1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

Sample Exam [Set B] Total points 29/40

Choose the BEST answer. Good Luck, I love you! 

Sample Exam [Set B] 0 of 1 points

Which of the following statements CORRECTLY reflects the value of static *0/1
testing?  

a) By introducing reviews, we have found that both the quality of specifications and
the time required for development and testing have increased

b) Using static testing means we have better control and cheaper defect
management due to the ease of detecting defects later in the lifecycle

c) Now that we require the use of static analysis, missed requirements have
decreased and communication between testers and developers has improved

d) Since we started using static analysis, we find coding defects that might have
not been found by performing only dynamic testing

Correct answer

d) Since we started using static analysis, we find coding defects that might have not
been found by performing only dynamic testing

Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

 
As a result of risk analysis, more testing is being directed to those areas *1/1
of the system under test where initial testing found more defects than
average. 

Which of the following testing principles is being applied?

a) Beware of the pesticide paradox

b) Testing is context dependent

c) Absence-of-errors is a fallacy

d) Defects cluster together

Feedback

d) Is correct. If clusters of defects are identified (areas of the system

containing more defects than average), then testing effort should be
focused on these areas

Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

 
Which of the following is a defect rather than a root cause in a fitness *1/1
tracker?

a) Because the author of the requirements was unfamiliar with the domain of
fitness training, he therefore wrongly assumed that users wanted heartbeat in beats
per hour

b) The tester of the smartphone interface had not been trained in state transition
testing, so missed a major defect

c) An incorrect configuration variable implemented for the GPS function could

cause location problems during daylight saving times

d) Because the designer had never worked on wearable devices before, she as
designer of the user interface therefore misunderstood the effects of reflected
sunlight

Feedback

c) Is correct. The incorrect configuration data represents faulty software in the fitness
tracker (a defect), that may cause failures

Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

Which of the following is a typical objective of testing? * 1/1

a) To find defects and failures

b) To validate the project plan works as required

c) Ensuring of complete testing

d) Comparing actual results with expected results

Feedback

Is correct. One of the major objectives of testing

Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

Which of the following BEST describes how value is added by maintaining *1/1
traceability between the test basis and test artifacts?  

a) Maintenance testing can be fully automated based on changes to the initial

requirements

b) It is possible to determine if a new test case has increased coverage of the

requirements

c) Test managers can identify which testers found the highest severity defects

d) Areas that may be impacted by side-effects of a change can be targeted by

confirmation testing

Feedback

b) Is correct. If all test cases are linked with requirements, then whenever a new test case
(with traceability) is added, it is possible to see if any previously uncovered requirements
are covered by the new test case

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

 
Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

Which of the following statements about test types and test levels is *1/1
CORRECT?  

a) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at system and

acceptance test levels, while white-box testing is restricted to component and
integration testing

b) Functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is
restricted to component testing

c) It is possible to perform functional, non-functional and white-box testing at

any test level

d) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at any test level, while
white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing

Feedback

c) Is correct. It is possible to perform any of the test types (functional, nonfunctional,

white-box) at any test level

Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

 
Which of the following statements BEST compares the purposes of *1/1
confirmation testing and regression testing?  

a) The purpose of regression testing is to ensure that all previously run tests still
work correctly, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to ensure that any fixes
made to one part of the system have not adversely affected other parts

b) The purpose of confirmation testing is to check that a previously found

defect has been fixed, while the purpose of regression testing is to ensure that
no other parts of the system have been adversely affected by the fix

c) The purpose of regression testing is to ensure that any changes to one part of
the system have not caused another part to fail, while the purpose of confirmation
testing is to check that all previously run tests still provide the same results as
before

d) The purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that changes to the system

were made successfully, while the purpose of regression testing is to run tests that
previously failed to ensure that they now work correctly

Feedback

b) Is correct. The descriptions of both confirmation and regression testing match the
intent of those in the syllabus

Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

 
Which of the following qualities is MORE likely to be found in a tester’s *1/1
mindset rather than in a developer’s?

a) A tester´s mindset tends to grow and mature as the tester gains experience

b) Ability to see what might go wrong

c) Good communication with team members

d) Focus on getting all things done

Feedback

b) Is correct. Developers are often more interested in designing and building solutions
than in contemplating what might be wrong with those solutions

Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

 
Given the following statements about the relationships between software *1/1
development activities and test activities in the software development
lifecycle: 
1. Each development activity should have a corresponding testing
activity 
2. Reviewing should start as soon as final versions of documents
become available 
3. The design and implementation of tests should start during the
corresponding development activity 
4. Testing activities should start in the early stages of the software
development lifecycle 

Which of the following CORRECTLY shows which are true and false?

a) True – 1, 2; False – 3, 4

b) True – 2, 3; False – 1, 4

c) True – 1, 2, 4; False – 3

d) True – 1, 4; False – 2, 3

Feedback

Considering each statement:

1. Each development activity should have a corresponding testing
activity. TRUE
2. Reviewing should start as soon as final versions of documents
become available. FALSE – it should start as soon as drafts are
available
3. The design and implementation of tests should start during the
corresponding development activity. FALSE – the analysis and
design of tests should start during the corresponding development
activity, not the implementation
4. Testing activities should start in the early stages of the software
development lifecycle. TRUE

Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

 
Given the following test activities and tasks: * 1/1
A. Test design 
B. Test implementation 
C. Test execution 
D. Test completion 

1. Entering change requests for open defect reports 

2. Identifying test data to support the test cases 
3. Prioritizing test procedures and creating test data 
4. Analyzing discrepancies to determine their cause 

Which of the following BEST matches the activities with the tasks?

a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

c) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

Feedback

The correct pairing of test activities and tasks is:

A. Test design – (2) Identifying test data to support the test cases
B. Test implementation – (3) Prioritizing test procedures and creating test data
C. Test execution – (4) Analyzing discrepancies to determine their cause
D. Test completion – (1) Entering change requests for open defect reports

Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

 
Which of the following provides the definition of the term test case? * 1/1

a) Subset of the value domain of a variable within a component or system in which

all values are expected to be treated the same based on the specification

b) A set of preconditions, inputs, actions, expected results and post conditions,

developed based on test conditions

c) Work products produced during the test process for use in planning, designing,
executing, evaluating, and reporting on testing

d) A source to determine an expected result to compare with the actual result of

the system under test

Feedback

Is correct. Based on definition from Glossary

Sample Exam [Set B] 0 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

Using BVA (only Min- and Max values), which of the following sets of test *0/1
inputs provides the highest level of boundary coverage?

a) 0°C, 11°C, 20°C, 22°C, 23°C

b) 9°C, 15°C, 19°C, 23°C, 100°C

c) 10°C, 16°C, 19°C, 22°C, 23°C

d) 14°C, 15°C, 18°C, 19°C, 21°C, 22°C

Correct answer

c) 10°C, 16°C, 19°C, 22°C, 23°C

Sample Exam [Set B] 0 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

 
Which of the following CORRECTLY identifies inconsistencies between *0/1
pairs of requirements?  

a) 6-10, 6-15, 7-12

b) 6-15, 9-11

c) 6-10, 6-15, 9-11

d) 6-15, 7-12

Correct answer

b) 6-15, 9-11

Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

Which of the following is an example of a failure in a car cruise control *1/1

system?  

a) The developer of the system forgot to rename variables after a cut-and-paste

operation

b) Unnecessary code that sounds an alarm when reversing was included in the
system

c) The system stops maintaining a set speed when the radio volume is
increased or decreased

d) The design specification for the system wrongly states speeds

Feedback

c) Is correct. This is a deviation from the expected functionality - a cruise control system
should not be affected by the radio

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

 
Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

Given that the testing being performed has the following attributes:  * 1/1
• Based on interface specifications 
• Focused on finding failures in communication 
• The test approach uses both functional and structural test types 

Which of the following test levels is MOST likely being performed?   

a) Integration testing

b) Acceptance testing

c) System testing

d) Component testing

Feedback

Considering the scenario:

1. ‘testing is based on interface specifications’ – the test basis for
integration testing includes interface specifications (along with
communication protocol specification), while these are not included
for any of the other test levels
2. ‘testing is focused on finding failures in communication’ - failures in
the communication between tested components is included as a
typical failure for integration testing, but failures in communication is
not included for any of the other test levels
3. ‘the test approach uses both functional and structural test types’ -
functional and structural test types are both included as possible
approaches for integration testing, and would also be appropriate for
any of the other test levels, although they are only otherwise
explicitly mentioned in the syllabus for system testing

Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

What is the minimum number of additional test cases that are needed to *1/1
ensure full coverage of ALL VALID INPUT equivalence partitions?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

Feedback

The following valid input equivalence partitions can be identified:

• Hours
1. Below 3 hours
2. 3 to 6 hours
3. Above 6 hours
• Intensity
4. Very low
5. Low
6. Medium
7. High
Thus, the missing valid input equivalence partitions are: (2), (5) and (7).
These can be covered by two test cases, as (2) can be combined with
either (5) or (7).

Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

 
Which of the following BEST matches the descriptions with the different *1/1
categories of test techniques? 
1. Coverage is measured based on a selected structure of the test object 
2. The processing within the test object is checked 
3. Tests are based on defects’ likelihood and their distribution 
4. Deviations from the requirements are checked 
5. User stories are used as the test basis 

Using notation for the following 4 options: 

Black - Black-box test techniques 
White - White-box test techniques 
Experience - Experience-based test techniques

a) Black – 4, 5 White – 1, 2; Experience – 3

b) Black – 3 White – 1, 2; Experience – 4, 5

c) Black – 4 White – 1, 2; Experience – 3, 5

d) Black – 1, 3, 5 White – 2; Experience – 4

Feedback

The correct pairing of descriptions with the different categories of test

techniques is:
• Black-box test techniques
Deviations from the requirements are checked (4) User stories are
used as the test basis (5)
• White-box test techniques
Coverage is measured based on a selected structure of the test
object (1) The processing within the test object is checked (2)
• Experience-based test techniques
Tests are based on defects’ likelihood and their distribution (3)

Sample Exam [Set B] 0 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

 
Which of the following provides the BEST description of exploratory *0/1
testing?  

a) A testing practice in which an in-depth investigation of the background of the

test object is used to identify potential weaknesses that are examined by test
cases

b) An approach to testing whereby the testers dynamically design and execute

tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of
previous tests

c) An approach to test design in which test activities are planned as uninterrupted

sessions of test analysis and design, often used in conjunction with checklist-
based testing

d) Testing based on the tester's experience, knowledge, and intuition

Correct answer

b) An approach to testing whereby the testers dynamically design and execute tests
based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous
tests

Sample Exam [Set B] 0 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

 
Which of the following statements on the use of checklists in a formal *0/1
review is CORRECT?  

a) As part of the review planning, the reviewers create the checklists needed for
the review

b) As part of the issue communication, the reviewers fill in the checklists provided
for the review

c) As part of the review meeting, the reviewers create defect reports based on the
checklists provided for the review

d) As part of the review initiation, the reviewers receive the checklists needed for
the review

Correct answer

d) As part of the review initiation, the reviewers receive the checklists needed for the
review

Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

Which of the following statements CORRECTLY describes a role of *1/1

impact analysis in Maintenance Testing?

a) Impact analysis is used when deciding if a fix to a maintained system is

worthwhile

b) Impact analysis is used to identify how data should be migrated into the
maintained system

c) Impact analysis is used to decide which hot fixes are of most value to the user

d) Impact analysis is used to determine the effectiveness of new maintenance test

cases

Feedback

a) Is correct. Impact analysis may be used to identify those areas of the system that will
be affected by the fix, and so the extent of the impact (e.g., necessary regression testing)
can be used when deciding if the change is worthwhile

Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

 
Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the BEST *1/1
equivalence partition coverage?  

a) 0, 1000, 2000, 3000, 4000

b) 1000, 2001, 4000, 4001, 6000

c) 123, 2345, 3456, 4567, 5678

d) 666, 999, 2222, 5555, 6666

Feedback

The following valid equivalence partitions can be identified:

1. Up to 1000 - Couch Potato!
2. Above 1000, up to 2000 - Lazy Bones!
3. Above 2000, up to 4000 - Getting There!
4. Above 4000, up to 6000 - Not Bad!
5. Above 6000 - Way to Go!

d) Is correct. 666 (1), 999 (1), 2222 (3), 5555 (4), 6666 (5) – 4 partitions
(out of 5)

Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independent testing? * 1/1

a) The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign

responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team, so ensuring
everyone is aware that quality is the test team’s overall responsibility

b) If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct
benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery
concerns of project management and the need to meet strict delivery deadlines

c) An independent test team can work totally separately from the developers, need
not be distracted with changing project requirements, and can restrict
communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect
management system

d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions

are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in
questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer

Feedback

d) Is correct. Specifications are never perfect, meaning that assumptions will have to be
made by the developer. An independent tester is useful in that they can challenge and
verify the assumptions and subsequent interpretation made by the developer

Sample Exam [Set B] 0 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

 
Which of the following BEST defines risk level? * 0/1

a) Risk level is calculated by adding together the probabilities of all problem

situations and the financial harm that results from them

b) Risk level is estimated by multiplying the likelihood of a threat to the system by

the chance that the threat will occur and will result in financial damage

c) Risk level is determined by a combination of the probability of an undesirable

event and the expected impact of that event

d) Risk level is the sum of all potential hazards to a system multiplied by the sum of
all potential losses from that system

Correct answer

c) Risk level is determined by a combination of the probability of an undesirable

event and the expected impact of that event

Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

 
Which of the following BEST describes the concept behind error *1/1
guessing?

a) Error guessing requires you to imagine you are the user of the test object and
guess mistakes the user could make interacting with it

b) Error guessing involves using your personal experience of development and the
mistakes you made as a developer

c) Error guessing involves using your knowledge and experience of defects

found in the past and typical mistakes made by developers

d) Error guessing requires you to rapidly duplicate the development task to identify
the sort of mistakes a developer might make

Feedback

c) Is correct. The basic concept behind error guessing is that the tester
tries to guess what mistakes may have been made by the developer
and what defects may be in the test object based on past-experience
(and sometimes checklists)

Sample Exam [Set B] 0 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

Which two of the additional test cases would achieve full coverage of the *0/1
complete decision table (when combined with the test cases that have
already been generated for rules R1 and R4)?

a) DT1, DT2

b) DT2, DT3

c) DT2, DT4

d) DT3, DT4

Correct answer

c) DT2, DT4

Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

The reviews being used in your organization have the following *1/1
attributes: 
• There is a role of a scribe 
• The purpose is to detect potential defects 
• The review meeting is led by the author 
• Reviewers find potential defects by individual review 
• A review report is produced 

Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used?

a) Informal Review

b) Walkthrough

c) Technical Review

d) Inspection

Feedback

Considering the attributes:

• There is a role of a scribe – specified for walkthroughs, technical
reviews, and inspections; thus, the reviews being performed cannot
be informal reviews
• The purpose is to detect potential defects – the purpose of detecting
potential defects is specified for all types of review.
• The review meeting is led by the author – this is not allowed for
inspections and is typically not the author for technical reviews, but
is part of walkthroughs, and allowed for informal reviews
• Reviewers find potential issues by individual review - all types of
reviews can include individual review (even informal reviews)
• A review report is produced - all types of reviews can produce a
review report, although it would be less likely for an informal review

Sample Exam [Set B] 0 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

 
Which of the following statements about test estimation approaches is *0/1
CORRECT?

a) With the metrics-based approach, the estimate is based on test measures

from the project and so this estimate is only available after the testing starts

b) With the expert-based approach, a group of expert users identified by the client
recommends the necessary testing budget

c) With the expert-based approach, the test managers responsible for the different
testing activities predict the expected testing effort

d) With the metrics-based approach, an average of the testing costs recorded from
several past projects is used as the testing budget

Correct answer

c) With the expert-based approach, the test managers responsible for the different
testing activities predict the expected testing effort

Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and *1/1

responsibilities in a formal review?  

a) Manager – Decides on the execution of reviews

b) Review Leader - Ensures effective running of review meetings

c) Scribe – Fixes defects in the work product under review

d) Moderator – Monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness

Feedback

a) Is correct. The management decides about performing the review.

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

 
Sample Exam [Set B] 0 of 1 points

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be an example of product risk *0/1

analysis CORRECTLY influencing the testing?

a) The potential impact of security flaws has been identified as being particularly
high, so security testing has been prioritized ahead of some other testing activities

b) Testing has found the quality of the network module to be higher than expected,
so additional testing will be performed in that area

c) The users had problems with the user interface of the previous system, so
additional usability testing is planned for the replacement system

d) The time needed to load web pages is crucial to the success of the new
website, so an expert in performance testing has been employed for this project

Correct answer

b) Testing has found the quality of the network module to be higher than expected,
so additional testing will be performed in that area

Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

 
Which of the following is MOST likely to be used as a reason for using a *1/1
pilot project to introduce a tool into an organization?

a) The need to evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices
and determining what would need to change

b) The need to evaluate the test automation skills and training, mentoring and
coaching needs of the testers who will use the tool

c) The need to evaluate whether the tool provides the required functionality and
does not duplicate existing test tools

d) The need to evaluate the tool vendor in terms of the training and other support
they provide

Feedback

b) Is not correct. The evaluation of the test automation skills and training, mentoring and
coaching needs of the testers who will use the tool should have been performed as part of
the tool selection activity
c) Is not correct. The decision on whether the tool provides the required
functionality and does not duplicate existing tools should have been
performed as part of the tool selection activity
d) Is not correct. The evaluation of the tool vendor in terms of the training and other
support they provide should have been performed as part of the tool selection activity

Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

Which of the following is MOST likely to be an example of a PRODUCT *1/1

risk?

a) The expected security features may not be supported by the system

architecture

b) The developers may not have time to fix all the defects found by the test team

c) The test cases may not provide full coverage of the specified requirements

d) The performance test environment may not be ready before the system is due
for delivery

Feedback

a) Is correct. If the expected security features are not supported by the system
architecture, then the system could be seriously flawed. As the system being produced is
the problem here, it is a product risk

Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

Which of the following tasks is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the test *1/1
manager?

a) Write test summary reports based on the information gathered during testing

b) Review tests developed by others

c) Prepare and acquire test data

d) Analyze, review, and assess requirements, specifications, and models for

testability

Feedback

a) Is correct. One of the typical tasks of a test manager

Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

Which of the following descriptions of statement coverage is CORRECT? * 1/1

a) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of lines of source code

exercised by tests

b) Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements

in the source code exercised by tests

c) Statement coverage is a measure of the percentage of lines of source code

(without comments) exercised by tests

d) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of executable statements in the

source code exercised by tests

Feedback

b) Is correct. Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of

executable statements exercised by tests (normally presented as a
percentage)

Sample Exam [Set B] 0 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

Which of the following test execution schedules BEST considers the *0/1
priorities and technical and logical dependencies?

a) TC1 – TC3 – TC4 – TC6 – TC2 – TC5

b) TC4 – TC3 – TC1 – TC2 – TC5 – TC6

c) TC4 – TC1 – TC3 – TC5 – TC6 – TC2

d) TC4 – TC2 – TC5 – TC1 – TC3 – TC6

Correct answer

b) TC4 – TC3 – TC1 – TC2 – TC5 – TC6

Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

Which of the following sequences of transitions provides the highest level *1/1
of transition coverage for the model?

a) OFF → WAIT → OFF → WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → HIGH → CHARGE →

LOW

b) WAIT → TRICKLE → WAIT → OFF → WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → LOW →

CHARGE

c) HIGH → CHARGE → LOW → CHARGE → TRICKLE → WAIT → TRICKLE → WAIT

→ TRICKLE

d) WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → HIGH → CHARGE → TRICKLE → WAIT →

OFF → WAIT

Feedback

d) Is correct:
WAIT (3) TRICKLE (5) CHARGE (9) HIGH (10) CHARGE (6) TRICKLE
(4) WAIT (1) OFF (2) WAIT = 8 transitions (out of 10)

Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

 
Which of the following descriptions of decision coverage is CORRECT? * 1/1

a) Decision coverage is a measure of the percentage of possible paths through the

source code exercised by tests

b) Decision coverage is a measure of the percentage of business flows through the

component exercised by tests

c) Decision coverage is a measure of the ‘if’ statements in the code that are
exercised with both the true and false outcomes

d) Decision coverage is a measure of the proportion of decision outcomes in

the source code exercised by tests

Feedback

d) Is correct. Decision coverage is a measure of the proportion of decision outcomes

exercised (normally presented as a percentage)

Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

 
Which of this additional information is most useful to include in the *1/1
defect report?

a) 1, 2, 6

b) 1, 4, 5, 6

c) 2, 3, 4, 5

d) 3, 5, 6

Feedback

Considering each of the pieces of information:

1. Degree of impact (severity) of the defect – the developers are
already aware of the problem and are waiting to fix it, so this is a
less important piece of information.
2. Identification of the test object – as the developers are already
aware of the problem and you are performing system testing, and
you have already provided the version of the system you are testing
you can assume they know the object that was being tested, so this
is a less important piece of information.
3. Details of the test environment – the set-up of the test environment
may have a noticeable effect on the test results, and detailed
information should be provided, so this is an important piece of
information.
4. Urgency/priority to fix – the developers are already aware of the
problem and are waiting to fix it, so this is a less important piece of
information.
5. Actual results – the actual results may well help the developers to
determine what is going wrong with the system, so this is an
important piece of information.
6. Reference to test case specification – this will show the developers
the tests you ran, including the test inputs that caused the system to
fail (and expected results), so this is an important piece of
information.

Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

Which of the following BEST matches the activities and tools? * 1/1

a) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – A

b) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D

c) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C

d) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – C

Feedback

The correct pairings of test activities and test tools are:

1. Performance measurement and dynamic analysis – (b) Dynamic
analysis tools
2. Test execution and logging – (a) Code coverage tools
3. Management of testing and testware – (d) Defect management tools
4. Test design – (c) Test data preparation tools

Sample Exam [Set B] 1 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

Which of the following BEST categorizes them as entry and exit criteria: * 1/1

a) Entry criteria – 5, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 2, 3, 4

b) Entry criteria – 2, 3, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 4, 5

c) Entry criteria – 1, 3; Exit criteria – 2, 4, 5, 6

d) Entry criteria – 3, 5, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 2, 4

Feedback

The correct pairings of examples to entry and exit criteria are:

• Entry criteria
o (3) The trading performance test environment has been
designed, set-up and verified – example of the need for a test
environment to be ready before testing can begin
o (5) The autopilot design specifications have been reviewed and
reworked – example of the need for the test basis to be
available before testing can begin
o (6) The tax rate calculation component has passed unit testing –
example of the need for a test object to have met the exit criteria
for a prior level of testing before testing can begin
• Exit criteria
o (1) The original testing budget of $30,000 plus contingency of
$7,000 has been spent – example of spending the testing
budget being a signal to stop testing
o (2) 96% of planned tests for the drawing package have been
executed and the remaining tests are now out of scope –
example of all the planned tests being run being a signal to stop
testing (normally used alongside the exit criteria on outstanding
defects remaining)
o (4) Current status is no outstanding critical defects and two high priority ones – example
of the number of outstanding defects
achieving a planned limit being a signal to stop testing (normally
used alongside the exit criteria on planned tests being run).

Sample Exam [Set B] 0 of 1 points

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

Which of the following statements BEST describes how test cases are *0/1
derived from a use case?

a) Test cases are created to exercise defined basic, exceptional and error behaviors
performed by the system under test in collaboration with actors

b) Test cases are derived by identifying the components included in the use case
and creating integration tests that exercise the interactions of these components

c) Test cases are generated by analyzing the interactions of the actors with the
system to ensure the user interfaces are easy to use

d) Test cases are derived to exercise each of the decision points in the business
process flows of the use case, to achieve 100% decision coverage of these flows

Correct answer

a) Test cases are created to exercise defined basic, exceptional and error behaviors
performed by the system under test in collaboration with actors

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1/6/23, 2:58 PM Sample Exam [Set B]

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