It is possible for an organization to be compliant with all applicable security

and privacy regulations for its industry, yet still not be secure.
->True

PCI DSS is mandated and administered by the:

->PCI Security Standards Council (SSC)

Which acronym represents a set of routines, protocols, and tools for building
software applications and integrations?
->API

Select the DevOps process in which developers or IT operations teams can

programmatically provision and manage the infrastructure stack (such as
virtual machines, networks, and connectivity) for an application in software.
->IaC

Which cybersecurity act defines individual rights with respect to the privacy
of their personal information and governs how private sector organizations
collect, use, and disclose personal information in the course of business?
->Canada Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act
(PIPEDA)

Which of the following techniques and tools are used by an attacker to hide
attack communications traffic?
->Process and Remote Access Tools (RATs)
->Secure Socket Layer (SSL) Encryption
->Port Hopping and Dynamic DNS

Which cybersecurity regulation strengthens data protection for European

Union (EU) residents and addresses the export of personal data outside the
EU?
->General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)

Most cyberattacks today are perpetrated by internal threat actors, such as

malicious employees engaging in corporate espionage.
->False

The cloud computing service model in which a provider’s applications run on

a cloud infrastructure and the consumer does not manage or control the
underlying infrastructure is known as:
->Software as a Service (SAAS)

What is an easy way to make your WiFi security stronger and make it more
difficult for hackers to discover your wireless network?
->Change the Service Set Identifier (SSID)
Which of the following WLAN standards is the LEAST secure? Pick two.
->WiFi Protected Setup ( WPS)
->Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)

Which type of attacker is motivated by political or social causes?

->Hacktivist

The Cyber-Attack Lifecycle framework is a five-step process that an attacker

can implement in order to attack a network.
->False

Which technique is NOT used to break the command and control (CnC) phase
of the Cyber Kill Chain®?
->Vulnerability and Patch Management

Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is the most effective protocol for securing
wireless networks.
->False

Which of the following are examples of an endpoint? Choose 3.

->Desktop
->Point-Of-Sale (POS) Terminal
->Smartphone

An attacker only needs to successfully execute one step of the Cyber-Attack

Lifecycle in order to infiltrate a network, whereas a defender must “be right
every time” and break every step of the chain to prevent an attack.
->False

Someone with limited hacking and/or programming skills that uses malicious
programs (malware) written by others to attack a computer or network is
known as a newbie.
->False

Some important characteristics and capabilities of advanced malware include:

->Multi-functionality
->Hiding techniques such as obfuscation
->Distributed, fault-tolerant architecture
->Hiding techniques such as polymorphism and metamorphism

What type of malware is triggered by a specific condition, such as a specific

date or a particular user account being disabled?
->Logic Bomb
A vulnerability is a small piece of software code, part of a malformed data file,
or a sequence (string) of commands created by an attacker to cause
unintended or unanticipated behavior in a system or software.
->False

What type of malware typically targets a computer network by replicating

itself in order to spread rapidly?
->Worm

Which type of Wildfire analysis method supports a custom-built, evasion-

resistant virtual environment in which previously unknown submissions are
executed within a virtualized test environment to determine real world
effects and behavior.
->Dynamic

Most Botnets are designed to withstand the loss of a command and control
(CnC) server, meaning that the entire Botnet infrastructure must be disabled
almost simultaneously.
->True

What type of malware allows an attacker to bypass authentication to gain

access to a compromised system?
->Backdoor

What type of attack is intended to rapidly cause damage to the victim's

network and system infrastructure, as well as their business and reputation?
->Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)

Which Wildfire verdict indicates no security risk but might display obtrusive
behavior (for example, adware, spyware, and browser helper objects)?
->Grayware

Malicious software or code that typically damages, takes control of, or collects
information from an infected endpoint is known as:
->Malware

The principle of least privilege in network security requires that only the
permission or access rights necessary to perform an authorized task is denied.
->False

Which of the following is not a benefit of implementing a Zero-Trust network?

->Higher total cost of ownership (TCO) with a consolidated and fully
integrated security operating platform.

A Zero Trust network security model is based on which security principle?

->Least privilege
Which is not a Zero Trust design principle?
->Allow internal users to access network services through remote access

An effective security strategy is to deploy Perimeter-Based Network defenses,

where countermeasures are defined at a handful of well-defined
ingress/egress points to the network. You can then assume that everything
on the internal network can be trusted.
->False

A Zero Trust network security model is based on which of the following

security principles?
->Least privilege

The primary issue with a perimeter-based network security strategy in which

countermeasures are deployed at a handful of well-defined ingress and egress
points to the network is that it relies on the assumption that everything on
the internal network can be trusted.
->True

Which capability of a Zero-Trust segmentation platform uses a combination

of anti-malware, intrusion prevention, and cyberthreat prevention
technologies to provide comprehensive protection against both known and
unknown threats, including threats on mobile devices?
->Cyberthreat protection

Which Security Operating Platform capability supports a coordinated security

platform that accounts for the full scope of an attack, across the various
security controls that compose the security posture. This allows
organizations to quickly identify and block known threats.
-> Prevent all known threats, fast.

The Security Operating Platform proactively blocks known threats, which

provides baseline defenses against known exploits, malware, malicious URLs,
and C2 activity.
->True

Which Security Operating Platform capability allows organizations to exert

positive control based on applications, users, and content, with support for
open communication, orchestration, and visibility?
->Reduce the attack surface

Which Secure the Future technology is the only security orchestration,

automation, and response system that combines security orchestration,
incident management, and interactive investigation to serve security teams
across the incident lifecycle?
->Cortex XSOAR
Which Secure the Cloud technology functions as a multimode cloud access
security broker (CASB), offering inline and API-based protection working
together to minimize the range of cloud risks that can lead to breaches?
->Prisma SaaS

Which Secure the Enterprise network security management technology

enables centralized control, log collection, and policy workflow automation
across all your next-generation firewalls (scalable to tens of thousands of
firewalls) from a single pane of glass?
->Panorama

The Security Operating Platform consists of a tightly integrated system of

components and services, including a partner ecosystem, that delivers
consistent security across the network, endpoints, and cloud.
->True

The Security Operating Platform prevents successful attacks and stops

attacks in progress while providing consistent protection to secure the
enterprise, the cloud, and the future.
->True

Which of the following techniques and tools are used by an attacker to hide
attack communications traffic?
->Secure Socket Layer (SSL) Encryption
->Port Hopping and Dynamic DNS
->Process and Remote Access Tools (RATs)

The cloud computing service model in which a provider’s applications run on

a cloud infrastructure and the consumer does not manage or control the
underlying infrastructure is known as:
->Software as a Service (SAAS)

Which cybersecurity regulation strengthens data protection for European

Union (EU) residents and addresses the export of personal data outside the
EU?
->General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)

Select the DevOps process in which developers or IT operations teams can

programmatically provision and manage the infrastructure stack (such as
virtual machines, networks, and connectivity) for an application in software.
->IaC

Which acronym represents a set of routines, protocols, and tools for building
software applications and integrations?
->API
Which type of Wildfire analysis method supports a custom-built, evasion-
resistant virtual environment in which previously unknown submissions are
executed within a virtualized test environment to determine real world
effects and behavior.
->Dynamic

Which Wildfire verdict indicates no security risk but might display obtrusive
behavior (for example, adware, spyware, and browser helper objects)?
->Grayware

A Zero Trust network security model is based on which security principle?

->Least privilege

Which of the following is not a benefit of implementing a Zero-Trust network?

->Higher total cost of ownership (TCO) with a consolidated and fully
integrated security operating platform.

Which capability of a Zero-Trust segmentation platform uses a combination

of anti-malware, intrusion prevention, and cyberthreat prevention
technologies to provide comprehensive protection against both known and
unknown threats, including threats on mobile devices?
->Cyberthreat protection

Which Security Operating Platform capability supports a coordinated security

platform that accounts for the full scope of an attack, across the various
security controls that compose the security posture. This allows
organizations to quickly identify and block known threats.
->Prevent all known threats, fast.

PCI DSS is mandated and administered by the:

->PCI Security Standards Council (SSC)

Which cybersecurity act defines individual rights with respect to the privacy
of their personal information and governs how private sector organizations
collect, use, and disclose personal information in the course of business?
->Canada Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act
(PIPEDA)

Which type of attacker is motivated by political or social causes?

->Hacktivist

Which technique is NOT used to break the command and control (CnC) phase
of the Cyber Kill Chain®?
->Vulnerability and Patch Management
What type of attack is intended to rapidly cause damage to the victim's
network and system infrastructure, as well as their business and reputation?
->Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)

Malicious software or code that typically damages, takes control of, or collects
information from an infected endpoint is known as:
->Malware

What type of malware allows an attacker to bypass authentication to gain

access to a compromised system?
->Backdoor

What type of malware is triggered by a specific condition, such as a specific

date or a particular user account being disabled?
->Logic Bomb

What type of malware typically targets a computer network by replicating

itself in order to spread rapidly?
->Worm

A Zero Trust network security model is based on which of the following

security principles?
->Least Privilege

The cloud computing service model in which a provider’s applications run on

a cloud infrastructure and the consumer does not manage or control the
underlying infrastructure is known as:
->Software as a Service (SAAS)

The CI/CD pipeline integrates Development and Operations teams to improve

productivity by automating infrastructure and workflows as well as
continuously measuring application performance.
->True

Prisma SaaS is an inline service, so it doesn’t impact latency, bandwidth, or

end-user experience.
->False

Which consideration is not associated with secure virtualization?

->Hypervisor Sprawl

Platform as a Service - PaaS – is best described as:

->An online space where customers can develop, run, and manage
applications without the complexity of building and maintaining the
infrastructure typically associated with developing and launching an app.
Which cloud native technology balances separation, excellent compatibility
with existing apps, and a high degree of operational control with good density
potential and easy integration into software development flows.
->Containers

Which cloud deployment model is bound by standardized or proprietary

technology that enables data and application portability (for example, fail
over to a secondary data center for disaster recovery or content delivery
networks across multiple clouds)?
->Hybrid

In the serverless model, applications rely on managed services that abstract

away the need to manage, patch, and secure infrastructure and virtual
machines.
->True

Which security-as-a-service layer in Prisma Access SASE capability provides

visibility into SaaS application usage, understands where their sensitive data
resides, enforces company policies for user access, and protects their data
from hackers.
->Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)

Which Prisma Access SASE capability can be used to block inappropriate

content (such as pornography and gambling) or websites that businesses
simply don’t want users accessing while at work, such as streaming services
like Netflix.
->Secure Web Gateway (SWG)

Select the type of cybersecurity solution or feature that discovers threats by

identifying activity that deviates from a baseline.
->User and entity behavior analytics (UEBA)

A hypervisor allows multiple, virtual (“guest”) operating systems to run

concurrently on a single physical host computer.
->True

Ensuring your cloud resources and SaaS applications are correctly configured
and adhere to your organization’s security standards from day one is
essential to prevent successful attacks.
->True

A cloud access security broker (CASB) is software that monitors activity and
enforces security policies on traffic between an organization’s users and
cloud-based applications and services.
->True
To safely enable SaaS usage in your organization, start by clearly defining the
SaaS applications that should be used and which behaviors within those
applications are allowed. Which category of applications are not allowed, then
controlling their usage with granular policies
->Unsanctioned

The benefit of moving toward a cloud computing model is that it improves

operational efficiencies and lowers capital expenditures.
->True

Data that moves in and out of the virtualized environment from the host
network or a corresponding traditional data center is also known as:
->North-South

Sanctioned SaaS applications fulfill a legitimate business need, but certain

usage restrictions may be necessary to reduce risk.
->True

Intra-VM traffic is also known as:

->East-West

An added benefit of using virtual firewalls for east-west protection is the

unprecedented traffic and threat visibility that the virtualized security device
can now provide.
->True

Which of the following is not a phase of implementing security in virtualized

data centers:
->Implementing a static and flat computing fabric

The first phase of implementing security in virtualized data centers consists

of:
->Consolidating servers within trust levels

Which platform provides all three cloud native characteristics by default and,
while assembled from many more generic components, are highly optimized
for container workloads.
->Container as a Service

In which cloud native technology do applications rely on managed services

that abstract away the need to manage, patch, and secure infrastructure and
virtual machines.
->Serverless
Which of the 4 Cs of cloud native security provides the trusted computing
base for a Kubernetes cluster. If the cluster is built on a foundation that is
inherently vulnerable or configured with poor security controls, then the
other layers cannot be properly secured.
->Cloud

Development and Operations teams meet regularly, share analytics, and co-
own projects from beginning to end.
->True

Which cloud computing service model is not defined by NIST?

->Desktop as a Service (DaaS)

The Cloud Native Computing Foundation (CNCF) Kubernetes project defines a

container security model for Kubernetes in the context of cloud native
security. This model is referred to as “the 4 C’s of Cloud Native security”.
->True

The term “cloud native” refers to an approach to building and running

applications that takes full advantage of a cloud computing delivery model
instead of an on-premises data center.
->True

Which cloud computing deployment model is used exclusively by a single

organization?
->Private

Select the Prisma Cloud capability that decouples workload identity from IP
addresses, leverages tags and metadata to assign a logical identity to
applications and workloads, and then uses it to enforce ID-based micro-
segmentation and security policies that adapt to your dynamic environments.
->Machine identity