Book: 35 Years NTA NEET (UG) BIOLOGY Chapterwise & Topicwise

Solved Papers with Value Added Notes (2022 - 1988) 17th Edition

Free Sample Chapter Botany

Molecular Basis of
Inheritance

Trend Analysis with Important Topics & Sub-Topics

2022 2021 2020 2019 2018 2017
Topic Name Sub-Topics Qns. LOD Qns. LOD Qns. LOD Qns. LOD Qns. LOD Qns. LOD
Experimental Proof
for Genetic Material
DNA 2 A 1 A 1 D 1 A 1 E
The DNA/The Search for
Genetic Material/RNA world RNA 1 A 1 A
Nucleosome Model 1 A 1 D 1 A
Semiconservative
1 D 1 A 1 A
Replication of DNA
Protein synthesis 1 E 1 D
DNA replication 1 A
Replication/Transcription/
Genetic Code 1 A 1 A
Genetic Code/Translation
Translation 1 A 1 E 1 A 1 A
Transcription 1 A D 1 D 1 E
Regulation of Gene Expression Lac Operon 1 A D 1 A
Human Genome Project/ DNA
DNA Printing 2 A 1 A 1 A 1 A
fingerprinting
LOD - Level of Difficulty E - Easy A - Average D - Difficult Qns - No. of Questions

(a) (i), (iii), (iv) Only

Topic-1: The DNA/The Search for (b) (ii),(v) Only
Genetic Material/RNA World (c) (i),(iii),(v) Only
1. Read the following statements and choose the set (d) (ii), (iv), (v) Only
of correct statements: NCERT | Page-99 & 100 | 2022 2. If the length of a DNA molecule is 1.1 metres,
(i) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin what will be the approximate number of base
(ii) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active pairs? NCERT | Page-99 | 2022
(iii) Histone octomer is wrapped by negatively (a) 6.6 ×109bp (b) 3.3 × 106 bp
charged DNA in nucleosome (c) 6.6 × 106 bp (d) 3.3 × 109 bp
(iv) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine 3. Ten E.coli cells with ‘5N - dsDNA are incubated
(v) A typical nucleosome contains 400 by of in medium containing “N nucleotide. After 60
DNA helix minutes, how many E.coli cells will have DNA
Choose the correct answer from the options totally free from ‘5N? 2022
given below: (a) 40 cells (b) 60 cells
(c) 80 cells (d) 20 cells
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4. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, 12. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material
what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine came from the experiments of: NCERT | Page-101 | 2017
and Cytosine in it? NCERT | Page-97 | 2021 (a) Hershey and Chase
(a) T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25 (b) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty
(b) T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20 (c) Hargobind Khorana
(c) T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30 (d) Griffith
(d) T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20 13. DNA fragments are: NCERT | Page-99 | 2017
5. Which one of the following statements about (a) Negatively charged
Histones is wrong? NCERT | Page-99 | 2021 (b) Neutral
(a) Histones carry positive charge in the side chain (c) Either positively or negatively charged
(b) Histones are organized to form a unit of depending on their size
8 molecules (d) Positively charged
(c) The pH of histones is slightly acidic 14. The association of histone H1 with a
(d) Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine nucleosome indicates:  NCERT | Page-99 | 2017
and Arginine (a) DNA replication is occurring.
6. In the polynucleotide chain of DNA, a (b) The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin
nitrogenous base is linked to the –OH of 2020 Fibre.
(a) 1' C pentose sugar (c) The DNA double helix is exposed.
(b) 2' C pentose sugar (d) Transcription is occurring.
(c) 3' C pentose sugar 15. A complex of ribosomes attached to a single
(d) 5' C pentose sugar strand of RNA is known as 2016
7. If the distance between two consecutive base (a) Polysome (b) Polymer
pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs (c) Polypeptide (d) Okazaki fragment
of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian 16. A molecule that can act as a genetic material must
cell is 6.6 × 109 bp, then the length of the DNA is fulfill the traits given below, except Phase-II 2016
approximately NCERT | Page-99 | 2020 (a) it should be unstable structurally and chemically
(a) 2.5 meters (b) 2.2 meters (b) it should provide the scope for slow
(c) 2.7 meters (d) 2.0 meters changes that are required for evolution
8. Which of the following statements is correct? (c) it should be able to express itself in the
(a) Adenine pairs with thymine through one form of ‘Mendelian characters’
H-bond NCERT | Page-97 | 2020 (d) it should be able to generate its replica
(b) Adenine pairs with thymine through three 17. In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded,
H-bonds 17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The
(c) Adenine does not pair with thymine percentages of the other three bases expected to be
(d) Adenine pairs with thymine through two present in this DNA are: NCERT | Page-97 | 2015 RS
H-bonds (a) G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%
9. Which scientist experimentally proved that DNA (b) G 17%, A 33%, T 33%
is the sole genetic material in bacteriophage? (c) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%
NCERT | Page-101 | 2019, Odisha (d) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%
(a) Jacob and Monod 18. Which one of the following is not applicable to
(b) Beadle and Tautum RNA? 2015 RS
(c) Messelson and Stahl (a) 5’ phosphoryl and 3’ hydroxyl ends
(d) Hershey and Chase (b) Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases
10. Purines found both in DNA and RNA are: (c) Chargaff’s rule
(a) Adenine and thymine NCERT | Page-96 | 2019 (d) Complementary base pairing
(b) Adenine and guanine 19. Transformation was discovered by:
(c) Guanine and cytosine (a) Meselson and Stahl NCERT | Page-100 | 2014
(d) Cytosine and thymine (b) Hershey and Chase
11. Which of the following RNAs should be most (c) Griffith
abundant in animal cell? 2019
(d) Watson and Crick
(a) t-RNA (b) m-RNA 20. Uridine, present only in RNA is a Kar.2013
(a) Pyrimidine (b) Nucleoside
(c) mi-RNA (d) r-RNA
(c) Nucleotide (d) Purine
 B - 83

21. If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous (a) Genes (b) Nucleotides
base sequence at ATCTG, what would be the (c) Nucleosomes (d) Base pairs
complementary RNA strand sequence 2012 24. Which one of the following does not follow the
(a) TTAGU (b) UAGAC central dogma of molecular biology? 2010
(c) AACTG (d) ATCGU (a) Pea (b) Mucor
22. The unequivocal proof of DNA as the genetic (c) Chlamydomonas (d) HIV
material came from the studies on a 25. Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous
NCERT | Page-101 | 2011 M bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly matched
(a) bacterium (b) fungus with the category mentioned against it?
(c) viroid (d) bacterial virus NCERT | Page-96 | 2008
23. What are those structures that appear as beads - (a) Thymine, Uracil - Pyrimidines
on- string in the chromosomes when viewed under (b) Uracil, Cytosine - Pyrimidines
electron microscope? NCERT | Page-99 | 2011 (c) Guanine, Adenine - Purines
(d) Adenine, Thymine - Purines

26. In the DNA molecule NCERT | Page-97 | 2008 (a) messenger RNA (b) DNA sequence
(a) the total amount of purine nucleotides and (c) ribosome (d) transfer RNA.
pyrimidine nucleotides is not always equal 29. During transcription, RNA polymerase
(b) there are two strands which run parallel in holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and
the 5′ → 3′ direction assumes a saddle-like structure, what is it’s
(c) the proportion of Adenine in relation to DNA-binding sequence? 2007
thymine varies with the organism (a) AATT (b) CACC
(d) there are two strands which run anti parallel (c) TATA (d) TTAA
one in 5′ → 3′ direction and other in 3′ → 5′ 30. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are
27. The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds NCERT | Page-98 | 2007
the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic (a) discontinuous (b) antiparallel
cells. How is this DNA accommodated? 2007 (c) semi-conservative (d) parallel.
(a) super-coiling in nucleosomes 31. Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between
(b) DNase digestion tRNA and mRNA during bacterial protein
(c) through elimination of repititive DNA synthesis? 2006
(d) deletion of non-essential genes. (a) Neomycin (b) Streptomycin
28. A sequential expression of a set of human (c) Tetracycline (d) Erythromycin
genes 2007
B - 84

32. The following ratio is generally constant for a 42. In DNA, when AGCT occurs, their association
given species: NCERT | Page-97 | 2004 is as per which of the following pairs? 2000
(a) AG-CT (b) AC-GT
(a) (b) (c) AT-GC (d) All of these
43. The Pneumococcus experiment proves that
NCERT | Page-100 | 1999
(c) (d)
(a) DNA is the genetic material 
(b) Bacteria undergo binary fission
33. DNA template sequence of CTGATAGC is (c) Bacteria do not reproduce sexually
transcribed over mRNA as  2004
(d) RNA sometime controls the production of
(a) GUCTUTCG (b) GACUAUCG DNA and proteins
(c) GAUTATUG (d) UACTATCU 44. How many base pairs (bp) are found in the haploid
34. Extranuclear inheritance occurs in 2004
genome of humans? NCERT | Page-96 | 1999
(a) peroxisome and ribosome (a) 2.9 × 109 (b) 4 × 108
(b) chloroplast and mitochondria (c) 7 × 109 (d) 3 × 109
(c) mitochondria and ribosome 45. The eukaryotic genome differs from the
(d) chloroplast and lysosome prokaryotic genome because 1998
35. Which form of RNA has a structure resembling (a) genes in the former case are organized
clover leaf? 2004 into operons
(a) rRNA (b) hn RNA (b) the DNA is complexed with histones in
(c) m RNA (d) t RNA prokaryotes
36. Transformation experiment was first performed (c) repetitive sequences are present in eukaryotes
on which bacteria? 2002 (d) the DNA is circular and single stranded in
(a) E.coli prokaryotes
(b) Diplococcus pneumoniae 46. Radioactive thymidine when added to the
(c) Salmonella medium surrounding living mammalian cells gets
(d) Pasteurella pestis incorporated into the newly synthesized DNA. Which
37. In a DNA percentage of thymine is 20% then of the following types of chromatin is expected to
what will be the percentage of guanine? become radioactive if cells are exposed to radioactive
NCERT | Page-97 | 2002 thymidine as soon as they enter the S-phase?
(a) 20% (b) 40% (a) Heterochromatin 1998
(c) 30% (d) 60% (b) Euchromatin
38. Extra-nuclear inheritance occurs in 2001 (c) Both heterochromatin and euchromatin
(a) Killer strain in Paramecium (d) Neither heterochromatin nor euchromatin
(b) Colour blindness but only the nucleolus
(c) Phenylketonuria 47. Genes are packed into a bacterial chromosome
(d) Tay sach disease by NCERT | Page-99 | 1997
39. Due to discovery of which of the following in (a) histones (b) basic proteins
1980 the evolution was termed as RNA world? (c) acidic proteins (d) actin
 2001 48. Reverse transcriptase is 1994
(a) mRNA, tRNA, rRNA synthesise proteins (a) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
(b) In some virus RNA the genetic material (b) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(c) RNA have enzymatic property (c) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(d) RNA is not found in all cells (d) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
40. The transfer RNA molecule in 3D appears 49. Nucleotide arrangement in DNA can be seen by
NCERT | Page-114 | 2000 (a) X-ray crystallography 1993
(a) L-shaped (b) E-shaped (b) electron microscope
(c) Y-shaped (d) S-shaped (c) ultracentrifuge
41. DNA replication is NCERT | Page-112 | 2000 (d) light microscope
(a) conservative and discontinuous 50. A DNA with unequal nitrogen bases would
(b) semiconservative and semi discontinuous most probably be  1993
(c) semiconservative and discontinuous (a) single stranded (b) double stranded
(d) conservative (c) triple stranded (d) four stranded
 B - 85

51. Who proved that DNA is basic genetic material? (c) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
NCERT | Page-101 | 1993 (d) DNA Ligase
(a) Griffith (b) Watson 59. Which of the following RNAs is not required for
(c) Boveri and Sutton (d) Hershey and Chase the synthesis of protein? NCERT | Page-111 | 2021
52. The transforming principle of Pneumococus (a) siRNA (b) mRNA
as found out by Avery, MacLeod and McCarty (c) tRNA (d) rRNA
was NCERT | Page-100 | 1993 60. Statement I: The condon 'AUG' codes for
(a) mRNA (b) DNA methionine and phenylalanine.
(c) protein (d) polysaccharide Statement II: 'AAA' and 'AAG' both codons code
53. Nucleosome core is made of 1993 for the amino acid lysine. NCERT | Page-112 | 2021
(a) H1, H2A, H2B and H3 In the light of the above statements, choose the
(b) H1, H2A, H2B, H4 correct answer from the options given below.
(c) H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4 (a) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
(d) H2A, H2B, H3 and H4 (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
54. A nucleotide is formed ofNCERT | Page-96 | 1991 (c) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(a) purine, pyrimidine and phosphate (d) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(b) purine, sugar and phosphate 61. The first phase of translation is
(c) nitrogen base, sugar and phosphate NCERT | Page-114 | 2020
(d) pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate (a) Recognition of DNA molecule
55. An octamer of 4 histones complexed with (b) Aminoacylation of tRNA
DNA forms 1990 (c) Recognition of an anti-codon
(a) endosome (b) nucleosome (d) Binding of mRNA to ribosome
(c) mesosome (d) centromere 62. From the following, identify the correct
combination of salient features of Genetic
Topic-2: Replication/Transcription/ Code. NCERT | Page-112 | 2019, Odisha
Genetic Code/Translation (a) Degenerate, Non-overlapping, Nonambiguous
(b) Universal, Non-ambiguous, Overlapping
56. The process of translation of mRNA to proteins
(c) Degenerate, Overlapping, Commaless
begins as soon as : NCERT | Page-115 | 2022
(d) Universal, Ambiguous, Degenerate
(a) The larger subunit of ribosome encounters 63. In the process of transcription in Eukaryotes,
mRNA the RNA polymerase I transcribes-
(b) Both the subunits join together to bind NCERT | Page-111 | 2019, Odisha
with mRNA (a) Precursor of mRNA, hnRNA
(c) The tRNA is activated and the larger (b) mRNA with additional processing, capping
subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA and tailing
(d) The small subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA (c) tRNA, 5 srRNA and snRNAs
57. Complete the flow chart on central dogma. (d) rRNAs – 28 S, 18 S and 5.8 S
(b)
(a) DNA → mRNA → (d)
(c)
64. What initiation and termination factors are
involved in transcription in Eukaryotes?
NCERT | Page-98 | 2021 NCERT | Page-109 | 2019, Odisha
(a) (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (a) a and s, respectively
(c)-Replication; (d)-Protein (b) s and r, respectively
(b) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c) a and b, respectively
(c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein (d) b and g, respectively
(c) (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; 65. Match the following RNA polymerases with their
(c)-Transcription;(d)-Transduction transcribed products:NCERT | Page-108 | 2019, Odisha
(d) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (A) RNA polymerase I (i) tRNA
(c)-Translation; (d)-Protein (B) RNA polymerase II (ii) rRNA
58. Which is the "Only enzyme" that has "Capability" (C) RNA polymerase III (iii) hnRNA
to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination Select the correct option from the following :
in the process of transcription in prokaryotes? (a) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i)
(a) DNase NCERT | Page-109 & 110 | 2021 (b) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii)
(b) DNA dependent DNA polymerase (c) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii)
B - 86

(d) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i) (a) The lagging strand towards replication fork.
66. What will be the sequence of mRNA produced (b) The leading strand away from replication fork.
by the following stretch of DNA? (c) The lagging strand away from the
NCERT | Page-108 | 2019, Odisha replication fork.
3'ATGCATGCATGCATG 5' TEMPLATE STRAND (d) The leading strand towards replication fork.
5' TACGTACGTACGTAC 3' CODING STRAND 74. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of; 2017
(a) 3' AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 3' (a) Fungi (b) Animals
(b) 3' AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 5' (c) Bacteria (d) Plants
(c) 5' UACGUACGUACGUAC 3' 75. Which one of the following is the starter codon?
(d) 3' UACGUACGUACGUAC 5' NCERT | Page-112 | 2016
67. Non-membranous nucleoplasmic structures in (a) AUG (b) UGA
nucleus are the site for active synthesis of (c) UAA (d) UAG
2019, Odisha 76. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes
(a) tRNA (b) protein synthesis transcription on one strand of the DNA which
(c) mRNA (d) rRNA is called the Phase-II 2016
68. Under which of the following conditions will (a) Alpha strand (b) Antistrand
there be no change in the reading frame of (c) Template strand (d) Coding strand
following mRNA ? 2019 77. The equivalent of a structural gene is Phase-II 2016
5´ AACAGCGGUGCUAUU 3´ (a) Operon (b) Recon
(a) Insertion of G at 5th position (c) Muton (d) Cistron
(b) Deletion of G from 5th position 78. Which of the following rRNAs acts as structural
(c) Insertion of A and G at 4th and 5th positions RNA as well as ribozyme in bacteria? Phase-II 02016
respectively (a) 23 S rRNA (b) 5.8 S rRNA
(d) Deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th positions (c) 5 S rRNA (d) 18 S rRNA
69. Which of the following features of genetic 79. Which one of the following is wrongly
code does allow bacteria to produce human matched? NCERT | Page-107 | 2014
insulin by recombinant DNA technology? (a) Transcription – Writing information from
NCERT | Page-112 | 2019 DNA to tRNA.
(a) Genetic code is not ambiguous (b) Translation – Using information in mRNA
(b) Genetic code is redundant to make protein
(c) Genetic code is nearly universal (c) Repressor protein – Binds to operator to
(d) Genetic code is specific stop enzyme synthesis.
70. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the (d) Operon – Structural genes, operator and
coding strand of a gene. What will be the promoter.
corresponding sequence of the transcribed 80. Select the correct option:  2014
mRNA? 2018 Direction of RNA Direction of reading of
(a) AGGUAUCGCAU (b) UGGTUTCGCAT synthesis the template DNA strand
(c) UCCAUAGCGUA (d) ACCUAUGCGAU (a) 5´—3´ 3´—5´
71. The experimental proof for semiconservative (b) 3´—5´ 5´—3´
replication of DNA was first shown in a (c) 5´—3´ 5´—3´
NCERT | Page-104 | 2018 (d) 3´—5´ 3´—5´
(a) Fungus (b) Bacterium 81. Which of the following is not a property of the
(c) Virus (d) Plant genetic code?  2013
72. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for (a) Universal (b) Non-overlapping
a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base (c) Ambiguous (d) Degeneracy
at position 901 is deleted such that the length 82. DNA C
mRNA B
protein
Proposed by
of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many A

codons will be altered?  2017 The figure gives an important concept in the
(a) 11 (b) 33 genetic implication of DNA. Fill the blanks A,
(c) 333 (d) 1 B and C. NCERT | Page-98 | Kar.2013
73. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments (a) A – Francis Crick; B – translation;
are used to elongate: NCERT | Page-106 | 2017 C – transcription
 B - 87

(b) A – Maurice Wilkins; B – transcription; 84. Removal of RNA polymerase III from nucleoplasm
C – translation will affect the synthesis of : NCERT | Page-111 | 2012
(c) A – James Watson; B – replication; (a) t RNA (b) hn RNA
C – extension (c) m RNA (d) r RNA
(d) A – Erwin Chargaff; B – translation; 85. Which one of the following is not a part of a
C – replication transcription unit in DNA? NCERT | Page-108 | 2012
83. The diagram shows an important concept in (a) The inducer (b) A terminator
the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the (c) A promoter (d) The structural gene
blanks A to C. NCERT | Page-98 | 2013 86. Removal of introns and joining of exons in a
DNA A
mRNA B
protein
Proposed by defined order during transcription is called:
C
NCERT | Page-109 | 2012
(a) A-translation B - transciption C-Erwin (a) Looping (b) Inducing
Chargaff (c) Slicing (d) Splicing
(b) A-transcription B - translation C-Francis Crick 87. Read the following four statements (A-D).
(c) A-translation B - extension C-Rosalind (i) In transcription, adenosine pairs with uracil.
Franklin (ii) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is
(d) A-transcription B - replication C-James referred to as positive regulation.
Watson

(iii) The human genome has approximately (ii) In the absence of lactose the repressor
50,000 genes. binds with the operator region
(iv) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive (iii) The z-gene codes for permease
disease. (iv) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob
How many of the above statements are correct? and Jacque Monod
NCERT | Page-107 | 2012 M The correct statements are:
(a) Two (b) Three (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) Four (d) One
88. The one aspect which is not a salient feature of (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii)
genetic code, is its being: 2010 90. What is not true for genetic code?
(a) degenerate (b) ambiguous (a) It is nearly universal NCERT | Page-112 | 2009
(c) universal (d) specific (b) It is degenerate
89. Select the two correct statements out of the (c) It is unambiguous
four (i–iv) given below about lac operon. (d) A codon in mRNA is read in a non­
(i) Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor contiguous fashion
and inactivate it NCERT | Page-117 | 2010
B - 88

91. Removal of introns and joining the exons in a 100. Which one of the following makes use of RNA
defined order in a transcription unit is called: as a template to synthesize DNA? 2005
 NCERT | Page-111 | 2009 (a) DNA polymerase (b) RNA polymerase
(a) tailing (b) transformation (c) Reverse transcriptase
(c) capping (d) splicing (d) DNA dependant RNA polymerase
92. Whose experiments cracked the DNA and 101. In a mutational event, when adenine is replaced
discovered unequivocally that a genetic code by guanine, it is a case of  2004
is a ‘triplet’ 2009 (a) frame shift mutation (b) transcription
(a) Hershey and Chase (c) transition (d) transversion
(b) Morgan and Sturtevant 102. The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes
(c) Beadle and Tantum consist of short sequences of  2004
(d) Nirenberg and Mathaei (a) thymine rich repeats
93. Semi-conservative replication of DNA was (b) cytosine rich repeats
first demonstrated in: NCERT | Page-104 | 2009 (c) adenine rich repeats
(a) Escherichia coli (d) guanine rich repeats
(b) Streptococcus pneumoniae 103. During replication of a bacterial chromosome
(c) Salmonella typhimurium DNA synthesis starts from a replication origin
(d) Drosophila melanogaster site and  2004
94. Which one of the following pairs of codons is (a) RNA primers are involved
correctly matched with their function or the signal (b) is facilitated by telomerase
for the particular amino acid? NCERT | Page-112 | 2008 (c) moves in one direction of the site
(a) GUU, GCU-Alanine (d) moves in bi-directional way
(b) UAG, UGA-Stop 104. During translation initiation in prokaryotes, a
(c) AUG, ACG-Start/Methionine GTP molecule is needed in 2003
(d) UUA, UCA-Leucine (a) association of 50 S subunit of ribosome
95. Polysome is formed by 2008 with initiation complex
(a) several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA (b) formation of formyl-met-tRNA
(b) many ribosomes attached to a strand of (c) binding of 30 S subunit of ribosome with mRNA
endoplasmic reticulum (d) association of 30 S-mRNA with formyl-
(c) a ribosome with several subunits met-tRNA
(d) ribosomes attached to each other in a 105. Which one of the following triplet codes, is
linear arrangement correctly matched with its specificity for an
96. Molecular basis of organ differentiation depends amino acid in protein synthesis or as ‘start’ or
on the modulation in transcription by  2007 ‘stop’codon ? NCERT | Page-112 | 2003
(a) ribosome (b) transcription factor (a) UAC – Tyrosine (b) UCG – Start
(c) anticodon (d) RNA polymerase. (c) UUU – Stop (d) UGU – Leucine
97. The okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth  2007 106. What would happen if in a gene encoding a
(a) polymerize in the 3’ - to - 5’ direction and polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th codon
forms replication fork (UAU) is mutated to UAA? 2003
(b) prove semi-conservative nature of DNA (a) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be
replication formed
(c) polymerize in the 5’ - to - 3’ direction and (b) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be
explain 3’ - to - 5’ DNA replication formed
(d) result in transcription. (c) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino
98. Telomerase is an enzyme which is a 2005
acids will be formed
(a) simple protein (b) RNA (d) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be
(c) ribonucleoprotein (d) repetitive DNA formed
99. During transcription holoenzyme RNA 107. In the genetic code dictionary, how many
polymerase binds to a DNA sequence and the codons are used to code for all the 20 essential
DNA assumes a saddle like structure at that amino acids? NCERT | Page-111 | 2003
point. What is that sequence called? 2005
(a) 60 (b) 20
(a) AAAT box (b) TATA box (c) 64 (d) 61
(c) GGTT box (d) CAAT box
 B - 89

108. Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed to the (a) Adenine (b) 5-bromouracil
(a) third member of a codon 2003 (c) 5-methylcytosine (d) Guanine
(b) first member of a codon 120. DNA elements which can switch their position
(c) second member of a codon are called  1998
(d) entire codon (a) exons (b) introns
109. During transcription, the DNA site at which (c) cistrons (d) transposons
RNA polymerase binds is called 2003 121. Which step of translation does not consume a
(a) enhancer (b) promoter high energy phosphate bond ? 1997
(c) regulator (d) receptor (a) Translocation
110. Out of 64 codons, 61 codons code for 20 types (b) Amino acid activation
of amino acid. It is called 2002 (c) Peptidyl-transferase reaction
(a) degeneracy of genetic code (d) Aminoacyl tRNA binding to active
(b) overlapping of gene ribosomal site
(c) wobbling of codon 122. Three codons causing chain termination are
(d) universility of codons NCERT | Page-112 | 1997
111. Exon part of m- RNAs have code for (a) TAG, TAA, TGA (b) GAT, AAT, AGT
NCERT | Page-111 | 2002 (c) AGT, TAG, UGA (d) UAG, UGA, UAA
(a) protein (b) lipid 123. A mutation at one base of the first codon, of a
(c) carbohydrate (d) phospholipid gene, produces a non-functional protein. Such
112. Types of RNA polymerase required in nucleus a mutation is called  1997
for RNA synthesis? 2001 (a) nonsense mutation (b) missense mutation
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) frameshift mutation (d) reverse mutation
(c) 3 (d) 4 124. If a completely radioactive double stranded
113. Gene and cistron words are sometimes used DNA molecule undergoes two rounds of
synonymously because  NCERT | Page-109 | 2001 replication in a non-radioactive medium,
(a) one cistron contains many genes what will be the radioactive status of the four
(b) one gene contains many cistrons resulting molecules? 1997
(c) one gene contains one cistron (a) Half the number contain no radioactivity
(d) one gene contains no cistron (b) All four still contain radioactivity
114. In which direction m-RNA is synthesised on (c) Three out of four contain radioactivity
DNA template?  2001 (d) Radioactivity is lost from all four
(a) 5′ → 3′ (b) 3′ → 5′ 125. Different mutations referrable to the same
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Any locus of a chromosome give rise to 1997
115. Mutation generally produces 2000 (a) multiple alleles (b) pseudoalleles
(a) polygenes (b) dominant genes (c) polygenes (d) oncogenes
(c) recessive genes (d) lethal genes 126. During development of an organism, the product
116. One function of the telomeres in a chromosome of one gene is required to activate another gene.
is to 2000 Such gene products are called 1997
(a) indentify the correct number of the (a) transcription factors (b) episomes
homologous pair of chromosomes (c) coenzymes (d) catalase
(b) help two chromatids to move towards poles 127. In eukaryotes, after transcription of mRNA,
(c) "seal" the ends of chromosomes some of its nucleotides are removed before it
(d) start RNA synthesis is translated into polypeptide. The nucleotides
117. Anticodon is an unpaired triplet of bases in an which are removed from mRNA are called
exposed position of NCERT | Page-114 | 2000 (a) exons NCERT | Page-111 | 1997
(a) mRNA (b) rRNA (b) upstream sequences
(c) tRNA (d) sRNA (c) unusual bases
118. Initiation codon of protein synthesis (in (d) introns
eucaryotes) is 128. Protein synthesis in an animal cell takes place
(a) GUA (b) GCA 2000 (a) only in the cytoplasm  1997
(c) CCA (d) AUG (b) in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm
119. What base is responsible for hot spots for (c) in cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria
spontaneous point mutations? 1998 (d) only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear
envelope
B - 90

129. The RNA that picks up specific amino acids (a) overlapping (b) wobbling
from the amino acid pool in the cytoplasm to (c) degenerate (d) generate
ribosome during protein synthesis is called 1997 141. Escherichia coli fully labelled with 15N is allowed
(a) mRNA (b) tRNA to grow in 14N medium. The two strands of DNA
(c) rRNA (d) carrier RNA molecule of the first generation bacteria have 1992
130. Okazaki fragments are seen during (a) different density and do not resemble
NCERT | Page-106 | 1996 parent DNA
(a) transcription (b) translation (b) different density but resemble parent DNA
(c) replication (d) transduction (c) same density and resemble parent DNA
131. The translation termination triplet is (d) same density but do not resemble parent
NCERT | Page-112 | 1996 DNA
(a) UAU (b) UAA 142. Khorana first deciphered the triplet codons of
(c) UAC (d) UGC. (a) serine and isoleucine  1992
132. In split genes, the coding sequences are called (b) cysteine and valine
NCERT | Page-111 | 1995 (c) tyrosine and tryptophan
(a) introns (b) operons (d) phenylalanine and methionine
(c) exons (d) cistrons 143. Experimental material in the study of DNA
133. Protein helping in opening of DNA double replication has been NCERT | Page-106 | 1992
helix in form of replication fork is  1994 (a) Escherichia coli
(a) DNA gyrase (b) Neurospora crassa
(b) DNA polymerase I (c) Pneumococcus
(c) DNA ligase (d) Drosophila melanogaster
(d) DNA topoisomerase 144. The process of transfer of genetic information
134. Which is not involved in protein synthesis? from DNA to RNA/formation of RNA from
NCERT | Page-114 | 1994 DNA is NCERT | Page-107 | 1991
(a) Transcription (b) Initition (a) transversion (b) transcription
(c) Elongation (d) Termination (c) translation (d) translocation
135. Reverse transcriptase is 1994 145. In the genetic dictionary, there are 64 codons
(a) RNA dependent RNA polymerase as NCERT | Page-112 | 1990
(b) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (a) 64 amino acids are to be coded
(c) DNA dependent DNA polymerase (b) 64 types of tRNAs are present
(d) RNA dependent DNA polymerase (c) there are 44 nonsense codons and 20 sense
136. The number of base substitution possible in codons
amino acid codons is  1994 (d) genetic code is triplet.
(a) 261 (b) 264 146. Genetic code consists of 1988
(c) 535 (d) 549 (a) adenine and guanine
137. Out of A-T, G-C pairing, bases of DNA may exist (b) cytosine and uracil
in alternate valency state owing to arrangement (c) cytosine and guanine
called 1994 (d) all the above
(a) analogue substitution
(b) tautomerisational mutation Topic-3: Regulation of Gene Expression
(c) frame-shift mutation
(d) point mutation 147. In an E.coli strain i gene gets mutated and its
138. The process of translation is  NCERT | Page-114 | 1993 product can not bind the inducer molecule. If
(a) ribosome synthesis (b) protein synthesis growth medium is provided with lactose, what
(c) dNA synthesis (d) rNA synthesis will be the outcome? NCERT | Page-117 | 2022
(a) z, y, a genes will be transcribed
139. During DNA replication, the strands separate
(b) z, y, a genes will not be translated
by 1993
(c) RNA polymerase will bind the promoter
(a) DNA polymerase (b) topoisomerase
region
(c) unwindase/Helicase (d) gyrase
(d) Only z gene will get transcribed
140. Because most of the amino acids are represented
148. Match the following genes of the Lac operon with
by more than one codon, the genetic code is
their respective products:  NCERT | Page-117 | 2019
NCERT | Page-112 | 1993
 B - 91

(A) i gene (i) β-galactosidase 150. Select the correct match 2018
(B) z gene (ii) Permease (a) Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus pneumoniae
(C) a gene (iii) Repressor (b) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase - TMV
(D) y gene (iv) Transacetylase (c) Francois Jacob and - Lac operon
Select the correct option. Jacques Monod
(a) (b) (c) (d) (d) Matthew Meselson - Pisum sativum
(a) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) and F. Stahl
(b) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) 151. Which of the following is required as inducer(s)
(c) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) for the expression of Lac operon?
(d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (a) Glucose NCERT | Page-117 | 2016
149. All of the following are part of an operon (b) Galactose
except NCERT | Page-116 | 2018 (c) Lactose
(a) an operator (b) structural genes (d) Lactose and galactose
(c) a promoter (d) an enhancer 152. Gene regulation governing lactose operon of
E.coli that involves the lac I gene product is :
NCERT | Page-117 | 2015 RS

(a) Negative and inducible because repressor 154. In an inducible operon, the genes are
protein prevents transcription NCERT | Page-117 | Kar. 2013
(b) Negative and repressible because (a) Always expressed
repressor protein prevents transcription (b) Usually not expressed unless a signal
(c) Feedback inhibition because excess of turns them “on”
b-galactosidase can switch off trascription (c) Usually expressed unless a signal turns
(d) Positive and inducible because it can be them “off”
induced by lactose (d) Never expressed
153. Which enzymes will be produced in a cell in which 155. Which one of the following also acts as a
there is a nonsense mutation in the lac Y gene? catalyst in a bacterial cell? 2010 M
(a) Lactose permease 2013 (a) 5s rRNA (b) sn RNA
(b) Transacetylase (c) hn RNA (d) 23s rRNA
(c) Lactose permease and transcetylase 156. One gene-one enzyme relationship was
(d) β- galactosidase established for the first time in  2007
B - 92

(a) Salmonella typhimurium 165. In operon concept , regulator gene functions as

(b) Escherichia coli  NCERT | Page-117 | 1999
(c) Diplocococcus pneumoniae (a) repressor (b) regulator
(d) Neurospora crassa. (c) inhibitor (d) all of these
157. One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was 166. Genes that are involved in turning on or off
postulated by  2006 the transcription of a set of structural genes are
(a) Hershey and Chase (b) A. Garrod called  1998
(c) Beadle and Tatum (d) R. Franklin (a) Operator genes (b) Redundant genes
158. E.coli cells with a mutated z gene of the lac (c) Regulator genes (d) Polymorphicgenes
167. The wild type E. coli cells are growing in normal
operon cannot grow in medium containing only
medium with glucose. They are transferred to
lactose as the source of energy because: 2005
a medium containing only lactose as sugar.
(a) the lac operon is constitutively active in Which of the following changes takes place?
these cells (a) The lac operon is repressed 1995
(b) they cannot synthesize functional beta- (b) All operons are induced
galactosidase (c) The lac operon is induced
(c) in the presence of glucose, E.coli cells do (d) E.coli cells stop dividing
not utilize lactose 168. An environmental agent, which triggers
(d) they cannot transport lactose from the transcription from an operon, is a 1995
medium into the cell (a) regulator (b) inducer
159. In transgenics, expression of transgene in (c) depressor (d) controlling element
target tissue is determined by 2004 169. The lac operon is an example of
(a) enhancer (b) transgene NCERT | Page-117 | 1995
(c) promoter (d) reporter (a) arabinose operon (b) inducible operon
160. What does "lac" refer to in what we call the lac (c) repressible operon (d) overlapping genes
operon? NCERT | Page-116 | 2003 170. In Escherichia coli, lac operon is induced by
(a) The number 1,00,000 NCERT | Page-117 | 1994
(b) Lactose (a) lactose (b) promoter gene
(c) Lactase (c) β -galactosidase (d) I-gene
(d) Lac insect 171. Binding of specific protein on regulatory DNA
161. In E.coli during lactose metabolism repressor sequence can be studied by means of 1993
binds to NCERT | Page-117 | 2002 (a) ultra centrifugation
(a) regulator gene (b) operator gene (b) electron microscope
(c) structural gene (d) promoter gene (c) light microscope
162. Jacob and Monod studied lactose metabolism Topic-4:
(d) Human Genome Project/
X-ray crystallography
in E.coli and proposed operon concept. Operon DNA Fingerprinting
concept is applicable forNCERT | Page-117 | 2002 172. DNA polymorphism forms the basis of:
(a) all prokaryotes (a) DNA finger printing NCERT | Page-121 | 2022
(b) all prokaryotes and some eukaryotes (b) Both genetic mapping and DNA finger
(c) all prokaryotes and all eukaryotes printing
(d) all prokaryotes and some protozoans (c) Translation (d) Genetic mapping
163. In negative operon  NCERT | Page-117 | 2001 173. If a geneticist uses the blind approach for
(a) co-repressor binds with repressor sequencing the whole genome of an organism,
(b) co-repressor does not bind with repressor followed by assignment of function to different
(c) co-repressor binds with inducer segments, the methodology adopted by him is
(d) CAMP have negative effect on lac operon called as: NCERT | Page-119 | 2022
164. At time of organogenesis genes regulate the (a) Gene mapping
process at different levels and at different time (b) Expressed sequence tags
due to  2001 (c) Bioinformatics
(a) promoter (b) regulator (d) Sequence annotation
(c) intron (d) exon
 B - 93

174. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to: (c) Restriction enzymes
NCERT | Page-119 | 2019 (d) DNA-DNA hybridization
(a) Genes expressed as RNA 176. Satellite DNA is important because it:
(b) Polypeptide expression NCERT | Page-121 | 2015 RS
(c) DNA polymorphism (a) shows high degree of polymorphism in
(d) Novel DNA sequences population and also the same degree of
175. Which of the following is not required for polymorphism in an individual, which is
any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting heritable from parents to children.
available at present ? 2016 (b) does not code for proteins and is same in
(a) Polymerase chain reaction all members of the population
(b) Zinc finger analysis (c) codes for enzymes needed for DNA replication
(d) codes for proteins needed in cell cycle.

177. Commonly used vectors for human genome 179. Which of the following forms the basis of DNA
sequencing are: NCERT | Page-119 | 2014 Finger printing? NCERT | Page-122 | 2012 M
(a) T-DNA (a) The relative proportions of purines and
(b) BAC and YAC pyrimidines in DNA.
(c) Expression Vectors (b) Satellite DNA occurring as highly
(d) T/A Cloning Vectors repeated short DNA segments.
178. One of the most frequently used techniques in DNA (c) The relative difference in the DNA
fingerprinting is NCERT | Page-123 | Kar. 2013 occurrence in blood, skin and saliva.
(a) AFLP (b) VNTR (d) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges
(c) SSCP (d) SCAR and grooves of the fingerprints.
B - 94

180. In history of biology, human genome project led (c) techniques used for molecular analysis of
to the development of: NCERT | Page-118 | 2011 M different specimens of DNA
(a) biotechnology (b) biomonitoring (d) techniques us ed for identification of
(c) bioinformatics (d) biosystematics fingerprints of individuals
181. Satellite DNA is useful tool in: 183. The basis for DNA fingerprinting is
NCERT | Page-121 | 2010 NCERT | Page-121 | 1996
(a) organ transplantation (a) occurrence of restriction fragment length
(b) sex determination polymorphism (RFLP)
(c) forensic science (b) phenotypic differences between individuals
(d) genetic engineering (c) availability of cloned DNA
182. DNA fingerprinting refers to NCERT | Page-121 | 2004 (d) knowledge of human karyotype
(a) molecular analysis of profiles of DNA 184. How many base pairs are found in one genome
samples of man? NCERT | Page-118 | 1999

(b) analysis of DNA samples using imprinting (a) 7 × 104 (b) 2.8 × 107
devices (c) 3 × 109 (d) 4 × 109

ANSWER KEY
1 (a) 20 (b) 39 (c) 58 (c) 77 (d) 96 (b) 115 (c) 134 (a) 153 (d) 172 (b)
2 (d) 21 (b) 40 (a) 59 (a) 78 (a) 97 (c) 116 (c) 135 (d) 154 (b) 173 (d)
3 (b) 22 (d) 41 (c) 60 (a) 79 (a) 98 (c) 117 (c) 136 (d) 155 (d) 174 (a)
4 (d) 23 (c) 42 (c) 61 (b) 80 (a) 99 (b) 118 (d) 137 (b) 156 (d) 175 (b)
5 (c) 24 (d) 43 (a) 62 (a) 81 (c) 100 (c) 119 (c) 138 (b) 157 (c) 176 (a)
6 (a) 25 (d) 44 (d) 63 (d) 82 (a) 101 (c) 120 (d) 139 (c) 158 (b) 177 (b)
7 (b) 26 (d) 45 (d) 64 (b) 83 (b) 102 (d) 121 (c) 140 (c) 159 (d) 178 (b)
8 (d) 27 (a) 46 (b) 65 (d) 84 (a) 103 (d) 122 (d) 141 (c) 160 (b) 179 (b)
9 (d) 28 (b) 47 (b) 66 (c) 85 (a) 104 (a) 123 (b) 142 (b) 161 (b) 180 (c)
10 (b) 29 (c) 48 (d) 67 (d) 86 (d) 105 (a) 124 (a) 143 (a) 162 (b) 181 (c)
11 (d) 30 (b) 49 (a) 68 (d) 87 (a) 106 (b) 125 (a) 144 (b) 163 (a) 182 (a)
12 (a) 31 (a) 50 (a) 69 (c) 88 (b) 107 (d) 126 (a) 145 (d) 164 (b) 183 (a)
13 (a) 32 (c) 51 (d) 70 (a) 89 (c) 108 (a) 127 (d) 146 (d) 165 (a) 184 (c)
14 (b) 33 (b) 52 (b) 71 (b) 90 (d) 109 (b) 128 (c) 147 (b) 166 (c)
15 (a) 34 (b) 53 (d) 72 (b) 91 (d) 110 (a) 129 (b) 148 (c) 167 (c)
16 (a) 35 (d) 54 (c) 73 (c) 92 (d) 111 (a) 130 (c) 149 (d) 168 (b)
17 (b) 36 (b) 55 (b) 74 (c) 93 (a) 112 (c) 131 (b) 150 (c) 169 (b)
18 (c) 37 (c) 56 (d) 75 (a) 94 (b) 113 (c) 132 (c) 151 (c) 170 (a)
19 (c) 38 (a) 57 (d) 76 (c) 95 (a) 114 (a) 133 (a) 152 (a) 171 (d)
 B - 95

Hints & Solutions

1. (a) Heterochromatin is highly condensed, 5. (c) Histones contain basic amino acids such
gene-poor, and transcriptionally silent, whereas as lysine and arginine and their pH is basic in
euchromatin is less condensed, gene-rich, and nature. The histone proteins are classified into
more easily transcribed. So, option b is not five types such as H1, H2A, H2B H3 and H4.
correct. A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp Four of them are paired and produce a unit of 8
of DNA helix. So, option e is not correct. molecules that is called as histone octamer.
2. (d) If the length of DNA double helix in a 6. (a) In a DNA polynucleotide chain, a
typical mammalian cell is calculated (simply nitrogenous base is linked to the hydroxy (–
by multiplying the total number of bp with OH) of 1'C pentose sugar. It is represented in
distance between two consecutive bp, that is, the structure given below -
3.3 × 109 bp × 0.34 × 10–9 m/bp), it comes out NH2
to be approximately 1.1 metres. A length that N
is far greater than the dimension of a typical O N
nucleus (approximately 10–6 m). 5' N N
3. (b) E.coli cells with 16N-dsDNA are incubated HO – P – O O
Nitrogenous
in medium contain 15N Nucleotide. O
– 4' 1'
base
If it culture for an generation (i.e. after 20 min.) Phosphate
3' 2'

had 100% hybrid DNA. DNA extracted from OH H

the culture after IInd generation (i.e. after 40 Deoxyribose
min.), then hybrid DNA was composed of equal sugar
amounts i.e. 50% light DNA and 50 hybrid. And RNA polymerase which makes mRNAs in the
for III generation (i.e. after 60 min.) amount cells was discovered independently by Charles
of DNA is 75% hybrid and 25% light DNA. Loe, Audrey Stevens, and Jerard Hurwitz in
Therefore, if 10 cells of E.coli is incubated in 1960.
medium, after 60 min., 80 cells will formed in 7. (b) The distance between two consecutive
IIIrd generation, there, 60 cells (75%) will have base pairs is – 0.34 nm and the total number
DNA totally free from 15N. of base pairs of DNA double helix in a typical
4. (d) According to the Chargaff's rule, the mammalian cell –6.6 × 109 bp.
amount of adenine (A) should be equal to The length of the DNA would be – Total no. of
thymine (T) and the cytosine (C) should be base pairs × distance between two consecutive
base pairs.
equal to guanine (G) in a double stranded DNA. Length – 6.6 × 109 × 0.34 × 10−9 m ⇒ 2.24m
In the given question, adenine is 30% so thymine 8. (d) Based on the observation of Erwin
will be 30%. So sum of thymine and adenine Chargaff that for a double stranded DNA,
will be 60% and rest 40% will be guanine and the ratios between Adenine and Thymine and
cytosine. Since cytosine and guanine are equal in Guanine and Cytosine are constant and equals
amount so each will be 20%. one. Adenine pairs with thymine through two
Thus A = 30%, T = 30%, G = 20% and C = 20% H-bonds i.e., A = T and guanine pairs with
cytosine with three H-bonds.
Erwin Chargaff was an Austrian-born chemist
Adenine and Thymine also have a favorable
who gave the concept of Chargaff's rule.
configuration for their bonds. They both have
According to this rule DNA of any species of
to -OH/-NH groups which can form hydrogen
any organism contains purine and pyrimidine
bridges. When one pairs Adenine with Cytosine,
bases in the ratio of 1 : 1. Adenine and guanine
the various groups are in each others way.
are the examples of purine while cytosine,
For them to bond with each other would be
thymine and uracil are pyrimidines.
chemically unfavourable.
B - 96

9. (d) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase studied Chargaff's rule states that DNA from any cell of all
bacteriophages, or viruses that attack bacteria. organisms should have a 1:1 ratio (base Pair Rule)
In 1952, they conducted a series of experiments of pyrimidine and purine bases, that the amount of
to prove that DNA is the genetic material. guanine (G) is equal to cytosine (C) and the amount
They labelled the protein of bacteriophages of adenine (A) is equal to thymine (T).
with radioactive sulphur and their DNA with 19. (c) Frederick Griffith (in 1928), a British
radioactive phosphorus. The bacteriophages Medical officer described the phenomenon
were allowed to infect bacteria. The protein of bacterial transformation. He carried out
coat is left behind when the viral DNA enters a experiment with Streptococcus pneumoniae
bacterium. (bacterium causing pneumonia) which is used
Hershey and Chase wanted to find out which to infect mice. By using S Strain (heat killed)
part of the bacteriophage will enter the bacteria and R strain (live) it was concluded that R
and pass on genetic material - protein coat or strain has been transformed by some material
DNA core. The proteins were labeled with of S strain which makes R strain virulent and
radioactive sulfur-35, while DNA contained enable to synthesize smooth polysachharide.
radioactive phosphorus-32. When they joined 20. (b) The combination of pentose sugar with
labeled viruses and bacteria, they discovered nitrogenous bases (purines or pyrimidines) is
that phosphorus-32 was present in the bacteria. called nucleoside. Examples are adenosine,
This outcome supported Avery's theory that guanosine, cytidine, thymidine and uridine.
genes are located in the DNA of the cell. 21. (b) Sequence of DNA is ATCTG then sequence
of m-RNA will UAGAC. As adenine base pairs
10. (b) Purines, a heterocyclic compound, such as with uracil and guanine with cytosine.
adenine and guanine are found both in DNA 22. (d) The unequivocal proof that DNA is the
and RNA. genetic material came from the experiments of
11. (d) Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) is most abundant Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase (1952). They
in animal cell. It constitutes 80% of total RNA worked with viruses that infect bacteria called
of the cell. bacteriophages. The bacteriophage attaches to
12. (a) Hershey and Chase proved that DNA as the bacteria and its genetic material then enter
genetic material. They used bacteriophage for the bacterial cell.
their experiment. 23. (c) Under electron microscope the
13. (a) DNA fragments are negatively charged nucleosomes appear as beads on a string in
because of presence of phosphate group. chromosome, due to a short length of DNA
14. (b) The association of H1 protein indicates wrapped around a core of histone proteins.
the complete formation of nucleosome which
requires DNA condensation. The DNA is The nucleosome is the fundamental subunit
therefore in condensed form. of chromatin. Each nucleosome is composed
15. (a) A polysome or polyribosome is a of a little less than two turns of DNA wrapped
complex of an mRNA molecule and two or around a set of eight proteins called histones,
which are known as a histone octamer. Each
more ribosomes, which is formed during the
histone octamer is composed of two copies each
active translation process. They were initially
of the histone proteins H2A, H2B, H3, and H4.
named as ergosomes in 1963. However, further
research by Jonathan Warner and Alex Rich 24. (d) HIV viruses does not follow central dogma.
characterized polysome. Central dogma is a one way flow of information
16. (a) Genetic material should be structurally from DNA to mRNA and then to protein.
and chemically stable. 25. (d) Purine is an organic nitrogenous base
17. (b) Chargaff’s rule states that A = T and G ≡ C. sparingly soluble in water, that gives rise to
The molar amount of adenine = molar amount a group of biologically important derivatives,
of thymine. The molar amount of guanine = notably adenine and guanine, which occur in
molar amount of cytosine. nucleotides and nucleic acids (DNA and RNA).
Hence, G is 17%, so, C = 17% 26. (d) In the DNA molecule, there are two
A = 33%, so, T = 33% strands which run anti parallel, one is 5' - 3'
18. (c) RNA is single stranded, so it doesn't direction and other in 3' -5' direction. The two
follow Chargaff's rule. strands are held together by hydrogen bonds
 B - 97

between their bases. Adenine (A), a purine of 29. (c) The DNA binding sequence for RNA
one chain is exactly opposite to thymine (T), polymerase is called TATA box.
a pyrimidine of the other chain. Similarly, 30. (b) The two chains are antiparallel, one
cytosine (C), a pyrimidine lies opposite to aligned in 5’→3’ direction the other in 3’ →
guanine (G), a purine. This allows a sort of lock 5’ direction.
& key arrangment between large sized purine 31. (a) Neomycin is the antibiotic which inhibits
& small sized pyrimidine. It is strengthened by the translation of bacterial cell so that it can not
the appearance of hydrogen bonds between the affect the host cell.
two. 32. (c) According to Chargaff purines and
27. (a) The nucleosome model explains the pyrimidines are in equal amounts. Purine
packaging of histone proteins and DNA (adenine) is equimolar with pyrimidine
in the chromatin material which forms the (thymine) and purine (guanine) is equimolar
chromosome. with pyrimidine (cytosine).
28. (b) A sequential expression of a set of human A+T
Base ratio is specific for species.
genes is the DNA sequence. Because gene is C+G
the functional part of DNA sequence.

33. (b) During transcription, from the DNA 36. (b) Transformation is change in genetic
template complementary mRNA is formed and material of an organism by obtaining genes from
thymine is replaced by uracil. outside. Transformation experiment was first
34. (b) In eukaryotic cells, two cytoplasmic studied by Griffith in diplococcus pneumoniae
organelles, mitochondria and chloroplast of green and hence is known as Griffith effect.
plants, contain their own genetic materials. 37. (c) According to Chargaff's rule, the ratio
35. (d) rRNA occurs inside ribosomes. m RNA of purine bases to pyrimidine bases is equal.
carries information from DNA to polypeptides. A = T, C = G.
hnRNA are heterogenous nuclear RNA. If T is 20% then A is 20% and C and G are 30%,
30%.
B - 98

38. (a) Colour blindness follows sex-linked reverse transcription and it is carried by an
inheritance. Phenylketonuria is an in born error RNA dependent DNA polymerase called as
of metabolism. reverse transcriptase.
39. (c) Ribozymes are catalytically active RNA 49. (a) In 1953 Wilkins obtained very fine X-ray
molecule discovered in 1980’s. They are self crystallographic pictures of DNA from which
splicing introns indicating their possible role Watson and Crick developed the double helix
as intermediates in the evolution of biological model of DNA.
systems from abiotic substances. 50. (a) A single strand of DNA would not possess
40. (a) Kim et al (1973) suggested L shape model complementary base pairs. Hence nitrogenous
of t- RNA by X-Ray diffraction while studying bases are unequal in number.
phenyl alanine t - RNA of yeast. 51. (d) Hershey and Chase (1952) worked on
41. (c) In semi conservative replication of DNA Escherichia coli and conclusively proved that
in each replica one half is the old strand and the DNA is the genetic material.
other half is a new strand synthesised over it. Also, 52. (b) The transforming chemical discovered by
one strand is synthesised continuously and other Griffith in his experiments with Pneumococcus,
discontinuously, hence called discontinuous. was confirmed as DNA by Avery, McLeod and
42. (c) In DNA adenine always pairs with thymine McCarty.
and guanine always pairs with cytosine, this is 53. (d) The four histone proteins constituting the
called complementary base pairing. core of nucleosome are H2A, H2B, H3, H4.
43. (a) Griffith’s experiment with Pneumococcus 54. (c) Nucleotide is a unit of DNA , which
proves that DNA is the genetic material. is formed of nitrogenous bases (urines &
44. (d) The number of base pairs (bp) found in Pyrimidines), sugar (Pentose) & phosphate.
the haploid genome of humans is 3 × 109. 55. (b) Nucleosomes are oblate spherical structure
45. (d) Genome refers to the total sets of having an octamer of four histone proteins
chromosomes carried by each cell of the organism. (constituting 2 molecules of each type).
In prokaryotes, the genetic material is circular 56. (d) The process of translation of mRNA to
and single stranded DNA. It has no association protein begins as soon small unit of ribosome
of histones. It remains in direct contact with the encounters Mrna.
cytoplasm. The eukaryotic genetic material is 57. (d) DNA replication is the process by which
linear and double stranded DNA. It is associated DNA makes a copy of itself during cell division.
with histone proteins to form nucleosome unit. It The process by which DNA is copied to RNA is
is separated by a nuclear membrane. called transcription, and that by which RNA is
46. (b) Heterochromatin is a specialised used to produce proteins is called translation.
chromosome material which remains tightly Transduction is transfer of genetic material
coiled and stains darkly in interphase. from one bacterium to another with the help of
Euchromatin is that portion of the chromosome virus or a bacteriophages.
that stains with low intensity and uncoils during 58. (c) The RNA Dependent RNA polymerase is
interphase. In the beginning of S-sphase, DNA an important enzyme. In prokaryotic organisms
replication occurs. DNA replication can occur this enzyme is responsible for the process of
in diffuse/ less tightly coiled euchromatin. initiation, elongation and termination during the
47. (b) In bacteria the chromosome or nucleoid process of transcription. DNase is an enzyme
is a naked double stranded DNA. The bacterial that is involved in the cleavage of phosphodiester
DNA is folded with the help of RNAs forming linkages of the DNA backbone. RNA dependent
a super coiled circular complex. The coiling DNA polymerase is responsible for the process
is stabilized with the help of non-histonic of DNA Replication. DNA LIGASE JOINS
polyamines and a number of positively charged THE FRAGMENTS OF DNA.
ions. Eukaryotic DNA is associated with 59. (a) siRNA is silencing RNA that is not
histone proteins that are helpful in its coiling to involved in the process of protein synthesis.
form chromatin fibres. mRNA, tRNA and rRNA are the types of RNA
48. (d) H. Temin and D. Baltimore (1970) that are responsible for the protein synthesis.
discovered that tumor viruses contain RNA as 60. (a)
genetic material and replicate by synthesizing •  AUG has dual functions, it codes for
complementary DNA. This process is called
 B - 99

methionine. It also acts as initiator codon. of time that holoenzyme (a2bb’s) is bound to
• AUG does not code for phenylalanine. promoter, i.e. it facilitates a random search for
• Statement II is true. promoters.
61. (b) The first phase of translation involves None of the answers given is correct according
activation of amino acid in the presence of ATP to the question.
and linked to their cognate tRNA - a process Termination factor is a protein signal that
commonly called as charging of tRNA or regulates the transcription of RNA to preserve
aminoacylation of tRNA. gene expression integrity and is present in both
eukaryotes and prokaryotes, although the process
Mutations in transfer RNA genes reduce the in bacteria is more widely understood. The most
ability of the tRNA to add amino acids to extensively studied and detailed transcriptional
proteins, slowing protein production. Mutations termination factor is the Rho (ρ) protein of E. coli.
that affect mitochondrial tRNAs impair the The process of transcriptional termination is less
ability of mitochondria to provide energy for understood in eukaryotes, which have extensive
cells or to control blood sugar levels. post-transcriptional RNA processing, and each
of the three types of eukaryotic RNA polymerase
62. (a) Genetic code is the sequence of have a different termination system. In RNA
nucleotides in deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) polymerase I, Transcription termination factor
and ribonucleic acid (RNA) that determines the binds downstream of the pre-rRNA coding
amino acid sequence of proteins. Genetic code regions, causing the dissociation of the RNA
is universal, unambiguous, non overlapping polymerase from the template and the release
and degenerate in nature. of the new RNA strand. In RNA polymerase II,
63. (d) During transcription in eukaryotes, RNA the termination occurs via a polyadenylation/
polymerase I transcribes 5.8S, 18S and 28S cleaving complex. The 3' tail on the ending
rRNA. Eukaryotic transcription is carried out of the strand is bound at the polyadenylation
in the nucleus of the cell and proceeds in three site, but the strand will continue to code. The
sequential stages: initiation, elongation, and newly formed amino acids are removed one at
termination. Eukaryotes require transcription a time by the cleavage factors CSTF and CPSF,
factors to first bind to the promoter region and in a process that is still not fully understood.
The remainder of the strand is disengaged
then help recruit the appropriate polymerase.
by a 5′-exonuclease when the transcription is
The state of chromatin structure at a specific finished. RNA polymerase III terminates after
region in eukaryotic DNA, along with the a series of uracil polymerization residues in the
presence of specific transcription factors, works transcribed mRNA. Unlike in bacteria and in
to regulate gene expression in eukaryotes. polymerase I, the termination RNA hairpin needs
However, this complex interplay between to be upstream to allow for correct cleaving.
proteins that serve as transcriptional
65. (d) RNA polymerase is an enzyme that is
activators or repressors and accessibility to
responsible for copying a DNA sequence
the regulatory sequence is still just part of
into an RNA sequence during the process of
the story. Epigenetic mechanisms, including
DNA methylation and imprinting, noncoding
transcription. In eukaryotes, there are three
RNA, post-translational modifications, and
types of RNA polymerases.
other mechanisms, further enrich the cellular
(i) RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNAs genes.
portfolio of gene expression control activities. (ii) RNA polymerase II transcribes hnRNAs.
(iii) RNA polymerase III transcribes tRNAs
64. (b) The sigma factor (s) causes RNA and 5srRNA.
polymerase to bind to the correct sites on 66. (c) 5' TACGTACGTACGTAC 3' (Coding strand)
DNA to initiate transcription (i.e. promoters). 5' UACGUACGUACGUAC 3' (m-RNA)
s destabilises the complex between core In m-RNA at the place of thymine in coding
polymerase and non-promoter DNA and strand uracil remain present.
decreases the amount of time it is bound. It 67. (d) Nucleolus is non-membranous
nucleoplasmic structure in nucleus. Nucleolus
enhances the affinity and increases the amount
is the site of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis.
B - 100

68. (d) There will be no change in reading frame appears away from the replication fork and
of m-RNA by deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th, thus the direction of elongation would be away
and 9th position. from replication fork.
74. (c) In eukaryotes, spliceosomes are used in removal
of introns during post-transcriptional processing of
hnRNA. They are absent in prokaryotes.
75. (a) The start codon is the first codon of a
messenger RNA (mRNA) transcript translated
69. (c) In recombinant DNA technology bacteria by a ribosome. The start codon always codes
are able to produce human insulin, used to for methionine in eukaryotes and a modified
treat diabetes because genetic code is nearly Met (fMet) in prokaryotes. The most common
universal. start codon is AUG.
70. (a) Coding strand and mRNA have the similar 76. (c) Template strand is sequence of DNA
nucleotide sequence except, Thymine (T) is which is going to be copied during the synthesis
replaced by Uracil (U) in mRNA. of mRNA.
71. (b) Semi-conservative DNA replication was 77. (d) Cistron is a part of DNA or RNA that shows
first shown in bacterium Escherichia coli by a specific polypeptide for specific behaviour
Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl. and gene is also codes for a specific character
72. (b) 999 bases in RNA codes for a protein or trait. So, it is equivalent to structural gene.
with 333 amino acids. If base at 901 position 78. (a) 23S rRNA is also known as 25S rRNA,
is deleted then first 900 bases will be normal which is a ribozyme that carries aminoacetyl
while bases after 901th base will be altered that transferase activity which occurs in ribosomes
is 99 bases will be altered. specially in prokaryotes. Hence, it acts as
3 bases stand for 1 codon, so, 99 bases = 33 structural RNA in bacteria.
codons will be altered due to deletion of one 79. (a) Process of copying genetic information
base at 901 position. from DNA to RNA is called transcription. At a
Molecular basis of organ differentiation time only one DNA strand is being transcribed
depends on the modulation in transcription by into RNA. The strand of DNA with polarity 3’
transcription factor. A transcription factor is a → 5’ act as template strand and the DNA strand
protein that binds to specific DNA sequences, with polarity 5’ → 3’ act as coding strand.
thereby controlling the rate of transcription of 80. (a) Synthesis of RNA exhibits several
genetic information from DNA to messenger features that are synonymous with DNA
RNA. Transcription factors are essential for replication. RNA synthesis requires accurate
the regulation of gene expression and are, as and efficient initiation, elongation proceeds in
a consequence, found in all living organisms. the 5’→3’ direction (i.e. the polymerase moves
The number of transcription factors found along the template strand of DNA in the 3’→5’
within an organism increases with genome direction), and RNA synthesis requires distinct
size, and larger genomes tend to have more and accurate termination.
transcription factors per gene. Transcription 81. (c) Genetic code is the relationship of amino
factors bind to either enhancer or promoter acid sequence in a polypeptide and nucleotide/base
regions of DNA adjacent to the genes that they sequence in mRNA/antisense strand of DNA.
regulate. Depending on the transcription factor, It is universal, i.e., a codon specifies the same
the transcription of the adjacent gene is either amino acid in all organisms, non-overlapping,
up- or down-regulated. i.e., adjacent codons are independent with no
73. (c) Two DNA polymerase molecules base being member of two codons, degeneracy,
simultaneously work at the DNA fork, one on i.e., some amino acids are coded by more than
the leading strand and the other on the lagging one codon, hence the code is degenerate,
strand. unambiguous, i.e., one codon codes for only
DNA polymerase synthesizes each Okazaki one amino acid.
fragment at lagging strand in 5′-3′ direction. As 82. (a) In this question A is francis crick, B
the replication fork opens further, new Okazaki is translation and C is transcription. It is
fragments appear. The first Okazaki fragment unidirectional flow of information from DNA
 B - 101

to mRNA (transcription) and then decoding the permease and transacetylase respectively. The
information present in mRNA in the formation lac regulator gene, designated as i gene, codes
of polypeptide chain or protein (translation). for repressor. In the absence of the inducer, the
83. (b) DNA A mRNA B protein Proposed C
by
repressor binds to the lac operator, preventing
RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter
In this question A is transcription, B - translation and thus transcribing the structural gene.
and C is Francis Crick (central dogma) It is 90. (d) The genetic code consists of 64 triplets of
unidirectional flow of information from DNA nucleotides. These triplets are called codons.
to mRNA (transcription) and then decoding the With three exceptions, each codon encodes for
information present in mRNA in the formation one of the 20 amino acids used in the synthesis
of polypeptide chain or protein (translation). of proteins. That produces some redundancy
84. (a) Removal of RNA polymerase III from in the code. Most of the amino acids being
nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of tRNA encoded by more than one codon. The genetic
while RNA polymerase I forms r-RNA and code can be expressed as either RNA codons or
RNA polymerase II form m-RNA in eukaryotes. DNA codons.
85. (a) Transcription unit consists of promoter, 91. (d) Splicing is the removal of introns and
structural gene & terminator. joining the exons in a defined order in a
86. (d) Removal of introns by spliceosome in transcription unit. In molecular biology,
hnRNA and joining of exons by DNA liagse splicing is a modification of RNA after
in a defined order during transcription is called transcription, in which introns are removed and
splicing. exons are joined.
92. (d) Nirenberg and Mathaei (1961)
experi­mentally proved that a single amino
acid is determined by a sequence of three
3 mRNA nitrogen bases. The sequence of three nitrogen
mG
Cap Intron bases determining a single amino acid is
PPP
5 Exon Polyadenylation
called a triplet code. Nirenberg and Mathaei
mG
RNA splicing
3
experiments cracked the DNA and discovered
5
PPP
Poly A tail
unequivocally that a genetic code is a triplet.
mG
93. (a) Semiconservative replication of DNA
5
PPP
was first demonstrated in Escherichia coli. E.
3
mG
PPP coli is a common type of bacteria that can get
5
Messenger RNA into food, like beef and vegetables. The strange

Fig.: Process of Transcription in Eukaryotes
thing about these bacteria is that they are not
87. (a) Statement A & D is correct always harmful to you. E. coli normally lives
Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred inside your intestines, where it helps your body
as negative regulation. In negative regulation, a breakdown and digest the food you eat.
repressor molecule binds to the operator of an 94. (b) GCU indicates alanine but GUU indicates
operon and terminates transcription. In positive valine.
regulation, an activator interacts with the RNA Stop codons are UAG, UGA and UAA
polymerase in the promoter region to initiate AUG is the most common start codon which
transcription. codes for methionine.
Human genome contains some 20,000-25,000 UUA indicates leucine but UCA indicates
genes billion bases. serine.
88. (b) Genetic code is non-ambiguous. There 95. (a) Polysome (Polyribosome) is a complex
is no ambiguity for a particular codon. A formed by several ribosomes attached to a
particular codon will always code for the same single mRNA molecule in the process of
amino acid, where ever it is found. translation.
89. (c) Jacob and Monod proposed the lac operon 96. (b) Molecular basis of organ differentiation
of E. coli. The lac operon contains a promoter, depends on the modulation in transcription by
an operator, and three structural genes called z, transcription factor. A transcription factor is a
y, and a, coding for the enzyme, β galactosidase, protein that binds to specific DNA sequences,
B - 102

thereby controlling the rate of transcription of serine, UUU codes for phenylalanine, UGU
genetic information from DNA to nRNA. codes for cysteine.
97. (c) Okazaki fragments in DNA are linked up 106. (b) UAA is the stop codon. Therefore at 25th
by the enzyme DNA ligase. Replication always amino acid the synthesis of polypeptide stops.
occurs in 5' - 3' direction. Okazaki fragments So, a polypeptide of 24 amino acids is formed.
synthesised on 3' - 5' DNA template, join to 107. (d) Out of a total of 64 codons, 3 codons do
form lagging strand. not make any sense. Hence only 61 codons are
98. (c) Telomerase is a ribonucleoprotein which used in the formation of the 20 essential amino
synthesises G rich strand of telomeres in acids (polypeptides).
DNA. It adds specific DNA sequence repeats 108. (a) According to the Wobble hypothesis,
("TTAGGG" in all vertebrates) to the 3' end of tRNA anticodon has the ability to wobble at its
DNA strands in the telomere regions, which are 5′end by pairing with even non-complementary
found at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes. base of mRNA codon. It corresponds to third
The telomeres contain condensed DNA base degeneracy of the codons.
material, giving stability to the chromosomes. 109. (b) Regulatorisagenewhichformsabiochemical
The enzyme is a reverse transcriptase that for suppressing the activity of operator gene.
carries its own RNA molecule, which is used Promoter is the gene which provides the point
as a template when it elongates telomeres, of attachment to RNA polymerase required for
which are shortened after each replication transcription of structural genes.
cycle. Telomerase was discovered by Carol W. 110. (a) Out of 64 codons, only 3 signify stop
Greider in 1984. codons. There are more than one codon for most
99. (b) About 28 base pairs from transcription of the amino acids, the genetic code is non-
start site are TATA boxes. After 40 bases from overlapping. Three successive nucleotides or
TATA boxes appears LAAT boxes. Both of these bases code for only one amino acid. Wobbling
sequence serve as recognition site in eukaryotic refers to the third base degeneracy.
promoters (Transcription in eukaryotic genes in a 111. (a) Exons are the coding part of mRNA.
far more complicated process than in prokaryotes) 112. (c) Eukaryotes have three types of RNA
polymerases :
100. (c) Reverse transcriptase (RNA dependent
(i) RNA polymerase I - It is found in nucleus
DNA polymerase) is present in some
and is responsible for rRNA (28S, 18S
retroviruses e.g., HIV virus.
and 5.8S) synthesis.
101. (c) In transition, a purine is replaced by (ii) RNA polymerase II - It is found in
another purine base (A with G or vice-versa). nucleoplasm and is responsible for mRNA
In transversion, a purine is replaced by a synthesis.
pyrimidine base or vice-versa. Frameshift (iii) 
RNA polymerase III - It is found in
mutation is a type of mutation where the nucleoplasm and is responsible for tRNA
reading of codons is changed due to insertion and 5S rRNA synthesis.
or deletion of nucleotides. Transcription is the 113. (c) Cistron is that segment of DNA which
formation of RNA over the template of DNA. specifies synthesis of a polypeptide.
102. (d) Telomeres are non sticky terminal ends of 114. (a) The enzyme polymerase can synthesize
the chromosomes. It has heterochromatin and the bases only in 5′→3′direction.
repetitive DNA. 115. (c) Mutation generally produces recessive genes.
103. (d) Replication begins at the ori - origin of 116. (c) The telomere is a region of repetitive
replication and proceeds on both sides from nucleotide sequences at each end of a
the ori. Unidirectional replication is rare. RNA chromosome which acts to protect the
primers are involved in both prokaryotes and terminal ends of chromosomes. This prevents
eukaryotes. chromosomal disintegration and prevents the
104. (a) For the formation of initiation complex ends of the chromosome from being processed as
during translation of mRNA, GTP is also a double strand DNA break, which could lead to
required. The initiator AUG codes for the chromosome-to-chromosome telomere fusions.
formylmethionine in prokaryotes. 117. (c) tRNA works as an adaptor molecules for
105. (a) AUG is initiation codon. UCG codes for carrying amino acid to the mRNA template
during protein synthesis. It bears anticodon and
 B - 103

recognises the specific codon on mRNA. called “jumping genes” or “mobile genetic
118. (d) The initiation codon is the codon which elements”. Discovered by Barbara McClintock
initiates the protein synthesis. They are AUG early in her career, the topic went on to be a
for methionine and GUG for valine. Nobel winning work in 1983. There are a
119. (c) The term "hot spots" was used by Benzer for variety of mobile genetic elements, and they
the sites which are more mutable than other sites. can be grouped based on their mechanism of
Studies in 1978 revealed that 5-methylcytosine transposition.
residues occur at the position of each hot spot. 121. (c) Only the peptidyl transferase reaction
120. (d) Transposons are sequences of DNA that does not require energy. The aminoacyl-tRNA
can move around to different positions within binding to ribosome involves elongation factors
the genome of a single cell, and the process and energy (GTP). Amino acid activation
is called transposition. In the process, they requires energy (the cleavage of ATP to AMP
can cause mutations and change the amount and PPi). Translocation requires an elongation
of DNA in the genome. Transposons are also factors and energy (GTP).

122. (d) Termination codons are the stop signals 124. (a) DNA replication is semiconservative. i.e.
which when encountered cause termination of at each replication one of the parental strands is
polypeptide synthesis. They are UAA (ochre), retained and a new daughter strand is obtained.
UAG (amber) and UGA (opal). Codons are Thus only half of the parental DNA molecule is
determined by the sequence of bases on the carried to the next generation.
DNA. Thymine is not present on RNA.
123. (b) A mutation bringing about early stoppage
of polypeptide formation is called nonsense
mutation. Frame shift mutation is a type of gene
mutation where the reading of codons is changed
due to insertion or deletion of nucleotides.
B - 104

136. (d) Codons are 64 in number. Out of this, 61

codes for amino acids. Each codon possesses
3 bases, each of which can undergo transition
and transversion. (61 × 32 = 549)
125. (a) Multiple alleles are multiple alternatives 137. (b) The tautomer forms of nitrogen bases are
or alleles of the same gene which occur in imino-tautomer instead of amino group (e.g.
the population of same species. Pseudoalleles cytosine, adenine) or enol instead of the keto
are two or more genes that have functional group (e.g. thymine, guanine).
similarity and they may behave like two or Tautomers are organic compounds that are
more alleles of the same gene. Polygenes are interconvertible by a chemical reaction called
the genes controlling quantitative inheritances. tautomerisation. The concept of tautomers
Oncogenes are the cancer causing genes. that are interconvertible by tautomerisations is
126. (a) In eukaryotes, separate protein factors called tautomerism. Tautomerism is a special
take part in recognition and initiation during case of structural isomerism and can play an
transcription. They are called transcription important role in non-canonical base pairing in
factors. Coenzymes are non-protein organic DNA and especially RNA molecules.
cofactors which get loosely attached to 138. (b) Translation is the synthesis of protein
apoenzymes during the functioning of synthesis occurs over ribosomes which are also
holoenzymes. referred to as protein factories.
127. (d) Eukaryote RNAs contain non coding 139. (c) Unwindase or helicase takes part in
intervening segments called introns. The separation of two DNA strands. In
process of removal of introns through cutting prokaryotes, helicase or unwindase is assisted
and joining the essential coding sequences by gyrase in this function.
(exons) is called splicing. 140. (c) All amino acids are specified by more
128. (c) In the cytoplasm protein synthesis is than one codon (except Tryptophan and
restricted to the ribosomes. Mitochondria Methionine). Hence they are degenerate.
being a semiautonomous organelle, has its own 141. (c) After one generation in 14N medium
genetic machinery to synthesize its proteins. DNA of bacteria settled at a level intermediate
129. (b) mRNA or messenger RNA brings coded between heavy and light bands due to
information from DNA to form polypeptides. semi conservative DNA replication.
rRNA or ribosomal RNA occurs inside 142. (b) Hargobind Khorana first deciphered the
ribosomes and is involved in protein synthesis. triplet codon of cysteine and valine.
130. (c) Replication of DNA is discontinuous over 143. (a) Meselson and Stahl (1958) raised
the lagging strand i.e., over this strand only Escherichia coli on ammonium chloride having
small stretches of DNA are built due to opposite heavy isotope of nitrogen for several generations
running of DNA template. The small stretches to study semi-conservative replication of DNA.
of DNA are called Okazaki fragments. 144. (b) Central dogma of protein synthesis
131. (b) Termination codons (triplet) are the explains a unidirectional or one way flow of
stop signals which when encountered cause information from DNA to RNA (transcription)
termination of polypeptide synthesis. The and from RNA to polypeptide (translation).
termination codons are UAA, UAG and UGA. 145. (d) Genetic code is triplet coding for
132. (c) The parts of a gene, which become part one amino acid in a polypeptide chain.
of mRNA and code for different regions of the There are four different types of nucleotides -
proteins are called exons. A, U, G, and C. Since a code is a triplet thus
133. (a) DNA gyrase participates in the unwinding 64 (4×4×4) distinct triplet of bases determine
of DNA helix during replication. the 20 amino acids. But out of 64, only 61 code
134. (a) Protein synthesis involves initiation, for 20 amino acids. Three codons that do not
elongation and termination. Transcription is the code for any amino acids are terminator or non
process of synthesis of RNA from DNA. sense codons (UAG, UGA and UAA). Still in
135. (d) The phenomenon of making DNA over RNA 61 triplet codons there is an excess 41 codons
genome through enzyme reverse transcriptase is and therefore more than one codon codes for
called reverse transcription or teminism. same amino acid.
 B - 105

146. (d) Genetic code is the relationship of amino repressor from binding to the operator. RNA
acid sequence in a polypeptide chain and polymerase can then begin to transcribe
base sequence of mRNA. It includes adenine, structural genes.
guanine, cytosine and uracil. 152. (a) Lac operon under control of repressor
147. (b) if lactose is provided in the growth medium shows a negative regulation. Operon has
of the bacteria, the lactose is transported inducible nature.
into the cells through the action of permease 153. (d) A nonsense mutation is the one which
(Remember, a very low level of expression of stops polypeptide synthesis due to formation
lac operon has to be present in the cell all the of a terminating or nonsense codon e.g. ATT
time, otherwise lactose cannot enter the cells). (UAA), ATC (UAG), ACT (UGA). The
The lactose then induces the operon in the lactose or lac operon of Escherichia coli
following manner. contains structural genes (z, y, a). If y codes
In absence of for termination of polypeptide chain then
inducer
only the product of ‘z’ gene transcribe to form
Repressor binds to the operator
region(o) and prevents RNA β galactosidase.
Repressor mRNA
polymerase from transcribing 154. (b) Inducible operons are usually switched
the operon off. This is a type of operon which is switched
Repressor on when a chemical called inducer is present.
the inducer is almost always a substrate.
 hree of the enzymes for lactose metabolism
T 155. (d) The 23S rRNA is a 2904 nucleotide long
are grouped in the lac operon: lacZ, lacY, and component of the larger subunit of the bacterial
lacA (Figure 12.1. 1). LacZ encodes an enzyme ribosome. The ribosomal peptidyl transferase
called β-galactosidase, which digests lactose into activity resides in domian V of this rRNA, and
its two constituent sugars: glucose and galactose this domain is the most common binding site
148. (c) Lac operon consist of one regulatory genes for antibiotics that inhibit translation.
(i gene) and three structural genes (z, y, and a). 156. (d) It was given by Geneticists George W.
• i gene codes for Repressor. Beadle and E. L. Tatum which states that each
• z gene codes for Beta-galactosidase. gene in an organism controls the production of a
• y gene codes for Permease. specific enzyme. It is the enzyme that catalyses
• a gene codes for Transacetylase. the reactions that leads to the phenotype of the
149. (d) Unlike eukaryotes in prokaryotes the organism.
genes are organised into operon. Operon is 157. (c) Beadle & Tatum postulated the theory of
a co-ordinated group of genes which are all ‘One gene-one enzyme’ in which they stated
transcribed together & regulate a metabolic that in any living cell there are number of genes
pathway as a unit. present on chromosomes in a linear fashion.
150. (c) Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod One single gene controls the synthesis of one
proposed the model of gene regulation known particular enzyme (or protein) in the cell which
as operon model/lac operon. Alec Jeffreys is responsible for its phenotypic character.
gave DNA fingerprinting technique. Matthew
158. (b) Operons are segments of genetic material
Meselson and F. Stahl gave semi-conservative
which function as regulated unit or units that
DNA replication in E.coli. Alfred Hershey and
Martha Chase proved DNA as genetic material can be switched on and switched off. An
not protein. operon consists of one to several structural
151. (c) Lac operon is an inducible operon. genes. (Three in lac operon)
Lactose is the substrate for the enzyme beta- These are genes which produce mRNAs for
galactosidase and it also regulates switching forming polypeptides / proteins / enzymes.
on and off of the operon. Hence, it is termed Z (produces enzyme β galactosidase for
as inducer. Inducer functions by disabling splitting lactose into glucose and galactose).
repressors. The gene is expressed because an Y (produces enzyme galactoside permease
inducer binds to the repressor. The binding required for entry of lactose) and A (produces
of the inducer to the repressor prevents the enzyme thiogalactoside trans- acetylase).
B - 106

The three structural genes of the operon lac permease and transacetylase respectively. It
produce a single polycistronic mRNA. is an example of inducible operon.
159. (d) Reporter genes are used to determine 170. (a) Lac operon is an inducible operon system
whether a particular DNA construct has been it remains switched off normally but becomes
successfully introduced into a cell, organ or tissue. operational in the presence of inducer lactose.
Enhances is a DNA sequence present within the 171. (d) X-ray crystallography is a technique to
control regions of many eukaryotic genes that study the binding of specific protein on regulatory
can enhance transcription. A transgenic organism DNA. X-ray crystallography or single-crystal
contains in its genome a gene or genes introduced X-ray diffraction is an analytical technique
by one or the other technique of transfection. which uses the diffraction pattern produced by
The gene introduced by transfection is called bombarding a single crystal with X-rays to solve
transgene. Promote is a cis-acting nucleotide the crystal structure. The diffraction pattern
sequence on a DNA molecule, which promotes is recorded and then analyzed or “solved” to
the initiation of transcription. reveal the nature of the crystal. This technique
160. (b) Lactose operon in E.coli is a catabolic is widely used in chemistry and biochemistry to
pathway in which the structural genes remain determine the structures of an immense variety
switched off unless the inducer (Lactose) is of molecules, including inorganic compounds,
present in the medium. DNA, and proteins.
161. (b) Regulator gene forms a biochemical 172. (b) DNA polymorphism form the basis of
for suppressing the activity of operator gene. genetic mapping and DNA fingerprinting.
Promoter gene is the gene which provides
P
 olymorphism, as related to genomics, refers to
point of attachment to RNA polymerase the presence of two or more variant forms of a
required for transcription of structural genes. specific DNA sequence that can occur among
Structural genes are genes which transcribe different individuals or populations. The
m RNA for polypeptide synthesis. most common type of polymorphism involves
162. (b) Gene regulation of eukaryotes is complex variation at a single nucleotide (also called a
as compared to that of prokaryotes. single-nucleotide polymorphism, or SNP).
163. (a) In negative (repressible) operon, the repressor 173. (d) Sequence annotation is the process of
co-repressor complex binds with the operator. The marking specific features in a DNA, RNA or
free repressor cannot bind to the operator. protein sequence with descriptive information
164. (b) Introns are non coding intervening sequences about structure or function.
on DNA but exons are the coding sequences.
165. (a) Regulator gene produces a biochemical  he aim of high-quality annotation is to
T
for suppressing the activity of the operator identify the key features of the genome —
in particular, the genes and their products.
gene. The tools and resources for annotation
166. (c) A regulator gene is a gene involved in are developing rapidly, and the scientific
controlling the expression of one or more other community is becoming increasingly reliant
genes. In prokaryotes, regulator genes often on this information for all aspects of biological
code for repressor proteins. Repressor proteins research
bind to operators or promoters, preventing 174. (a) Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) are
RNA polymerase from transcribing RNA.
DNA sequences (genes) that are expressed as
167. (c) If Escherichia coli bacteria grow in
mRNA for protein synthesis. These are used in
normal glucose medium and when transferred
human Genome Project.
to a medium containing lactose, then the lac
operon is induced. Expressed Sequence Tags are small pieces of
168. (b) The inducer is an environmental agent, DNA sequence (usually 200 to 500 nucleotides
long) that are generated by sequencing either one
which triggers transcription from an operon.
or both ends of an expressed gene. First, each
The inducer or effector molecule are small
gene (DNA) must be converted, or transcribed,
sized which can bind to a regular protein.
into messenger RNA (mRNA)--RNA that serves
169. (b) The lac operon consists of a promotor gene,
as a template for protein synthesis.
an operator gene and structural genes. There
are three structural genes designated as z, y and 175. (b) Zinc-finger analysis is used for protein
a, which code for the enzymes β-galactosidase, analysis. The zinc finger proteins are a super
 B - 107

family of proteins involved in numerous have a high degree of variability from person
activities of plant growth and development. to person. These sections are known as Tandem
176. (a) Satellite DNA displays high degree of repeats. The test is used to determine whether a
polymorphism in population and also the same family relationship exists between two people,
degree of polymorphism in an individual, to identify organisms causing a disease, and to
which is inherited from parents to children solve crimes.
(offsprings). 180. (c) Human genome project was closely
177. (b) Human genome sequencing is a process associated with the rapid development of new
that determines the complete DNA sequence area in biology called bioinformatic.
of an organism’s genome at a single time. 181. (c) Satellite DNA is useful in forensic
This requires sequencing all of an organism’s science. The polymorphism of minisatellite,
chromosomal DNA as well as DNA contained microsatellite and minivariant repeats is
in the mitochondria and, for plants, in the analysed for DNA finger printing, DNA
chloroplast. Commonly used vectors for profiling. It helps in the resolution of crimes,
human genome sequencing are BAC (Bacterial legal disputes etc.
artificial chromosome) and YAC (Yeast 182. (a) DNA fingerprinting is the technique
artificial chromosome). of determining nucleotide sequences of
A P1-derived artificial chromosome (PAC) is a certain areas of DNA which are unique to
DNA construct that was derived from the DNA each individual. DNA contains noncistronic
of P1 bacteriophage. hypervariable repeat sequences called VNTR.
DNA fingerprinting involves the identification
178. (b) The technique of DNA fingerprinting was of these VNTRs.
developed by Dr. Alec Jeffrey in 1984. It is a 183. (a) DNA fingerprinting is a technique to
technique generally using repeated sequences identify a person on the basis of his DNA which
(repetitive DNA) in the human genome that is specific for every individual. This technique
produces a pattern of band that is unique for for the first time was developed by Alec Jeffreys
every individuals. These short nucleotide and his colleagues at Leicester University in
repeats vary in number from person to person U.K. DNA of an individual carries specific
and are called variable number of tandem sequences of nucleotides which are repeated
repeat (VNTR). VNTR belongs to class of many times throughout the length of DNA.
satellite DNA referred to as minisatellite. This reveals polymorphism in DNA. These are
179. (b) DNA fingerprinting is a test to identify inherited. Each individual inherits these repeats
and evaluate the genetic information-called from his/her parents which are used as genetic
DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)-in a person’s markers in personal identity test.
cells. DNA fingerprinting is a form of 184. (c) The number of base pairs (bp) found in
identification based on sequencing specific one genome of man is 3 × 109.
non-coding portions of DNA that are known to

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Contents of Complete Book

Class XI
Chapter No. Chapter Name Subject Page No.
The Living World
Topic 1: What is ‘Living’?
1. Topic 2: Diversity in the Living World and Taxonomic Botany A-1-6
Categories
Topic 3: Taxonomical AIDS
Biological Classification
Topic 1: Introduction
Topic 2: Kingdom Monera
Topic 3: Kingdom Protista
2. Botany A-7-28
Topic 4: Kingdom Fungi
Topic 5: Kingdom Plantae and Animalia
Topic 6: Viruses, Viroids and Prions
Topic 7: Lichens
Plant Kingdom
Topic 1: Algae
Topic 2: Bryophytes
3. Botany A-29-48
Topic 3: Pteridophytes
Topic 4: Gymnosperms
Topic 5: Angiosperms
Chapter No. Chapter Name Subject Page No.
Animal Kingdom
Topic 1: Basis of Classification of Animals
Topic 2: Phylum- Porifera, Coelenterata, Ctenophora,
Platyhelminthes, Aschelminthes
4. Zoology A-49-70
Topic 3: Phylum-Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca,
Echinodermata, Hemichordata, Chordata
Topic 4: Class- Cyclostomata, Chondrichthyes, Osteichthyes
Topic 5: Class- Amphibia, Reptilia, Aves, Mammalia
Morphology of Flowering Plants
Topic 1: The Root
Topic 2: The Stem
Topic 3: The Leaf
5. Botany A-71-86
Topic 4: The Inflorescence/The Flower
Topic 5: The Fruit/The Seed
Topic 6: Semi-technical Description of a Typical
Flowering Plant/Description of Some Important Families
Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Topic 1: The Tissues
Topic 2: The Tissue System
6. Botany A-87-102
To p i c 3 : A n a t o m y o f D i c o t y l e d o n o u s a n d
Monocotyledonous Plants
Topic 4: Secondary Growth
Structural Organisation in Animals
Topic 1: Animal Tissues/Epithelial Tissue
Topic 2: Connective Tissue
7. Topic 3: Muscle Tissue Zoology A-103-116
Topic 4: Neural Tissue
Topic 5: Organ and Organ System/Earthworm/
Cockroach/Frogs
Cell: The Unit of Life
Topic 1: What is a Cell?/Cell Theory/An Overview of Cell
8. Topic 2: Prokaryotic Cells – Cell Envelope and its Botany A-117-136
Modifications, Ribosomes and Inclusion Bodies
Topic 3: Eukaryotic Cells – Cell Organelles
Biomolecules
Topic 1: How to Analyse Chemical Composition?/
Primary and Secondary Metabolites
Topic 2: Biomarcomolecules/Proteins/Structure of
Proteins
9. Topic 3: Polysaccharides Zoology A-137-150
Topic 4: Nucleic Acids
Topic 5: Nature of Bond Linking Monomers in a
Polymer/ Dynamic State of Body Constituents- Concept
of Metabolism/Metabolic Basis for Living/The Living State
Topic 6: Enzymes
Chapter No. Chapter Name Subject Page No.
Cell Cycle and Cell Division
Topic 1: Cell Cycle
10. Botany A-151-162
Topic 2: M Phase/Significance of Mitosis
Topic 3: Meiosis/Significance of Meiosis
Transport in Plants
Topic 1: Means of Transport
Topic 2: Plant-Water Relations
11. Topic 3: Long Distance Transport of Water Botany A-163-172
Topic 4: Transpiration
Topic 5: Uptake and Transport of Mineral Nutrients/
Phloem Transport: Flow from Source to Sink
Mineral Nutrition
Topic 1: Methods to Study the Mineral Requirements of
Plants/Essential Mineral Elements
12. Topic 2: Mechanism of Absorption of Elements/ Botany A-173-182
Translocation of Solutes/Soil as Reservoir of Essential
Elements
Topic 3: Metabolism of Nitrogen
Photosynthesis in Higher Plants
Topic 1: What Do We Know?/Early Experiments/Where
Does Photosynthesis Take Place?/How Many Pigments
are Involved in Photosynthesis?
13. Botany A-183-198
Topic 2: What is Light Reaction?/The Electron Transport
Topic 3: Where are the ATP and NADPH used?/
Calvin (C3) cycle/C4 Pathway/Photorespiration/Factors
Affecting Photosynthesis
Respiration in Plants
Topic 1: Do Plants Breathe?
14. Topic 2: Glycolysis/Fermentation Botany A-199-208
Topic 3: Aerobic Respiration/The Respiratory Balance Sheet
Topic 4: Amphibolic Pathway/Respiratory Quotient
Plant Growth and Development
Topic 1: Growth/Differentiation, Dedifferentiation and
15. Redifferentiation/Development Botany A-209-220
Topic 2: Plant Growth Regulators
Topic 3: Photoperiodism/Vernalisation/Seed Dormancy
Digestion and Absorption
Topic 1: Digestive System
16. Topic 2: Digestion of Food/Absorption of Digested Zoology A-221-234
Products
Topic 3: Disorders of Digestive System
Chapter No. Chapter Name Subject Page No.
Breathing and Exchange of Gases
Topic 1: Respiratory Organs/Mechanism of Breathing
17. Topic 2: Exchanges of Gases/Transport of Gases/ Zoology A-235-244
Regulation of Respiration
Topic 3: Disorders of Respiratory System
Body Fluids and Circulation
Topic 1: Blood/Lymph (Tissue Fluid)
18. Topic 2: Circulatory Pathways/Double Circulation/ Zoology A-245-260
Regulation of Cardiac Activity
Topic 3: Disorders of Circulatory System
Excretory Products and Their Elimination
Topic 1: Introduction
Topic 2: Human Excretory System/Urine Formation/
Function of the Tubules
19 Zoology A-261-270
Topic 3: Mechanism of Concentration of the Filtrate/
Regulation of Kidney Function/Micturition
Topic 4: Role of other Organs in Excretion/Disorders of
the Excretory System
Locomotion and Movement
Topic 1: Types of Movement/Muscle
20. Zoology A-271-280
Topic 2: Skeletal System/Joints
Topic 3: Disorders of Muscular and Skeletal System
Neural Control and Coordination
Topic 1: Neural System/Human Neural System/Neuron
as Structural and Functional Unit of Neural System/
21. Zoology A-281-292
Central Neural System
Topic 2: Reflex Action and Reflex Arc
Topic 3: Sensory Reception and Processing
Chemical Coordination and Integration
Topic 1: Endocrine Glands And Hormones
22. Topic 2: Human Endocrine System Zoology A-293-310
Topic 3: Hormones of Heart, Kidney and Gastrointestinal
Tract/Mechanism of Hormone Action
 Class XII
Chapter No. Chapter Name Subject Page No.
Reproduction in Organisms
1. Topic 1: Asexual Reproduction Botany B-1-4
Topic 2: Sexual Reproduction
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Topic 1: Flower–A Fascinating organ of Angiosperms/
Pre-fertilisation : Strtucture and Events
2. Topic 2: Double Fertilisation Botany B-5-20
Topic 3: Post-fertilisation : Strtuctures and Events
Topic 4: Apomixis and Polyembryony
Human Reproduction
Topic 1: The Male Reproductive System
Topic 2: The Female Reproductive System
3. Topic 3: Gametogenesis/Menstrual Cycle/Fertilisation Zoology B-21-38
and Implantation
Topic 4: Pregnancy and Embryonic Development/
Parturition and Lactation
Reproductive Health
Topic 1: Reproductive Health– Problems and Strategies/
4. Population Stabilisation and Birth control Zoology B-39-48
Topic 2: Medical Termination of Pregnancy/Sexually
Transmitted Infections/Infertility

Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Topic 1: Mendel’s Laws of Inheritance/Inheritance of
One Gene/Inheritance of Two Genes/Linkage and
5. Recombination/Polygenic Inheritance/Pleiotropy Botany B-49-80
Topic 2: Sex Determination
Topic 3: Mutation/Genetic Disorders

Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Topic 1: The DNA/The Search for Genetic Material/
RNA World
Topic 2: Replication/Transcription/Genetic Code/
6. Botany B-81-104
Translation
Topic 3: Regulation of Gene Expression
Topic 4: Human Genome Project/DNA Fingerprinting

Evolution
Topic 1: Origin of Life/Evolution of Life Forms– A
Theory/What are the Evidences for Evolution?/What is
Adaptive Radiation?/Biological Evolution/Mechanism
7. Zoology B-105-126
of Evolution
Topic 2: Hardy-Weinberg Principle/A Brief Account of
Evolution/Origin and Evolution of Man
Chapter No. Chapter Name Subject Page No.
Human Health and Disease
Topic 1: Common Diseases in Humans
8. Topic 2: Immunity Zoology B-127-146
Topic 3: AIDS/Cancer
Topic 4: Drugs and Alcohol Abuse

Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

Topic 1: Animal Husbandry
9. Botany B-147-160
Topic 2: Plant Breeding
Topic 3: Single Cell Protein (SCP)/Tissue Culture
Microbes in Human Welfare
Topic 1: Microbes in Household Products/Industrial
10. Products/Sewage Treatment Botany B-161-172
Topic 2: Microbes in Production of Biogas/As Biocontrol
Agents/As Biofertilisers
Biotechnology: Principles and Processes
11. Topic 1: Principles of Biotechnology/Tools of Zoology B-173-188
Recombinant DNA Technology
Topic 2: Processes of Recombinant DNA Technology
Biotechnology and Its Applications
12. Topic 1: Biotechnological Applications in Agriculture Zoology B-189-200
Topic 2: Biotechnological Applications in Medicine
Topic 3: Transgenic Animals/Ethical Issues
Organisms and Populations
13. Topic 1: Organism and Its Environment Botany B-201-216
Topic 2: Populations
Ecosystem
Topic 1: Ecosystem-Structure and Function/Productivity/
Decomposition
14. Topic 2: Energy Flow/Ecological Pyramids/Ecological Botany B-217-228
Succession
Topic 3: Nutrient Cycling/Ecosystem Services
Biodiversity and Conservation
15. Topic 1: Biodiversity Botany B-229-240
Topic 2: Biodiversity Conservation
Environmental Issues
Topic 1: Air Pollution and Its Control
Topic 2: Water Pollution and Its Control
Topic 3: Solid Wastes/Agro-chemicals and their Effects/
16. Radioactive Wastes Botany B-241-258
Topic 4: Greenhouse Effect and Global Warming/
Ozone Depletion in the Stratosphere/ Degradation
by Improper Resource Utilisation and Maintenance/
Deforestation