UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2015 Questions

1.For the circuit shown in Figure, evaluate the current through and the voltage across each
element. [10M]

2. Derive the expressions for instantaneous and average power in a single-phase ac circuit.
[10M]

3. A two-port network has 𝑧11 = 𝑧12 = 𝑧21 = 𝑧22 = 200Ω. Two such networks are
connected in cascade. What are the overall z-parameters of the composite network.
[10M]

4.In the network shown in Figure, determine the value of current through 1 Ω resistance
connected between terminals A and B. Verify the answer using superposition theorem
also. [20M]

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UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2016 Questions
1. The reduced incidence matrix of an oriented graph is given as [10M]

0 −1 1 0 0
[ 0 0 −1 −1 −1]
−1 0 0 0 1
(i) Draw the graph.

(ii) How many trees are possible for this graph?

(iii) Write the tie-set matrix.

2. Two impedances 𝑧1 = 5Ωand 𝑧2 = (5 − 𝑗𝑋𝑐 )Ω are connected in parallel and this

combination is connected in series with 𝑧3 = (6.25 + 𝑗1.25)Ω. Determine the value of
capacitance of 𝑋𝐶 to achieve resonance if the supply is 100 V, 50 Hz. [10M]

3. For the circuit shown in Fig.2 (a), find the value of V, if the power dissipation in the load
resistance 𝑅𝐿 is 36 watts: [20M]

4. Obtain the dotted equivalent circuit for the coupled circuit shown in Fig 3(a) and hence
find the voltage across the capacitor: [20M]

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UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2017 Questions
1. For the circuit shown in Fig 1(a), find the current through 5Ω resistor by using Thevenin’s
theorem and verify the same by using superposition theorem. [10M]

2. Consider the R-L-C circuit shown in Fig. 3(c), wherein 𝐼𝑆 = 10𝐴, 𝑅 = 2Ω, 𝐿 = 1 𝐻, 𝐶 =
0.5 𝜇𝐹, 𝑖𝐿 (0− ) = 0
𝑑𝑣 𝑑2 𝑣
Determine 𝑣(0+ ), (0+ ) and (0+ ) after the switch is closed. [10M]
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 2

3. Obtain z-parameters of a two-port network in terms of its ABCD parameters. [10M]

4. Find the value of average current flow through the load resistor for the circuit given in
figure 6 (a) [10M]

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5. A 400-V, 3-phase balanced source is connected to an unbalanced ∆-connected load of
impedances 𝑍̅𝑎𝑏 = 10∠ + 45°Ω, 𝑍𝑏𝑐 ̅ = 10∠0°Ω and 𝑍̅𝑐𝑎 = 10∠ − 45°Ω. Determine the
line currents (in phasor form), total active (real) and reactive powers. [20M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2018 Questions

1. Derive the expression of total average power in three-phase balanced circuit. [10M]

2.In the circuit shown in Figure 3(c), find the voltage vo across the 8 Ω resistor. [10M]

3. Using Thevenin’s theorem, find the current through the 40 Ω resistor connected between
terminals a and b in Figure 5(e). [10M]

4. Find io (𝑡) in the circuit shown in Figure 6(b) using Fourier transform method when
is (𝑡) = 10 sin 2t Amp. [20M]

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5. For the circuit shown in Figure 8(a), 𝑣(𝑡) = 311.12 sin 377𝑡 volts: [20M]

(i) Find the values of 𝐼1̅ , 𝐼2̅ , 𝐼3̅ , 𝐼4̅ and 𝐼5̅ .

̅bc 𝑎𝑛𝑑 V
(ii) Also compute V ̅cd .

(iii) Compute the power supplied by the source.

(iv) Find the line power factor.

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2019 Questions

1. In the network shown in Figure 1(a), determine the following:

(i) The value of the load resistance to have maximum power transfer

(ii) The maximum power delivered to the load. [10M]

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2. Determine the expressions of currents i1 and i2 in time domain for the circuit shown in
Figure 2 (a). [20M]

3. Determine current i(t) in the circuit of Figure 3(d), for all values of time. [10M]

Figure 3 (d)

4. A balanced three-phase supply system with a line voltage of 400 V is supplying a balanced
Y-connected load with 1500 W at a leading power factor of 0.8. Determine the line
current and the per phase load impedance. Now, a balanced 900 W lighting load is added
in parallel to the system. What will be the new line current? [10M]

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2020 Questions
1. The switch shown in Figure 1(a) has been closed for a very long time and it is opened at
time 𝑡 = 0. [10M]

(i) Find the value of 𝑖𝐿 for 𝑡 < 0.

(ii) Just after the switch is opened, find the value of 𝑖𝐿 (0+ ).

(iii) Determine the expression for 𝑖𝐿 (𝑡) for 𝑡 > 0 and find the value of 𝑖𝐿 (∞).

2. Find the h-parameters of the two-port circuit shown in Figure 2a. If the input contains a
source voltage with series resistance of 200Ω, find the output impedance (𝑍𝑜𝑢𝑡 ) of the
circuit. [10M]

3. Let 𝜔 = 1000 rad⁄sec for the circuit of Figure 3b and determine the value of the ratio
V0 ⁄Vs , L1 = 1 mH, L2 = 25 mH and 𝑘 = 1. [10M]

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4. An electrical network is fed by two ac sources, as shown in Figure 3b(ii). Given that
𝑍1 = (1 − 𝑗)Ω, 𝑍2 = (1 + 𝑗)Ω and 𝑍𝐿 = (1 + 𝑗0)Ω. [10M]

5. Find the values of branch currents Ia , Ib , and Ic as indicated in the circuit of Figure 5(e).
[10M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2021 Questions

1. In Figure 1(a) shown below, the two-port network is characterized in terms of
𝑦-parameters with 𝑦11 = 3.3 × 10−3 S, 𝑦22 = 5 × 10−3 S and 𝑦12 = 𝑦21 = 0. Find the
voltage across 200Ω load. [10M]

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2. Find the Thevenin’s equivalent of the circuit shown in Figure 2(a) below as seen from the
load impedance ZL . Also find the value of ZL for maximum power transfer. [20M]

3. For the circuit shown in Figure 3(b), calculate the voltage V0 (t) as function of time,[20M]

Where V(t) = 10 sin(6t + 60°)V and I(t) = 5 cos(4t + 30°)A.

2
4. For the circuit shown in Figure 5(e), vC (0 +) = 2 V and i(0 +) = 3 A. Calculate the value
of vC (t)for t > 0. [10M]

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 1.
MATHEMATI
CS-OPTI
ONAL
2.
TELUGULI
TERATURE-
OPTI
ONAL
3.PHYSI
CSOPTI
ONAL
4.ELECTRI
CALOPTI
ONAL

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Phone:+91-
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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2015 Questions
1. Find the z transform of:
𝑓(𝑡) = sin 𝑤𝑡 for t ≥ 0. [10M]

2. Find the Laplace transform of the function:

𝑓(𝑡) = 2𝑒 −𝑡 cos 10𝑡 − 𝑡 4 + 6𝑒 −(𝑡−10) 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑡 > 0. [20M]

𝐶(𝑠) (𝑠+3)
3. The transfer function of a system is given as: 𝑅(𝑠) = 𝑠(𝑠+1)(𝑠+2) .Find out the impulse
response of the system. [10M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2016 Questions

1. Determine the overall impulse response, ℎ(𝑛), of the system shown in Fig. 1(b) below.
Given that [10M]

1
ℎ1 (𝑛) = 𝛿(𝑛) − ( ) 𝛿(𝑛 − 1)
5

ℎ2 (𝑛) = 𝛿(𝑛) − 𝛿(𝑛 − 1)

1 𝑛
ℎ3 (𝑛) = ( ) 𝑢(𝑛)
5

ℎ4 (𝑛) = (𝑛 − 1)𝑢(𝑛)

ℎ4 (𝑛) = (𝑛 − 1)𝑢(𝑛)

ℎ5 (𝑛) = 𝛿(𝑛) + 𝑛𝑢(𝑛 − 1) + 𝛿(𝑛 − 2) where𝛿(𝑛)and 𝑢(𝑛) denote,

respectively, the unit impulse and unit step signals:

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2. Consider a continuous-time LTI system for which the input 𝑥(𝑡) and output 𝑦(𝑡) are
related by the following differential equation: [20M]
𝑑2 𝑦(𝑡) 𝑑𝑦(𝑡)
− − 2𝑦(𝑡) = 𝑥(𝑡)
𝑑𝑡 2 𝑑𝑡

Determine the impulse response, ℎ(𝑡), of the system for the following cases by plotting
pole-zero pattern:

(i) The system is causal.

(ii) The system is stable.

(iii) The system is neither stable nor causal.

1
3. Determine the causal signal, 𝑥(𝑛), having its z-transform𝑋(𝑧) = (1+𝑧 −1 )(1−𝑧 −1 )2 [10M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2017 Questions

1. A continuous time signal 𝑥(𝑡) is shown in Fig. 1(b). Sketch and label each of the following
signals:
7
(i) 𝑥(𝑡)𝑢(2 − 𝑡) (ii) 𝑥(𝑡)𝛿(𝑡 − 2) [10M]

2. Discuss the properties of a probability density function. What additional features a normal
distribution has? [10M]

3. Find the Laplace transform of the function 𝑓(𝑡) = 𝑢(sin 2𝑡). [20M]

4. Determine the transfer function and therefrom the impulse response of the causal linear
time invariant system described by the difference equation
1 3
𝑦(𝑛) − 4 𝑦(𝑛 − 1) − 8 𝑦(𝑛 − 2) = −𝑥[𝑛] + 2𝑥[𝑛 − 1] [20M]

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 UPSC – ELECTRICL Engineering optional – 2018 Questions

1. Find the Laplace transform of the periodic functions f(t) shown in Figure 1(b). [10M]

UPSC – ELECTRICL Engineering optional – 2019 Questions

1. Determine and sketch the convolution of the two signals given below: [10M]

2, − 1 ≤ 𝑡 ≤ 1
x(t) = { 1, 1<𝑡≤3
0, elsewhere

and h(t) = 2δ(t + 1) + δ(t + 2)

2. Find the Laplace transform of the following signals: [10M]

(i)x1 (t) = e−at cos(ω0 t) u(t)

(i)x2 (t) = e−at sin(ω0 t) u(t)

3. An LTI system is characterized by the following difference equation:

3 1
𝑦(𝑛) − 𝑦(𝑛 − 1) + 𝑦(𝑛 − 2) = 2 𝑥(𝑛)
4 8
(i) Find the impulse response of the system, if the input to the system is
1 𝑛
𝑥(𝑛) = (4) 𝑢(𝑛).

(ii) Find the frequency response of the output y(jω), and y(n). [20M]

4. Find the Z-transform of the signal g(n) = |n|a|n| . Also find the ROC. [10M]

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 UPSC – ELECTRICL Engineering optional – 2020 Questions
1. Sketch the continuous-time signal 𝑥(𝑡) = 𝑡[𝑢(−𝑡 + 1) − 𝑢(−𝑡 − 1)] over a suitable
range of 𝑡, where 𝑢(𝑡) is a unit step function. [10M]

2. The unit-impulse response of a linear time-invariant continuous-time system is given by

ℎ(𝑡) = [3𝑒 −3𝑡 + 2𝑡𝑒 −3𝑡 ]𝑢(𝑡). Determine the system response 𝑦(𝑡) for an input
𝑥(𝑡) = 10𝑒 −3𝑡 𝑢(𝑡), where 𝑢(𝑡)is a step function is [20M]

𝟑. Find the Z transform of discrete sequence 𝑥[𝑛] = 𝑛[𝑢[𝑛] − 𝑢[𝑛 − 4]], where 𝑢(𝑛) is a
unit step sequence. [10M]

4. A continuous-time signal 𝑥(𝑡) = cos(2𝜋 400𝑡) is sampling frequency 𝑓𝑠 = 1600 𝐻𝑧.

Obtain the 4-point DFT of the sampled sequence and plot the magnitude and phase
spectrum. [20M]

UPSC – ELECTRICL Engineering optional – 2021 Questions

1. For the signal shown in Figure 1(b), calculate the total energy of the signal 𝑋(𝑡). Also
sketch 𝑦(𝑡) = 𝑋(10𝑡 − 5) [10M]

2. Compute the convolution 𝑋[𝑛] ∗ ℎ[𝑛], where

1 −𝑛
𝑋[𝑛] = (2) 𝑢[−𝑛 − 2]

ℎ[𝑛] = 𝑢[𝑛 − 2] [10M]

𝟑. Consider the signal 𝑋[𝑡] shown in Figure 2(b) below. Represent the signal 𝑋[𝑡] in terms
of rectangular pulse signal 𝑉(𝑡) shown in the same figure. [10M]

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4. A mixer (analog multiplier) is used as a process in some analog communication systems.
Two signals 𝑋1 (𝑡) and 𝑋2 (𝑡) are mixed to produce the output 𝑦(𝑡) = 𝑋1 (𝑡)𝑋2 (𝑡).

If 𝑋1 (𝑡) = 10 sin 𝑐 (10𝑡) and 𝑋2 (𝑡) = 2 cos(1000 𝜋𝑡), then calculate and plot the
magnitude of the Fourier transform of output signal. Further, specify and prove the
property of Fourier transform used in calculations. [10M]

5. Consider a discrete time system with transfer function given by

1
𝑌(𝑧) 𝑧 −1 − 𝑧 −2
2
𝐻(𝑧) = 𝑅(𝑧) = 2 [20M]
(1−𝑧 −1 + 𝑧 −2 )
9

Calculate the following:

(i) The impulse response of the system

(ii) The step response of the system with zero initial conditions
(iii) The step response of the system with initial conditions 𝑦[−1] = 1 and 𝑦[−2] = 2

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 1.
MATHEMATI
CS-OPTI
ONAL
2.
TELUGULI
TERATURE-
OPTI
ONAL
3.PHYSI
CSOPTI
ONAL
4.ELECTRI
CALOPTI
ONAL

E-
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ndi
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Phone:+91-
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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2015 Questions

1. A voltage of a wave travelling in a non-magnetic medium is given by the equation

̅ = 4 sin(2𝜋 × 107 𝑡 − 0.8𝑥)𝑎̂𝑧 V⁄m.

E [10M]

Find:

(a) ε𝑟 , 𝜂

(b) The time-average power carried by the wave.

2. A distortionless line has 𝑧0 = 60Ω, 𝛼 = 20 𝑚𝑁𝑝⁄𝑚, 𝑢 = 0.6 𝑐 where c is the velocity of

the wave in vacuum. Find R, L, G, C and 𝜆 at 100 MHz. [20M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2016 Questions

1. Derive an expression for Maxwell’s equation in integral form from Ampere’s law. [10M]

2. (i) A transmission line has the following parameters: 𝑍𝐿 = (200 − 𝑗200)Ω, 𝑍0 = 200Ω
Determine the voltage standing wave ratio and reflection coefficient of the line.

(ii) Write the significance of Smith chart.

(iii) Find the length of 𝑥 of the 100Ω transmission line which converts a load impedance
𝑧𝐿 = (100 + 𝑗100)Ω to a pure resistance. Also find the value of the resistance𝑅𝑥 .
Assume 𝑉𝑆𝑊𝑅 = 2.6. [20M]

3. (i) Determine the propagation constant 𝛾 for a material having [20M]

𝜇𝑟 = 1, 𝜀𝑟 = 8 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝜎 = 0.25 pS⁄𝑚, if the wave frequency is 1.6 MHz.

(ii) Find the skin depth 𝛿 at a frequency of 1.6 MHz in aluminium, where 𝜎 = 38.2 MS⁄m
and 𝜇𝑟 = 1. Also find 𝛾 and the wave velocity u.

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4. If a propagating wave in free space has a potential gradient at any point (𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧) as

𝐸̅ = (−𝑖̅ − 2√3 𝑗 + 3𝑘̅)𝑒 −𝑗0.04𝜋 (√3𝑥 − 2𝑦 − 3𝑧) V⁄m then determine– [10M]

(i) the vertical direction of propagation;

(ii) the wavelength of the propagating wave;

(iii) the frequency of the propagating wave;

(iv) the phase velocity and phase velocity vector.

What are the apparent velocities and wavelengths along 𝑥, 𝑦 and 𝑧 directions?

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2017 Questions

1. Show that for a distortionless transmission line, the attenuation constant 𝛼 does not depend
on frequency, whereas the phase constant 𝛽 depends linearly on it. [10M]

2. (i) What is meant by an infinite transmission line? Also, explain the term ‘electrical
length’ of a transmission line. In what units is it measured?

(ii) Determine the electrical length of a 20 m long transmission line operating at 1 MHz, if
𝑢 = 0.7𝑐 on the line. Take 𝑐 = 3 × 108 𝑚⁄𝑠. [20M]

3. The electric field and magnetic field in free space are given by

100
𝐸= cos(2 × 107 𝑡 + 𝛽𝑧)𝑎̂𝜙 V⁄m
ρ

𝐻0
𝐻= cos(2 × 107 𝑡 + 𝛽𝑧)𝑎̂𝜌 A⁄m
ρ

Express these fields in phasor form and determine the constants 𝐻0 and 𝛽 such that these
fields satisfy Maxwell’s equations. The permeability and permittivity of the free space
are 4𝜋 × 10−7 𝐻 ⁄𝑚 and 8.854 × 10−12 𝐹 ⁄𝑚 respectively. [20M]

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2018 Questions
1. A low loss transmission line has characteristic impedance 𝑍0 = 70Ω and is terminated by
another impedance of 115 − 𝑗80Ω. The wavelength on the line is 2.5𝑚. Find:

I. SWR (Standing Wave Ratio)

II. Maximum and minimum line impedance, 𝑍1𝑚𝑎𝑥 and 𝑍1𝑚𝑖𝑛 [10M]

2. If the input impedances of a short and open circuited transmission line of length 1.5 m are
ZSC = −𝑗78Ω and ZOC = −𝑗90 Ω respectively, determine the characteristic impedance 𝑍0
and propagation constant 𝛾 of the line. [10M]

3. (i) Derive the Maxwell’s equation for time varying magnetic field based on Ampere’s
circuital law.

(ii) A parallel plate capacitor with plate area of 5 c𝑚2 and plate separation of 3 mm has a
voltage of 50 sin 103 t V applied to its plates. Calculate the displacement current assuming
𝜀 = 2𝜀0 . [10M]
̅ field in the free space of amplitude 100 V/m strikes a perfect dielectric as
4. A travelling E
shown in Figure 7(a)(i). Determine the value of Et . [10M]

5. A uniform plane wave in air partially reflects from the surface of a material whose
properties are unknown. Measurements of the electric field in front of the interface region
yield a 1.5 m spacing between maxima, with the first maximum occurring 0.75 m from the
interface. A standing wave ratio of 5 is measured. Determine the intrinsic impedance 𝜂𝑤 of
the unknown material. [10M]

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2019 Questions
1. Two extensive homogeneous isotropic dielectrics meet on a plane at 𝑧 = 0.For 𝑧 > 0,
ε𝑟1 = 4 and for 𝑧 < 0, ε𝑟2 = 3.A uniform electric field
⃗ 1 = 5 𝑎̂x − 2𝑎̂y + 3 𝑎̂z kV⁄m exists for 𝑧 ≥ 0.
E

Find :

(i) ⃗E2 for z ≤ 0

(ii) The energy densities (in J⁄m3 ) in both dielectrics [10M]

2. A lossless line has a characteristic impedance of 50 Ω and is terminated in a load resistance

of 75 Ω. The line is energized by a generator which has an output impedance of 50 Ω and
an open circuit output voltage of 30 Vrms . The line is assumed to be 2.25 wavelength
long. Determine:

(i) The output impedance

(ii) The magnitude of the instantaneous load

(iii) The instantaneous power delivered to the load. [10M]

3. (i) A two-dimensional electric field is given by 𝐸⃗ = 𝑥 2 𝑎̂𝑥 + 𝑥𝑎̂𝑦 𝑉 ⁄𝑚. Show that this
electric field cannot arise form a static distribution of charge.

(ii) A transmisstion line of length 5 m is tested at a frequency of 20 MHz. When the far
end of the line is short circuited, the impedance measured at the sending end is 4.61 Ω
and when the far end is open circuited, the impedance becomes 1390 Ω. Calculate the
characteristic impedance and propagation constant of the line. [10M]

4. An aeroplane files over the surface of the ocean for which σ = 4 S⁄m , εr = 81 and
μr = 1.The aeroplane transmits the signal in the form of 1 MHz plane wave having an
electric field intensity of 1000 V⁄m and propagating vertically downward. If a
submarine requires a minimum signal of 20μV⁄m for adequate reception, determine the
maximum communication depth of the submarine. [20M]

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2020 Questions
1. A parallel plate capacitor is made of circular discs of radius 0.1 m. The medium inside is
air. The spacing between the two plates is 0.05 m. A voltage of 50 cos 104 𝑡 volts is
applied between the two plates. Find the rms value of the displacement current flowing
through the capacitor using Maxwell’s equations. Also show that the rms value of the
total capacitor current calculated from voltage equation is same as the displacement
1
current. Assume permittivity of free space 𝜀0 = 36𝜋 × 10−9 𝐹 ⁄𝑚. [10M]

2. A uniform plane wave travelling in air is having an electric field of 50 𝑉 ⁄𝑚 and is

normally incident on an infinitely thick slab of dielectric constant 10. Find the electric
and magnetic fields just inside the slab surface. Also find the penetrated power inside the
slab and the reflected electric and magnetic fields from the slab surface.
1
Assume 𝜇0 = 4𝜋 × 10−7 𝐻 ⁄𝑚 and 𝜀0 = 36𝜋 × 10−9 𝐹 ⁄𝑚. [10M]

3. Under what conditions do the attenuation constant 𝛼 and the velocity of propagation 𝑣, for
a distortionless transmission line, become independent of the frequency simultaneously?
Why is it not practical to have such a transmission line? [10M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2021 Questions

1. In certain material with 𝜎 = 0, 𝜀 = 𝜀0 𝜀𝑟 and 𝜇 = 𝜇0 𝜇𝑟, the magnetic field intensity
component is given by 𝐻 = 10 sin(108 𝑡 − 2𝑥)𝑎𝑧 𝐴⁄𝑚. [10M]
Find the following:
(i) Displacement current density
(ii) Electric field intensity

2. The magnetic field intensity of a linearly polarized uniform plane wave propagating in
the +𝑌-direction in sea water (𝜀𝑟 = 80, 𝜇𝑟 = 1, 𝜎 = 4 𝑆⁄𝑚) is
𝜋
𝐻 = 0.1 sin (1010 𝜋𝑡 − 3 ) 𝑎𝑥 𝐴⁄𝑚
At 𝑌 = 0, determine the following: [20M]

(i) The attenuation constant, intrinsic impedance, the wavelength and skin depth.

(ii) The location at which the amplitude of H is 0.01 𝐴⁄𝑚.

(iii) The expression for 𝐸(𝑦, 𝑡) and 𝐻(𝑦, 𝑡) at 𝑌 = 0.5 (𝑚) as functions of t.

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 3. A lossless transmission line has characteristic impedance 𝑍0 = 50Ω. its length is 30 m
and operates at 5 MHz. the line is terminated with a load 𝑍𝐿 = 60 + 𝑗50Ω. If the
phase velocity 𝑢 = 0.6𝑐 on the line, find the following: [10M]

(i) The reflection coefficient ‘Γ’

(ii) The standing wave ratio ‘S’

(iii) The input impedance ‘𝑍𝑖𝑛 ’

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2015 Questions
1. In the Figure shown what is the function of 𝑅0 and determine its value when
V0 = −3V1 − 2V2 . [10M]

2. Find the efficiency of a class A amplifier shown in Figure. Given that the voltage drop
across R E is 1 V, the signal current swings from −0.5 A to + 0.5 A and the DC current is
1 A. [10M]

3. Explain the speed enhancement gained in MOS device by using silicon-on-sapphire or

spinel (SOS). What are the other good features of the process? Mention the drawbacks.
[20M]

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2016 Questions
1. Two ideal and identical junction diodes are connected as shown in Fig. 1(d). If the current
through the reverse-biased diode is 𝐼0 and is constant, explain the circuit operation when
both the diodes are connected in forward-biased condition. Assume
𝑉𝑇 = 25mV, 𝑉𝛾 = 0.7 𝑉 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝜂 = 1 for the diodes. [10M]

2. For the circuit shown in Fig. 2(c), calculate the resistance 𝑅0 as seen by the output
terminals. Ignore the effect of 𝑅1 and 𝑅2 . Assume 𝛽 = 99 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ℎ𝑖𝑒 = 1 kΩ. Comment on
the value of 𝑅0 of the circuit: [10M]

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3.For the circuit shown in Fig. 3(c), get the expression for 𝑉0 . Also sketch the output
1
waveform. Assume that the op-amp is ideal. 𝑅 = √𝐶𝐿, 𝜔 = and 𝑉𝑖 = 10 sin 𝜔𝑡: [10M]
√𝐿𝐶

4. For the op-amp circuit shown in Fig. 4(c), deduce the output voltage expression. Calculate
𝑉0 , when R1 = 1 kΩ = R 2 , R 3 = 1 K and R 4 = 2 K and Vin = 1 V [10M]

5. Identify the circuit shown in Fig. 6(a). Briefly explain the same. Calculate the current 𝑖 and
𝑉𝑜 , if 𝑉𝑅 = 5 V and R = 5 kΩ = 𝑅𝐹 : [20M]

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2017 Questions
1. For the circuit given in Fig. 1(d)−

(i) draw the input and output waveforms;

(ii) find the average value of the output voltage waveform.

Assume that the diode in the circuit is ideal. [10M]

2. Find the average voltage at the point 𝑉0 in the circuit given in Fig. 4(c): [10M]

3. (i) Draw the circuit diagram of Wien bridge oscillator using OP-AMP.

(ii) Find the value of R to get a sustained oscillation of 1115 Hz. Assume that the value of
the capacitor is 0.1μF. [10M]

4. (i) Draw the circuit diagram of a bandpass filter using OP-AMP. Its parameters are
𝑓𝐿 = 300 𝐻𝑧, 𝑓𝐻 = 2 𝑘𝐻𝑧 and passband gain is 4.

(ii) Calculate the value of Q. Assume that the capacitor value is 0.01μF. [20M]

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2018 Questions
𝑉
1. For the op-amp circuit shown in Figure 1(d), determine the gain 𝐴𝑣 = 𝑉0 . Assume that all
𝑖
resistors are equal. [10M]

2. Determine the feedback fraction and the operating frequency for the oscillator circuit
shown in Figure 6(c) [10M]

3. The integrator circuit shown in Figure 4(c) is to be used to generate a triangular waveform
from a 500 Hz square wave connected to its input. Suppose that the square wave
alternates between ±12 V.

(i) Find the minimum slew rate required for the amplifier.

(ii) Find the maximum output voltage the amplifier can generate. [10M]

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4. Calculate the output voltage 𝑉0 in terms of the input voltagesvi1, vi2 , vi3 and vi4 for the
circuit shown in Figure 8(b). [20M]

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2019 Questions
1. Find the DC input resistance at the transistor base of the circuit shown in Figure 1(c)[10M]

Figure 1

2. Determine the output voltage of the op-amp differentiator circuit shown in Figure 2 for
the triangular wave input as shown and draw the output voltage waveform. [10M]

Figure 2.

3. For the circuit shown in Figure 3(c), derive the expression for stability factor S(β).

[10M]

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4. For the circuit given in Figure 6(d), comment on its operating conditions. [10M]

5. Determine ID and VGS for the JFET with voltage divider bias as shown in Figure 7(b). The
internal parameter values of this JFET are such that VD ≈ 7V [10M]

6. A 3-stage amplifier has stages with the following specifications:

Stage Power Gain Noise Figure

1 10 2
2 25 4
3 30 5
Calculate the overall power gain and noise figure in dB and the noise temperature.
Assume matched conditions. [10M]

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2020 Questions
1. A Darlington transistor pair circuit is shown in Figure 1 (d) below. Both the transistors
have dc current gain 𝛽 of 30. In the circuit VCC = +12 V, 𝑅𝐸 = 1.5 𝑘Ω [10M]

(i) Find the value of 𝑅1 needed to bias the circuit such that 𝑉𝐶𝐸𝑄2 = 5 𝑉 for transistor 𝑇2 .

(ii) With the same value of 𝑅1 as obtained above, determine the value of 𝑉𝐶𝐸𝑄1 .

Assume both 𝑇1 and 𝑇2 are Si transistors.

Figure 1

2. Shown below (Figure 3(a)) is a differential amplifier with a three transistor active load.
Draw the small signal equivalent circuit of its output stage with active load and calculate
its small differential mode voltage gain. Assume the output impedances of the transistors
𝑄1 to 𝑄5 to be 𝑟01 to 𝑟05 respectively. Assume the base currents to be negligible. [20M]

Figure 2.

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3. A first order low pass filter circuit is shown in Figure 4 (c) below. It is desired that the dc
gain of the filter be 5 and the input impedance is 10 𝑘Ω. The value of the capacitor
𝐶 = 100 𝑛𝐹. Find the values of 𝑅, 𝑅1 and the cut-off frequency 𝑓𝑐 of the filter.
(Assume ideal OP-AMP) [10M]

Figure 3.

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2021 Questions

1. For the transistor circuit shown in Figure 1(d), determine the value of reverse saturation
current, 𝐼𝑆 , that would give a collector current of 1 𝑚𝐴, if 𝛽 = 80, 𝑉𝐴 = ∞ and
𝑉𝑇 = 26 𝑚𝑉 at 𝑇 = 300 𝐾. [10M]

2. Explain what happens when a circuit shown in Figure 3a(i) below is constructed using
logarithmic amplifier. [10M]

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Figure 2.
3. Explain what happens if the topology is modified as shown in Figure 3(a)(ii) below.
[10M]

4. Determine the closed loop gain of the inverting amplifier shown in Figure 4(c) below.
Explain the result if 𝑅1 → 0 𝑜𝑟 𝑅2 → 0. [10M]

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2015 Questions
1. Obtain all the possible minimal functions for: 𝐹 = ∑(0, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7). [10M]

2. Divide by N counter is shown in the figure below. If Initially 𝑄0 = 0, 𝑄1 = 1, 𝑄2 = 0,

what is the value of N? [20M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2016 Questions

1. Minimize the SOP terms given for a Boolean function 𝑓(𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶, 𝐷) =
∑ 𝑚(2, 3, 8, 10, 11, 12, 14, 15)

Implement the minimized function using NAND gates alone. [10M]

2. What is a PLA? Realize the following functions using an appropriate PLA: [10M]

𝑓1 = 𝐴𝐵 + 𝐶𝐷
𝑓2 = 𝐴̅𝐵 + 𝐴𝐵̅
𝑓3 = 𝐴𝐷 + 𝐵𝐶 + 𝐵̅ 𝐷

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2017 Questions

1. For the Boolean function 𝐹(𝑊, 𝑋, 𝑌, 𝑍) = ∑(0, 2, 5, 6, 7, 8, 10, 13) [20M]

(i) find all the prime implicants;

(ii) give minimal representation;

(iii) find minimal two-level realization using NAND gates only.

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2. Prove that 𝐴̅𝐵 + 𝐵̅ 𝐶 + 𝐴̅𝐶 = 𝐴̅𝐵 + 𝐵̅ 𝐶. [10M]

3. Find the state transition diagram and realization using J-K flip-flops to count Mod 7 in the
following sequence: 000, 001, 011, 100, 101, 111 [20M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2018 Questions

1. Convert the following logic equation to NAND logic and draw the circuit using NAND
̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
gates:𝑍 = (𝐴 + 𝐵 ) + 𝐶 + 𝐴(𝐵̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
+ 𝐶) [20M]

2. Convert a D flip flop to function as an S-R flip flop .Draw the circuit. [10M]

3. Design a synchronous counter using D flip flop that counts in the following sequence:

6, 3, 5, 0, 2, 6, 3, 5, 0, 2, 6, …

Draw the circuit. [20M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2019 Questions

1. Simplify the following expression using Boolean algebra: [10M]

Y = AC + A(B + C) + C(B + C)

and draw the logic diagram for reduced expression.

2. Implement Astable Multi vibrator using NAND gates and explain its operation. [10M]

3. Reduce the combinational logic circuit shown in Figure 7(d) to a minimum form. [10M]

Figure 3.

4. Draw the block diagram of a single slope type A⁄D converter and explain its principle of
operation. [20M]

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2020 Questions
1. Implement the following Boolean functions with a 4 × 3 Programmable Logic Array
(PLA): [10M]

𝐹1 = 𝐵̅ 𝐶̅ + 𝐴𝐵̅

𝐹2 = 𝐴𝐵𝐶̅ + 𝐴𝐵̅ 𝐶𝐷
̅

𝐹3 = 𝐴̅𝐵̅ 𝐶̅ 𝐷 + 𝐴𝐵̅ 𝐶𝐷

2. Design a combinational circuit to implement the minimal sum-of-products of the logic

function 𝐹 = ∑𝑊𝑋𝑌𝑍(1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 11, 13). [10M]

3. Design a synchronous sequential circuit with D-flip-flops for a state diagram shown in
Figure 4(b). [20M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2021 Questions

1. Consider the four variables logic function defined as follows:
F(A, B, C, D) = A̅C + A̅D + B̅C + B̅D + ABC̅D ̅
Assuming input variables as A, B, C and D, propose a logic circuit using only three
logic gates to implement the function. [10M]

2. Consider the circuit shown in Figure 2(c) below. Let inputs A, B and C be all initially
LOW. Output Y is supposed to go HIGH only when A, B and C go HIGH in a certain
sequence. Determine the sequence that will make Y go HIGH. Modify this circuit to use
D-Flip-flops. [10M]

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3. (i) Verify by determining the logic equation for the output and by constructing the truth
table for the logic circuit shown in Figure 4(b).

(ii) Use an 8 to 1 multiplexer and logic gates to implement the following function: [20M]

F(A, B, C, D, E) = ∑ m(0, 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 13, 14, 20, 21, . . , 28, 29, 30, 31)

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2015 Questions

1. A 8-pole, 240 V lap-wound, series motor has armature and series field resistances of
0.2 ohm and 0.02 ohm respectively. There are 660 armature conductors. If the flux per
pole is 0.03 Wb and the torque developed in the armature is 320 N-m, find the current
taken by the motor and its speed. [20M]

2. Prove that mechanical power developed by a self excited DC shunt motor is maximum
when back e.m.f. is equal to half the applied voltage, if the field loss is neglected. [10M]

3. A 440 V dc shunt motor has a no-load speed of 2000 rpm. It is running at 1000 rpm at full
load torque, reduced armature voltage and full field current. If load torque is reduced to
50% of rated value with armature voltage and field voltage held constant at previous
values, the speed increases to 1050 rpm. Find the armature voltage drop at full load.
Neglect the effect of armature reaction. [20M]

4. Draw the circuit for the speed control of a separately-excited dc motor from a single-
phase source and explain it. [10M]

5. The efficiency of a 20 kVA, 2500⁄250 V, single-phase transformer at unity power factor

is 98% both at rated load and half rated load. Determine:

(i)the core loss and ohmic losses and

(ii) thep.u. value of the equivalent resistance of the transformer. [20M]

6. A 3- phase, 12 pole alternator is coupled to an engine running at 500 r.p.m. The alternator
supplies power to an induction motor which has a full-load speed of 1455 r.p.m. Find the
slip and number of poles of the motor. [20M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2016 Questions

1. What do you mean by V-curves of a synchronous motor? Draw them showing the leading
power factor and lagging power factor regions. [10M]

2. A 20 hp, 230 V, 1150 r.p.m.d.c. shunt motor has four poles, four parallel armature paths
and 882 armature conductors. The armature circuit resistance is 0.188 Ω. At rated speed
and rated output, the armature current is 73 A and the field current is 1.6 A. Calculate the
electromagnetic torque. [10M]

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3. The resistances and leakage reactances of a 10 kVA, 50 Hz, 2300⁄230 V distribution
transformer are

𝑟1 = 3.96 Ωand 𝑟2 = 0.0396 Ω, 𝑥1 = 15.8 Ω 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥2 = 0.158 Ω

Subscript 1 refers to HV and 2 refers to LV winding

The transformer delivers rated kVA at 0.8 p.f. lagging to a load on the LV side. Find the
HV side voltage necessary to maintain 230 V across load terminals. Also find the
percentage voltage regulation. [20M]

4. It is known that the stator core loss amounts to 1200 W and the rotational losses equal
950 W. Moreover, at no-load the motor draws a line current of 18 A at a power factor of
0.089 lagging. When the motor operates at a slip of 2.5%, find the input line current and
power factor. [20M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2017 Questions

1. A 15-hp, 220-V, 3-phase, 50-Hz, 6-pole, Y-connected induction motor has the following
parameters per phase:

𝑟1 = 0.128 Ω, 𝑟′2 = 0.0935 Ω, (𝑥1 + 𝑥′2 ) = 0.496Ω, 𝑟𝑐 = 183 Ω, 𝑥ϕ = 8 Ω

The rotational losses are equal to the stator core losses (hysteresis and eddy-current). For a
slip of 3%, find the line current and power factor. [10M]

2. The following test data were taken on a 30-kVA, 2400⁄240 V, 50-Hz, single-phase
transformer:

Open − circuit test ∶ V = 2400 V, I = 0.3 A, P = 230 W

Short − circuit test ∶ V = 70 V, I = 18.8 A, P = 1050 W

Determine the primary voltage, real and reactive power input, and efficiency, when a current
of 12.5 A at 240 V is drawn from the low-voltage side by a load of 0.8 p. f. lagging.
[20M]

3. An industrial consumer is operating a 1 kW induction motor at a lagging power factor of

0.8 and at a source voltage of 200 V r. m. s. In order to reduce expenditure on power
consumption, he wishes to raise the power factor to 0.95 lagging by connecting a circuit
element in parallel with the load. Indicate the type of the circuit element (inductive or
capacitive) and find the value if the operating frequency is 50 Hz. [10M]

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4. A 230-V, 10-hp Dc series motor draws a line current of 36 A, when delivering rated
power at its rated speed of 1200 r. p. m. The armature circuit resistance is 0.2 Ω and the
series field winding resistance is 0.1 Ω. The magnetization curve may be considered
linear.

(i) Find the speed of this motor when it drawn a line current of 20 A.

(ii)What is the developed torque at the new condition? [10M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2018 Questions

1. A squirrel cage induction motor has a starting current of six times the full load current, at a
slip of 0.04. Calculate the line current and starting torque in p.u. (per unit) of full load
values for the following starting methods: [10M]

(i) Direct switching

(ii) Star-Delta starting

2. The maximum efficiency of a 50 KVA transformer is 97.4% and occurs at 90% of full
load, at unity power factor. Calculate the efficiency at [20M]

(i) Full load at 0.8 power factor (p.f.)

(ii) Half the full load at 0.9 power factor (p.f.)

3. A 400 volts D.C. shunt motor draws 30 amperes while supplying the rated load at a speed
of 120 rad⁄sec. The armature resistance is 1.0 ohm and the field winding resistance is
250 ohms. Determine the external resistance that must be inserted in series with armature
circuit so that, the armature current should not exceed 150% of its rated value, when the
motor is plugged. Find the braking torque, at the instant of plugging. [20M]

4. A.D.C. generator has an armature e.m.f. of 100 volts, when the useful flux per pole
is20 mWb and the speed is 800 r. p. m. Calculate the generated e.m.f.

(i) with the same flux and a speed of 1000 r. p. m.

(ii)with flux per pole of 24 m Wb and a speed of 900 r. p. m. [10M]

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2019 Questions
1. A 15 kW, 230 V, 3-phase, Y-connected, 50 Hz, 4-pole squirrel cage induction motor has a
starting torque of 115 percent and a maximum torque of 187 percent of its rated load
torque. Neglecting the effects of stator resistance and rotational losses and assuming
constant rotor resistance, find the slip and speed at maximum torque. Assume proper data,
if required, with proper justification. [10M]

2. Explain the operation of a two-phase induction motor under unbalanced operation with the
help of relevant equivalent circuit models and phasor diagram.

̂𝛼 and V
If the applied stator voltages to this motor are V ̂𝛽 . (in time quadrature but unequal
in magnitude), prove that the starting torque of this motor is same as that developed when
balanced two-phase voltage of magnitude √V𝛼 V𝛽 is applied. [10M]

3. A DC shunt generator running at rated speed of 1000 rpm can supply a full load current of
120 A at a nominal voltage of 105 V DC. The no load (open loop) characteristics at rated
speed nominal voltage is given below:

Field Current, A 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Generated Voltage, V 36 66 86 100 110 118 123

Graphically determine the field resistance of shunt generator for its operation at nominal
voltage at rated speed as a ratio of its critical field resistance.

If the total fixed losses (rotational and iron) are 600 W; find the value of maximum
efficiency of the generator; given that the generator operates at 85% efficiency in
nominal conditions. [20M]

4. Show that the locus of the tip of the armature current phasor is a circle for a synchronous
machine (Generator/Motor) operating at a constant terminal voltage Vt and a constant
excitation voltage Eaf with a fixed synchronous reactance XS . Draw the phasor diagram
and show the circular locus of Ia . [10M]

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5. A magnetic circuit shown below consists of two sections of Al-ni-co-5 of length
𝑙𝑚 = 1.0 cm embedded in a core of high permeability (𝜇 → ∞).The cross sectional areas
of core, Al-ni-co-5 and air-gap are equal. The air-gap length ′g ′ = 0.2 cm has neglible
fringing effect.

If Al-ni-co-5 material B-H curve in second quadrant is linearly approximated, it can be given
as below.

Determine the slope of load line for the problem and hence determine the value of flux
density (Bg ) in the air-gap. [10M]

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2020 Questions
1. A 220V, 8-pole lap wound dc shunt motor has 1200 conductors and has a field resistance
of 220Ω. The motor takes a line current of 50 A at full load and rated speed. Find the
additional resistance required in the field circuit if its speed is to be raised by 40 percent
while maintaining its torque output at previous full load value. Assume linear magnetic
circuit for the machine and resistance of each armature conductor as 50 mΩ. [10M]

2. A separately excited dc motor is controlled by varying its armature voltage using a single-
phase fully-controlled converter bridge as shown in Figure 5(a). The field current is kept
constant at rated value. The motor has an armature resistance of 0.2Ω, and the motor
voltage constant is 2.5 V/(rad⁄sec). The motor is driving a mechanical load having a
constant torque of 140 Nm. [10M]

For the firing angle of the converter being 60° and assuming the armature current to be
continuous and ripple free,

(i) Calculate the motor armature constant.

(ii) Evaluate the motor speed in rad⁄sec.
(iii) Calculate the runs value of the fundamental component of the input current to the
bridge converter.

3. A three-phase 4-pole squirrel cage type induction moto develops maximum torque at 20
percent slip. The maximum to rated torque ratio of the motor is 2.8. If the input voltage
fluctuates during its operation, find the minimum voltage as a percentage of full load
voltage allowable to develop rated torque. Also find the developed torque as a percentage
of full load torque at rated slip under this condition. Assume standstill rotor resistance of
1.5Ω per phase, negligible stator side impedance and linear magnetic circuit. [10M]

4. A 220 V, Hz, 3-phase star-connected salient pole alternator has six poles. With a field
current of 2.4 A, it produces rated terminal voltage on open circuit condition. On short
circuit it requires 0.8 A field current to produce an armature current of 27.0 A. The
alternator has Xd to Xq ratio of 1.5. It is connected to bus of 220 V line-to-line and its
excitation required under this condition is 250 V. [20M]

(i) Find the maximum power that the alternator can deliver and the corresponding load
angle with the excitation remaining unchanged.

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 (ii) Also find the maximum power that the alternator can deliver if a sudden loss of
excitation occurs during the synchronized condition. Assume linear magnetic circuit.

4. A 3-phase, delta-connected, 6-pole, 50 Hz, 400 V, 925 rpm, squirrel cage induction motor
has the following parameters: [10M]

R s = 0.2 Ω, R′r = 0.3 Ω, Xs = 05 Ω, X′r = 1 Ω

The motor is fed from a voltage source inverter with constant V⁄f ratio below 50 Hz and
constant voltage of 400 V above 50 Hz frequency. Calculate:

 Speed for the frequency of 35 Hz and half of full-load torque,

 Frequency for a speed of 600 rpm and 80% of full-load torque and
 Torque for a frequency of 35 Hz and speed of 650 rpm.

Assume motor speed – torque curves to be parallel straight lines in the region of interest.

4. A 150 KVA, 11 KV⁄415 V, 50 Hz single-phase transformer has maximum possible

efficiency of 98.5% at 50 Hz, 125 KVA, 0.8 lag p. f. load. Its hysteresis and eddy current
loss components are also same under this condition. Find the transformer efficiency at
rated KVA and unity power factor load with its supply frequency changed to 40 Hz at
unchanged input voltage. Assume Steinmetz constant x = 1.6 for the transformer core.
[10M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2021 Questions

1. A 220 V dc shunt motor has armature resistance R 𝑎 = 0.13 Ω, field resistance
R a = 250 Ω and rotational loss 230 W. On full-load, the line current is 9.5 A with the
motor running at 1440 rpm. Determine the following: [10M]

(i) The mechanical power developed

(ii) The power out

(iii) The load torque

(iv) The full-load efficiency

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2. A Scott connected transformer shown in Figure 5(c) is supplied from 11 kV, 3-phase,
50 Hz mains. Secondaries are series connected and supply 1100 A at a voltage of
100√2 V to a resistive load. The phase sequence of the 3-phase supply is ABC. [10M]

(i) Calculate the turns ratio of the teaser transformer.

(ii) Calculate the line current IB and its phase angle with respect to the voltage of phase
A to neutral on the 3-phase A to neutral on the 3-phase side.

3. The following test data are obtained for a three-phase, 195 MVA, 15 kV, 50 Hz star
connected synchronous machine. [20M]

Open circuit test:

If (A) 150 300 450 600 750 900 1200

VLL (kV) 3.75 7.5 11.2 13.6 15 15.8 16.5
Short circuit test:

If = 750 A, Ia = 700 A

The armature resistance is small.

(i) Draw the open circuit characteristic, the short circuit characteristic, the airgap line
and the modified airgap line.
(ii) Determine the unsaturated and saturated values of the synchronous reactance in
pu.
(iii) Find the field current required, if the synchronous machine is to deliver 100 MVA
rated voltage, at 0.8 leading power factor.

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4. A three-phase, 4-pole, 50 Hz induction motor has a rotor resistance of 4.5 Ω⁄phase and a
standstill reactance of 8.5 Ω⁄phase with no external resistance in the rotor circuit. The
starting torque of the motor is 85 Nm. Neglecting stator voltage drop, determine the
following: [20M]

(i) The rotor voltage at standstill

(ii) The starting torque, if a 3 Ω resistance were added in each rotor phase

(iii) The rotor induced voltage and the torque at a slip of 0.03

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2015 Questions
1. A single-phase full converter is connected to RLE load. The source voltage is 230 V, 50
Hz. The average load current of 10 A is constant over the working range. For
R = 0.4 Ω and L = 2 mH, compute: [20M]

(a) firing angle delay for E = 120 V and input power factor.

(b) firing angle delay for E = −120 V and input power factor.

2. A single-phase full converter is supplied from 230 V, 50 Hz source as shown in Figure.

The load consists of R = 10 Ω and a large inductance so as to render the load current
constant. For firing delay angle of 30°, determine: [20M]

(a) average output voltage

(b) average output current

(c) average and rms values of thyristor current.

(d) input power factor.

3. A battery is charged through a resistor R as shown in Fig. For an ac source voltage of

230 V, 50 Hz find the value of average charging current for R = 8 Ω and E = 150 V.
[10M]

[10M]

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4. An RLE load is operating in chopper circuit from a 500 V dc source as shown in Figure.
For R = 0, L = 0.064 and constant E, the duty cycle is 0.2. Find the chopping frequency
to limit the amplitude of load current excursion to 10 A. [10M]

5. A separately excited dc motor, operating from a single-phase half controlled bridge (semi-
converter) at a speed of 1440 rpm, has an input voltage of 330 sin 314 t and back emf
80V. The SCRs are fired symmetrically at 𝛼 = 30° in every half cycle and the armature
has a resistance of 4 Ω. Calculate the average armature current and the motor torque.
[10M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2016 Questions

𝑑𝑖
1. The SCR shown in Fig. 5(c) has a 𝑑𝑡 limit of 10 A⁄μs. It is to be operated from a 100 V
d.c. supply with load resistance 𝑅 = 50Ω.

(i) What is the minimum value of load inductance L that will protect the SCR?

(ii) If an 𝑅𝑠 𝐶𝑠 snubber is connected across the SCR with 𝑅𝑠 = 500Ω, what will be the new
𝑑𝑖
value of load inductance L to protect the SCR against 𝑑𝑡 ? [10M]

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2. A single-phase full-bridge square-wave inverter is supplying power to a purely resistive
load of 20Ω.The d.c. source voltage is 600 V. If the inverter is to operate at 500 Hz with
an r. m. s. load voltage 500 V, find−

(i) average power absorbed by the load;

(ii) average source current (assume no losses in switching);

(iii) average current of each switch.

3. A class-A chopper circuit is supplied from a d.c. source voltage 100 V. The chopper
supplies power to a series R-L load with 𝑅 = 0.5Ω 𝑎𝑛𝑑 L = 1 mH. The chopper switch is
ON for 1 ms in an overall period of 3 ms. Calculate average load voltage, maximum and
minimum value of load current and average load current. Assume continuous current
operation of the chopper. [20M]

4. A 200 V, 875 r. p. m. , 150 A, separately excited d.c. motor has an armature resistance of
0.06 Ω. The motor armature terminals are fed from a single-phase fully controlled bridge
rectifier. The input a.c. supply to bridge rectifier is 240 V, 50 Hz. Assuming continuous
and ripple-free armature current, determine the following: [20M]

(i) Firing angle of SCRs for rated torque and 750 r.p.m.

(ii) Firing angle for rated torque and −500 r. p. m.

Assume that field winding of the motor is connected to a constant d.c. voltage source.

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2017 Questions

1. A three-phase uncontrolled diode rectifier supplies a constant load current of 10 A and its
supply voltage is 400 V line to line. Determine the following performance measures:

(i) Average output voltage

(ii) Supply r. m. s. current

(iii) Supply fundamental r. m. s. current

(iv) Supply3rd, 5th, 7th and 9th harmonic r. m. s. current

(v) Supply current displacement factor

(vi) Supply power factor

(vii) AC power (supply power)

(viii) DC power (load power) [20M]

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2. (i) Explain the operation of Boost converter with voltage and current waveforms across the
Boost inductor. Assume continuous conduction.

(ii)Derive its output voltage equation in terms of duty cycle and input voltage. [10M]

3. Find the value of r. m. s. current drawn from the source. [10M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2018 Questions

1. (i) Draw thyristor gate characteristics and state its application in design of gate drive
circuit.

(ii) A thyristor has a maximum average gate power dissipation limit of 0.4 watts. It is
triggered with pulsed gate current of frequency 20 kHz at a duty ratio of 0.5.If the gate
cathode voltage drop is 1 volt, find permissible peak gate current magnitude. [10M]

2. A full bridge or H-bridge inverter has a switching sequence which results in a square wave
output voltage. Let the switching frequency be 50 Hz and inverter is supplying a RL load
having R = 10Ω and L = 30 mH. Determine: [20M]

(i) An expression for load current.

(ii) The power absorbed by load.

(iii) The average current in the D.C. source.

(iv)The area in output voltage waveform where antiparallel diodes across switches
conduct. (Assume Input D.C. voltage = 100 V)

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3. A buck converter (D.C.-D.C. converter) has LC filter in the output to reduce ripple in
output voltage. For continuous conduction mode, draw the waveforms of output voltage,
inductor current and capacitor current. If the converter is switched at frequency ‘f’, prove
that minimum values of ‘L’ and ‘C’ for ∆IL ripple in inductor current and ∆V0 ripple in
output voltages are given by
(1−D) V0 (1−D)
C = 8L(∆V 2 and L =
0 ⁄V0 )f (∆IL )f

Assume any data missing. D is duty cycle of switch and V0 is the average output voltage.
[20M]

4. Draw output voltage and current waveforms and determine r.m.s output voltage of a three-
phase half-wave rectifier supplied by three-phase balanced a.c. supply. Also determine
the form factor. If the supply voltage of the above converter is 220 V(r.m.s) at 50 Hz and
the load is of 1 kW at 200 V, purely resistive, determine power consumed by the load
with given supply voltage. [10M]

5. A 220 volts, 1500 r.p.m., 50 A separately excited D.C. motor is fed from a three-phase
fully controlled rectifier. The rectifier is supplied with a balanced three-phase source with
phase voltage of 230 volts (r. m. s. ) at 50 Hz. Motor is holding an overhauling load at
1200 r. p. m. at full load torque. Determine the firing angle of converter if armature
resistance is assumed to be 0.2 Ω. [20M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2019 Questions

1. A Type-A chopper circuit shown in Figure 1 below supplies a motor load from a DC
source. Determine the value of maximum average current of the switch SW for constant
load current operation of motor. [10M]

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2. For a series inverter shown below, the time interval between the instant ThyristorT1 is
turned OFF and the instant Thyristor T2 is turned ON is Toff seconds; where
Toff > t q−min (minimum turn-off time of Thyristor T1 ). Draw steady state waveforms of
ig1 , ig2 (gate currents of Thyristor T1 and T2 respectively), capacitor voltage VC , inductor
voltage VL , load current iLoad and supply current iS . Analyse and identify in waveform
drawn, different modes of circuit operations; namely Mode-1, Mode-2 and Mode-3.
Analysis may be accompanied by relevant equations and their derivation. [20M]

Figure 2.

3. Determine ripple factor of output voltage (V0 ), rectifier efficiency (𝜂)and transformer
utilization factor (TUF) for a single-phase half-wave controlled rectifier circuit fed from a
source 𝑉𝑆 = 220 sin 314 𝑡 to a load R = 10 Ω. Assume firing angle 𝛼 = 𝜋⁄4 and
transformer to be lossless. [10M]

Figure 3.

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2020 Questions
1. In Figure 2(a)(ii)(A), the ideal switch S is switched on and off with a switching
frequency 𝑓 = 10 kHz. The circuit is operated in steady state at the boundary of
continuous and discontinuous conduction, so that the inductor current i is shown in
the Figure 2 (a)(ii)(B). Find the values of on-time Ton of the switch and peak current
of inductor Ip . [10M]

2. (i) Figure 6(b) shows a step-up dc-dc converter with ideal devices and elements. In its
steady-state analysis the output filter capacitor is assumed to be very large to ensure a
constant output voltage v0 (t) ≅ V0 . The switch is turned on and off periodically with a
frequency of 𝑓𝑠 and duty ratio of D. With the help of neat waveforms, find the expressions
for peak-to-peak current ripple of inductor (IL , peak) and output voltage ripple (∆V0 ) at
steady-state in terms of circuit parameters and variables. [20M]

(ii) In a step-up dc-dc convertor shown in Figure 6(b), Vd = 12 V, V0 = 24 V, I0 = 0.5 A,

L = 150 μH, C = 470 μF, and fs = 20 𝑘𝐻𝑧. Calculate peak-to-peak output voltage ripple
(∆V0 ) and the rms value of the ripple in diode current (which also flows through the
capacitor).

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3. An SCR having a turn ON time of 5 μ sec, latching current of 50 mA and holding current
of 40 mA is triggered by a short duration pulse and is used in the circuit shown in Figure
8(a)(i). Find the minimum pulse width required to turn the SCR ON. [10M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2021 Questions

1. A step down dc chopper is feeding a load of R = 10 Ω and L = 20 mH. The dc supply
voltage is 100 V. The chopper is switching at a frequency of 2 kHz with a duty cycle of
50%. Determine the load current and the peak-peak ripple current as an absolute value
and as percentage of dc. [10M]

2. A three-phase bridge inverter shown in Figure 6(b) is used to feed a Y-connected resistive
load with R = 10 Ω per phase. The dc input to the inverter VS = 400 V and the output
frequency is 50 Hz. If the inverter is operating with 180° conduction mode, [20M]

(i) compute the rms value of the load current,

(ii) compute the rms value of the current in each switching device,

(iii) calculate the output power, and

(iv) draw the waveforms of phase and line voltages.

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3. A three-phase, full-wave thyristor bridge converter is operated from a three-phase,
Y-connected 220 V, 50 Hz supply and the load resistance is 20 Ω.

It is required to obtain an average output voltage of 50% of the maximum possible

output voltage. Determine the following: [20M]

(i) The delay angle α

(ii) The rms and average output currents
(iii) The rms and average thyristor currents
(iv) The rectification efficiency
(v) The input PF

4. A 220 V, 1500 rpm, 10 A separately excited dc motor has an armature resistance of

1 ohm. It is fed from a single phase fully-controlled bridge rectifier with an ac source
voltage of 230 V, 50 Hz . Assuming continuous load current, determine the following:
[10M]

(i) Motor speed at the firing angle of 30° and torque of 5 Nm

(ii) Developed torque at the firing angle of 45° and speed of 1000 rpm.

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 1.
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TERATURE-
OPTI
ONAL
3.PHYSI
CSOPTI
ONAL
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ONAL

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2015 Questions
1. Consider an incoming narrow-band signal of bandwidth 10 kHz, and mid frequency that
may lie in the range of 0.535 to 1.605 MHz. It is desired to translate this signal to a fixed
frequency band centered at 0.455 MHz. Determine the range of tuning that must be
provided in the local oscillator to obtain the frequency band centered at 0.455 MHz.
[10M]

2. Discuss phase and frequency modulation. Explain, why in practice phase modulation is not
favored. [20M]

3. Evaluate the maximum and minimum values of V(t) of the amplitude-modulated voltage
signal defined as:V(t) = 10(1 + 0.5 cos 𝜔𝑡 + 0.2 cos 2 𝜔𝑡) cos 𝜔0 𝑡. [20M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2016 Questions

1. Compare Amplitude Modulation (AM) and Frequency Modulation (FM). [10M]

2. Explain the operations of phase-locked loop used as FM demodulator with neat sketch.
[10M]

3. Write a short note on white noise. [10M]

4. Explain in detail about pre-emphasis and de-emphasis in Frequency Modulation (FM).

[10M]

5. Explain and differentiate between the single sideband (SSB) modulation and double
sideband suppressed carrier (DSB-SC) modulation. Show the DSB-SC modulated
waveform for any chosen baseband signal waveform and spectrum of the baseband and
the DSB-SC modulated wave. [20M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2017 Questions

1. An amplitude modulated signal, viewed on an oscilloscope, has a crest voltage of 44 V
peak-to-peak. The bottom (or trough) point of the wave measures 6 V peak-to-peak. Find
the modulation factor, percentage modulation and peak-to-peak unmodulated carrier
voltage. [10M]

2. Differentiate between stationary and non-stationary random processes. Give the properties
of the first- and second-order distribution function of stationary random processes.
[10M]

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2018 Questions
1. An SSB transmitter transmits with 10 kW power. This transmitter is to be replaced by a
standard amplitude modulated signal with same total power content. Determine the carrier
power and each sideband power, when the percentage modulation is 80%. [10M]

2. The antenna current of a transmitter is 11.5 amperes, when it is modulated to a depth of

45% by an audio wave. The current enchances to 12.5 amperes on account of
simultaneous modulation by another audio sine wave. Find the modulation index of the
second audio wave. [20M]

3. A single tone FM is represented by the voltage equation as [10M]

v(t) = 12 cos(6 × 108 t + 5 sin 1250 t).

Determine:

(i)Carrier frequency

(ii)Modulation frequency

(iii) Maximum deviation

(iv) Bandwidth

(v)Power dissipated in a 10 Ω resistance

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2019 Questions

1. An angle modulated signal with carrier ωc = 2𝜋 × 105 is described by the following
equation: [10M]

ϕEM(t) = 10 cos(𝜔𝑐 𝑡 + 5 sin 3000 𝑡 + 10 sin 2000 𝜋𝑡)

Find:

(i) Power of the modulated signal

(ii) Frequency deviation Δf

(iii) Deviation ratio β

(iv) Phase deviation Δϕ

(v) Also estimate the bandwidth of ϕEM(t) .

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2. An FM signal has a frequency deviation of 5 kHz and a modulation frequency of 1 kHz.
The signal to noise ratio at the input to the receiver detector is 20 dB. Calculate the
approximate signal to noise ratio at the detector output. Assume that the detector is
completely unresponsive to the amplitude variations, and it does not add noise of its own.
Also, calculate the improvement in signal to noise ratio in the detector. [20M]

𝟑.Assuming that X is a Gaussian random variable with 𝑚 = 0 and σ = 1, find the

probability density function of the random variable Y given by Y = aX + b. [10M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2020 Questions

1. How can it be used to demodulate an FM signal
𝑡
𝑠(𝑡) = 𝐴𝑐 cos [2𝜋𝑓𝑐 𝑡 + 2𝜋𝑘𝑓 ∫0 𝑚(𝑡)𝑑𝑡]

with a transmission bandwidth 𝐵𝑇 , in combination with an envelope detector? [10M]

2. Consider the frequency demodulation scheme shown in Figure 7(b) below: [20M]

Here, the incoming FM wave 𝑠(𝑡) is passed through a delay line that produces a phase
𝜋
shift of 2 radius at the carrier frequency 𝑓𝑐 . The delay line output is subtracted from the
incoming FM wave and the resulting composite wave is then envelope detected.
Assuming that 𝑠(𝑡) = 𝐴𝑐 cos[2𝜋𝑓𝑐 𝑡 + 𝛽 sin(2𝜋𝑓𝑚 𝑡)] analyse the operation of this
demodulator when the modulation index 𝛽 is less than unity and the delay T produced by
the delay line is sufficiently small to justify the approximation cos(2𝜋𝑓𝑚 𝑇) ≈ 1 and
sin(2𝜋𝑓𝑚 𝑇) ≈ 2𝜋𝑓𝑚 𝑇

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3. Which type of probability density function is applicable in case of calculating errors with
aiming of missiles/projectiles, if errors in each of the two rectangular coordinates have
independent Gaussian probability density functions?

Find its mean, mean square value, variance and its cumulative distribution function. [10M]

4. Suppose an archer shoots at a target, 3 m in diameter for which the bull’s eye is centered
on the origin of an XY coordinate system. The position at which any arrow strikes the
1
target is a random variable having an X-component and a Y-components is m,
6
1
i. e. 𝜎𝑥 = 𝜎𝑦 = 6
Assume that the X and Y components of the hit position are independent Gaussian random
variables. What is the type of random variable that can be assigned to the distance of
origin from the hit position (i.e. the miss distance)? Write its probability density function
and find the mean value, its standard deviation and probability that the target will be
missed completely. [20M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2021 Questions

1. A transmitter with a 10 kW carrier transmits 11.2 kW when modulated with a single sine
wave. Calculate the modulation index. If the carrier is simultaneously modulated with two
other sine waves also at 50% modulation, calculate the total power transmitted. [10M]

2. Let the measurement error of a physical quantity be defined by a random variable X and its
density function as follows: [10M]
2)
𝑓(𝑥) = {𝐾(3 − 𝑥 −1≤𝑥 ≤1
0 elsewhere
Determine the value of ′𝐾′ and find the probability that a random error in measurement is
less that 1⁄2.

3. For an FM communication system with 𝛽 = 2 and white channel noise with PSD
𝑆𝑛 (𝜔) = 10−10 , the output SNR is found to be 28 dB. The base band signal m(t) is
Gaussian, band-limited to 15 kHz, and 3σ loading is used. [10M]

Determine the following:

(i) The received signal power ′Si ′

(ii) The output signal power ′So
(iii) The output noise power ′No

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 1.
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2.
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TERATURE-
OPTI
ONAL
3.PHYSI
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ONAL

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2015 Questions
𝐶(𝑠)
1. For the block diagram shown in the figure given below, obtain using block diagram
𝑅(𝑠)
reduction technique: [10M]

2. A system input (𝑥)- output (𝑦) is described by the relation

𝑑2𝑦 𝑑𝑦
+8 + 𝑘𝑦 = 50𝑥(𝑡)
𝑑𝑡 2 𝑑𝑦

Evaluate the response 𝑦(𝑡) and its maximum value for an input 𝑥(𝑡) = 2.5𝑢(𝑡), 𝑢(𝑡) is a
unit step function. Given 𝑘 = 25. [10M]

3. State the Nyquist stability criterion. Draw the complete Nyquist plot and there from check
the stability of the closed-loop system whose open-loop transfer function is
K(s+4)
G(s)H(s) = . [20M]
s2 (s+1)

4. The transfer function of a control system is given by

𝑌(𝑠) 𝑠 2 + 3𝑠 + 4
=
𝑈(𝑠) 𝑠 3 + 2𝑠 2 + 3𝑠 + 2

Derive the state model of the system in controllable phase variable form. Comment on the
observability. What is the value of the smallest time constant of the system? [20M]

5. The open-loop transfer function of a unity feedback control system is given by

𝐾
𝐺(𝑠) =
𝑆(1 + 0.2𝑠)(1 + 0.05𝑠)

Determine the value of K so that the gain margin is 20 db. [10M]

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2016 Questions
1. The open loop transfer function of a unity negative feedback control system is given by

𝐾
𝐺(𝑠) = .
(𝑠 + 2)(𝑠 + 4)(𝑠 2 + 6𝑠 + 25)

For what value of K, will the system work as an oscillator in its closed loop form? [5M]

2.

R(s) K
C(s)
s(s + 2)
- -

0.25s

Figure (a)
(i) Figure (a) shows the block diagram of a control system. Find its characteristic equation.

(ii) Calculate its damping factor and undamped natural frequency for K=10.

(iii) What should be the value of K for critical damping ?

(iv) For 𝐾 = 10, find the expression for 𝑐(𝑡) and obtain the time at which the first
overshoot occurs. Also calculate the peak overshoot occurs magnitude. [20M]

3. Consider a control system with characteristic equation

s(s + 4)(s 2 + 2s + 2) + K(s + 1) = 0.

Draw complete root loci labeling all important values. Find the angles of asymptotes and
the intercept of asymptotes. [10M]

4. (i) Explain with proper transfer function a standard PID controller. Explain why derivative
term is not employed alone.
5
(ii) The open loop transfer function of a system is given by 𝐺(𝑠) = 𝑠(𝑠+2). It is desired to
locate the poles of this transfer function at −8 and −3 ± 4𝑗 by using a suitable PID
controller. Find the suitable gains needed by the PID controller to achieve this task. [10M]

5. State and explain Nyquist criterion. [05M]

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6. (i) Explain the following terms in reference to performance indices in a control system:

1. Rise time

2. Integral square error

3. Integral of time multiplied square error

4. Integral absolute error

5. Integral of time multiplied absolute error [10M]

(ii) Consider system describe by

ẋ −4 −1 x1 1
| 1| = [ ] [ ] + [ ] 𝑢,
x2̇ 3 −1 x2 1
x1
𝑦 = [1, 0] [x ].
2

Obtain the transfer function of the system. [10M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2017 Questions

K(s−3)(s−5)
1. For the open-loop transfer function G(s)H(s) = (s+1)(s+2)

Find out the break-away and break-in points, if any, for the root locus. Also specify
whether the gain is maximum or minimum at these point [10M]
s+3
2. For a given unstable open-loop system whose transfer function is G(s)H(s) = s(s−1) sketch
the Nyquist Contour and Nyquist Plot. Comment on the stability of the closed-loop
system. [20M]
𝐶(𝑠) 𝑎
3. Consider a unity feedback system having transfer function = 𝑠2 +𝑏𝑠+𝑎. Determine the
𝑅(𝑠)
open-loop transfer function and steady state error coefficients. [15M]

4.
R(s) K 1 C(s)
𝑠(𝑠 + 2)

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 For 𝛾(𝑡) = 0.9𝑡, it is required that the steady state error should be less than 0.05.
Determine the value of gain (K) of proportional controller for the system shown above.

[10M]
Error (Volt)
5.

Time (sec)
0 2 10

The error signal as shown above is given to the controller. The initial controller output is
zero. Draw the output of the controller if it is a

(i) P controller with proportional gain (𝐾𝑃 ) = 10

(ii) I controller with integral gain (𝐾𝐼 ) = 2 [15M]

𝐶(𝑠) 3
6. A continuous system has transfer function 𝑅(𝑠) = (𝑠−2)(𝑠+3)(𝑠+4)

Find out the state model of the system. Find out the state feedback gain 𝐾 = [𝐾1 𝐾2 𝐾3 ]
such that the closed loop poles will be at −4, −3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 − 2. [20M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2018 Questions

K
1. For the open-loop transfer function G(s) H(s) = , determine the following:
s(s+4)(s+5)

(i) Point of intersection of asymptotes with real axis

(ii) Point of intersection of root locus with imaginary axis and the value of K at this point

[10M]
K
2. For the system, whose open-loop transfer function is G(s)H(s) = ,
(s+2)2 (s+3)

determine K which satisfies the following specifications :

(i) Position error constant 𝐾𝑝 ≥ 2

(ii) Gain margin≥ 3 [20M]

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3. Consider a unity feedback control system whose forward path transfer function is given by
9
𝐺(𝑠) = 𝑠(𝑠+1). Determine-

(i) percentage overshoot resulting from application of unit step input;

(ii) steady-state error resulting from application of unit step and unit ramp input. [20M]

4. The characteristic equation of a system is given by

𝑠 4 + 3𝑠 3 + 10𝑠 2 + 20𝑠 + 100 = 0

By Routh-Hurwiz criterion, determine the number of poles of the system with positive
real parts. [10M]

5. For the open-loop transfer function

1
𝐺(𝑠)𝐻(𝑠) = ; 𝑝1 , 𝑝2 > 0.
(𝑠 + 𝑝1 )(𝑠 + 𝑝2 )

sketch Nyquist plot. Comment on the stability of the closed-loop system. [20M]

6. (i) Consider the block diagram of a system shown below :

𝐸(𝑠) 𝐾 𝜃(𝑠)
𝑠(𝑇𝑠 + 1)

Write the differential equations relating 𝜃 to e and hence write the state model of the
system choosing state variables as 𝜃(𝑡) and 𝜃̇ (𝑡).

(ii) Sketch Bode plot of a lead compensator. [20M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2019 Questions

1. Explain the gain margin and phase margin of a control system for Nyquist stability
criterion. Derive expressions for the centre and radius of a constant magnitude loci
(M-circles) of a unity feedback control system and draw circles for
𝑀 = 0.5, 1.0, 1.2, 1.6, 2.0 and 3.0 on the graph paper with suitable scales and
explanations. [10M]

2. Sketch the root locus form the open-loop transfer function

K
G(s)H(s) = s(s+6)(s2 +4s+13) and determine the following:

(i) The angles of departure from complex poles

(ii) The break-away points

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 (iii) The intersection with imaginary axis

(iv) The stability conditions [20M]

3. Find the transfer function 𝑋(𝑠)⁄𝐸(𝑠) for the electromechanical system shown in the
following figure. Consider (1) the force acting on mass 𝑃(𝑡) = 𝐾2 𝑖2 (𝑡) and (2) the back
𝑑𝑥(𝑡)
e. m. f. of coil 𝑒𝑏 (𝑡) = 𝐾1 , where 𝐾1 and 𝐾2 are constants. [10M]
𝑑𝑡

4. The block diagram representation of a control system is shown below: [10M]

𝐶2
Find transfer function using the following:
𝑅1

(1) Block diagram reduction method

(2) Mason’s gain formula

5. A unity feedback control system is characterized by the open-loop transfer function

K(s+13)
G(s) = s(s+3)(s+7)

(i) Using the R-H criterion, calculate the range of values of 𝐾 for the system to be stable.

(ii) Check whether for 𝐾 = 1, all these roots of the characteristic equation of the above
system have damping factor greater than 0.5. [10M]

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6. The overall transfer function of a control system is given by
𝐶(𝑠) 16
= (𝑠2 + 1.6𝑠 +16)
𝑅(𝑠)

It is desired that the damping ratio be 0.8 .Determine the derivative rate of feedback
constant 𝐾𝑑 , and compare rise time, peak time, maximum overshoot and steady-state error
for unit ramp input without and with derivative feedback control. [20M]

7. Explain the gain margin and phase margin of a control system for asymptotic Bode plot.
The open-loop transfer function of a system is given by
30
𝐺(𝑠)𝐻(𝑠) = 𝑠(0.5𝑠+1)(0.08𝑠+1)

Draw the Bode plot and determine the following:

(1) The gain margin

(2) The phase margin

(3) The stability [10M]

8. Sketch the Bode plot and determine the values of gain 𝐾 for the open-loop transfer
𝐾
function 𝐺(𝑠)𝐻(𝑠) = 𝑠(𝑠+1)(0.1𝑠+1)

So that−

(1) the gain margin is 15 dB;

(2) the phase margin is 60°. [10M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2020 Questions

𝐾(𝑠+3)
1. The open-loop transfer function of a feedback system is given by 𝐺(𝑠)𝐻(𝑠) = (𝑠−1)(𝑠−2).
Determine the gain 𝐾 at the break-in point of the root locus of the system. [10M]

2. The unit step response of a unity feedback system exhibits sustained oscillations as shown
in the figure below. The open-loop transfer function of the system is
𝐾
𝐺(𝑠) = (𝑠+1)(𝑠+4)(𝑠+𝑎). The time 𝑥 in the figure is 1.0471 second. Determine the values
of 𝐾 and 𝑎. [20M]

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3. The unit impulse response of a linear system is given by 𝑐(𝑡) = 𝑒 𝑡 𝑢(𝑡) + 𝑒 −𝑡 𝑢(𝑡). When
the same system is subjected to an input of 𝑒 −3𝑡 𝑢(𝑡), determine the output of the system.
Assume that the system is initially relaxed. [10M]

4. Two first-order systems are connected in cascade as shown in the figure below. Obtain the
state-space representation of the system. Also check the controllability and observability
of the system. 𝑢 is the input to the system and 𝑦 is the output. [20M]

5. The open-loop transfer function of a unity feedback system is given by

𝐺(𝑠)𝐻(𝑠) = 𝑒 −𝑇𝑠 𝐺1 (𝑠), where 𝐺1 (𝑠) is a minimum phase system. The approximate Bode
magnitude plot of the open-loop transfer function, which is shown in the figure below,
crosses the 0 dB line at 𝜔 = 2.8 𝑟𝑎𝑑⁄𝑠𝑒𝑐 . If the phase margin of the system is −12.17°,
determine the transportation lag 𝑇. [20M]

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2021 Questions
1. A system is described by the following state equations: [10M]

𝑥̇ 1 = 𝑥1 + 𝑥2 + 3𝑥3
𝑥̇ 2 = 2𝑥1 + 3𝑥2 + 𝑢1
𝑥̇ 3 = 2𝑥2 + 𝑥3 + 𝑢2

Check the controllability of the system.

2. For the network shown if figure, draw a block diagram representing each circuit element
by a block. Use block diagram reduction technique to obtain the transfer function of the
network. The voltage 𝑉𝑖 (𝑡) is the applied input and the voltage across the capacitor 𝑉𝑜 (𝑡)
is the output. [20M]

3. A convolutional code is described by 𝑔1 = [1 1 0], 𝑔2 = [1 0 1], 𝑔3 = [1 1 1] Find

the transfer function and the free distance for this code. Also verify whether or not this
code is catastrophic. [10M]

4. The approximate magnitude plot, obtained experimentally, of a non-minimum phase

system is shown in figure. Calculate the phase in degrees at w = 3 rad⁄sec. [10M]

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5. The two top rows of a Routh table of a characteristic polynomial is given in the table.
Determine the roots of the characteristic equation which lie in the left half 𝑠-plane.
Complete the remaining rows of the table. [10M]

6. State Nyquist stability criterion. Is the feedback system shown in figure in open loop
stable? Determine the closed loop stability of the system using Nyquist stability criterion.
Show all the required plots clearly. [20M]

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2.
TELUGULI
TERATURE-
OPTI
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3.PHYSI
CSOPTI
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4.ELECTRI
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ONAL

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2015 Questions
1. Discussing the issues in memory addressing, explain the five addressing modes used in
8085. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

2. What is pipelining? Explain how it improves the performance of a processor. Discuss how
BRANCH like instructions can be handled in a pipelined system.

A machine language program has N instructions, each having 𝑚 parts. Suppose each part
can be executed in one cycle and there is no BRANCH like instruction in the program.
How much time does a processor (i) with pipelining and (ii) without pipelining take to
execute the program? [𝟐𝟎𝐌]

3. What is 8255A PPI? Discuss its blocks-output ports and control logic. Write the
instructions to load 65 H in register C and 92 H in accumulator A. Display the number of
65 H and 92 H at PORT 0 and PORT 1 respectively. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

4. (i) Briefly discuss the functional classification of the instruction set, explaining role and
format of instructions from each category-data transfer, arithmetic/logic, branch and
control. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

(ii) Discuss the role and purpose of the three buses-address, data and control. Explain how
they connect microprocessor CPU to ROM, RAM and I/O for data transfer. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2016 Questions

1. Compare memory mapped I⁄O (Input⁄Output) with peripheral mapped I⁄O for 8085
microprocessor. [10M]

2. Write down the purpose of each bit in SIM (Set Interrupt Mark) instruction. Give three
different functions of SIM instruction. [10M]

3. Write down the ALP (Assembly Language Program) to exchange 10H data bytes stored
from memory locations 2450H with data bytes stored from memory locations 2480H
onwards. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

4. With the help of a neat diagram, explain the functioning of a Ramp type Analog-to-Digital
Converter. A Ramp type ADC makes use of a 1 MHz clock generator and a ramp voltage
that increases from 0 − 1.25 V in 125 ms. Find the number of clock pulses counted into
the register for an input of 0.75 V. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

5. (i) Assume that the accumulator contains data byte 82H and the instruction MOV C, A
(4FH) is fetched. List the steps in decoding and executing the instruction. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

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 (ii) Describe the function of each of the following mnemonics. How many cycles do each
of them require for execution and which are the flags affected? Explain, [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

1. DAD (Double Add)

2. CMC (Complement Carry)

3. LHLD (Load H-L Register Pair Direct)

4. ORI (OR Immediate)

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2017 Questions

1. (i) Describe the two ways in which the interrupt RST 7.5 in 8085 micro-processor can be
disabled.

(ii) Calculate the number of memory chips needed to design 8k-bytes memory for an 8085
microprocessor. The memory chip size is 1024 × 1. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

2. What is the difference between cycle stealing DMA and interleaved DMA in 8085
microprocessor? What is meant by block transfer DMA ? [𝟏𝟓𝐌]

3. (i) How long can the INTR pulse stay high in 8085 microprocessor? [𝟎𝟓𝐌]

(ii) What is a jump-on-reset circuit in a processor? [𝟎𝟓𝐌]

4. In an 8085 microprocessor, what is the value of stack pointer after the following program
is run? [𝟎𝟓𝐌]

MOV SP, 07FFH

PUSH B
CALL Subroutine
POP B
ADD B
PUSH B
HLT

5. Suppose that an 8085 microprocessor has received three interrupt requests in the following
order: RST 7.5, RST 6.5 and RST 5.5. If these three interrupts are nested, to what depth
does the stack penetrate if all registers within the CPU must be saved? Assume that the
stack pointer initially points to location FFFFH. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2018 Questions
1. Draw the schematic diagram for interfacing an 8-bit analog to digital converter to 8085
microprocessor using 8255 PPI. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

2. Write 8085 microprocessor assembly language program to turn ON an LED connected to

bit 4 of the 8155 I/O port B. Use address of port B as 2216. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

3. Differentiate between the following pairs of Instructions:

(i) LDA addr and STA addr

(ii) LDAX rp and SHLD addr

(iii) LDAX rp and STAX rp

(iv) RLC and RAL

(v) PCHL and SPHL [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

4. (i) What do you mean by maskable interrupts? Which interrupt cannot be masked? [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

(ii) Write an assembly language program to enable RST 6.5 interrupt. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

5. Explain five addressing modes of 8085 microprocessor. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2019 Questions

1. Explain the function of the following signals in 8085 microprocessor: [10M]

(i) ALE

̅̅̅̅
(ii) RD

(iii) ̅̅̅̅̅
WR

̅
(iv) 10⁄M

2. Design an output port with address FFH to interface the 1408 D⁄A converter that is
calibrated for a 0 to 10 V range (with the use of 8085 microprocessor). Write a program
to generate a continuous ramp waveform. The pin diagram of an octal latch (74LS373)
and the 1408 D⁄A converter are provided for reference: [20M]

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3. Write an assembly language program using the instruction set of 8085 microprocessor for
addition of six bytes of data stored in memory locations starting at 2050H. The carry
generated (if any) must be saved in register B. The entire sum must be stored at two
memory locations 2070H and 2071H. [10M]

4. What is the format of the control word of 8255 programmable peripheral interface?
Explain the significance of each bit of the control word. [10M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2020 Questions

1. Explain briefly the following control instructions of 8085 microprocessor: [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

(i) HLT

(ii) EI

(iii) DI

(iv) RIM

2. (i) Name various registers in 8085 microprocessor with suitable example. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

(ii) Explain indirect addressing modes in 8085 microprocessor with suitable example.

3. (i) For 8085 microprocessor, write a program to do the following: [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

(1) Load the number 30H in register B and 39H in register C

(2) Subtract 39H from 30H

(3) Display the answer at Port 1

(ii) Find the output displayed at Port 1.

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4. For an 8085 microprocessor program, the instructions are as follows: [𝟎𝟓𝐌]

Opcode Operand
MVI B, 91H
MVI C, A8H
MOV A, B
ORA C
OUT Port 1
HLT

Determine the output at Port 1, with the explanation of each statement.

5. For an 8085 microprocessor program given below [𝟎𝟓𝐌]

Label Opcode Operand

Loop: MVI B, 64H
NOP
DCR B
JNZ Loop

Find the number of times the loop will be executed.

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2021 Questions
1. Explain the following related to computer programming: [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

(i) Machine Language (ii) Assembly Language (iii) Compiler (iv) interpreter
(v) ASCII

2. List the functional classification of 8085 instruction set. Give one example for each class.
[𝟏𝟎𝐌]

3. A commercial interface unit uses different names for the handshake lines associated with
the transfer of data from the I⁄O device into the interface unit. The interface input
handshake line is labelled STB (strobe), and the interface output handshake line is
labelled IBF (input buffer full). A low-level signal on STB loads data from the I⁄O bus
into the interface data register. A high-level signal on IBF indicates that the data item has
been accepted by the interface. IBF goes low after an I⁄O read signal from the CPU when
it reads the content of the data register. [𝟐𝟎𝐌]

(i) Draw the block diagram showing the CPU, the interface, and the I⁄O device together
with the pertinent interconnections among the three units.

(ii) Draw a timing diagram for the handshaking transfer.

(iii) Obtain a sequence of events flowchart for the transfer from the device to the interface
and from the interface to the CPU.

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 1.
MATHEMATI
CS-OPTI
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2.
TELUGULI
TERATURE-
OPTI
ONAL
3.PHYSI
CSOPTI
ONAL
4.ELECTRI
CALOPTI
ONAL

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2015 Questions
1. Name the different types of CROs and mention their applications. Find the velocity of
electrons that have been accelerated through a potential of 2000 V in a CRO. [10M]

2. Explain the working of an LVDT with a Bourdon tube for the measurement of pressure.
[10M]

3. Explain the working of a successive-approximation type digital voltmeter using a block

diagram. [10M]

4. Explain the direct connection method of measurement of Q of a coil. Name the sources of
error in such measurements. Compute the value of self-capacitance and inductance of a
coil when the following measurements are made:

At frequency 2 MHz, the tuning capacitor is set at 450 pF

When the frequency is measured to 5 MHz, the tuning capacitor is tuned at 60 pF [10M]

5. What are the sources of errors in an electrodynamometer type wattmeter? A dynamometer

type wattmeter connected normally to read power in a 1-phase circuit indicates the value
𝑃1 . A second reading 𝑃2 is obtained when a capacitor of reactance equal to the pressure
coil resistance is connected in series with the pressure coil. Show that the phase angle of
2𝑃2
the load can be obtained from the expression tan ∅ = 1 − . [20M]
𝑃1

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2016 Questions

1. An 820 Ω resistance with an accuracy of ±10% carries a current of 10 mA. The current
was measured by an analog meter of 25 mA range with an accuracy of ±2% of full scale.
Compute the power dissipated in the resistor and determine the accuracy of the result.
[10M]

2. Show that the maximum non-linearity on account of loading of a linear potentiometer can
400 𝑅𝑝 𝑅𝑝
be expressed as % of f.s.d. for << 1. [20M]
27 𝑅𝑚 𝑅𝑚

3. An accelerometer has an input range of 0 − 100 𝑚⁄𝑠 2. It has a mass of 10 g and works on
a frequency of 10 Hz. Find the range for the displacement transducer used to measure the
displacement of the accelerometer. [05M]

4. (i) With the help of a neat diagram, explain the working of an LVDT. Give its
characteristics, advantages and applications. Explain the role of phase sensitive detector
used for signal conditioning of LVDT. [15M]

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5. An LVDT is connected to a 10V voltmeter through an amplifier of gain 100. An output of
2 mV appears across the terminals of the LVDT when the core crosses a distance of 0.5
mm. Find the sensitivity of the LVDT and that of the whole set-up. The used voltmeter has
1
100 divisions and 𝑡ℎ of a division can be read accurately. Find the resolution of the
5
instrument in mm. [05M]

6. A 500 Hz triangular wave with a peak amplitude of 40 V is applied to the vertical

deflecting plates of a CRO having a vertical deflection sensitivity of 0.1 cm/V. Another
250 Hz sawtooth wave of 50 V is applied to the horizontal plates having a horizontal
deflection sensitivity of 0.08 cm/V. Assuming the two inputs are synchronized, sketch the
waveform displayed on the CRO. [10M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2017 Questions

1. (i) Why low resistances are usually constructed as four-terminal resistances ?

(ii) How can surface resistivity of insulating material be measured using direct deflection
method? [10M]

2. A single phase, 240 V, 20 A, induction type watt-hour meter is working correctly. When
tested at half load, rated voltage, and unity power factor, the disc rotates at 32 rpm.
Determine the meter constant of the meter. Then, due to the alteration of the lag
adjustment of the meter, the meter reads with -6.7% error at 0.8 p.f. lagging. What is the
new phase angle between the supply voltage and the pressure coil flux because of this
incorrect lag adjustment? [15M]

3. A Schering bridge, used to test a specimen, has the following bridge arms:

arm 𝑎𝑏 contains the unknown capacitance (𝐶1 ) whose loss part is represented by a series
resistance (𝑟1 ), arm 𝑏𝑐 contains a non-inductive resistance (𝑅3 ) of 315 Ω, arm 𝑐𝑑 contains
a variable capacitor (𝐶4 ) in parallel with a variable non − inductive resistance (𝑅4 ) and
arm 𝑑𝑎 contains a standard capacitor (𝐶2 ) of 150 pF. The supply is connected between
𝑎 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑐 and the detector is connected between 𝑏 and 𝑑. The specimen is tested at a
frequency of 50 Hz, it is having a thickness of 6.3 mm and it is tested between electrodes
each having a dimension of 0.15 𝑚 × 0.18 𝑚. At balance, 𝐶4 = 0.375 𝜇𝐹 and
𝑅4 = 423Ω. Find the capacitance, dissipation factor and relative permittivity of the
specimen. Given: Permittivity of free space = 8.854 × 10−12 𝐹/𝑚. [15M]

4. How a compensating coil can be utilized in reducing connection errors in an

electrodynamometer type wattmeter? [10M]

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5. Explain in detail different types of frequency instabilities that cause difficulties in
spectrum analyzers for display of narrow frequency ranges. A spectrum analyzer is
designed using a 10 − kHz,3 dB filter and with a noise figure of 25 dB. What is the
minimum detectable signal of this spectrum analyzer? What will be the power-level of the
third-order intercept point, if this spectrum analyzer possesses a dynamic range of 86 dB ?
[15M]

6. Why temperature compensation is needed in strain gauges ? A four arm DC Wheatstone

bridge is designed using a single active gauge. How can a dummy gauge be employed here
to achieve temperature compensation? [10M]

7. A resistance wire strain gauge with nominal resistance 350Ω and gauge factor 2 is fastened
to a steel bar. The modulus of elasticity of steel is 2.1 × 106 kg⁄cm2 . What is the stress
applied to the steel bar if strain gauge resistance becomes 350.5Ω? [05M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2018 Questions

1. The magnetizing and loss component of exciting current of a current transformer rated
1000⁄5 A, are 15 A and 9 A respectively. The phase angle between secondary winding
induced voltage and current is 40 degree. Determine the phase angle error of the
transformer. [10M]

2. An energy meter is designed to have 80 revolutions of the disc per unit of energy
consumed. Calculate the number of revolutions made by the disc when measuring the
energy consumed by the load carrying 30 A at 230 V and 0.6 power factor. Find the
percentage error if the meter actually makes 330 revolutions. Also specify whether the
meter runs slower or faster. [10M]

3. Explain how the spectra of amplitude-modulated signal are displayed on a spectrum

analyzer. [10M]

4. A wattmeter reads 5 kW when its current coil is connected in red phase and its voltage coil
is connected between neutral and red phase of a symmetrical three-phase star-connected
system supplying a balanced three-phase inductive load of 25 A at 440 V. What will be
the reading of the wattmeter if the connection of the current coil remains unchanged and
voltage coil is connected between blue and yellow phase? Hence determine the total
reactive power in the circuit. [10M]

5. Which method is used to eliminate the effect of stray capacitances in a four-arm AC

bridges? Describe with circuit diagram. [20M]

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2019 Questions
1. (i) Due to some errors in the internal circuit of a differential amplifier, its differential
mode gain is halved, while its common-mode gain does not change. Find the reduction
in the CMRR of amplifier in decibels. [05M]

(ii) A full-wave rectifier type ammeter displays a current reading of 5.55 mA r. m. s.

when measuring the current waveform shown in the figure given below: [05M]

Determine the true r. m. s. value of the current waveform and the error in the meter.

2. With the help of suitable circuit diagram and related equations, explain the principle of
measurement of the unknown parameters of a low-impedance coil using a 𝑄 meter in
series connection mode. [10M]

3. Draw the circuit diagram of an instrumentation amplifier and derive an expression for the
voltage gain of this amplifier. How can this gain be varied? [10M]

4. With the help of a suitable diagram and equations, describe the principle of operation of a
differential capacitive displacement transducer. In what way is it better than a normal
capacitive displacement transducer? Determine the output voltage of this differential
transducer when it is connected in an AC bridge. [20M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2020 Questions

1. Why are strain gauges made with high value of gauge factor (𝐺𝑓 )? Write the expression
for gauge factor in terms of change in resistance and strain. If a strain gauge with a gauge
factor of 2 is bonded on a steel structure which is subjected to a stress of 100 𝑀𝑁⁄𝑚2
and the modulus of elasticity of steel is 200 𝐺𝑁⁄𝑚2 , then what is the percentage change
in the value of the strain gauge resistance due to this applied stress? [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

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2. Draw the circuit arrangement for power measurement in a 3-phase, 3-wire balanced supply
and load using two-wattmeter method, and show that the power factor of the load is given
by
1
cos 𝜙 =
2
√1+3(𝑃1 −𝑃2 )
𝑃1 +𝑃2

where 𝑃1 and 𝑃2 are powers indicated by Wattmeter 1 and Wattmeter 2, respectively.

[𝟐𝟎𝐌]

3. The resistance-temperature characteristic of a thermistor is given by

1 1
( − )
𝑅𝑇 = 𝑅0 𝑒 𝑇 𝑇𝑂

Where 𝑅𝑜 is the resistance of the thermistor at reference temperature, 𝑇𝑂 and 𝑅𝑇 is the

resistance at the measured temperature, 𝑇. If the value of 𝛽 is 4000 K and the resistance
of the thermistor is 200 𝑘Ω at − 100 °𝐶, find the value of resistance at 400 °𝐶. Also find
the ratio of two resistances. If platinum resistance temperature detector (RTD) is used
over the same temperature range, then what will be the ratio of RTD resistances on the
above-referred two temperatures? [𝟐𝟎𝐌]

4. An insulating material specimen is connected to arm 𝐴𝐵 of a Schering bridge. The arm

𝐵𝐶 has a non-inductive resistance 𝑅2 of 140 Ω and arm 𝐶𝐷 has a non-inductive
resistance 𝑅4 of 208 Ω in parallel with a capacitor 𝐶4 of 0.5 𝜇𝐹 (loss-free). The arm 𝐷𝐴
has a loss-free capacitor 𝐶3 of 150 × 10−6 𝜇𝐹. If the bridge is supplied with 50 Hz a. c.
voltage connected between terminals 𝐴 and 𝐶, then draw a neat circuit diagram of the
bridge and derive the balance condition of the bridge, and calculate the parameters 𝐶1 , 𝑟1
of the specimen and its loss angle (𝛿). [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

5. Which the help of a neat diagram, explain the working principle and characteristics of a
linear variable differential transformer (LVDT). Why is the frequency of excitation in
primary winding kept very high as compared to frequency of the signal detected? Write
three advantages and disadvantages of LVDT also. [𝟐𝟎𝐌]

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2021 Questions
1. A current of (0.5 + 0.3 sin 𝜔𝑡 − 0.2 sin 2𝜔𝑡) amps is passed through the circuit shown in
figure. Determine the reading of each instrument if 𝜔 = 106 𝑟𝑎𝑑⁄𝑠𝑒𝑐. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

2. A coil of 300 V moving iron voltmeter has a resistance of 500 ohms and an inductance of
0.8 H. The instrument reads correctly at 50 Hz AC supply and takes 100 mA at full scale
deflection. What is the percentage error in the instrument reading, when it is connected to
200 V DC supply. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

3. Derive the conditions of balance of an Anderson’s bridge and also draw the phasor
diagram of the bridge under balanced condition. Determine the unknown quantities in
terms of known parameters and comment on easy convergence of balance of the bridge.
[𝟐𝟎𝐌]

4. Explain the ratio error and phase angle error of current transformer. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

5. A pulse is applied to a piezo-electric transducer for a time 𝑇. Prove that in order to keep the
undershoot of the response to a value within 5%, the value of time constant should be
approximately 20𝑇. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

6. Write advantages, disadvantages and application of spectrum analyzer. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2015 Questions
1. A transmission line of inductance 0.1 H and resistance of 5 ohms is applied with a voltage
𝑣 = 100 sin(𝜔𝑡 + 𝛼), 𝛼 represents the instant on voltage wave when short circuit occurs.
What should be the instant of short circuit so that DC offset current is (𝑖) zero and (ii)
maximum? Assume supply frequency as 50 Hz. [10M]

2. An 11 kV, 50 MVA, 3-phase solidly grounded generator has fault currents at its terminals
for different types of faults as follows:

𝐼𝐿𝐿𝐿 = 1870 A
𝐼𝐿𝐿 = 2590 A
𝐼𝐿𝐺 = 4130 A
Determine 𝑝. 𝑢. values of sequence reactances of the generator. [10M]

3. A synchronous generator is feeding 250 MW to a large 50 Hz power system network over

a double-circuit line. The maximum steady-state power that can be transmitted over line
with both the circuits in operation is 500 MW and is 350 MW with one circuit in
operation. A solid 3-phase fault occurring at network end of one of the lines causes it to
trip. Estimate critical clearing angle in which circuit breaker must trip so that synchronism
is not lost. What further information is needed to estimate critical clearing time? [20M]

4. (i)Determine the equivalent ABCD constants of Network-1 connected in tandem with

Network-2 as shown in the figure given below: [10M]

(ii) A transmission line has its electrical length of 5 electrical degrees. Find its physical
length. The frequency of supply is 50 Hz. Express the physical length in terms of
wavelength of the line. [10M]

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5. A system consists of two plants (plants 1 and 2) connected by a tie-line and load is located
at plant 2. When 100 MW is transmitted from plant 1, a loss of 10 MW takes place on the
tie-line. Determine the generation schedule at both the plants and the power received by
the load when 𝜆 for the system is ₹ 25 per MW-hr and fuel inputs to the two plants are
given by

𝐹1 = 0.015𝑃1 2 + 17𝑃1 + 50₹ /hr

𝐹2 = 0.03𝑃2 2 + 19𝑃2 + 30₹ /hr [20M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2016 Questions

1. Two sub-stations are connected by two lines in parallel with negligible impedance, but
each containing a tap-changing transformer of reactance 0.18 p.u. on the basis of its rating
of 200 MVA. Find the net absorption of respective power when the transformer taps set to
1: 11 and 1: 0.9 respectively. Assume p.u. voltage to be equal at the two ends and also at
the sub-stations. [10M]

2. A system consists of two plants connected by a transmission line and a load at power
plant 2 as shown in Figure 2(b). Data for the loss equation consists of the information that
200 MW transmitted from plant 1 to the load results in a transmission loss of 20 MW. Find
the optimum generation schedule considering transmission losses to supply a load of
204.41 MW. Also evaluate the amount of financial loss that may be incurred if at the time
of scheduling transmission losses are not co-ordinated. Assume that the incremental fuel
cost characteristics of plant 1 and plant 2 are given by [20M]

𝑑𝐹1
= 0.025𝑃𝐺1 + 14 ₹/𝑀𝑊ℎ
𝑑𝑃𝐺1

𝑑𝐹2
= 0.025𝑃𝐺2 + 16 ₹/𝑀𝑊ℎ
𝑑𝑃𝐺2

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3. A three-phase generator rated 11 kV, 20 MVA has a solidly grounded neutral. Its positive,
negative and zero sequence reactances are 60%, 25% and 15% respectively.
(i) Calculate the value of reactance that should be placed in the generator neutral such that
the current for single line-to-ground fault does not exceed the rated current.
(ii) What value of the resistance in the neutral will serve the same purpose? [20M]
4. Form [B’] and [B’’] matrices used in Fast Decoupled Load Flow (FDLF) for the power
system shown in Figure 5(b) and line date given in Table I. [20M]

Bus Code Impedance (𝑧𝑖𝑗 ) Half-line Charging

(i - j) (in p.u.) Admittance (in p.u.)
1-2 (0.02 + j 0.04) j 0.020
2-3 (0.04 + j 0.20) j 0.020
3-5 (0.15 + j 0.40) j 0.025
3-4 (0.02 + j 0.06) j 0.010
4-5 (0.02+ j 0.04) j 0.010
1-5 (0.08+ j 0.20) j 0.020

Table I: Line data

5. What is Load Flow solution ? What do you understand by (i) Adjustable Load Flow, and
(ii) Unadjustable Load Flow? Which method will provide the accurate solution? [10M]

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2017 Questions
1.

In a system shown in the above figure, two single phase transformers supply a 10 kVA
resistance load at 200 V. Show that the p.u. load is the same for each part of the circuit
(like part A, B and C) and calculate the voltage at point D. [15M]

2.

In the above figure, 𝑉1 = 1∠0° ,𝑍1 = (0.05 + 𝑗0.02)𝑝𝑢 and 𝑃2 + 𝑗𝑄2 = (1.0 + 𝑗 0.6)𝑝𝑢.
Using load flow study iteratively compute 𝑉2 and 𝑃1 + 𝑗𝑄1 . Also determine the reactive
power that must be injected to bus 2 to maintain |𝑉1 | = |𝑉2 | = 1.0 𝑝𝑢. [20M]

4. Derive an expression for the critical clearing angle for a power system consisting of a
single machine supplying to an infinite bus, for a sudden load increment. [20M]

6. For a certain lagging power factor load, the sending end and receiving end voltage of a
𝑋
short transmission line of impedance 𝑅 + 𝑗𝑋 are equal. Prove that ratio is √3 for
𝑅
maximum power transmitted over the line under steady state condition. [15M]

7. A synchronous generator and motor are rated 30,000 kVA, 13.2 kV, and both have
subtransient reactances of 20%. The line connecting them has a reactance of 10% on the
base of the machine ratings. The motor is drawing 20,000 KW at 0.8 power factor leading
and a terminal voltage of 12.8 kV when a symmetrical three phase fault occurs at the
motor terminal. Find the subtransient currents (i) in the generator, (ii) in the motor and (iii)
in the fault by using the internal voltages of the machines. [20M]

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2018 Questions
1. A generator is connected to an infinite bus are shown in the figure. Derive the expressions
for real power and reactive power supplied by the generator to the infinite bus: [10M]

2. A 3-phase, 11 kV transmission line delivers a load of 2395 kVA at 0.8 p.f. (lag) over a
distance of 25 km. The transmission line has an impedance per phase of
(3.25 + 𝑗7.55)𝑜ℎ𝑚𝑠. Determine the sending-end voltage and sending-end power factor.
[20M]

3. An 11 kv, 100 MVA alternator is provided with differential protection. The percentage of
winding to be protected against phase-to-ground fault is 85%. The relay is set to operate
when there is 20% out of balance current. Determine the value of the resistance to be
placed in the neutral-to-ground connection. [10M]

4. A three-phase power system consists of a synchronous machine connected through a

lossless transmission line to an infinite bus. A fault occurs on the transmission line. The
maximum power transfer of this system when there is no fault is 5 p.u. and the power
transfer is 2.5 p.u. The power angle curves during the fault and post-fault conditions have
peak values of 2 p.u. and 4 p.u. respectively. Determine the permissible increase in the
angular displacement between the voltages at the two ends of the system beyond which the
circuit breakers could not clear the fault in time for the system to remain in synchronism.
[20M]

5. For the system shown in the figure, 𝑆𝐷1 and 𝑆𝐷2 are complex power demands at bus-1 and
bus -2 respectively. If |𝑉2 | = 1 p.u., compute VAR rating of the capacitor (𝑄𝐺2 ) connected
at bus-2 in MVAr : [10M]

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6. A three-phase generator rated 11 kV, 20 MVA has a solidly grounded neutral. Its positive,
negative and zero sequence reactances are 60%, 25% and 15% respectively. Calculate the
value of the reactance that should be placed in generator neutral such that the current for
single line-to-ground fault does not exceed the rated current. [10M]

7. Two substations are connected by two lines in parallel with negligible impedance, but each
containing a tap-changing transformer of reactance 0.18 p. u. on the basis of its rating of
200 MVA. Find the net absorption of reactive power in MVAr when the transformer taps
are set to (1: 1.1) and (1: 0.9) respectively. Assume per unit voltages to be equal at two
ends of the substation. [10M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2019 Questions

1. An 11 kV single-core cable has a conductor radius of 8.8 mm and an insulation thickness
of 4.6 mm. Find the maximum and minimum electric stress. [10M]

2. A system consists of two plants connected by a transmission line and a load that is located
at plant 2. Data for the loss equation consists of the information that 100 MW transmitted
from plant 1 to the load results in a loss of 10 MW. Find the required generation from each
plant and power received by the load when λ for the system is ₹ 2.5 per megawatt-hour.
Assume that the incremental fuel costs can be given by the following equations:
𝑑𝐹1
= 0.003 𝑃1 + 1.7 ₹⁄MWh
𝑑𝑃1

𝑑𝐹2
= 0.006 𝑃2 + 1.9 ₹⁄MWh [20M]
𝑑𝑃2

3. Describe briefly various kinds of DC links used in HVDC transmission. [10M]

5. One conductor of a three-phase line is open. The current flowing to the ∆-connected load
through line 𝑎 is 10 A.

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 With the current in line 𝑎 as reference and assuming that line 𝑐 is open, find the
symmetrical components of the line currents. [10M]

6. A three-phase generator delivers 1.0 p. u. power to an infinite bus through a transmission

network when a fault occurs. The maximum power which can be transferred in pre-fault,
during fault and post-fault conditions are 1.75 p. u. , 0.4 p. u. and 1.25 p. u. respectively.
Find the critical clearing angle. [20M]

7. The primitive impedance matrix of a power system network is given below:

e
1 2 3 4 5
e
1 0.6 0.1 0 0.2 0
2 0.1 0.5 0 0 0
3 0 0 0.5 0 0
4 0.2 0 0 0.4 0
5 0 0 0 0 0.2

Find its primitive admittance matrix. [10M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2020 Questions

1. Find the steady-state power limit of a system consisting of a generator with equivalent
reactance 0.50 p. u. connected to an infinite bus through a series reactance of 1.0 p. u. The
terminal voltage of the generator is held at 1.20 p. u. and the voltage of the generator is
held at 1.20 p. u. and the voltage of the infinite bus is 1.0 p. u. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

2. A synchronous generator and a synchronous motor each rated 25 MVA, 11 kV having 15%
subtransient reactance are connected through transformers and a line as shown in the
figure below. The transformers are rated 25 MVA, 11⁄66 kV and 66⁄11 kV with leakage
reactance of 10% each. The line has a leakage reactance of 10% on a base of 25 MVA,
66 kV. The motor is drawing 15 MW at 0.8 power leading and a terminal voltage of
10.6 kV when a symmetrical 3-phase fault occurs at the motor terminals. Find the
subtransient current in the generator, motor and fault. [𝟐𝟎𝐌]

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3. A synchronous generator of reactance 1.20 p. u. is connected to an infinite bus bar
(|𝑉| = 1.0 p. u. ) through transformers and a line of total reactance of 0.60 p. u.The
generator no-load voltage is 1.20 p. u. and its inertia constant is 𝐻 = 4 MW 𝑠⁄MVA. The
system frequency is 50 Hz. Calculate the frequency of natural oscillations if the generator
is loaded to 80% of its maximum power limit. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

4. Show that the fault current for a single line to ground fault at the terminals of an alternator
with solidly grounded neutral is more than that for symmetrical three-phase short circuit.
The alternator has sequence reactances 𝑋1 , 𝑋2 and 𝑋0 such that 𝑋1 = 𝑋2 ≫ 𝑋0 . [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

5. (i) What are the advantage of per unit representation?

(ii) Using the nominal 𝜋 method, find the sending-end voltage and voltage regulation of a
250 km, 3-phase, 50 Hz transmission line delivering 25 MVA at 0.8 lagging power factor
to a balanced load at 132 kV. The line conductors are spaced equilaterally 3 m apart. The
conductor resistance is 0.11 Ω⁄km and its effective diameter is 1.6 cm. Neglect
leakance. [𝟐𝟎𝐌]

6. (i) What informations are obtained from load flow analysis? Explain the necessity of load
flow studies.

(ii) Explain the advantages of using bus admittance matrix, 𝑌𝑏𝑢𝑠 in load flow analysis.

(iii) A power system has two generating plants and the power is being dispatched
economically with 𝑃1 = 150 MW and 𝑃2 = 275 MW. The loss coefficient’s are

𝐵11 = 0.10 × 10−2 MW −1

𝐵12 = −0.10 × 10−3 MW −1
𝐵22 = 0.13 × 10−2 MW −1

To raise the total load on the system by 1 MW will cost an additional ₹200 per hour. Find
the penalty factor for Plant 1 and the additional cost per hour to increase the output of
Plant 1 by 1 MW. [20M]

7. A sinusoidal voltage 𝑣𝑖 (𝑡) is applied to the lag network shown in the figure below. 𝑣𝑖 (𝑡)
is adjusted to produce a sinusoidal steady-state output voltage

𝑣0 (𝑡) = 2 sin(𝜔𝑡 + 45°) volts. If 𝜔 = 1 rad⁄sec, determine the input voltage 𝑣𝑖 (𝑡).
[𝟏𝟎𝐌]

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2021 Questions
1. A single phase, single line diagram of a power system is shown in figure. Find the sending
end voltage and the value of load resistance in p. u. referred to sending end if the voltage
across load resistance is 9.8 KV. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

2. Draw the sequence networks and calculate the load sequence impedances of a load circuit
as shown in figure. The load circuit is connected to a balanced three phase supply. The
value of 𝑧1 , 𝑧2 and 𝑧𝑛 are (4 + 𝑗6)Ω, −𝑗45Ω 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑗4 Ω. [𝟐𝟎𝐌]

3. The configuration of a 400 KV 3 phase line is shown in figure. The radius of each sub-
conductor is 2 cm. Calculate the charging mega volt-amperes if line is operating at 50 Hz
and has a length of 300 km. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

4. Calculate the most economical overall diameter of insulation of a cable to be operated at

400 KV, 3 phase power system if maximum stress is limited to 100 KV⁄cm. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

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5. A synchronous machine is connected to an infinite bus through a transformer and a double
circuit line as shown in figure. The infinite bus voltage is 𝑉 = 1.0 ∠0° p. u. The direct
axis transient reactance of the machine is 0.20 p. u., the transformer reactance is
0.10 p. u. and the reactance of each of the transmission lines is 0.4 p. u. all the values are
to a base of the rating of the synchronous machine. Initially, the machine is delivering
0.8 p. u. power with a terminal voltage |𝑉𝑡 | = 1.05 p. u. The inertia constant
𝐻 = 5 MJ⁄MVA. All resistances are neglected. Determine the equation of motion of the
machine rotor. [𝟐𝟎𝐌]

6. A sinusoidal voltage of 10 V amplitude at 100 Hz is applied to a lead network shown in

figure. The phase difference between the input voltage 𝑉𝑖 (𝑡) and output voltage 𝑉𝑜 (𝑡) is
44.43°. If 𝐶 = 0.1 𝜇𝐹 and 𝑅1 = 100 𝑘Ω, determine the value of 𝑅2 and the magnitude of
steady state output voltage [𝟐𝟎𝐌]

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7. For a 3-bus power system, assume [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

Voltage at bus − 1 ∶ V1 = (1.05 + 𝑗 0)pu

Voltage at bus − 2 ∶ V2 = (0.9812 − 𝑗 0.0522)pu and

Voltage at bus − 3 ∶ V3 = (0.999 − 𝑗 0.0468) pu.

The line impedances are shown below:

𝐵𝑢𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑑𝑒 𝐼𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑑𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒𝑠 (𝑖𝑛 𝑝. 𝑢. )

1−2 (0.02 + 𝑗 0.04)

1−3 (0.01 + 𝑗 0.03)

2−3 (0.0125 + 𝑗 0.025)

Compute Real and Reactive power loss in all the lines and also compute total system loss.

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2015 Questions
2. Explain the advantages of numerical relays. [10M]

3. Obtain three zone settings for (i) a reactance relay and (ii) a mho relay of 60° from the
following data:

𝐶𝑇: 400/1 𝐴

𝑃𝑇: 132 𝑘𝑉/110 𝑉

Impedance for the first section is (2.5 + j5) ohms (primary) and that of second section in
(3.5 + 𝑗7) ohms (primary). The first zone covers 80% of the first section, the second zone
covers the first section plus 30% of the second section and the third zone covers the first
section plus 120% of the second section. [10M]

4. Draw the block diagram and explain various components involved in digital signal
processing for a numerical relay. [10M]

5. It is required to install a circuit breaker for a 3-𝑝ℎ𝑎𝑠𝑒, 50 Hz, 220 kV, 500 MVA
substation. Select the suitable circuit breaker along its specifications. [10]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2016 Questions

1. Describe the principle of numerical protection. How is this method of protection different
from conventional methods? [10M]

2. What are the different methods of testing of circuit breakers? Discuss their merits and
demerits. Which method is more suitable for testing the circuit breakers of large capacity?
[10M]

3. A circuit breaker interrupts the magnetising current of the 100 MVA transformer at
220 kV. The magnetizing current of the transformer is 5% of the full load current.
Determine the maximum voltage which may appear across the gap of the breaker when
the magnetising current is interrupted at 53% of its peak value. The stray capacitance is
2500 μF and the inductance is 30 H. [10M]

4. Discuss the operating principle of 𝑆𝐹6 circuit breaker. What are its advantages over other
types of circuit breakers? In practice, for what voltage range is it recommended? [10M]

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UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2017 Questions
1. Explain the principle of percentage biased differential relay with harmonic restraint. [10M]

2. A 20 MVA, 6.6 kV generator, with 𝑋𝑑 ′′ = 10%, 𝑋𝑑 ′ = 20% and 𝑋𝑑 = 100% is

connected through a circuit breaker to a transformer. It is operating on no load when a
short circuit occurs between breaker and transformer.

Find (i) sustained short circuit current through breaker

(ii) initial symmetrical rms short circuit current. [10M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2018 Questions

3. Write about the selection of various circuit breakers for different ranges of system voltage.
Mention the type of circuit breaker to be recommended by the utilities for a particular
range of voltage. [10M]

4. Discuss the difficulty in the development of high voltage DC (HVDC) circuit breaker.
Describe its construction and principle of operation. [10M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2019 Questions

1. The figure given below shows percentage differential relay applied to the protection of an
alternator winding. The relay has 0.1 ampere minimum pick-up and 10% slope of
characteristic (𝐼1 − 𝐼2 )vs (𝐼1 + 𝐼2 )⁄2. A high-resistance ground fault occurred near the
grounded neutral end of generator winding, while the generator is carrying load. As a
consequence, the currents in ampere flowing at each end of the winding are shown in the
figure. Assume CT ratio of 400⁄5. Will the relay operate to trip the breaker? [20M]

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2. For a 3-ϕ, 50 Hz, 132 kV system, the reactance and capacitance up to the location of the
circuit breaker are 3 Ω and 0.015 μF respectively. Calculate the following:

(i) The frequency of transient oscillation

(ii) The maximum value of restriking voltage across the contacts of the circuit breaker

(iii) The maximum value of rate of rise of restriking voltage (RRRV) [10M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2020 Questions

1. (i) What is Buchholz relay? Which equipment is protected by it? Discuss its working
principle.
(ii) A circuit breaker interrupts the magnetizing current of a 100 MVA transformer at
220 kV. The magnetizing current of the transformer is 5% of the full-load current.
Determine the maximum voltage which may appear across the gap of the breaker
when the magnetizing current is interrupted at 53% of its peak value. The stray
capacitance is 2500 𝜇𝐹 and the inductance is 30 H. [𝟐𝟎𝐌]

2. In a 220 kV system, the reactance and capacitance up to the location of circuit breaker is
8 Ω and 0.025 𝜇𝐹, respectively. A resistance of 600 Ω is connected across the contacts of
the circuit breaker. Determine the following: [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

(i) Natural frequency of oscillation

(ii) Frequency of damped oscillation

(iii) Critical value of resistance which will give no transient oscillation.

(iv) The value of resistance which will give frequency of damped oscillation, one-fourth of
the natural frequency of oscillation.

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2021 Questions

1. A solidly earthed 400 KV, 3 phase busbar system is connected with two incoming and four
outgoing lines (feeders). A differential protection is provided with switchgear of
4000 MVA capacity having the following parameters: [𝟐𝟎𝐌]

CT secondary resistance = 0.8 Ω

Lead wire resistance = 1.2 Ω

Relay load = 1.0Ω

CT magnetization current = 0.3 m A⁄V

Max. full load current in one feeder = 100 A

Voltage setting of over current relay = 100 V

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 If the O. C. relay in the spill path is set at 1.0 A, find the following:

(a) The maximum ‘through fault’ current up to which the protection scheme remains stable.
(b) Whether the switchgear is capable to handle maximum through fault current.
(c) The value of minimum internal fault current that can be detected by protection scheme.
(d) The pick-up setting for detecting minimum internal fault current of 90 Amp.

2. Discuss the percentage differential Rely with harmonic restraint with the help of diagram
and also draw the conceptual representation of it. [𝟐𝟎𝐌]

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2015 Questions
1. Explain the role of Protocol Data Unit (PDU) in communication within seven layers of
OSI-ISO model. [10M]

2. Differentiate between the problems of error detection and correction. How many
check/parity bits are required to correct a single error in a message of 𝑚 bits? [10M]

3. Differentiate between the Pulse Code Modulation (PCM) and Delta Modulation (DM)
explaining why DM is considered as a better alternative to PCM. How does the choice of
the two parameters-quantization level (𝛿) and sampling interval 𝑇𝑠 affect the performance-
noise and accuracy/data rate? [10M]

4. Draw the waveforms showing modulation of the binary signal 0011010010 using ASK,
FSK and PSK. [10M]

5. What is Quadrature Phase Shift Keying (QPSK)? How does it help to improve the data
transmission rate? [10M]

6. Describe the Cyclic Redundancy Check (𝐶𝑅𝐶) scheme for error detection. Explain how
the Frame Check Sequence (FCS) and divisor /pattern are chosen. Given a message
𝑀 = 1010001101 (10 bits), pattern 𝑃 = 110101 (6 bits), illustrate how FCS can be
calculated. [10M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2016 Questions

1. What do you mean by aliasing? How can aliasing be removed? State and explain
Shannon’s sampling theorem. [10M]

2. (i) Discuss the concept of ‘Hamming distance’. How is the minimum Hamming distance
between a set of code words related to the error detection and error correction properties of
the code? Find the correct 4-bit messages from the following two Hamming codes,
assuming at most a single error has occurred: 𝐶1 = 0110101 , 𝐶2 = 1011001 [10M]

(ii) Explain Delta Modulation, comparing it with Differential Pulse Code Modulation.
Discuss how the choice of step size in Delta modular affects slope overload distortion and
granular noise. [10M]

3. (i) An accelerometer has an input range of 0 − 100 𝑚/𝑠 2 . It has a mass of 10g and works
on a frequency of 10 Hz. Find the range for the displacement transducer used to measure
the displacement of the accelerometer.

(ii) An information signal 𝑥(𝑡) = 5 cos(2000) 𝜋𝑡 cos(5000)𝜋𝑡 is sampled. Calculate the

minimum sampling rate that will be needed to recover the signal back from its samples.
[10M]

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4. (i) Show that the (7, 4) cyclic codes generated by the two polynomials

𝑔1 (𝑃) = 𝑃3 + 𝑃2 + 1, and

𝑔2 (𝑃) = 𝑃3 + 𝑃 + 1

are equivalent. Find the codes for the four messages: [10M]

(0011), (0101), (1010), (1101)

(ii) Discuss and differentiate between ISO/OSI and TCP/IP. Explain how the functions of
each of the seven layers of ISO/OSI are carried out by TCP/IP. [10M]

5. Eight messages are generated by a source with the following probabilities:

Message 𝑚𝑖 𝑚0 𝑚1 𝑚2 𝑚3 𝑚4 𝑚5 𝑚6 𝑚7
Probability 𝑝𝑖 0.02 0.04 0.07 0.10 0.13 0.18 0.22 0.24

(i) Use Huffman scheme to code these messages.

(ii) Explain and illustrate the prefix property of the code.

(iii) Determine the average number of bits per message (1) with the Huffman coding, and (2)
with uniform coding assuming the messages to be equiprobable. Also find the information
content (entropy) in the message and hence efficiency of the Huffman coding. [20M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2017 Questions

1. A delta modulation system is designed to accommodate a bandlimited analog analog signal
with maximum frequency of 5000 Hz. The sampling rate is five times the Nyquist rate. A
signal 𝑥(𝑡) = sin(2000𝜋𝑡) is applied to this system.

Determine:

(i) the minimum step size required to process the signal without slope overload distortion
and

(ii) maximum signal-to-quantization noise ratio of the system. [10M]

2. A discrete memoryless source is emitting the symbols 𝑥1 , 𝑥2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥3 with probabilities,

respectively, 0.2, 0.45 and 0.35. Construct optimal binary Huffman code for the second
extension of the source and calculate the coding efficiency. [15M]

3. An information source is modeled as a bandlimited process with a bandwidth of 6000 Hz.

This process is sampled at a rate higher than the Nyquist rate to provide a guard band of
2000 Hz. The resulting samples takes one of the value in the set {−4, −3, −1, 2, 4, 7} with

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 corresponding probabilities {0.2, 0.1, 0.15, 0.05, 0.3, 0.2}. Determine the rate of
information of the source. [10M]

4. A convolutional code is described by the following generator sequences:

𝑔1 = [1 0 0]

𝑔2 = [1 0 1]

𝑔3 = [1 1 1]

(i) Construct the encoder circuit corresponding to this code.

(ii) Draw the state diagram for this code.

(iii) Draw the trellis diagram for a message sequence length of 5 bits.

(iv) Determine the encoded sequence for the message sequence 10111. [20M]

5. Write down expression for the signal set and draw signal diagram for coherent quadri-
phase shift keying system. For the input binary sequence 11001001, sketch inphase and
quadrature components of the modulated quadri-phase shift keying signal. [15M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2018 Questions

1. A signal having probability density function
−|𝑥|
𝑓(𝑥) = {𝑘𝑒 ; −4 < 𝑥 < 4
0 ; elsewhere

is quantized with four quantization levels.

(i) Determine the value of k.

(ii) Determine step size s.

(iii) Determine the four quantization levels. [10M]

2. Design a PCM system that multiplexes three signals 𝑚1 , 𝑚2 and 𝑚3 having bandwidths
5 kHz, 10 kHz and 5 kHz respectively. Each signal is sampled at its Nyquist rate and
quantized to 256 levels.

(i) Sketch the block diagram of the system.

(ii) What is the maximum bit duration that can be used?

(iii) What is the channel bandwidth required to pass the PCM signal?

(iv) What is the commutator speed in revolutions per second? [20M]

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3. A convolutional encoder is shown below:

Input output

(i) Write down all the generator sequences and corresponding generator polynomial.

(ii) Determine the output sequence V, If the input sequence is 𝑈 = (1 0 0 1 1). [10M]

4. Write the step-by-step procedure to obtain source code by using Shannon-Fano algorithm.

[10M]

5. Obtain the source code for a source that generates messages with the following
probabilities: [10M]

𝑚1 𝑝1 = 1/4

𝑚2 𝑝2 = 1/4

𝑚3 𝑝3 = 1/8

𝑚4 𝑝4 = 1/8

𝑚5 𝑝5 = 1/16

𝑚6 𝑝6 = 1/16

𝑚7 𝑝7 = 1/16

𝑚8 𝑝8 = 1/16

Also calculate the efficiency of the code.

6. (i) Draw the block diagram of a DPSK communication system.

(ii) The data stream to be transmitted by means of DPSK is 𝑑(𝑡) = 00100110011110.

Determine the DPSK bit stream.

(iii) Sketch BPSK waveform if the transmitted data stream is 101000 and carrier
frequency is 𝑓𝑐 . [10M]

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 UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2019 Questions
1. (i) In a binary PCM system, if the quantizing noise amplitude 𝑁𝑞 is not to exceed 𝑃 percent
of the peak-to-peak analog level, show that the number of bits 𝑛 in each PCM word
needs to be
50 50
n ≥ log 2 10 [log10 ( P )] = 3.32log10 ( P ) [05M]

2. A 700 Mbyte CD is used to store PCM data. Suppose a voice frequency (VF) signal is
sampled at 8000 samples per second and the encoded PCM signal is to have an average
SNR of at least 40 dB. How many minutes of VF conversation can be stored on the
hard disc? [05M]

3. Sketch a block diagram for a differential encoding and decoding system. Explain the
working of the system by showing the encoding and decoding of the sequence
101100011001. Assume that the reference digit is a binary 1. Show that error
propagation cannot occur with this arrangement. [06M]

4. Consider a continuous input signal whose amplitude 𝑚 lies in the range

(−𝑚𝑚𝑎𝑥 , +𝑚𝑚𝑎𝑥 ). This is applied to a uniform quantizer of mid-rise type where the step
2∙𝑚𝑚𝑎𝑥
size is given by Δ = , where 𝐿 denotes the number of representation levels. Let 𝜎𝑄2
𝐿
represent the variance of the quantization error and 𝑅 represent the number of bits per
Δ2 1
sample. Show that 𝜎𝑄2 = 12.Using this result, show that 𝜎𝑄2 = 3 𝑚𝑚𝑎𝑥
2
∙ 2−2𝑅 and that the
output signal to noise ratio of a uniform quantizer is
3𝑃
(𝑆𝑁𝑅)0 = ( 2 ) ∙ 2−2𝑅 [08M]
𝑚 𝑚𝑎𝑥

5. Consider a sine wave of frequency 𝑓𝑚 and amplitude 𝐴𝑚, that is applied to a delta
modulator of step size ∆. Derive the condition which, if satisfied, leads to the occurrence
of slope overload error. [06M]

6. Four signals 𝑠1 (𝑡), 𝑠2 (𝑡), 𝑠3 (𝑡)and 𝑠4 (𝑡) are shown in the figure below. Find an
orthonormal basis for this set of signals by making use of the Gram-Schmidt
orthogonalization procedure. Draw the corresponding signal space diagram: [10M]

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7. Consider an ON-OFF keying version of a binary ASK system, where symbol 1
(hypothesis H1 ) is denoted by transmitting a DC level of amplitude A and symbol 0
(hypothesisH0 )is denoted by not communicating any signal over the channel. Assume that
symbols 0 and 1 occur with equal probability. The channel is perturbed by Additive White
Gaussian Noise (AWGN) with zero mean and variance 𝜎 2 . Show that the average
probability of error for this ASK system is
𝐴 1 ∞ 2
𝑃𝑒 = 𝑄 [ 2 ] , where 𝑄(∝)∆ ∫ 𝑒 −𝑢 ⁄2 𝑑𝑢
√2𝜋 𝛼
[10M]

8. Consider a phase-locked loop (PLL) consisting of a multiplier, loop filter and voltage-
controlled oscillator (VCO). Let the signal applied to the multiplier input be defined as
𝑠(𝑡) = 𝐴𝑐 cos[2𝜋𝑓𝑐 𝑡 + 𝑘𝑝 ∙ 𝑚(𝑡)], where 𝑘𝑝 is the phase sensitivity and data signal is
having value +1 for binary symbol 1 and −1 for binary symbol 0. The VCO output is
r(t) = Av sin[2π𝑓𝑐 + θ(t)]. Evaluate the loop filter output, assuming that the filter
removes the modulated components with frequency 2𝑓𝑐 . Show that the loop filter output
is proportional to the data signal𝑚(𝑡), when the loop is phase-locked, that is, θ(t) = 0.
Illustrate your answer with a neat sketch. [10M]

9. Consider a discrete memoryless source, whose output can be modeled as a discrete random
variable S taking on symbols from a fixed alphabet 𝜉 = {𝑠0 , 𝑠1 , … , 𝑠𝐾−1 } with probabilities
𝑃(𝑆 = 𝑠𝑘 ) = 𝑝𝑘 ; 𝑘 = 0, 1, 2, … , 𝐾 − 1. Further ∑𝐾−1
𝑘=0 𝑝𝑘 = 1. Assume that the symbols
emitted by the source during successive signaling intervals are statistically independent.
Show that the entropy 𝐻(𝜉) of such a source is bounded by

0 ≤ 𝐻(𝜉) ≤ log 2 𝐾

Where 𝐾 represents the number of symbols of the source alphabet. [10M]

10. A memoryless source S emits 6 message symbols with probabilities 0.3, 0.25, 0.15,
0.12, 0.1 and 0.08. Determine a 4-ary (quaternary) Huffman code for this source.
Determine the average word length, the entropy and the efficiency of this Huffman code.

[06M]

11. The generator matrix of a (7, 4) linear block code is given by

𝐼𝐾
(1) Determine a parity check matrix H for this code.

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 (2) Show that 𝐺 ∙ 𝐻 𝑇 = 0

(3) Determine all right code words of the dual code.

(4) Find the minimum distance of the dual code. [08M]

1
12. The figure shows the encoder for a rate 𝑅 = 2, constraint length 𝐾 = 4 convolutional
code. Determine the encoder output produced by the message sequence 𝑢 = 1011.
[06M]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2020 Questions

1. For a linear block code 𝐶𝑏 (4, 2) over 𝐺𝐹(3), the generator matrix (𝐺) is given by

1 0 2 1 [𝟏𝟎𝐌]
𝐺=[ ]
1 2 0 2
(i) Determine all right code words for this code.
(ii) How many errors can this code correct?

2. (i) Explain the power efficiency and bandwidth efficiency of a digital modulation scheme.

(ii) Comment on the power efficiency for a given bandwidth efficiency for a good
modulation scheme.

(iii) Comment on the bandwidth efficiency for a given power efficiency for a good
modulation scheme.
(iv) Compare the bandwidth efficiency of ASK and QAM modulation techniques.
[𝟐𝟎𝐌]

3. (i) Write down Hamming bound condition for code 𝐶(𝑛, 𝑘) of size 𝑀 in 𝐺𝐹(𝑞), which can
correct 𝑡 errors.

(ii) Explain perfect code using Hamming bound condition in GF(2).

(iii) Check whether n-repetition code (for odd value of n) is perfect code or not. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

4. (i) Consider the primitive polynomial 𝑝(𝑥) = 𝑥 3 + 𝑥 + 1 over GF(2). Construct GF(8)
field using the given primitive polynomial.
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 (ii) Find the minimal polynomial for the primitive element 𝛼.

(iii) Find the BCH code length 𝑛 = 15, which can correct at least one error. [𝟐𝟎𝐌]

5. What is grading of cables? What are the different methods of grading? What are its
limitations? [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

UPSC – ELECTRICAL Engineering optional – 2021 Questions

1. A DPCM system uses a linear predictor with a single tap. The normalized autocorrelation
function of the input signal for a lag of one sampling interval is 0.75. The predictor is
designed to minimize the prediction error variance. Determine the processing gain
attained by the use of the predictor. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

2. Consider a signal detector with an input [𝟐𝟎𝐌]

𝑟 = ±𝐴 + 𝑛

Where +𝐴 and −𝐴 occur with equal probability and the noise variable 𝑛 is characterized
by the Laplacian pdf shown.

(i) Determine the probability of error as a function of the parameters 𝐴 and 𝜎.

(ii) Determine the SNR required to achieve an error probability of 10−6 .

3. A discrete memoryless source (DMS) has five symbols 𝑥1 , 𝑥2 , 𝑥3 , 𝑥4 and 𝑥5 with

𝑃(𝑥1 ) = 0.4, 𝑃(𝑥2 ) = 0.19, 𝑃(𝑥3 ) = 0.16, 𝑃(𝑥4 ) = 0.15 and 𝑃(𝑥5 ) = 0.1. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

(i) Construct a Shannon Fano code for the source and calculate the efficiency of the code.

(ii) Repeat for Huffman code. Compare the results of (i) and (ii).

4. Consider a connected graph 𝐺 = (𝑁, 𝐴) with 𝑁 nodes and 𝐴 arcs, and a weight 𝜔𝑖𝑗 for
each arc (𝑖, 𝑗) ∈ 𝐴. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

(i) Define minimum weight spanning tree (MST).

(ii) If all arc weights of 𝐺 are distinct, prove that there exists a unique MST.

5. Prove that the minimum distance of any linear (𝑛, 𝑘) block code satisfies

𝑑𝑚𝑖𝑛 ≤ 1 + 𝑛 − 𝑘. [𝟏𝟎𝐌]

6. Show that the minimum Hamming distance of a linear block code is equal to the minimum
number of columns of its parity check matrix that are linearly dependent. Form this
conclude that the minimum Hamming distance of a Hamming code is always equal to 3.
[𝟏𝟎𝐌]

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 1.
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