major supermarket announcing their plan to eliminate all plastic packaging in their own-brand products by
2023.
In response to criticisms over food waste, some supermarkets are donating some of their food surplus.
However, charities estimate that they are only accessing two per cent of supermarkets' total food surplus,
so this hardly seems to be solving the problem. Some say that supermarkets are simply not doing enough.
Most supermarkets operate under a veil of secrecy when asked for exact figures of food wastage, and
without more transparency it is hard to come up with a systematic approach to avoiding waste and to
redistributing surplus food.
Some smaller companies are now taking matters into their own hands and offering consumers a
greener, more environmentally friendly option. Shops like Berlin's Original Unverpakt and London's Bulk
Market are plastic- tree shops that have opened in recent years, encouraging customers to use their own
containers or compostable bags. Online grocer Farmdrop eliminates the need for large warehouses and the
risk of huge food surplus by delivering fresh produce from local farmers to its customers on a daily basis via
electric cars, offering farmers the lion's share of the retail price.
There is no doubt that we still have a long way to go in reducing food waste and plastic waste. But perhaps
the major supermarkets might take inspiration from these smaller grocers and gradually move towards a more
sustainable future for us all.
(Adapted from https://learnenglish.britishcouncil.org)
Question 26: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Major Supermarket Chains B. Grocers vs. Supermarkets
C. Sustainable Supermarkets D. Friendly Supermarkets
Question 27: According to paragraph 2, more and more people want supermarkets to _______.
 A. compost all plastic wastage B. donate some of their food surplus
C. reduce their plastic waste D. lower their prices for local farmers
Question 28: The word "backlash” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. agreement B. request C. reaction D. benefit
Question 29: The phrase "the lion's share" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. the largest part B. the best choice C. the animal's food D. the royal dish
Question 30: Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Supermarkets are not telling people how much food they are actually wasting.
B. There is a grocer in Berlin that doesn't allow customers to use their own containers.
C. Supermarkets are still denying that plastic packaging can cause damage to our environment.
D. Farmdrop stores large amounts of food and produces unnecessary waste.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
SPOILT FOR CHOICE
Choice, we are given to believe, is a right. In daily life, people have come to expect endless situations about
which they are required to make decisions one way or another. In the (31) _______, these are just irksome
moments at work which demand some extra energy or brainpower, or during lunch breaks like choosing which
type of coffee to order or indeed (32) _______ coffee shop to go to. But sometimes selecting one option as
(33) ______ another can have serious or lifelong repercussions. More complex decision-making is then either
avoided, postponed, or put into the hands of the army of professionals, lifestyle coaches, lawyers, advisors,
and the like, waiting to (34) ______ the emotional burden for a fee. (35) ______ for a good many people in
the world, in rich and poor countries, choice is a luxury, not a right. And for those who think they are exercising
their right to make choices, the whole system is merely an illusion, created by companies and advertisers
wanting to sell their wares.
(Adapted from Improve Yourself Reading Skill by Sam Mc Carter)
Question 31: A. nutshell B. main C. general D. whole
Question 32: A. which B. what C. where D. when
Question 33: A. opposed to B. aimed at C. involved in D. led to
Question 34: A. strengthen B. lighten C. soften D. weaken
Question 35: A. But B. Therefore C. Moreover D. However
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Geothermal energy offers enormous potential for direct, low-temperature applications. Unlike
indirect applications, this new technology relies on the Earth's natural thermal energy to heat or cool a house
or multifamily dwelling directly without the need to convert steam or other high-temperature fluids
into electricity, using expensive equipment.
A geothermal system consists of a heat pump and exchanger plus a series of pipes, called a loop,
installed below the surface of the ground or submerged in a pond or lake. Fluid circulating in the loop is
warmed and carries heat to the home. The heat pump and exchanger use an electrically powered vapor-
compression cycle - the same principle employed in a refrigerator - to concentrate the energy and to transfer
it. The concentrated geothermal energy is released inside the home at a higher temperature, and fans then
distribute the heat to various rooms through a system of air ducts. In summer, the process is reversed: excess
heat is drawn from the home, expelled to the loop, and absorbed by the Earth.
Geothermal systems are more effective than conventional heat pumps that use the outdoor air as their
heat source (on cold days) or heat sink (on warm days) because geothermal systems draw heat from a
source whose temperature is more constant than that of air. The temperature of the ground or groundwater a
few feet beneath the Earth's surface remains relatively stable – between 45°F and 70°F. In winter, it is
much easier to capture heat from the soil at a moderate 50°F than from the atmosphere when the air
temperature is below zero. Conversely. in summer, the relatively cool ground absorbs a home's waste heat
more readily than the warm outdoor air.
The use of geothermal energy through heat-pump technology has almost no adverse
environmental consequences and offers several advantages over conventional energy sources. Direct
geothermal applications are usually no more disruptive of the surrounding environment than a normal water
well. Additionally, while such systems require electricity to concentrate and distribute the energy collected,
they actually reduce total energy consumption by one-fourth to two-thirds, depending on the technology
used. For each 1,000 hones with geothermal heat pumps, an electric utility can avoid the installation of 2 to
5 megawatts of generating capacity. Unfortunately, only a modest part of the potential of this use
for geothermal energy has been developed because the service industry is small and the price of
competing energy sources is low.
(Adapted from Teach Yourself Toefl, Macmillan)
Question 36: What does this passage discuss mainly?
A. The possibility of using geothermal energy to make electricity
B. The use of geothermal energy for home heating and cooling
C. The technical challenges posed by geothermal energy
D. The importance of conserving nonrenewable energy sources
Question 37: According to paragraph 1, which of the following is not a difference between
indirect geothermal technology and direct applications?
A. Converting energy to electricity B. The use of high-temperature fluids
C. A need for expensive equipment D. Reliance on geothermal energy
Question 38: The word “submerged” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. hid completely B. put under water C. floated about D. removed
gradually
Question 39: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. heat B. energy
C. refrigerator D. vapor-compression cycle
Question 40: According to paragraph 3, the new technology is more effective than a conventional heat pump
because ________.
A. heat is brought into a home during the winter and expelled during the summer
B. soil and groundwater temperatures fluctuate less than air temperatures
C. ground temperature is close to groundwater temperature year-round
D. cold air absorbs less heat than warm air
Question 41: The word "adverse” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. harmful B. unsuccessful C. auspicious D. advantageous
Question 42: The passage implies that a rise in cost of conventional energy would have what effect?
A. A decrease in cost for geothermal heating and cooling
B. An expanded reliance on direct geothermal technology
C. A shift toward the use of conventional energy sources
D. A decrease in the number of homes using geothermal heating
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 43: "Sorry, we're late. It took us ages to look for a parking place” said John.
A. John finally found a parking place after a long time searching even though they were late.
B. John said that he was late because he had spent a lot of time finding a parking place.
C. John apologized for being late because it took them much time to find a parking place.
D. John said sorry for being late because he had to try his best to look for a parking place.
Question 44: It wasn't obligatory to submit my assignment today.
A. My assignment was required to submit by today. B. I needn't have submitted my assignment today.
C. My assignment must have been submitted today. D. I mustn't subunit my assignment today.
Question 45: It was so hot on the bus that Marcia thought she was going to faint.
A. Marcia was on the point of fainting because it was so hot on the bus.
B. The bus was so hot that Marcia felt fainted.
C. Marcia nearly fainted because of the heating of the bus.
 D. As soon as the bus got hot that Marcia fainted.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 46: Air pollution, together with littering, are causing many problems in our large, industrial
cities today.
A. with B. are C. many D. in our large
Question 47: The Spring conference will be held in Milwaukee on three successive days, namely May 15, 16,
and 17.
A. will be held B. in C. successive D. namely
Question 48: Wine tends to be lost its flavour when it has not been properly sealed.
A. to be lost B. its flavor C. when D. been properly
sealed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Seth informed us of his scholarship to study abroad. He did it when arriving at the school.
A. Not until Seth said to us that he would get his scholarship did he turn up at the school.
B. Only after his scholarship to study abroad did Seth tell us about his arrival at the school.
C. Hardly had Seth notified us of his scholarship to study abroad when he arrived at the school.
D. No sooner had Seth arrived at the school than we were told about his scholarship to study abroad.
Question 50: Viet Nam has amended requirements for high-tech businesses. This will lure more foreign
investment.
A. Viet Nam, which has amended requirements for high-tech businesses, will lure more foreign
investment.
B. Viet Nam has amended requirements for high-tech businesses which will lure more foreign investment.
C. Viet Nam has amended requirements for high-tech businesses, which will lure more foreign investment.
D. Viet Nam, which will lure more foreign investment, has amended requirements for high-tech
businesses.
------THE END------

ĐỀ ÔN No 34
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Mã đề 34
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or
phrase that best fits each other numbered blanks.
Artificial Intelligence (AI) in Viet Nam is developing rapidly and gradually affirming that it is a pillar and
(1) ________ technology in the fourth industrial revolution. Technological powers have long built their own
AI development strategies, taking this technology as the core for (2) ________ economic development.”
OpenGov reports.
Over the last few years, more organizations have started developing and applying AI in various
fields including education, telecommunications, retail, healthcare and (3) ________ which have not only
gradually dominated the market but also earned huge profits.
Currently, AI is the focus of the global technology circle and governments around the world.
Many countries have spent billions of US dollars on AI development strategies with the ambition to be
the frontrunners of AI.
Viet Nam is not outside this development trend either. In recent years, Viet Nam's AI industry has
made visible strides with increasing AI content in various products, the release noted. Large domestic
technology corporations (4) ________ are interested in investing in and building AI sources implement AI
projects. Many domestic companies as well as innovative start-ups, also tend to invest in AI and carry out
many new applications in new business models. (5) ________, like many countries that prioritize. AI
investment. Viet Nam lacks large databases, infrastructure, resources, and a solid foundation from AI
businesses.
Question 1: A. break-in B. outbreak C. breakdown D. breakthrough
Question 2: A. gaining B. accelerating C. widening D. diminishing
Question 3: A. others B. another C. other D. the other
Question 4: A. what B. that C. who D. whom
Question 5: A. However B. Moreover C. Although D. In addition
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 6: A. habitat B. campfire C. survive D. wildlife
Question 7: A. problems B. beliefs C. prohibits D. looks
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 8: A. evolution B. academic C. agriculture D. influential
Question 9: A. hacker B. marvel C. evolve D. software
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes the following
exchanges.
Question 10: Mary and Nhung is talking about Nhung's project.
Mary: "How is your project going?”
Nhung: “_____________”
A. I'm working with John and Anne. B. What? Is it going to finish soon?
C. Great! Couldn't be better. D. Do you really want to go?
Question 11: Lucy is talking to Huong, her Vietnamese friend, about air pollution in Hanoi.
Lucy: "Is there anything we can do about the toxic air pollution in Hanoi recently?"
Huong: " ____________, but the only thing we can do is to avoid outdoors and wear masks."
A. You're telling me B. I don't think I know the answer
C. I would say yes D. That's easy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 12: The book ________ last week is her first novel about a World Heritage Site in Viet Nam.
A. publishing B. published C. to publish D. to be published
Question 13: We expect Linh ________ to the airport late as the plane will take off in 15 minutes.
A. to coming B. not to come C. not coming D. coming
Question 14: ________, Joe stays in bed and reads magazines.
A. Whenever raining B. As it will be raining C. When it will rain D. Whenever it rains
Question 15: People thought that his novel might one day be turned into a film and become a Hollywood
________.
A. best-seller B. attraction C. blockbuster D. debut
Question 16: He has been successful in his career thanks to the ________ from his family and friends.
A. supportive B. support C. supporter D. supporting
Question 17: Just before the lesson ended, the teacher ________ everything that she had taught.
A. summed up B. made up C. showed up D. took up
Question 18: Nobody comes there on time, ________?
A. does he B. doesn't he C. do they D. don't they
Question 19: ________ species must be saved in order to maintain the balance in the ecosystem.
A. Extinct B. Endangered C. Dead D. Risky
Question 20: Don't you think you should apply ________ the firefighter's position?
A. with B. for C. at D. in
Question 21: ________ he followed my advice, he would not be unemployed now.
 A. Were B. Had C. Should D. Unless
Question 22: Kamala Harris is the 49 and current vice president of the United States. She is ________
first Black, first of South Asian origin, and first female occupant of the office.
A. a B. the C. no article D. an
Question 23: The global economy suffered a recession in 2020 and recorded negative growth rate of almost 4
percent ________ the Covid-19 pandemic.
A. because of B. although C. because D. despite
Question 24: By the end of today, Kim ________ all of the animal rescue centres in the city.
A. will visit B. will be visiting C. have visited D. will have visited
Question 25: The boy did a good ________ by helping the blind man cross the road.
A. show B. deed C. display D. feat
Question 26: The president ________ tribute to all the people who had supported him.
A. made B. gave C. paid D. returned
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 27: The more he learned about the job, the less interested he got.
A. After learning more about the job, he lost interest in it.
B. Though learning that the job is not interesting, he got it
C. As soon as he learned about the interesting job, he got it.
D. Even though the job is not interesting, he learned about it
Question 28: "I'll call you as soon as I arrive at the airport," he said to me.
A. He reminded me to call him as soon as he arrived at the airport.
B. He denied calling me as soon as he arrived at the airport.
C. He promised to call me as soon as he arrived at the airport.
D. He objected to calling me as soon as he arrived at the airport.
Question 29: People think that he was born into a rich family.
A. People think that his family is rich, so he was born.
B. He is thought to be born into a rich family.
C. That he was born into a rich family is thought about.
D. He is thought to have been born into a rich family.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 30: The 13" National Congress of the Communist Party of Viet Nam was attended by 1,587
delegates from around the country, the largest number at any congress so far.
A. attendants B. representatives C. participants D. audiences
Question 31: Readers are required to abide by the rules of the library and mind their manners.
A. obey B. memorize C. review D. compose
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 32: As the exams drew nearer Manh knew it was time to move up a gear and started studying
late into the evening.
A. to go upstairs to bed B. to revise lessons
C. to change his mind D. to reduce the rate of study
Question 33: The combination of rain and greasy surfaces made driving conditions treacherous.
A. dangerous B. serious C. poor D. favorable
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Do you like tuna? People in many countries like to eat tuna whether it is canned, cooked, or raw.
Unfortunately, humans are now eating too much tuna, and some species are becoming rare.
 The name “tuna” refers to over 48 species of carnivorous fish that live in Pacific, Atlantic, Indian, and
Mediterranean oceans. The most important commercial species of tuna are yellowfin, bluefin, bigeye,
albacore, and skipjack. Skipjack makes up the majority of canned tuna, while the other species are
served either raw or cooked.
While the fishing of skipjack tuna is currently sustainable, it is widely accepted that the other species have
been severely overfished. In particular, bluefin tuna stocks are now at risk of collapse. From 1976 to 2006, the
population of bluefin decreased by 92%. Overfishing continues despite repeated warnings. In 2009, scientists
recommended that the quota for northern bluefin tuna be set at 7,500 tonnes, but the Atlantic Tuna Commision
set it at 16,000 tonnes. Even this limit was ignored, with the total catch of Atlantic bluefin estimated to be
60,000 tonnes in 2009.
The reason for this over-fishing is that yellowfin, bluefin, and bigeye tuna are prized for use as sashimi
(raw fish). This makes them very valuable. In 2011, a bluefin tuna weighing 342 kilograms was sold in Tokyo
for 32,49 million yen (USD 396,000). Recently, the sashimi-tuna species have become so rare, and their price
is so high that many sashimi restaurants have had to close.
In response to decreasing tuna stocks, scientists have been trying to breed tuna in captivity. In 2009,
an Austrian company succeeded in breeding southern bluefin tuna in land-based tanks. This is an
important development because tuna farming currently relies on raising juvenile tuna that are caught in the
wild. Catching these juvenile tuna makes overfishing even worse.
Everyone needs to work together to help the wild tuna survive. You can help to save the wild tuna,
too. Next time you have tuna, check to make sure you aren’t eating a wild bluefin, yellowfin, or bigeye.
Hopefully, if we all play our part, it won’t be too long before stocks of tuna recover to their former levels.
Question 34: What does the passage mainly talk about?
A. The reasons why many people like tuna B. Causes of the low population of tuna.
C. Various types of tuna D. Declining tuna stocks and our actions
Question 35: According to the passage, which tuna species is now at risk of collapse?
A. all species B. bluefin C. yellowfin D. bigeye
Question 36: The word "This" in the 5th paragraph refers to _________.
A. decreasing tuna stocks B. trying to breed tuna
C. breeding bluefin tuna D. raising juvenile tuna
Question 37: It is stated in the passage that many sashimi restaurants closed down because _________.
A. bluefin tuna sashimi is not very popular B. bluefin tuna are extinct
C. bluefin tuna has become expensive and rare D. people liked canned or cooked tuna more
Question 38: Which sentence about tuna is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. It is possible to breed tuna in land-based tanks B. Worldwide stocks of tuna have decreased
C. Canned tuna is mostly made of skipjack tuna D. There are only few species of tuna in the world
Question 39: The word "juvenile" in the 5th passage is closest in meaning to _________.
A. old B. young C. fresh D. strong
Question 40: It can be inferred from the passage that _________.
A. Tuna overfishing has stopped due to repeated warnings.
B. Nothing can be done to help the wild tuna survive.
C. To recover stocks of tuna, we should be aware of what species of tuna we are eating.
D. Raising juvenile tuna is only one measure to save the wild tuna.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 41: Many successive film directors are former actors who desire to expand their experience in
the film industry.
A. successive B. film directors C. former D. their
Question 42: It is an interested book which I bought at Ngoc Binh Store last Sunday.
A. interested B. which C. at D. last Sunday
Question 43: My mother as well as her friends always go out together at the weekend.
A. as well as B. friends C. go D. at
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 44: Wastewater is treated and turned into drinking water. This is done to ensure there is no shortage
of fresh water.
A. For there is shortage of fresh water, wastewater is treated and turned into drinking water.
B. Wastewater is treated and turned into drinking water because there is shortage of fresh water.
C. Wastewater is treated and turned into drinking water though there is no shortage of fresh water.
D. To ensure there is no shortage of fresh water, wastewater is treated and turned into drinking water.
Question 45: We ought to visit Grandma. Otherwise, she will be worried about us.
A. If we do not visit Grandma soon, she will start to worry.
B. Grandma is worried about us, so we should visit her.
C. We need not visit Grandma unless she is worried about us.
D. We should visit Grandma in case she is worried about us.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
What makes people give money to charity? One reason is altruism, the unselfish desire to help other people
and make the world a better place. For example, religious institutions receive the highest percentage of
donations in the United States. Colleges and universities often receive gifts from successful graduates who
want to widen educational opportunities for other students or support research on an issue they feel
is important. Hospital and medical research organizations are often supported by donors who have been
affected by a medical problem, either directly or through the experience of family members or friends. Many
donors give to causes that have touched them personally in some way.
Charitable gifts can also be made for reasons involving personal interest. Under U.S. tax law, an individual
does not have to pay income tax on money that is donated to charity. For extremely wealthy individuals, this
can mean millions of dollars they do not have to pay in taxes to the government. In addition to tax benefits,
donors often receive favorable publicity for making donations, and they have an opportunity to influence the
world around them. For instance, new buildings at colleges and universities are often named after important
donors, which means that they will be remembered for their generosity for many years to come.
Question 46: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Charity Activities B. Charitable Giving C. To Be Charitable D. To Be Altruistic
Question 47: The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to __________.
A. colleges and universities B. other students
C. successful students D. educational opportunities
Question 48: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT TRUE?
A. Altruism is the unselfish desire to help other people.
B. In the US, people donate a lot to religious institutions.
C. In the US, many charity events are held by the governors.
D. Many people give away money to charity for the sake of themselves.
Question 49: The word "affected" in paragraph 1 almost means __________.
A. attacked B. killed C. fought D. caught
Question 50: According to the passage, what is perhaps THE LEAST supported by the writer about giving
a charitable gift?
A. People can earn their living by going to charity events.
B. U.S. people do not have to pay income tax on charitable donations.
C. Donors can have their names honored for a long time.
D. Donors have a chance to affect the world around them.
-----THE END----
 ĐỀ ÔN THI No 35
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 1: We are working, that means that we are contributing goods and services to our society.
A. that B. that we C. contributing D. services
Question 2: A basic knowledge of social studies, such as history and geography, is considering basic part
of the education of every child.
A. basic B. history C. considering D. child
Question 3: Higher education is very importance to national economies, and it is also a source of trained and
educated personnel for the whole country.
A. importance B. economies C. educated D. the whole country
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word
or phrase that best fits each other numbered blanks.
Trees protect the soil beneath them; thus, tree loss can affect soil integrity. For example, the rain
forest floor, home to numerous plant life as well as insects, worms, reptiles and amphibians, and small
mammals, relies on a dense covering of branches and leaves to keep it healthy and intact. The canopy of
leaves prevents surface runoff by (4) ________ heavy rainfall, so that water can drip down slowly onto the
porous earth. Tree roots also stabilize the soil and help prevent erosion. In return, a healthy soil encourages
root development and microbial activity, (5) ________ contribute to tree growth and wellbeing. A major factor
in cutting forest -related soil damage comes (6) ________ road building, with trucks and other
heavy equipment compressing the soft soil, creating furrows where water collects, and disrupting the
underground water flow. Eventually, the topsoil erodes, leaving behind (7) ________ infertile layer of rocks
and hard clay.
Logging can also damage aquatic habitats. Vegetation along rivers and stream banks helps maintain
a steady water flow by blocking the entry of soil and other residue, and trees shade inhibits the growth of algae.
Removing trees (8) ________ these benefits. When eroding soil flows into waterways, the organic matter
within it consumes more oxygen, which can lead to oxygen depletion in the water, killing fish and other
aquatic wildlife.
(Adapted from Essential words for the IELTS ...)
Question 4: A. intercepting B. releasing C. cutting D. delivering
Question 5: A. which B. who C. that D. what
Question 6: A. with B. to C. in D. from
Question 7: A. the B. no article C. an D. a
Question 8: A. wipe out B. wiping out C. wiped out D. wipes out
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
As computer use becomes more common, the need for security is more important than ever. One of
the greatest security threats in the online world is computer hacking. Computer hacking is the unauthorized
access to a computer or network of computers. Hackers are people who illegally enter systems. They may alter
or delete information, steal private information, or spread viruses that can damage or destroy files. But how
exactly can a hacker get into a system to do these things?
Most hackers use information called protocols that are built into computer software. These protocols allow
computers to interact with one another. Protocols are sort of like computer police officers. When a computer
connects to another system, the protocols check to see if the access is valid. The protocols can also determine
how much information can be shared between the two systems. Hackers can manipulate the protocols to get
unlimited access to a computer system.
In fact, just the act of entering a computer network is considered hacking. This is commonly called passive
hacking. Passive hackers get a rush from just being able to access a challenging system like a bank or military
network. Another kind of hacker tries to do damage to a system. After hacking into systems, these hackers
release viruses or alter, delete, or take information. Known as active hackers, they are, by far, the more
dangerous of the two.
The easiest way to protect a system is with a good password. Long and unusual passwords are harder
for hackers to guess. For even greater security, some online services now use "password plus" systems. In
this case, users first put in a password and then put in a second code that changes after the user accesses the
site. Users either have special cards or devices that show them the new code to use the next time. Even if
a hacker steals the password, they won't have the code. Or if the hacker somehow gets the code, they still
don't know the password.
(Adapted from Reading Challenge ....)
Question 9: It is implied in the passage that __________
A. it is difficult to protect data from being stolen by hackers.
B. hackers always damage the information in the host computer.
C. online services have been improving their security system.
D. not every hacker is harmful.
Question 10: What does the phrase "the two" in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. systems and viruses B. a bank and military network
C. passive and active hackers D. hackers and viruses
Question 11: As suggested in the last paragraph, what is the best way for computer users to prevent hackers?
A. They should not use any code on online services to make sure that hackers have no chance to get
your password.
B. They should use a long and customary password so that hackers cannot guess.
C. They should use different passwords for different accounts to access the sites.
D. They should have an additional secret code to confirm for their access after putting a password.
Question 12: Which of the following could best describe the main idea of the passage?
A. Different types of hackers. B. The way hackers access to a computer.
C. Computer security and hackers. D. What a hacker can damage in your computer.
Question 13: The word "unauthorized" in the first paragraph mostly means __________.
A. optional B. compulsory C. illegal D. permissible
Question 14: According to paragraph 2, which information is NOT true about protocols?
A. Protocols can try out whether they are legal to access another computer or not.
B. Protocols are a set of rules controlling the way data is sent between computers.
C. The amount of shared information between two computers depends on the host computer.
D. The data hackers can get from others' computers may be infinite.
Question 15: The author mentioned in the third paragraph that active hackers are more dangerous
because __________.
A. they often get access to important networks like a bank or military.
B. they can do many harmful things for the whole computer network system.
C. they implant viruses or steal private and other vital information in systems.
D. they always remove all the data in the systems they hack.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
SEA LEVEL
Global sea level has been rising over the past century, and the rate has increased in recent decades. In 2014,
global sea level was 2.6 inches above the 1993 average - the highest annual average in the satellite record
(1993-present). Sea level continues to rise at a rate of about one eighth of an inch per year. Higher sea levels
mean that deadly and destructive storm surges push farther inland than they once did, which also means more
frequent nuisance flooding. Disruptive and expensive, nuisance flooding is estimated to be from 300 percent
to 900 percent more frequent within U.S. coastal communities than it was just 50 years ago.
The two major causes of global sea level rise are thermal expansion caused by warming of the ocean since
water expands as it warms, and increased melting of land-based ice, such as glaciers and ice sheets. The oceans
are absorbing more than 90 percent of the increased atmospheric heat associated with emissions from human
activity.
With continued ocean and atmospheric warming, sea levels will likely rise for many centuries at
rates higher than that of the current century. In the United States, almost 40 percent of the population lives
in relatively high-population- density coastal areas, where sea level plays a role in flooding, shoreline
erosion, and hazards from storms. Globally, eight of the world's 10 largest cities are near a coast, according to
the U.N. Atlas of the Oceans.
Sea level rise at specific locations may be more or less than the global average due to local factors such
as land subsidence from natural processes and withdrawal of groundwater and fossil fuels, changes in
regional ocean currents, and whether the land is still rebounding from the compressive weight of Ice Age
glaciers. In urban settings, rising seas threaten infrastructure necessary for local jobs and regional industries.
Roads, bridges, subways, water supplies, oil and gas wells, power plants, sewage treatment plants, landfills-
virtually all human infrastructure-is at risk from sea level rise.
(Source: https://oceanservice...)
Question 16: What does the word "it" in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. ocean B. water C. ice D. sea level
Question 17: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Sea level and emissions from human activity
B. Sea level within U.S. coastal communities
C. Sea level is rising at an increasing rate
D. Sea level and its effects on the world's 10 largest cities
Question 18: Which of the following is the passage likely extracted from?
A. Science fiction document B. Scientific magazine
C. Weather forecast D. Research record
Question 19: The word "deadly" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. rainy B. lethal C. fast D. huge
Question 20: Which of the following statements is TRUE according to paragraph 4?
A. Sea levels will likely rise for many centuries at rates of the current century.
B. Sea level rise will only affect the world's 10 largest cities near the coast.
C. Sea level plays no role in flooding, shoreline erosion, and hazards from storms.
D. 40 percent of the population of the U.S. lives in densely populated coastal areas.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 21: A collection only has its real value when it is properly labeled.
A. Only when a collection has its real value is it properly labeled.
B. When properly labeled that a collection only has its real value.
C. It is only when a collection is properly labeled that it has its real value.
D. Only when a collection is properly labeled it has its real value.
Question 22: People think that Kenny stole the money.
A. People suspects Kenny of stealing the money. B. People was suspected to steal Kenny's money.
C. Kenny's money was thought to be stolen. D. Kenny suspects everyone of stealing the
money.
Question 23: They stayed in that hotel despite the noise.
A. No matter how noisy the hotel was, they stayed there.
B. They stayed in the noisy hotel and they liked it.
C. Despite the hotel is noisy, they stayed there.
D. Because of the noise, they stayed in the hotel.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 24: A. conversation B. initiative C. environment D. technology
Question 25: A. climate B. deplete C. remove D. delay
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 26: A. cheat B. increase C. speak D. break
Question 27: A. jumps B. arrives C. rains D. follows
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 28: He was one of the most outstanding performers at the live show last night.
A. important B. well-known C. impressive D. easy-looking
Question 29: They cannot understand why she did that, it really doesn't add up.
A. doesn't calculate B. isn't mathematics
C. doesn't make sense D. makes the wrong addition
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 30: The new laws to conserve wildlife in the area will come into force next month.
A. pollute B. complete C. protect D. eliminate
Question 31: He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at the
annual meeting in May.
A. rudeness B. encouragement C. measurement D. politeness
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 32: Children younger than 5 years old are _________ free to festival events.
A. admitted B. admit C. admittedly D. admission
Question 33: A new school _________. They hope to finish building it next month.
A. is built B. has been built C. was built D. is being built
Question 34: _________ to the South in the winter is a popular fact.
A. Bird migratings B. When birds migrate C. That birds migrate D. Where birds
migrate
Question 35: The job requires certain _________. You have to be good at operating computers and
dealing with people.
A. skills B. knowledge C. qualifications D. techniques
Question 36: Was Neil Armstrong the first person _________ foot on the Moon?
A. setting B. set C. to set D. who setting
Question 37: John _________ off alone a month ago, and _________ of since then.
A. has set - hasn't heard B. set - hasn't been heard
C. set - hadn't been heard D. had set - hasn't heard
Question 38: Each of us must take _________ for our own actions.
A. ability B. probability C. responsibility D. possibility
Question 39: Not only _________ to take the medicine, but he also hit the nurse.
A. he was refused B. does he refuse C. he refused D. did he refuse
Question 40: _________ he could not say anything.
A. However upset was he that B. So upset was that
C. Therefore upset was he that D. So upset was he that
Question 41: It gets _________ to understand what the professor has explained.
A. more and more difficult B. more difficult than
C. the more difficult D. difficult more and more
Question 42: His mother _________ him against staying up late night after night to prepare for exams.
A. claimed B. warned C. encouraged D. recommended
Question 43: We are not surprised that Mrs. Anna is ill. With all the voluntary work she's _________,
she's really been doing too much.
A. taken on B. taken to C. taken off D. taken in
Question 44: This is _________ most beautiful song I've ever listened to.
A. the B. Ø C. a D. an
Question 45: Information on events occurring in the theater _________ the year is available through
our website.
A. on B. into C. as D. throughout
Question 46: If it weren’t for my mobile phone, I _________ where my friends were.
A. don’t know B. wouldn’t know C. knew D. will know
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 47: It was an interesting novel. I stayed up all night to finish it.
A. I stayed up all night to finish the novel so it was interesting.
B. Unless it were an interesting novel, I would not stay up all night to finish it.
C. The novel was so interesting that I stayed up all night to finish it.
D. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.
Question 48: They didn't want to swim in the river. It looked very polluted.
A. They didn't want to swim in the river, where looked very polluted.
B. They didn't want to swim in the river, which looked very polluted.
C. They didn't want to swim in the river, that looked very polluted.
D. They didn't want to swim in the river, in which looked very polluted.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes the
following exchanges.
Question 49: Mai comes to Linh's house. It is Linh's birthday party.
Mai: “Can I have another cup of milk tea?”
Linh: “_________________”
A. Do it yourself. B. Allow yourself. C. Be yourself. D. Help yourself.
Question 50: Mrs. John: "How about a small present for little Jimmy after his performance?”
Mr Kelly: “_________________”
A. Thanks for your promise. I'm sure he'll be proud.
B. It's a great idea. He would like it.
C. Thank you for being so respectful.
D. Not at all.
-----THE END-----

ĐỀ ÔN No 36
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions (1-15)
Question 1: The students in my group are carrying out a survey ______ social networking.
A. on B. about C. of D. for
Question 2: On the slope of Long’s Peak in Colorado ______ the ruin of a gigantic tree.
A. lies B. lying C. which lies D. lied
Question 3: The larger the apartment is, the ______ the rent is.
A. most expensive B. more expensive C. expensive D. expensive
Question 4: When friends insist on ______ expensive gifts, it makes most people uncomfortable.
A. them to accept B. they accepting C. their accepting D. they accept
Question 5: There are several means of mass communication. The newspaper is one. Television is ______.
A. other B. another C. the other D. one another
Question 6: “Did you go there on foot or by bus?” - “I went ______ John’s bicycle”.
A. to B. with C. by D. on
Question 7: There was no clue to the ______ of the terrorist.
A. trace B. identification C. identify D. name
Question 8: The boy was sent to the police because of several ______ that he had taken part in.
A. set-to B. set-tos C. set-toes D. sets-to
Question 9: On hearing the news she fainted and it was half an hour before she ______ again.
A. came over B. came across C. came up D. came round
Question 10: Tea loses its flavor quickly ______ in the hold of a vessel.
A. when storing B. storing C. when stored D. stored
Question 11: It is only recently that ballets have been based on themes ______ American life.
A. reflects B. reflecting C. which reflects D. reflected
Question 12: I was glad when he said that his car was ______.
A. at my use B. for me use C. for my use D. at my disposal
Question 13: If one of the participants in a conversation wonders ______, no real communication has
taken place.
A. what the other person said B. what did the other person say
C. what was the other person saying D. what another person said
Question 14: The building was completed in ______ September of 1956, not in ______ October, 1995.
A. the - the B. the - Ø C. Ø - Ø D. Ø - the
Question 15: Many migrants flexibly ______ to the different aspect of the new culture.
A. change B. oppose C. adjust D. move
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges (16-17)
Question 16: Jenny: “Would you say that Mary is lazy?” - Sally: “______”
A. Yes, she’s never lazy B. Yes, she stays idle all day
C. Yes, she’s dead boring D. No, she’s not hard-working at all
Question 17: Tom: -“Do you mind if I take a seat?” - Bill: “______”
A. No, do as you please B. Yes, I don’t mind C. Yes, do as you please D. No, I mind
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other
three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions (18-19)
Question 18: A. influence B. instant C. expert D. extinct
Question 19: A. value B. idea C. custom D. festival
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions (20-24)
The latest addiction to trap thousands of people is the Internet, which has been (20) ______ for
broken relationships, job losses, financial ruin and even one suicide. Psychologists now recognize
Internet Addiction Syndrome (IAS) as a new illness that could (21) ______ serious problems and ruin many
lives. Special help groups have been set up to offer sufferers help and support. IAS is similar to (22)
______ problems like gambling, smoking and drinking: addicts have dreams about the Internet, they need to
use it first thing in the morning; they lie to their partner about how much time they spend online; they wish
they could cut down, but are unable to do so. A recent study found that many users spend up to 40 hours a
week on the Internet; although they felt guilty, they became depressed if they were (23) ______ to stop using
it.
Almost anyone can be at risk. Some of the addicts are teenagers who are already hooked on
computer games and who (24), ______ it very difficult to resist the games on the Internet. Surprisingly,
however, psychologists say that most victims are middle-aged housewives who have never used a computer
before.
Question 20: A. faulted B. accused C. mistaken D. blamed
Question 21: A. recommended B. offer C. suggest D. advise
Question 22: A. deceive B. cheat C. lie D. talk
Question 23: A. expect B. want C. hope D. wish
Question 24: A. have B. feel C. find D. say
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions (25-26)
Question 25: I picked up my book. I found that the cover had been torn.
A. The cover had been torn when my book picked up.
B. When picking up my book, the cover had been torn.
C. Picked up, the book was torn.
D. On picking up my book, I saw that the cover had been torn.
Question 26: “Cigarette?”, he said “No, thanks”, I said.
A. He mentioned a cigarette, so I thanked him.
B. He offered me a cigarette but I promptly declined.
C. He asked for a cigarette, and I immediately refused.
D. He asked if I was smoking, and I denied at once.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions (27-28)
Question 27: There is growing concern about the way man has destroyed the environment.
A. worry B. consideration C. ease D. speculation
Question 28: “We strongly believe that he’s innocent of the crime. We do not think that he did it”.
A. clean B. guilty C. faultless D. crimeless
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the sentence given in each of the following questions (29-31)
Question 29: The review overvalued his latest film.
A. The review rejected his latest film.
B. The review gave his latest film a moderate appreciation.
C. The review had a high opinion of his latest film.
D. The review turned down his latest film.
Question 30: I have called this meeting in order to present the latest sale figures.
A. My purpose in this meeting is in order to present the latest sale figures.
B. This meeting is called in order to present the latest sale figures.
C. My purpose in having called this meeting is to present the latest sale figures.
D. This meeting is in order to present the latest sale figures.
Question 31: The concert went like a bomb.
A. The concert was a disaster. B. There was a bomb in the concert.
C. The concert was extremely successful. D. The concert was very violet.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions (32-38)
REALITY TELEVISION
Reality television is a genre of television programming which, (it is claimed), presents unscripted dramatic
or humorous situations, documents actual events, and features ordinary rather than professional actors. It could
be described as a form of artificial or “heightened” documentary. Although the genre has existed in some form
or another since the early years of television, the current explosion of popularity dates from around 2000.
Reality television covers a wide range of television programming formats, from game or quiz shows which
resemble the frantic, often demeaning programmes produced in Japan in the 1980s and 1990s (a modem
example is Gaki no Tsukai), to surveillance- or voyeurism- focused productions such as Big Brother.
Critics say that the term “reality television” is somewhat of a misnomer and that such shows
frequently portray a modifies and highly influenced form of reality, with participants put in exotic location or
abnormal situations, sometimes coached to act in certain ways by off-screen handlers, and with events on
screen manipulated through editing and other post-production techniques.
Part of reality television’s appeal is due to its ability to place ordinary people in extraordinary
situations. For example, on the ABC show, The Bachelor, an eligible male dates a dozen women
simultaneously, traveling on extraordinary dates to scenic locales. Reality television also has the potential to
turn its participants into national celebrities, outwardly in talent and performance programs such as Pop Idol,
though frequently Survivor and Big Brother participants also reach some degree of celebrity.
Some commentators have said that the name “reality television” is an inaccurate description for
several styles of program included in the genre. In competition-based programs such as Big Brother and
Survivor, and other special-living-environment shows like The Real World, the producers design the format
of the show and control the day-to-day activities and the environment, creating a completely fabricated world
in which the competition plays out. Producers specifically select the participants, and use carefully
designed scenarios, challenges, events, and settings to encourage particular behaviours and conflicts. Mark
Burnett, creator of Survivor and other reality shows, has agreed with this assessment, and avoids the word
“reality” to describe his shows; he has said, “I tell good stories. It really is not reality TV. It really is
unscripted drama.”
Question 32: According to the passage, Reality TV appeals to some because ______.
A. it uses exotic locations
B. it shows eligible men dating women
C. it shows average people in exceptional circumstances
D. it can turn ordinary people into celebrities
Question 33: The word demanding in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. despising B. valueless C. diminishing D. humiliating
Question 34: In the first line, the writer says “it is claimed” because ______.
A. he totally disagrees with the statement
B. he wants to distance himself from the statement
C. everybody except the writer agrees with the statement
D. he wants to emphasize that it is his own claim
Question 35: The word fabricated in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. real B. imaginary C. imaginative D. isolated
Question 36: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Mark Burnett thinks the term “reality television” is inaccurate
B. Japan has produced demeaning TV shows copied elsewhere
C. Reality television has been popular since well before 2000
D. Shows like Survivor have good narratives
Question 37: According to the passage, the program “Pop Idol” ______.
A. is a dating show
B. is more likely to turn its participants into celebrities than Big brother
C. is less likely to turn participants into celebrities than Big brother
D. turns all participants into celebrities
Question 38: The term “reality television” is inaccurate ______.
A. for special-living-environment program B. for talent and performance programs
C. for all programs D. for Big brothers and Survivor
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions (39- 40)
Question 39: A. explosion B. media C. recorded D. emerge
Question 40: A. advice B. addition C. advent D. advantage
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions (41-45)
 The rules of etiquette in American restaurants depend upon a number of factors the physical location of
the restaurant, e.g, rural or urban; the type of restaurant, e.g, informal or formal; and certain standards that
are more universal. In other words, some standards of etiquette vary significantly while other standards
apply almost anywhere. Learning the proper etiquette in a particular type of restaurant in a particular area
may sometimes require instruction, but more commonly it simply requires sensitivity and experience.
For example, while it is acceptable to read a magazine in a coffee shop, it is inappropriate to do the same in
a more luxurious setting. And, if you are eating in a very rustic setting it may be fine to tuck your napkin
into your shirt, but if you are in a sophisticated urban restaurant this behavior would demonstrate a lack
of manners. It is safe to say, however, that in virtually every restaurant it is unacceptable to
indiscriminately throw your food on the floor. The conclusion we can most likely draw from the above is that
while the types and locations of restaurants determine etiquette appropriate to them, some rules apply to all
restaurants.
Question 41: The author uses the phrase “safe to say” in order to demonstrate that the idea is ______.
A. somewhat innocent B. commonly reported C. quite certain D. very clever
Question 42: The word “sophisticated” in the passage could be best be replaced by ______.
A. expensive B. exclusive C. cultured D. famous
Question 43: According to the passage, ______ requires sensitivity and experience.
A. learning the proper etiquette B. asking for instructions
C. knowing the type of restaurant D. knowing about an area
Question 44: What topic is his passage primarily concerned with?
A. rules of etiquette B. instruction in proper etiquette
C. the importance of good manners D. variable and universal standards of etiquette
Question 45: According to the passage, which of the following is a universal rule of etiquette?
A. reading a magazine at a coffee shop B. eating in rustic settings
C. not knowing food on the floor D. tucking a napkin in your shirt
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions (46-47)
Question 46: The mass media provide a powerful means of disseminating propaganda.
A. according B. spreading C. producing D. collecting
Question 47: All classification of human societies and cultures are arbitrary.
A. useful B. insufficient C. haphazard D. ambiguous
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs to
correction on each of the following questions (48-50)
Question 48: The old and the new in transportation also contrast sharply in Middle East.
A. The old and the new B. also contrast C. Middle East D. sharply
Question 49: The union insisted on an increase in their members starting pay, and threatened to call a strike if
the company refused to meet the demand.
A. refused to B. their C. members D. insisted
Question 50: Employees with less personal problems are likely to be more productive.
A. more B. likely C. less D. are
-----THE END----

Mã đề 37 ĐỀ ÔN NO 37
MÔN TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions from 1 to 15.
Câu 1: There is a lot of traffic so we are trying to find an __________ route.
A. alternation B. alternate C. alternative D. alternatively
Câu 2: Mrs Florida felt that her marriage had become ___________ prison.
 A. a B. Ø C. the D. an
Câu 3: While Peter ________ the rose bush in the back yard, the phone rang.
A. has watered B. was watering C. waters D. watered
Câu 4: E-mail allows people _________ in touch, regardless of distance.
A. to staying B. to stay C. staying D. stay
Câu 5: If you __________ a wallet in the street, what would you do with it?
A. found B. had found C. have found D. find
Câu 6: You stayed at home last night, __________?
A. had you B. would you C. didn't you D. did you
Câu 7: Sometimes she does not agree __________ her husband about child-rearing but they soon find the
solutions.
A. with B. of C. for D. on
Câu 8: The song ________ by our listeners as their favorite of the week is "Goodbye Baby" by Tunesmiths.
A. was chosen B. choosing C. chooses D. chosen
Câu 9: She _________ her anger by going for a walk.
A. worked off B. worked on C. worked out D. worked at
Câu 10: You must mix the right _________ of soap and water if you want to blow bubbles that last longer.
A. propensity B. proportion C. majority D. percentage
Câu 11: When he went to Egypt, he knew __________ no Arabic, but within 6 months he had become
extremely fluent.
A. virtually B. barely C. scarcely D. entirely
Câu 12: It was noticeable how a few people managed to ________ their will on the others.
A. focus B. judge C. impose D. break
Câu 13: In Korea, all men have to ________ military service for a period of time in their lives.
A. take B. have C. do D. make
Câu 14: This firm's gone to the _________ since the new management took over.
A. horses B. cats C. ducks D. dogs
Câu 15: __________ as the most important crop in Hawaii is sugar cane.
A. It is ranked B. It ranks C. What ranks D. That ranks
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 16 to 17.
Câu 16: Nutritionists believe that vitamins circumvent diseases.
A. treat B. defeat C. nourish D. help
Câu 17: That last comment of yours carried the day because nobody could possibly argue with you after
that.
A. was a big hit B. was a success C. was a failure D. was a break
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.
EXAM ADVICE
In Part Three of the Speaking Section you work together with a partner. You have to do a (18) ________ task
which usually lasts about 3 minutes. One possible task is “problem solving”, which means you have to look
at (19) _________ visual information and then discuss the problem with your partner. You may be shown
photos, drawings, diagrams, maps, plans, advertisements or computer graphics and it is essential that you
study them carefully. If necessary, check you know exactly what to do by politely asking the examiner to
repeat the instruction or make them clearer.
(20) ________ you are doing the task, the examiner will probably say very little and you should ask your
partner questions and make (21) ________ if he or she is not saying much. If either of you have any real
difficulties, the examiner may decide to step in and help. Normally, however, you will find plenty to say,
which helps the assessor to give you a fair mark. This mark depends on your success in doing the task by
competing with your partner, (22). _______ includes taking turns in giving opinions and replying
appropriately, although in the end it may be possible to "agree to disagree”.
(Source: Adapted from http://www.grid.unep.tech)
Câu 18: A. unique B. scarce C. lonely D. single
Câu 19: A. another B. other C. each D. some
Câu 20: A. While B. Since C. Although D. Because
Câu 21: A. suggestions B. statements C. speeches D. ideas
Câu 22: A. who B. this C. that D. which
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges from 23 to 24.
Câu 23: John and Mary are having dinner at her house.
– John: "This dish is really delicious!"
- Mary: “______________. It's called Yakitori, and it's made with chicken livers."
A. It's my pleasure B. I'm glad you like it
C. I guess you're right D. Sure, I'll be glad to
Câu 24: Christina and John are in the English evening class.
- Christina: “Why do you think the most people learn English?” – John: “____________”
A. All of them are. B. Very often it's to get a better job.
C. Because I like it. D. I heard it was very good.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions from 25 to 26.
Câu 25: A. culture B. success C. problem D. balance
Câu 26: A. powerful B. decisive C. commercial D. electric
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions from 27 to 29.
Câu 27: “You're always making terrible mistakes”, said the teacher.
A. The teacher made his students not always make terrible mistakes.
B. The teacher asked his students why they always made terrible mistakes.
C. The teacher realized that his students always made terrible mistakes.
D. The teacher complained about his students making terrible mistakes.
Câu 28: Joey put all his money on the lottery, which was his big mistake.
A. Joey may not have put all his money on the lottery.
B. Joey needn't have put all his money on the lottery.
C. Joey can't have put all his money on the lottery.
D. Joey shouldn't have put all his money on the lottery.
Câu 29: Fansipan is the highest mountain in the Indochinese Peninsula.
A. The Indochinese Peninsula includes one of the highest mountains on earth.
B. The highest mountain in the Indochinese Peninsula is exclusive Fansipan.
C. There are some mountains in the Indochinese Peninsula higher than Fansipan.
D. No mountains in the Indochinese Peninsula are higher than Fansipan.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C ord on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 30 to 36.
Urbanization degrades the environment, according to conventional wisdom. This view has led many
developing countries to limit rural-urban migration and curb urban expansion. But this view is incorrect. There
are a number of reasons urbanization can be good for the environment, if managed properly.
First, urbanization brings higher productivity because of its positive externalities and economies of scale.
Asian urban productivity is more than 5.5 times that of rural areas. The same output can be produced using
fewer resources with urban agglomeration than without. In this sense, urbanization reduces the ecological
footprint. The service sector requires urbanization because it needs a concentration of clients. As services
generally pollute less than manufacturing, this aspect of urbanization is also beneficial to the environment.
 Second, for any given population, the high urban density is benign for the environment. The urban
economics literature shows that compactness is a key determinant of energy use. High density can make public
transport more viable and reduce the length of trips. Urban living encourages walking and cycling rather than
driving. Third, environment-friendly infrastructure and public services such as piped water, sanitation, and
waste management are much easier and more economical to construct, maintain, and operate in an urban
setting. Urbanization allows more people to have access to environment friendly facilities and services at
affordable prices.
Fourth, urbanization drives innovation, including green technologies. In the long term, environment-
friendly equipment, machines, vehicles, and utilities will determine the future of the green economy. Green
innovations in Asia's cities will be supported by the region's vast market as the billions of people who will be
buying energy-efficient products will create opportunities and incentives for entrepreneurs to invest in
developing such products. Finally, the higher standard of living associated with urbanization provides people
with better food, education, housing, and health care. Urban growth generates revenues that fund infrastructure
projects, reducing congestion and improving public health. Urbanization fosters a pro-environment stance
among property owners and the middle class, which is crucial for the introduction and enforcement of
environmental laws and regulations.
Of course, urbanization also comes with costs. Millions of people are migrating to Asian cities and
companies are locating there to employ them. Urban sprawl and industrial activities, such as power generation,
transportation, construction, garbage and waste disposal, harm the environment. An assessment of the impact
of urbanization on the environment must balance its benign and adverse effects.
(Source: https://www.asiapathways-adbi.org/)
Câu 30: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Urban sprawl brings challenges. B. Driving force behind urbanization.
C. Urbanization might actually do some good. D. Five things to do in the age of urbanization.
Câu 31: The word “benign” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. harmful B. considerate C. gentle D. overwhelming
Câu 32: According to paragraph 3, through which can the optimization of power be achieved?
A. High-powered public transport B. Interconnected relationships of townspeople
Câu 33: According to paragraph 4, why is the promotion of an environmentally friendly attitude necessary?
A. It is conducive to the later intervention of legal rules.
B. Urbanization cannot proceed further without the consideration for nature.
C. It is due to the conscience of the affluent.
D. The government will not need a forceful means of regulation
Câu 34: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The service industry does more harm than good.
B. Visionary technologies can ensure environmentally sustainable development.
C. The term urbanization refers to when the lifestyle that is common in a city becomes prevalent.
D. The detrimental effects of urbanization on the environment cannot be reversed.
Câu 35: The word "them” in paragraph 5 refers to __________.
A. Asian cities B. migrants C. costs D. clients
Câu 36: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Urbanization will not take its course for the better.
B. Everyone has been mistaken about the urbanization.
C. We can look forward to a green society in a not-so-distant future.
D. There are not enough countermeasures for the negative effects of urbanization.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions from 37 to 39.
Câu 37: Dams are used to control flooding, provide water for irrigation, and generating electricity for the
surrounding area.
A. surrounding area B. irrigation
C. to control flooding D. generating
Câu 38: What the woman was saying were so important that I asked everyone to stop talking and listen.
A. was saying B. were C. What D. to stop taking
Câu 39: Kazakova's performance made her the heroin of the Moscow Film Festival.
A. made B. the heroin of C. Kazakova’s D. Film Festival
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 40 to 44.
The Singapore Science Centre is located on a six-hectare site in Jurong. At the centre, we can discover the
wonders of science and technology in a fun way. Clap your hands and colorful bulbs will light up. Start a
wheel spinning and it will set off a fan churning. It is a place to answer our curiosity and capture our
imagination.
The centre features over four hundred exhibits covering topics like solar radiation, communication,
electronics, mathematics, nuclear energy and evolution. It aims to arouse interest in science and technology
among us and the general public. The centre is the first science one to be established in South East Asia. It
was opened in 1977 and it now receives an average of one thousand, two hundred visitors a day. The exhibits
can be found in four exhibition galleries. They are the Lobby, Physical Sciences, Life Sciences and Aviation.
These exhibits are renewed annually so as to encourage visitors to make return visits to the centre.
Instead of the usual "Hands off" notices found in exhibition halls, visitors are invited to touch and feel the
exhibits, push the buttons, turn the cranks or pedals. This is an interesting way to learn science even if you
hate the subject. A Discovery Centre was built for children between the ages of three and twelve. This new
exhibition gallery was completed in 1985. Lately this year a stone-age exhibit was built. It shows us about the
animals and people that were extinct.
Câu 40: What can be the best title of the passage?
A. Discovery Centre B. Physical Sciences
C. Singapore Science Centre D. Science Centre
Câu 41: The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. solar radiation B. evolution C. the centre D. the general
public
Câu 42: According to the paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT true about the Singapore Science
Centre?
A. The exhibits in the centre cover a wide range of topics.
B. The centre was not opened until 1977.
C. The centre is the first one established in the world.
D. Visitors are encouraged to return to the centre.
Câu 43: It is stated in paragraph 2 that __________.
A. the science centre makes people interested in science and technology
B. visitors don't want to come back to the science centre
C. only students can visit the science centre
D. there are only several exhibits in the science centre
Câu 44: The author mentions all of the following in the passage EXCEPT ____________.
A. There are four exhibition galleries in the centre
B. The centre is the biggest in Asia
C. The centre is located in Jurong
D. The exhibits are renewed every year
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 45 to 46.
Câu 45: In certain types of poisoning, immediately give large quantities of soapy or salty water in order to
induce vomiting.
A. control B. cause C. stop D. clean
Câu 46: I was tickled pink when I got my first bike. I'll never forget it was pink with ribbons tied on the
handle bars.
A. very lucky B. very hopeful C. very embarrassed D. very pleased
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each of
sentences in the following questions from 47 to 48.
Câu 47: I invited Rachel to my party, but she couldn't come. She had arranged to do something else.
A. Rachel would have come to my party, unless she hadn't arranged to so something else.
B. If it hadn't been for her arrangement for something else, Rachel would come to my party as invited.
C. Without having arranged to do something else, Rachel would have come to my party as invited.
D. If Rachel hadn't arranged to do something else, she would come to my party as invited.
Câu 48: The substance is very toxic. Protective clothing must be worn at all times.
A. Since the substance is very toxic, so protective clothing must be worn at all times.
B. So toxic is the substance that protective clothing must be worn at all times.
C. The substance is such toxic that protective clothing must be worn at all times.
D. The substance is too toxic to wear protective clothing at all times.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions from 49 to 50.
Câu 49: A. developed B. searched C. described D. cooked
Câu 50: A. enter B. reduce C. result D. event
--------------------- THE END ---------------------

Mã đề 38 ĐỀ ÔN THI No 38
Năm học: 2020-2021
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 1: She was so insubordinate that she was sacked within a week.
A. dull B. obedient C. ill-mannered D. disobedient
Question 2: I'm sure it won't rain, but I'll take an umbrella just to be on the safe side.
A. easy B. careful C. careless D. difficult
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes the
following exchanges.
Question 3: Tom: "What a beautiful wedding dress you are wearing today, Daisy!" - Daisy: “________”
A. I'm sorry to hear that. B. Don't mention it.
C. Thanks, it's nice of you to say so. D. Thanks for your gift!
Question 4:
- Betty: "I know you are very good at playing football. Would you like to join our club?"
- Nadal: ________
A. Yeah. Good idea. I'd love to. B. What do you think?
C. What a good friend you are! D. Yes. I am very busy.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 5: They're my two sisters. They aren't teachers like me.
A. They're my two sisters, neither of whom are teachers like me.
B. They're my two sisters who neither are teachers like me.
C. Like me, neither of my two sisters aren't teachers.
D. They're my two sisters both of those are teachers like me.
Question 6: My parents encouraged me. I passed my exam with flying colors.
 A. Were my parents not to encourage me, I would not have passed my exam with flying colors.
B. Had my parents not encouraged me, I would not have passed my exam with flying colors.
C. Had my parents encouraged me, I would not have passed my exam with flying colors.
D. Should my parents encourage me, I would not have passed my exam with flying colors.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 7: A. pretended B. developed C. vibrated D. visited
Question 8: A. possession B. aggressive C. assault D. tasteless
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word
or phrase that best fits each other numbered blanks.
Why do some people take revenge on others? Why aren't we able to sort out our problems without seeking
to get (9) ______ with those who have hurt us? Apparently, we are simply experiencing a deeply rooted part
of human nature. Our desire for revenge comes from the brain's limbic system, the most primitive part of the
brain and one that we share with all animals. Thus, when someone confronts us, we often prefer attacking
verbally or physically rather than try to work out a solution together.
(10) ______, unlike animals, we also possess a highly evolved cerebral cortex which allows us to plan and
analyze - and this can make revenge more than just a(n) (11) ______ reaction. A person who feels they have
been wronged may even enjoy planning a creative and appropriate act of revenge. (12) ______ people suggest
that taking revenge can be seen as a positive move, allowing you to work through your negative emotions.
However, it can also be dangerous, and you may risk finding yourself in a situation (13) ______ rapidly gets
out of hand.
Question 9: A. equal B. similar C. even D. fair
Question 10: A. However B. So C. Therefore D. Whether
Question 11: A. distinctive B. extrinsic C. instinctive D. inborn
Question 12: A. Another B. Some C. Each D. Others
Question 13: A. who B. where C. when D. which
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 14: By the time you ______ back, I _____ all my correspondence and then I can help you
with yours.
A. will have got - finish B. get - will have finished
C. get - will finish D. will get - finish
Question 15: I agree ______ one point with Chris: it will be hard for us to walk 80 km.
A. in B. of C. for D. on
Question 16: In a formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye ______ with the interviewers.
A. connection B. link C. touch D. contact
Question 17: When my daughter was a baby, I noticed that she developed a ______ liking for classical music,
and when she was six I signed her up for violin classes.
A. particular B. special C. specific D. dominant
Question 18: Although he was ______, he agreed to play tennis with me.
A. exhaustive B. exhausted C. exhausting D. exhaustion
Question 19: The homeless don't have many things to eat, ______?
A. do they B. do we C. do you D. does it
Question 20: Nothing ever seems to bother Colin. No matter what happens, he always seems to remain as cool
as ______.
A. cool feet B. a cucumber C. ice-cream D. an Eskimo
Question 21: If you are a young, inexperienced driver, it is worth ______ comprehensive insurance.
A. have B. to have C. having D. had
Question 22: At first she was trained to be ______ scriptwriter, but later she worked as a secretary.
A. (no article) B. an C. the D. a
Question 23: In his latest speech, the Secretary General ______ the importance of wildlife conservation.
A. remained B. excused C. expected D. stressed
Question 24: We should participate in the movements ______ to conserve the natural environment.
A. organized B. which organized C. was organized D. organizing
Question 25: If I had had breakfast before going to school, I ______ hungry now.
A. will be B. will not be C. would not be D. would be
Question 26: I ______ in the lounge for ten minutes.
A. was told to wait B. was told waiting
C. was telling to be waited D. was told to be waited
Question 27: The government has ______ new proposals to tackle new proposals to tackle the problem
of increasing crime.
A. brought over B. brought through C. brought forward D. brought round
Question 28: John asked me ______ interested in any kind of sports.
A. if I was B. if were I C. if was I D. if I were
Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
The coronavirus is usually transmitted by droplets, such as those produced when coughing and sneezing,
and by direct or indirect contact with secretions infected by the virus. The virus may also shed in blood, urine
and faeces, and, therefore, there is potential for transmission through contact with a wide range of bodily
fluids. Certainly, person-to-person spread has been confirmed in community and healthcare settings across
Asia and into Europe. There is also a possibility that asymptomatic carriers may be able to infect people.
Public Health England (PHE) has classified the COVID- 19 infection as an airborne, high consequence
infectious disease (HCID) in the UK.
The application of infection prevention and control (IPC) principles are already widely used by
healthcare professionals within hospital and community settings to both prevent the spread of infections and
to control outbreaks when they do occur. The WHO has issued interim guidance regarding IPC when COVID-
19 is suspected. This advice is echoed by guidance issued by PHE.
PHE suggests the coronavirus may pose complications, such as illness pneumonia or severe
acute respiratory infection. They also suggest that patients with long-term conditions or are
immunocompromised are at risk of these complications. It is important that as first-line staff, midwives are
also familiar with the recommended IPC principles and measures, and ensure they have the appropriate
personal protective equipment (PPE) when caring for a patient with suspected COVID-19.
Question 29: According to the passage, the coronavirus can be found in all of the following EXCEP ______.
A. clothes B. blood C. urine D. faeces
Question 30: The word “They” in the last paragraph refers to ______.
A. IPC B. PHE C. WHO D. COVID-19
Question 31: Which of the following is TRUE about those with long-term conditions as the passage?
A. They can work in the WHO.
B. They are at risk of illness pneumonia or severe acute respiratory infection.
C. They are employees of Public Health England.
D. They can work as first-line staff like midwives.
Question 32: Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. Problems Related to the Coronavirus
B. Epidemic Situation in England by coronavirus
C. Coronavirus Transmission and Prevention
D. Advice for Those Who Infected with Coronavirus
Question 33: The word "interim" in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. effective B. everlasting C. permanent D. temporary
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 34: Josh may get into hot water when driving at full speed after drinking.
A. get into trouble B. remain calm C. fall into disuse D. stay safe
Question 35: Before heading for the mountains, climbers need to come up with a thorough plan in
case anything happens during the trip.
A. uncompetitive B. incomplete C. supplementary D. tough
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.
In the United States, presidential elections are held in years evenly divisible by four (1888, 1900,
1964, etc.). Since 1840, American presidents elected in years ending with zero have died in office, with
one exception. William H. Harrison, the man who served the shortest term, died of pneumonia only
several weeks after his inauguration.
Abraham Lincoln was one of four presidents who were assassinated. He was elected in 1860, and
his untimely death came just five years later. James A. Garfield, a former Union army general from Ohio,
was shot during his first year in office (1881) by a man to whom he wouldn't give a job. While in his
second term of office (1901), William McKinley, another Ohioan, attended the Pan-American Exposition
in Buffalo, New York. During the reception, he was assassinated while shaking hands with some of the
guests. John F. Kennedy was assassinated in 1963 in Dallas only three years after his election.
Three years after his election in 1920, Warren G, Harding died in office. Although it was never
proved, many believe he was poisoned. Franklin D. Roosevelt was elected four times (1932, 1936, 1940 and
1944), the only man to serve so long a term. He had contracted polio in 1921 and eventually died of the illness
in 1945. Ronald Reagan, who was elected in 1980 and reelected four years later, suffered an
assassination attempt but did not succumb to the assassin's bullets. He was the first to break the long chain of
unfortunate events. Will the candidate in the election of 2020 also be as lucky?
Question 36: All of the following presidents were assassinated EXCEPT ______.
A. Abraham Lincoln B. John F. Kennedy C. Franklin D. Roosevelt D. James A. Garfield
Question 37: Which of the following is true?
A. All presidents elected in years ending in zero have died in office.
B. Four American presidents have been assassinated.
C. D. Roosevelt completed four terms as president.
D. Only presidents from Ohio have died in office.
Question 38: The word "whom" in the second paragraph refers to ______.
A. Garfield B. a Union army general C. Garfield's assassin D. McKinley
Question 39: The word "inauguration" in the first paragraph means most nearly the same as ______.
A. election B. swearing-in ceremony C. acceptance speech D. campaign
Question 40: Which president served the shortest term in office?
A. William H. Harrison B. Warren G. Harding C. William McKinley D. Abraham Lincoln
Question 41: All of the following were election years EXCEPT ______.
A. 1930 B. 1960 C. 1888 D. 1824
Question 42: How many presidents elected in years ending in zero since 1840 have died in office?
A. 3 B. 5 C. 4 D. 7
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part the needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 43: The new government has decided to set all political prisoners freely.
A. has B. freely C. all D. The
Question 44: In a hot, sunny climate, man acclimatizes by eating less, drinking more liquids, wearing lighter
clothing, and experience a darkening of the skin.
A. In B. by eating C. experience D. more liquids
Question 45: The assumption that drinking and smoking has bad effects on our health have been proved.
A. have B. The C. on D. drinking
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 46: A. romantic B. attitude C. emission D. attractive
Question 47: A. allow B. destroy C. answer D. complain
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is clot rat in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 48: "Don't touch the electric wires. It might be deadly." said Steve to Mike.
A. Steve advised Mike not touch the electric wires as it might be deadly.
B. Steve accused Mike of touching the electric wires as it might be deadly.
C. Steve suggested that Mike not touching the electric wires as it might be deadly.
D. Steve warned Mike not to touch the electric wires as it might be deadly.
Question 49: It is necessary for you to finish this work today.
A. You can't finish this work today. B. You mustn't finish this work today.
C. You need finish this work today. D. You may finish this work today.
Question 50: People say that three men were arrested after the explosion.
A. Three men are said to have been arrested after the explosion.
B. Three men were said to have been arrested after the explosion.
C. It was said that three men were arrested after the explosion.
D. Three men are said to be arrested after the explosion.
----- THE END -----

ĐỀ ÔN THI No 39
Mã đề thi 39 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress.
Question 1: A. accountancy B. diversity C. category D. curriculum
Question 2: A. effort B. precede C. college D. partner
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheer to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 3: They may refuse to negotiate with terrorists who were accused of inhumanity in the treatment of
the hostages.
A. violence B. kindness C. justice D. hospitality
Question 4: To some extent, those who we think are strong-willed desperately need our support and care.
A. determined B. indefinite C. diffident D. pleased
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 5: At a group discussion.
Andrew: Volunteer activities are good for teenagers.
Mary: “___________.”
A. I quite agree with you B. Never mind C. That's all right D. I don't hope so
Question 6: In a restaurant.
Waiter: Would you like to see the dessert menu?
Jason: “____________”
A. No, thanks. Can we have the bill, please? B. Yes, please. Two more glasses of lemonade.
C. Sorry! I don't see it. D. Great! I'll have the fish.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions.
Question 7: Almost every part of our lives ______ computerized over the past 20 years.
A. have been B. was C. had been D. has been
Question 8: I ______ that I'd meet him that evening.
A. told B. said to him C. told to him D. said him
Question 9: It's a school with a reputation for ______ and sporting excellence.
A. educated B. educational C. sociable D. schooling
Question 10: She ______, feeling sick at heart, even though she knew she should be glad.
A. turned down B. turned against C. turned away D. turned on
Question 11: He always advises me to ask some questions ______ the close of the interview to show that I'm
interested ______ the job.
A. on/for B. in /in C. at/in D. at / with
Question 12: She plays ______ violin fairly well and makes a living by teaching ______violin.
A. x / x B. a /x C. the / x D. a / a
Question 13: ______ the Christmas season, everybody prepared for the traditional Tet holiday.
A. To finish B. Finish C. Having been finished D. Having finished
Question 14: The stranger shook my hand warmly ______ he had known me for years.
A. provided that B. as if C. in case D. even if
Question 15: Marissa is thought ______ with her daughter at the present time.
A. to be living B. living C. to live D. to have lived
Question 16: I never used to like new clothes as a kid, but I've ______ them as I've grown older.
A. kept an eye on B. put an end to C. had a hand in D. taken a fancy to
Question 17: As long as you're enjoying your job, ______.
A. you should have tried moving to another city for a change
B. it was rewarding both emotionally and financially
C. so many people are unable to achieve real happiness
D. it really doesn't matter how much money you make
Question 18: He was one of the people who came instantly ______ awake and fell asleep with equal speed.
A. full B. easy C. wide D. hard
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 19 to 26.
LIFE IN THE FUTURE
By the end of the third millennium, people will have access to basic utilities like electricity and the internet.
As a type of civilization, the overall energy consumption of everyone in the 30th century will be at a level of
around 4x1026 watts. In other words, the energy utilization in a world full of working class consumers will be
comparable to the luminosity of our parent star. So, the people of the future will inevitably need to fully
harness the output of the Sun through the use of a vast array of satellite mega - structures that encircle the
celestial body and capture the radiation it emits.
In requiring everyone to work together, the inclusive attitude of the future will cause everyone to
grow much closer to one another, improving interpersonal relationships in neighborhoods the world over. By
the year 3000, the whole of humanity will become a sort of poly-amorous society of mono-ethnic
global citizens, living in a complex egalitarian intercontinental cooperative. Everyone will be part of
multicultural communities within communities. Companies and credit unions will even be owned by their
employees. People will be very conscientious. Everyone will support the global economy, as well as ecology,
of the world.
Humans will inhabit artificial urban jungles filled with buildings and sidewalks, while the other
animals will inhabit natural rural jungles filled with wilderness and trails, Friends will walk through the
crowded streets of the mega-cities of the future holding hands with one another. Public displays of affection
will be customary among everyone. Casual bisexual encounters will be the norm. Everyone will care
about everyone else. People will all accept each other, and help each other out, more and more as time goes
on.
The point is that eventually, everyone will finally get along. Humanity will progress to a point of collective
compatibility as everyone sufficiently integrates and assimilates. From now until the year 3000, the several
thousand languages currently spoken will reduce down to only about a hundred. More importantly, the nation
state members of the UN will all use the same form of electronic currency. As the countries of the world unify
more and more, the metric system will become the universal standard of measurement. Things will become
increasingly more common among everyone. This will bring everyone closer and closer together, each step of
the way. In the end, cultural memes will all eventually just blend together in the great melting pot that is the
world.
People will also change physically, along with mentally, too though. For instance, there will be an increase
in both height and longevity, among people in general. In the year 3000, people will be about six feet tall, and
live to be 120 years old, on average. They will experience a slight reduction in the size of their mouths, too.
Improvements in nutritional science will revolutionize the world of medicine and alter the course of human
evolution. Everyone will be genetically screened as an embryo to weed out defects and correct mistakes in
their personal genome. 8th scale transhuman cyborgs will even go so far as to have 7th scale robotic
integrations, with microscopic machines making them better. This will be terribly important because there
will be very little diversity in the gene pool of the superhumans of the future, who are all bred to be what is
considered ideal.
(Source: https://medium.com)
Question 19: Which of the following could be best the title of the passage?
A. The energy consumption in the third medium B. The change of humans in the far future
C. The way people live in the 30th century D. The life in the year 3000
Question 20: The word "harness" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. absorb B. exploit C. separate D. replace
Question 21: According to the paragraph 2, how can the attitude of the future affect the world?
A. It enhances the diversity of cultures in the society.
B. It brings people closer to others both in nations and in the world.
C. It improves the distance in the relationship of neighborhood.
D. It supports the global economy and ecology of the world.
Question 22: The word "conscientious" in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by _______.
A. careless B. indolent C. dishonest D. careful
Question 23: According to paragraph 3, which of the following is NOT true?
A. People will not express their emotion in public.
B. People and animals will live in their favourite environment.
C. It is not strange for men and women to compete with each other.
D. People are safe to walk through the crowded streets with their friends.
Question 24: The word "that" in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. the great melting pot B. the metric system C. each step of the way D. cultural memes
Question 25: The author described the reduction in number of languages in paragraph 4 as an evidence of
_______.
A. the standard of measurement B. the popularity of things
C. the compatibility of humans in the future D. the development of electronic currency
Question 26: What can be the main idea of the last passage?
A. People's longevity will be increase in the future.
B. Robots will be advanced to be superhumans of the future.
C. Science is the main factor to the change of human's appearance.
D. Humans' physicality and mentality will alter in the future.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 27: When he receives the money from the insurance company two days ago, he had already rebuilt
the house.
A. receives B. from C. had already rebuilt D. insurance
company
Question 28: The coffee turned bitter when it left on the stove for so long.
A. on B. turned C. for so long D. left
Question 29: I have long supported the idea of education not only provides us with a tool for making
money but also helps us figure out how we want to live.
A. figure out B. of C. have long supported D. for making
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
pronunciation of the underlined part.
Question 30: A. attitudes B. devices C. vacancies D. interviews
Question 31: A. sacrifice B. campus C. attention D. parallel
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: There are criticisms of the problem. It is that the campaign is too expensive to carry out.
A. Because there are criticisms of the problem, it is that the campaign is too expensive to carry out.
B. There are the criticisms of the problem, which the campaign is too expensive to carry out.
C. The problem, according to the criticisms, is that the campaign is too expensive to carry out.
D. Despite the criticisms of the problem, it is that the campaign is too expensive to carry out.
Question 33: They could succeed in their work. It was thanks to our assistance.
A. Although we had helped them, they did not succeed in their work.
B. We had assisted them but they did not succeed in their work.
C. Without our assistance, they could not have succeeded in their work.
D. They could not succeed in their work even with our assistance.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks
from 34 to 38.
Jobs in the time of Covid-19
The impact of this deadly virus and actions taken by governments are affecting businesses and
industries across the globe. Some, like the travel industry, are staring at one of the worst crises of their time.
Countries and cities ...34... go through a long shutdown period will force many out of business for good,
especially micro and small firms and others to ...35... employees. Many corporations have already initiated
a lockdown-like state with mandatory work-from-home exercise.
An ongoing job-hunt and a pandemic make for a heavy combination. How so? By now, ...36... is
pretty evident that this virus has not just attacked our bodies, but also shaken our economies and stock markets.
If an economy plummets into a recession, almost all of us are at risk of losing our jobs. Especially if you are
a job-seeker, searching for a job in a recession will be a Herculean task and you need a battle plan.
Your job search strategy in a recession should focus on applying to fewer job openings, not
more. Confused? In trying times, you need to narrow down to companies that you want to work for and then
find a reasonable opening in just those firms. The logic is to direct your energies towards ...37... quality
job applications, the ones that stand out from the multitude of mediocre job applications. Do not try to
spread yourself too ...38... by applying anywhere and everywhere in the market. This is one of the most ill-
suited times for that.
(Source: The Economic Times)
Question 34: A. that B. where C. when D. whose
Question 35: A. lay aside B. take on C. lay off D. take over
Question 36: A. it B. there C. nobody D. someone
Question 37: A. little B. few C. a few D. a little
Question 38: A. close B. thin C. near D. far
Read the following passage and mark the letter A B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 45.
Black Friday
The day after Thanksgiving has become America's biggest shopping day. Closed all day on Thursday,
shopping centres all across the nation open early on Friday. Some of them open at 12:01 Friday morning, while
others open at 4 a.m. Some "sleepyhead" shopping centres, like Target this year, don't open their doors on
Friday until 6 a.m. From Friday to the day before Christmas, this is the season when businesses make nearly
25 per cent of what they earn in a year. This season puts many businesses “in the black", that is, they make
the money they need for the year.
Reporters from local TV stations interview people who sleep in tents in front of the shops a day or
two before the doors open on Friday. These people patiently wait in queue to get products that are 50 per
cent cheaper or more.
"Oh, we have fun," said one of the persons queuing, "We sometimes bring games to play, we watch TV
and order lots of pizza, and we often meet interesting people. And, most important of all, we save a lot!"
The problem, of course, is that only a very small number of products have big reductions in their prices.
Apart from a few big discounts, each shop has other things that are reduced from 10 to 50 per cent,
saving shoppers from 10 to 400 dollars per item, and so Americans want to go shopping.
Not all Americans enjoy shopping. Reverend William Graham wants to change Black Friday's name. "We
want to call it Remember Jesus Friday. People should start the season with the right attitude, Christmas has
become a Season of Shopping. We want to make it a Season of Giving. And we don't mean giving material
things. We mean giving your back, your mind, and your hands. Help an old lady clean up her house. Teach a
kid how to read. Visit sick people in the hospital or in nursing homes....
(Source: http://www.eslyes.com)
Question 39: According to the text, Black Friday is ______.
A. the beginning of a shopping period
B. the Friday before Christmas
C. an important holiday in The United States
D. a time to relax and have fun after Thanksgiving
Question 40: On these days some businesses make _______ for the rest of the year.
A. enough money B. half the money C. nearly all the sales D. the final sales
Question 41: According to the text, the expression "sleepyhead” refers to shops that ______.
A. open early in the morning B. open later than others
C. don't open until late in the morning D. open at 12:00 a.m on Friday
Question 42: The phrase "in the black” in the first paragraph implies that people or companies ______.
A. have money and are not in debt B. have an unsuccessful business
C. do not reach expected sales D. make money by having illegal promotions
Question 43: Reverend William Graham thinks shopping so much at this time of the year ______.
A. needs a new name B. is not right
C. is the right attitude D. costs your valuable time
Question 44: Which of these sentences is TRUE?
A. Most products are reduced nearly half price.
B. Shoppers only queue to get the products that are 50 percent cheaper or more.
C. In general, most discounts in prices are quite big.
D. Just a few selected products have large discounts.
Question 45: Which of the following activities is NOT mentioned when people queue to get products?
A. Playing games B. Watching TV
C. Sleeping in tents D. Bargaining for the discounts
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: Unless they comply with the rules, they won't be allowed back into the club.
A. They can't enter the club because they have violated the rules.
B. They can only enter the club again if they behave in accordance with the rules.
C. They can go to the club once more, but only if they obey the rules.
D. As long as they refuse to behave, it doesn't seem possible for them to be accepted into the club.
Question 47: The playground, which the local children used to enjoy so much, has been turned into a car park.
A. If a car park hadn't been needed so much, the children would have had a park to play in.
B. The children have nowhere to play in now that the playground has been turned into a car park.
 C. Although the children used to enjoy playing in the playground so much, it is more efficient to use it as
a place to park cars.
D. Once so much enjoyed by the children of the neighborhood, the playground has become a parking lot.
Question 48: "I didn't see the strange man breaking into our office yesterday," Dominic said.
A. Dominic denied seeing the strange man breaking into their office the day before yesterday.
B. Dominic refused to see the strange man breaking into their office the previous day
C. Dominic admitted having seen the strange man breaking into their office the day before.
D. Dominic denied having seen the strange man breaking into their office the day before.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 49: The judge made some complimentary remarks about the contestant's performance.
A. criticisms B. suggestions C. praises D. recommendations
Question 50: Her son, who was reported dead more than three years ago, came out of the blue.
A. apparently B. suddenly C. expectedly D. purposely
-------THE END-----

Mã đề 40 ĐỀ ÔN THI No 40
MÔN TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Glaciers are large masses of ice on land that show evidence of past or present movement. They grow by
the gradual transformation of snow into glacier ice. A fresh snowfall is a fluffy mass of loosely packed
snowflakes, small delicate ice crystals grown in the atmosphere. As the snow ages on the ground for weeks or
months, the crystals shrink and become more compact to form firm, a much whole mass becomes squeezed
together into a more dense form, granular snow. As new snow falls and buries the older snow, the layers of
granular snow further compact to form firm, a much denser kind of snow, usually a year or more old, which
has little pore space. Further burial and slow cementation- a process by which crystals become bound together
in a mosaic of intergrown ice crystals- finally produce solid glacial ice. In this process of recrystallization, the
growth of new crystals at the expense of old ones, the percentage of air is reduced from about 90 percent for
snowflakes to less than 20 percent for glacier ice. The whole process may take as little as a few years, but
more likely ten or twenty years or longer. The snow is usually many meters deep by the time the lower layers
are converted into ice.
In cold glaciers those formed in the coldest regions of the Earth, the entire mass of ice is at temperatures
below the melting point and no free water exists. In temperate glaciers, the ice is at the melting point at every
pressure level within the glaciers, and free water is present as small drops or as larger accumulations, in tunnels
within or beneath the ice. Formation of a glacier is complete when ice has accumulated to a thickness (and
thus weight) sufficient to make it move slowly under pressure, in much the same way that solid rock deep
within the Earth can change shape without breaking. Once that point is reached, the ice flows downhill, either
as a tongue of ice filling a valley or as thick ice cap that flows out in directions from the highest central area
where the most snow accumulates. The up down leads to the eventual melting of ice.
Question 1. Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Damage from glaciers B. The location of glaciers
C. The effect of glaciers on climate D. Glacier formation
Question 2. Which of the following will cause density within the glacier to increase?
A. Pressure from the weight of new snow
B. Increased water and air content
C. Long periods of darkness and temperature variations
D. Movement of the glacier
Question 3. The word "bound" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
 A. chosen B. covered C. held D. planned
Question 4. The word "converted" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. delayed B. changed C. promoted D. dissolved
Question 5. In temperate glaciers, where is water found?
A. In a thin layer below the firm B. In pools at various depths
C. Only near the surface D. In tunnels
Question 6. The word "that" in paragraph 2 refers to ___________.
A. thick ice cap B. tongue of ice C. solid rock D. valley
Question 7. It can be inferred from the last paragraph that a glacier ________.
A. is too cold to be thoroughly studied
B. maintains the same shape throughout the glacial process
C. can contribute water to lakes, rivers, or oceans
D. can revert to a fluffy mass

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 8. A. pushed B. earned C. kicked D. matched
Question 9. A. decision B. recognise C. certainty D. acceptance

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 10. His academic record at high school was poor. He failed to apply to that prestigious institution.
A. Because he didn't apply to that prestigious institution, His academic record at high school was poor.
B. His academic record at high school was poor although he failed to apply to that prestigious institution.
C. Failing to apply to that prestigious institution, his academic record at high school was poor.
D. His academic record at high school was poor, as a result, he failed to apply to that prestigious
institution.
Question 11. Seth informed us of his retirement from the company. He did it when arriving at the meeting!
A. No sooner had Seth arrived at the meeting than we were told about his leaving the company.
B. Only after his retiring from the company did Seth tell us about his arrival at the meeting.
C. Not until Seth said to us that he would leave the company did he turn up at the meeting.
D. Hardly had Seth notified us of his retiring from the company when he arrive at the meeting.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 12. A. urban B. remain C. admire D. attend
Question 13. A. successful B. sympathize C. infection D. inactive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 14. It is not just individuals who find the best pricey. Some governments find the cost to be
prohibitiye.
A. reasonable B. cheap C. acceptable. D. expensive
Question 15. After some years of setting up the business, they are now left high and dry and have to make
employees redundant.
A. changing a lot B. making a profit
C. over budget D. in difficulty without money
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 16. Mass advertising is employed when person-to-person selling is impractical, impossible or
simply inefficiency.
A. selling B. employed C. inefficiency D. simply
Question 17. A calorie is the quantity of heat required to rise one gallon of water one degree centigrade at
one atmospheric pressure.
A. at B. A caloric C. quantity D. to rise
Question 18. Harry, like his colleagues, are trying hard to finish hard work early.
A. are trying B. hard C. like D. early

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
In Africa, people celebrate with joy the birth of a new baby. The Pygmies would sing a birth-song to the
child. In Kenya, the mother takes the baby strapped to her back into the thorn enclosure where the cattle are
kept. There, her husband and the village elders wait to give the child his or her name.
In West Africa, after the baby is eight days old, the mother takes the baby for its first walk in the big, wide
world, and friends and family are invited to meet the new baby. In various African nations, they hold initiation
ceremonies for groups of children instead of birthdays. When children reach a certain designated age, they
learn the laws, beliefs, customs, songs and dances of their tribes. Some African tribes consider that children
from nine to twelve are ready to be initiated into the grown up world. They may have to carry out several
tests.
Maasai boys around thirteen years old to seventeen undergo a two-stage initiation. The first stage lasts
about three months. The boys leave their parents' homes, paint their bodies white, and are taught how to
become young warriors. At the end of this stage, they have their heads shaved and they are also circumcised.
At the second stage, the young warriors grow their hair long and live in a camp called a “manyatta” where
they practice hunting the wild animals that might attack the Maasai herds. This stage may last a few years.
When they are ready, they will marry and become owners of large cattle herds like their fathers. The girls are
initiated when they are fourteen or fifteen. They are taught by the older women about the duties of marriage
and how to care for babies. Soon after that they are married and lead a life similar to that of their mothers.
Question 19. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Traditions of Masai people when having a new baby
B. Celebrations in Africa
C. Activities in a birth celebration
D. Birthday ceremonies for children in Africa
Question 20. Where do people in Kenya give the name to the child?
A. at the village church B. near the thorn fence
C. on the cattle farm D. at their house
Question 21. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2?
A. Children are initiated for a mature life in the presence of their friends and family.
B. Children have to overcome a few trials to enter the grown-up world.
C. Children have to learn their tribes' cultures and traditions when they are old enough.
D. An eight-day-old child will be taken for the first walk by his or her mother.
Question 22. The word "undergo” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. commence B. participate in C. experience D. explore
Question 23. What does the word "they" in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. the wild animals B. the young warriors
C. the cattle owners D. the Maasai herds

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 24. The college principal promised _________ into the matter.
A. to looking B. looking C. to look D. look
Question 25. Next summer, we'd like to ________ an Italian course in Perugia.
A. do B. make C. perform D. enter
Question 26. If you ________ your money in a bank now, you will get 12% interest annually.
A. put B. puts C. had put D. will put
Question 27. _________ sounding very boring, the film was actually pretty interesting. I would recommend
it!
A. However B. Although C. Despite D. Nevertheless
Question 28. I wasn't happy with the way my career was going so I decided to _________ and look for another
job.
A. pick a fight B. jump the gun C. bite the bullet D. cross swords
Question 29. _________ by the police for running a red light, June decided it was not in her best interest to
argue since she was not wearing her seat belt.
A. Stopped B. Having stopped C. Stopping D. To have stopped
Question 30. The sky was full _________ brightly coloured fireworks.
A. on B. at C. of D. from
Question 31. When I enquired about the time of trains, I was given a ________
A. timetable B. programme C. itinerary D. schedule
Question 32. The feuding families have been ________ enemies for years.
A. ignored B. promised C. cursed D. Swornd
Question 33. In his latest speech, the Secretary General __________ the importance of wildlife conservation.
A. excused B. stressed C. remained D. understood
Question 34. On our trip to __________ Spain, we crossed ________ Atlantic Ocean.
A. the/ an B. a/ Ø C. Ø/ a D. Ø/ the
Question 35. Peter ________ my best friend since we were nine.
A. was B. has been C. had been D. would be
Question 36. She will take management training course __________.
A. as soon as the epidemic was controlled
B. right after the epidemic has been controlled
C. when the epidemic had been controlled
D. until the epidemic will be controlled

Question 37. Robert is being kept in an isolation Ward because he is highly _________.
A. infection B. infectious C. infect D. infectiously
Question 38. The landlord requested that John _________ out of the apartment.
A. has moved B. move C. moves D. will move

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or
phrase that best fits each other numbered blanks.
As Earth’s climate has warmed, a new pattern of more frequent and more intense weather events has
unfolded around the world. Scientists identify these extreme weather events based on the historical
(39) ________ of weather in a particular region. They consider extreme weather events to be those (40)
_______ produce unusually high or low levels of rain or snow, temperature, wind, or (41) _______ effects.
Typically, these events are considered extreme if they are unlike 90% or 95% of similar weather events that
happened before in that same area.
A warmer and more moist atmosphere over the oceans makes it likely that the strongest hurricanes will be
more intense, produce more rainfall, and possibly be larger. In addition, global warming causes sea level to
(42) _________, which increases the amount of seawater, along with more rainfall, that is pushed on to shore
during coastal storms. That seawater, along with more rainfall, can result in destructive flooding. (43) ______
global warming is likely making hurricanes more intense, scientists don't know yet if global warming is
increasing the number of hurricanes each year. The effect of global warming on the frequency, intensity, size,
and speed of hurricanes remains a subject of scientific research.
Question 39. A. report B. account. C. record. D. fact.
Question 40. A. whose. B. when. C. who D. that
Question 41. A. other B. each C. another D. every
Question 42. A. grow B. rise C. cause D. develop
Question 43. A. During B. When C. Despite D. While

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes the following
exchanges.
Question 44. - Jimmy: "Can I try your new camera?"
- Dave: “___________”
A. Sure. I'd love to it. B. I'm sorry, I can't. Let's go now.
C. Sure. But please be careful with it. D. I'm sorry. I'm home late.
Question 45. - Johin: "I'll drive you home if you don't mind. I've got something to do in your area.
- Mary: “__________”
A. I'd love to. B. That's so nice of you
C. Are you sure? D. Really? I love it when you are busy.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 46. Everyone felt down in the dumps after the long and bitter presidential election.
A. happy B. embarrassed C. depressed D. confident
Question 47. He has a good memory to retain facts easily.
A. recall B. perform C. forget D. record

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 48. "I haven't been very open-minded," said the manager.
A. The manager admitted not having been very open-minded.
B. The manager promised to be very open-minded.
C. The manager regretted having been very open-minded.
D. The manager refused to have been very open-minded.
Question 49. It is certain that the suspect committed the crime.
A. The suspect must have committed the crime.
B. The suspect was certain to commit the crime.
C. The suspect might have committed the crime.
D. Certain commitment of the crime was that of the suspect.
Question 50. People believed that the boys started the fire.
A. It is believed that the boys started the fire.
B. It is believed that the fire was started by the boys.
C. The boys started the fire was believed.
D. The boys were believed to start the fire.