QUESTIONS

Representative PPL - type questions to test your theoretical

knowledge of Radiotelephony.
1. When arriving at an airfield with an Aerodrome Flight Information Service, a
pilot receives the following call

“G-EFIM, Land at your discretion, Surface Wind 230/08”

Which of the following pilot responses to this radio call is correct?”

a. “At my discretion, 230/08, G-EFIM.”

b. “G-EFIM.” or “Roger, G-EFIM.” or “Landing, G-EFIM.”
c. “Cleared to land, G-EFIM.”
d. “Land at my discretion. G-IM.”

(See Chapter 13)

2. In a distress call, immediately following the MAYDAY prefix, what information

should an aircraft next transmit, if circumstances permit:

a. The call-sign of the station addressed.

b. The position of the aircraft.
c. Aircraft type.
d. The nature of the emergency.

(See Chapter 9)

3. What should be the full content of a Distress call?

a. Station Addressed, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, Call-sign, Position,

Intention of Person in command.
b. PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, Position, Heading, Nature of
Emergency, Intention of Person in command, Pilot Qualification, Any
Other Useful Information.
c. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, Call-sign of Station Addressed, Type
of Aircraft, Nature of Emergency, Intention of Person in command,
Position, Level and Heading, Pilot Qualification (wherever possible),
Any other useful information.
d. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, Nature of Emergency, Intention of
Person in command, Endurance.

(See Chapter 9)

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QUESTIONS

4. What should be the content of an Urgency call?

a. Station Addressed, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, Call-sign,

Position, Pilot Qualification Intention of Person in command.
b. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, Position, Heading, Nature of
Emergency, Intention of Person in command, Any Other Useful
Information.
c. PAN, PAN, PAN, Call-sign of Station Addressed, Position, Nature of
Emergency, Intention of Person in command, Endurance.
d. PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, Call-sign of Station Addressed
(time and circumstances permitting) , Type of Aircraft, Nature of
Emergency, Intention of Person in command, Position, Level and
Heading, Pilot Qualification (wherever possible), Any other useful
information.

(See Chapter 9)

5. In United Kingdom RT Phraseology, which of the following options is correct

regarding the wording of radio messages relating an aircraft’s climb or
descent to a HEIGHT or ALTITUDE?

a. The message should avoid all use of the word “to”.

b. The message should employ the word “to”, followed immediately by
the word HEIGHT or ALTITUDE.
c. The message should employ the word “to”, followed by the QFE or
QNH.
d. The message should employ the word “to”, followed immediately by
the word LEVEL.

(See Chapter 13)

6. Which of the following options best describes the purpose of a Special VFR
clearance?

a. It enables a pilot to fly in the Open FIR with weather minima which
are lower than for VFR.
b. It enables a pilot flying VFR to cross an airway.
c. It permits a pilot flying VFR to operate at his discretion within Control
Zone.
d. It enables a pilot flying VFR to fly in a Control Zone where normally
an IFR clearance would be required.

(See Chapter 5)

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 QUESTIONS

7. Under what circumstances would a conditional clearance be used to direct

movements on an active runway?

a. When an aircraft not equipped with a radio is landing or taking off.

b. When air traffic movements are particularly dense, provided it is safe
to do so.
c. When all aircraft and/or vehicles included in the clearance can be
seen by the controller issuing, and the pilot receiving, the clearance,
and provided that the clearance relates to a single movement.
d. When vehicles not equipped with radio require to cross the active
runway.

(See Chapter 4)

8. Which of the options below gives a correct order and content for a Position
Report?

a. Call-sign, Route, Position, Level, ETA next Position, Heading,

Request.
b. Call-sign, Position, Time, Level or Altitude, Next Position with ETA.
c. Position, Level or Altitude, Time, ETA at Next Position, Call-sign.
d. Route, Position, Time, Level or Altitude, ETA at Next Position, Call-
sign.

(See Chapter 3)

9. Within what limits of accuracy is a VDF bearing which is passed to a pilot

over the RT, and identified as a Class B bearing?

a. + or – 5 degrees.
b. + or – 3 degrees.
c. + or – 10 degrees.
d. + or – more than 10 degrees.

(See Chapter 13)

10. When requesting a Special VFR clearance, in flight, what details must a pilot
pass to ATC?

a. Call-sign, Altitude, Heading, ETA at entry point of Control Zone.

b. Call-sign, Type, Heading, ETA at entry point of Control Zone.
c. Type, Heading, ETA at entry point of Control Zone, Call-sign.
d. Call-sign, Type, Intentions, ETA at entry point of Control Zone.

(See Chapter 5 and 13)

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QUESTIONS

11. Emergency procedures may be practised using the Frequency 121.5

provided that:

a. The permission of the appropriate Control Centre has been previously

obtained by telephone.
b. The permission of the ATSU with which the pilot is in contact has
been previously obtained.
c. The procedure practised does not include simulating a condition of
Distress.
d. The procedure practised does not include simulating either a
condition of Distress or a condition of Urgency.

(See Chapter 13)

12. What are the three categories of aeronautical communication service?

a. Air, Land and Sea.

b. Approach, Tower, Ground.
c. IFR, VFR, SVFR.
d. Air Ground Communication Service, UK Flight Information Service,
Air Traffic Control.

(See Chapter 4 and 13)

13. When transmitting an emergency message, a pilot is required to give his

aircraft’s position as:

a. The present or last known position, together with altitude or level,

and heading.
b. A GPS position.
c. A position relative to the nearest airfield or aerodrome.
d. A DME range from the station being addressed.

(See Chapter 9 and 13)

14. Having obtained a clearance to cross a Military Aerodrome Traffic Zone

(MATZ), a pilot is requested to maintain 2,500 feet on the MATZ QFE. All
references to the aircraft’s vertical position should, from that point, be made
in terms of its:

a. Altitude.
b. Height.
c. Flight Level.
d. Minimum Vertical Separation Distance.

(See Chapter 13)

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 QUESTIONS

15. If the pilot of G-ABCD wishes to obtain a true bearing from a VDF station, the
correct RTF call to make is:

a. G-ABCD, Request QDR, G-ABCD.

b. True Bearing, True Bearing, G-ABCD, Request True Bearing, G-
ABCD.
c. G-ABCD, Request QDM, G-ABCD.
d. QDR, QDR, G-ABCD, Request QDR, G-ABCD.

(See Chapter 13)

16. Which of the following is a correctly worded Conditional Clearance, using

United Kingdom phraseology?

a. Whiteknuckle 248, After the landing 737, Line up.

b. Whiteknuckle 248, Line up after the landing 737.
c. Oxbow 321, Report Final, One ahead.
d. Cheapo 742, Cleared for take-off, Caution Wake turbulence.

(See Chapters 13 and 4)

17. The pilot of G-GOOD is carrying out a standard, overhead join at an

unattended airfield in the United Kingdom. Which of the following RT calls
indicates that he is commencing his descent in accordance with the standard
procedure?

a. G-GOOD, Crosswind, Descending.

b. G-GOOD, Overhead, Descending.
c. G-GOOD, Deadside, Descending.
d. G-GOOD, Right Base, Descending.

(See Chapter 13)

18. When requesting a clearance to cross a Military Aerodrome Traffic Zone,

a pilot should pass information to the military controller with the following
content and in the following order:

a. Call-sign, Heading, Route, Present Position, Intentions.

b. Call-sign, Aircraft Type, Departure Point and Destination, Present
Position, Altitude or Level, Additional Details or Intentions.
c. Aircraft Type, Route, Present Position, Additional Details or
Intentions, Call-sign
d. Call-sign, Altitude, Position, Intentions.

(See Chapter 13)

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QUESTIONS

19. A pilot receives the following message from ATC.

“G-HOPE, After departure cleared to zone boundary via Route Bravo, Climb
to Altitude 2 500 feet, QNH 1005, Squawk 6521.”

What type of clearance is this?

a. A Take-off Clearance.
b. A Conditional Clearance.
c. A Departure Clearance.
d. A Route Clearance.

(See Chapter 2)

20. What should be the most correct content and order of a pilot’s reply to the
ATC instruction, “Pass Your Message”?

a. Aircraft Call-sign, Aircraft Type, Departure Point and Destination,

Present Position, Altitude or Level, Additional Details and Intention
(e.g. Flight Rules, Next Point on Route.).
b. Aircraft Call-sign, Aircraft Type, Departure Point and Destination,
Present Position, Heading, Altitude or Level, Additional Details and
Intentions, Request.
c. Aircraft Call-sign, Aircraft Type, Position, Heading, Level, Request.
d. Aircraft Type, Route Information, Position, Heading, Level, Additional
Details and Intentions, Aircraft Call-sign.

(See Chapter 6 and 13)

21. In his initial call to Stealthy Approach, what words should be transmitted by
the pilot of aircraft G-KEEN, if, during a cross-country flight, he requires a
Flight Information Service?

a. Stealthy Approach, Golf Kilo Echo Echo November.

b. Golf Kilo Echo Echo November, Stealthy Approach.
c. Stealthy Approach, Golf Kilo Echo Echo November, Request Flight
Information Service.
d. Golf Kilo Echo Echo November, Stealthy Approach, Request Flight
Information Service .

(See Chapter 6)

22. You discover in your pre-flight planning that the air traffic service at your
destination airfield is provided by an Aerodrome Flight Information Service
Officer (AFISO). What will be the allocated RT call-sign of the of the ground
station?

a. Information.
b. Radio.
c. Tower.
d. Approach.

(See Chapters 4 and 13)

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 QUESTIONS

23. You discover in your pre-flight planning that the air traffic service at your
destination airfield is provided by an Air-Ground Communications Service.
What will be the allocated RT call-sign of the of the ground station?

a. Information.
b. Approach.
c. Tower.
d. Radio.

(See Chapters 4 and 13)

24. On entering United Kingdom Airspace from an adjacent region where you
have not been required to squawk a transponder code, what transponder
code should you select?

a. 7000
b. 7600
c. 2000
d. You would contact the appropriate FIR to ask for a transponder
code.

(See Chapter 7)

25. ‘SQUAWK IDENT’ means:

a. select the SSR transponder code to 7000.

b. select the SSR transponder mode to ‘ALT’.
c. say again your call-sign.
d. operate the SSR transponder ‘Special Position Identification’
feature.

(See Chapter 7)

26. The phrase “Squawk Charlie” means:

a. transponder.
b. select ‘ALT’ on the transponder.
c. confirm the transponder is selected ON.
d. select 7700 on the transponder.

(See Chapter 7)

27. From which aeronautical communications service would you obtain

automated broadcasts on aerodrome and weather information?

a. RIS
b. FIS
c. ATIS
d. AGCS

(See Chapter 4)

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QUESTIONS

28. The frequency used for the initial transmission of a MAYDAY call should be:

a. the distress frequency 121.5 MHz.

b. the frequency on which the pilot is currently receiving a service.
c. any international distress frequency.
d. the approach frequency of the nearest airfield.

(See Chapter 9)

29. An altitude of 1500 feet is transmitted as:

a. FIFTEEN HUNDRED FEET.

b. WUN TOUSAND FIFE HUNDRED FEET.
c. WUN FIFE HUNDRED FEET.
d. WUN FIFE ZERO ZERO FEET.

(See Chapter 2)

30. The correct pronunciation of the frequency 122.1 MHz when passed by RT
is:

a. WUN TOO TOO POINT WUN.

b. WUN TOO TOO DAYSEEMAL WUN.
c. WUN TOO TOO DECIMAL WUN.
d. WUN TWENTY WUN DECIMAL WUN.

(See Chapter 2)

31. The word ‘ROGER’ means:

a. that is correct.
b. message received and understood.
c. pass your message.
d. I have received all of your last transmission.

(See Chapter 3)

32. Which of the following is correct?

a. Runway 18 is passed as “Runway Eighteen”.

b. “With you” means that you are on frequency.
c. ROGER means I have received all of your last transmission.
d. WILCO means I have received and understood the message.

(See Chapter 3)

33. What is the Q code for a true bearing from a station?

a. QDR
b. QNH
c. QTE
d. QFE

(See Chapter 2)

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 QUESTIONS

34. What is the Q code for a magnetic bearing from a station?

a. QGH
b. QDM
c. QNH
d. QDR

(See Chapter 2)

35. Your radio check is reported as ‘Readability 3’, your transmission is:

a. unreadable.
b. perfectly readable.
c. reading only half the time.
d. readable but with difficulty.

(See Chapter 2)

36. Pilots requiring a MATZ penetration service must establish 2-way

communications with the aerodrome controlling the zone when:

a. 10 miles or 15 mins flying time from the zone boundary, whichever is

sooner.
b. 15 miles or 10 mins flying time from the zone boundary, whichever is
sooner.
c. 15 miles or 5 mins flying time from the zone boundary, whichever is
sooner.
d. 10 miles or 5 mins flying time from the zone boundary, whichever is
sooner.

(See Chapter 13)

37. Which of these statements is true?

a. If you are receiving a Danger Area Activity Information Service the

unit providing the service can also give you clearance to cross the
danger area.
b. VFR flights are allowed in Danger Areas only if aircraft are equipped
with a transponder fitted with Mode Charlie.
c. VFR flights are not allowed in Danger Areas under any
circumstances.
d. If you are receiving a Danger Area Activity Information Service the
unit providing the service cannot also give you clearance to cross
the danger area.

(See Chapter 13)

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QUESTIONS

38. A pilot may file a flight plan with an ATSU during flight. The frequency that
would normally be used for this purpose is:

a. the frequency of the FIR in which you are flying.

b. the Radar frequency of the ATSU with which you are in contact.
c. the Approach frequency of the ATSU with which you are in contact.
d. the Tower frequency of the ATSU with which you are in contact.

(See Chapter 3)

39. What RT call would you make when you are ready to take off is?

a. Request departure.
b. Ready for take off.
c. Request take-off clearance.
d. Ready for departure.

(See Chapter 4)

40. In the United Kingdom, when operating in the vicinity of a busy aerodrome,
which has a high concentration of visual circuit traffic, what transponder code
may the controller ask the pilot to select?

a. 7700
b. 7010
c. 7600
d. 7000

(See Chapter 2)

41. If you wish to request a service from an Air Traffic Services Unit:

a. you must do so in your initial call.

b. you must do so after you have established two way communications
with the station.
c. you must monitor the ground station frequency until you hear the
ground station giving the service you require to another aircraft.
d. as a private pilot you are not entitled to request a service.

(See Chapter 2)

42. A pilot may abbreviate his call-sign only:

a. after having established communication with an aeronautical ground

station on the frequency in use.
b. when he considers no confusion with another similar call-sign is
likely to occur on the frequency in use.
c. when communicating with the departure and destination airfields.
d. if it has first been abbreviated by the aeronautical ground station on
the frequency in use.

(See Chapter 2)

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 QUESTIONS

43. Which of the following lists are all ATC messages that must read back in
full:

a. level instructions, altimeter settings, surface wind, runway

information.
b. clearance to enter, land on, take off on, backtrack, cross or hold
short of an active runway; speed instructions, SSR instructions.
c. VDF information, frequency changes, type of radar service,
serviceability of approach aid.
d. ATC route clearances, runway clearances, actual weather reports.

(See Chapters 2 and 13)

44. On hearing a Distress message a pilot must:

a. acknowledge the message immediately and standby to relay further

messages if required.
b. maintain radio silence and monitor the frequency to ensure assistance
is provided.
c. change frequency because radio silence will be imposed on the
frequency in use.
d. take control of the situation and co-ordinate the efforts of all agencies
in the rescue operation.

(See Chapter 9)

45. URGENCY is defined as a condition:

a. of being threatened by serious and or immediate danger and of

requiring immediate assistance.
b. concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person
on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistance.
c. concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person
on board or within sight, but which does not require immediate
assistance.
d. requiring urgent assistance from ground stations.

(See Chapter 9)

46. What are the two classified states of Emergency Message?

a. Emergency and PAN PAN.

b. Distress and Urgency.
c. MAYDAY and PAN PAN.
d. Emergency and Security.

(See Chapter 9)

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QUESTIONS

47. If making a straight-in approach, the FINAL call should be made at about:

a. 2 nm
b. 4 nm
c. 8 nm
d. 25 nm

(See Chapter 4)

48. A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of

requiring immediate assistance describes what category of message?

a. Distress.
b. Flight Safety.
c. Urgency.
d. Emergency.

(See Chapter 9)

49. ‘STANDBY’ means:

a. wait and I will call you again.

b. select STANDBY on the SSR Transponder.
c. hold your present position.
d. continue on present heading and listen out.

(See Chapter 3)

50. Which of the following messages has the highest priority?

a. CAUTION, WORK IN PROGRESS ON THE TAXIWAY.

b. REPORT FINAL NUMBER 1.
c. REQUEST QDM.
d. TAXY TO THE REFUELLING PUMPS.

(See Chapter 2)

51. Which statement is correct?

a. A VHF Direction Finding message has priority over a flight safety

message.
b. A meteorological message has priority over a flight safety
message.
c. An urgency message is lower priority than a flight safety message.
d. A “windshear” warning has a higher priority than “cleared to take off”.

(See Chapter 2)

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 QUESTIONS

52. Altitude is defined as:

a. the vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a

point, measured from mean sea level.
b. the vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a
point, measured from another point.
c. the vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a
point, measured from an aircraft.
d. the vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a
point, measured from an airfield.

(See Chapter 2)

53. Which transponder mode gives an altitude readout:

a. Mode Alpha.
b. Mode Bravo.
c. Mode Charlie.
d. Mode Delta.

(See Chapter 7)

54. What are the 4 categories of Flight Information Service?

a Basic, Radar Information, Radar Advisory, Procedural

b Basic, Normal, Collision Avoidance, Procedural
c Basic, Traffic, Deconfliction, Procedural
d Basic, Normal, Deconfliction, Procedural

(See Chapter 13)

55. What is the Q-code for a magnetic bearing to a VDF station?

a. QGH
b, QDM
c. QDR
d. QTE

(See Chapter 2)

56. Frequency 121.725 MHz should be transmitted as:

a. ONE TWO ONE POINT SEVEN TWO.

b. WUN TOO WUN DAYSEEMAL SEVEN TOO FIFE.
c. WUN TOO WUN POINT SEVEN TOO.
d. ONE TWENTY ONE DECIMAL SEVEN TWENTY FIVE.

(See Chapter 2)

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QUESTIONS

57. Certain words may be omitted from transmissions provided no confusion will
result. Which of the following underlined words must not be omitted?

a. SURFACE in relation to surface wind and direction.

b. FEET in relation to altitude or height.
c. DEGREES in relation to radar headings.
d. CLOUD in meteorological reports.

(See Chapter 3)

58. Loss of communications is indicated by which transponder code?

a. 7700
b. 7600
c. 7500
d. 7400

(See Chapter 8)

59. When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase “Transmitting blind

due to receiver failure” the aircraft station shall also:

a. advise the time of its next intended transmission.

b. hold for 5 minutes at its present position.
c. proceed to the alternate airport.
d. enter the next en-route holding pattern.

(See Chapter 8)

60. Radio test transmissions should take the following form:

a. station being called, aircraft identification, words “Readability check”,

frequency.
b. station being called, aircraft identification, words “radio check”,
frequency being used.
c. station being called, aircraft identification, words “How do you
read?”.
d. station being called, aircraft identification, frequency, words “Do you
read?”.

(See Chapter 2)

61. The point to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance is the:

a. limit point.
b. clearance limit.
c. no go point.
d. point of No Return.

(See Chapter 4)

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 QUESTIONS

62. Taxy instructions issued by the controller will include a clearance limit which
will normally be:

a. the threshold of the runway in use.

b. the entrance to the parking area.
c. the holding point of the runway in use.
d. the holding point of an intermediate runway.

(See Chapter 4)

63. Which of these statements is true?

a. When making an initial call from an aircraft to a ground station you

must state the ground station name and suffix first and then your
abbreviated call-sign.
b. When making an initial call from an aircraft to a ground station you
must state the ground station name and suffix first and then your full
call-sign.
c. When making an initial call from an aircraft to a ground station you
must state your full call-sign first and then the ground station name
and suffix.
d. When making an initial call from an aircraft to a ground station you
must state your abbreviated call-sign first and then the ground station
name and suffix.

(See Chapter 2)

64. What is the meaning of the UK term FREECALL when used by an ATSU to
a pilot in flight?

a. Call (designator of unit/frequency), when you choose to do so.

b. Call (designator of unit/frequency), before contacting your destination
airfield.
c. Call (designator of unit/frequency), passing what information you
judge relevant to the safe continuation of your flight.
d. Call (designator of unit/frequency) and pass your full details on first
contact.

(See Chapter 13)

65. If a pilot receives an instruction from ATC which he cannot carry out, he
should use the phrase:

a. UNABLE.
b. NEGATIVE INSTRUCTION.
c. NO CAN DO.
d. CANCEL INSTRUCTION.

(See Chapter 2)

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QUESTIONS

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Answer b a c d b d c b a d c d

Question 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
Answer a b b a c b d a c a d c

Question 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
Answer d b c b b b d c c d d c

Question 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48
Answer d a d b a d b b c b b a

Question 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer a c a a c c b b b b a b

Question 61 62 63 64 65
Answer b c b d a

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