INDIA

Course: LONG TERM Date: 14.11.2022

Time: 3 Hrs. 20 Mins NEET CUMULATIVE TEST-06 Max. Marks: 720
Note: Important Instructions
1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen
only.
2. 2. The test is of 3 hours duration and this Test Booklet contains 200 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3. In this Test Paper, each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 questions (all
questions are mandatory) and Section B will have 15 questions. Candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions out of these 15 questions.
(In case if candidate attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be considered
for marking.)
4. In case of more than one option correct in any question, the best correct option will be considered as
answer.
5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking response.
6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before
leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
8. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
answer Sheet. Do not write your Form No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test
Booklet/ answer Sheet
9. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.
PHYSICS
SECTION-A
1. A block of mass 2kg slides down the face of a smooth 450 wedge of mass 9kg as shown in the figure. The
wedge is placed on a frictionless horizontal surface. Determine the acceleration of the wedge.

11
1) 2 m / s 2 2) m / s2 3) 1 m / s 2 4) 10 m / s 2
2
2. Two masses of 4 kg and 5 kg are connected by a string passing through a frictionless pulley and are kept
on a frictionless table as shown in the figure. The acceleration of 5 kg mass is

1) 49m / s 2 2) 5.44 m / s 2 3) 19.5 m / s 2 4) 2.72 m / s 2

3. In order to raise a mass of 100kg a man of mass 60kg fastens a rope to it and passes the rope over a
smooth pulley. He climbs the rope with acceleration 5g/4 relative to the rope. The tension in the rope is:
Take  g  10m / s 2 
1) 1432 N 2) 928 N 3) 1219 N 4) 642 N
4. In the arrangement shown in figure the ends P and Q of an unstretchable string move downwards with
uniform speed u. Pulleys A and B are fixed. Mass M moves upwards with a speed

u
1) 2u cos  2) u cos  3) u cos  4)
cos 
5. A solid sphere of mass 2 kg is resting inside a cube as shown in the figure. The cube is moving with a
 
velocity   5tiˆ  2tjˆ m / s . Here t is the time in second. All surface are smooth. The sphere is at rest
with respect to the cube. What is the total force exerted by the sphere on the cube. Take g  10m / s 2 

1) 29N 2) 29 N 3) 26 N 4) 89N
6. An explosion blows a rock into three parts. Two parts go off at right angles to each other. These two are,
1 kg first part moving with a velocity of 12ms 1 and 2 kg second part moving with a velocity of 8ms 1 . If
the third part files off with a velocity of 4ms 1 , its mass would be
1) 5 kg 2) 7 kg 3) 17 kg 4) 3 kg
7. The rate of mass of the gas emitted from rear of a rocket is initially 0.1 kg/sec. If the speed of the gas
relative to the rocket is 50 m / sec and mass of the rocket is 2 kg, then the acceleration of the rocket in
m / sec2 is
1) 5 2) 5.2 3) 2.5 4) 25
8. A jet engine works on the principle of
1) Conservation of mass 2) Conservation of energy
3) Conservation of linear momentum 4) conservation of angular momentum
9. If force of 250 N act on body, the momentum acquired is 125 kg  m / s . What is the period for which
force acts on the body
1) 0.5 sec 2) 0.2 sec 3) 0.4 sec 4) 0.25 sec
10. A stationary body of mass 3 kg explodes into three equal pieces. Two of the pieces fly off in two
mutually perpendicular directions, one with a velocity of 3iˆ ms 1 and the other with a velocity of 4 ˆjms 1 .
If the explosion occurs in 10 4 s, the average force acting on the third piece in newton is
 
1) 3iˆ  4 ˆj  104  
2) 3iˆ  4 ˆj  104  
3) 3iˆ  4 ˆj  104  
4)  3iˆ  4 ˆj  104
11. If the resultant of all the external forces acting on a system of particles is zero, then from an inertial
frame, one can surely say that
1) Linear momentum of the system does not change in time
2) Kinetic energy of the system does not change in time
3) Angular momentum of the system does not change in time
4) Potential energy of the system does not change in time
12. In a rocket of mass 1000 kg fuel is consumed at a rate of 40 kg / s . The velocity of the gases ejected from
the rocket is 5  10 4 m / s . The thrust on the rocket is
1) 2  103 N 2) 5  10 4 N 3) 2  10 6 N 4) 2  109 N
13. A rocket with a lift-off mass 3.5  10 4 kg is blasted upwards with an initial acceleration of 10 m / s 2 . Then
the initial thrust of the blast is
1) 1.75  105 N 2) 3.5  10 5 N 3) 7.0  10 5 N 4) 14.0  105 N
14. A gardner waters the plants by a pipe of diameter 1mm. The water comes out at the rate or 10cm 3 / sec .
The reactionary force exerted on the hand of the gardner is
1) Zero 2) 1.27  10 2 N 3) 1.27  10 4 N 4) 0.127N
15. A Diwali rocket is ejecting 0.05 kg of gases per second at a velocity of 400m / sec . The accelerating
force on the rocket is
1) 200 dynes 2) 20 N 3) 22 dynes 4) 1000 N
16. When forces F1 , F2 , F3 are acting on a particle of mass m such that F2 and F3 are mutually
perpendicular, then the particle remains stationary. If the force F1 is now removed then the acceleration
of the particle is
1) F1 / m 2) F2 F3 / mF1 3) ( F2  F3 ) / m 4) F2 / m
17. A vessel containing water is given a constant acceleration a towards the right, along a straight horizontal
path. Which of the following diagram represents the surface of the liquid.

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D
18. A body of mass 2kg is at ret on a horizontal table. The coefficient of friction between the body and the
table is 0.3. A force of 5N is applied on the body. The acceleration of the body is
1) 0 ms 2 2) 2.5 ms2 3) 5ms2 4) 7.5 ms 2
19. Ten one-rupee coins are put on top of each other on a table. Each coin has a mass m . Which of the
following statements is not true.
1) The force on the 6th coins (counted from the bottom) due to all the coins on its top is equal to 4 mg
(downwards)
2) The force on 6th coin due to 7th coin is 4 mg (downwards)
3) The reaction of the 6th coin on the 7th coin is 4mg (up wards)
4) The total force on the 10th coin is 9mg (downwards)
20. Assertion (A): A table cloth can be pulled from a table without dislodging the dishes.
Reason (R): To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction
1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
4) (A) is false and (R) is true
21. A body is projected vertically upwards a time t  0 and is seen at a height H at instants t1 and t2
seconds during its fight. The maximum m height attained is (g is acceleration due to gravity)
2 2 2 2
g  t2  t1  g  t1  t2  g  t1  t2  g  t2  t1 
1) 2) 3) 4)
8 4 8 4
22. A bullet is fired from a cannon with velocity 500m / s .If the angle of projection is 15 and g  10m / s 2 .
0

Then the range is

1) 25  10 3 m 2) 12.5  103 m 3) 50  10 2 m 4) 25  10 2 m
23. If a car covers 2/5th of the total distance with 1 speed and 3/5th distance with 2 then the average speed
is
51 2   212 51 2
1) 2) 1 2 3) 4)
32  21 2 1  2 31  22
24. A particle moves along a straight line OX, At a time t (in seconds) the distance x ( in metres) of the
particle from O is given by x  40  12t  t 3
How long would the particle travel before coming to rest
1) 24 m 2) 40 m 3) 56 m 4) 16 m
25. A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration (a) versus time (t) is as shown in the figure. The maximum
speed of the particle will be

1) 110 m / s 2) 55 m / s 3) 550 m / s 4) 660 m / s

26. A carnot engine working between 300K and 600K has work output of 800 J per cycle. What is amount
of heat energy supplied to the engine from source per cycle.
1) 1800 J / cycle 2) 1000 J / cycle 3) 2000 J / cycle 4) 1600 J / cycle
27. The coefficient of performance of a carnot refrigerator working between 30 C and 0 0 C is about
0

1) 10 2) 1 3) 9 4) 0
28. If the door of a refrigerator is kept open, then which of the following is true.
1) Room is cooled 2) Room is heated
3) Room is either cooled or heated 4) Room is neither cooled nor heated
29. What is the value of sink temperature when efficiency of engine is 100%
1) 0 K 2) 300 K 3) 273 K 4) 400 K
30. Match the following
List-I List-II
a) Planets revolving around the sun e) SHM
b) Vibrations of a tuning fork f) linear motion
c) Motion of projectile g) periodic motion
d) Motion of a freely falling body h) translator motion
1) a-g, b-e, c-h, d-f 2) a-h, b-f, c-g, d-e
3) a-g, b-h, c-f, d-e 4) a-g, b-h, c-e, d-f
31. A clock which keeps correct time at 20 C , is subjected to 40 0 C . If coefficient of linear expansion of
0

the pendulum is 12  10 6 / 0 C . How much will it gain or loose in time (nearly)

1) 10.3 seconds/day 2) 20.3 seconds/day 3) 5 seconds/day 4) 20 minutes /day
32. The function y= sin t  represents
2

1) A simple harmonic motion with a period 2 / 

2) A simple harmonic motion with a period  / 
3) A period but not simple harmonic motion with a period 2 / 
4) A period but not simple harmonic motion with a period  / 
33. Match the following

List - I List - II
a) acceleration e) A sin t
b) time period f) A2 cos  t
c) displacement g) A cos t
d) velocity h)  A 2 sin  t
l
i) 2
g
1) a-h, b-f, c-e, d-i 2) a-h, b-i, c-e, d-g 3) a-f, b-h, c-g, d-e 4) a-h, b-f, c-e, d-g
34. At what temperature the centigrade (Celsius) and Fahrenheit, readings are the same
1) 40 0 2) 40 0 3) 36.6 0 4) 80 0
35. Water is used to cool radiators of engine, because
1) Of its lower density 2) It is easily available 3) It is cheap 4) It has high specific heat
 SECTION-B
36. Ice starts forming in lake with water at 0 C and when the atmospheric temperature is 10 0 C . If the time
0

taken for 1 cm of ice be 7 hours, then the time taken for the thickness of ice to change from 1 cm to 2 cm
is
1) 7 hours 2) 14 hours 3) Less than 7 hours 4) More than 7 hours
37. K
A cylinder of radius R made of a material of thermal conductivity 1 is surrounded by a cylindrical shell
of inner radius R and outer radius 2R made of material of thermal conductivity K2 . The two ends of the
combined system are maintained at two different temperatures. There is no loss of heat across the
cylindrical surface and the system is in steady state. The effective thermal conductivity of the system is
K1K 2 K  3K 2 3 K1  K 2
1) K1  K2 2) 3) 1 4)
K1  K 2 4 4
38. Three rods made of the same material and having the same cross section have been joined as shown in the
figure. Each rod is of the same length. The left and right ends are kept 0 0 C and 90 0 C respectively. The
temperature of the junction of the three rods will be

1) 450 C 2) 60 0 C 3) 30 0 C 4) 20 0 C
39. Two beakers A and B are filled to the brim with water at 40 C .Which A is heated and B is cooled , the
water
1) Level in b decreases 2) Will overflow in A only
3) Will overflow in B only 4) Will overflow in both A and B
40. A sphere and a cube of same material and same volume are heated upto same temperature and allowed to
cool In the same surroundings. The ratio of the amounts of radiations emitted will be
1/3 2/3
4   1  4 
1) 1:1 2) :1 3)   :1 4)   :1
3 6 2 3 
41. The temperature of a hypothetical gas increases to 2 times when compressed adiabatically to half the
volume. Its equation can be written as
1) PV 3/2 =constant 2) PV 5/ 2 =constant 3) PV 7 /2 =constant 4) PV 4/2
42. When an ideal monoatomic gas is heated at constant pressure. Fraction of heat energy supplied which
increases the internal energy of gas, is
2 3 3 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
5 5 7 4
43. When an ideal gas    5 / 3  is heated under constant pressure, then what percentage of given heat
energy will be utilised in doing external work.
1) 40% 2) 30% 3) 60% 4) 20%
44. Initial pressure and volume of a gas are P and V respectively. First it is expanded isothermally to
volume 4V and then compressed adiabatically to volume V . The final pressure of gas will be (given
  3/ 2)
1) 1P 2) 2P 3) 4P 4) 8P
45. Assertion : Air quickly leaking out of a balloon becomes cooler
Reason : The leaking air undergoes adiabatic expansion.
1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
4) (A) is false and (R) is true
46. A carnot engine, having an efficiency of   1 /10 as heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work
done on the system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower temperature is
1) 99 J 2) 90 J 3) 1J 4) 100 J
47. A carnot engine absorbs an amount Q of heat from a reservoir at an absolute temperature T and rejects
heat to a sink at a temperature of T / 3 . The amount of heat rejected is
1) Q / 4 2) Q / 3 3) Q / 2 4) 2Q / 3
48. For which combination of working temperatures the efficiency of Carnot’s engine is highest
1) 80 K ,60 K 2) 100 K ,80 K 3) 60 K , 40 K 4) 40 K , 20 K
49. Which of the following graph depicts spring constant k versus length l of the spring correctly

1) 2) 3) 4)
50. Shown below are the black body radiation curves at temperatures T1 and T2  T2  T1  . Which of the
following plots is correct

1) 2) 3) 4)
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. What is the hybridization of the carbon atoms numbered 1 and 2 respectively in the following structure?

1) sp3 , sp 2 2) sp 2 , sp 2 3) sp, sp 4) sp 2 , sp

52. ;
How many methyl CH 3 group are present in given alkane?
1) 1 2) 5 3) 6 4) 7
o o o o
53. 1 , 2 ,3 and 4 carbon atoms are present in:
1) 2, 2, 3-trimethyl pentane 2) 2, 3, 4-trimethyl pentane
3) both (a) and (b) 4) none of these
54. The IUPAC name of the following compound is

1) n-propyl ethanoate 2) ethyl propanoate 3) pentanoic anhydride 4) n-propyl propanoate

55. Give the IUPAC name for the following compound:

1) isoprene 2) 3-methyl-1,3-butadiene
3) 2-methyl-1,3-butadiene 4) 2-methyl-2,3-butadiene
56. What is the IUPAC name of the following compound?
 1) o-nitro-m-bromotoluene 2) 3-bromo-6-nitrotoluene
3) m-bromo-o-nitrotoluene 4) 5-bromo-2-nitrotoluene
57. What is the proper name of the compound given below?

1) 1-phenoxyethane 2) ethyl phenyl ether

3) m-butylhydroxybenzene 4) m-butylphenol
58. The IUPAC name of the compound CH 3CH  CHCH  CHC  CCH 3 is
1) Octa-4,6-dien-2-yne 2) Octa-2,4-dien-6-yne 3) Oct-2-yne-4,6-diene 4) Oct-6-yne-2,4-diene
59. The correct IUPAC name of compound;

is :
1) 3,3-Diformyl propanoic acid 2) 3-Formyl-4-oxo-butanoic acid
3) 3,3-Dioxo propanoic acid 4) 3,3-Dicarbaldehyde propanoic acid
60. Which of the following compound is wrongly named?
1) CH 3CH 2 C H 2CHCOOH ; 3-Chloro pentanoic acid
|
Cl
2) CH 3C  CCHCOOH ; 2-Methyl hex-3-enoic acid
|
CH 3
3) CH3CH 2CH  CHCOCH 3 ; Hex-3-en-2-one
4) CH 3  CHCH 2CH 2CHO ; 4-Methyl pentanal
|
CH3

61. The correct IUPAC name of CH 3  CH 2  C||  COOH is

CH 2
1) 2-Methyl butanoic acid 2) 2-Ethylprop-2-enoic acid
3) 2-Carboxy-1-butene 4) None of these

62. ;Correct IUPAC name of the compound is

1) 4-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-5-ethyloctane 2) 5-ethyl-4-(1,1-dimethylethyl) octane
3) 5-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-4-ethyloctane 4) 4-ethyl-5-(1,1-dimethylethyl) octane

63. ; (A) and (B) are :

1) Chain isomers 2) Positional isomers 3) Metamers 4) Functional isomers
64. CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  CO2 H CH 3  CH  CH 3 ; (A) and (B) are
( A) |
CO2 H
(B)
1) Chain isomers 2) Positional isomers 3) Functional isomers 4) Metamers
65. Which of the following represent pair of chain isomers?
1) n-pentane, Iso-pentane 2) n-pentane, Neo-pentane
3) Iso-pentane, Neo-pentane 4) All of these
66. Intramolecular hydrogen bond exists in
1) Ortho nitrophenol 2) ethyl alcohol 3) para chlorophenol 4) diethyl ether
67. In which of the following ionization processes the bond energy increases and the magnetic behaviour
changes from paramagnetic to diamagnetic?
1) O2  O2 2) C2  C2 3) NO  NO  4) N 2  N 2
68. For O2 molecule, molecular orbitals having lowest energy is
1)  * 2 pz 2)  2 p y 3)  2 pz 4)  2 p z
69. Which of the following molecules has the maximum dipole moment?
1) CO2 2) CH 4 3) NH3 4) NF3
70. Which of these represents the correct order of their increasing bond order?
1) C22   He2  O2  O2 2) He2  O2  O2  C22 
3) O2  O2  C22  He2 4) O2  O22   C2  He2
71. The value of the ion product constant for water,  K w  at 60 0 C is 9.6 10 14 M 2 . What is the  H 3O   of
a neutral aqueous solution at 60 0 C and an aqueous solution with a pH  7.0 at 60 0 C are respectively?
1) 3.1108 , acidic 2) 3.1  10 7 , neutral 3) 3.1  10 8 , basic 4) 3.1107 , basic
72. Equal volumes of two HCl solutions of pH  3 and pH  5 were mixed. What is the pH of the
resulting solution?
1) 3.5 2) 4.0 3) 4.5 4) 3.3
73. Carbonic acid  H 2CO3  , a diprotic acid has K a1  4.0 10 and K a2  7.0 1011 . What is the  HCO3 
7

of a 0.025 M solution of carbonic acid?

1) 7.8 10 3 2) 6.6  10 4 3) 10 10 4) 1.0  10 4
74. The  H   of a resulting solution that is 0.01 M acetic acid  K a  1.8  105  and 0.01 M in benzoic acids
K a  6.3  105 
1) 9  10 4 2) 81  10 4 3) 9  10 5 4) 2.8  10 3
Kw Ka
75.  H    is suitable for
C
1) NaCl , NH 4Cl 2) CH3COONa, NaCN
3) CH 3COONa, ( NH 4 )2 SO4 4) CH3COONH 4 , ( NH 4 ) 2 CO3
76. What will be the pH of an aqueous solution of 1.0 M ammonium formate?
Given : pK a  3.8 and pKb  4.8
1) 7.5 2) 3.4 3) 6.5 4) 10.2
77. An aqueous solution at room temperature contains 0.1 M NH 4Cl and 0.01 M NH 4OH  pKb  5 , the
pH of the solution is:
1) 7.5 2) 6.8 3) 6.5 4) 8.0
78. Which of the following is most soluble in water?
1) Ba  PO4  2  K sp  6  1039  2) znS  K sp  7  1016 
3) Fe  OH 3  K sp  6  1038  4) Ag3  PO4   K sp  1.8  1018 
79. What is the molar solubility of Ag 2CO3  K sp  4  1013  in 0.1 M Na2CO3 solution?
1) 10 6 2) 10 7 3) 2  10 6 4) 2  10 7
80. Statements-1 : Sparingly soluble salts AB and XY2 with the same solubility product, will have different
solubility
Statements-2 : Solubility of sparingly soluble salt depend upon solubility product
1) If both statements are true and the statement-2 is the correct explanation of statement-1
2) If both statements are true but statement-2 is not the correct explanation of statement-1
3) If statement-1 is true but the statement-2 is false
4) If statement-1 is false but the statement-2 is true
81. Statements 1 : 0.1 M NaCN  0.05 M HCl solution on mixing in equal volume forms a buffer solution
Statements 2 : the solution is a mixture of weak acid and its salt, thus acts as a buffer
1) If both statements are true and the statement-2 is the correct explanation of statement-1
2) If both statements are true but statement-2 is not the correct explanation of statement-1
3) If statement-1 is true but the statement-2 is false
4) If statement-1 is false but the statement-2 is true
82. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.33  10 3 g/litre. Its solubility product will be : (Molecular mass of
BaSO4  233 )
1) 1  10 5 2) 1 10 10 3) 1 10 15 4) 1 10 20
83. Which pair will show common ion effect?
1) BaCl2  Ba  NO3  2 2) NaCl  HCl 3) NH 4OH  NH 4Cl 4) AgCN  KCN
84. The correct representation for solubility product pf SnS 2 is:
2 2 2
1)  Sn 4    S 2  2)  Sn 2    S 2  3)  Sn 2    2 S 2   4)  Sn 4    2S 2  
85. How many grams of CaC2O4 ( molecular mass =128) on dissolving in distilled water will give a
saturated solution ?  K sp  CaC2 O4   2.5 10 9 mol 2 L2 
1) 0.0064 g 2) 0.1280 g 3) 0.0128 g 4) 1.2800 g

SECTION-B
3
86. 1  10 mole of HCl is added to a buffer solution made up of 0.01 M acetic acid and 0.01 M sodium
acetate. The final pH of the buffer will be (given, pK a of acetic acid is 4.75 at 250 C )
1) 4.60 2) 4.66 3) 4.75 4) 4.8
87. When 10 mL OF 0.1 M acetic acid  pKa  5.0 is titrated against 10 mL of 0.1 M ammonia solution
 pKb  5.0 the equivalence point occurs at pH:
1) 5.0 2) 6.0 3) 7.0 4) 9.0
88. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following reaction.
Sucrose  H 2O  Glucose +Fructose
If the equilibrium constant  KC  is 2  1013 at 300 K, the value of  r G   at the same temperature


will be
1) 8.314 J mol 1 K 1  300 K  In  2  1013  2) 8.314 J mol 1 K 1  300 K  In  3 1013 
3) 8.314 J mol 1 K 1  300 K  In  4  1013  4) 8.314 J mol 1 K 1  300 K  In  2  1013 
89. Which of the following solutions has the highest pH?
1) 0.0 M HClO4 2) 0.20 M CH 3COOH 3) 0.020 M HCl 4) 0.2 M NaCl
90. 4.0 g of NaOH and 4.9 g of H 2 SO4 are dissolved in water and volume is made upto 250 mL. The pH
of this solution is:
1) 7.0 2) 1.0 3) 2.0 4) 12.0
91. Which of the following chemical, harmful to ozone, is released by chlorofluorocarbon?
1) Sulphur dioxide 2) Chlorine 3) Fluorine 4) Nitrogen dioxide
92. The outer electronic structure of lawrencium (atomic number 103) is:
1)  Rn 5 f 13 7s 2 7 p 2 2)  Rn  5 f 13 7 s1 7 p 2 3)  Rn 5 f 14 7 s1 7 p 2 4)  Rn  5 f 14 6d 1 7 s 2
93. In which of the following pairs , both the species have the same hybridisation?
1) SF4 , XeF4 2) I 3 , XeF4 3) ICl4 , SiCl4 4) ClO3 , PO43
94. Statement -1: Among the alkali metals , lithium salts exhibit the least electrical conductance in aqueous
solutions.
Statement-2: Smaller the radius of the hydrated cation, lower is the electrical conductance in aqueous
solutions.
1) If both statements are true and the statement-2 is the correct explanation of statement-1
2) If both statements are true but statement-2 is not the correct explanation of statement-1
3) If statement-1 is true but the statement-2 is false
4) If statement-1 is false but the statement-2 is true
95. Among the following, the least thermally stable is:
1) K 2CO3 2) Na2CO3 3) BaCO3 4) Li2CO3
th
96. The incorrect stability order of+3 and +1 states of 13 group elements (boron family) is:
1) Ga 3  In 3  T 13 2) T 1  T13 3) Ga   In   Tl  4) Ga 3  Ga 
97. SiCl4 on hydrolysis gives:
1) Silica 2) Silicic acid 3) Silicone 4) Sillicate
1
98. The total number of electrons in 18 mL of water (density  1g mL ) is
1) 6.02  10 23 2) 6.02  10 25 3) 6.02  10 24 4) 6.02  18  10 23
99. Gaseous mixture contains 56g of N 2 , 44 g of CO2 and 16g of CH 4 . The total pressure of mixture is
720mm of Hg. The partial pressure of methane is
1) 75 atm 2) 160 atm 3) 180 atm 4) 215 atm
100. Consider the reactions
i) 2CO  g   2 H 2O  g   2CO2  g   2 H 2  g  ; Eqm. Constant  K1
ii) CH 4  g   H 2O  g   CO  g   3H 2  g  ; Eqm. Constant  K 2
iii) CH 4  g   2H 2O  g   CO2  g   4H 2  g  ; Eqm. Constant = K3
Which of the following relation is correct?
K K2
1) K 3  1 2) K3  12 3) K3  K1 K 2 4) K3  K1 .K2
K2 K2
BOTONY
SECTION-A
101. The primary root is short lived in
1) Mustard 2) Mango 3) Maize 4) Carrot
102. Which of the following is not true for pneumatophores of Rhizophora
1) Aerial nature 2) Helping to get CO2
3) Grow in swampy areas 4) Vertically upward growth
103. Stem shows how many characters from the following
A) Ascending part of axis B) Spreading out branches
C) Vegetative propagation D) Providing Anchorage to the plant parts
1) A,B,C,D 2) A & B only 3) A,B,C only 4) B,C,D only
104. Roots are modified for
1) Storage 2) Support 3) Absorption 4) Both 1 & 2
105. Stilt roots grow from
1) Lower internode 2) Lower nodes 3) Upper nodes 4) Upper inter node
106. Thorn develops from
1) Root 2) Leaf 3) Axillary bud 4) Peduncle
107. Assertion –Root branches arise endogenously
Reasons – Root contain nodes but no leaves or buds
1) A and R are correct and R correctly explains the A
2) A and R are correct and the R does not explain the A
3) A is correct and R is false
4) Both A and R are false
108. Which is not a product of root
1) Sweet potato 2) Potato 3) Carrot 4) turnip
109. Katherine Esau reported that the curly top virus spread through a plant via_____
1) Meristematic tissue 2) Phloem tissue 3) Xylem tissue 4) Parenchyma
110. Find the correct match
1) Pulvinous leaf base – China rose 2) Oxalis – Vegetative Propagation
3) Pinnately compound leaf – silk cotton 4) Prop roots – Banana
111. Rachis is present in
1) Neem 2) Silk cotton 3) Both 4) China rose
112. Study the diagrams given below and select the right options (A – E)

1) A – region of maturation, B – Region of elongation, C – Region of meristematic activity, D – Root cap,

E – Root hair
2) A – region of maturation, B – Region of elongation, C – Region of meristematic activity , D – Root
hair, E - Root cap
3) A – Region of elongation, B – Region of meristematic activity , C – Root hair, D - Root cap, E – region
of maturation
4) A – Root hair, B – region of maturation, C – Region of elongation, D – Region of meristematic
activity, D – Root cap
113. Venation is a term used to describe the pattern of arrangement of
1) Floral organ 2) Flower of inflorescence
3) Veins and veinlets in lamina 4) All of them
114. What is the function of the flexible petiole?
1) It helps the plant to climb
2) It increases the rate of respiration
3) It allows leaf blade to flutter in wind there by cooling the leaf and bringing fresh air to leaf surface
4) It decreases the rate of transpiration
115. The thimble like structure covers the root apex is
1) Root hair 2) Root pocket 3) Root meristem 4) Root cap
116. Statement I: Leaves are originate from shoot apical meristems.
Statement II: Leaves are arranged in basipetal order
1) Both S-I and S-II are correct 2) S-I is correct and S-II is incorrect
3) S-I is incorrect and S-II is correct 4) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect
117. Adventitious roots differ from tap roots primarily in their
1) Function 2) Position 3) Place of origin 4) Internal structure
118. In which of the following plants, underground stems spread to new niches and when older parts die new
plants are formed
1) Pistia 2) Grasses and strawberry 3) Cactus 4) None of these
119. Fluid mosaic model of all membrane proposed
1) A lipid bilayer with embedded proteins only
2) An lipid bilayer with proteins on the outer surface only
3) A lipid bilayer coated with proteins on both the surfaces
4) A lipid bilayer with proteins of two types, embedded (intrinsic) and superficial (extrinsic)
120. The cytoplasmic bridges between two adjacent plant cell is
1) Middle lamella 2) Primary wall 3) Secondary wall 4) Plasmodesmata
121. Crossing over in diploid organism is responsible for
1) Segregation of alleles 2) Gene recombination 3) Dominance of genes 4) Linkage between genes
122. Match the following
Sec-I sec-II
A) Simple leaf i) Network form of veinlets
B) Reticulate venation ii) Place of the leaf attaches to stem
C) Leaf blade iii) Lamina is entire
D) Leaf base iv) Green Expanded part
1) A-iii; B-i; C-ii; D-iv 2) A-iii; B-I; C-iv; D-ii 3) A-ii; B-i; C-iv; D-iii 4) A-i; B-ii; C-iii; D-iv
123. Which of the following is the least likely to be involved in stabilizing the three dimensional folding of
most proteins
1) Ester bond 2) Hydrogen bonds 3) Peptide bonds 4) Disulphide bonds
124. Assertion : Mitosis maintain the genetic similarity of somatic cells
Reason : Chromosomes do not undergo crossings over
1) A and R are correct and R correctly explains the A
2) A and R are correct and the R does not explain the A
3) A is correct and R is false
4) Both A and R are false
125. Statement I : The stem bears buds , which may be terminal or axillary
Statement II : Stem is generally green when young and later often become woody and dark brown
1) Both statements A and B are correct 2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
3) Only statement A is correct 4) Only statement B is correct
126. The system of classification based on natural affinities among the organisms and consider characteristics
related with morphology , anatomy, embryology , etc
1) Phylogenetic system 2) Natural system
3) System given by Bentham & Hooker 4) Both 2 & 3
127. Select one correctly matched pair
1) Numerical taxonomy - Floral Character only
2) Cytotaxonomy - Chromosomal number only
3) Chemotaxonomy - Secondary metabolites only
4) Phylogenitic taxonomy - Evolutionary relationships only
128. Anisogamous , sexual reproduction can be observed in
1) Spirogyra 2) Eudorina 3) Volvax 4) Fucus
129. Statement I : Many spices of porphyra , Laminaria and sargassum are among the 70 spices of marine
algae used as afood.
Statement II : Chlorella a unicellular alga rich in proteins is used as food supplement even by space
travellers.
1) Both statements are correct 2) Both statements are incorrect
3) Only Statement – I is correct 4) Only statement –II is correct
130. Consider the following algae
1) Volvox, Spirogyra, Fucus, Dictyota, Ectocrapus, Chara, Porphyra, Laminaria, Gelidium,
Chlamydomonas
How many members of this group have Floridean starch as reserve food?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four
131. Sexual reproduction may be isogamous , anisgamous or oogamous in the members of
1) Chlorophyceae 2) Phaeaphyceae 3) Rhodophyceae 4) Both 1&2
132. Select the part having ploidy different from others
1) Rhizoid cells 2) Spores 3) Cells of foot 4) Gemma
133. All of the following multiply by fragmentation , except
1) Fungi 2) Filamentous algae 3) Protonema of moss 4) Unicellular algae
134. In liverworts , gemmae are
1) Non – green , multicellular vegetative structures 2) Green, unicellular asexual buds
3) Non – green , unicellular vegetative buds 4) Green , multicellular asexual buds
135. Which is not true about sphagnum?
1) Absence of protonema
2) Presence of leafy stage of gametophyte
3) Presence of multicellular , branched rhizoids
4) Presence of elaborate mechanism for spore dispersal
 SECTION-B
136. In most of the bryophytes, spores are produced in ____ A ____ using ____B____.
1) A – Capsule B – Mitosis
2) A – Seta B – Meiosis
3) A – Seta B – Mitosis
4) A – Capsule B – Meiosis
137. The origin of root hairs and lateral roots is respectively
1) Exogenous and endogenous 2) Endogenous and exogenous
3) Both endogenously 4) Both exogenously
138. See the section of cilia / flagella showing the different parts

1) A – Plasma membrane , B – Interdoublet bridge, C- Hub, D – Arm

2) A – Plasma membrane , B – Interdoublet bridge , C – Hub, D – Radial spoke
3) A – Plasma membrane , B – Arm, C – Central microtubule , D – Radial spoke
4) A - Plasma membrane , B – Interdoublet bridge , C – Central microtubule , D – Radial spoke
139. Root shows negative geotropism in
1) Banyan 2) Ground nut 3) Grass 4) Rhizophora
140. Choose the correct option w.r.t features of slime moulds showing similarity with fungi (F) plantae (P) &
animals (A) respectively
a) Wall – less vegetative phase b) Fruiting bodies c) cellulosic cell wall in spores
1) F(b) , P(c) , A(a) 2) F(a) , P(a) , A(c) 3) F(b) , p(a) , A(c) 4) F(b) , P(b) , A(a)
141. The casual organisms of sleeping sickness belong to which of the following groups of protozoans?
1) Flagellated protozoans 2) Sporozoans
3) Ciliated protozoans 4) Amoeboid protozoans
142. Many elements are found in living organisms either free or the form of compounds. One of the following
is not , found in living organisms
1) Silicon 2) Magnesium 3) Calcium 4) Sodium
143. A pure protein should normally have
1) Two ends 2) One end 3) Three ends 4) No ends
144. Statement A : Most of the bacteria are decomposers
Statement B : Membrane bounded cell organelles are absent in bacteria.
1) Both statements A and B are correct 2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
3) Only statement A is correct 4) Only statement B is correct

145. A few millimetres above the root cap is the region of

1) Elongation 2) Maturation 3) Meristematic activity 4) Roots hairs
146. T.O Diener discovered a
1) Free infectious DNA 2) Infectious protein 3) Bacteriophage 4) Free infectious RNA
147. Match column I with column II and select the correct option
Column-I Column-II
A. Morels 1. Deuteromycetes
B. Smut 2. Ascomycetes
C. Bread mould 3. Basidiomycetes
D. Imperfect fungi 4. Phycomycetes
1) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 2) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 3) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 4) A-3, B-3, C-4, D-1
148. Study the diagrams given below and select the right options in which all the 2 items A, B are correctly
identified
 A B
1) Offset Sucker
2) Offset Sucker
3) Tuber Rhizome
4) Tuber Rhizome
149. Statement-I: Herbaria serve as quick referral system in taxonomical studies
Statement-II: Botanical gardens have collections of living animal for reference
1) Both S-I and S-II are correct 2) S-I is correct and S-II is incorrect
3) S-I is incorrect and S-II is correct 4) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect
150. National Botanical Research Institute is located at
1) New Delhi 2) Lucknow 3) Chennai 4) Howrah

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
151. Assertion : Closed type of circulatory system is considered to be more advantageous
Reason : In closed circulation the flow of fluid can be more precisely regulated
1) Both A and R are true and the R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and the R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true and R is false
4) A is false and R is true
152. Identify the correct match
Plasma proteins -Function
A) Fibrinogen -Coagulation of blood
B) Globulins -Defense mechanism
C) Albumins -Osmotic balances
The correct match is
1) A & B only 2) B & C only 3) A & C only 4) A, B & C
153. The straw coloured, viscous fluid of blood has
A) Major proteins like Fibrinogen, Globulins, Albumins
B) Small amounts of minerals
C) Glucose, amino acids & lipids
D) Clotting proteins, in their active from always
The correct statements are
1) All 2) A & B 3) A, B, C 4) A & D
154. Megakaryocytes gives rise to
1) Erythrocytes 2) Platelets 3) Leucocytes 4) Lymphocytes
155. The most compatible blood transfusion among the following is?
1) Donor-A  Recipient AB 2) Donor-B  Recipient O
3) Donor-A  Recipient B 4) Donor-AB  Recipient O
156. Statements I : A person with O blood group is Universal donor
Statements II : A person with AB blood group is immune deficient as antibodies are absent.
1) SI and SII are innocent 2) SI and SII are correct
3) SI is incorrect and SII is correct 4) SI is correct and SII incorrect
157. Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by administering which of the flowing to the mother after the
delivery Of the first child
1) Rh-antigen 2) D-antigen 3) Anti Rh-antigen 4) Anti Rh-antibodies
158. Clot formed at site of injury is mainly composed of:
1) Inactive fibrinogens are converted into fibrins by enzyme thrombin
2) Network of fibrins threads
3) Dead and damaged formed elements of blood are trapped
4) All of the above
159. Lymph is a fluid connective tissue that contains
1) RBC & WBC 2) RBC, WBC & Protein
3) WBC & All proteins 4) Plasma, certain WBCs& some plasma proteins
160. Incomplete double circulation is found in which of the following animals?
1) Birds 2) Amphibians 3) Birds and Mammals 4) Crocodiles
161. Match the following :
A) Neutrophils i) 2  3%
B) Basophis ii) 60  65%
C) Monocytes iii) 0.5  1%
D) Eosinophils iv) 6  8%
1) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i) 2) A-(i), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
3) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv) 4) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)
162. Statements I- If Rh+ve person is transfused with Rh – ve blood, it will from specific antibodies against
Rh antigens
Statements II- Rh group should also be matched before transfusion.
The statements I and II are, respectively
1) True, False 2) True, True 3) False, False 4) False, True
163. Animals in which ventricles pump blood without any mixing of oxygenated & deoxygenated blood are
1) Amphibians 2) Reptiles & Aves 3) Amphibians & Aves 4) Aves & Mammals
164. Safest blood group for blood transfusion (blood donation)
1) AB Rh + ve 2) AB Rh – ve 3) O Rh – ve 4) A Rh +ve
165. What is common among amylase, rennin and trypsin?
1) All are proteins 2) All are proteolytic enzymes
3) All are produced in stomach 4) Act at PH lower than 7
166. Which of the following substances involved in organic molecule digestion is correctly matched with their
descriptions?
1) Salivary amylase- It begins lipid digestion in mouth
2) Trypsin- It emulsifies fats for digestion
3) Bile- It digests proteins in small intestine.
4) Maltase-enzyme that acts on disaccharides.
167. Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct option given below
Column-I Column-II
A) Tidal volume I) 2500-3000 mL
B) Inspiratory Reserve volume II) 1100-1200 mL
C) Expiratory Reserve volume III) 500 mL
D) Residual volume IV) 1000-1100 mL
1) A-III; B-II; C-I; D-IV 2) A-III; B-I; C-IV; D-II 3) A-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I 4) A-I; B-IV; C-II; D-III
168. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration.
Because of
1) inspiratory reserve volume 2) tidal volume
3) expiratory reserve volume 4) residual volume
169. When you hold your breath, which of the following gas changes in blood would first lead to the urge to
breathe?
1) Rising CO 2 concentration 2) Falling CO 2 concentration
3) Rising O2 and falling CO 2 concentration 4) Falling O2 concentration
170. Name the pulmonary disease in which alveolar surface area involved in gas exchange is drastically
reduced due to damage in the alveolar walls
1) Emphysema 2) Pneumonia 3) Asthma 4) Bronchitis
171. Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve Volume of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000 mL respectively. What
will be his Expiratory Capacity if the Residual Volume is 1200 mL?
1) 1500 mL 2) 1700 mL 3) 2200 mL 4) 2700 mL
172. Select the correct statements
1) Expiration occurs due to contraction of external intercostal muscles
2) Intrapulmonary pressure is lower than the atmospheric pressure during inspiration
3) Inspiration occurs when atmospheric pressure is less than intrapulmonary pressure.
4) Expiration is initiated due to contraction of diaphragm
173. Select the correct events that occurs during inspiration
A) Contraction of diaphragm B) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
C) Pulmonary volume decreases D) Intra pulmonary pressure increases
1) Only (D) 2) (A) and (B) 3) (C) and (D) 4) (A), (B) and (D)
174. Select the favourable conditions required for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
1) Low pO2 , high pCO2 , more H  , higher temperature
2) High pO2 , high pCO2 , less H  , higher temperature
3) Low pO2 , low pCO2 , more H  , higher temperature
4) High pO2 , low pCO2 , less H  , lower temperature
175. The given diagram represents the human respiratory system with few structure marked as I,II,III and IV

The exchange of gases takes place in which labelled structure?

1) I 2) II 3) III 4) IV
176. What will be the pO 2 and pCO 2 in the atmospheric air as compared to that of alveolar air?
1) pO 2 lesser and pCO 2 higher 2) pO 2 higher and pCO 2 lesser
3) Both pO 2 and pCO 2 lesser 4) Both pO 2 and pCO 2 higher’
177. In mammals, carbon dioxide is transported from tissues to respiratory surface by_______
1) plasma 2) R.B.C 3) W.B.C 4) both (1) and (2)
178. Carbonic anhydrase is found in high concentration in
1) Leucocytes 2) blood plasma 3) Erythrocytes 4) Lymphocytes
179. The respiratory centre, which regulates respiration, is located in
1) cerebrum 2) Diencephalon 3) pons 4) medulla oblongata
180. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1) Diffusion membrane is made up of 3-major layers
2) Solubility of CO 2 is higher than O2 by 25 times
3) The volume of air involved in breathing movements are estimated by Spirometer
4) High conc. of hydrogen ions favours oxyhaemoglobin formation.
181. Oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the right when
1) pH increases 2) CO 2 concentration increases
3) O2 concentration decreases 4) temperature increases
182. Claspers are present in
1) Chondrichthyes (in pelvic fins) 2) Chondrichthyes ( in pectoral fins)
3) Osteichthyes ( in pelvic fins ) 4) Osteichthyes ( in pectoral fins)
183. Larva of which phylum show bilateral symmetry but the adult exhibit radial symmetry?
1) Cnidaria 2) Mollusca 3) Platyhelminthes 4) Echinodermata
184. Which of the following membrane separates air in pulmonary alveoli from blood capillaries?
1) Alveolar epithelium 2) Cardiac epithelium
3) Endothelium blood capillaries 4) Both (1) and (3)
185. Select the correct route for the passage of sperms male frogs
1) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney  Seminal Vesicle  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca
2) Tests  Vasa efferentia  Bidder’s Canal  Ureter  Cloaca
3) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney  Bidder’s Canal  Urinogenitial duct  Cloaca
4) Testes  Bidder’s Canal  Kidney  Vasa effrentia  Urinogenitial duct  Cloaca
 SECTION-B
186. A person breathing normally at rest, takes in and expels approximately half a litre of air during each
respiratory cycle. This is called
1) inspiratory reserve volume 2) tidal volume
2) expiratory reserve volume 4) vital capacity
187. Which of the following is responsible for ABO grouping?
1) Presence or absence of clotting factors
2) Compatibility of blood groups during blood transfusion
3) Presence or absence of two surface antigens(A and B) on WBCs
4) Presence or absence of two surface antigens (A and B) on the RBCs
188. Match the following

Column-I Column-II
A) squamous epithelium 1) Intestinal glands
B) Cuboidal epithelium 2) Trachea
C) Columnar epithelium 3) Ovary
D) Ciliated epithelium 4) Blood vessels
E) Pseudostratified epithelium 5) Bronchioles
A B C D E
1) 4 3 1 5 2
2) 1 2 4 3 5
3) 4 3 1 2 5
4) 4 5 2 1 3
189. The figure given below shows the mechanism of breathing
Identify the stage X of breathing explained & A, B and C marked in the figure

1) X-Expiration, A-raised, B-decreased, C-relaxed

2) X-Inspiration, A-raised, B-decreased, C-relaxed
3) X-Expiration, A-raised, B-increased, C-contracted
4) X- Inspiration, A-raised, B-increased, C-contracted
190.

In the above diagram A, B, C, D represents?

S.NO A B C D
1 Alveoli Basement substance Endothelium Alveolar wall
2 Alveolar wall Endothelium Basement substance Alveoli
3 Endothelium Alveolar wall Alveoli Basement substance
4 Basement substance Alveoli Alveolar wall Endothelium
191. Match the following
Group-I(Animals) Group-II(Respiration)
A. Flat worms I. Diffusion
B. Earth worm II. Moist cuticle
C. Insects III. Tracheal tubes
D .Aquatic arthropods IV. Gills

A B C D
1) I II III IV
2) IV III II I
3) III II I IV
4) II IV I III.
192. The diffusion membrane of lungs consists of
1) The thin squamous epithelium of alveoli 2) The endothelium of alveolar capillaries
3) Basement membrane/substance 4) All of the above
193. Find the mismatch
Blood vessel Partial pressures
1) Systemic vein pO2 40 mm Hg
2) Systemic artery pCO2 -95 mm Hg
3) Pulmonary artery pCO2 -45 mm Hg
4) Alveolar chamber pO2 -104 mm Hg
194. Read the following statement and select the one which is not true?
1) About 97% O2 is transported by RBC in the blood
2) 70% of CO2 is carried as bicarbonates in the blood
3) 30% of O2 is transported through plasma in dissolved state
4) 100ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of O2 to the tissue under normal physiological
conditions
195. CO2 is carried by Hb as
1) Carboxy haemoglobin 2) Carbamino-haemoglobin 3) Oxyhaemoglobin 4) Bicarbonates
196. Alary muscles play an important role in cockroach
1) Circulation of blood 2) Respiration 3) Body movement 4) Excretion
197. A pair of intestinal caecae in the alimentary canal of earthworm arise from
1) 16th segment 2) 26th segment 3) 18th segment 4) 6th segment
198. When CO 2 concentration in blood increases, breathing becomes
1) slow and deep 2) faster and deeper
3) shallower and slow 4) there is no effect on breathing
199. Character shared by hook worm, round worm and filarial worm
1) Pseudocoelom 2) open type circulatory system
3) Pseudosegmentation 4) all of these
200. When fully saturated, one molecule of oxyhaemoglobin carries_____ number of oxygen molecules
1) two 2) three 3) four 4) one

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