30/03/2022 Phase-3

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 Scholar Course : Test-1 (Objective) Time : 3.00 Hrs.

(for NEET-2022)
Topics covered:
Physics : Physical World, Units & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements and
Periodicity in Properties
Botany : The Living World, Biological Classification
Zoology : Animal Kingdom-I: Salient Features and Classification of Animals - Non chordates and
chordates, Structural Organisation in Animals-I: Animal Tissues - Epithelial, Muscular,
Connective and Nervous

Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer:

SECTION - A (1) 51.2 cm/s (2) 102.4 cm/s
1. Who stated ‘The most incomprehensible thing (3) 204.8 cm/s (4) 153.6 cm/s
about the world is that it is comprehensible’?
3. The pitch of a screw gauge is 0.5 mm and there
(1) Newton (2) Maxwell are 100 divisions on its circular scale. The
(3) Faraday (4) Einstein instrument reads +2 divisions when nothing is put
in between its jaws. In measuring the diameter of
2. In a resonance tube with tuning fork of frequency a wire, there are 8 divisions on the main scale
512 Hz, the first resonance occurs at water and 83rd division coincides with the reference
level equal to 30.3 cm and second resonance line. Diameter of the wire is
occurs at 63.7 cm. The maximum possible error
in the measurement of speed of sound is [given (1) 3.05 mm (2) 4.05 mm
v = 2f(l2 – l1)] (3) 4.410 mm (4) 4.405 mm

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Scholar Course for NEET-2022 (Phase-3) Test-1

(1) A (2) B
4. In the relation , the
(3) C (4) D
dimensional formula of ω is
7. Position-time curve for a body dropped from the
(1) [MLT–1] (2) [MLT] top of a tower is
(3) [ML2T–2] (4) [M0L0T–1]
(1) Parabola
5. The velocity-time graph of a particle moving in a
straight line is given as: (2) Ellipse

(3) Hyperbola

(4) Straight line

8. Which of the following graph is not possible

(practically)?

The corresponding distance-time graph of the

body will be best represented by
(1) (2)

(1)

(3) (4)

(2)

9. Which of the following graphs represents a

relative motion of a projectile w.r.t. another
projectile during flight thrown simultaneously?

(3)
(1)

(4)

(2)
6. A particle shows position-time curve as shown in
figure. The maximum instantaneous velocity of
particle is at the point.

(3)

(4)

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Test-1 Scholar Course for NEET-2022 (Phase-3)

10. A particle moves in the x-y plane and its 16. A particle thrown at angle 30° with the horizontal
coordinates are given by x = k sint and attains a maximum height of 5 m. If the speed of
y = k(1 – cost) where k and  are constant. The projection is doubled and the angle of projection
net acceleration of the particle is is made 45° then the maximum height attained by
the particle would be
(1) Zero (2) k
(1) 40 m (2) 20 m
(3) k2 (4) k2 (3) 10 m (4) 15 m
11. A particle is moving up with balloon with constant 17. If horizontal range is 8 times the maximum height
g  attained by the projectile, then the angle of
acceleration   which starts from rest from
8 projection with the horizontal will be
ground. At height H, the particle is dropped from (1) tan–1(2) (2) cot–1(2)
balloon. After this event find time for which the
particle will be in air. –1  1  –1  3 
(3) sin   (4) cos  
2  2 
H H
(1) (2) 2 18. Which two of the following five physical
g g
parameters have the same dimensions?
H H (a) Energy density
(3) 3 (4) 4
g g (b) Refractive index
12. A particle moves along the parabolic path (c) Force
y = –ax2 + bx + c, in such a way that the (d) Young's modulus
x-component of the velocity vector remains (e) Magnetic field
constant u. Find the acceleration of the particle. (1) (a) and (e) (2) (b) and (d)
(1) –2au2 (2) –bu2 (3) (c) and (e) (4) (a) and (d)
19. A particle A is chasing another particle B moving
2au 2
(3) au2 (4)  in the same straight line. After they pass a
b
particular point, their velocities v varies with time t
13. The equation of motion of a projectile is given as as shown. When will the chase end?
3x2
y = 12x – . If horizontal component of the
4
velocity is 4 m s–1, then the time of flight of
projectile is
(1) 2 s (2) 4 s
(3) 1 s (4) 6 s
14. Equation of trajectory of projectile is given by (1) 4 s (2) 6 s
4 (3) 8 s (4) 12 s
y  10 x  x 2 . The range of the projectile is
7 20. When a particle moves with uniform velocity,
which of the following relations are correct?
(1) 30 (2) 40
a. Average speed = magnitude of average
(3) 17.5 (4) 60
velocity
15. There are two particles located at the same point. b. Instantaneous speed = magnitude of
They are given initial velocities in horizontally
instantaneous velocity
opposite directions as 5 m/s and 6 m/s
respectively. If they fall freely under gravity from c. Distance covered = magnitude of
sufficient height, then the horizontal distance displacement
between them when their velocities become (1) a, b, c
perpendicular is about [Take g = 10 m/s2]
(2) a, c
(1) 6 m (2) 8 m (3) b, c
(3) 9 m (4) 12 m (4) a, b
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Scholar Course for NEET-2022 (Phase-3) Test-1

21. A ball is thrown upwards with an initial velocity u.  slug 

25. The dimensional formula of   is
Choose the correct variation of velocity with  barn 
time t: (Downward direction is chosen as
positive) (1) [M1L–1T0] (2) [M1L–2T0]
(3) [M1L0T–1] (4) [M–1L0T0]
26. Force on a particle is given by F = P sinθ + Q
(1)
cosRt, where t is time. The dimensional formula
R
of is
PQ

(1) [M–1L–2T3]
(2) [M–2L–2T3]
(2) (3) [M–2L2T–3]
(4) [M–1L–2T–3]
27. An aeroplane, starts from rest along x-axis from
x = 0, is subjected to the acceleration shown in
figure. Determine the speed of the aeroplane
(3) when it has travelled 80 m.

(4)
(1) 50.6 m/s (2) 35.8 m/s
(3) 40 m/s (4) 60.6 m/s
28. A car starts from rest with an acceleration of
8 m/s2 which decreases with time linearly to zero
22. A person measures the time period of 50 in 12 s, after that the car continues at a constant
oscillations of a simple pendulum 5 times. The speed. The time t required for the car to travel
data set is 46 s, 44.5 s, 47.5 s, 45 s and 47 s. 500 m from the start is nearly
The reported time period should be
(1) 14.4 s (2) 16.6 s
(1) (46 ± 1.4) s (2) (46 ± 1) s
(3) 17.8 s (4) 12 s
(3) (46 ± 2) s (4) (46 ± 1.5) s 29. A body moves according to position vector
23. When a man walks on road with speed of r  (2t 2iˆ  3tjˆ) m , where t is in seconds. The
20 km/h rain appears to fall vertically downward.
magnitude of acceleration (a) versus time (t)
As he stops the rain appears to fall at an angle
graph is be represented by
30° with the vertical, the actual speed of rain is

(1) 40 km/h (2) km/h

(1) (2)
(3) 20 km/h (4) km/h

24. A car travelling with speed 10 km/h can stop

within a distance of 20 m. If the car is moving
with speed 20 km/h, then stopping distance will
be [Assume constant retardation] (3) (4)

(1) 20 m (2) 40 m
(3) 60 m (4) 80 m

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Test-1 Scholar Course for NEET-2022 (Phase-3)

30. A girl is swinging on the swing. Direction of net 34. A particle is thrown at an angle 'θ' with the
acceleration acting on girl at point P may be vertical under gravity. The slope of the trajectory
of the particle varies as (g is constant)

(1)

(1)

(2)
(2)

(3)
(3)

(4) (4)

31. In an experiment, a physical quantity Z given by 35. The position vector of a particle is given as
r  3tiˆ  (6  2t 2 ) jˆ . The path of the particle is
1/2 1/3
P Q
Z , is calculated with percentage
R
(1) Straight line (2) Parabolic
errors in measurements of P, Q and R as 2%,
3% and 1% respectively. The maximum (3) Elliptical (4) Circular
percentage error in Z will be SECTION - B
(1) 6% (2) 3% 36. A particle is moving in x-y plane such that its
distance from fixed point (a, a) is always
(3) 2% (4) 8%
constant. The path followed by the particle is
32. True value of a measurement is 7.01 m. Which of (1) Straight line (2) Circle
the following is the most accurate reading?
(3) Parabola (4) Ellipse
(1) 6.99 m (2) 7.09 m 37. The path of projectile is represented by
(3) 7.11 m (4) 7.05 m y = ax – bx2, then match the columns.

1 d E Column I Column II
33. The dimensional formula of is same
 0 c 2 dt
i. Range (a) a
as that of [where E is electric flux and c is
speed of light, t is time and μ0 is permeability of ii. Maximum height (b) a
free space] b
(1) Current iii. Tangent of angle of (c) a2
(2) Electric potential projection 4b

(3) Capacitance (1) i(c), ii(b), iii(a) (2) i(b), ii(c), iii(a)
(4) Charge (3) i(a), ii(c), iii(b) (4) i(a), ii(b), iii(c)

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Scholar Course for NEET-2022 (Phase-3) Test-1

38. The ratio of 1 km to 1 nm is

(1) 1 : 1012 (2) 1012 : 1
(3) 1 : 106 (4) 106 : 1
39. If two objects A and B of same volume and same
density are dropped from a height of 200 m, then
(neglect air resistance)
(1) Both will reach together on earth (1) 1 (2)
(2) A will reach first on earth
(3) B will reach first on earth (3) (4)
(4) A will gain larger speed than B on reaching
the earth 46. The order of magnitude of 220 will be
40. In a straight line motion (1) 3 (2) 4
(1) Speed always remains unchanged (3) 5 (4) 6
(2) Velocity always remains unchanged 47. An object is thrown vertically upwards with a
(3) Direction of velocity always changes velocity of 60 m/s. The object will strike the
ground after
(4) Line of motion always remains unchanged
(1) 12 s (2) 10 s
41. If the velocity of a particle changes from
(3) 14 s (4) 20 s
v1  (iˆ  jˆ) m/s to v 2  (4iˆ  3 jˆ) m/s in 1 s, then
48. A person takes T1 second to move up a certain
average acceleration of the particle is
distance on the stationary escalator. While
(1) (5iˆ  6 ˆj ) m/s2 moving up on a moving escalator, the person
takes T2 second to cover same distance. The
(2) (3iˆ  2 jˆ) m/s2 time taken to cover the same distance if man just
(3) (5iˆ  4 jˆ) m/s2
stands on the moving escalator is
T12  T22 T2T1
(4) (2iˆ  ˆj ) m/s2 (1) (2)
T2  T1 T2  T1
42. A particle moves along a straight line such that
its position at any time t is given by T2T1 T2  T1
(3) (4)
s = (2t3 – 6t2 + 8t + 4). The velocity when T1  T2 2
acceleration of the particle is zero will be (where
s is in m and t is in s) 49. The angle made by the vector A  7iˆ  8 jˆ with
x-axis is
(1) –14 m s–1 (2) 2 m s–1
(3) 14 m s–1 (4) –2 m s–1 7 8
(1) tan1   (2) cos1  
 8 7
43. The value of 0
sin2 d  is equal to
8 7
(3) tan1   (4) sin1  
(1) 1 (2) 2 7 8
(3) Zero (4) –1 50. What should be correct sequence for magnitude
44. Which of the following scientist discovered the of fundamental forces arranged as per their
mercury thermometer? relative strength?
(1) Michael Faraday Where F1 = Strong nuclear force
(2) S.N. Bose F2 = Weak nuclear force
(3) G. Fahrenheit F3 = Electromagnetic force
(4) James Watt
F4 = Gravitational force
45. The position-time graph for two particles A and B
(1) F1 > F2 > F3 > F4 (2) F1 < F2 < F3 < F4
v
are as follows. The ratio of A is (3) F1 < F2 > F3 > F4 (4) F1 > F3 > F2 > F4
vB

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Test-1 Scholar Course for NEET-2022 (Phase-3)

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A 56. The number of electrons in oxygen atom in
51. The correct statements among the following are 0.3 g-molecule of Mohr's salt
(FeSO4.(NH4)2SO4.6H2O) is
(a) Mass of 3.01 × 1023 molecules of methane is
8 gram. (1) 4.2 NA (2) 42 NA
(b) A pure compound has always fixed (3) 25.2 NA (4) 33.6 NA
proportion of masses of its constituent
57. From 440 mg of CO2, 1020 molecules of CO2 are
elements.
removed. The total number of remaining atoms
(c) 18 gram of water and 18 gram of ice will
will be
contain same number of molecules.
(1) 1.51 × 1020
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) 2.89 × 1021
(2) (a) and (c) only
(3) 1.77 × 1022
(3) (a) and (b) only
(4) 1.46 × 1023
(4) (b) and (c) only
52. The pair of compounds which can illustrate law of 58. One AVOGRAM is numerically equal to (given,
NA = Avogadro's number)
multiple proportions is
(1) H2O, D2O (2) CH4, C2H4
(1) NA (2)
(3) CO2, SO2 (4) NH3, N2O3
53. If four volume of dinitrogen react with 6 volume of (3) (4)
dihydrogen gas then the volume of ammonia
produced will be
59. Among the following, maximum number of
(1) 4 volume
molecules are present in
(2) 8 volume
(1) 10 g H2
(3) 6 volume
(2) 10 gram-molecules O2
(4) 2 volume
(3) 8 moles CO2
54. The first and second electron gain enthalpies of
O(g) are –141 kJ/mol and +780 kJ/mol (4) 64 g SO2
respectively. The energy required to convert all
60. The equivalent weight of NaH2PO4 in the reaction
the atoms of oxygen to O2–(g) present in 160 mg
of oxygen atoms in vapour phase is is (Given
(1) 6.39 kJ (2) 9.21 kJ Atomic masses: Na = 23, K = 39, P = 31)

(3) 92.1 kJ (4) 63.9 kJ (1) 158 (2) 60

55. Select the incorrect statement. (3) 97 (4) 120

(1) An element consists of only one type of 61. Which of the following possess 40% carbon by
atoms mass?
(2) When two or more atoms of different (1) HCHO (2) C6H12O6
elements combine, the molecule of a (3) C12H22O11 (4) Both (1) and (2)
compound is obtained
62. An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen
(3) The constituent of a compound cannot be
and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gave C, 40%
separated into simpler substances by
and H, 6.67% by mass. The empirical formula of
physical methods
the compound will be
(4) Properties of a compound can never be
(1) CHO (2) CH2O
different from those of its constituent
elements (3) CH2O2 (4) CH4O

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Scholar Course for NEET-2022 (Phase-3) Test-1

63. The mole(s) of KCIO3 which on decomposition 71. All of the following are the conclusions of
give just sufficient O2 to convert 2 moles of Rutherford's -particle scattering experiment,
aluminium to its oxide, is/are except
(1) 1.5 (2) 2.5 (1) Large empty space is present in an atom
(3) 1 (4) 1.33 (2) Positive charge is concentrated in a very
small region inside an atom
64. 50 g of an impure calcium carbonate sample
decomposes on heating to give carbon dioxide (3) Volume of nucleus is negligible as compared
and 22.4 g calcium oxide. The percentage purity to the total volume of the atom
of calcium carbonate in the sample is (4) Electrons are embedded uniformly in atom
(1) 60% (2) 80% 72. Ratio of the radius of the first excited state to the
(3) 90% (4) 70% second excited state of hydrogen atom is
65. Which among the following has lowest (1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2
electronegativity? (3) 4 : 9 (4) 1 : 4
(1) Cl (2) Br
73. The energy in joule corresponding to the light
(3) F (4) Na of wavelength 4500 Å is (Planck's constant,
66. In the following sequence of reaction, the overall h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js; speed of light, c = 3.0 ×
yield (%) of D is 108 ms–1)
(1) 2.21 × 10–19 (2) 4.42 × 10–18
(3) 4.42 × 10–19 (4) 2.21 × 10–18
(1) 90% (2) 80%
74. The radius of first orbit of Be3+ ion is
(3) 72% (4) 64%
(1) 0.529 Å
67. Mole fraction of urea in its 4.45 m aqueous
solution is (2) 0.529 × 4 Å
(1) 0.254 (2) 0.074 (3) 0.529 × 0.5 Å
(3) 0.153 (4) 0.372 (4) 0.529 × 0.25 Å
68. The molarity of heavy water (D2O) is [assume, 75. All spectral lines of which series fall in the
density of D2O is 1 g/ml] ultraviolet region for H-atom?

(1) 55.55 M (2) 55 M (1) Lyman (2) Brackett

(3) 48 M (4) 50 M (3) Balmer (4) Paschen

69. 68.4 g of Al2(SO4)3 is dissolved in enough water 76. Number of electrons ejected from a metal surface
during photoelectric effect depends on
to make 500 mL of solution. If aluminium
sulphate dissociates completely then molar (1) Intensity of incident light
concentration of aluminium ions (Al3+) and (2) Wavelength of incident light
sulphate ions in the solution are
(3) Frequency of incident light
respectively (molar mass of Al2(SO4)3 = 342 g
mol–1) (4) Energy of incident light

(1) 0.8 M and 1.2 M (2) 0.4 M and 1.2 M 77. Which of the following pair exhibits diagonal
relationship?
(3) 0.8 M and 1.6 M (4) 1.2 M and 0.8 M
(1) Na, Mg (2) Li, Mg
70. The normality of a 500 ml Ca(OH)2 solution
(3) Na, Ca (4) Li, Ca
which contains 9.033 × 1022 hydroxide ions, is
78. According to Rutherford experiment the radius of
(1) (2) atom is about approximately.
(1) 10–10 m (2) 10–12 m
(3) (4) (3) 10–13 m (4) 10–15 m

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Test-1 Scholar Course for NEET-2022 (Phase-3)

79. Select the correct statements among the SECTION - B

following. 86. What is the maximum number of orbital(s) that
(I) All spectral lines of Balmer series of can be associated with the following quantum
hydrogen atom lie in ultraviolet region. numbers? n = 4, l = 1, ml = 0
(II) When electronic transitions from 5th excited (1) 1 (2) 2
state to ground state take place, maximum (3) 3 (4) 5
possible transitions observed are 15.
87. Maximum number of electrons in an atom which
(III) When electronic transition from 5th excited can have n = 4 and m = +1, is
state to ground state take place, maximum
(1) 2 (2) 4
possible Paschen transitions observed are 3.
(3) 6 (4) 8
(1) (I) and (II) only (2) (I) and (III) only
88. The electronic configuration of chromium atom
(3) (II) and (III) only (4) (I), (II) and (III) (atomic number = 24) is
80. If H2, He, O2 and N2 travel with same velocity (1) [Ar]4s23d4
then the longest de-Broglie wavelength should be
(2) [Ar]5s14d5
associated with
(3) [Ar]4s13d5
(1) H2 (2) He
(4) [Ar]4s14d5
(3) O2 (4) N2
89. Which among the following elements does not
81. Principal quantum number does not tell us about contain same number of s-electrons as the
number of d-electrons in Ni2+? (Atomic number of
(1) Size of shell
Kr is 36)
(2) Energy of shell
(1) Ca (2) Kr
(3) Maximum number of electrons in a shell (3) Cu (4) Fe
(4) Shape of the orbitals 90. Atomic number of element whose symbol is Uuo
82. The orbital angular momentum of f -orbital is
electron is equal to (1) 118 (2) 108
3h 3h (3) 102 (4) 114
(1) (2)
  91. Li+ is isoelectronic with which of the following
ions?
2h 3h
(3) (4) (1) H+ (2) Na+
 2
(3) B3+ (4) He+
83. Electrons present in half filled p-subshell are
92. An element 'X' with atomic number 51 belongs to
distinguished by
(1) s-block (2) p-block
(1) Principal quantum number
(3) d-block (4) f-block
(2) Magnetic quantum number
93. Which among the following has lowest atomic
(3) Azimuthal quantum number radii?
(4) Spin quantum number (1) N (2) F
84. The maximum degenerate orbitals in 3rd shell of (3) O (4) C
Li2+ is 94. Which of the following ions is largest in size?
(1) 1 (2) 3 (1) Li+ (2) Na+
(3) 7 (4) 9 (3) K+ (4) Ca2+
85. Which among the following has highest electron 95. Among the given elements, the first ionization
affinity? energy is highest for
(1) Te (2) Se (1) Li (2) Be
(3) S (4) O (3) B (4) He

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Scholar Course for NEET-2022 (Phase-3) Test-1

96. The correct representation of d orbital is 98. If species E has 18 electrons, 20 neutrons and 20
x2  y2
protons then its atomic number and mass number
respectively will be
(1) 18 and 40 (2) 18 and 38
(1) (2) (3) 20 and 38 (4) 20 and 40
99. Select the correct order of acidic strength of
following oxides.
(1) Na2O > MgO > Al2O3 > SO3
(2) SO3 > Al2O3 > MgO > Na2O
(3) (4)
(3) SO3 > Al2O3 > Na2O > MgO
(4) SO3 > Na2O > MgO > Al2O3
97. For multielectronic species, which of the given 100. Splitting of spectral lines under the influence of
orbitals is filled first? magnetic field is called
(1) 4f (2) 5p (1) Zeeman effect (2) Stark effect
(3) 5d (4) 5s (3) Photoelectric effect (4) Interference

BOTANY
SECTION - A 105. Read the following statements.
101. Which of the following is not related to mule and a. Has coenocytic mycelia
worker bees? b. Produces zoospores for asexual reproduction
(1) Reproduction (2) Metabolism Identify the class of the fungus on the basis of
(3) Consciousness (4) Growth above features.
102. Self-consciousness is a (1) Phycomycetes (2) Ascomycetes
(1) Defining feature as it is present in all living (3) Basidiomycetes (4) Deuteromycetes
organisms 106. Which of the given fungi are edible and form
(2) Defining feature of humans only and it is not fruiting bodies also?
seen in other living organisms a. Morels
(3) Defining feature as it is seen in human b. Truffles
beings and some other organisms
c. Agaricus campestris
(4) Characteristic feature as it is shown by some
d. Saccharomyces
non-living objects also
e. Neurospora
103. Euglenoids have
f. Rhizopus
(1) Two flagella of same size
g. Ustilago
(2) Lipid rich layer called pellicle
(1) Only a, b, & d
(3) Pigments identical to those present in higher
(2) Only a, b, c, d & e
plants
(3) All except d, e, f & g
(4) Heterotrophic mode of nutrition only in the
presence of sunlight (4) All except e, f & g
104. Select the odd one w.r.t. Paramoecium 107. Defining features of living organisms are
(1) They are mostly aquatic (1) Consciousness and growth
(2) Causal agent of sleeping sickness (2) Cellular organisation and metabolism

(3) Presence of thousands of cilia (3) Self-consciousness and cellular organisation

(4) They are unicellular eukaryotic organisms (4) Reproduction and consciousness

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Test-1 Scholar Course for NEET-2022 (Phase-3)

108. Family which includes cats is 114. Select the incorrect statement regarding the
(1) Mammalia (2) Muscidae zoological parks.

(3) Felidae (4) Canidae (1) These are the places where wild animals are
kept
109. Select the mismatch pair w.r.t organism and its
order (2) All animals are kept in the conditions similar
to their natural habitats
(1) Wheat – Poales
(3) This is an in-situ conservation strategy
(2) Mango – Sapindales
(4) Gives information regarding food and
(3) Housefly – Diptera
behaviour of animals
(4) Man – Mammalia
115. Bacterial viruses
110. Which of the following taxa is common between
Triticum and Mangifera? A. Infect the bacteria

(1) Dicotyledonae (2) Angiospermae B. Usually have double stranded DNA

(3) Poaceae (4) Anacardiaceae C. Are also called bacteriophages
111. Match the following columns and select the D. Lack protein coat
correct option. Select the correct option

Column I Column II (1) Only A is correct

(2) Only A & C are correct
a. Botanical (i) Quick referral system
(3) Only B is correct
garden
(4) Only D is incorrect
b. Museum (ii) Artificial analytical
116. Select the odd one w.r.t. classification of
device
housefly
c. Key (iii) Collection of living (1) Musca (2) Insecta
plants (3) Arthropoda (4) Hominidae
d. Herbarium (iv) Preserved plant & 117. Which of the following are found in extreme
animal specimens saline conditions?
(1) Archaebacteria (2) Eubacteria
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(3) Cyanobacteria (4) Blue green algae
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) 118. Slime moulds form a connecting link with plants,
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) animals and fungi. The animal like feature shown
by slime moulds is
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(1) Formation of fruiting bodies
112. Sex organs are absent, but plasmogamy is
(2) Cell wall around spores
brought about by fusion of two somatic or
vegetative cells of different genotypes or strains (3) Autotrophic mode of nutrition
in the members of (4) Plasmodium is without cell wall
(1) Deuteromycetes (2) Basidiomycetes 119. Fruiting bodies are site of reduction division in
(3) Ascomycetes (4) Phycomycetes (1) Ascomycetes (2) Basidiomycetes
113. Rust disease in wheat and smut disease are (3) Phycomycetes (4) Both (1) and (2)
respectively caused by the members of 120. The common bread mould shows all of the given
features, except
(1) Phycomycetes and Ascomycetes
(1) Sporangiospores
(2) Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes
(2) Gametangial conjugation
(3) Ascomycetes and Deuteromycetes
(3) Cell wall is absent
(4) Basidiomycetes and Basidiomycetes (4) Coenocytic hyphae

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Scholar Course for NEET-2022 (Phase-3) Test-1

121. Choose the member of group Ascomycetes 127. Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria
(1) Rhizopus (2) Claviceps (1) Oxidise various inorganic substances such
(3) Alternaria (4) Ustilago as nitrates, nitrites and ammonia

122. Dikaryotic phase can be seen in the fungus (2) Are most abundant in nature

(1) Trichoderma (2) Colletotrichum (3) Play a role in production of antibiotic

(3) Mucor (4) Ustilago (4) Are generally pathogenic

123. Which of the following scientists demonstrated 128. Cr–Jacob disease (CJD) in humans is caused by
that extract of the infected plants of tobacco (1) Viroids (2) Prions
could cause infection in healthy plants? (3) Bacteria (4) Viruses
(1) W.M. Stanley (2) M.W. Beijerinck 129. Non-cellulosic cell wall is found
(3) Dmitri Ivanowsky (4) Whittaker (1) In plants
124. Select the odd one w.r.t. the taxonomic aid used (2) Only in fungi
for plants only.
(3) In both monerans and fungi
(1) Flora (2) Herbarium
(4) In both fungi and plants
(3) Botanical gardens (4) Museum
130. Select the incorrect statement about
125. Identify the following figure and select the option
taxonomical aids called 'keys'.
which has correct set of features regarding the
organism. (1) They are analytical in nature
(2) They are based on contrasting characters
(3) They are based on similarities and
dissimilarities among organisms
(4) Keys are based on set of contrasting
characters generally in pair known as “lead”
131. Viroids
(1) Were discovered by Pasteur
a. Called Drosophila of plant kingdom (2) Have both RNA and DNA
b. Chitinous cell wall (3) Are covered with protein coat
c. Thin walled, non-motile mitospores (4) Are free RNA molecules

d. Sex organs present 132. All of the following features are related to agent
which cause potato spindle tuber disease except
(1) Only a and c
(1) Lack protein coat
(2) Only a, b, c
(2) Known as viroids
(3) All a, b, c and d
(3) Also cause the mad cow disease in cattle
(4) Only b, c & d
(4) They have RNA
126. Read the following statements carefully for
133. Cuscuta is a/an
lichens
(a) Eukaryotic organism
A. Algal component is called mycobiont
(b) Heterotrophic organism
B. Fungal component is called phycobiont
(c) Parasite
C. Algae prepare food for fungi and fungi
provide shelter and absorb mineral nutrients (d) Plant
and water for its partner (1) Only (a) is correct
Which statement(s) is/are incorrect? (2) Only (a) & (d) are correct
(1) A and C (2) B and C (3) Only (a), (b) & (d) are correct
(3) A and B (4) A only (4) All (a), (b), (c) & (d) are correct

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Test-1 Scholar Course for NEET-2022 (Phase-3)

134. Which of the following represents ‘Class’ 142. Match the category of bacteria Column I with the
(1) Hominidae (2) Primata shapes in Column II and select the correct
option.
(3) Insecta (4) Angiospermae
135. Who developed the binomial system for Column I Column II
nomenclature of organisms?
a. Coccus (i)
(1) Carolus Linnaeus (2) Darwin
(3) Aristotle (4) E. Haeckel
SECTION - B
136. Systematics differs from taxonomy as it includes b. Bacillus (ii)
(1) Classification (2) Nomenclature
(3) Identification (4) Phylogeny
137. According to five kingdom system of
c. Vibrium (iii)
classification, the organisms which lack nuclear
membrane and can be nitrogen fixers, are placed
in kingdom
d. Spirillum (iv)
(1) Fungi (2) Protista
(3) Monera (4) Plantae
138. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
(1) Having cellular body organisation (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(2) Having 70S ribosomes 143. The function of heterocysts present in the
filaments of Nostoc is to
(3) Having different cell wall structure/
composition (1) Oxidise organic compounds to liberate
energy
(4) Having nucleolus
(2) Form gametes during sexual reproduction
139. Individuals of two different species
(3) Fix atmospheric nitrogen
(1) Naturally interbreed freely and produce fertile
offsprings (4) Evolve oxygen by breaking down water
molecules
(2) Have same morphological features
144. The vast majority of bacteria are
(3) Are reproductively isolated
(1) Chemosynthetic (2) Photosynthetic
(4) Are always kept in same genus
(3) Symbiotic (4) Heterotrophic
140. Indian Botanical Garden is situated at
145. The protists called chief producers in the ocean
(1) New Delhi (2) Howrah are
(3) Lucknow (4) Dehradun
(1) Dinoflagellates
141. Read the following statements w.r.t binomial
(2) Also responsible for the formation of
nomenclature system.
diatomaceous earth
A. Scientific name consists of four words
(3) Without cell wall and are biflagellated
B. Name of the author is written just after
(4) Responsible for red tide
generic name in abbreviated form
146. Which of the following provides useful
C. Biological names are generally in Latin and
information for identification of names along with
printed in italics.
description of various species of a particular
Correct statements are area?
(1) Only C (2) Only A and B (1) Manual (2) Monograph
(3) Only B and C (4) All A, B and C (3) Catalogue (4) Flora

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Scholar Course for NEET-2022 (Phase-3) Test-1

147. The smallest bacteria (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

(1) Have cellulosic cell wall (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(2) Have photosynthetic pigments similar to (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
green plants
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) Can survive without oxygen
149. Spores in slime moulds are
(4) Are sensitive to penicillin
(1) Formed during unfavourable conditions
148. Match the members of protista given in column-I
with their unique features given in column-II and (2) Without cell wall
select the appropriate option (3) Dispersed with the help of flagella
Column-I Column-II (4) Formed inside the plasmodium
150. Identify the correct statement.
a. Chrysophytes (i) Saprophytic protists
(1) Specimens are preserved in containers with
b. Dinoflagellates (ii) Behave like preservative solutions in botanical gardens.
heterotrophs when
deprived of sunlight (2) Wild plants are kept in protected
environments under human care in
c. Euglenoids (iii) Includes diatoms zoological parks.
and golden algae (3) Same taxonomic key can be used for
d. Slime moulds (iv) Have cell-wall with different taxonomic categories.
stiff cellulose plates (4) National Botanical Garden has collection of
on the outer surface living plants for reference.

ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A 153. Select the correct option w.r.t. animal, its body
symmetry and level of body organisation.
151. Read the statements A, B, C and D given below.
Select the option which correctly states whether Name of the Body Level of
the statements are True (T) or False (F). animal symmetry organisation
A. In ctenophores, reproduction takes place by in adult
sexual means only.
(1) Spongilla Radial Cellular level
B. Animals are heterotroph, multicellular, and
lack cell walls. (2) Obelia Radial Tissue level
C. The pseudocoelom is body cavity which is (3) Apis Bilateral Tissue level
not completely lined by mesoderm.
D. Roundworms are parasites of both plants (4) Chaetopleura Radial Organ-system
and animals. grade

A B C D 154. Given below is the diagrammatic sectional view

of animals showing body cavities.
(1) T F T T
(2) F T T T
(3) F T T F
(4) T T T T
152. The body is externally and internally divided into
segments with a serial repetition of at least some
organs. This phenomenon is known as
(1) Metamerism (2) Metagenesis
(3) Metastasis (4) Metamorphosis

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Test-1 Scholar Course for NEET-2022 (Phase-3)

Which of the labelled parts denote 160. Read the following features of certain organisms.
pseudocoelom, coelom and mesoderm (a) Presence of haemocoel
respectively?
(b) Exhibits metamorphosis
(1) b, a and d
(c) Presence of tracheal system
(2) e, a and b
Which of the following organisms exhibit above
(3) a, b and d mentioned characteristics?
(4) a, b and c (1) Chaetopleura
155. Identify the group of animals which do not (2) Saccoglossus
possess the three germinal layers and are
(3) Cucumaria
characterised by mesoglea.
(4) Anopheles
(1) Coelenterata (2) Platyhelminthes
161. Which one of the following animal lacks the
(3) Aschelminthes (4) Annelida digestive system?
156. (1) Taenia (2) Octopus
(3) Laccifer (4) Apis
162. Animals with organ system level of organisation
and with calcareous endoskeleton belong to
which phylum?
Which structure labelled in above given figure (1) Aschelminthes
represents the notochord?
(2) Arthropoda
(1) A (2) B
(3) Echinodermata
(3) C (4) D
(4) Annelida
157. One of the reason why ctenophores are not
163. True coelomate organism exhibiting metamerism,
included in the phylum Coelenterata is that they
closed circulatory system and bilateral symmetry
exhibit
is
(1) Both extracellular and intracellular digestion (1) Bombyx (2) Sepia
(2) Presence of metagenesis (3) Ascidia (4) Pheretima
(3) Absence of cnidocytes 164. Mark the correct option w.r.t. common name,
(4) External fertilisation with indirect scientific name and character listed.
development Common Scientific Character
158. Which group of animals belong to the same Name Name
phylum? (1) Silkworm Bombyx Oviparous and
(1) Ascaris, Wuchereria, Pleurobrachia triploblastic
(2) Fasciola, Aplysia, Planaria (2) Sea hare Echinus Body segmented
(3) Planaria, Fasciola, Taenia into head,
muscular foot and
(4) Taenia, Meandrina, Ctenoplana visceral hump
159. Ascaris has A digestive system with B (3) Sea Cucumaria Hermaphrodite but
pharynx and their female is C than male cucumber indirect
development
Select the option that correctly identifies, A, B (4) Locust Locusta External
and C. fertilisation and
A B C direct development
165. All of the following characteristics distinguishes
(1) Complete Non–muscular Shorter
arthropods from annelids and molluscs except
(2) Incomplete Thin Longer (1) Malpighian tubules
(2) Chitinous exoskeletons
(3) Complete Muscular Longer
(3) Water vascular system
(4) Incomplete Chitinous Shorter (4) Jointed legs

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Scholar Course for NEET-2022 (Phase-3) Test-1
166. Echinodermata, a group of invertebrates like sea 173. Select the correct statement w.r.t. adult stage of
urchins, sea cucumbers, star fishes, sea lily have vertebrates.
characteristics which are: (1) All vertebrates have paired appendages.
A. Complete digestive system and mouth on (2) All vertebrates have kidneys for excretion
ventral side of body
(3) All vertebrates are protochordates
B. Organ system level of organisation
(4) All vertebrates have mouth with jaws
C. Indirect development 174. Which of the following is not true for Flying fox?
D. Excretory system absent (1) Internal fertilisation
Choose the correct option which include the (2) Presence of teeth in beak
characteristic shared by these organisms.
(3) Shows pulmonary respiration
(1) B and C only (2) A, B and C only
(4) Presence of hair and pinnae
(3) A, B, C and D (4) B, C and D only
175. Which of the following is not a matching set of a
167. Animals which have gills for respiration, class and its three examples?
proboscis gland for excretion and external
fertilisation are (1) Mammalia – Canis, Felis, Rattus
(1) Ringworms (2) Pin worms (2) Aves – Neophron, Psittacula,
(3) Tongue worms (4) Filarial worms Aptenodytes
168. Polyps produce medusae asexually and (3) Reptilia – Chelone, Columba,
medusae form the polyps sexually in Calotes
(1) Physalia (2) Adamsia (4) Osteichthyes – Pterophyllum, Betta,
(3) Pennatula (4) Gorgonia Hippocampus
169. How many among the animals given below in the 176. Urochordates resemble cephalochordates in all
box are homeotherms having bony endoskeleton except
and exhibit internal fertilisation?
(1) They are deuterostomes
Pristis, Ichthyophis, Calotes, Corvus Hyla, (2) They are coelomates
Felis, Elephas, Pterophyllum
(3) They have closed circulatory system
(1) Four (2) Five
(4) They possess notochord at some stage of life
(3) Seven (4) Three
177. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
170. Alligator and Corvus are similar to Pteropus and Salamandra?
Bufo in which one of the following features?
(1) Body is divisible into head and trunk with tail
(1) Presence of dorsal, hollow notochord in
embryonic life (2) Alimentary canal opens outside the body
through cloaca
(2) Forelimbs are modified for flight
(3) Notochord present in larval stages
(3) Presence of four chambered heart
(4) Heart possess right and left ventricles
(4) Categorised under Gnathostomata
171. As compared to Clarias, Trygon has 178. Air sacs connected to lungs supplement
respiration in
(1) Bony endoskeleton
(1) Camelus
(2) Electric organ
(2) Calotes
(3) Claspers as copulatory structure
(3) Neophron
(4) Presence of swim bladder
(4) Bufo
172. What is common feature between Aptenodytes
and Hemidactylus? 179. What is incorrect about reptiles?
(1) Feathers (1) Crawling mode of locomotion
(2) Presence of diaphragm (2) Mostly oviparous and direct development
(3) Direct development (3) External ear openings are present in snakes
(4) Pneumatic bones (4) Possess epidermal scales

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Test-1 Scholar Course for NEET-2022 (Phase-3)

180. How many of the given animals have lungs for 188. How many substances given below in the box
respiration? are secretions of exocrine glands?
(Equus, Struthio, Catla, Crocodilus, Pristis,
Mucus, Saliva, Secretin, Gastrin, Milk, Earwax,
Myxine)
Oil, Oxytocin
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 1 (1) Four
181. Cells responsible for secreting collagen fibres in (2) Three
areolar tissue are (3) Six
(4) Five
(1) Chondroblasts (2) Macrophages
189. Consider the following tissues
(3) Fibroblasts (4) Mast cells
(a) Areolar tissue
182 All of the given structures comprise of compound
epithelium except (b) Adipose tissue
(1) Dry surface of skin (c) Ligament
(2) Moist surface of pharynx (d) Tendon
(3) Inner lining of ducts of salivary glands (e) Dermis
(4) Inner surface of bronchioles (f) Bone
183. In humans, epithelium that plays limited role in (g) Cartilage
absorption, diffusion and secretion but main role Select the correct option w.r.t. above tissues
in protection is likely to be found in containing collagen fibres.
(1) (c) and (d) only
(1) Small intestine
(2) (c), (d) and (f) only
(2) Trachea
(3) (c), (d), (f) and (g) only
(3) Fallopian tube
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f) and (g)
(4) Buccal cavity
190. Tendon is a type of
184. Which of the following junctions allows rapid
transfer of ions, small molecules and sometimes (1) Dense regular connective tissue
big molecules? (2) Dense irregular connective tissue
(1) Desmosomes (2) Gap junctions (3) Areolar connective tissue
(3) Zonula occludens (4) Tight junctions (4) Fluid connective tissue
185. An epithelial tissue which has thin flat cells with 191. Select the correct statement w.r.t. bone.
irregular boundaries, arranged edge to edge so (1) Matrix is solid and pliable and resists
as to appear like closely packed tiles is present compression
in (2) Matrix is present in the form of concentric
(1) Outer surface of ovary rings called lamellae
(2) Lungs alveoli (3) Osteocytes may occur singly or in groups in
(3) Inner lining of fallopian tube each lacuna
(4) Thyroid follicles (4) It occurs in the tip of nose
SECTION - B 192. Which tissue exerts the greatest control over the
body's responsiveness to changing conditions?
186 Ligaments connect
(1) Muscle tissue
(1) Muscle to bone
(2) Neural tissue
(2) Muscle to muscle
(3) Connective tissue
(3) Bone to bone
(4) Epithelial tissue
(4) Muscle to skin
193. More than half the volume of neural tissue in the
187. Type of muscle fibres that taper at both ends and body are
do not show striations are
(1) Non-polar neurons
(1) Voluntary in nature
(2) Bipolar neurons
(2) Called cylindrical fibres
(3) Glial cells
(3) Not under the control of our will
(4) Pseudounipolar neurons
(4) Devoid of cell junctions
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Scholar Course for NEET-2022 (Phase-3) Test-1
194. All of the following are true for neurons except 198. Observe the given diagram carefully.
(1) They have cell processes called axons and
dendrites
(2) Cell body has nucleus
(3) They are non-excitable cells
(4) They may be myelinated or unmyelinated
195. Consider the following statements.
A. In cardiac muscle, communication junctions
allow all the cells to contract as a unit.
B. Cardiac muscle fibres are striated and
involuntary Choose the incorrect statement regarding the
Select the correct option. tissue shown.

(1) Both statements A and B are true (1) It lines the body cavities and possess cilia in
the kidney tubules
(2) Statement A is true but statement B is false
(2) Their nuclei are located at the base
(3) Both statements A and B are false
(4) Statement A is false but statement B is true (3) Their function is to move particles or mucus
in a specific direction
196. Smooth muscles are not present in
(4) It consists of a single layer of cells resting on
(1) Wall of stomach a non-cellular basement membrane
(2) Wall of intestine
199. Ciliated epithelium is present on the inner surface
(3) Wall of urinary bladder of
(4) Epithelial lining of alimentary canal (1) Fallopian tube
197. Select the correct match.
(2) Blood vessels
(1) Simple squamous PCT of (3) Alveoli
epithelium nephron
(4) Bowman's capsule
(2) Simple columnar brush Intestine
bordered epithelium 200. Squamous epithelium does not line
(3) Simple cuboidal brush Trachea (1) Blood vessels
bordered epithelium (2) Bowman’s capsule
(4) Pseudostratified ciliated Bowman’s (3) Surfaces forming diffusion boundary
epithelium capsule
(4) Trachea

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