INSTRUMENTATION CAT

CPL TIME: 1 HR 20 MINS

1. The fundamental difference between an INS and an IRS is that:
A) The INS is a strap down system with 2 accelerometers mounted 90º to each other
B) The IRS is a strap down system with 3 accelerometers mounted 90º to each other
C) The IRS is a strap down system with 2 accelerometers mounted 90º to each other
D) The INS is a strap down system with 3 accelerometers mounted 90º to each other
2. The purpose of the flux-valve is:
A) to sense the direction of the earth's magnetic field relative to the airplane.
B) to align the spokes with the earth's magnetic field in order to get maximum voltage from the pick-up coils.
C) to measure the strength of the earth's magnetic field.
D) to provide flux for the automatic slaving system.
3. In a left turn, the ball of the turn co-ordinator is out to the right, what corrective action is required?
A) more left bank.
B) more left rudder.
C) more right bank.
D) decrease elevator pitch.
4. A DGI has:
A) two degrees of freedom & a vertical spin axis.
B) one degree of freedom & a horizontal spin axis.
C) two degrees of freedom & a horizontal spin axis.
D) one degree of freedom & a vertical spin axis.
5. The case of an air driven turn and balance indicator is leaking. A rate 1 turn of 360° will take:
A) Less than two minutes
B) Two minutes exactly
C) None of the above
D) More than two minutes
6. In a Gyro magnetic Compass the flux gate transmits information to the:
A) erecting system.
B) heading indicator.
C) amplifier.
D) error detector.
7. Typical directional gyro indicator errors are:
A) random wander, gimballing errors and apparent wander due to earth's rotation.
B) parallax errors and gimballing errors.
C) gimballing errors, position error and friction error.
D) instrument error, synchro error and wandering errors.
8. The flux valve in a RIMC:
A) is made of hard-iron magnetic steel.
B) is supplied with AC current.
C) is fed with DC current.
D) has its own self exciter unit.
9. The sustained oscillation in the Ring Laser Gyro (RLG) is initially caused by:
A) the gas (or plasma) inside the triangular cavity is ionised by the voltage, causing helium atoms to collide
with and transfer energy to the neon atoms.
B) the spontaneous return of photons to a higher energy level, which in turn produces, excited neon atoms.
C) the corner mirrors, which reflect the radiation energy, back to the photons.
D) the pressure fluctuation in the high pressure mixture of helium and neon gases in the triangular cavity.
10. A tied gyro has .... (i) planes of freedom and is always controlled in .... (ii) of these planes by .... (iii):
A) (i) 3 (ii) at least one (iii) an external force
B) (i) 2 (ii) both (iii) gravity
C) (i) 3 (ii) both (iii) an external force
D) (i) 3 (ii) only one (iii) gravity
11. What angle of bank should you adopt on the attitude indicator for a standard rate (rate 1) turn while flying
at an IAS of 130 Kt?
A) 15°
B) 30°
C) 20°
D) 10°
12. The purpose of the slaving torque motor is:
A) to produce a precessive force in order to align the gyro with the horizontal plane
B) to produce a precessive force in order to align the gyro with the earth's magnetic field
C) to take inputs from the flux valve and apply appropriate correction to the gyro
D) to produce a precessive force in order to align the gyro with the vertical plane
13. An INS with the accelerometers aligned N/S and E/W is limited to use at latitudes below about 82° . This is
because:
A) at high speed on East or West tracks the rate of convergence is faster than the azimuth motor can correct
B) the functions of Secant Latitude and Tangent Latitude used for certain corrections in the computer start
to approach infinity and the computer cannot handle the rapid changes involved
C) the correction for the Coriolis effect of earth rotation approaches infinity above 82° lat
D) it loses horizontal reference as dip becomes large
14. An aircraft is flying a rate 1 turn at 480 kt TAS. What is the diameter of the turn?
A) 2 NM
B) 3 NM
C) 5 NM
D) 6 NM
15. An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 1 degree of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is a:
A) fluxgate compass.
B) directional gyro.
C) turn indicator.
D) gyromagnetic compass.
16. While accelerating on take-off, what would be the expected indications on an electrically driven Attitude
Indicator?
A) none of the above - it will indicate correctly
B) a descending turn to the left
C) a climbing turn to the left
D) a climbing turn to the right
17. What are the advantages of a laser gyro compared to a conventional gyro?
A) uses more power.
B) has a longer cycle life.
C) takes longer to align.
D) takes longer to set up/ spin up.
18. Which of the following is true regarding the turn coordinator?
A) It has a tied gyroscope
B) Its gyro is offset by 300 to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
C) It responds to rate of turn only
D) It gives angle of bank and rate of turn
19. A radio altimeter can be defined as a:
A) ground radio aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft.
B) ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft.
C) self contained on board aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft.
D) self contained on board aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft.
20. Modern low altitude radio altimeters emit waves in the following frequency band:
A) SHF (Super High Frequency).
B) HF (High Frequency).
C) UHF (Ultra High Frequency).
D) VLF (Very Low Frequency).
21. For most radio altimeters, when a system error occurs during approach the..
A) DH lamp flashes red.
B) DH lamp flashes red and the audio signal sounds.
C) Audio warning signal sounds.
D) Height indication is removed.
22. Which colours are typically used on an EHSI?
A) Black, blue, purple, red, green and white.
B) White, green, magenta, cyan, yellow and red.
C) Magenta, brown, black and green.
D) Red and blue.
23. In PLAN mode:
A) the wind arrow is oriented to True North.
B) the weather radar display data is inhibited.
C) the display may be oriented to grid North.
D) the active flight path appears as a red line joining successive waypoints.
24. Which mode is selected on the following Navigation Display (EHSI)?
A) Full NAV mode
B) Map mode
C) Centre Map mode
D) Plan mode

25. Cautionary information on an EHSI is displayed in:

A) yellow/amber.
B) cyan/blue.
C) white.
D) red/magenta.
26. Below which altitude does the radio altitude indication on an EADI appear within the circular scale as a
digital readout?
A) Below 1,000ft.
B) Above 1,000ft.
C) Above 2,500ft.
D) Below 2,500ft.
27. The Head Up Display (HUD) is a device allowing the pilot, while still looking outside,
to have:
A) a monitoring only during CAT III precision approaches
B) a synthetic view of the instrument procedure
C) a monitoring of engine data
D) a flying and flight path control aid
28. Command information is displayed in... on the EHSI.
A) white.
B) magenta.
C) red.
D) green.
29. At what height does the DH, on the EADI display, starts flashing yellow?
A) At DH plus 100 ft.
B) On reaching DH.
C) On touchdown.
D) At 1000ft AGL.
30. A bounded error in an INS system:
A) will produce a constant track error.
B) will not increase with time.
C) will cause the ground speed to oscillate about a constant mean value, which in itself will be an error.
D) will result in all of the above being correct.
31. What is an FMC?
A) An autopilot/flight director system.
B) A flight management inertial reference system.
C) A flight management computer.
D) An auto throttle system.
32. Which of the following is the FMS normal operating condition in the cruise?
A) LNAV and VNAV
B) VNAV only
C) LNAV only
D) LNAV or VNAV
33. In the event inaccurate radio updating is exercised, what effect will this have on the FMS?
A) this will cause the FMS to shut down.
B) this will have no effect on the FMS.
C) this FMS will automatically update the system.
D) this may cause the FMS to deviate from the desired track.
34. What is the correct order of modes on an INS MCU?
A) OFF, STANDBY, ALIGN, NAV.
B) OFF, STANDBY, NAV, ATT.
C) OFF, ALIGN, ATT, NAV.
D) OFF, ALIGN, NAV, ATT.
35. An IRS is aligned in order to:
A) establish true and magnetic north.
B) establish position relative to true north and magnetic north.
C) calculate the computed trihedron with respect to the earth.
D) establish magnetic north.
36. If an alert message is generated by the flight management system:
A) it appears at the top of the CRT and an amber light flashes
B) it appears in the scratch pad and an amber light flashes
C) it appears in the middle of the CRT screen and a red light flashes
D) it appears in the scratch pad and the MSG Annunciator illuminates
37. What are the advantages of an IRS compared to an INS?
A) Reduced spin-up time and insensitivity to 'g'.
B) Increased accuracy and a dither motor to prevent 'lock-out'.
C) Insensitivity to 'g' and reduced wander of the gyroscopes.
D) Reduced spin-up time and a dither motor to prevent 'lock-out'.
38. The essential components of a flight director are:
1. a computer
2. an automatic pilot
3. an autothrottle
4. command bars
The combination of correct statements is:
A) 1, 2.
B) 2, 4.
C) 1, 4.
D) 2, 3.
39. On which instrument are the flight director bars normally present?
A) ND
B) EHSI
C) ADI
D) Primary EICAS
40. Where are the flight director Command Bars displayed?
A) PFD
B) FD control panel
C) ND
D) EICAM
41. At what angle does the flight director intercept a VOR radial?
A) 20 degrees.
B) 50 degrees.
C) 40 degrees.
D) 30 degrees.
42. After having programmed your flight director, you see that the flight director indications are
as represented in the diagram. This indicates that you must:
A) increase the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the right
B) decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the right
C) decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left
D) increase the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left

43. When an HSI is used in RNAV APR mode each dot represents a displacement of:
A) 1 NM
B) ½ NM
C) ¼ NM
D) 2 NM
44. During an autoland approach:
A) flare is disengaged prior to touchdown at 5 ft GA
B) glideslope is the engaged pitch mode until 5 ft GA
C) flare is engaged at 1500 ft AGL
D) localizer roll control is disengaged just prior to touchdown
45. The minimum level of redundancy required to commence an autolanding is:
A) fail passive.
B) fail safe.
C) fail redundant.
D) fail operational.
46. In the automatic trim control system of an autopilot, automatic trimming is normally effected about the:
A) pitch axis only
B) pitch, roll and yaw axes
C) pitch and roll axes only
D) roll and yaw axes only
47. An automatic flight system which can safely continue with an automatic landing after a system failure:
A) is a fail passive system.
B) is a three-axis system.
C) is a fail redundant system.
D) is a fail operational system.
48. The interception of a localizer beam by the autopilot takes place:
A) according to an interception versus range and angular.
B) at a constant heading.
C) at a constant magnetic course.
D) according to an interception versus radio deviation law.
49. Failure of a single autoland channel in a triplicate autoland system results in a redundancy status of:
A) fail operational.
B) fail soft.
C) fail active.
D) alert.
50. Where are the flight director and autopilot modes displayed on?
A) On the FMS display.
B) On the Navigation Display.
C) On the ECAM screen.
D) On the PFD.
51. Mach Trim is a device to compensate for:
A) weight reduction resulting from fuel consumption during the cruise.
B) the moving forward of the aerodynamic center of pressure at high Mach numbers by moving the
elevator to nose-up.
C) the effects of fuel transfer between the main tanks and the tank located in the horizontal tail.
D) the effects of temperature variation during a climb or descent at constant Mach.
52. The Yaw Damper signal for a given rate of oscillation, is:
A) increased proportional with the square of the airspeed.
B) varied proportional according to the airspeed.
C) varied inversely according to the airspeed.
D) constant regardless of airspeed.
53. A Mach trimming system:
A) is only operational at high subsonic speeds, whether or not the autopilot is engaged.
B) is only operational at low subsonic speeds.
C) is operational at all speeds.
D) is only operational at high subsonic speeds and when the autopilot is engaged.
54. The purpose of an airplane automatic trim system is to trim out the hinge moment of the:
A) rudder.
B) elevator.
C) elevator and rudder.
D) elevator, rudder and ailerons.
55. To counter TUCK UNDER:
A) The stabiliser is moved in such a way that the elevators are driven up
B) The stabiliser is moved in such a way that the rudder is driven down
C) The stabiliser is moved in such a way that the elevators are driven down
D) The stabiliser is moved in such a way that the rudder is driven up
56. The two main sources of information used to calculate turbojet thrust are the:
A) high pressure turbine rotation speed or the EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio).
B) fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the high pressure compressor outlet.
C) fan rotation speed (or N1) or the EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio).
D) fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the low pressure turbine outlet.
57. Auto-throttle engaged mode can be checked by the pilot, using:
A) thrust control computer.
B) navigation display.
C) primary flight display.
D) position of throttles.
58. An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The autothrottle maintains a constant Mach number. If the
total temperature decreases, the calibrated airspeed:
A) increases.
B) remains constant.
C) decreases if the outside temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if higher.
D) decreases.
59. An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The autothrottle maintains a constant Mach number. If the
total temperature increases, the calibrated airspeed:
A) increases if the static temperature is higher than the standard temperature, decreases if lower.
B) remains constant.
C) decreases.
D) increases.
60. An aeroplane is in steady climb. The autothrottle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total
temperature remains constant, the Mach number:
A) increases.
B) decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature.
C) remains constant.
D) decreases.
61. Alarms are standardized and follow a code of colours. Those requiring action but not immediately, are
signaled by the colour:
A) flashing red.
B) red.
C) amber.
D) green.
62. The GPWS calculator is able to operate in the following modes:
1. excessive descent rate
2. excessive rate of terrain closure
3. excessive angle of attack
4. too high descent attitude
5. loss of altitude after take-off
6. abnormal gear/flaps configuration
7. excessive glide path deviation
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A) 2, 3, 5, 7.
B) 1 ,2, 5, 6, 7.
C) 1, 2, 4, 6, 7.
D) 3 ,4, 5, 6.
63. A GPWS system requires:
A) Aural signals only.
B) Aural, tactile and visual signals or a combination thereof.
C) Light & bell.
D) Aural signals which may be supplemented by visual signals.
64. Operating range of the GPWS is:
A) 0' to 5000'
B) 0' to 2500'
C) 50' to 5000'
D) 50' to 2500'
65. TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) uses for its operation:
A) the echoes from the ground air traffic control radar system.
B) the echoes of collision avoidance radar system especially installed on board.
C) the replies from the transponders of other aircraft.
D) both the replies from the transponders of other aircraft and the ground based radar echoes.
66. In the event of a conflict, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) will give information such as:
A) climb/descent.
B) turn left/turn right.
C) too low terrain.
D) glide slope.
67. Where is TCAS resolution information displayed?
A) On the EADI
B) On a separate TCAS display
C) On the VSI
D) All these solutions are possible
68. TCAS 2 when fitted with mode S transponder may give:
A) RA only.
B) TA and RA in horizontal plane.
C) TA and RA in vertical plane.
D) TA only.
69. TCAS II obtains information from:
1. Pressure encoding from mode S transponder
2. Radio altimeter
3. Aircraft specific configurations
4. Inertial reference unit (IRU)
A) 1, 2, & 3
B) 1, & 2
C) 1, 2, & 4
D) 1, 2, 3, & 4
70. The angle of attack transmitters placed laterally on the forward part of the fuselage supply an electrical
signal indicating:
1. the angular position of a wind vane
2. a differential pressure in a probe, depending on the variation of the angle of attack
3. a differential pressure in a probe, depending on the variation of the speed
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A) 1, 2.
B) 1, 3.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 2, 3.