PHYSICS 1

1) The air bubble formed by explosion inside water c) Its total mechanical energy is k/2 and it is
performed oscillation with time period T that is equal to its kinetic energy at origin
directly proportional to padbEc, where p is the d) At x = 0, the motion of the particle is simple
pressure, d is the density and E is the energy due harmonic
to explosion. The values of a, b and c will be 7) Four blocks of same mass connected by cords
a) –5/6, 1/2, 1/3 b) 5/6, 1/3, 1/2 are pulled by a force F on a smooth horizontal
c) 5/6, 1/2, 1/3 d) None of the above surface, as shown in figure. The tensions T1, T2
2) A block is moving on an inclined plane making and T3 will be
T T T
an angle 45º with the horizontal and the F ← M 1 M 2 M 3 M

coefficient of friction is m. The force required a) T1 = 1/4F, T2 = 3/2F, T3 = 1/4F
to just push it up the inclined plane is 3 times b) T1 = 1/4F, T2 = 1/2F, T3 = 1/2F
the force required to just prevent it from sliding c) T1 = 3/4F, T2 = 1/2F, T3 = 1/4F
down. If we define N = 10 m, then N is d) T1 = 3/4F, T2 = 1/2F, T3 = 1/2F
a) 3 b) 5 c) 6 d) 8 8) A particle is moving in a circle of radius r with
3) Two stones are projected with same velocity v a constant speed v. The change in velocity after
at an angle q and (90º – q). If H and H1 are the particle has travelled a distance equal to
the greatest height in the two paths, what is the (1/8) of the circumference of the circle is
relation between R, H and H1? a) zero b) 0.500 v
a) R = 4 HH1 b) R = HH1 c) 0.765 v d) 0.125 v
c) R = HH1 d) None of these 9) A uniform circular disc of radius R lies in the
4) A boat of mass 40 kg is at rest. A dog of mass X-Y plane with its centre coinciding with the
4 kg moves in the boat with a velocity of 10 origin of the coordinate system. Its moment of
ms–1. What is the velocity of boat? inertia about an axis, lying in the X-Y plane,
a) 4 ms–1 b) 2 ms–1 parallel to the X-axis and passing through a
–1
c) 8 ms d) 1 ms–1 point on the Y-axis at a distance y = 2R is I1. Its
5) A cannon of mass 1000 kg, located at the base moment of inertia about an axis lying in a plane
of an inclined plane fires a shell of mass 100 perpendicular to X-Y plane passing through a
kg in a horizontal direction with a velocity 180 point on the X-axis at a distance x = d is I2. If I1
kmh–1. The angle of inclination of the inclined = I2, the value of d is
plane with the horizontal is 45º. The coefficient 19 17
of friction between the cannon and the inclined a) R b) R
2 2
plane is 0.5. The height, in metre, to which the
cannon ascends the inclined plane as a result of 15 13
c) R d) R
the recoil is (g = 10 ms–2) 2 2
a) 7/6 b) 5/9 c) 2/6 d) 1/6 10) Assertion : The velocity of a body at the
6) A particle free to move along the x-axis has bottom of an inclined plane of given height is
potential energy given as U(x) = k[1 – exp (–x2)] more when it slides down the plane, compared
for – ∞ ≤ + ∞, where k is a positive constant of to, when it rolling down the same plane.
appropriate dimensions. Then : Reason : In rolling down, a body acquires both,
a) At points away from origin, the particle is in kinetic energy of translation and rotation.
equilibrium a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
b) For any finite non-zero value of x, there is a is the correct explanation of assertion
force directed away from the origin b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason
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is not the correct explanation of assertion the straight rod in a given time, is :
c) Assertion is true but reason is false
d) Both assertion and reason are false
Direction (Questions 11-12) : A planet is revolving
around the sun. Answer the questions 11 and 12
keeping in mind Kepler’s laws:
11) The orbital velocity of the planet will be
minimum at :
B
A C
S
a) 2 : p b) 1 : 2
D
c) p : 2 d) 3 : 2
a) A b) B c) C d) D 16) A carnot engine absorbs an amount Q of heat
12) The correct option is : from a reservoir at an absolute temperature T
a) The time taken in travelling DAB is less and rejects heat to a sink at a temperature of
than that for BCD T/3. The amount of heat rejected is :
b) The time taken in travelling DAB is greater a) Q/4 b) Q/3
than that for BCD c) Q/2 d) 2Q/3
c) The time taken in travelling CDA is less than
17) At 27ºC two moles of an ideal monoatomic
that for ABC
gas occupy a volume V. The gas expands
d) The time taken in travelling CDA is greater
adiabatically to a volume 2V. Calculate, the
than that for ABC
final temperature of the gas and change in its
13) A cube of wood supporting 200 gm mass just
floats in water. When the mass is removed, the internal energy.
cube ruses by 2 cm. What is the size of the cube? a) 160 K, +2200 J b) 166 K, –2267 J
a) 10 cm b) 15 cm c) 189 K, –2767 J d) 220 K, +2767 J
c) 12 cm d) 20 cm 18) The temperature of 100g of water is to be
14) Assume that a drop of liquid evaporates by raised from 24ºC to 90ºC by adding steam to
decrease in its surface energy, so that its it. Calculate the mass of the steam required for
temperature remains unchanged. What should this purpose.
be the minimum radius of the drop for this to a) 1.22 gm b) 0.5 kg
be possible? The surface tension is T, density of c) 0.0122 g d) 0.0122 kg
liquid is r and L is its latent heat of vaporization. 19) Two perfect gases at absolute temperatures T1
a) rL/T b) T / rL and T2 are mixed. There is no loss of energy. The
c) T/rL d) 2T/rL temperature of mixture of masses of molecules
15) Two rods (one semicircular and other straight) are m1 and m2 and the number of molecules in
of same material and of same cross-sectional the gases are n1 and n2 respectively, is
area are joined as shown in the figure. The T1 + T2 n1T1 + n2T2
points A and B are maintained at different a) b)
2 n1 + n2
temperatures. The ratio of the heat transferred
through a cross-section of a semicircular rod to nT +n T
c) 1 2 2 1 d) T1T2 / n1n2
the heat transferred through a cross-section of n1 + n2

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20) A vertical spring with force constant k is fixed c) (i) and (iii) d) (iii) and (iv)
on a table. A ball of mass m at a height h above 25) In a resonance tube with tuning fork of frequency
the free upper end of the spring falls vertically on 512 Hz, first resonance occurs at water level
the spring, so that the spring is compressed by a equal to 30.3 cm and second resonance occurs
distance d. The net work done in the process is at 63.7 cm. The maximum possible error in the
1
a) mg (h + d ) + kd 2 speed of sound is
2 a) 51.2 cm/s b) 102.4 cm/s
1
b) mg (h + d ) − kd 2 c) 204.8 cm/s d) 153.6 cm/s
2 26) Find the magnitude and direction of an electric
1 field that will balance an alpha particle. The
c) mg (h − d ) − kd 2
2 mass and charge of a proton are 1.67 × 10–27
1 2 kg and 1.6 × 10–19C. (Take g = 9.8 ms–2) :
d) mg (h − d ) + kd
2 a) 2 × 10–7 N/C, vertically downwards
21) A clock pendulum made of invar has a b) 2 × 10–7 N/C, vertically upwards
period of 0.5 s at 20º. If the clock is used in a c) 6 × 10–4 N/C, vertically downwards
climate where the temperature averages 30ºC, d) 6 × 10–4 N/C, vertically upwards
how much time does the clock lose in each 27) The capacitors A and B have identical geometry.
oscillation? (for invar a = 9 × 10–7/ºC and g =
A material with a dielectric constant 3 is
constant)
present between the plates of B. The potential
a) 2.25 × 10–6 s b) 2.5 × 10–7 s
c) 5 × 10–7 s d) 1.125 × 10–6 s difference across A and B are respectively
22) Two simple pendulums whose lengths are 100
cm and 121 cm are suspended side by side. Their
bobs are pulled together and then released. After
how many minimum oscillations of the longer
pendulum, will be the two be in phase again?
a) 11 b) 10
c) 21 d) 20 a) 2.5 V, 7.5 V b) 2 V, 8 V
23) The equation of a wave is y = 5 sin (t/0.04 – c) 8 V, 2 V d) 7.5 V, 2.5 V
x/4); where, x is in cm and t is in second. The 28) Two isolated metallic solid spheres of radii R
maximum velocity of the wave will be and 2R are charged such that both of these have
a) 1 ms–1 b) 2 ms–1 same charge density s. The spheres are located
–1
c) 1.5 ms d) 1.25 ms–1 far away from each other, and connected by a
24) Four light sources produce the following four thin conducting wire. The new charge density
waves on the bigger sphere is
(i) y1 = a sin (wt + f1) a) 2s/3 b) 5s/6
(ii) y2 = a sin 2wt c) 4/3s d) s/3
(iii) y3 = a’ sin (wt + f2) 29) A transistor connected in common-emitter
(iv) y4 = a’ sin (3wt + f) configuration has input resistance RCE = 2 kW
Superposition of which two waves gives rise to and load resistance of 5 kW. If b = 60 and an
interference? input signal 12 mV is applied. Calculate the
a) (i) and (ii) b) (ii) and (iii) Voltage gain, the power gain and the value of

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output voltage are : c) log102 d) Zero
33) A wire of length L and 3 identical cells of
negligible internal resistances are connected in
series. Due to the current, the temperature of
the wire is raised by DT in a time t. A number N
of similar cells is now connected in series with
a wire of the same material and cross-section
but of length 2L. The temperature of the wire is
raised by the same amount DT in the same time
t. the value of N is
a) AV = 150, Vout = 1.8 V and power gain = 9000
a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 9
b) AV = 20, Vout = 1 V and power gain = 2000 34) A wire shown in figure carries a current of 40
c) AV = 150, Vout = 1.5 V and power gain = 8500 A. If r = 3.14 cm, the magnetic field at point P
d) AV = 20, Vout = 1.5 V and power gain = 2000 will be :
30) A part of a long wire carrying a current i is bent
into a circle of radius r as shown in figure. The
net magnetic field at the centre O of the circular
loop is :

a) 1.6 × 10–3 T b) 3.2 × 10–2 T
c) 4.8 × 10–3 T d) 6.0 × 10–4 T
35) A Transformer is used to light a 100 W and 110
V lamp from a 220 V mains. If the main current
is 0.5 A, the efficiency of the transformer is
m 0i m i approximately
a) b) 0
4r 2r a) 30% b) 50% c) 90% d) 10%
m i m i 36) In an LCR series a.c. circuit, the voltage across
c) 0 (p + 1) d) 0 (p − 1) each of the components, L, C and R is 50 V. The
2pr 2pr
voltage across the LC combination will be
31) A 8 mF capacitor is charged by a 400 V supply
a) 100 V b) 50 2V
through 0.1 MW resistance. The time taken by
c) 50 V d) 0 V (zero)
the capacitor to develop a potential difference 37) In a LCR circuit capacitance is changed from
of 300 V is (Given log10 4 = 0.602) C to 2 C. For the resonant frequency to remain
a) 2.2 s b) 1.1 s unchanged, the inductance should be changed
c) 0.55 s d) 0.48 s from L to
32) A parallel combination of 0.1 M W resistor a) L/2 b) 2 L c) 4 L d) L/4
and a 10 mF capacitor is connected across a 38) A series R-C combination is connected to an
1.5 V source of negligible resistance. The time AC voltage of angular frequency w = 500
required for the capacitor to get charged up to radian/s. If the impedance of the R-C circuit is
0.75 V is approximately (in seconds) R 1.25 , the time constant (in millisecond) of
a) ∞ b) loge2 the circuit is
a) 4 b) 2 c) 5 d) 6
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39) Material A has critical angle iA, and Material B 45) The wavelength of light emitted in the visible
has critical angle iB (iB > iA). Then which of the region by He+ ions after collisions with H
following is true? atoms is –
(i) Light can be totally internally reflected when a) 6.5 × 10–7 m b) 5.6 × 10–7 m
it passes from B to A c) 4.8 × 10–7 m d) 4.0 × 10–7 m
(ii) Light can be totally internally reflected when 46) The ratio of the kinetic energy of the n = 2
it passes from A to B electron for the H atom to that of He+ ion is –
(iii) Critical angle for total internal reflection is a) 1/4 b) 1/2 c) 1 d) 2
iB – iA 47) 221Ra is a radioactive substance having half life
87
(iv) Critical angle between A and B is of 4 days. Find the probability that a nucleus
 sin i A  undergoes decay after two half lives
sin −1   a) 1 b) 1/2 c) 3/4 d) 1/4
 sin iB 
48) Matching pairs in the two lists given below.
a) (i) and (iii) b) (i) and (iv)
List I List II
c) (ii) and (iii) d) (ii) and (iv)
A. Gravitons E. Hyperons
40) At two points P and Q on screen in Young’s B. Baryons F. Positrons
double slit experiment, waves from slits S1 and S2 C. Pions G. Particles with zero mass and
have a path difference of 0 and l/4, respectively. with a spin of unity
The ratio of intensities at P and Q will be : D. Leptons H. Decay to m-mesons
a) 2 : 1 b) 2 : 1 I. Massless particles with a
c) 4 : 1 d) 3 : 2 probable spin of two units.
41) The number of beats produced per second by a) A-E, B-H, C-G, D-I
two vibrations b) A-I, B-E, C-H, D-F
x1 = x0 sin 646 pt and x2 = x0 sin 652 pt is : c) A-H, B-F, C-I, D-E
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6 d) A-F, B-G, C-E, D-H
42) Image of an object approaching a convex 49) Consider the following statements A and B.
mirror of radius of curvature 20 m along its Identify the correct answers.
A. A zener diode is always connected in reverse
optical axis is observed to move from 25/3 m
bias.
to 50/7 m in 30 seconds. What is the speed of
B. The potential barrier of a p-n junction lies
the object in km per hour?
between 0.1 to 0.3 V, approximately.
a) 13 b) 8 c) 3 d) 9
a) A and B correct
43) To get three images of a single object, one
b) A and B are wrong
should have two plane mirrors at an angle of
c) A is correct but B is wrong
a) 60º b) 90º c) 120º d) 30º
d) A is wrong but B is correct
Direction (Questions 44-46) : In a mixture of H-He+ 50) In an ore containing Uranium, the ratio of U238
gas (He+ is singly ionized He atom), H atoms and to Pb206 nuclei is 3. Calculate the age of the
He+ ions are excited to their respective first excited ore, assuming that all the lead present in the
states. Subsequently, H atoms transfer their total ore is the final stable product of U238. Take the
excitation energy to He+ ions (by collisions). Assume half-life of U238 to be 4.5 × 109 years.
that the Bohr model of atom is exactly valid. a) 3.589 × 108 years
44) The quantum number n of the state finally b) 1.868 × 109 years
populated in He+ ions is – c) 5.686 × 106 years
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 d) 2 × 106 years
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 Chemistry 6
51) The amount of H2S required to precipitate 1.69 57) A 4 : 1 molar mixture of He and CH4 is
g BaS from BaCl2 solution is contained in a vessel at 20 bar pressure. Due
a) 3.4 g b) 0.24 g to a hole in the vessel, the gas mixture leaks
c) 0.34 g d) 0.17 g out. What is the composition of the mixture
52) Fe2+ —→ Fe3+ + e–, effusing out initially?
a) 1 : 6 b) 6 : 1
MnO4– + 5e– —→ Mn2+
c) 1 : 8 d) 8 : 1
The ratio of stoichiometric coefficient of Fe2+ 58) The edge length of unit cell of a metal having
and MnO4– is molecular weight 75 g/mol is 5Å which
a) 1 : 5 b) 5 : 1 crystallizes in cubic lattice. If the density is 2
c) 2 : 3 d) 6 : 1 g/cc then find the radius of metal atom (NA = 6
53) A 1.00 gm sample of H2O2 solution containing × 1023). The answer in pm.
a) 217 pm b) 420 pm
X per cent H2O2 by weight requires X ml of a
c) 317 pm d) 120 pm
KMnO4 solution for complete oxidation under 59) Calculate the wavelength in Angstrom of the
acidic conditions. The normality of the KMnO4 photon that is emitted when an electron in the
solution is Bohr orbit, n = 2 returns to the orbit, n = 1 in
a) 1 N b) 0.588 N the hydrogen atom. The ionization potential of
c) 0.288 N d) 0.438 N the ground state hydrogen atom is 2.17 × 10–11
54) 4.215 g of a metallic carbonate was heated in erg per atom.
a hard glass tube and the CO2 evolved was a) 1180 Å b) 1008 Å
c) 1500 Å d) 1220 Å
found to measure 1336 ml at 27ºC and 700
60) Wavelength of high energy transition of
mm pressure. What is the equivalent weight H-atoms is 91.2nm. The corresponding
of the metal? wavelength of He atoms is
a) 8.38 b) 6.32 a) 25 nm b) 11.8 nm
c) 4.08 d) 5.12 c) 22.8 nm d) 12.30 nm
55) Which of the following statement is true? 61) Ionisation energy of He+ is 19.6 × 10 –18 J
a) Some complex metal oxides behave as atom–1. The energy of the first stationary state
superconductor. (n = 1) of Li2+ is
a) 4.41 × 10–16 J atom–1
b) Zinc oxide can act as superconductor.
b) –4.41 × 10–17 J atom–1
c) An impurity of tetravalent germanium c) –2.2 × 10–15 J atom–1
in trivalent gallium creates electron d) 8.82 × 10–17 J atom–1
deficiency. 62) The electrons identified by quantum numbers n
d) A Frenkel defect is formed when an ion is and l :
displaced from its lattice site to an interstitial (A) n = 4, l = 1 (B) n = 4, l = 0
site. (C) n = 3, l = 2 (D) n = 3, l = 1
56) The volume occupied by 5.0 g of acetylene gas can be placed in order of increasing energy as :
a) (C) < (D) < (B) < (A)
at 50ºC and 740 mm pressure is
b) (D) < (B) < (C) < (A)
a) 4 L b) 2.68 L c) (B) < (D) < (A) < (C)
c) 5.23 L d) 3.25 L d) (A) < (C) < (B) < (D)
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63) X, Y are anhydrides of sulphurous acid and 68) Estimate the average S–F bond energy in SF6.
sulphuric acid respectively. The hybridisation The values of standard enthalpy of formation
state and the shape of X and Y are of SF6(g), S(g) and F(g) are : –1100, 275 and
Hybridisation Geometry 80 kJ mol–1 respectively.
2
(a) sp , angular 3
sp , tetrahedral a) 309.16 kJ b) 605.11 kJ
2
(b) sp , angular sp2, angular c) 509.88 kJ d) 209 kJ
69) N2O4 is 25% dissociated at 37ºC and one
(c) sp2, angular sp2, planar triangular
atmosphere pressure. Calculate Kp and the
(d) sp3, planar sp3, planar
percentage dissociation at 0.1 atmosphere
64) Which of the following has pp-dp bonding? and 37ºC.
a) NO3– b) SO32– a) 0.266 atm, 66% b) 0.266 atm, 64%
c) 0.5, 58% d) 0.166 atm, 54%
c) BO3– 3 d) CO32–
70) The solubility product (Ksp) of Ca(OH)2 at 25ºC
65) For spontaneous reaction or the reaction at
is 4.42 × 10–5. A 500 ml. of saturated solution
equilibrium which of the following is wrong?
of Ca(OH)2 is mixed with equal volume of 0.4
a) DH < TDS reaction is exothermic and TDS is
M NaOH. How much Ca(OH)2 in milligrams is
positive
precipitated?
b) DH = –ve, TDS = 0 a) 735 mg b) 440.3 mg
c) DH = TDS c) 840.88 mg d) 743.3 mg
d) DH = –ve, TDS = –ve 71) In the equilibrium 2NH3 N2 + 3H2, 6 moles
66) Values of DH and DS for five different reactions of NH3 is taken in 10 L flask. If concentration
are given below, of N2 at equilibrium is x, then concentration of
Reaction DH kJ mol–1 DS (JK–1 mol–1) NH3 at equilibrium is
I +98.0 +14.8 a) 0.6 – x b) 0.6 – 2x
II –55.5 –84.6 c) 0.6 – x/2 d) None is correct
III +28.3 –17.0 72) Formaldehyde polymerizes to form glucose
IV –40.5 +24.6 according to the reaction.
On the basis of these values predict which one of 6HCHO C6H12O6
these will be spontaneous at all temperatures? The theoretically computed equilibrium
a) Reaction I b) Reaction II constant for this reaction is found to be 6 × 1022.
If 1 M solution of glucose dissociates according
c) Reaction III d) Reaction IV
to the above equilibrium, the concentration of
67) Calculate the enthalpy change for the formaldehyde in the solution will be
combustion of cyclopropane at 298 K. The a) 1.6 × 10–2 M b) 1.6 × 10–4 M
enthalpy of formation of CO2(g), H2O(l) c) 1.6 × 10–6 M d) 1.6 × 10–8 M
and propene(g) are –393.5, –285.8 and 73) A sample of AgCl was treated with 5.00 mL
20.42 kJ mol–1 respectively. The enthalpy of of 1.5 M Na2CO3 solution to give Ag2CO3.
The remaining solution contained 0.0026 g of
isomerisation of cyclopropane to propene is
Cl– per litre. Calculate the solubility product of
–33.0 kJ mol–1. AgCl (Ksp(Ag2CO3) = 8.2 × 10–12).
a) +1280.32 kJ b) –2091.32 kJ a) 1.71 × 10–10 b) 1.71 × 10–8
c) –1580 kJ d) –2280.32 kJ c) 1.55 × 10–5 d) 1.55 × 10–10
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74) The following data were obtained during the 79) Which of the following statements about
first order decomposition of 2A(g) —→ B(g) alkaline earth metals are correct?
+ C(s) at a constant volume and at a particular (i) Hydration energy of Sr2+ is greater than that
temperature of Be2+.
S.N. Time Total pressure in (ii) CaCO3 decomposes at a higher temperature
Pascal than BaCO3.
1 At the end of 10 min 300 (iii) Ba(OH)2 is a stronger base than Mg(OH)2.
2 After completion 200 (iv) SrSO4 is less soluble in water than CaSO4.
The rate constant in min is –1 Select the correct answer using the code given
a) 0.0693 b) 69.3 below.
c) 6.93 d) 6.93 × 10–4 a) (iv) only b) (i) and (iii)
75) The rate of a first-order reaction is 0.04 mol c) (i) and (iv) d) (iii) and (iv)
litre–1 s –1 at 10 minutes and 0.03 mol litre–1 s–1 80) Consider the following reactions
at 20 minutes after initiation. Find the half-life D
I. Al + NaOH + H2O —→
of the reaction. II. F2 + NaOH (conc.) —→
a) 28 min b) 24.14 min III. NaOH + P (white) + H2O —→
c) 26.44 min d) 20.08 min The correct set of reactions which give gaseous
76) Al2O3 is reduced by electrolysis at low potentials product is
and high current. If 4.0 × 104 amperes of current a) I, II and III b) only I and II
is passed through molten Al2O3 for 6 h, what c) only I and III d) only II and III
mass of aluminium is produced? (Assume 100% 81) When F2 react with hot and concentrated alkali,
current efficiency, at. wt. of Al = 27) then following will be obtained

a) 9.0 × 103 g b) 8.1 × 104 g (i) OF2 (ii) O2
c) 2.4 × 103 g d) 1.3 × 104 g (iii) H2O (iv) NaF
77) Match the following correctly. a) (i), (iii) and (iv) b) (ii), (iii) only
Catalyst Industrial product c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) d) All of these
(A) V2O5 (i) High density polyethylene heat in B
82) PbS 
air
→ A + PbS 
→ Pb + SO 2 ;
(B) Ziegler-Natta (ii) Polyacrylonitrile
(C) Peroxide (iii) NH3 Identify A and B.
(D) Finely divided Fe (iv) H2SO4 a) [A]-PbO, [B]-heat in the absence of air
a) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii) b) [A]-PbO2, [B]-KMnO4
b) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i) c) [A]-PbO2S, [B]-SO42–
c) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv) d) [A]-PbO, [B]-heat in the pressure of air
d) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii) 83) Assertion : The spin only magnetic moment of
78) Among the following, the number of elements Sc3+ is 1.73 BM.
showing only one non-zero oxidation state is : Reason : The spin only magnetic moment (in
O, Cl, F, N, P, Sn, Tl, Na, Ti BM) of an ion is equal to n(n + 2), where n
a) 2 b) 6 is the number of unpaired electrons present in
c) 9 d) 3 the ion.

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a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason 89) The reagent(s) for the following conversion,
is the correct explanation of Assertion.
b) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
c) Assertion is true but Reason is false. is/are
d) Assertion is false but reason is true. a) alcoholic KOH
84) The oxidation number of Mn in the product of b) alcoholic KOH followed by NaNH2
alkaline oxidative fusion of MnO2 is c) aqueous KOH followed by NaNH2
a) 4 b) 3 d) Zn/CH3OH
c) 5 d) 6 90) The total number of alkenes possible
85) The smog is essentially caused by the
by dehydrobromination of 3-bromo-3-
presence of
a) O2 and O3 cyclopentylhexane using alcoholic KOH is
b) O2 and N2 a) 3 b) 5
c) Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen c) 1 d) 0
d) O3 and N2 Pyridine
91) C2H5OH + SOCl2 
→ X + Y + Z,
86) The concentration of an organic compound in
In the reaction X, Y and Z respectively, are
chloroform is 6.15 g per 100 mL of solution. A
portion of this solution in a 5 cm polarimeter a) C2H4Cl2, SO2, HCl
tube causes an observed rotation of –1.2º. What b) C2H5Cl, SO2, HCl
is the specific rotation of the compound? c) C2H5Cl, SOCl, HCl
a) +12º b) –3.9º
d) C2H4, SO2, Cl2
c) –39º d) +61.5º
92) Which among the following compounds will
87) Assertion : A compound with delocalised
electron is more stable than that compound give a secondary alcohol on reacting with
would be if all its electrons were localised. Grignard reagent followed by acid hydrolysis?
Reason : The extra stability, a compound gains I. HCHO II. C2H5CHO
as a result of having delocalised electrons, is III. CH3COCH3 IV. HCOOC2H5
called delocalisation energy. Select the correct answer using the codes given
a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason below.
is the correct explanation of Assertion.
a) II only b) III only
b) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. c) I and IV d) II and IV
c) Assertion is true but Reason is false. 93) In the compound given below the correct order
d) Both Assertion and Reason are false. of the acidity of the positions X, Y and Z is
88) What are X and Y, in the reaction
C2H4 + H2SO4 80ºC  → X 
H 2O
→Y
a) C2H6, C2H5OH
b) C2H2, C2H5SH
a) Z > X > Y b) X > Y > Z
c) C2H5OSO3H, C2H5OH
c) X > Z > Y d) Y > X > Z
d) C2H2, CH3CHO
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94) In the following reaction, 98) A codon has a sequence of A, and specifies a
CH3NH2 + CHCl3 + KOH particular B that is to be incorporated into a C.
—→ Nitrogen containing compound + KCl +
What are A, B, C?
H2O. The nitrogen containing compound is
a) CH3 – NH ­– CH3 b) CH3 – C ≡ N A B C
+ – – + a) 3 bases amino acid carbohydrate
c) CH3N ≡ C d) CH3 – N ≡ C
95) In a polymer sample, 30% of molecule have a b) 3 acids carbohydrate protein
molecular mass 20000, 40% have 30000 and c) 3 bases protein amino acid
the rest have 60000. What is the weight average d) 3 bases amino acid protein
molecular mass of the polymer? 99) The tripeptide hormone present in most living
a) 40300 b) 30600
c) 43333 d) 50400 cells is
96) The total number of basic groups in the a) glutathione
following form of lysine is b) glutamine
+
H3N—CH2—CH2—CH2—CH2 c) oxytocin
O
d) ptyalin
—

—
—

CH—C
– 100) A solution which is 10–3 M each in Mn2+, Fe2+,
—

H N O
2 Zn2+ and Hg2+ is treated with 10–16 M sulphide
a) 1 b) 2 ion. If Ksp of MnS, FeS, ZnS and HgS are 10–
c) 3 d) 0 15, 10–23, 10–20 and 10–54 respectively, which
97) When the following aldohexose exists in
its D-configuration, the total number of one will precipitate first?
stereoisomers in its pyranose form is : a) FeS
CHO — CH2 — CHOH — CHOH — CHOH b) MgS
— CH2OH c) HgS
a) 6 b) 5
d) ZnS
c) 8 d) 4
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 biology 11
101) Correct name is 108) When a tall and red flowered individual is
a) Brassica indica crossed with a dwarf and white flowered
b) Mangifera Indica individual, phenotype in the progeny is dwarf
c) SOLANUM MELONGINA and white. What will be the genotype of tall
d) Mimosa Pudica and red flowered individual?
102) Which of the following is a Gram negative a) TtRr b) TTRR
bacterium? c) TTRr d) TtRR
a) Escherichia coli 109) Fibroblasts, macrophages and mast cells are
b) Bacillus subtillis seen in
c) Streptomyces coelicolor a) epithelial tissue
d) Ampycolatopsis orientalis b) connective tissue
103) Contractile vacuole in protozoan Amoeba is c) skeletal muscle tissue
meant for d) smooth muscle tissue
a) respiration b) excretion 110) An analysis of a DNA (double stranded)
c) locomotion d) osmoregulation sample yielded 18% cytosine. What would be
104) Which of the following is not a characteristic the percentage of other bases in this sample?
of meiosis? a) T-32%, A-32%, G-18%
a) It involves two stages of DNA replication b) T-32%, A-18%, G-32%
one before meiosis-I and another before c) T-18%, A-32%, G-32%
meiosis-II. d) T-40%, A-22%, G-20%
b) It involves recombination and crossing over 111) Which is not correct according to Chargaff’s
c) Sister chromatids separate during anaphase- rule?
II. a) A + T = C + G
d) Nuclear membrane disappears during b) A + G = C + T
prophase. c) (A + G) / (C + T) = 1
105) Which of the following is true regarding the d) None of these
given electron transport chain? 112) Genetic drift operates only in
CoQ → Cyt c → Cyt aa3 → O2 a) island population
a) CoQ → Cyt c is H+ absorbing site b) smaller population
b) aa3 → O2, H+ yielding site c) larger population
c) CoQ → Cyt c is H+ yielding site and aa3 → d) Mendelian population
O2 is H+ absorbing site 113) Homo erectus evolved during
d) no H+ is absorbed or released a) pleistocene b) miocene
106) Enzyme having different molecular c) pliocene d) holocene
arrangement but similar functions is 114) Select the correct pair amongst the following.
a) Isoenzyme b) holoenzyme a) Spring wood – light colour, high density
c) apoenzyme d) coenzyme b) Spring wood – dark colour, low density
107) Find out the wrongly matched pair. c) Autumn wood – light colour, high density
a) Primary metabolite — Ribose d) Autumn wood – dark colour, high density.
b) Protein — Insulin 115) In Gloriosa, the tendrillar part is formed by
c) Chitin — Polysaccharide a) leaf petiole b) stipule
d) Cellulose — Heteropolymer c) axillary bud d) leaf apex
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116) Which one pair of examples will correctly 123) Consider the following four statements (I-IV)
represent the grouping spermatophyta about certain desert animals such as kangaroo
according to one of the schemes of classifying rat.
plants? I. They have dark colour and high rate of
a) Rhizopus, Triticum reproduction and excrete solid urine.
b) Ginkgo, Pisum II. They do not drink water, breathe at a slow
c) Acacia, Sugarcane rate to conserve water and have their body
d) Pinus, Cycas covered with thick hairs.
117) Dental formula of rabbit is III. They feed on dry seeds and do not require
2 0 3 3 drinking water.
a) I C Pm M
1 0 2 3 IV. They excrete very concentrated urine and do
1 0 2 3 not use water to regulate body temperature.
b) I C Pm M Which two of the above statements for such
2 2 0 3
animals are true?
1 0 3 3
c) I C Pm Pm a) III and IV b) II and III
2 2 0 3 c) III and I d) I and II
2 1 2 3 124) Stomata opens
d) I C Pm M
2 1 2 3 a) in day time - for gaseous exchange
118) Retort cells occur in b) in day time - no gaseous exchange
a) Funaria b) Pogonatum c) in night time only - for gaseous exchange
c) Porella d) Sphagnum d) in night time only - no gaseous exchange
119) Gametophytic and sporophytic phases are 125) Leghaemoglobin is produced in response to
independent in a) respiration
a) pteridophytes b) bryophytes b) photosynthesis
c) gymnosperms d) phaeophytes c) fatty acid synthesis
120) Tadpoles can be made to grow in size by d) N2 fixation
a) injecting thyroxine hormone 126) Match the following columns.
b) feeding the eggs of other frogs Column I Column II
c) injecting gonadotrophic hormones A. Opuntia 1. Stem thorns
d) providing them with suitable climatic B. Asporagus 2. Phylloclades
conditions. C. Citrus 3. Cladodes
121) In Pheretima, the number of ring vessels per A B C
segment in 12th and 13th segments is a) 1 2 3
a) 10 pairs b) 11 pairs b) 2 3 1
c) 12 pairs d) 24 pairs c) 3 2 1
122) Which of the following is common in Annelida d) 2 1 3
and arthropoda? 127) Exstipulate leaves are present in
a) Basal nerve cord a) Althea rosea
b) Dorsal nerve cord b) Tridax procumbens
c) Ventral nerve cord c) Hibiscus rosa-sinensis
d) Anterior nerve cord d) Tephrosia purpurea

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128) Arrange the following fruits in descending A B C D
order based on the number of locules in the a) 3 4 2 1
ovary from which it develops. b) 4 3 2 1
I. Carcerulus II. Schizocarp c) 2 3 4 1
III. Cremocarp IV. Regma d) 1 4 2 3
a) II, I, IV, III b) I, IV, III, II 133) Study the following columns and choose the
c) II, IV, III, I d) II, III, I, IV correct option.
129) Which match is true? Column I Column II
Vitamin deficiency Vitamin Source A. Population 1. Part of the earth consisting of all
disease the ecosystems of the world
(a) Severe bleeding Tocopherol Milk, egg B. Community 2. Assemblage of all the individuals
(b) Anaemia Ascorbic acid Lemon, orange belonging to different species
(c) Night blindness Retinol Carrot, milk occurring in an area
(d) Sterility Calciferol Milk, butter C. Ecosystem 3. Group of similar individuals
130) During urine formation, which of the following belonging to the same species
proesses create high osmotic pressure in the found in an area
D. Ecosphere 4. Interaction between the living
uriniferous tubule?
organisms and their physical
a) Active Na+ absorption, followed by environment components
absorption of Cl– 5. Classification of organisms based
b) Active Cl– absorption, followed by on the type of environment
absorption of Na+ A B C D
c) Active secretion of Na+ into efferent arteriole a) 1 4 5 3
followed by absorption of Cl– into efferent b) 5 2 3 4
renal arteriole c) 2 3 5 1
d) Active secretion of Cl– and absorption of d) 3 2 4 1
Na+ into efferent renal arteriole 134) Assertion : UV radiation causes photodissociation
131) Consider the following statements. of ozone into O2 and O, thus causing damage to
I. Flame cells are excretory structures in the stratospheric ozone layer.
flatworms. Reason : Ozone hole is resulting in global
II. Green glands are excretory organs in warming and climate change.
annelids. The correct answer is
III. Columns of Bertini are the conical a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
projections of renal pelvis into renal is the correct explanation of assertion
medulla between the renal pyramids. b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason
a) I and II correct b) II and III incorrect is not the correct explanation of assertion
c) I and III correct d) I, II and III correct c) Assertion is true but reason is not true
132) Match the following and choose the correct d) Assertion is not true but reason is true
combination from the options given below. 135) A sewage treatment process in which a part
Column I Column II of decomposer bacteria present in the waste is
(Green House Gas) (Concentration in 2000 AD) recycled into the starting of the process is called
A. CO2 1. 282 ppt a) cyclic treatment
B. CH4 2. 316 ppb b) activated sludge treatment
C. N2O 3. 368 ppm c) primary treatment
D. CFC + HFC 4. 1750 ppb d) tertiary treatment
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136) Study the following pathogens. 140) Gene amplification using primers can be
I. Yersinia pestis done by
II. Borrelia sp a) microinjection
III. Odium albicans b) ELISA
IV. Microbacterium leprae c) polymerase chain reaction
V. Haemophilus gallinarium d) gene gun
Which of the above cause damage to poultry 141) Assertion : Plant clones obtained through tissue
industry? culture are very susceptible to new diseases.
a) I and IV b) III and V Reason : Clones are genetically identical.
c) II and V d) IV and V a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
137) Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) is the correct explanation of assertion
a) is caused by a variant of Pneumococcus b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason
pneumoniae is not the correct explanation of assertion
b) is caused by a variant of the common cold c) Assertion is true but reason is false
virus (corona virus) d) Both Assertion and Reason are false
c) is an acute form of asthma 142) A regulatory body working under MoEF for
d) affects non-vegetarians much faster than the release of transgenic crops is
vegetarians a) NBPGR b) GEAC
138) Which of the following statements are true/ c) NSC d) NIPGR
false? 143) cry II Ab and cry I Ab produce toxins that control
I. The blood transports carbon dioxide a) cotton bollworms and corn borer respectively
comparatively easily because of its highest b) corn borer and cotton bollworms respectively
solubility. c) tobacco budworms and nematodes respectively
II. Approximately 8.9% of carbon dioxide is d) nematodes and tobacco budworms respectively
transported being dissolved in the plasma of 144) Transgenic plants are
blood. a) Produced by a somatic embryo in artificial
III. The carbon dioxide produced by the tissues, medium
diffusees passively into the blood stream and b) generated by introducing foreign DNA into a
passes into red blood corpuscles and react cell and regenerating a plant from that cell
with water to form H2CO3. c) produced after protoplast fusion in artificial
IV. The oxyhaemoglobin (HbO2) of the medium
erythrocytes is basic. d) grown in artificial medium after hybridisation
V. The chloride ions diffuse from plasma into in the field
the erythrocytes to maintain ionic balance. 145) Assertion : Azolla pinnata is used as a biofertilizer
a) I, III and V are true, II and IV are false in rice cultivation.
b) I, II and V are false, II and IV are true Reason : Azolla-performs dinitrogen fixation
c) I, II and IV are true, III and V are false with the help of symbiotic bacterium bacillus sp.
d) I, II and IV are false, III and V are ture a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
139) Chloromycetin is obtained from is the correct explanation of assertion
a) Streptomycetin venezualae b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason
b) Streptomycetin remosus is not the correct explanation of assertion
c) Bacillus subtilis c) Assertion is true but reason is false
d) Clostridium botulimin d) Both Assertion and Reason are false
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146) Intercastal muscles are found in 149) Mark the odd one
a) digits a) monocytes
b) ribs
b) lymphocyte
c) pelvic cavity
d) space between first-two fingers c) neutrophils
147) Aspergillus niger produces d) erythrocytes
a) acetic acid 150) A cell when dipped in 0.5 M sucrose solution
b) gluconic acid
has no effect but when the same cell will be
c) lactic acid
d) citric acid & gallic acid dipped in 0.5 M NaCl solution the cell will
148) Interferon is a) increase in size
a) antibacterial protein b) decrease in size
b) antiviral protein
c) will be turgid
c) antifungal protein
d) antisnake venom d) will get plasmolysed

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 English 16
Passage (for question 151-155) : Culture is the 153) The culture of a community is said to deteriorate
cultivation of a plant or garden, not the eradication when
of its roots, it is an understanding of the roots and a) there is a fall in its educational standards.
seeds, their patient care and instructed nourishment. b) the family life fails to play its part.
Culture is not knowledge, nor is it art, still less is c) there is universal education
its acquaintance with literature and art. By culture I d) it adopts the modern system of instruction
mean first of all what the anthropologists mean; the 154) The culture of a community is transmitted
way of life of a particular people living together in a) more by school than the family
one place. That culture is made visible in their arts, b) more by the family than school
c) equally by both
in their social system, in their habits and customs,
d) by the peer group
in their religion. It is an aggregate of customs,
155) According to the passage, education is
institutions, manners, standards, tastes, morals and
a) the sharpening of the wits
beliefs. Now these are transmitted rather by the b) tapping and encouraging the inherent values
family than by the school, hence when family life in man
fails to play its part, we must expect our culture to c) the substitution of to old traditions with new
deteriorate. It is a delusion to think that the maladies ones
of the modern world can be put right by a system of d) the development of moral standards
instruction. On the contrary, universal education, by Direction (for question 156-158) : In each of the
lowering standards, morals and tastes to a common following questions, out of the given alternatives,
denominator, and by sharpening the wits rather than choose the one which best expresses the meaning of
disciplining character, tends to break down existing the italicized bold part of the sentence.
checks and balances. Education should be the 156) The defendant was grateful for the judge’s
drawing forth of potential values, it should not be clemency.
the destruction of the safeguards that tradition places a) Patience b) mercy
around young egos naturally inclined to willful and c) relaxed attitude d) politeness
precarious flights. 157) Millionaires become eccentric in their old
151) The writer uses the term ‘culture’ to refer to edge.
a) the cultivation of a plant or garden by a a) irritable b) peculiar
community c) dull d) miserly
158) We didn’t belief in his statement, but subsequent
b) one’s acquaintance with literature and art
events proved that he was right.
c) one’s acquisition of knowledge
a) later b) earlier
d) the way of life of a particular people living
c) many d) few
together in one place Direction (for question 159-160) : In each of the
152) The passage suggests that universal education following questions, choose the most suitable “one
a) is, in fact, aggravating the existing problems word” for the given expressions.
of the modern world 159) One who loves all the sundry
b) is the solution to the problem in the modern a) Optimist b) Humanist
world c) Altruist d) Philanthropist
c) would prevent us from transmitting culture 160) To slap with a flat object
to the future generation a) Hew b) Swat
d) would help retain the cultural values c) chop d) gnaw
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Direction (for question 161-163) : In each of the 168) The man at the gate had a forbidding
following questions, an idiomatic expression/a appearance.
proverb has been given, followed by some a) lenient b) handsome
alternatives. Choose the one which best express the c) tranquil d) mild
meaning of the given idiom / proverb 169) We must realize the futility of wars.
161) To take with a grain of salt a) urgency b) usefulness
a) to take with some reservation c) value d) importance
b) to take with total disbelief 170) It is obligatory for a common citizen to follow
c) to take whole heartedly the rules.
d) to take seriously a) optional b) insignificant
162) To cross swords c) trifling d) inconspicuous
a) to fight b) to defend Direction (Question 171-173) : Arrange these
c) to kill d) to rob words in a meaningful order such as the sequence
163) Hobson’s choice of occurrence of events, sequence from a part to the
a) feeling of insecurity whole, sequence of increasing/decreasing size, value,
b) accept or leave the offer intensity etc., and then choose the correct sequence
c) feeling of strength accordingly.
d) excellent choice 171) Arrange the following in a meaningful sequence:
Direction (for question 164-166) : In each of the 1. Consultation 2. Illness
following questions, choose the alternatives which 3. Doctor 4. Treatment
can best improve the given sentence by substituting 5. Recovery
the italicized portion. If the sentence is correct as it is, a) 2,3,1,4,5 b) 2,3,4,1,5
choose ‘no improvement’ or ‘no correction required’ c) 4,3,1,2,5 d) 5,1,4,3,2
as your answer. 172) Arrange the following in a logical order:
164) One should exercise their right to vote. 1. Euphoria 2. Happiness
a) his b) our 3. Ambivalence 4. Ecstasy
c) one’s d) no improvement 5. Pleasure
165) The more they earn, more they spend. a) 4,1,3,2,5 b) 3,2,5,1,4
a) more they earn, more they spend c) 2,1,3,4,5 d) 1,4,2,5,3
b) more they earn, the more they spend 173) Arrange the following in a meaningful order,
c) the more they earn, the more they spend from particular to general:
d) no improvement 1. Family 2. Community
166) He dislikes the word dislike, isn’t he? 3. Member 4. Locality
a) does he b) doesn’t he 5. Country
c) didn’t he d) no correction required a) 3,1,2,4,5 b) 3,1,2,5,4
Direction (for question 167-170) : In each of the c) 3,1,4,2,5 d) 3,1,4,5,2
following sentences, a word has been printed in Direction (Question 174-176) : In each of the
italics bold. Out of the given alternatives, choose the following questions, a group of three interrelated
one which is closest to the opposite in meaning of words is given. Choose a word from the given
the italicized word. alternatives that belongs to the same group.
167) Let us not aggravate the sufferings of the poor. 174) Ohm : Watt : Volt
a) abbreviate b) alleviate a) Light b) Electricity
c) advocate d) appreciate c) Hour d) Ampere
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175) Hokaido : Honshu : Shikoku 182) Which word does NOT belong with the
a) Madagascar b) Kyushu others?
c) Shanghai d) Sikiang a) rye b) sourdough
176) Which of the following is the same as Flood, c) pumpernickel d) loaf
Fire, Cyclone ? 183) Which word does NOT belong with the
a) Damage b) Earthquake others?
c) Rain d) Accident a) unimportant b) trivial
Direction (Question 177-179) : In this type of c) insignificant d) familiar
questions, a round-about description is given in Direction (Question 184-185) : In each series, look
the form of certain small relationships and direct for the degree and direction of change between the
relationship between the persons concerned is to be numbers. In other words, do the numbers increase or
deciphered. decrease, and by how much
177) Pointing to a photograph, a man said, “I have 184) Look at this series: 8, 6, 9, 23, 87 , ... What
no brother or sister but that man’s father is my number should come next?
father’s son.” Whose photograph was it? a) 128 b) 226
a) His own b) His son’s c) 324 d) 429
c) His father’s d) His nephew’s 185) Look at this series: 14, 28, 20, 40, 32, 64, ...
What number should come next?
178) Anil introduces Rohit as the son of the only
a) 52 b) 56
brother of his father’s wife. How is Rohit
c) 96 d) 128
related to Anil ?
186) Which of the following sultans of Delhi
a) Cousin b) Son
Sultanate established a Famine Code to relieve
c) Uncle d) Son-in-law
the victims of Famine?
179) Pointing towards a person in a photograph,
a) Mohammad Tughlaq
Anjali said, “He is the only son of the father of
b) Bahlol Lodhi
my sister’s brother.” How is that person related c) Alauddin Khilji
to Anjali? d) Balban
a) Mother b) Father 187) Which of the following are two works of
c) Maternal uncle d) None of these Kalidasa?
180) If the letters in PRABA are coded as 27595, a) Raghuvamsha and Kiratarjuniya
and THILAK are coded as 368451, how can b) Kumara Sambhav and Raghuvamsha
BHARATHI be coded? c) Malti Madhava and Kumara Sambhava
a) 37536689 b) 57686535 d) Malti Madhav and Shakuntalam
c) 96575368 d) 96855368 188) Who was the first ruler of Kushana dynasty to
Direction (Question 181-183) : Three of the words issue gold coins in India?
will be in the same classification, the remaining one a) Vima Kadphises b) Kanishka
will not be. Your answer will be the one word that c) Vasudeva d) Kujula Kadphises
does NOT belong in the same classification as the 189) August 9 1925 is known in the Indian History
others. for which of the following incidences?
181) Which word does NOT belong with the a) Chauri Chaura incidence
others? b) Kakori Train Robbery
a) tyre b) steering wheel c) Jallianwallah Bagh Incidence
c) engine d) car d) The seize of Cawnpore
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190) Which is the most abundant metal in the Earth’s below
crust? a) 1, 3 and 4 only b) 2 and 3 only
a) Aluminium b) Nickel c) 1 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
c) Iron d) Silicon 196) Which All India Radio (AIR) has been honored
191) Which one of the following is not a tributary of with the 26th edition of Lelte Award?
Godavari River? a) AIR Aizawl b) AIR Bhopal
a) Wainganga b) Manjira
c) AIR Lucknow d) AIR Delhi
c) Malaprabha d) Wardha
197) “Vitasta” was the ancient name of which of the
192) Who among the following is referred to as the
Father of Indian Software industries? following rivers?
a) M C Prahalnad b) Faqir Chand Kohli a) Sutlej b) Jhelum
c) Ajit Balakrishnan d) Vinod Dham c) Beas d) Ravi
193) The most potent greenhouse gas among the 198) Which one of the following is not a constitutional
following is __? body?
a) Carbon dioxide b) Methane a) Election Commission
c) Water Vapor d) Ozone b) Finance Commission
194) In which district Simlipal Tiger Reserve is c) Planning Commission
located? d) Union Public Service Commission
a) Bhadrak b) Bargarh 199) The author of the song “Sare Jahan Se Achha”
c) Mayurbhanj d) Naupada
is
195) Which of the following are some important
a) Mohammad Iqbal b) Maulana Azad
pollutants released by steel industry in India?
1. Oxides of sulphur c) Sarojini Naidu d) Amrita Pritam
2. Oxides of nitrogen 200) Which of the following official document is
3. Carbon monoxide related to India?
4. Carbon dioxide a) White Paper b) Yellow Book
Select the correct answer using the code given c) Blue book d) Green Paper
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