CISSP Exam – Free Actual Q&as, Page 1 ExamTopics
CISSP Exam – Free Actual Q&as, Page 1 ExamTopics
Study Guide
2003 PDF Pages
$19.99
Buy Now
Video Course
62 Lectures
$19.99
Buy Now
Question #1 Topic 1
Physical assets de8ned in an organization's business impact analysis (BIA) could include which of the following?
C. Cloud-based applications
Correct Answer: D
When assessing the audit capability of an application, which of the following activities is MOST important?
D. Review security plan for actions to be taken in the event of audit failure.
Correct Answer: C
Question #3 Topic 1
An organization would like to implement an authorization mechanism that would simplify the assignment of various system access permissions
for many users with similar job responsibilities. Which type of authorization mechanism would be the BEST choice for the organization to
implement?
Correct Answer: A
Question #4 Topic 1
What is the PRIMARY reason for criminal law being di[cult to enforce when dealing with cybercrime?
Correct Answer: A
Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) provides users with a higher level of assurance that their data will remain protected by using which protocol?
Correct Answer: A
Question #6 Topic 1
Which part of an operating system (OS) is responsible for providing security interfaces among the hardware, OS, and other parts of the computing
system?
A. Reference monitor
C. Time separation
D. Security kernel
Correct Answer: A
Question #7 Topic 1
What process facilitates the balance of operational and economic costs of protective measures with gains in mission capability?
A. Performance testing
B. Risk assessment
C. Security audit
D. Risk management
Correct Answer: D
Clothing retailer employees are provisioned with user accounts that provide access to resources at partner businesses. All partner businesses use
common identity and access management (IAM) protocols and differing technologies. Under the Extended Identity principle, what is the process
eow between partner businesses to allow this IAM action?
A. Clothing retailer acts as User Self Service, con8rms identity of user using industry standards, then sends credentials to partner businesses
that act as a Service Provider and allows access to services.
B. Clothing retailer acts as identity provider (IdP), con8rms identity of user using industry standards, then sends credentials to partner
businesses that act as a Service Provider and allows access to services.
C. Clothing retailer acts as Service Provider, con8rms identity of user using industry standards, then sends credentials to partner businesses
that act as an identity provider (IdP) and allows access to resources.
D. Clothing retailer acts as Access Control Provider, con8rms access of user using industry standards, then sends credentials to partner
businesses that act as a Service Provider and allows access to resources.
Correct Answer: B
Question #9 Topic 1
Which of the following statements BEST describes least privilege principle in a cloud environment?
Correct Answer: D
An organization has been collecting a large amount of redundant and unusable data and 8lling up the storage area network (SAN). Management
has requested the identi8cation of a solution that will address ongoing storage problems. Which is the BEST technical solution?
A. Compression
B. Caching
C. Replication
D. Deduplication
Correct Answer: A
Which Wide Area Network (WAN) technology requires the 8rst router in the path to determine the full path the packet will travel, removing the need
for other routers in the path to make independent determinations?
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following would an information security professional use to recognize changes to content, particularly unauthorized changes?
C. Audit Logs
Correct Answer: A
Correct Answer: D
A company is enrolled in a hard drive reuse program where decommissioned equipment is sold back to the vendor when it is no longer needed.
The vendor pays more money for functioning drives than equipment that is no longer operational. Which method of data sanitization would
provide the most secure means of preventing unauthorized data loss, while also receiving the most money from the vendor?
A. Pinning
B. Single-pass wipe
C. Multi-pass wipes
D. Degaussing
Correct Answer: C
When reviewing vendor certi8cations for handling and processing of company data, which of the following is the BEST Service Organization
Controls (SOC) certi8cation for the vendor to possess?
A. SOC 1 Type 1
B. SOC 2 Type 1
C. SOC 2 Type 2
D. SOC 3
Correct Answer: C
Which application type is considered high risk and provides a common way for malware and viruses to enter a network?
C. E-mail applications
D. End-to-end applications
Correct Answer: B
An organization is looking to include mobile devices in its asset management system for better tracking. In which system tier of the reference
architecture would mobile devices be tracked?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following is the BEST way to protect an organization's data assets?
D. Create the Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) with proxies, 8rewalls and hardened bastion hosts.
Correct Answer: A
Within a large organization, what business unit is BEST positioned to initiate provisioning and deprovisioning of user accounts?
A. Training department
B. Internal audit
C. Human resources
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of installing a mantrap within a facility?
A. Control tra[c
C. Prevent piggybacking
Correct Answer: C
In the "Do" phase of the Plan-Do-Check-Act model, which of the following is performed?
A. Maintain and improve the Business Continuity Management (BCM) system by taking corrective action, based on the results of management
review.
B. Monitor and review performance against business continuity policy and objectives, report the results to management for review, and
determine and authorize actions for remediation and improvement.
C. Ensure the business continuity policy, controls, processes, and procedures have been implemented.
D. Ensure that business continuity policy, objectives, targets, controls, processes and procedures relevant to improving business continuity
have been established.
Correct Answer: C
What industry-recognized document could be used as a baseline reference that is related to data security and business operations or conducting a
security assessment?
Correct Answer: D
A criminal organization is planning an attack on a government network. Which of the following scenarios presents the HIGHEST risk to the
organization?
Correct Answer: A
Which reporting type requires a service organization to describe its system and de8ne its control objectives and controls that are relevant to users'
internal control over 8nancial reporting?
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following is the BEST method to validate secure coding techniques against injection and overeow attacks?
A. Scheduled team review of coding style and techniques for vulnerability patterns
B. The regular use of production code routines from similar applications already in use
C. Using automated programs to test for the latest known vulnerability patterns
D. Ensure code editing tools are updated against known vulnerability patterns
Correct Answer: C
When resolving ethical coneicts, the information security professional MUST consider many factors. In what order should the considerations be
prioritized?
A. Public safety, duties to individuals, duties to the profession, and duties to principals
B. Public safety, duties to principals, duties to the profession, and duties to individuals
C. Public safety, duties to principals, duties to individuals, and duties to the profession
D. Public safety, duties to the profession, duties to principals, and duties to individuals
Correct Answer: B
Which service management process BEST helps information technology (IT) organizations with reducing cost, mitigating risk, and improving
customer service?
A. Kanban
Correct Answer: D
A company is attempting to enhance the security of its user authentication processes. After evaluating several options, the company has decided
to utilize Identity as a Service (IDaaS). Which of the following factors leads the company to choose an IDaaS as their solution?
C. Third-party solutions are known for transferring the risk to the vendor.
Correct Answer: A
An organization recently suffered from a web-application attack that resulted in stolen user session cookie information. The attacker was able to
obtain the information when a user's browser executed a script upon visiting a compromised website. What type of attack MOST likely occurred?
Correct Answer: C
An attack utilizing social engineering and a malicious Uniform Resource Locator (URL) link to take advantage of a victim's existing browser
session with a web application is an example of which of the following types of attack?
A. Clickjacking
D. Injection
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following encryption technologies has the ability to function as a stream cipher?
D. Feistel cipher
Correct Answer: C
In a disaster recovery (DR) test, which of the following would be a trait of crisis management?
A. Process
B. Anticipate
C. Strategic
D. Wide focus
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the reference monitor when de8ning access control to enforce the security model?
Correct Answer: B
Correct Answer: C
When auditing the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) which of the following is one of the high-level audit phases?
A. Planning
B. Risk assessment
C. Due diligence
D. Requirements
Correct Answer: C
What is the term used to de8ne where data is geographically stored in the cloud?
B. Data sovereignty
C. Data warehouse
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following does the security design process ensure within the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?
A. Proper security controls, security objectives, and security goals are properly initiated.
B. Security objectives, security goals, and system test are properly conducted.
C. Proper security controls, security goals, and fault mitigation are properly conducted.
D. Security goals, proper security controls, and validation are properly initiated.
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following is MOST important to follow when developing information security controls for an organization?
A. Use industry standard best practices for security controls in the organization.
B. Exercise due diligence with regard to all risk management information to tailor appropriate controls.
C. Review all local and international standards and choose the most stringent based on location.
D. Perform a risk assessment and choose a standard that addresses existing gaps.
Correct Answer: C
When recovering from an outage, what is the Recovery Point Objective (RPO), in terms of data recovery?
B. The RPO is the amount of time it takes to recover an acceptable percentage of data lost.
D. The RPO is the maximum amount of time for which loss of data is acceptable.
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following attacks, if successful, could give an intruder complete control of a software-de8ned networking (SDN) architecture?
A. A brute force password attack on the Secure Shell (SSH) port of the controller
B. Sending control messages to open a eow that does not pass a 8rewall from a compromised host within the network
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following is the BEST option to reduce the network attack surface of a system?
Correct Answer: A
The security architect is designing and implementing an internal certi8cation authority to generate digital certi8cates for all employees. Which of
the following is the
BEST solution to securely store the private keys?
Correct Answer: B
The existence of physical barriers, card and personal identi8cation number (PIN) access systems, cameras, alarms, and security guards BEST
describes this security approach?
A. Access control
C. Defense-in-depth
D. Security perimeter
Correct Answer: D
A hospital enforces the Code of Fair Information Practices. What practice applies to a patient requesting their medical records from a web portal?
A. Purpose speci8cation
B. Collection limitation
C. Use limitation
D. Individual participation
Correct Answer: A
A colleague who recently left the organization asked a security professional for a copy of the organization's con8dential incident management
policy. Which of the following is the BEST response to this request?
A. Access the policy on a company-issued device and let the former colleague view the screen.
B. E-mail the policy to the colleague as they were already part of the organization and familiar with it.
C. Do not acknowledge receiving the request from the former colleague and ignore them.
D. Submit the request using company o[cial channels to ensure the policy is okay to distribute.
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following BEST describes when an organization should conduct a black box security audit on a new software protect?
B. When the organization wants to enumerate known security vulnerabilities across their infrastructure
Correct Answer: C
In software development, which of the following entities normally signs the code to protect the code integrity?
C. The developer
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following technologies can be used to monitor and dynamically respond to potential threats on web applications?
A. Field-level tokenization
Correct Answer: B
A security architect is developing an information system for a client. One of the requirements is to deliver a platform that mitigates against
common vulnerabilities and attacks. What is the MOST e[cient option used to prevent buffer overeow attacks?
B. Process isolation
D. Processor states
Correct Answer: C
In a quarterly system access review, an active privileged account was discovered that did not exist in the prior review on the production system.
The account was created one hour after the previous access review. Which of the following is the BEST option to reduce overall risk in addition to
quarterly access reviews?
Correct Answer: B
A corporation does not have a formal data destruction policy. During which phase of a criminal legal proceeding will this have the MOST impact?
A. Sentencing
B. Trial
C. Discovery
D. Arraignment
Correct Answer: C
What is considered the BEST explanation when determining whether to provide remote network access to a third-party security service?
A. Contract negotiation
B. Supplier request
C. Business need
D. Vendor demonstration
Correct Answer: A
The acquisition of personal data being obtained by a lawful and fair means is an example of what principle?
B. Openness Principle
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate control for asset data labeling procedures?
Correct Answer: A
What is the BEST approach to anonymizing personally identi8able information (PII) in a test environment?
A. Swapping data
B. Randomizing data
C. Encoding data
D. Encrypting data
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following departments initiates the request, approval, and provisioning business process?
A. Operations
B. Security
Correct Answer: A
An organization is setting a security assessment scope with the goal of developing a Security Management Program (SMP). The next step is to
select an approach for conducting the risk assessment. Which of the following approaches is MOST effective for the SMP?
Correct Answer: D
Which technique helps system designers consider potential security concerns of their systems and applications?
A. Threat modeling
D. Penetration testing
Correct Answer: A
A security professional can BEST mitigate the risk of using a Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) solution by deploying the application with which of
the following controls in place?
A. Network segmentation
B. Blacklisting application
C. Whitelisting application
D. Hardened con8guration
Correct Answer: D
A. Service providers perform as both the credential and identity provider (IdP).
C. Service providers agree to integrate identity system recognition across organizational boundaries.
D. Service providers rely on a trusted third party (TTP) to provide requestors with both credentials and identi8ers.
Correct Answer: C
Correct Answer: D
A. Data spoo8ng
B. Malware infection
D. Data leakage
Correct Answer: B
What level of Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) is con8gured PRIMARILY for high-performance data reads and writes?
A. RAID-0
B. RAID-1
C. RAID-5
D. RAID-6
Correct Answer: A
What type of risk is related to the sequences of value-adding and managerial activities undertaken in an organization?
A. Control risk
B. Demand risk
C. Supply risk
D. Process risk
Correct Answer: D
International bodies established a regulatory scheme that de8nes how weapons are exchanged between the signatories. It also addresses cyber
weapons, including malicious software, Command and Control (C2) software, and internet surveillance software. This is a description of which of
the following?
B. Palermo convention
C. Wassenaar arrangement
Correct Answer: C
An organization has implemented a protection strategy to secure the network from unauthorized external access. The new Chief Information
Security O[cer
(CISO) wants to increase security by better protecting the network from unauthorized internal access. Which Network Access Control (NAC)
capability BEST meets this objective?
A. Port security
C. Strong passwords
D. Application 8rewall
Correct Answer: B
Which section of the assessment report addresses separate vulnerabilities, weaknesses, and gaps?
Correct Answer: D
Correct Answer: B
To monitor the security of buried data lines inside the perimeter of a facility, which of the following is the MOST effective control?
A. Fencing around the facility with closed-circuit television (CCTV) cameras at all entry points
B. Ground sensors installed and reporting to a security event management (SEM) system
C. Regular sweeps of the perimeter, including manual inspection of the cable ingress points
Correct Answer: C
An enterprise is developing a baseline cybersecurity standard its suppliers must meet before being awarded a contract. Which of the following
statements is TRUE about the baseline cybersecurity standard?
Correct Answer: B
Which access control method is based on users issuing access requests on system resources, features assigned to those resources, the
operational or situational context, and a set of policies speci8ed in terms of those features and context?
Correct Answer: B
D. It is cloud based.
Correct Answer: B
What is the BEST way to restrict access to a 8le system on computing systems?
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for selecting the appropriate level of detail for audit record generation?
Correct Answer: B
Correct Answer: C
An international organization has decided to use a Software as a Service (SaaS) solution to support its business operations. Which of the
following compliance standards should the organization use to assess the international code security and data privacy of the solution?
Correct Answer: B
An authentication system that uses challenge and response was recently implemented on an organization's network, because the organization
conducted an annual penetration test showing that testers were able to move laterally using authenticated credentials. Which attack method was
MOST likely used to achieve this?
A. Hash collision
C. Brute force
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following would qualify as an exception to the "right to be forgotten" of the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)?
D. The personal data remains necessary to the purpose for which it was collected
Correct Answer: A
A. Attack
B. Reporting
C. Planning
D. Discovery
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following is performed to determine a measure of success of a security awareness training program designed to prevent social
engineering attacks?
Correct Answer: B
The security team is noti8ed that a device on the network is infected with malware. Which of the following is MOST effective in enabling the
device to be quickly located and remediated?
B. Intrusion detection
C. Vulnerability scanner
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following threats would be MOST likely mitigated by monitoring assets containing open source libraries for vulnerabilities?
C. Zero-day attack
D. Phishing attempt
Correct Answer: C
As a design principle, which one of the following actors is responsible for identifying and approving data security requirement in a cloud
ecosystem?
A. Cloud auditor
B. Cloud broker
C. Cloud provider
D. Cloud consumer
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to ensure the endpoint devices used by remote users are compliant with an organization's
approved policies before being allowed on the network?
Correct Answer: A
Which one of the following BEST protects vendor accounts that are used for emergency maintenance?
Correct Answer: C
Which event magnitude is de8ned as deadly, destructive, and disruptive when a hazard interacts with human vulnerability?
A. Crisis
B. Catastrophe
C. Accident
D. Disaster
Correct Answer: C
B. To perform cyclic redundancy check (CRC) veri8cation and detect changed applications
Correct Answer: C
A web developer is completing a new web application security checklist before releasing the application to production. The task of disabling
unnecessary services is on the checklist. Which web application threat is being mitigated by this action?
A. Session hijacking
B. Security miscon8guration
Correct Answer: B
What is the BEST method to use for assessing the security impact of acquired software?
A. Threat modeling
D. Vendor assessment
Correct Answer: A
A. Log retention
B. Implement Syslog
D. Log preservation
Correct Answer: C
Under the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), what is the maximum amount of time allowed for reporting a personal data breach?
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 96 hours
Correct Answer: C
A 8nancial organization that works according to agile principles has developed a new application for their external customer base to request a line
of credit. A security analyst has been asked to assess the security risk of the minimum viable product (MVP). Which is the MOST important
activity the analyst should assess?
A. The software has been signed off for release by the product owner.
Correct Answer: D
An application developer receives a report back from the security team showing their automated tools were able to successfully enter unexpected
data into the organization's customer service portal, causing the site to crash. This is an example of which type of testing?
A. Performance
B. Positive
C. Non-functional
D. Negative
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following is the MOST effective strategy to prevent an attacker from disabling a network?
A. Design networks with the ability to adapt, recon8gure, and fail over.
Correct Answer: C
What is the FIRST step that should be considered in a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) program?
A. Policy creation
C. Data classi8cation
Correct Answer: C
Which change management role is responsible for the overall success of the project and supporting the change throughout the organization?
A. Change driver
B. Project manager
C. Program sponsor
D. Change implementer
Correct Answer: B
A company needs to provide shared access of sensitive data on a cloud storage to external business partners. Which of the following identity
models is the BEST to blind identity providers (IdP) and relying parties (RP) so that subscriber lists of other parties are not disclosed?
A. Proxied federation
B. Dynamic registration
C. Federation authorities
D. Static registration
Correct Answer: C
A security professional needs to 8nd a secure and e[cient method of encrypting data on an endpoint. Which solution includes a root key?
A. Bitlocker
Correct Answer: B
Which combination of cryptographic algorithms are compliant with Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) Publication 140-2 for non-
legacy systems?
A. Di[e-hellman (DH) key exchange: DH (>=2048 bits) Symmetric Key: Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) > 128 bits Digital Signature:
Digital Signature Algorithm (DSA) (>=2048 bits)
B. Di[e-hellman (DH) key exchange: DH (>=2048 bits) Symmetric Key: Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) > 128 bits Digital Signature:
Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA) (1024 bits)
C. Di[e-hellman (DH) key exchange: DH (<=1024 bits) Symmetric Key: Blow8sh Digital Signature: Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA) (>=2048 bits)
D. Di[e-hellman (DH) key exchange: DH (>=2048 bits) Symmetric Key: Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) < 128 bits Digital Signature:
Elliptic Curve Digital Signature Algorithm (ECDSA) (>=256 bits)
Correct Answer: B
What is the PRIMARY purpose of creating and reporting metrics for a security awareness, training, and education program?
D. Comply with legal regulations and document due diligence in security practices.
Correct Answer: A
In a DevOps environment, which of the following actions is MOST necessary to have con8dence in the quality of the changes being made?
Correct Answer: D
A. Provide education to employees on security and privacy, to ensure their awareness on policies and procedures.
B. Provide the objectives for the security and privacy control assessments and a detailed roadmap of how to conduct such assessments.
C. Provide guidance on security requirements, to ensure the identi8ed security risks are properly addressed based on the recommendation.
D. Provide technical information to executives to help them understand information security postures and secure funding.
Correct Answer: B
What documentation is produced FIRST when performing an effective physical loss control process?
D. Inventory list
Correct Answer: C
Which organizational department is ultimately responsible for information governance related to e-mail and other e-records?
A. Legal
B. Audit
C. Compliance
D. Security
Correct Answer: A
A cloud service provider requires its customer organizations to enable maximum audit logging for its data storage service and to retain the logs
for the period of three months. The audit logging gene has extremely high amount of logs. What is the MOST appropriate strategy for the log
retention?
B. Keep last week's logs in an online storage and the rest in an oqine storage.
C. Keep last week's logs in an online storage and the rest in a near-line storage.
Correct Answer: B
In Federated Identity Management (FIM), which of the following represents the concept of federation?
A. Collection, maintenance, and deactivation of user objects and attributes in one or more systems, directories or applications
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following is an indicator that a company's new user security awareness training module has been effective?
Correct Answer: C
An organization is trying to secure instant messaging (IM) communications through its network perimeter. Which of the following is the MOST
signi8cant challenge?
Correct Answer: A
Using the cipher text and resultant cleartext message to derive the monoalphabetic cipher key is an example of which method of cryptanalytic
attack?
A. Known-plaintext attack
B. Ciphertext-only attack
C. Frequency analysis
D. Probable-plaintext attack
Correct Answer: A
C. requested funds are part of a shared funding pool with other areas.
D. expected risk to the organization does not exceed the funds allocated.
Correct Answer: B
A subscription service which provides power, climate control, raised eooring, and telephone wiring but NOT the computer and peripheral
equipment is BEST described as a:
A. cold site.
B. warm site.
C. hot site.
D. reciprocal site.
Correct Answer: B
An international trading organization that holds an International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001 certi8cation is seeking to outsource
their security monitoring to a managed security service provider (MSSP). The trading organization's security o[cer is tasked with drafting the
requirements that need to be included in the outsourcing contract. Which of the following MUST be included in the contract?
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following is the PRIMARY type of cryptography required to support non-repudiation of a digitally signed document?
A. Hashing
C. Symmetric
D. Asymmetric
Correct Answer: A
What is the MOST effective method to enhance security of a single sign-on (SSO) solution that interfaces with critical systems?
A. Two-factor authentication
Correct Answer: A
A. Honeypot
B. Antispam
C. Antivirus
D. Firewall
Correct Answer: A
When assessing web vulnerabilities, how can navigating the dark web add value to a penetration test?
B. The actual origin and tools used for the test can be hidden.
Correct Answer: C
The quality assurance (QA) department is short-staffed and is unable to test all modules before the anticipated release date of an application.
What security control is MOST likely to be violated?
A. Change management
B. Separation of environments
C. Program management
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following criteria ensures information is protected relative to its importance to the organization?
Correct Answer: A
What is the FIRST step when developing an Information Security Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) program?
A. Collect the security-related information required for metrics, assessments, and reporting.
B. Establish an ISCM program determining metrics, status monitoring frequencies, and control assessment frequencies.
Correct Answer: C
An organization has requested storage area network (SAN) disks for a new project. What Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) level
provides the BEST redundancy and fault tolerance?
A. RAID level 1
B. RAID level 3
C. RAID level 4
D. RAID level 5
Correct Answer: D
Compared to a traditional network, which of the following is a security-related bene8t that software-de8ned networking (SDN) provides?
Correct Answer: C
What is the MOST effective response to a hacker who has already gained access to a network and will attempt to pivot to other resources?
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following is a common term for log reviews, synthetic transactions, and code reviews?
A. Application development
Correct Answer: C
A database server for a 8nancial application is scheduled for production deployment. Which of the following controls will BEST prevent
tampering?
A. Data sanitization
B. Data validation
Correct Answer: B
The Industrial Control System (ICS) Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT) has released an alert regarding ICS-focused malware
speci8cally propagating through Windows-based business networks. Technicians at a local water utility note that their dams, canals, and locks
controlled by an internal Supervisory
Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) system have been malfunctioning. A digital forensics professional is consulted in the Incident Response
(IR) and recovery.
Which of the following is the MOST challenging aspect of this investigation?
D. Volatility of data
Correct Answer: C
What term is commonly used to describe hardware and software assets that are stored in a con8guration management database (CMDB)?
A. Con8guration item
B. Con8guration element
C. Ledger item
D. Asset register
Correct Answer: A
A company is planning to implement a private cloud infrastructure. Which of the following recommendations will support the move to a cloud
infrastructure?
A. Implement software-de8ned networking (SDN) to provide the ability to apply high-level policies to shape and reorder network tra[c based
on users, devices and applications.
B. Implement a virtual local area network (VLAN) for each department and create a separate subnet for each VLAN.
C. Implement software-de8ned networking (SDN) to provide the ability for the network infrastructure to be integrated with the control and data
planes.
D. Implement a virtual local area network (VLAN) to logically separate the local area network (LAN) from the physical switches.
Correct Answer: A
Which is MOST important when negotiating an Internet service provider (ISP) service-level agreement (SLA) by an organization that solely
provides Voice over
Internet Protocol (VoIP) services?
Correct Answer: B
A company hired an external vendor to perform a penetration test of a new payroll system. The company's internal test team had already
performed an in-depth application and security test of the system and determined that it met security requirements. However, the external vendor
uncovered signi8cant security weaknesses where sensitive personal data was being sent unencrypted to the tax processing systems. What is the
MOST likely cause of the security issues?
Correct Answer: B
An organization wants to de8ne as physical perimeter. What primary device should be used to accomplish this objective if the organization's
perimeter MUST cost- e[ciently deter casual trespassers?
D. Fences eight or more feet high with three strands of barbed wire
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following vulnerabilities can be BEST detected using automated analysis?
Correct Answer: D
A project manager for a large software 8rm has acquired a government contract that generates large amounts of Controlled Unclassi8ed
Information (CUI). The organization's information security manager had received a request to transfer project-related CUI between systems of
differing security classi8cations. What role provides the authoritative guidance for this transfer?
A. PM
B. Information owner
C. Data Custodian
D. Mission/Business Owner
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following determines how tra[c should eow based on the status of the infrastructure layer?
A. Control plane
B. Application plane
C. Tra[c plane
D. Data plane
Correct Answer: D
When testing password strength, which of the following is the BEST method for brute forcing passwords?
D. Conduct an online password attack until the account being used is locked.
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following is the name of an individual or group that is impacted by a change?
A. Change agent
B. End User
C. Stakeholder
D. Sponsor
Correct Answer: B
The European Union (EU) General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) requires organizations to implement appropriate technical and organizational
measures to ensure a level of security appropriate to the risk. The Data Owner should therefore consider which of the following requirements?
Correct Answer: B
What is the PRIMARY bene8t of incident reporting and computer crime investigations?
Correct Answer: C
A. Error correction
C. Segmentation
D. Compartmentalization
Correct Answer: C
What testing technique enables the designer to develop mitigation strategies for potential vulnerabilities?
B. Threat modeling
C. Penetration testing
Correct Answer: B
Assuming an individual has taken all of the steps to keep their internet connection private, which of the following is the BEST to browse the web
privately?
B. Prevent information about browsing activities from being stored on the personal device.
C. Prevent information about browsing activities from being stored in the cloud.
Correct Answer: C
A software engineer uses automated tools to review application code and search for application eaws, back doors, or other malicious code. Which
of the following is the FIRST Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) phase where this takes place?
A. Deployment
B. Development
C. Test
D. Design
Correct Answer: B
A company developed a web application which is sold as a Software as a Service (SaaS) solution to the customer. The application is hosted by a
web server running on a speci8c operating system (OS) on a virtual machine (VM). During the transition phase of the service, it is determined that
the support team will need access to the application logs. Which of the following privileges would be the MOST suitable?
Correct Answer: B
A security practitioner detects an Endpoint attack on the organization's network. What is the MOST reasonable approach to mitigate future
Endpoint attacks?
Correct Answer: C
Correct Answer: A
The security operations center (SOC) has received credible intelligence that a threat actor is planning to attack with multiple variants of a
destructive virus. After obtaining a sample set of this virus' variants and reverse engineering them to understand how they work, a commonality
was found. All variants are coded to write to a speci8c memory location. It is determined this virus is of no threat to the organization because they
had the foresight to enable what feature on all endpoints?
C. Virtualization
D. Process isolation
Correct Answer: A
The Chief Information Security O[cer (CISO) is to establish a single, centralized, and relational repository to hold all information regarding the
software and hardware assets. Which of the following s ions would be the BEST option?
Correct Answer: B
What type of investigation applies when malicious behavior is suspected between two organizations?
A. Regulatory
B. Operational
C. Civil
D. Criminal
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following techniques evaluates the secure design principles of network or software architectures?
A. Risk modeling
B. Waterfall method
C. Threat modeling
D. Fuzzing
Correct Answer: C
Which element of software supply chain management has the GREATEST security risk to organizations?
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following should be done at a disaster site before any item is removed, repaired, or replaced?
Correct Answer: D
When designing a new Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) network, an organization's top concern is preventing unauthorized users accessing the
VoIP network.
Which of the following will BEST help secure the VoIP network?
A. 802.11g
D. 802.1x
Correct Answer: C
A user's credential for an application is stored in a relational database. Which control protects the con8dentiality of the credential while it is
stored?
C. Allow only the application to have access to the password 8eld in order to verify user authentication.
D. Encrypt the entire database and embed an encryption key in the application.
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following frameworks provides vulnerability metrics and characteristics to support the National Vulnerability Database (NVD)?
Correct Answer: C
A security architect is reviewing plans for an application with a Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of 15 minutes. The current design has all of the
application infrastructure located within one co-location data center. Which security principle is the architect currently assessing?
B. Availability
C. Redundancy
Correct Answer: B
Which factors MUST be considered when classifying information and supporting assets for risk management, legal discovery, and compliance?
A. System owner roles and responsibilities, data handling standards, storage and secure development lifecycle requirements
B. Compliance o[ce roles and responsibilities, classi8ed material handling standards, storage system lifecycle requirements
C. Data stewardship roles, data handling and storage standards, data lifecycle requirements
D. System authorization roles and responsibilities, cloud computing standards, lifecycle requirements
Correct Answer: A
The Chief Information Security O[cer (CISO) of a small organization is making a case for building a security operations center (SOC). While
debating between an in-house, fully outsourced, or a hybrid capability, which of the following would be the MAIN consideration, regardless of the
model?
Correct Answer: B
An organization would like to ensure that all new users have a prede8ned departmental access template applied upon creation. The organization
would also like additional access for users to be granted on a per-project basis. What type of user access administration is BEST suited to meet
the organization's needs?
A. Decentralized
B. Hybrid
C. Centralized
D. Federated
Correct Answer: D
Correct Answer: C
What is the PRIMARY bene8t of relying on Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP)?
Correct Answer: A
What are the three key bene8ts that application developers should derive from the northbound application programming interface (API) of
software de8ned networking (SDN)?
Correct Answer: A
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following is the BEST approach to implement multiple servers on a virtual system?
A. Implement one primary function per virtual server and apply individual security con8guration for each virtual server.
B. Implement multiple functions within the same virtual server and apply individual security con8gurations to each function.
C. Implement one primary function per virtual server and apply high security con8guration on the host operating system.
D. Implement multiple functions per virtual server and apply the same security con8guration for each virtual server.
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following is the MOST common cause of system or security failures?
Correct Answer: B
The Chief Information O[cer (CIO) has decided that as part of business modernization efforts the organization will move towards a cloud
architecture. All business-critical data will be migrated to either internal or external cloud services within the next two years. The CIO has a
PRIMARY obligation to work with personnel in which role in order to ensure proper protection of data during and after the cloud migration?
B. Information owner
D. General Counsel
Correct Answer: C
A developer is creating an application that requires secure logging of all user activity. What is the BEST permission the developer should assign to
the log 8le to ensure requirements are met?
A. Execute
B. Read
C. Write
D. Append
Correct Answer: C
When performing an investigation with the potential for legal action, what should be the analyst's FIRST consideration?
A. Data decryption
B. Chain-of-custody
C. Authorization to collect
D. Court admissibility
Correct Answer: B
Building blocks for software-de8ned networks (SDN) require which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
What is the MINIMUM standard for testing a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?
A. Quarterly or more frequently depending upon the advice of the information security manager
B. As often as necessary depending upon the stability of the environment and business requirements
Correct Answer: D
Which security audit standard provides the BEST way for an organization to understand a vendor's Information Systems (IS) in relation to
con8dentiality, integrity, and availability?
Correct Answer: D
An application team is running tests to ensure that user entry 8elds will not accept invalid input of any length. What type of negative testing is this
an example of?
C. Reasonable data
D. Session testing
Correct Answer: B
An organization is considering partnering with a third-party supplier of cloud services. The organization will only be providing the data and the
third-party supplier will be providing the security controls. Which of the following BEST describes this service offering?
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following factors should be considered characteristics of Attribute Based Access Control (ABAC) in terms of the attributes used?
C. Role Based Access Control (RBAC) and Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
D. Role Based Access Control (RBAC) and Access Control List (ACL)
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following is the MOST signi8cant key management problem due to the number of keys created?
Correct Answer: C
Systems Security Professional (CISSP) with identity and access management (IAM) responsibilities is asked by the Chief Information Security
O[cer (CISO) to perform a vulnerability assessment on a web application to pass a Payment Card Industry (PCI) audit. The CISSP has never
performed this before. According to the (ISC)
Code of Professional Ethics, which of the following should the CISSP do?
A. Inform the CISO that they are unable to perform the task because they should render only those services for which they are fully competent
and quali8ed
B. Since they are CISSP certi8ed, they have enough knowledge to assist with the request, but will need assistance in order to complete it in a
timely manner
C. Review the CISSP guidelines for performing a vulnerability assessment before proceeding to complete it
Correct Answer: A
While performing a security review for a new product, an information security professional discovers that the organization's product development
team is proposing to collect government-issued identi8cation (ID) numbers from customers to use as unique customer identi8ers. Which of the
following recommendations should be made to the product development team?
C. Customer identi8ers that do not resemble the user's government-issued ID number should be used.
D. Customer identi8ers should be a variant of the user's name, for example, "jdoe" or "john.doe."
Correct Answer: B
The development team has been tasked with collecting data from biometric devices. The application will support a variety of collection data
streams. During the testing phase, the team utilizes data from an old production database in a secure testing environment. What principle has the
team taken into consideration?
Correct Answer: A
Information security practitioners are in the midst of implementing a new 8rewall. Which of the following failure methods would BEST prioritize
security in the event of failure?
A. Failover
B. Fail-Closed
C. Fail-Safe
D. Fail-Open
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following services can be deployed via a cloud service or on-premises to integrate with Identity as a Service (IDaaS) as the
authoritative source of user identities?
B. Directory
C. User database
Correct Answer: B
A. SSH supports port forwarding, which can be used to protect less secured protocols.
D. SSH can be used with almost any application because it is concerned with maintaining a circuit.
Correct Answer: A
What is considered a compensating control for not having electrical surge protectors installed?
Correct Answer: B
Correct Answer: C
Correct Answer: A
A. Pipe
B. Memory
C. Storage
D. Monitoring
Correct Answer: D
A software developer wishes to write code that will execute safely and only as intended. Which of the following programming language types is
MOST likely to achieve this goal?
A. Weakly typed
B. Dynamically typed
C. Strongly typed
D. Statically typed
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following roles is responsible for ensuring that important datasets are developed, maintained, and are accessible within their de8ned
speci8cations?
A. Data Custodian
B. Data Reviewer
C. Data User
D. Data Owner
Correct Answer: D
A. Search the documents and 8les associated with the executable 8le.
B. Analyze the position of the 8le in the 8le system and the executable 8le's libraries.
C. Collect evidence of the executable 8le's usage, including dates of creation and last use.
D. Disassemble the 8le to gather information about the executable 8le's function.
Correct Answer: B
A network security engineer needs to ensure that a security solution analyzes tra[c for protocol manipulation and various sorts of common
attacks. In addition, all
Uniform Resource Locator (URL) tra[c must be inspected and users prevented from browsing inappropriate websites. Which of the following
solutions should be implemented to enable administrators the capability to analyze tra[c, blacklist external sites, and log user tra[c for later
analysis?
A. Application-Level Proxy
C. Host-based Firewall
D. Circuit-Level Proxy
Correct Answer: A
What is the PRIMARY consideration when testing industrial control systems (ICS) for security weaknesses?
Correct Answer: C
The security team plans on using automated account reconciliation in the corporate user access review process. Which of the following must be
implemented for the BEST results with fewest errors when running the audit?
A. Frequent audits
Correct Answer: D
In the common criteria, which of the following is a formal document that expresses an implementation-independent set of security requirements?
Correct Answer: C
C. Data in transit has been compromised when the user has authenticated to the device.
D. Data at rest has been compromised when the user has authenticated to the device.
Correct Answer: D
What is the FIRST step in reducing the exposure of a network to Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) based attacks?
Correct Answer: D
A large organization's human resources and security teams are planning on implementing technology to eliminate manual user access reviews
and improve compliance. Which of the following options is MOST likely to resolve the issues associated with user access?
Correct Answer: C
A cloud service accepts Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) assertions from users to exchange authentication and authorization data
between security domains. However, an attacker was able to spoof a registered account on the network and query the SAML provider. What is the
MOST common attack leveraged against this eaw?
D. Attacker conducts denial-of-service (DoS) against the security domain by authenticating as the same user repeatedly.
Correct Answer: B
An organization is implementing security review as part of system development. Which of the following is the BEST technique to follow?
Correct Answer: A
What Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) response header can be used to disable the execution of inline JavaScript and the execution of eval()-
type functions?
A. X-XSS-Protection
B. Content-Security-Policy
C. X-Frame-Options
D. Strict-Transport-Security
Correct Answer: C
A security professional was tasked with rebuilding a company's wireless infrastructure. Which of the following are the MOST important factors to
consider while making a decision on which wireless spectrum to deploy?
Correct Answer: B
A software development company has a short timeline in which to deliver a software product. The software development team decides to use
open-source software libraries to reduce the development time. What concept should software developers consider when using open-source
software libraries?
A. Open source libraries contain known vulnerabilities, and adversaries regularly exploit those vulnerabilities in the wild.
B. Open source libraries can be used by everyone, and there is a common understanding that the vulnerabilities in these libraries will not be
exploited.
C. Open source libraries contain unknown vulnerabilities, so they should not be used.
D. Open source libraries are constantly updated, making it unlikely that a vulnerability exists for an adversary to exploit.
Correct Answer: A
A security engineer is assigned to work with the patch and vulnerability management group. The deployment of a new patch has been approved
and needs to be applied. The research is complete, and the security engineer has provided recommendations. Where should the patch be applied
FIRST?
A. Lower environment
B. Desktop environment
C. Server environment
D. Production environment
Correct Answer: A
Correct Answer: C
Why is it important that senior management clearly communicates the formal Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD) decision?
A. To provide each manager with precise direction on selecting an appropriate recovery alternative
B. To demonstrate to the board of directors that senior management is committed to continuity recovery efforts
C. To provide a formal declaration from senior management as required by internal audit to demonstrate sound business practices
D. To demonstrate to the regulatory bodies that the company takes business continuity seriously
Correct Answer: D
A Simple Power Analysis (SPA) attack against a device directly observes which of the following?
A. Magnetism
B. Generation
C. Consumption
D. Static discharge
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following MUST the administrator of a security information and event management (SIEM) system ensure?
B. All sources are reporting in the exact same Extensible Markup Language (XML) format.
D. Each source uses the same Internet Protocol (IP) address for reporting.
Correct Answer: A
An organization wants to share data securely with their partners via the Internet. Which standard port is typically used to meet this requirement?
Correct Answer: C
When designing a business continuity plan (BCP), what is the formula to determine the Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)?
Correct Answer: D
In systems security engineering, what does the security principle of modularity provide?
B. Documentation of functions
Correct Answer: C
Correct Answer: D
An access control list (ACL) on a router is a feature MOST similar to which type of 8rewall?
A. Stateful 8rewall
D. Heuristic 8rewall
Correct Answer: B
While dealing with the consequences of a security incident, which of the following security controls are MOST appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
A cloud hosting provider would like to provide a Service Organization Control (SOC) report relevant to its security program. This report should an
abbreviated report that can be freely distributed. Which type of report BEST meets this requirement?
A. SOC 1
B. SOC 2 Type 1
C. SOC 2 Type 2
D. SOC 3
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following is TRUE for an organization that is using a third-party federated identity service?
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following describes the BEST method of maintaining the inventory of software and hardware within the organization?
A. Maintaining the inventory through a combination of asset owner interviews, open-source system management, and open-source
management tools
B. Maintaining the inventory through a combination of desktop con8guration, administration management, and procurement management
tools
C. Maintaining the inventory through a combination of on premise storage con8guration, cloud management, and partner management tools
D. Maintaining the inventory through a combination of system con8guration, network management, and license management tools
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following outsourcing agreement provisions has the HIGHEST priority from a security operations perspective?
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive Business Continuity (BC) test?
A. Full interruption
B. Full simulation
Correct Answer: A
A security practitioner needs to implement a solution to verify endpoint security protections and operating system (OS) versions. Which of the
following is the
BEST solution to implement?
D. A 8rewall
Correct Answer: B
During an internal audit of an organizational Information Security Management System (ISMS), nonconformities are identi8ed. In which of the
following management stages are nonconformities reviewed, assessed and/or corrected by the organization?
A. Assessment
B. Planning
C. Improvement
D. Operation
Correct Answer: D
When developing an external facing web-based system, which of the following would be the MAIN focus of the security assessment prior to
implementation and production?
A. Ensuring Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) certi8cates are signed by a certi8cate authority
Correct Answer: A
A 8nancial services organization has employed a security consultant to review processes used by employees across various teams. The
consultant interviewed a member of the application development practice and found gaps in their threat model. Which of the following correctly
represents a trigger for when a threat model should be revised?
Correct Answer: D
The Chief Information Security O[cer (CISO) of an organization has requested that a Service Organization Control (SOC) report be created to
outline the security and availability of a particular system over a 12-month period. Which type of SOC report should be utilized?
A. SOC 1 Type 1
B. SOC 1 Type 2
C. SOC 2 Type 2
D. SOC 3 Type 1
Correct Answer: C
An organization recently upgraded to a Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) phone system. Management is concerned with unauthorized phone
usage. The security consultant is responsible for putting together a plan to secure these phones. Administrators have assigned unique personal
identi8cation number (PIN) codes for each person in the organization. What is the BEST solution?
A. Have the administrator enforce a policy to change the PIN regularly. Implement call detail records (CDR) reports to track usage.
B. Have the administrator change the PIN regularly. Implement call detail records (CDR) reports to track usage.
C. Use phone locking software to enforce usage and PIN policies. Inform the user to change the PIN regularly.
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following protection is provided when using a Virtual Private Network (VPN) with Authentication Header (AH)?
A. Sender non-repudiation
C. Payload encryption
D. Sender con8dentiality
Correct Answer: A
An organization contracts with a consultant to perform a System Organization Control (SOC) 2 audit on their internal security controls. An auditor
documents a 8nding a related to an Application Programming Interface (API) performing an action that is not aligned with the scope or objective
of the system. Which trust service principle would be MOST applicable in th is situation?
A. Con8dentiality
B. Processing Integrity
C. Security
D. Availability
Correct Answer: B
In which process MUST security be considered during the acquisition of new software?
B. Implementation
C. Vendor selection
D. Contract negotiation
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following is the MAIN difference between a network-based 8rewall and a host-based 8rewall?
B. A network-based 8rewall blocks network intrusions, while a host-based 8rewall blocks malware.
C. A network-based 8rewall controls tra[c passing through the device, while a host-based 8rewall controls tra[c destined for the device.
D. A network-based 8rewall veri8es network tra[c, while a host-based 8rewall veri8es processes and applications.
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following measures serves as the BEST means for protecting data on computers, smartphones, and external storage devices when
traveling to high- risk countries?
A. Review applicable destination country laws, forensically clean devices prior to travel, and only download sensitive data over a virtual private
network (VPN) upon arriving at the destination.
B. Leverage a Secure Socket Layer (SSL) connection over a virtual private network (VPN) to download sensitive data upon arriving at the
destination.
C. Keep laptops, external storage devices, and smartphones in the hotel room when not in use.
D. Use multi-factor authentication (MFA) to gain access to data stored on laptops or external storage devices and biometric 8ngerprint access
control mechanisms to unlock smartphones.
Correct Answer: D
When network management is outsourced to third parties, which of the following is the MOST effective method of protecting critical data assets?
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following regulations dictates how data breaches are handled?
C. Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX)
Correct Answer: D
In software development, developers should use which type of queries to prevent a Structured Query Language (SQL) injection?
A. Parameterised
B. Controlled
C. Dynamic
D. Static
Correct Answer: A
Which type of access control includes a system that allows only users that are type=managers and department=sales to access employee
records?
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following examples is BEST to minimize the attack surface for a customer's private information?
A. Data masking
B. Authentication
C. Obfuscation
D. Collection limitation
Correct Answer: D
Which evidence collecting technique would be utilized when it is believed an attacker is employing a rootkit and a quick analysis is needed?
B. Live response
C. Memory collection
D. Malware analysis
Correct Answer: C
An application is used for funds transfers between an organization and a third-party. During a security audit, an auditor has found an issue with
the business continuity disaster recovery policy and procedures for this application. Which of the following reports should the auditor 8le with the
organization?
Correct Answer: C
When determining data and information asset handling, regardless of the speci8c toolset being used, which of the following is one of the common
components of big data?
Correct Answer: C
A Chief Information Security O[cer (CISO) of a 8rm which decided to migrate to cloud has been tasked with ensuring an optimal level of security.
Which of the following would be the FIRST consideration?
A. Analyze the 8rm's applications and data repositories to determine the relevant control requirements.
B. Request a security risk assessment of the cloud vendor be completed by an independent third-party.
C. De8ne the cloud migration roadmap and set out which applications and data repositories should be moved into the cloud.
D. Ensure that the contract between the cloud vendor and the 8rm clearly de8nes responsibilities for operating security controls.
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)?
A. Provide Routing Information Protocol (RIP) version 2 advertisements to neighboring layer 3 devices.
Correct Answer: D
Correct Answer: D
The security organization is looking for a solution that could help them determine with a strong level of con8dence that attackers have breached
their network.
Which solution is MOST effective at discovering a successful network breach?
A. Developing a sandbox
C. Deploying a honeypot
Correct Answer: C
B. When the data is being viewed, it can only be printed by authorized users.
C. When the data is being viewed, it can be accessed using secure protocols.
Correct Answer: B
When con8guring Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) in a Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) network, which of the following authentication
types is the
MOST secure?
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following would be the BEST guideline to follow when attempting to avoid the exposure of sensitive data?
Correct Answer: D
An organization with divisions in the United States (US) and the United Kingdom (UK) processes data comprised of personal information
belonging to subjects living in the European Union (EU) and in the US. Which data MUST be handled according to the privacy protections of
General Data Protection Regulation
(GDPR)?
Correct Answer: D
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following is the MOST effective measure for dealing with rootkit attacks?
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following is the FIRST requirement a data owner should consider before implementing a data retention policy?
A. Storage
B. Training
C. Legal
D. Business
Correct Answer: C
A new employee formally reported suspicious behavior to the organization security team. The report claims that someone not a[liated with the
organization was inquiring about the member's work location, length of employment, and building access controls. The employee's reporting is
MOST likely the result of which of the following?
A. Security engineering
B. Security awareness
C. Phishing
D. Risk avoidance
Correct Answer: C
C. plan maintenance
Correct Answer: A
An organization has determined that its previous waterfall approach to software development is not keeping pace with business demands. To
adapt to the rapid changes required for product delivery, the organization has decided to move towards an Agile software development and
release cycle. In order to ensure the success of the Agile methodology, who is the MOST critical in creating acceptance criteria for each release?
A. Business customers
B. Software developers
C. Independent testers
D. Project managers
Correct Answer: C
What is the FIRST step for an organization to take before allowing personnel to access social media from a corporate device or user account?
Correct Answer: A
A hospital has allowed virtual private networking (VPN) access to remote database developers. Upon auditing the internal con8guration, the
network administrator discovered that split-tunneling was enabled. What is the concern with this con8guration?
A. The network intrusion detection system (NIDS) will fail to inspect Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) tra[c.
C. Remote clients are permitted to exchange tra[c with the public and private network.
D. Multiple Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) tunnels may be exploitable in speci8c circumstances.
Correct Answer: C
In an IDEAL encryption system, who has sole access to the decryption key?
A. Data custodian
B. System owner
C. System administrator
D. Data owner
Correct Answer: D
Which type of disaster recovery plan (DRP) testing carries the MOST operational risk?
A. Cutover
B. Parallel
C. Walkthrough
D. Tabletop
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following methods provides the MOST protection for user credentials?
A. Forms-based authentication
B. Self-registration
C. Basic authentication
D. Digest authentication
Correct Answer: A
An organization is planning a penetration test that simulates the malicious actions of a former network administrator. What kind of penetration
test is needed?
A. Functional test
B. Unit test
C. Grey box
D. White box
Correct Answer: D
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following is the FIRST step an organization's professional performs when de8ning a cyber-security program based upon industry
standards?
C. Map the organization's current security practices to industry standards and frameworks
Correct Answer: C
What is the MOST important criterion that needs to be adhered to during the data collection process of an active investigation?
Correct Answer: A
Two computers, each with a single connection on the same physical 10 gigabit Ethernet network segment, need to communicate with each other.
The 8rst machine has a single Internet Protocol (IP) Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) address of 192.168.1.3/30 and the second machine
has an IP/CIDR address
192.168.1.6/30. Which of the following is correct?
A. Since each computer is on a different layer 3 network, tra[c between the computers must be processed by a network bridge in order to
communicate
B. Since each computer is on the same layer 3 network, tra[c between the computers may be processed by a network router in order to
communicate
C. Since each computer is on the same layer 3 network, tra[c between the computers may be processed by a network bridge in order to
communicate
D. Since each computer is on a different layer 3 network, tra[c between the computers must be processed by a network router in order to
communicate
Correct Answer: B
Security Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) expects application code to be written in a consistent manner to allow ease of auditing and
which of the following?
A. Protecting
B. Copying
C. Enhancing
D. Executing
Correct Answer: A
C. A two-dimensional picture of risk for organizations, products, projects, or other items of interest.
Correct Answer: A
What part of an organization's strategic risk assessment MOST likely includes information on items affecting the success of the organization?
A. Threat analysis
B. Vulnerability analysis
Correct Answer: A
A company needs to provide employee access to travel services, which are hosted by a third-party service provider. Employee experience is
important, and when users are already authenticated, access to the travel portal is seamless. Which of the following methods is used to share
information and grant user access to the travel portal?
D. Federated access
Correct Answer: D
The Chief Executive O[cer (CEO) wants to implement an internal audit of the company's information security posture. The CEO wants to avoid any
bias in the audit process; therefore, has assigned the Sales Director to conduct the audit. After signi8cant interaction over a period of weeks the
audit concludes that the company's policies and procedures are su[cient, robust and well established. The CEO then moves on to engage an
external penetration testing company in order to showcase the organization's robust information security stance. This exercise reveals signi8cant
failings in several critical security controls and shows that the incident response processes remain undocumented. What is the MOST likely
reason for this disparity in the results of the audit and the external penetration test?
A. The audit team lacked the technical experience and training to make insightful and objective assessments of the data provided to them.
B. The scope of the penetration test exercise and the internal audit were signi8cantly different.
C. The external penetration testing company used custom zero-day attacks that could not have been predicted.
D. The information technology (IT) and governance teams have failed to disclose relevant information to the internal audit team leading to an
incomplete assessment being formulated.
Correct Answer: A
An information security administrator wishes to block peer-to-peer (P2P) tra[c over Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) tunnels. Which of the
following layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model requires inspection?
A. Application
B. Transport
C. Session
D. Presentation
Correct Answer: A
A Chief Information O[cer (CIO) has delegated responsibility of their system security to the head of the information technology (IT) department.
While corporate policy dictates that only the CIO can make decisions on the level of data protection required, technical implementation decisions
are done by the head of the IT department. Which of the following BEST describes the security role 8lled by the head of the IT department?
B. System processor
C. System custodian
D. System analyst
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following actions should be undertaken prior to deciding on a physical baseline Protection Pro8le (PP)?
D. Categorize assets.
Correct Answer: A
Management has decided that a core application will be used on personal cellular phones. As an implementation requirement, regularly scheduled
analysis of the security posture needs to be conducted. Management has also directed that continuous monitoring be implemented. Which of the
following is required to accomplish management's directive?
A. Routine reports generated by the user's cellular phone provider that detail security events
B. Strict integration of application management, con8guration management (CM), and phone management
C. Management application installed on user phones that tracks all application events and cellular tra[c
D. Enterprise-level security information and event management (SIEM) dashboard that provides full visibility of cellular phone activity
Correct Answer: C
A systems engineer is designing a wide area network (WAN) environment for a new organization. The WAN will connect sites holding information
at various levels of sensitivity, from publicly available to highly con8dential. The organization requires a high degree of interconnectedness to
support existing business processes.
What is the BEST design approach to securing this environment?
A. Use reverse proxies to create a secondary "shadow" environment for critical systems.
B. Place 8rewalls around critical devices, isolating them from the rest of the environment.
D. Align risk across all interconnected elements to ensure critical threats are detected and handled.
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following techniques is MOST useful when dealing with advanced persistent threat (APT) intrusions on live virtualized environments?
A. Memory forensics
B. Log8le analysis
C. Reverse engineering
D. Antivirus operations
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following types of web-based attack is happening when an attacker is able to send a well-crafted, malicious request to an
authenticated user realizing it?
A. Process injection
Correct Answer: B
A scan report returned multiple vulnerabilities affecting several production servers that are mission critical. Attempts to apply the patches in the
development environment have caused the servers to crash. What is the BEST course of action?
Correct Answer: A
A security professional has reviewed a recent site assessment and has noted that a server room on the second eoor of a building has Heating,
Ventilation, and Air
Conditioning (HVAC) intakes on the ground level that have ultraviolet light 8 lters installed, Aero-K Fire suppression in the server room, and pre-
action 8re suppression on eoors above the server room. Which of the following changes can the security professional recommend to reduce risk
associated with these conditions?
A. Remove the ultraviolet light 8lters on the HVAC intake and replace the 8re suppression system on the upper eoors with a dry system
B. Elevate the HVAC intake by constructing a plenum or external shaft over it and convert the server room 8re suppression to a pre-action
system
C. Add additional ultraviolet light 8 lters to the HVAC intake supply and return ducts and change server room 8re suppression to FM-200
D. Apply additional physical security around the HVAC intakes and update upper eoor 8re suppression to FM-200
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following is the MOST common use of the Online Certi8cate Status Protocol (OCSP)?
Correct Answer: C
A security professional has been assigned to assess a web application. The assessment report recommends switching to Security Assertion
Markup Language
(SAML). What is the PRIMARY security bene8t in switching to SAML?
Correct Answer: A
An organization purchased a commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) software several years ago. The information technology (IT) Director has decided to
migrate the application into the cloud, but is concerned about the application security of the software in the organization's dedicated environment
with a cloud service provider.
What is the BEST way to prevent and correct the software's security weaknesses?
Correct Answer: B
What type of database attack would allow a customer service employee to determine quarterly sales results before they are publicly announced?
A. Inference
B. Aggregation
C. Polyinstantiation
D. Data mining
Correct Answer: A
In a multi-tenant cloud environment, what approach will secure logical access to assets?
D. Hybrid cloud
Correct Answer: C
An information technology (IT) employee who travels frequently to various countries remotely connects to an organization's resources to
troubleshoot problems.
Which of the following solutions BEST serves as a secure control mechanism to meet the organization's requirements?
A. Install a third-party screen sharing solution that provides remote connection from a public website.
B. Install a bastion host in the demilitarized zone (DMZ) and allow multi-factor authentication (MFA) access.
C. Implement a Dynamic Domain Name Services (DONS) account to initiate a virtual private network (VPN) using the DONS record.
D. Update the 8rewall rules to include the static Internet Protocol (IP) addresses of the locations where the employee connects from.
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the success of a patch management process?
A. Change management
Correct Answer: C
An organization has discovered that organizational data is posted by employees to data storage accessible to the general public. What is the
PRIMARY step an organization must take to ensure data is properly protected from public release?
Correct Answer: C
A security engineer is required to integrate security into a software project that is implemented by small groups that quickly, continuously, and
independently develop, test, and deploy code to the cloud. The engineer will MOST likely integrate with which software development process?
D. Spiral Methodology
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following is the BEST method to identify security controls that should be implemented for a web-based application while in
development?
D. Penetration testing
Correct Answer: C
Which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) layer(s) BEST corresponds to the network access layer in the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet
Protocol (TCP/
IP) model?
C. Transport Layer
Correct Answer: B
An organization's retail website provides its only source of revenue, so the disaster recovery plan (DRP) must document an estimated time for
each step in the plan. Which of the following steps in the DRP will list the GREATEST duration of time for the service to be fully operational?
B. Update Domain Name System (DNS) server addresses with domain registrar.
Correct Answer: B
In supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) systems, which of the following controls can be used to reduce device exposure to malware?
C. Disable Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) port 138 and 139 on the SCADA device.
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following secure transport protocols is often used to secure Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) communications on a network from
end to end?
Correct Answer: D
A healthcare insurance organization chose a vendor to develop a software application. Upon review of the draft contract, the information security
professional notices that software security is not addressed. What is the BEST approach to address the issue?
A. Update the contract to require the vendor to perform security code reviews.
B. Update the service level agreement (SLA) to provide the organization the right to audit the vendor.
C. Update the contract so that the vendor is obligated to provide security capabilities.
D. Update the service level agreement (SLA) to require the vendor to provide security capabilities.
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following security tools will ensure authorized data is sent to the application when implementing a cloud-based application?
Correct Answer: A
A client server infrastructure that provides user-to-server authentication describes which one of the following?
B. User-based authorization
C. Kerberos
D. X.509
Correct Answer: B
A system developer has a requirement for an application to check for a secure digital signature before the application is accessed on a user's
laptop. Which security mechanism addresses this requirement?
C. Key exchange
D. Hardware encryption
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following is a term used to describe maintaining ongoing awareness of information security, vulnerabilities, and threats to support
organizational risk management decisions?
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following types of 8rewall only examines the "handshaking" between packets before forwarding tra[c?
A. Proxy 8rewalls
B. Circuit-level 8rewalls
D. Host-based 8rewalls
Correct Answer: C
Correct Answer: D
An organization has developed a way for customers to share information from their wearable devices with each other. Unfortunately, the users
were not informed as to what information collected would be shared. What technical controls should be put in place to remedy the privacy issue
while still trying to accomplish the organization's business goals?
Correct Answer: C
A. Security perimeter
C. Trusted domain
D. Reference monitor
Correct Answer: D
In setting expectations when reviewing the results of a security test, which of the following statements is MOST important to convey to reviewers?
A. The accuracy of testing results can be greatly improved if the target(s) are properly hardened.
Correct Answer: C
What is the bene8t of an operating system (OS) feature that is designed to prevent an application from executing code from a non-executable
memory region?
Correct Answer: B
Correct Answer: B
A. Disk mirroring of the web server with redundant disk drives in a hardened data center
B. Disk striping of the web server hard drives and large amounts of bandwidth
C. Multiple geographically dispersed web servers that are con8gured for failover
D. Multiple Domain Name System (DNS) entries resolving to the same web server and large amounts of bandwidth
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following is an important design feature for the outer door of a mantrap?
D. Allow it be opened when the inner door of the mantrap is also open.
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following is the MOST important rule for digital investigations?
Correct Answer: A
An information security professional is reviewing user access controls on a customer-facing application. The application must have multi-factor
authentication
(MFA) in place. The application currently requires a username and password to login. Which of the following options would BEST implement MFA?
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following is a MAJOR consideration in implementing a Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) network?
Correct Answer: D
During testing, where are the requirements to inform parent organizations, law enforcement, and a computer incident response team documented?
Correct Answer: A
The security architect has been mandated to assess the security of various brands of mobile devices. At what phase of the product lifecycle
would this be MOST likely to occur?
A. Implementation
C. Disposal
D. Development
Correct Answer: D
A. International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001 compliance speci8es which information assets must be included in asset
inventory.
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following attack types can be used to compromise the integrity of data during transmission?
A. Synchronization eooding
B. Session hijacking
C. Keylogging
D. Packet sni[ng
Correct Answer: D
A malicious user gains access to unprotected directories on a web server. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause for this information
disclosure?
B. Security miscon8guration
Correct Answer: B
When reviewing the security logs, the password shown for an administrative login event was ' OR ' '1'='1' --. This is an example of which of the
following kinds of attack?
Correct Answer: A
Which is the BEST control to meet the Statement on Standards for Attestation Engagements 18 (SSAE-18) con8dentiality category?
A. File hashing
B. Storage encryption
D. Data processing
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following BEST describes why software assurance is critical in helping prevent an increase in business and mission risk for an
organization?
A. Request for proposals (RFP) avoid purchasing software that does not meet business needs.
B. Contracting processes eliminate liability for security vulnerabilities for the purchaser.
D. Software that does not perform as intended may be exploitable which makes it vulnerable to attack.
Correct Answer: A
An employee's home address should be categorized according to which of the following references?
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following activities should a forensic examiner perform FIRST when determining the priority of digital evidence collection at a crime
scene?
Correct Answer: B
Which software de8ned networking (SDN) architectural component is responsible for translating network requirements?
A. SDN Controller
B. SDN Datapath
D. SDN Application
Correct Answer: C
An internal audit for an organization recently identi8ed malicious actions by a user account. Upon further investigation, it was determined the
offending user account was used by multiple people at multiple locations simultaneously for various services and applications. What is the BEST
method to prevent this problem in the future?
C. Ensure the security information and event management (SIEM) is set to alert.
D. Inform users only one user should be using the account at a time.
Correct Answer: C
Who should perform the design review to uncover security design eaws as part of the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?
Correct Answer: A
The initial security categorization should be done early in the system life cycle and should be reviewed periodically. Why is it important for this to
be done correctly?
Correct Answer: C
When designing a Cyber-Physical System (CPS), which of the following should be a security practitioner's 8rst consideration?
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following events prompts a review of the disaster recovery plan (DRP)?
C. Organizational merger
Correct Answer: C
A user is allowed to access the 8le labeled "Financial Forecast," but only between 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m., Monday through Friday. Which type of
access mechanism should be used to accomplish this?
Correct Answer: B
B. NAC supports validation of the endpoint's security posture prior to allowing the session to go into an authorized state.
C. NAC can require the use of certi8cates, passwords, or a combination of both before allowing network admission.
D. Operating system (OS) versions can be validated prior to allowing network access.
Correct Answer: C
Correct Answer: A
An established information technology (IT) consulting 8rm is considering acquiring a successful local startup. To gain a comprehensive
understanding of the startup's security posture, which type of assessment provides the BEST information?
A. A security audit
B. A tabletop exercise
C. A penetration test
Correct Answer: A
An organization plans to acquire a commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) system to replace their aging home-built reporting system. When should the
organization's security team FIRST get involved in this acquisition's life cycle?
B. When the need for a system is expressed and the purpose of the system is documented
D. When the system is being designed, purchased, programmed, developed, or otherwise constructed
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following is a PRIMARY security weakness in the design of Domain Name System (DNS)?
A. Each DNS server must hold the address of the root servers.
Correct Answer: B
To minimize the vulnerabilities of a web-based application, which of the following FIRST actions will lock down the system and minimize the risk
of an attack?
Correct Answer: A
An organization has implemented a password complexity and an account lockout policy enforcing 8ve incorrect logins tries within ten minutes.
Network users have reported signi8cantly increased account lockouts. Which of the following security principles is this company affecting?
A. Con8dentiality
B. Integrity
C. Availability
D. Authentication
Correct Answer: C
In the last 15 years a company has experienced three electrical failures. The cost associated with each failure is listed below. Which of the
following would be a reasonable annual loss expectation?
A. 3,500
B. 140,000
C. 14,000
D. 350,000
Correct Answer: A
A security practitioner has been asked to model best practices for disaster recovery (DR) and business continuity. The practitioner has decided
that a formal committee is needed to establish a business continuity policy. Which of the following BEST describes this stage of business
continuity development?
Correct Answer: D
Correct Answer: B
A. Network-based data loss prevention (DLP), Network Access Control (NAC), network-based Intrusion prevention system (NIPS), Port security
on core switches
B. Host-based data loss prevention (DLP), Endpoint anti-malware solution, Host-based integrity checker, Laptop locks, hard disk drive (HDD)
encryption
C. Endpoint security management, network intrusion detection system (NIDS), Network Access Control (NAC), Privileged Access Management
(PAM), security information and event management (SIEM)
D. Web application 8rewall (WAF), Gateway network device tuning, Database 8rewall, Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW), Tier-2 demilitarized
zone (DMZ) tuning
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following is required to verify the authenticity of a digitally signed document?
Correct Answer: B
Correct Answer: C
Where can the Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) list of associated vulnerabilities be found?
Correct Answer: D
Employee training, risk management, and data handling procedures and policies could be characterized as which type of security measure?
A. Preventative
B. Management
C. Non-essential
D. Administrative
Correct Answer: D
A hospital's building controls system monitors and operates the environmental equipment to maintain a safe and comfortable environment. Which
of the following could be used to minimize the risk of utility supply interruption?
A. Digital protection and control devices capable of minimizing the adverse impact to critical utility
B. Standardized building controls system software with high connectivity to hospital networks
C. Lock out maintenance personnel from the building controls system access that can impact critical utility supplies
D. Digital devices that can turn equipment off and continuously cycle rapidly in order to increase supplies and conceal activity on the hospital
network
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following statements BEST distinguishes a stateful packet inspection 8rewall from a stateless packet 8lter 8rewall?
B. The SPI inspects the eags on Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) packets.
Correct Answer: C
C. To determine the critical resources required to recover from an incident within a speci8ed time period
D. To determine the effect of mission-critical information system failures on core business processes
Correct Answer: D
Which algorithm gets its security from the di[culty of calculating discrete logarithms in a 8nite 8eld and is used to distribute keys, but cannot be
used to encrypt or decrypt messages?
A. Kerberos
C. Di[e-Hellman
D. Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA)
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following is established to collect information in accordance with pre-established metrics, utilizing information readily available in
part through implemented security controls?
Correct Answer: C
When conducting a remote access session using Internet Protocol Security (IPSec), which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer does
this connection use?
A. Presentation
B. Transport
C. Network
D. Data link
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following is the MOST effective corrective control to minimize the effects of a physical intrusion?
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following are the three MAIN categories of security controls?
Correct Answer: B
Which is the PRIMARY mechanism for providing the workforce with the information needed to protect an agency's vital information resources?
A. Implementation of access provisioning process for coordinating the creation of user accounts
B. Incorporating security awareness and training as part of the overall information security program
C. An information technology (IT) security policy to preserve the con8dentiality, integrity, and availability of systems
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following is considered the FIRST step when designing an internal security control assessment?
Correct Answer: B
The Open Web Application Security Project's (OWASP) Software Assurance Maturity Model (SAMM) allows organizations to implement a eexible
software security strategy to measure organizational impact based on what risk management aspect?
A. Risk exception
B. Risk tolerance
C. Risk treatment
D. Risk response
Correct Answer: D
DRAG DROP -
Match the roles for an external audit to the appropriate responsibilities. Drag each role on the left to its corresponding responsibility on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Question #347 Topic 1
What is the PRIMARY reason that a bit-level copy is more desirable than a 8le-level copy when replicating a hard drives contents for an e-discovery
investigation?
Correct Answer: B
An organization outgrew its internal data center and is evaluating third-party hosting facilities. In this evaluation, which of the following is a
PRIMARY factor for selection?
Correct Answer: D
A large manufacturing organization arranges to buy an industrial machine system to produce a new line of products. The system includes
software provided to the vendor by a third-party organization. The 8nancial risk to the manufacturing organization starting production is high.
What step should the manufacturing organization take to minimize its 8nancial risk in the new venture prior to the purchase?
A. Require that the software be thoroughly tested by an accredited independent software testing company.
C. Calculate the possible loss in revenue to the organization due to software bugs and vulnerabilities, and compare that to the system's overall
price.
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following is the BEST method a security practitioner can use to ensure that systems and sub-systems gracefully handle invalid input?
A. Unit testing
B. Acceptance testing
C. Integration testing
D. Negative testing
Correct Answer: C
Commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) software presents which of the following additional security concerns?
D. Exploits for COTS software are well documented and publicly available.
Correct Answer: D
When conducting a third-party risk assessment of a new supplier, which of the following reports should be reviewed to con8rm the operating
effectiveness of the security, availability, con8dentiality, and privacy trust principles?
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following would be the BEST mitigation practice for man-in-the-middle (MITM) Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) attacks?
Correct Answer: C
The Chief Information Security O[cer (CISO) is concerned about business application availability. The organization was recently subject to a
ransomware attack that resulted in the unavailability of applications and services for 10 working days that required paper-based running of all
main business processes. There are now aggressive plans to enhance the Recovery Time Objective (RTO) and cater for more frequent data
captures. Which of the following solutions should be implemented to fully comply to the new business requirements?
A. Virtualization
B. Antivirus
D. Process isolation
Correct Answer: A
What is the MOST appropriate hierarchy of documents when implementing a security program?
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration in selecting a security testing method based on different Radio-Frequency
Identi8cation (RFID) vulnerability types?
Correct Answer: A
An organization's internal audit team performed a security audit on the company's system and reported that the manufacturing application is
rarely updated along with other issues categorized as minor. Six months later, an external audit team reviewed the same system with the same
scope, but identi8ed severe weaknesses in the manufacturing application's security controls. What is MOST likely to be the root cause of the
internal audit team's failure in detecting these security issues?
Correct Answer: B
A. Segregation of duties (SoD) is di[cult to implement as the "no read-up" rule limits the ability of an object to access information with a
higher classi8cation.
B. Mandatory access control (MAC) is enforced at all levels making discretionary access control (DAC) impossible to implement.
C. It contains no provision or policy for changing data access control and works well only with access systems that are static in nature.
D. It prioritizes integrity over con8dentiality which can lead to inadvertent information disclosure.
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following vulnerability assessment activities BEST exempli8es the Examine method of assessment?
A. Asking the Information System Security O[cer (ISSO) to describe the organization's patch management processes
B. Ensuring that system audit logs capture all relevant data 8elds required by the security controls baseline
C. Logging into a web server using the default administrator account and a default password
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following BEST ensures the integrity of transactions to intended recipients?
B. Blockchain technology
D. Web of trust
Correct Answer: A
Recently, an unknown event has disrupted a single Layer-2 network that spans between two geographically diverse data centers. The network
engineers have asked for assistance in identifying the root cause of the event. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A. Smurf attack
D. Address spoo8ng
Correct Answer: D
A company is moving from the V model to Agile development. How can the information security department BEST ensure that secure design
principles are implemented in the new methodology?
C. The information security department performs an information security assessment after each sprint.
D. The non-8nancial information security requirements remain mandatory for the new model.
Correct Answer: A
Correct Answer: B
Correct Answer: B
When telephones in a city are connected by a single exchange, the caller can only connect with the switchboard operator. The operator then
manually connects the call. This is an example of which type of network topology?
B. Bus
C. Star
D. Tree
Correct Answer: B
A 8rm within the defense industry has been directed to comply with contractual requirements for encryption of a government client's Controlled
Unclassi8ed
Information (CUI). What encryption strategy represents how to protect data at rest in the MOST e[cient and cost-effective manner?
A. Perform logical separation of program information, using virtualized storage solutions with encryption management in the back-end disk
systems
B. Perform logical separation of program information, using virtualized storage solutions with built-in encryption at the virtualization layer
C. Perform physical separation of program information and encrypt only information deemed critical by the defense client
D. Implement data at rest encryption across the entire storage area network (SAN)
Correct Answer: D
Which audit type is MOST appropriate for evaluating the effectiveness of a security program?
A. Analysis
B. Threat
C. Assessment
D. Validation
Correct Answer: C
Before allowing a web application into the production environment, the security practitioner performs multiple types of tests to con8rm that the
web application performs as expected. To test the username 8eld, the security practitioner creates a test that enters more characters into the 8eld
than is allowed. Which of the following BEST describes the type of test performed?
B. Interface testing
D. Penetration testing
Correct Answer: A
If the wide area network (WAN) is supporting converged applications like Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), which of the following becomes
even MORE essential to the assurance of the network?
A. Boundary routing
D. Deterministic routing
Correct Answer: C
Why would a system be structured to isolate different classes of information from one another and segregate them by user jurisdiction?
D. The organization can vary its system policies to comply with coneicting national laws.
Correct Answer: D
An organization implements Network Access Control (NAC) using Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 802.1x and discovers the
printers do not support the IEEE 802.1x standard. Which of the following is the BEST resolution?
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following goals represents a modern shift in risk management according to National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)?
B. Focus on operating environments that are changing, evolving, and full of emerging threats.
D. Secure information technology (IT) systems that store, mass, or transmit organizational information.
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following security tools monitors devices and records the information in a central database for further analysis?
A. Antivirus
Correct Answer: C
In addition to life, protection of which of the following elements is MOST important when planning a data center site?
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following documents speci8es services from the client's viewpoint?
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following should be included in a good defense-in-depth strategy provided by object-oriented programming for software
development?
A. Polymorphism
B. Inheritance
C. Polyinstantiation
D. Encapsulation
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following is a key responsibility for a data steward assigned to manage an enterprise data lake?
A. Ensure proper business de8nition, value, and usage of data collected and stored within the enterprise data lake.
C. Ensure proper and identi8able data owners for each data element stored within an enterprise data lake.
D. Ensure that any data passing within remit is being used in accordance with the rules and regulations of the business.
Correct Answer: A
What is the FIRST step prior to executing a test of an organization's disaster recovery (DR) or business continuity plan (BCP)?
Correct Answer: A
A breach investigation found a website was exploited through an open source component. What is the FIRST step in the process that could have
prevented this breach?
A. Application whitelisting
B. Vulnerability remediation
D. Software inventory
Correct Answer: C
A. Open design
D. Least privilege
Correct Answer: C
D. To discover unmitigated security vulnerabilities, and propose paths for mitigating them
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following virtual network con8guration options is BEST to protect virtual machines (VM)?
A. Data segmentation
B. Data encryption
C. Tra[c 8ltering
D. Tra[c throttling
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following features is MOST effective in mitigating against theft of data on a corporate mobile device which has been stolen?
Correct Answer: A
An organization is implementing data encryption using symmetric ciphers and the Chief Information O[cer (CIO) is concerned about the risk of
using one key to protect all sensitive data. The security practitioner has been tasked with recommending a solution to address the CIO's concerns.
Which of the following is the
BEST approach to achieving the objective by encrypting all sensitive data?
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following is a MUST for creating a new custom-built, cloud-native application designed to be horizontally scalable?
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following access control mechanisms characterized subjects and objects using a set of encoded security-relevant properties?
Correct Answer: C
Which kind of dependencies should be avoided when implementing secure design principles in software-de8ned networking (SDN)?
A. Hybrid
B. Circular
C. Dynamic
D. Static
Correct Answer: B
Which mechanism provides the BEST protection against buffer overeow attacks in memory?
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following terms is used for online service providers operating within a federation?
Correct Answer: A
The Chief Information Security O[cer (CISO) of a large 8nancial institution is responsible for implementing the security controls to protect the
con8dentiality and integrity of the organization’s Information Systems. Which of the controls below is prioritized FIRST?
B. Web application 8rewall (WAF) and HyperText Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)
Correct Answer: C
Who is the BEST person to review developed application code to ensure it has been tested and veri8ed?
A. A developer who knows what is expected of the application, but not the same one who developed it.
C. A developer who understands the application requirements document, and who also developed the code.
Correct Answer: B
A bank failed to meet service-level agreements (SLA) with customers after suffering from a database failure of the transaction processing system
(TPS) that resulted in delayed 8nancial deposits. A regulatory agency overseeing the bank would like to determine if the cause of the delay was a
material weakness. Which of the following documents is MOST relevant for the regulatory agency to review?
Correct Answer: B
What is the MOST effective way to ensure that a cloud service provider does not access a customer’s data stored within its infrastructure?
B. Ensure that the cloud service provider will contractually not access data unless given explicit authority.
D. Utilize the cloud provider’s key management and elastic hardware security module (HSM) support.
Correct Answer: B
Prohibiting which of the following techniques is MOST helpful in preventing users from obtaining con8dential data by using statistical queries?
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following is a major component of the federated identity management (FIM) implementation model and used to establish a network
between dozens of organizations?
C. Cross-certi8cation
Correct Answer: C
A Chief Information Security O[cer (CISO) is considering various proposals for evaluating security weaknesses and vulnerabilities at the source
code level. Which of the following items BEST equips the CISO to make smart decisions for the organization?
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following methods is MOST effective in mitigating Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities within HyperText Markup Language
(HTML) websites?
A. Use antivirus and endpoint protection on the server to secure the web-based application
C. Use .NET framework with .aspx extension to provide a higher level of security to the web application so that the web server display can be
locked down
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following MOST accurately describes the Security Target (ST) in the Common Criteria framework?
A. The set of rules that de8ne how resources or assets are managed and protected
Correct Answer: D
An organization has approved deployment of a virtual environment for the development servers and has established controls for restricting
access to resources. In order to implement best security practices for the virtual environment, the security team MUST also implement which of
the following steps?
B. Deploy Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus (TACACS+) for authentication.
Correct Answer: A
Correct Answer: D
Correct Answer: D
In order to meet the project delivery deadline, a web application developer used readily available software components. Which is the BEST method
for reducing the risk associated with this practice?
C. Ensure encryption of all sensitive data in a manner that protects and defends against threats.
D. Implement a process to verify the effectiveness of the software components and settings.
Correct Answer: D
To ensure proper governance of information throughout the lifecycle, which of the following should be assigned FIRST?
A. Owner
B. Classi8cation
C. Custodian
D. Retention
Correct Answer: A
An effective information security strategy is PRIMARILY based upon which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
One of Canada’s leading pharmaceutical 8rms recently hired a Chief Data O[cer (CDO) to oversee its data privacy program. The CDO has
discovered the 8rm’s marketing department has been collecting information from individuals without their knowledge and consent via the
company website. Which of the following privacy regulations should concern the CDO regarding this practice?
Correct Answer: D
An organization is attempting to strengthen the con8guration of its enterprise resource planning (ERP) software in order to enforce su[cient
segregation of duties (SoD). Which of the following approaches would BEST improve SoD effectiveness?
A. Implementation of frequent audits of access and activity in the ERP by a separate team with no operational duties
C. Review of ERP access pro8les to enforce the least-privilege principle based on existing employee responsibilities
D. Review of employee responsibilities and ERP access pro8les to differentiate mission activities from system support activities
Correct Answer: C
Which type of log collection is focused on detecting and responding to attacks, malware infection, and data theft?
A. Intrusion detection
B. Operational
C. Security
D. Compliance
Correct Answer: C
If a medical analyst independently provides protected health information (PHI) to an external marketing organization, which ethical principal is
this a violation of?
B. Informed consent
D. Privacy regulations
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following measures is the MOST critical in order to safeguard from a malware attack on a smartphone?
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following Secure Shell (SSH) remote access practices is MOST suited for scripted functions?
Correct Answer: D
Which stage in the identity management (IdM) lifecycle constitutes the GREATEST risk for an enterprise if performed incorrectly?
A. Propagating
B. Deprovisioning
C. Provisioning
D. Maintaining
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following reports provides the BEST attestation of detailed controls when evaluating an Identity as a Service (IDaaS) solution?
Correct Answer: B
Single sign-on (SSO) for federated identity management (FIM) must be implemented and managed so that authorization mechanisms protect
access to privileged information using OpenID Connect (OIDC) token or Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) assertion. What is the BEST
method to use to protect them?
C. Use a challenge and response mechanism such as Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP).
Correct Answer: D
The client of a security 8rm reviewed a vulnerability assessment report and claims the report is inaccurate. The client states that the
vulnerabilities listed are not valid because the host’s operating system (OS) was not properly detected. Where in the vulnerability assessment
process did the error MOST likely occur?
A. Report writing
B. Detection
C. Enumeration
D. Scanning
Correct Answer: B
For a victim of a security breach to prevail in a negligence claim, what MUST the victim establish?
A. Concern
B. Breach of contract
C. Proximate cause
D. Hardship
Correct Answer: C
Question #416 Topic 1
A large international organization that collects information from its consumers has contracted with a Software as a Service (SaaS) cloud provider
to process this data. The SaaS cloud provider uses additional data processing to demonstrate other capabilities it wishes to offer to the data
owner. This vendor believes additional data processing activity is allowed since they are not disclosing to other organizations. Which of the
following BEST supports this rationale?
A. The data was encrypted at all times and only a few cloud provider employees had access.
B. As the data owner, the cloud provider has the authority to direct how the data will be processed.
C. As the data processor, the cloud provider has the authority to direct how the data will be processed.
D. The agreement between the two parties is vague and does not detail how the data can be used.
Correct Answer: C
A security engineer is conducting an audit of an organization’s Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) phone network due to a large increase in
charges from their phone provider. The engineer discovers unauthorized endpoints have connected to the phone server from the public internet
and placed hundreds of unauthorized calls to parties around the globe. Which type of attack occurred?
A. Control eavesdropping
B. Toll fraud
C. Call hijacking
D. Address spoo8ng
Correct Answer: B
An organization is looking to improve threat detection on their wireless network. The company goal is to automate alerts to improve response
efforts. Which of the following best practices should be implemented FIRST?
Correct Answer: D
Security personnel should be trained by emergency management personnel in what to do before and during a disaster, as well as their role in
recovery efforts. Personnel should take required training for emergency response procedures and protocols. Which part of physical security
design does this fall under?
A. Legal concerns
B. Loss prevention
C. Emergency preparedness
Correct Answer: C
How is protection for hypervisor host and software administration functions BEST achieved?
C. The management tra[c pathway should have separate physical network interface cards (NIC) and network.
Correct Answer: B
To ensure compliance with the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), who in the organization should the help desk manager confer with
before selecting a Software as a Service (SaaS) solution?
A. Data owner
Correct Answer: D