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Roll No. SUPER-40 NGT-S403 Date.30-03-2025

Name: Batch :

Max. Time : 3 Hrs Max. Marks : 720 Right +4 , Wrong -1

PHYSICS (1 –45) CHEMISTRY (46 – 90) BIOLOGY (91 – 180)

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:
1. The Test is of 3 Hours Duration.
2. The Test consists of 180 Questions. The Maximum Marks are 720.
3. There are Four parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology having 45
questions in each part of equal weightage.
4. All questions are compulsory.
5. For each correct answer 4 Marks and for each incorrect answer –1 Mark.
PHYSICS
1. In a vernier callipers, 10 division of vernier scale are matching with 9 divisions of main scale. When a sphere
is placed in between the jaws, the zero of the vernier scale lies between 15 mm and 16 mm divisions of the
main scale and the 6th division of vernier scale coincides with one of the main scale divisions. The diameter
of the sphere is (one main scale division is 1 mm)
(a) 15.6 mm (b) 16.6 mm (c) 15.06 mm (d) 16.06 mm
2. Assertion(A): The numerical value of a physical quantity remains same in every system of units.
Reason(R): The product of the numerical value and unit of a physical quantity remains same in any system of
units.
(a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true and R is false
(d) A is false and R is true

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3. Figure shows the displacement time graph of a body moving in straight line. What is the ratio of the speed in
the first second and that in the next two seconds

(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 2 : 1

4. The horizontal range is four times the maximum height attained by a projectile. The angle of projection is
(a) 900 (b) 600 (c) 450 (d) 760
5. If two light coherent waves having same frequency have intensity ratio 4 : 1 and they interfere, the ratio of
maximum to minimum intensity in the pattern will be
(a) 9 : 1 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 25 : 9 (d) 16 : 25
6. A 5000 kg rocket is set for vertical firing. The exhaust speed is 800 ms–1. To give an initial upward
acceleration of 20 ms–1, the amount of gas ejected per second to supply the needed thrust will be (g = 10 ms–2)
(a) 127.5 kgs–1 (b) 187.5 kgs–1 (c) 185.5 kgs–1 (d) 138.5 kgs–1
7. A uniform chain of length L hangs partly from a table which is kept in equilibrium by friction. The maximum
length that can hang without slipping is l , then coefficient of friction between the table and the chain is
L l l L
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Ll Ll Ll Ll
8. An electric motor creates a tension of 4500 newton in a hoisting cable and reels it in at the rate of 2 m/sec.
What is the power of electric motor
(a) 9 kJ (b) 9 kW (c) 9 HP (d) 9000 kW
9. Statement(A): In an elastic collision of two bodies, the momentum and kinetic energy of each body is
conserved.
Statement(B): when two equal masses undergo a glancing elastic collision with one of them at rest, after the
collision, they will move at right angles to each other.
(a) only A is true (b) only B is true (c) both A and B are true (d) both A and B are false
10. Two objects of masses 200 gm and 500 gm possess velocities 10 iˆ m/s and 3iˆ  5 ˆj m/s respectively. The
velocity of their centre of mass in m/s is
5 25 ˆ 5
(a) 5iˆ  25 ˆj (b) iˆ  25 ˆj (c) 5iˆ  j (d) 25iˆ  ˆj
7 7 7
11. How much water should be filled in a container 21 cm in height, so that it appears half filled when viewed
from the top of the container (given that a   4 / 3 ).
(a) 8.0 cm (b) 10.5 cm (c) 12.0 cm (d) 16.0 cm

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12. Statement(A) : Moment of inertia is the desired rotational analogue of mass in linear motion.
Statement(B) : Moment of inertia about a given axis of rotation resists a change in its rotational motion
(a) only A is true (b) only B is true (c) both A and B are true (d) both A and B are false
13. Which logic gate is represented by the following combination logic gates

(a) OR (b) NAND (c) AND (d) NOR

14. In the Bohr's hydrogen atom model, the radius of the stationary orbit is directly proportional to (n = principal
quantum number)
(a) n1 (b) n (c) n2 (d) n2
15. According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, the graph between the kinetic energy of photoelectrons ejected
and the frequency of incident radiation is

16. What is the de-Broglie wavelength of the α-particle accelerated through a potential difference V (in Å)
0.287 12.27 0.101 0.202
(a) (b) (c) (d)
V V V V
17. The binding energies per nucleon for a deuteron and an α – particle are x1 and x2 respectively. What will be
the energy Q released in the reaction 1 H 2 1 H 2 2 He4  Q
(a) 4  x1  x2  (b) 4  x2  x1  (c) 2  x1  x2  (d) 2  x2  x1 
18. The depletion layer in silicon diode is 1 μm wide and the knee potential is 0.6 V, then the electric field in the
depletion layer will be
(a) Zero (b) 0.6 V/m (c) 6×104 V/m (d) 6×105 V/m
19. If E and B represent electric and magnetic field vectors of the electromagnetic wave, the direction of
propagation of electromagnetic wave is along
(a) E (b) B (c) B  E (d) E  B
20. Two coils of self-inductance L1 and L2 are connected in series, combination having mutual inductance of the
coils as M. The equivalent self-inductance of the combination will be

1 1 1
(a)   (b) L1  L2  M (c) L1  L2  2M (d) L1  L2  2M
L1 L2 M

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21. In the figure, there are two semi-circles of radii r1 and r2 in which a current i is flowing. The magnetic
induction at centre O will be

0i 0i  0i  r1  r2   0i  r2  r1 
(a)  r1  r2  (b)  r1  r2  (c)   (d)  
4 4 4  r1r2  4  r1r2 
22. Assertion(A): Alloys such as constantan and manganin are used in making standard resistance coils.
Reason (R): Constantan and manganin have small value of temperature coefficient of resistance.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) Both A and R are false
23. In the given circuit, the voltmeter records 5 volts. The resistance of the voltmeter in ohms is

(a) 200 (b) 100 (c) 10 (d) 50

24. Statement-A: Electrical potential may exist at a point where the electrical field is zero
Statement-B: Electrical Field may exist at a point where the electrical potential is zero.
Statement-C: The electric potential inside a charge conducting sphere is constant.
(a) A, B are true (b) B, C are true (c) A, C are true (d) A,B,C are true
25. The effective capacitance between A and B in the given circuit is

(a) 1μF (b) 2μF (c) 3μF (d) 4μF

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26. Figure shows electric field lines in which an electric dipole p is placed as Which of the following statements is
correct?

(a) The dipole will not experience any force. (b) The dipole will experience a force towards right.
(c) The dipole will experience a force towards the left. (d) The dipole will experience a force upwards.
27. A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm radiates 450 W power at 500 K. If the radius were halved and
the temperature doubled, the power radiated in watt would be.
(a) 225 (b) 450 (c) 900 (d) 1800
28. A cylindrical metal rod of length L0 is shaped into a ring with a small gap as shown. On heating the system

(a) x decreases, r and d increases (b) x and r increase, d decreases

(c) x, r and d all will increase (d) x, r and d all will decrease
29. Water from a tap emerges vertically downward with an initial speed of 1 m/s. The cross-sectional area of tap
is 10–4 m2. Assume that the pressure is constant throughout the stream of water and that the flow is steady the
cross – sectional area of the stream 0.15 m below the tap is (g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 10–5 m (b) 2 × 10–5 m (c) 4 × 10–5 m (d) 5 × 10–5 m
30. A particle executes SHM on a straight line path. The amplitude of oscillation is 2 cm. When the displacement
of the particle from the mean position is 1 cm, the numerical value of magnitude of acceleration is equal to the
numerical value of magnitude of velocity. The frequency of SHM is (in second–1) :
2 3 1
(a) 2 3 (b) (c) (d)
3 2 2 3
31. If the ratio of lengths, radii, and young’s module of steel and brass wires in the figure are a, b and c
respectively. Then the corresponding ratio of increase in their lengths would be

2a 2 c 3a 2ac 3c
(a) (b) (c) (d)
b 2b 2 c b2 2 ab 2
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32. A gas mixture consists of 3 moles of oxygen and 5 moles of argon at temperature T. Considering only
translational and rotational modes, the total internal energy of the system is
(a) 15 RT (b) 12 RT (c) 4 RT (d) 20 RT
33. A real gas behaves like an ideal gas if its
(a) Pressure and temperature are both high
(b) Pressure and temperature are both low
(c) Pressure is high, and temperature is low
(d) Pressure is low, and temperature is high
34. Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the following diagram

Match the following

(a) P - c, Q - a, R- d, S- b (b) P -c, Q - d, R - b, S - a

(c) P - d, Q - b, R - a, S – c (d) P - a, Q - c, R - d, S – b
35. The ratio of angular velocity of rotation of minute hand of a clock with the angular velocity of rotation of the
earth about its own axis is
(a) 12 (b) 6 (c) 24 (d) 10
36. The torque applied to a ring revolving about its own axis so as to change its angular momentum by 2 J-s. in 5
s, is
(a) 10N-m (b) 2.5 N-m (c) 0.1N-m (d) 0.4 N-m
37. R is the radius of the earth and ω is its angular velocity and gp is the value of g at the poles. The effective
value of g at the latitude λ = 600 will be equal to
1 3 1
(a) g p  R2 (b) g p  R2 (c) g p  R2 (d) g p  R2
4 4 4
38. In an astronomical telescope, the focal lengths of two lenses are 180 cm and 6 cm respectively. In normal
adjustment, the magnifying power will be
(a) 1080 (b) 200 (c) 30 (d) 186
39. An ionized gas contains both positive and negative ions. If it is subjected simultaneously to an electric field
along the +ve x-axis and a magnetic filed along the +ve z-direction, then.
(a) Positive ions deflect towards +y direction and negative ions towards –y direction
(b) All ions deflect towards +y direction
(c) All ions deflect towards –y direction
(d) Positive ions deflect towards–y direction and negative ions towards +y direction.
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40. The sequence of harmonics of a pipe open at one end and closed at the other end is 250 Hz and 350 Hz. The
resonating length of the air column in its fundamental mode will be (Velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s)
(a) 0.25 m (b) 0.85 m (c) 1.7 m (d) 1.35 m
n n
41. N identical resistors are taken in which resistors are joined in series in the left gap and the remaining
2 2
resistors are joined in parallel in the right gap of a metre bridge. Balancing length in cm from left end is
n2 n2 n2 n2
(a) 100 2 (b) 100 2 (c) 400 2 (d) 100 2
n 4 n 1 n 4 n 1
42. An electron moves from point I to point f, in the direction of a uniform electric field. During this
displacement:

(a) The work done by the field is positive and the potential energy of the electron filed system increases
(b) The work done by the filed is negative and the potential energy of the electron field system increases
(c) The work done by the field is positive and the potential energy of the electron field system decreases
(d) The work done by the field is negative and the potential energy of the electron field system decreases
43. A capillary tube of radius R is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height H. Mass of water in the
capillary tube is M. If the radius of the tube is doubled, mass of water that will rise in the capillary tube will
now be
(a) M (b) 2M (c) M/2 (d) 4M
44. An electric heater supplies heat to a system at a rate of 100 W. If the system performs work at a rate of 75
joules per second. At what rate is the internal energy increasing?
(a) 175 W (b) 50 W (c) 100 W (d) 25 W
45. A sphere, a cube, and a thin circular plate, all of same material and same mass, are initially heated to same
high temperature. Choose the correct statement.
(a) The plate will cool fastest and cube the slowest.
(b) The sphere will cool fastest and cube the slowest.
(c) The plate will cool fastest and sphere the slowest.
(d) The cube will coo; fastest and plate the slowest

CHEMISTRY
46.

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Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (b) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(c) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (d) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
47. Assertion (A): At equilibrium, concentration of reactants and products are always equal
Reason (R): At equilibrium, rate of forward reaction and backward reaction is same
(a) Both A and R are true and the R is the correct explanation of the A.
(b) Both A and R are true but the R is not the correct explanation of the A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false R is true
48. The solubility of AgCl is least in
(a) 0.2 M AgNO3 (b) 0.1 M NaCl (c) 0.01 M CaCl2 (d) 0.5 M AgNO3
49. Polar molecule among the following
(a) CH4 (b) SF6 (c) BF3 (d) HF
50. If the wavelength of electron is numerically four times of its velocity, then its wave length is related as
h h h 2h
(a)   (b)   2 (c)   (d)  
m m m m
51. Work function of some metals are given below
Metal  Li K Fe Cu
W0  ev   2.42 2.25 4.7 4.8
The number of metals which will show photoelectric effect when light of 300 nm wavelength falls on the
given metal is.
(a) Li and K only (b) K and Fe only (c) Li and Cu only (d) Fe and Cu only
52. Select the incorrect match, regarding hybridization of central atom
(a) PCl5 (g)  sp3d hybridisation (b) SF6 (g)  sp3d2 hybridisation
(c) H2O (g)  sp3 hybridisation (d) B2H6 (g)  sp hybridisation
53. The cryoscopy constant of water is 1.86 K kgmol 1 . A 0.01 molal acetic acid solution produces a depression
of 0.01940C in the freezing point. The degree of dissociation of acetic acid is.
(a) Zero (b) 0.043 (c) 0.072 (d) 1
54. Non reducing sugar among the following
(a) Glucose (b) Fructose (c) Lactose (d) Sucrose
55. Bond order is one in which of the following
(a) H2 (b) O2 (c) N2 (d) CO
56. The alkane that gives only two monochloro products on chlorination with Cl2 in presence of sunlight is:
(a) Isobutane (b) Neopentane (c) n-pentane (d) Isopentane
57. Units for rate of a reaction are
(a) mole / L (b) Mole / L / sec (c) sec–1 (d) Depends on the order of reaction
58. Limiting molar conductivity of Ba and Cl are ‘x’ mho cm mole and ‘y’ mho cm2 mole–1 . Limiting molar
2+ – 2 –1

conductivity of BaCl2 is
(a) 2x + y (b) 2x + 2y (c) x + 2y (d) x + y
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59. Enthalpy of neutralization is least for
(a) HCl Vs NaOH (b) HCl Vs NH4OH (c) HCN Vs NaOH (d) HCN Vs NH4OH
60. The number of silver atoms in 108 g of Ag is
(a) 6.023 1026 (b) 6.0 1025 (c) 6.023 1023 (d) 6.023 1024
61. Carboxylic acid is not the product in

(a) CH3CN 
H3O

 (b) CH 3 MgBr 
a ) CO2 (s)
b) H O/ H 

2

(c) CH3COOC2 H5 

 (d) CH 3CH 2OH 

H2O PCC
H
62. Match the catalyst with the process:
Catalyst Process
(i) PdCl2 (a) Haber’s process
(ii) Fe (b) Hydrogenation of fats
(iii) Ni (c) Contact’s process
(iv) V2O5 (d) Wacker process
Which of the following is the correct option?
i ii iii iv
(a) c a b d
(b) c b a d
(c) d b a c
(d) d a b c
63. Which of the following does not exhibit Resonance?
(a) Ethene (b) Vinyl chloride (c) Prop – 2-enal (d) Nitrobenzene
64. Identify the incorrect match.

(a) (d), (iv) (b) (a), (i) (c) (b), (ii) (d) (c), (iii)
65. CH 4 
 X ,'X' is
O2
Cu /523 K /100 atm

(a) CH3COOH (b) CH3OH (c) CO2 (d) CO

66. The IUPAC name of the compound

(a) 3, 3 – dimethylcyclohexan-1-ol (b) 1, 1 – dimethylcyclohexan-3-ol

(c) 3, 3 – dimethylcyclohexan-1-al (d) 1, 1 – dimethylcyclohexan-3-al

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67. Benzoic acid gives benzene on being heated with X and phenol gives benzene on being heated with Y.
Therefore, X and Y are, respectively.
(a) Zn dust and sodalime (b) Sodalime and Au
(c) Zn dust and NaOH (d) Sodalime and Zn dust
68. Statement I: (CH3) CCOOH does not give HVZ reaction as it does not have α-hydrogen.
Statement II: In Hell –Volhard – Zelinsky reaction, α − halo carboxylic acids are obtained.
(a) Both statement - I & II are true (b) Statement – I is true and statement is false
(c) Both statement – I & II are false (d) Statement – I is false, and statement II is true
69. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct combination from the options given.

(a) (A) – s; (B) – r; (C) – p; (D) – q (b) (A) – q; (B) – r; (C) – p; (D) – s
(c) (A) – p; (B) – q; (C) – r; (D) – s (d) (A) – r; (B) – s; (C) – q; (D) – p
2
70. Both  Ni  CO 4  and  Ni  CN 4  are diamagnetic. The hybridization of nickel in these complexes,
respectively are.
(a) sp3 and sp3 (b) sp3 and dsp 2 (c) dsp 2 and sp3 (d) dsp 2 and dsp 2
71. Cyclohexene

is _________ type of an organic compound

(a) Benzenoid aromatic (b) Benzenoid nonaromatic (c) Acyclic (d) Alicyclic
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72. The correct statement regarding nucleophilic substitution reaction chiral alkyl halide is
(a) Retention occurs in SN1 reaction and inversion occurs in SN2 reaction
(b) Racemisation occurs in SN1 reaction and retention occurs in SN2 reaction
(c) Racemisation occurs in both SN1 and SN2 reactions
(d) Racemisation occurs in SN1 reaction and inversion occurs in SN2 reaction
73. pkb value is highest for

74. Which among the following has highest melting point?

(a) Zn (b) W (c) Cr (d) Mo
75. The correct order of reactivity in electrophilic substitution reaction of the following compounds is:

(a) B > C > A > D (b) D > C > B > A (c) A > B > C > D (d) B > A > C > D
76. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III (b) A – IV, B – III, C – II. D – I
(c) A – I. B – II, C – IV, D – III (d) A – II, B – III. C – I, D – IV

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2
77. A galvanic cell is represented as Mg Mg Cl Cl2 , pt. The EMF of the galvanic cell will be highest when
 xM   yM  1atm 

x and y respectively are.

(a) 1M, 1M (b) 0.01 M, 0.01 M (c) 1M, 0.01 M (d) 0.01M, 1M
78.

Based on the above data, the order of reaction in (A) and (B) is respectively
(a) 1, 0 (b) 0, 0 (c) 0, 1 (d) 1, 1
79. The number of species that have planar shape among the following list
C2 H 2 , C2 H 4 , C6 H 6 BF3 and CO2
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2
80. A 0.1 M weak monoprotic acid of P  4 is diluted by 100 times. P of the resultant solution is
H H

(a) 3 (b) 7 (c) 6 (d) 5

81. At 300K an ideal gas is expanded reversibly from state ‘A’ (1 lit, 10 atm) to state ‘B’ (10 lit, 1 atm). Work
done by the gas is
(a) 1163 J (b) 4652 J (c) 2326 J (d) 6978 J
82. 4 mole of PCl5 and 2 mole of Cl2 are heated in a 2L vessel to establish an equilibrium
 PCl5  g  PCl3  g   Cl2  g  . Equilibrium molar concentration of PCl3 is 1. Then the value of Kc for
the above equilibrium is
1 1
(a) 1 mole/L (b) mole/L (c) mole/L (d) 2 mole/L
3 6
83. The hydrolysis reaction that takes place at the slowest rate, among the following is:

84. Chromyl chloride test for the confirmation of chloride ion is not given by
(a) AgCl (b) KCl (c) CuCl2 (d) MgCl2
85. Based on the Spectro chemical series, the weakest ligand among the following is:
(a) H2O (b) SCN–1 (c) NH3 (d) CO
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86. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Controlled nitration of aniline can be done conveniently by protecting –NH2 group through
acetylation.
Statement II: Direct nitration of aniline yields ortho, meta and para derivatives.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both statement - I & II are true (b) Statement – I is true and statement – II is false
(c) Both statement – I & II are false (d) Statement – I is false and statement II is true
87. Which of the following does not contain S – S bond?
(a) H2S2O4 (b) H2S2O5 (c) H2S2O6 (d) H2S2O7
88. Consider the following complex ions

The correct order of the complex ions, according to their spin only magnetic moment values (in B.M.) is
(a) R < Q < P (b) R < P < Q (c) Q < R < P (d) Q < P < R
89. Match List – I with List – II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(a) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV) (b) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
(c) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I) (d) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)
90. Isotonic solutions will have the
(a) same value of Vant Hoff’s factor (b) same solute always
(c) same osmotic pressure (d) Different osmotic pressure

BOTANY
91. Identify the diagram given below and match with the plant given in the options

(a) Volvox (b) Fucus (c) Chara (d) Chlamydomonas

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92. Match the following taxonomic methods with their descriptions:
List – I
A. Phylogenetic classification
B. Numerical taxonomy
C. Cytotaxonomy
D. Chemotaxonomy
List – II
1) Utilizes evolutionary relationships and common ancestry to classify organisms.
2) Based on all observable characteristics, with numbers and codes assigned to each character for computer
analysis.
3) Focuses on cytological information such as chromosome number, structure, and behavior for classification.
4) Uses the chemical constituents of organisms to help resolve classification difficulties.
(a) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4
(b) A – 1, B – 3, C – 2, D – 4
(c) A – 4, B – 2, C – 3, D – 1
(d) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3, D – 4
93. What is the primary function of the in the lac operon?
(a) It codes for the repressor of the lac operon.
(b) It increases the permeability of the cell to β -galactosides.
(c) It encodes a trans acetylase.
(d) It codes for beta galactosidase, responsible for hydrolyzing lactose into galactose and glucose.
94. Which type of modified root is primarily involved in providing support to plants like maize and sugarcane?
(a) Stilt roots (b) Prop roots (c) Pneumatophores (d) Storage roots
95. What is the role of the pericycle in the dicotyledonous root ?
(a) It forms the outermost layer and is involved in water absorption through root hairs.
(b) It consists of barrel shaped cells and acts as a water impermeable barrier with casparian strips.
(c) It is involved in the initiation of lateral roots and formation of vascular cambium during secondary growth.
(d) It serves as the main site for photosynthesis within the root system.
96. Which of the following is NOT pair of contrasting traits studied by Mendel inpea plants?
(a) Height : Tall/dwarf (b) Flower colour : Red / white
(c) Seed shape : Round/wrinkled (d) Pod colour : Green/yellow
97. What is the total number of ATP and NADPH molecules required to synthesize One molecule of glucose
through the Calvin cycle?
(a) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH + H+ (b) 12 ATP and 12 NADPH+ H+
+
(c) 18 ATP and 18 NADPH+ H (d) 36 ATP and 30 NADPH+ H+
98. What is the primary role of oxygen in the electron transport system (ETS) of cellular respiration?
(a) It acts as the initial electron donor.
(b) It serves as the final electron acceptor, forming water.
(c) It directly synthesizes ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate.
(d) It generates a proton gradient across the outer mitochondrial membrane.
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99. Which plant growth regulator is primarily involved in growth-promoting activities like cell division and
enlargement, xylem differentiation and inducing apical dominance ?
(a) Abscisic Acid (ABA) (b) Ethylene (C2H4)
(c) Gibberellic Acid (GA3) (d) Indole-3-acetic Acid (IAA)
100. Match the following parts of an angiosperm ovule with their descriptions:
List – I List - II
A. Funicle 1. The stalk that attaches the body of ovule to the placenta.
B. Hilum 2. The region representing the junction between the ovule and the funicle.
C. Integuments 3. Protective envelopes that encircle the nucellus except at the tip.
D. Micropyle 4. A small opening organized at the tip of the ovule opposite to the chalaza.
E. Chalaza 5. Represents the basal part of the ovule, opposite the micropylar end.
(a) A-1 - B-2 - C-3 - D-4 - E-5 (b) A-2 - B-1 - C-5 - D-4 - E-3
(c) A-5 - B-4 - C-3 - D-2 - E-1 (d) A-2 - B-1 - C-3 - D-5 - E-4
101. Which of the following enzymes produced by bacteria is used as a 'clot buster' in treating heart attack patients?
(a) Pectinase (b) Lipase (c) Protease (d) Streptokinase
102. What is the purpose of a test cross in genetics?
(a) To determine the phenotypic ratio of the offspring
(b) To determine the dominance of alleles
(c) To determine the genotypic composition of an individual with a dominant phenotype
(d) To increase the genetic variation in the offspring
103. Which pigment is primarily responsible for the brown colour of phaeophyceae (brown algae)?
(a) Chlorophyll a (b) Chlorophyll c (c) Carotenoids (d) Fucoxanthin
104. What is the consequence of a frame shift mutation in a gene's DNA sequence?
(a) It changes a single base without affecting the reading frame.
(b) It replaces only one amino acid with another in the protein sequence.
(c) It alters the reading frame, potentially changing every amino acid downstream.
(d) It results in the insertion of a stop codon at the mutation site.
105. Who proposed the concept that the genetic code should be made up of three nucleotides to code for an amino
acid?
(a) Marshall Nirenberg (b) Har Gobind Khorana (c) George Gamow (d) Severo Ochoa
106. Which microorganism is used for fermenting the dough used in making bread?
(a) Lactobacillus (b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (c) Propionibacterium sharmanii (d) LAB
107. Choose a pair of amino acids that are exception to “degenerate” property of genetic code
(a) Lysine, arginine (b) Methionine, Tryptophan (c) Tyrosine, Glycine (d) Serine, Leucine
108. What is the characteristic feature of chromosomes during metaphase of mitosis?
(a) Chromosomes decondense and spread throughout the nucleus.
(b) Chromosomes align at the cell's equator, with sister chromatids connected to opposite spindle poles.
(c) Nuclear envelope reassembles around the separated sister chromatids.
(d) Chromosomes duplicate and separate into two nuclei.

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109. What is the initial step of the tricarboxylic Acid (TCA) cycle?
(a) Oxaloacetic acid is reduced to succinic acid.
(b) Citric acid is isomerized to isocitrate.
(c) Acetyl CoA condenses with oxaloacetic acid to form citric acid.
(d) α- ketoglutaric acid is decarboxylated to succinyl-CoA.
110. Algin is obtained from
(a) Gelidium (b) Spirulina (c) Fucus (d) Vaucheria
111. What technique is commonly used to monitor the progress of a restriction enzyme digestion of double
stranded DNA?
(a) Agarose gel electrophoresis (b) Paper chromatography
(c) Staining with ethidium bromide (d) Autoradiography
112. Which type of RNA, looks like inverted L?
(a) mRNA (b) tRNA (c) rRNA (d) hnRNA
113. Foolish seedling disease or Bakane disease of rice caused by a fungus helped in the discovery of
(a) Auxin (b) Gibberellin (c) Cytokinin (d) Ethylene
114. Match the column I and column II :
Column I Column II
(i) Ladybird (a) Oscillatoria
(ii) Tolerance to salinity (b) Trichoderma
(iii) Prevents root borne plant disease (c) Beetle
(iv) Biofertiliser in paddy field (d) Glomus
(a) i - b, ii - d, iii - c, iv – a (b) i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a
(c) i - d, ii - a, iii - b, iv – c (d) i - c, ii - b, iii - a, iv – d
115. Match the terms given in Column I with their given definition in Column II and select the correct match from
the codes given:

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116. Given below are two statements
Statement-I : Centrosome is an organelle usually containing two cylindrical structures called centrioles.
Statement -II : Both the centrioles in a centrosome lie perpendicular to each other.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
117. Which biomolecule makes up maximum percent of the total cellular mass in an animal cell?
(a) Proteins (b) Carbohydrates (c) Lipids (d) Nucleic acids
118. Which of the following stages of meiosis is not correctly matched with the event of cell division?
(a) Metaphase I: Bivalents align on the equatorial plate
(b) Anaphase I : Splitting of centromere
(c) Prophase II: Nuclear membrane disappears by the end of this phase
(d) Metaphase II: Chromosomes align at the equatorial plate
119. Given below are two statements
Statement – I : During differentiation, cells undergo various structural changes in their cell walls and
protoplasm.
Statement – II : To form a tracheary element, cells lose their protoplasm and develop strong, elastic, lignified
secondary cell walls to transport water over long distances even under extreme tension.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
120. Evaluate the accuracy of the following matches between plant hormones and their functions. Which of these
matches are incorrect?
(A) Gibberellin : Extends the market period of fruits
(B) Ethylene : Increases root surface area for absorption
(C) Cytokinin : Induces apical hook formation
(D) Auxin : Promotes intermodal elongation in deep water rice plants
(a) A & B (b) C & D (c) A & D (d) B & C
121. Which one of the following in NOT a post fertilization product ?
(a) Embryo (b) Endosperm (c) Embryosac (d) Seed
122. Which structural feature of DNA ensures a relatively uniform distance between its two strands?
(a) A purine always pairs with a pyrimidine.
(b) The strands have antiparallel polarity.
(c) Hydrogen bonds are present between bases.
(d) Purines always form phosphodiester bonds with pyrimidines.

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123. Which statement best describes Mendel’s Law of dominance?
(a) Every trait is controlled by a single factor, and both alleles are equally expressed in the phenotype.
(b) Traits are controlled by discrete units called factors that exist in pairs and in each pair, one factor is
dominant and masks the expression of the other factor.
(c) All genetic factors have equal chances of being expressed, and no single trait can dominate over another in
the phenotype.
(d) Genetic factors are not paired, but rather occur singularly, determining traits independently without any
dominant or recessive interactions.
124. Which statement is correct regarding the mitochondrial electron transport system?
(a) Complex II oxidizes NADH.
(b) Ubiquinone is positioned on the outer surface of the inner membrane.
(c) Complex IV (cytochrome c oxidase) contains cytochromes a and 3 a along with two copper centers.
(d) Lipid namely cytochrome c, an electron carrier, is embedded within the inner membrane.
125. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Photorespiration does not occur in C4 plants.
Statement II: C4 plants possess a mechanism that increases the concentration of CO2 at the site of the enzyme,
RuBisCO
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) Both statement I and statement II are correct. (b) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect. (d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
126. Match column I (process) and column II (occurrence) to choose correct answer

(a) A–iv, B–i, C–ii, D–iii (b) A–iii, B–i, C–iv, D–ii
(c) A–ii, B–i, C–ii, D–iii (d) A–iii, B–i, C–iii, D–iv
127. Which combination of enzymes and substances is added sequentially to a sample of plant cells before the
introduction of chilled ethanol during DNA isolation?
(a) Lysozyme - RNase – Protease (b) Cellulase - Protease - DNase
(c) Chitinase – Rnase – Dnase (d) Cellulase – Protease - RNase
128. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: “During replication and transcription, a nucleic acid is copied to form another nucleic acid, which
is conceptually based on the principle of complementarity.”
Statement-II : Nirenberg's cell free system for protein synthesis finally helped the code to be deciphered.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(b) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
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129. Which enzymes are known as “Molecular scissors”?
(a) Restriction enzyme (b) Cellulases (c) Polymerases (d) Ligases
130. In the florets of Asteraceae, pappus, which aids in fruit dispersal is a modification of
(a) Involucre of bracts (b) Calyx (c) Corolla (d) Thalamus
131. Choose the incorrect statement
(a) Nitrogenous base has a heterocyclic ring (b) DNA is the genetic material in cellular organisms
(c) Adenylic acid is a nucleoside (d) Cytidine is a nucleoside
132. What type of pollination is primarily prevented in castor plant, which is monoecious ? (unisexual male and
female flowers on the same plant)
(a) Autogamy and geitonogamy (b) Only geitonogamy
(c) Only xenogamy (d) Only autogamy
133. What is the likely effect of a mutation in the promoter sequence of the lac operon?
(a) The lac operon will operate normally.
(b) The lac operon will be unable to initiate transcription.
(c) Lactose will fail to bind to the repressor protein.
(d) The structural genes will continue to be transcribed.
134. Choose the incorrect match
(a) Cleistogamy – Viola (b) Yeast - Budding
(c) True regeneration – Planaria (d) Wind pollination – Hydrilla
135. Choose the correct match from the following
(a) PCR – In vivo gene cloning (b) Nucleolus – Lysosome synthesis
(c) Concanavalin – Lectin (d) Bolting - Ethylene

ZOOLOGY
136. Invasion of alien species is one of the causes of biodiversity loss. Which of the following alien species posing
a threat to the indigenous catfishes?
(a) Eicchornia (b) Parthenium (c) Clarias gariepinus (d) Lantana
137. Identify the incorrect statements.
I. Earthworms break down detritus into humus by a process called mineralisation.
II. Water-soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get precipitated by a process called
leaching.
III. Low temperature and anaerobiosis favour decomposition.
IV. Humus acts as a reservoir of nutrients.
V. The rate of decomposition is quicker if detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.
(a) I and V only (b) III, IV and V only (c) II, III and IV only (d) I, III and V only
138. Who among the following is credited for developing a method for the determination of amino acid sequences
in proteins?
(a) Alec Jeffreys (b) Hugo de Vries (c) Frederick Sanger (d) H.G. Khorana
139. Assertion (A): Predators are prudent.
Reason(R): Predators act as conduits for energy transfer across trophic levels.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is false but (R) is true
(d) (A) is true but (R) is false.
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140. Which of the following is measured as the mass of living organisms or the number in a unit area?
(a) Food web (b) Standing state (c) Pyramid of energy (d) Standing crop
141. Which of the following statements are correct about thalassemia?
A. The defect could be either due to gene mutation or deletion.
B. Alpha thalassemia is controlled by two closely linked genes HBA1 and HBA2.
C. Beta thalassemia is controlled by a single gene HBB on chromosome 16.
D. Beta thalassemia is a qualitative problem of synthesising an incorrectly functioning globin.
(a) A and B only (b) B and C only (c) C and D only (d) B and D only
142. The most feared property of malignant tumors is
(a) metamorphosis (b) metagenesis (c) metastasis (d) metabolism
143. Match list I with list II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(a) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (b) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(c) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (d) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
144. Statement I: Areolar tissue present beneath the skin is a type of loose connective tissue.
Statement II: All the cells of areolar tissue are specialised to store fats.
(a) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
(b) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(d) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
145. Which of the following procedures involves transferring embryos to aid females who are unable to conceive?
(a) ZIFT and IUT (b) GIFT and ZIFT (c) ICSI and ZIFT (d) GIFT and ICSI
146. Match list I with list II.

(a) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (b) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-V
(c) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (d) A-I, B-V, C-IV, D-III
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147. The vital capacity of the lungs does not include
(a) tidal volume (b) inspiratory reserve volume (c) expiratory reserve volume (d) residual volume
148. Which of the following are NOT the parts of the exchange part of the respiratory system of human beings?
A. Trachea
B. Alveolar ducts
C. Primary bronchi
D. Secondary bronchioles
E. Alveoli
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) B, C and E only (b) A, C and D only (c) D, E and C only (d) A, C and E only
149. Assertion (A): Atrial natriuretic factor decreases blood pressure.
Reason (R): Atrial natriuretic factor is a peptide hormone.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is false but (R) is true
(d) (A) is true but (R) is false.
150. Deficiency of iodine in our diet results in
(a) Graves’ disease (b) exophthalmic goitre (c) simple goitre (d) acromegaly
151. Select the correct set of peptide hormones.
(a) Adrenaline, insulin and iodothyronines (b) Estrogen, secretin and aldosterone
(c) Parathyroid hormone, glucagon and gastrin (d) Cortisol, GIP and thymosin
152. Which of the following cells act like a HIV factory?
(a) Red blood corpuscles (b) Fibroblasts (c) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (d) Macrophages
153. Radula, a file-like rasping organ for feeding, is found in
(a) Chaetopleura (b) Pleurobrachia (c) Cucumaria (d) Petromyzon
154. Which of the following statements are INCORRECT regarding human female reproductive system?
A. Ovaries are connected to the pelvic wall and uterus by tendons.
B. Fimbriae help in the collection of the ovum after the second meiotic division.
C. Clitoris lies at the upper junction of the labia minora.
D. Perineurium is an outer layer of the womb.
(a) All except C (b) All except A (c) All except B (d) All except D
155. Statement I: The visceral nervous system is not a part of the peripheral nervous system.
Statement II: The somatic neural system relays impulses from the central nervous system to skeletal muscles.
(a) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
(b) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(d) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
156. Which of the following interspecific interactions is detrimental to both the species?
(a) Mutualism (b) Commensalism (c) Competition (d) Parasitism

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157. Match list I with list II.

(a) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (b) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(c) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (d) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
158. In a genetic disorder haemophilia,
(a) the affected person cannot discriminate between red and green colours
(b) the shape of RBC changes from biconcave disc to elongated sickle-like structure
(c) clotting of blood is affected
(d) Production of β globin chain is affected
159. The repetitive DNA sequences are separated from bulk genomic DNA as different peaks during
(a) density gradient centrifugation (b) automated DNA sequencing
(c) gel electrophoresis (d) polymerase chain reaction
160. Which of the following treatments is not a treatment for SCID?
(a) Enzyme (ADA) replacement therapy
(b) Bone marrow transplantation
(c) Injection of α −1 - antitrypsin
(d) Introducing the ADA gene into the cells at an early embryonic stage
161. Match List-I with List-II.

(a) A-V, B-III, C-IV, D-I (b) A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-I (c) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (d) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
162. Which of the following is not a part of the brain stem?
(a) Midbrain (b) Pons (c) Cerebellum (d) Medulla oblongata
163. Which of the following are regulated by melatonin?
A. Sleep-wake cycle
B. Calcium balance
C. Menstrual cycle
D. Water and electrolytes balance
E. Defense capability
(a) C, D and E only (b) A, B and C only (c) B, C and D only (d) A, C and E only
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164. Study the following.
A. Pulmonary artery B. Lungs
C. Systemic aorta D. Left atrium
E. Left ventricle F. Right ventricle Select the correct pathway of oxygenated blood.
(a) F-A-B-D-E-C (b) A-B-D-F-C-E (c) B-D-E-C (d) F-A-B
165. Which of the following does not occur during ventricular systole?
(a) Closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves
(b) Opening of semilunar valves
(c) Pumping of blood into the aorta
(d) Flow of blood from the atria into the ventricles
166. NaCl is transported by the ascending limb of Henle’s loop, which is mostly exchanged with the
(a) ascending portion of vasa recta (b) descending limb of vasa recta
(c) collecting duct (d) descending limb of Henle’s loop
167. Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema,
respectively?
(a) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface
(b) Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory surface
(c) Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
(d) Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
168. The axoplasm of a neuron, which is at resting state contains
(a) low concentration of Na+ ,K+ and negatively charged proteins
(b) high concentration of Na+ ,K+ and negatively charged proteins
(c) high concentration of K+ and negatively charged proteins and low concentration of Na+
(d) low concentration of K+ and negatively charged proteins and high concentration of Na+
169. Match list I with list II.

(a) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (b) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(c) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (d) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
170. Assertion(A): Osmoregulation and excretion in Platyhelminthes is performed by special cells called flame
cells.
Reason(R): Platyhelminthes are mostly endoparasites.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is not correct but R is correct
(d) A is correct but R is not correct
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171. ELISA is based on the principle of
(a) amplification of nucleic acids of pathogen (b) vaccine safety testing
(c) urine testing (d) antigen-antibody interaction
172. During muscle contraction, which of the following events occur?
A) ‘H’ zone decreases
B) ‘A’ band widens
C) ‘I’ band reduces in width
D) ATP hydrolysis
E) Z-lines attached to the actins are pulled inwards.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) B, D, E, A only (b) A, C, D, E only (c) A, B, C, D only (d) B, C, D, E only
173. Match List-I with List-II.

(a) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii (b) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-I (c) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv (d) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
174. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk output represents
(a) directional as it pushes the mean of the character in one direction
(b) disruptive as it splits the population into two, one yielding higher output and the other lower output
(c) stabilising followed by disruptive as it stabilises the population to produce higher yielding cows
(d) stabilising selection as it stabilises this character in the population
175. Select the set of animals that have fourchambered hearts.
(a) Crocodilus, Chelone, Chameleon and Corvus
(b) Naja, Neophron, Nautilus and Nereis
(c) Bufo, Bangarus, Balaenoptera and Balanoglossus
(d) Crocodilus, Columba, Camelus and Cannis
176. Choose an INCORRECT statement from the following related to frog.
(a) The skin helps in gas exchange during aestivation and hibernation
(b) The sinus venosus joins the right atrium
(c) Testes have no functional connection with kidneys
(d) The tympanum receives sound signals
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177. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the follicular phase of menstrual cycle?
(a) Gonadotropins increase gradually
(b) Primary follicles develop into mature follicles
(c) Regeneration of endometrial lining
(d) Corpus luteum secretes large amount of progesterone
178. Modern Homo sapiens arose between
(a) 75,000 -10,000 years ago (b) 1.5 – 2 million years ago
(c) 1.0 – 1.5 Lakh years ago (d) 3 – 4 million years ago
179. JGA is a special sensitive region formed by cellular modifications in the ______ at the location of their
contact.
(a) distal convoluted tubule and the afferent arteriole
(b) proximal convoluted tubule and the afferent arteriole
(c) distal convoluted tubule and the efferent arteriole
(d) proximal convoluted tubule and the efferent arteriole
180. Statement I: Upon activation, cellular oncogenes transform into protooncogenes.
Statement II: α -interferon activates the immune system and helps in destroying the tumor.
Choose the correct from the options given below.
(a) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
(b) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(d) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

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