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A320 Engine

The document contains 30 multiple choice questions about the CFM56 engine. It covers topics like thrust rating, drain systems, cowl openings, engine mounts, power measurement parameters, troubleshooting oil accumulation, fuel system components and functions, ignition systems, variable geometry systems, airflow control, active clearance control, and the FADEC and ECAM displays. The questions test knowledge of engine systems, components, and normal/abnormal operation.

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morteeza1986
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857 views4 pages

A320 Engine

The document contains 30 multiple choice questions about the CFM56 engine. It covers topics like thrust rating, drain systems, cowl openings, engine mounts, power measurement parameters, troubleshooting oil accumulation, fuel system components and functions, ignition systems, variable geometry systems, airflow control, active clearance control, and the FADEC and ECAM displays. The questions test knowledge of engine systems, components, and normal/abnormal operation.

Uploaded by

morteeza1986
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Course Name : Airbus A319/A320/A321 B1 AND

B2
Module :CFM56 ENGINE
Question Number :30

1. How is the thrust rating defined?

a) By the engine data programming plug.


b) By reprogramming the ECU.
c) By the throttle lever setting.

2. Why is the drain mast frangible below the cowl exterior surface?

a) So that a blockage will not cause excessive backpressure in the drain lines.
b) To protect the gearbox in the event of the mast being struck.
c) For the drain mast heating

3. Which engine cowls can be fully opened with the wing leading edge slats extended?

a) All of them.
b) None of them.
c) The Fan cowls.

4. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) The forward engine mount carries thrust loads only.


b) The forward engine mount carries side loads only.
c) The aft mount restrains engine movement in all directions except forward and aft.

5. Which parameter is used for power measurement on the CFM65-5 engine?

a) N1.
b) N2.
c) EPR.

6. If there is excessive accumulation in the oil/hydraulic holding tank, how would you
locate the source?

a) Refer to the trouble-shooting manual for the most likely source.


b) Look for other sighs of abnormal operation.
c) Operate the four manual drain valves.

7. What is the purpose of the manual drain valves on the drains collector?

a) To identify the source of leaks during trouble shooting.


b) To empty the collectors if the automatic (200 kt) system fails.
c) It's the normal method of draining the system.

8. What is the purpose of the burner staging valve?

a) It does not allow fuel to pass to the hydro mechanical unit until there is sufficient pressure to form an
effective spay pattern.
b) It closes one manifold at low fuel flow to provide a better nozzle spray.
c) It prevents overfuelling during the initial stages of engine start.
9. When fuel leaves the IDG oil cooler, where does it go?

a) To the inlet of the low pressure stage of the main fuel pump.
b) To the hydromechanical unit (HMU).
c) Back to the aircraft tank and/or the interstage section of the main fuel pump.

10. What is the purpose of the fuel return valve?

a) It returns excess fuel supplied to the HMU.


b) It returns some cooling fuel to the aircraft tank when the engine oil gets too hot.
c) It allows fuel in the manifold lines to be recovered when the engine is shut down.

11. Which temperature controls the operation of the fuel control valve?

a) Engine oil temperature.


b) ODG oil temperature.
c) Fuel temperature.

12. What is the purpose of the engine interface unit?

a) It monitors the two channels of the engine control unit.


b) It is an interface concentrator between the airframe and engine.
c) It provides engine protection in the event of N1 of N2 overspeed.

13. How is an ECU powered when the aircraft is on the ground and engine not running?

a) By selecting the relevant engine FADEC GND PWR switch.


b) The ECU is powered always powered when the aircraft is electrically powered.
c) By selecting the dedicated alternator.

14. If both windings of a torque motor fail, what happens?

a) Switch over to the other channel.


b) Control goes to a fail-safe position.
c) The channel in control supplies the winding of the other channel.

15. Starter motor lubrication.

a) The starter motor is a sealed-for-life item and does not require servicing.
b) The starter motor is self-lubricated from the accessory gearbox.
c) The starter motor requires oil servicing . It has oiltank.

16. When does continuous ignition operate?

a) Only when manually selected.


b) Only when a stall has been identified.
c) Automatically when flaps are extended for takeoff, approach or landing.

17. Continuous ignition is automatically selected when the engine is running and

a) The engine surges or runs below idle.


b) Pneumatic demand from the engine is high.
c) Rapid acceleration is selected.

18. When are ignition indications displayed?

a) Only during the start sequence.


b) Whenever continuous ignition is manually selected.
c) Whenever continuous ignition is automatically selected.
19. The variable stator vanes & variable bleed valves are:

a) Fuel-operated and controlled by the ECU.


b) Electronically controlled by the EIU.
c) Mechanically controlled with a push-pull cable.

20. What is the purpose of the airflow control system?

a) To regulate the cooling of the engine cowling and nacelle.


b) To limit compressor surge and provide good acceleration.
c) To control the cooling of the engine and IDG oil.

21. Where does the air bled through the variable bleed valves go?

a) It is discharged overboard.
b) It is fed into the primary (core) air.
c) It is fed into the secondary (fan) airflow.

22. Which of the following statements about the HP turbine active clearance control is correct?

a) 4th state air is used to shrink the turbine casing.


b) 9th stage air is used to expand the turbine casing.
c) Both (a) and (b) are correct.

23. Which of the following statements about the LP turbine active clearance control is correct?

a) Fan air is used to shrink the turbine casing.


b) 5th stage air is used to expand the turbine casing.
c) Both (a) and (b) are correct.

24. How are the variable bleed valves driven?

a) Each valve has a fuel operated actuator.


b) One master valve is driven by a fuel operated ballscrew actuator. The remainder are driven by a
flexible drive from the master.
c) The 12 valves are divided into two sections, each having its master valve from which the rest are
driven.

25. When does the engine page appear on the lower ECAM at engine start?

a) When the Master Switch is set to on.


b) When the rotary switch is set to IGN /START.
c) When there is a fault during engine start.

26. When is the FADEC system depowered?

a) Five minutes after engine shutdown or when the FIRE switch is released out.
b) When a successful start has been completed.
c) When there is a loss of main electrical power and before the RAT has been activated.

27. During an engine start, how do you know which ignitor(s) are being used?

a) It is displayed on the upper ECAM


b) It is displayed on the lower ECAM.
c) There is no way of knowing.
28. Which filter clog indicator can be displayed on ECAM?

a) Engine fuel filter.


b) Main supply oil filter.
c) Both (a) and (b).

29. What does an N1 OVERLIMIT warning on ECAM mean?

a) Rotor speed has exceeded 104%.


b) The thrust limit has been exceeded.
c) N1 has been a TO/GA power for more than five minutes.

30. Where is vibration sensor on the CFM56-5B?

a) On the fan case and the turbine rear casing.


b) At the fan bearing housing and the turbine rear case.
c) On the fan and core cases.

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