Total 904

Questions

OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Annex 6 parts I, II and III
Question An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be equipped with
at least:
Choices Answers Correct
A 1 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment A
B 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment
C 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment
D 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question For aircraft specified before the 1 April 1998, cockpit voice recorder must keep the conversations and sound
alarms recorded during the last:
Choices Answers Correct
A flight
B 25 hours of operation
C 30 minutes of operation C
D 48 hours of operation
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Before any flight is commenced, forms have to be completed certifying that the aeroplane is airworthy. Who
has to be satisfied that the aeroplane is airworthy?
Choices Answers Correct
A The commander A
B The operator
C The maintenance supervisor
D a CAA authorised person
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be safely made, and that any
transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? (Annex 6, Part ll)
Choices Answers Correct
A The operator
B The captain B
C The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot
D the company's cargo technicians
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination
aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:
Choices Answers Correct
A 0.5
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Annex 6 parts I, II and III
Question For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination
aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:
B 0.7
C 0.6 C
D 0.8
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full stop
landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within:
Choices Answers Correct
A 80% of the landing distance available
B 70% of the landing distance available
C 60% of the landing distance available C
D 50% of the landing distance available
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question The standby power supply powering the standby artificial horizon must be operable on board any aircraft of
more than 5,700 kg or more than 9 passengers during at least:
Choices Answers Correct
A 15 minutes
B 60 minutes
C 30 minutes C
D 2 hours
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question For turbo-propeller aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance on at alternate
aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:
Choices Answers Correct
A 0.7 A
B 0.6
C 0.5
D 0.8
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question On board a pressurised aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an
oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the
Choices event of a cabin depressurisation, throughout the flight period, during which the pressure altitude is
greater than:
Answers Correct
A 12,000 ft
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Annex 6 parts I, II and III
Question On board a pressurised aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an
oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the
event of a cabin depressurisation, throughout the flight period, during which the pressure altitude is
greater than:
B 11,000 ft
C 10,000 ft C
D 13,000 ft
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question The minimum time track is a track defined for:

Choices Answers Correct

A a period of 12 hours
B a given travel B
C a period of 24 hours
D aircraft flying in MNPS airspace
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question On over-water flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance away from land, which is
suitable for making a emergency landing greater than that corresponding to:
Choices Answers Correct
A 400 NM or 120 minutes at cruising speed A
B 300 NM or 90 minutes at cruising speed
C 200 NM or 45 minutes at cruising speed
D 100 NM or 30 minutes at cruising speed
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that: (Annex 6, Part l)

Choices Answers Correct

A Does not exceed the equivalent of two hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines
operating
B Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time at cruising speed with only one
engine operative
C Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines
operating
D Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only one D
engine operative
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question When must a radiation indicator be carried?
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Annex 6 parts I, II and III
Question When must a radiation indicator be carried?

Choices Answers Correct

A For flights above 29,000 ft
B For flights above 39,000 ft
C For flights above 49,000 ft C
D For flights above 59,000 ft
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question An aeroplane flying at 30,000 ft would be required to provide oxygen dispensing units in the passenger cabin
for:
Choices Answers Correct
A the total number of passengers + 10%
B the total number of passengers
C the total number of seats
D the total number of seats + at least 10% additional units D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question A modern aircraft must be provided with a flight data recorder when its certified take-off gross weight is
greater than:
Choices Answers Correct
A 27,000 kg
B 5,700 kg B
C 20,000 kg
D 14,000 kg
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question A transport category aircraft suffers an unserviceability on the ground prior to take-off. What document do
you refer to?
Choices Answers Correct
A Aircraft Operating Manual
B Minimum Equipment List B
C CARS
D Operations Manual relevant chapter
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question To operate an aircraft as commander a pilot must have:

Choices Answers Correct

A Carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings in an aeroplane of the same type or a flight
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Annex 6 parts I, II and III
Question To operate an aircraft as commander a pilot must have:

B Carried out at least 5 take-offs and 3 landings in an aeroplane of the same type or a flight
simulator in the preceding 60 days
C Carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings in an aeroplane of the same type or a flight C
simulator in the preceding 90 days
D Carried out at least 5 take-offs and 3 landings in an aeroplane of the same type or a flight
simulator in the preceding 90 days
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen masks are compulsory on board any pressurised aircraft
flying at a pressure altitude greater than:
Choices Answers Correct
A 13,000 ft
B 29,000 ft
C 10,000 ft
D 25,000 ft D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question For a pressurised aircraft, the first-aid oxygen is designed to:

Choices Answers Correct

A provide oxygen to 10% of passengers at a cabin altitude exceeding 13000 ft after 30 minutes
B protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious gases B
C protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurisation
D provide undiluted oxygen for passengers who, for physiological reasons, might require oxygen
following a cabin depressurisation
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question What is VAT?

Choices Answers Correct

A VSO x 1.3 A
B VS1G x 1.3
C The lesser of VSO or VSIG
D VSO x 1.23
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and
the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by:
Choices Answers Correct
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Annex 6 parts I, II and III
Question The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and
the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by:
A the operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual A
B the manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manual
C the operator, and it is appended to the flight manual
D the manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight and located at the tip
of the left wing is:
Choices Answers Correct
A 140o
B 110o B
C 70o
D 220o
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a non-precision approach procedure which is based upon the
use of a VOR is not lower than:
Choices Answers Correct
A 150 ft
B 200 ft
C 250 ft
D 300 ft D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When refuelling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is
necessary that: (Annex 6, Part I)
Choices Answers Correct
A All the flight crew be on board
B The aircraft's stairs be completely extended
C Refuelling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking
D Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on board D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front right
will first see the:
Choices Answers Correct
A green flashing light
B green steady light
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Annex 6 parts I, II and III
Question During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front right
will first see the:
C white steady light
D red steady light D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available
information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of
Choices alternative destination, are: (Annex 6, Part l)
Answers Correct
A At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for A
aerodrome use
B At the predicted time of take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for
aerodrome use
C At the predicted time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted
time, equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use
D At the predicted time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an operator must not be
less than:
Choices Answers Correct
A 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days
B 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days B
C 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months
D 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The coverage angle of the regulatory white position lights, continuously lit in flight and located at the
rear of the aircraft, is:
Choices Answers Correct
A 140o A
B 100o
C 70o
D 220o
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The operator will include in the operations manual a list of minimum required equipment approved by: (Annex
6, Part l)
Choices Answers Correct
A The country where the aircraft is operated
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Annex 6 parts I, II and III
Question The operator will include in the operations manual a list of minimum required equipment approved by: (Annex
6, Part l)
B The country where the aircraft was manufactured
C The country of the operator C
D It is not mandatory that such a book be approved by aviation authorities
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard wing tip, with a coverage angle of:

Choices Answers Correct

A 70o
B 140o
C 110o C
D 220o
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take
the following into account:
Choices
1. equipment available for navigation
2. dimensions and characteristics of the runways
3. composition of the flight crew
4. obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas
5. facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditions

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 4, 5
B 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B
C 2, 4, 5
D 2, 3, 5
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:

Choices Answers Correct

A from take off to landing
B only during take off and landing
C only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest of
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Annex 6 parts I, II and III
Question Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:

D while at their station D

Ref CPL A AND H
Question The MMEL (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:

Choices Answers Correct

A the operator
B the manufacturer B
C the aircraft manufacturers list
D the aircraft state of registry
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Who shall provide the flight operations personal with an operations manual and also issue the amendments to
keep it up to date?
Choices Answers Correct
A Owner of the aircraft
B Aircraft producer
C Aircraft operator C
D ATS authority of the state of registry
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Who accepts the MEL?

Choices Answers Correct

A The country where the flight takes place
B The country of the operator B
C The country of the designers
D The country of the manufacturers
Ref CPL A AND H
Question On board a non-pressurised aircraft, 10% of the passengers must be supplied with oxygen throughout the
period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which the pressure altitude is between:
Choices Answers Correct
A 10,000 ft and 12,000 ft
B 10,000 ft and 13,000 ft B
C 11,000 ft and 13,000 ft
D 11,000 ft and 12,000 ft
Ref CPL A AND H
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Annex 6 parts I, II and III
Question A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the shore by more than:

Choices Answers Correct

A 100 NM
B 50 NM B
C 200 NM
D 400 NM
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Who compiles the MEL and where does it go?

Choices Answers Correct

A The manufacturer and in the Flight Manual
B The manufacturer and in the Operations Manual
C The operator and in the Flight Manual
D The operator and in the Operations Manual D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Who makes up the MMEL?

Choices Answers Correct

A The operator
B The manufacturer and it must be approved by the state of certification B
C The authority
D The state of registry
Ref CPL A AND H
Question FDRs must keep data and parameters for at least the last:

Choices Answers Correct

A 30 hours of operation
B 48 hours of operation
C 25 hours of operation C
D The whole flight
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When is MDH referenced to the threshold as opposed to the aerodrome elevation?

Choices Answers Correct

A The threshold is more than 2m above the ARP
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Annex 6 parts I, II and III
Question When is MDH referenced to the threshold as opposed to the aerodrome elevation?

B The threshold is less than 2m above the ARP

C The threshold is less than 2m below the ARP
D The threshold is more than 2m below the ARP D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When you have been unlawfully interfered with the commander is required to
inform certain people:
Choices (i) State of the Operator
(ii) ICAO
(iii) State of registration of aircraft
(iv) CAA

Answers Correct
A (i), (ii) and (iii) A
B (ii), (iii) and (iv)
C (i), (iii) and (iv)
D all of the above
Ref CPL A AND H
Question On board a non-pressurised aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the
flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
Choices Answers Correct
A 12,000 ft
B 11,000 ft
C 10,000 ft
D 13,000 ft D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Who has the responsibility to take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft
which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference until their journey can be continued?
Choices Answers Correct
A CAA
B Commander of the aircraft
C Aeroplanes operator
D Contracting State in which the unlawful interference occurs D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the requirement regarding the carriage of a CVR for aircraft registered before April 1998?
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Annex 6 parts I, II and III
Question What is the requirement regarding the carriage of a CVR for aircraft registered before April 1998?

Choices Answers Correct

A Record last 30 mins of flight A
B Record for the duration of the flight
C Record the last 25 hours of operation
D Record the last 48 hours of flight
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Is it necessary to carry the entire Operations Manual on each flight?

Choices Answers Correct

A No, only the parts required for the conduct of the flight and those concerning crew duty A
B No, only the parts required for the conduct of the flight
C Yes
D No, only the parts concerning crew duty
Ref CPL A AND H
Question To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing you must have:

Choices Answers Correct

A acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days A
B acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days
C acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days
D been at the controls for landing in the same type recently
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A copy of which of the following documents must be kept on the ground by an operator for the duration of
each flight?
Choices Answers Correct
A The journey log
B The ATC (Air Traffic Control) flight plan
C The operational flight plan C
D The meteorological forecast
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A Flight Data Recorder is required in aeroplanes over:

Choices Answers Correct

A 20,000 kg
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Annex 6 parts I, II and III
Question A Flight Data Recorder is required in aeroplanes over:

B 5,700 kg B
C 10,000 kg
D 7,000 kg
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Oxygen should be supplied for all crew members and some passengers above which altitude:

Choices Answers Correct

A 10,000 ft A
B 12,000 ft
C 13,000 ft
D 11,000 ft
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the oxygen requirement for the crew and 100% of the passengers in an un-pressurised aircraft:

Choices Answers Correct

A 10,000 ft
B 11,000 ft
C 12,000 ft
D 13,000 ft D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What manuals are to be carried on board the aircraft?

Choices Answers Correct

A Operations Manual in toto
B Company instructions for all flight crew
C All those specified in the Certificate of Airworthiness
D Relevant parts of the ops manual and AFM D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on an opposite parallel track.
What Nav light will be observed:
Choices Answers Correct
A Green
B Red B
C White
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Annex 6 parts I, II and III
Question From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on an opposite parallel track.
What Nav light will be observed:
D All of the above
Ref CPL A AND H
Question First Aid (therapeutic) oxygen is carried for which of the following:

Choices Answers Correct

A All crew and passengers in the event of an unexpected rapid depressurisation
B The crew in the event of noxious fumes entering the flight deck
C 30% of passengers between 10,000 ft and 13,000 ft
D Any passengers who require it for pathological respiratory disorders D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front right on
approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
Choices Answers Correct
A red light
B green light B
C white light
D red and white flashing light
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What skills constitute pilot proficiency checks?

Choices Answers Correct

A Simulator flying skills
B The ability to land safely
C Flying technique, emergency procedures and IFR C
D The ability to conform with set procedures
Ref CPL A AND H
Question How often should pilot proficiency checks be performed?

Choices Answers Correct

A No less than 6 months between checks
B 2 checks every 13 months
C 3 checks within the year with no less than 4 months between checks
D 2 within a year, more than 4 months between checks D
Ref CPL A AND H
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Annex 6 parts I, II and III
Question Coverage of permanently illuminated white lights at the rear of the aircraft is:

Choices Answers Correct

A 140o A
B 70o
C 110o
D 220o
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the definition of a minimum time route?

Choices Answers Correct

A Closest diversion on route
B Shortest distance between two points of a route
C Shortest time between dest and dep adhering to ATC restrictions C
D Route using the least amount of fuel
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Regarding an observer in the cockpit seeing an aeroplane coming from the forward left, what colour is the
first light seen (at night)?
Choices Answers Correct
A Flashing white
B Steady red
C Steady green C
D Steady white
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Through what angle can the green navigation light be seen?

Choices Answers Correct

A 70o
B 110o B
C 130o
D 140o
Ref CPL A AND H
Question If you are squawking 3770 and have a transponder failure, what do you squawk?

Choices Answers Correct

A 0000 A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Annex 6 parts I, II and III
Question If you are squawking 3770 and have a transponder failure, what do you squawk?

B 3770
C 4096
D 7600
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The abbreviation AOC stands for:

Choices Answers Correct

A Aircrew operators certificate
B Air operator competence
C Aircraft operations certificate
D Air operators certificate D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the definition of a damp runway?

Choices Answers Correct

A Surface not dry but moisture does not give the surface a shiny appearance A
B Surface dry but moisture does not give the surface a shiny appearance
C Surface not dry and moisture gives the surface a shiny appearance
D Surface dry and moisture gives the surface a shiny appearance
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Therapeutic oxygen carried on a pressurised aircraft is used for:

Choices Answers Correct

A passengers following a decompression
B passengers or crew when required B
C crew only
D passengers notified as having a medical condition
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Annexes to the Chicago Convention contain:

Choices Answers Correct

A Standards and approved Practices
B Recommendations and Means of Compliance
C Articles and Terms
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Annex 6 parts I, II and III
Question Annexes to the Chicago Convention contain:

D Standards and Recommended Practices D

Ref CPL A AND H
Question When changing the transponder code for radar identification the selections to be made are:

Choices Answers Correct

A ON then STBY then ON A
B ON then STBY
C STBY
D OFF
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A helicopter with a Maximum take-off mass exceeding 5,700 kg conducting Helicopter Emergency Medical Service
shall be operated in accordance with:
Choices Answers Correct
A performance class 1 at night, 1 or 2 by daylight
B performance class 1 or 2
C performance class 1 C
D any class of performance due to the emergency situation
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question A category D aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher
than or equal to:
Choices Answers Correct
A 1,500 m
B 1,600 m
C 2,400 m
D 3,600 m D
Ref I.R.
Question A category D aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the
horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:
Choices Answers Correct
A 1500 m
B 2400 m
C 1600 m
D 3600 m D
Ref I.R.
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge lights and high intensity centre line lights. There is
an accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew is IFR qualified on type. The minimum horizontal
Choices visibility required for take-off is:
Answers Correct
A 150 m if a threshold RVR is available
B 200 m
C 300 m
D 150 m D
Ref I.R.
Question A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the
horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:
Choices Answers Correct
A 1,600 m
B 2,400 m
C 1,500 m C
D 3,600 m
Ref I.R.
Question A category B aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the
horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:
Choices Answers Correct
A 2,400 m
B 1,500 m
C 3,600 m
D 1,600 m D
Ref I.R.
Question At the planning stage for a Class B performance aircraft, what minimum climb gradient do you use?

Choices Answers Correct

A 300 ft min climb speed with one engine out
B 500 ft min climb speed with one engine out
C 300 ft min climb speed with all engines operating C
D 500 ft min climb speed with all engines operating
Ref I.R.
Question The pilot of a category A aircraft is flying a non-precision direct IFR approach with the following
operational minimums: MDH 250 feet and visibility 750 metres. RVR for threshold, mid and end of the runway
Choices are given by the controller:
Answers Correct
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question The pilot of a category A aircraft is flying a non-precision direct IFR approach with the following
operational minimums: MDH 250 feet and visibility 750 metres. RVR for threshold, mid and end of the runway
are given by the controller:
A the pilot may start the final approach if the three RVR are higher than 750 metres
B the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold and mid-runway RVR are higher than 750
metres
C the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold RVR is higher than 750 metres C
D flying a non-precision approach, the pilot may start the final approach only if he has a
meteorological visibility higher than 750 metres. RVR are to be taken into account only for
precision approaches
Ref ATPL A
Question An aircraft flies a VOR/DME direct approach for which the operational
minima are:
Choices
MDH = 360 feet
Horizontal visibility = 1,500 metres
Visibility given by ATC and received by the crew is 2,500 metres

The pilot may start the final approach:

Answers Correct
A if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 360 feet
B whatever the ceiling given by ATC B
C if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 240 feet
D if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 240 feet during the
day and 360 feet at night
Ref ATPL A, H AND I.R.
Question The information to consider for a standard straight-in approach is:

Choices 1. the horizontal visibility

2. the ceiling
3. the minimum descending altitude (MDA)
4. the decision altitude (DA)
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

Answers Correct
A 1, 3 A
B 1, 4
C 1, 2, 3
D 1, 2, 4
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question The information to consider for a standard straight-in approach is:

1. the horizontal visibility

2. the ceiling
3. the minimum descending altitude (MDA)
4. the decision altitude (DA)
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

Ref ATPL A, H AND I.R.

Question The Cat I minimum decision height is:

Choices Answers Correct

A No decision height
B 50 feet
C 100 feet
D 200 feet D
Ref ATPL A, H AND I.R.
Question What is DH used for:

Choices Answers Correct

A Visual manoeuvring
B Circling to land
C Precision approaches C
D Non-precision approaches
Ref ATPL A, H AND I.R.
Question The minimum MDH and meteorological visibility for a category D aircraft circling are respectively:

Choices Answers Correct

A 700 ft 3.600 m A
B 800 ft 2.400 m
C 500 ft 1.600 m
D 400 ft 1.500 m
Ref ATPL A, H AND I.R.
Question A category 1 precision approach (CAT 1) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range
of at least:
Choices Answers Correct
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question A category 1 precision approach (CAT 1) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range
of at least:
A 800 m
B 500 m
C 550 m C
D 350 m
Ref ATPL A, H AND I.R.
Question MDA is:

Choices Answers Correct

A a specified height in a Non-precision Approach or Circling Approach below which the descent must
not be made without the required visual reference
B a specified altitude in a Non-precision Approach or Circling Approach below which the descent B
must not be made without the required visual reference
C referenced to the Runway Threshold (THR) elevation
D b and c are correct
Ref ATPL A, H AND I.R.
Question What is the system minimum for an NDB approach?

Choices Answers Correct

A 200 ft
B 250 ft
C 300 ft C
D 350 ft
Ref ATPL A, H AND I.R.
Question On an ILS, you are told that the weather has dropped below company minima. When must you abort the
approach?
Choices Answers Correct
A Start of the glide slope descent
B FAF
C Inner Marker
D Outer Marker D
Ref ATPL A, H AND I.R.
Question The considerations for a non-precision approach are:
1.MDA (H)
Choices 2.DH
3.Ceiling
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question The considerations for a non-precision approach are:
1.MDA (H)
2.DH
3.Ceiling
4.Horizontal visibility
Answers Correct
A 2, 3, 4
B 1, 3, 4 B
C 1, 3
D 2, 4
Ref ATPL A, H AND I.R.
Question The information to be considered for a non-precision approach is:
1.Horizontal visibility
Choices 2.Ceiling
3.Minimum Descent Altitude
4.Decision Altitude
Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 4
B 1, 3
C 1, 4
D 1, 2, 3 D
Ref ATPL A, H AND I.R.
Question The ATIS reports destination weather as RVR 200 m, overcast at 100 ft throughout the approach. The approach
procedure is NDB to ILS with a locator NDB at the OM. The minima for the approach are DH 200 ft, RVR 600m.
Choices Which of the following statements is true?
Answers Correct
A The approach may not be commenced
B The approach may be commenced but not continued beyond the OM B
C The approach may be commenced but not continued below 1000 ft
D The approach may be commenced but not continued below DH unless the required visual references
are present
Ref ATPL A, H AND I.R.
Question If the RVR is found to be below the minimum before an approach is commenced the approach may not be
continued:
Choices Answers Correct
A beyond the Final Approach Fix
B below 1000 ft AAL
C below MDA/MDH or DA/DH
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question If the RVR is found to be below the minimum before an approach is commenced the approach may not be
continued:
D beyond the Outer Marker or equivalent D
Ref ATPL A, H AND I.R.
Question The minimum flight crew for night transport of passengers according to the instrument flight rules is:

Choices Answers Correct

A 2 pilots for any aircraft weighing more than 5.7 tons or having more than 9 passenger seats
B 2 pilots for turbo-jet aircraft and turbo-prop aircraft with more than 9 passenger seats B
C 1 pilot for any aircraft weighing less than 5.7 tons, provided that the maximum certified number
of passenger seats is less than 9
D 2 pilots for any turbo-prop aircraft weighing more than 5.7 tons or for any turbo-jet aircraft
Ref ATPL AND H
Question Which of the following forms or information are NOT required to be carried on
all flight?
Choices
1. The Operational Flight Plan (OFP)
2. Mass and Balance Documentation
3. NOTAMS
4. The Technical Log
5. Maps and Charts
6. Passenger and Cargo Manifests

Answers Correct
A All except 1
B All except 3
C All except 6 C
D All except 4
Ref All
Question What is the angle of the red navigation light?

Choices Answers Correct

A 90o
B 110o B
C 140o
D 70o
Ref All
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question An observer in the cockpit sees an aeroplane closing from the forward left, what colour is the first light
seen (at night)?
Choices Answers Correct
A Flashing white
B Steady red
C Steady green C
D Steady white
Ref All
Question SVFR may not be commenced when the visibility is less than:

Choices Answers Correct

A 1.5 km
B 3 km B
C 5 km
D 6 km
Ref All
Question To conduct a special VFR flight, the minimum visibility required is:

Choices Answers Correct

A 3000 m
B 1500 m B
C 2500 m
D 5000 m
Ref All
Question One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available
information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of
Choices alternate destination, are, at the predicted time of:
Answers Correct
A Take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use
B Arrival, and for a reasonable time before and after such a predicted time, equal to or better
than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use
C Arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use C
D Arrival better that the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use
Ref All
Question When are all flight crewmembers required to be at their stations?
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question When are all flight crewmembers required to be at their stations?

Choices Answers Correct

A Take-off and landing A
B Throughout the flight
C At all times other than take-off and landing
D As specified in the operations manual
Ref All
Question the operator is to provide an Operations Manual for:

Choices Answers Correct

A Operations staff A
B All company personnel
C Only for flight crew
D For the Authority
Ref All
Question Who is to ensure safe handling of flights?

Choices Answers Correct

A The Operator A
B The Authority
C The State of Registration
D The Operations Officer
Ref All
Question Who is responsible for ensuring that the aeroplane is airworthy prior to flight?

Choices Answers Correct

A Operator
B State of Registration
C Captain C
D State of the Operator
Ref All
Question Who provides the operations personnel with the operations manual and the amendments to keep it up to date?

Choices Answers Correct

A Aircraft manufacturer
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question Who provides the operations personnel with the operations manual and the amendments to keep it up to date?

B ATS authority of the state of registry

C Aircraft operator C
D Owner of aircraft
Ref All
Question A pilot in command:
1.Must comply with ATC instructions immediately
Choices 2.Is only responsible when airborne
3.May deviate in an emergency
4.May deviate from complying with rules of the air in order to comply with an ATC instruction
5.May request a new clearance if unsatisfied
The correct combination is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 3, 4, 5
B 3, 5 B
C 3, 4, 5
D All of the above
Ref All
Question When can special VFR be commenced?

Choices Answers Correct

A Visibility greater than 1500 m
B Greater than 3 km vis B
C Visibility no more than 3000 m
D Greater than 5 km vis
Ref All
Question The take-off alternate is to be located within which distance for a 2 engined aircraft?

Choices Answers Correct

A 1 hour with one engine operating A
B 1 hour with both engines operating
C 2 hours with one engine operating
D 2 hours with both engines operating
Ref All
Question if required, the number of life rafts to be carried on board an aeroplane must allow the transportation of
the entire aeroplane occupants:
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question if required, the number of life rafts to be carried on board an aeroplane must allow the transportation of
the entire aeroplane occupants:
Choices Answers Correct
A in the case of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity A
B plus 10%
C plus 20%
D plus 30%
Ref CPL A
Question an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 201 to 300 seats must be equipped
with at least:
Choices Answers Correct
A 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment
B 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment
C 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment
D 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment D
Ref CPL A
Question an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 301 to 400 seats must be equipped
with at least:
Choices Answers Correct
A 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment
B 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment B
C 6 hand fire-extinguisher conveniently located in the passenger compartment
D 3 hand fire-extinguisher conveniently located in the passenger compartment
Ref CPL A
Question an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped with
at least:
Choices Answers Correct
A 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment A
B 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment
C 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment
D 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment
Ref CPL A
Question an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 401 to 500 seats must be equipped
with at least:
Choices Answers Correct
A 7 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 401 to 500 seats must be equipped
with at least:
B 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment
C 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment C
D 8 hand fire- extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment
Ref CPL A
Question an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as pilot-in-command unless:

Choices Answers Correct

A he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in any type of
aeroplane or an approved simulator, under the supervision of an examiner, in the preceding 60
days
B he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command in an aeroplane or an approved
flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
C he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or C
an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
D he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or
an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 30 days
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question After an accident, the operator of an airplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original
recordings for a minimum period of:
Choices Answers Correct
A 60 days A
B 30 days
C 90 days
D 45 days
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight manual indicates a minimum crew of one pilot,
when do the regulations require the presence of a second pilot?
Choices Answers Correct
A If the flight lasts more than 3 hours
B If the aircraft is a twin-engine
C If part or all the flight is done at night
D Never D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question As cabin altitude increases, what happens to the differential pressure?
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question As cabin altitude increases, what happens to the differential pressure?

Choices Answers Correct

A Decreases A
B Increases
C Stays the same
D None of the above
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Above what altitude are quick-donning masks required:

Choices Answers Correct

A 25,000 A
B 15,000
C 10,000
D 32,000
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Destination alternate for a turbojet- what is the required fuel overhead?

Choices Answers Correct

A 30 minutes at cruise speed
B 30 minutes at 1,500 in standard conditions B
C 2 hours at 1,500 in standard conditions
D 30 minutes at endurance speed
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question For a medium then a light aeroplane on the approach, what is the required separation?

Choices Answers Correct

A 2 mins
B 3 mins B
C 1 min
D 4 mins
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question For an aeroplane powered by turbo-jet engines, the fuel and oil to be carried is at least the amount
sufficient to allow the aeroplane:
Choices Answers Correct
A to fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach, at the aerodrome to which the flight is
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question For an aeroplane powered by turbo-jet engines, the fuel and oil to be carried is at least the amount
sufficient to allow the aeroplane:
B to have an additional amount of fuel sufficient to provide for the increased consumption on the
occurrence of any of the potential contingencies specified by the operator to the satisfaction
of the State of the operator; or
C to fly to the alternate aerodrome via any predetermined point and thereafter for 30 minutes at
450m (1500 ft) above the alternate aerodrome
D All of the above D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question When landing in heavy rain:

Choices Answers Correct

A Decrease air speed on landing, area may be more slippery
B Increase air speed as rain affects boundary layer B
C Keep the speed the same until landing
D Decrease the landing speed to stick shaker
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question In accordance with Aerodrome Operating Minima, an operator must ensure that system minima for non-precision
approach procedures, which are based upon the use of ILS without glide path (LLZ only), VOR NDB, SRA, and
Choices VDF are no lower than MDH following value with:
Answers Correct
A NDB facility, lowest MDH = 300 ft A
B ILS facility without glide path (localiser) lowest MDH = 200 ft
C VOR facility, lowest MDH = 250 ft
D VOR/DME facility, lowest MDH = 300 ft
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question a co-pilot is not assigned to operate at the flight controls during take-off and landing unless:

Choices Answers Correct

A he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command or as a co- pilot at the controls
of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
B he has operated as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at the controls during take-off and landing B
of the type to be used in the preceding 90 days
C he has carried out as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at least three take-off and three landings
in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding 90 days
D he has carried out as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at least three take-off and three
landings in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding 30
days
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question The minimum crew for all turbo propeller aeroplanes is 2 when:

Choices Answers Correct

A There are 9 or more passengers carried
B The seating configuration is more than 9 B
C The seating configuration is more than 19
D There are more than 19 passengers carried
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question a transport aircraft carrying passengers with a door to the flight deck must:

Choices Answers Correct

A Have distinctive red or yellow access marks in case of blockage
B Have a pressure seal to maintain pressure in event of cabin pressure loss
C Be lockable from the inside to prevent unauthorised access C
D Be lockable from the outside
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Aeroplanes with a take-off mass greater than 5.700 kg shall be fitted with an independent automatically
operated emergency power supply to operate and illuminate the artificial horizon for:
Choices Answers Correct
A 15 mins
B 30 mins B
C 60 mins
D 2 hours
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question An aeroplane door would be rendered inoperative for the following
unserviceabilities:
Choices
1. External opening mechanism
2. Internal opening mechanism
3. The emergency lighting
4. Doors hold open device
5. The door open assist device
6. Slide unserviceable

Answers Correct
A all of the above A
B 1, 2, 5, 6
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question An aeroplane door would be rendered inoperative for the following
unserviceabilities:

1. External opening mechanism

2. Internal opening mechanism
3. The emergency lighting
4. Doors hold open device
5. The door open assist device
6. Slide unserviceable

C 2, 3, 4 , 6
D 1, 2, 3, 4
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question If there is unauthorised use of equipment that affects the aeroplane's system, the commander:

Choices Answers Correct

A may authorise its use for take-off and landing
B must not authorise its use B
C may authorise its use for the whole flight
D may authorise its use at his discretion
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied
to:
Choices Answers Correct
A MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft A
B MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel
runway separated by less than 760 m
C LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway
D LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question in an aeroplane with a maximum configuration of more than 19 passengers, the door between the passenger
compartment and the flight deck compartment shall have locking means:
Choices Answers Correct
A capable of being locked only from outside the flight deck compartment
B to prevent passengers from opening it without permission of a member of the flight crew B
C capable of being remotely locked by cabin crew from outside the flight deck compartment
D capable of being remotely locked from either inside or outside the flight deck compartment
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question a public address system is required to operate an aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating
configuration of more than:
Choices Answers Correct
A 61
B 30
C 9
D 19 D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question a windshield wiper or equivalent means to maintain a clear portion of the windshield during precipitation
is required at each pilot station to operate an aeroplane with a:
Choices Answers Correct
A maximum approved passenger configuration of more than 6 seats
B maximum certificated take-off mass of more than 15000 kg
C maximum approved passenger configuration of more than 9 seats
D maximum certificated take-off mass of more than 5700 kg D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 10 seats must be equipped with:

Choices Answers Correct

A two hand fire-extinguishers on the flight deck and two hand fire- extinguishers in the passenger
compartment
B one hand fire-extinguisher on the flight deck and two hand fire- extinguishers in the passenger
compartment
C three hand fire-extinguishers in the passenger compartment
D one hand fire-extinguisher on the flight deck and one hand fire- extinguisher in the passenger D
compartment
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 200 must be equipped with:

Choices Answers Correct

A 4 hand fire extinguishers in the passenger compartment
B 5 hand fire extinguishers in the passenger compartment
C 7 hand fire extinguishers in the passenger compartment
D 3 hand fire extinguishers in the passenger compartment D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question an operator shall not operate across areas in which
search and rescue would be especially difficult, unless it is equipped with:
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question an operator shall not operate across areas in which
search and rescue would be especially difficult, unless it is equipped with:
Choices
1. signalling equipment
2. at least one ELT
3. at least 2 ELTs
4. additional survival equipment

Answers Correct
A 1, 3, 4
B 1, 2, 4 B
C 1, 4
D 2, 4
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question for aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, flight data recorders shall be
capable of retaining the data recorded during at least the last:
Choices Answers Correct
A 30 hours of operation
B 25 hours of operation B
C 25 flights
D 10 flights
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question the minimum number of crash axes or crowbars on board an aeroplane, whose maximum approved passenger
seating configuration is more than 200, is:
Choices Answers Correct
A 4
B 1
C 3
D 2 D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question the recent experience conditions of a commander assigned to a flight on an aeroplane by an operator must
not be less than:
Choices Answers Correct
A 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aeroplane or approved simulator, A
of the aeroplane type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
B 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aeroplane or approved simulator,
of the aeroplane type to be used
C 6 take-offs and 6 landings during the last 6 months
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question the recent experience conditions of a commander assigned to a flight on an aeroplane by an operator must
not be less than:
D 3 take-offs and 3 landings on this type of aeroplane during the last 6 months
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied:

Choices Answers Correct

A to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a runway
with a displaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross
B to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a runway
with a displaced landing threshold
C to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel C
runway separated by less than 760m
D Between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT aircraft
utilising an opposite-direction runway for take-off
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question An aeroplane which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, shall be equipped with a cockpit
voice recorder capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last:
Choices Answers Correct
D 30 minutes or 1 hour of its operation, certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, shall be
equipped with a cockpit voice recorder capable of retaining information recorded during at least
the last:
D 30 minutes or 2 hours of its operation, depending upon the date of the first issue of its D
individual Certificate of Airworthiness
D 20 hours of its operation
D 25 hours of its operation
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Assuming 60 passengers on board a land aeroplane. The intended track will overfly water for a distance of
80 NM from the shore. the minimum number of passenger life jackets to be on board is:
Choices Answers Correct
A 0
B 66
C 60 C
D None if equipped with life rafts
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Assuming a multi-engine land aeroplane with 60 persons on board. The cruising speed is 180 kt. The
aeroplane is capable of continuing the flight with the critical power-unit becoming inoperative. The track
Choices will overfly water for a distance of 380 NM from shore. The emergency equipment on board must include:
Answers Correct
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question Assuming a multi-engine land aeroplane with 60 persons on board. The cruising speed is 180 kt. The
aeroplane is capable of continuing the flight with the critical power-unit becoming inoperative. The track
will overfly water for a distance of 380 NM from shore. The emergency equipment on board must include:
A 1 lift raft of 30-seat capacity and 2 life rafts of 20-seat capacity
B 2 life rafts of 30-seat capacity
C 3 life rafts of 30-seat capacity C
D none, distance being less than 400 NM
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question For a given aeroplane, the wake turbulence increases when the aeroplane has a:

Choices Answers Correct

A low mass and high airspeed
B high mass and high airspeed
C low mass and low airspeed
D high mass and low airspeed D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question For two-engined aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-ioff alternate, if required, shall be located
(in still air conditions) within:
Choices Answers Correct
A two hours flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating
B two hours flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed
C one hour flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating
D one hour flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question If no meteorological information is available for the destination, the operator must:

Choices Answers Correct

A not take-off until obtaining destination meteorological forecast
B take extra fuel to fly two hours at holding speed
C take extra fuel to fly one hour at holding speed, 1500 ft above the alternate aerodrome
D select two destination alternates D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question In an aeroplane, each crew member shall be properly secured by all safety
belts and harnesses provided
Choices
1. during taxiing
2. during take-off
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question In an aeroplane, each crew member shall be properly secured by all safety
belts and harnesses provided

1. during taxiing
2. during take-off
3. during landing
4. whenever deemed necessary by the commander in the interest of safety
5. during other phases of flight

Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 3, 4
B 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
C 2, 3, 4 C
D 2, 3, 4, 5
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question In accordance with Aerodrome Operating Minima for a Category III A approach, the RVR shall not be less than:

Choices Answers Correct

A 200 m A
B 250 m
C 230 m
D 300 m
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question the operator shall ensure that:

Choices Answers Correct

A for VFR flights conducted in class E airspace, flight visibility at and above 3050m (10000 ft)
is at least 5 km (clear of cloud)
B for VFR flights conducted in class B airspace, horizontal distance from clouds is at least 1000m
C for VFR flights conducted in class F airspace, vertical distance from clouds is at least 250m
D special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 60 seats must be
equipped (including flight deck) with at least:
Choices Answers Correct
A 4 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers or equivalent
B 2 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers or equivalent
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 60 seats must be
equipped (including flight deck) with at least:
C 3 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers or equivalent C
D 1 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers or equivalent
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 600 seats must be
equipped with at least:
Choices Answers Correct
A 7 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment
B 9 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment
C 8 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment C
D 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question an aeroplane whose maximum take-off mass exceeds 5,700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger seating
configuration is greater than 9 seats and less than 200 seats must be equipped with a:
Choices Answers Correct
A crash axe on the flight deck and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment
B crash axe and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment
C crash axe or a crow-bar on the flight deck C
D crow-bar on the flight deck and a crash axe in the passenger compartment
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question an aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 61 seats, must have in its
passenger compartment(s), at least 3 hand fire-extinguishers including:
Choices Answers Correct
A 2 Halon fire-extinguishers or equivalent A
B 1 Halon fire-extinguisher or equivalent
C 3 Halon fire-extinguishers or equivalent
D no Halon fire-extinguisher
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question for a pressurised aeroplane, certificated to fly at altitudes more than 25000 ft, all occupants of flight
deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in no case less
Choices than:
Answers Correct
A 1 hour
B 30 minutes
C 2 hours C
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question for a pressurised aeroplane, certificated to fly at altitudes more than 25000 ft, all occupants of flight
deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in no case less
than:
D 10 minutes
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question for aeroplanes intended to be operated at pressure altitude of 39000 ft, the total number of oxygen
dispensing units and outlets shall exceed:
Choices Answers Correct
A the number of seats by at least 10% A
B the number of seats
C the number of passengers
D the number of passengers by at least 10%
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question if the flight is to be carried out at FL 290, demonstration about oxygen equipment must be completed
before:
Choices Answers Correct
A the aircraft reaches FL 100
B take-off B
C the aircraft reaches FL 140
D the aircraft reaches FL 250
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question in an aeroplane in which fuses are used, the number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be at
least:
Choices Answers Correct
A 5% of the number of fuses of each rating or 1 of each rating, whichever is the greater
B 10% of the number of fuses of each rating or 3 of each rating, whichever is the greater B
C 10% of the number of fuses of each rating or 1 of each rating, whichever is the greater
D 20% of the number of fuses of each rating or 2 of each rating, whichever is the greater
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question on aeroplanes intended to be operated at pressure altitude above 25000 ft, the total number of oxygen
dispensing units shall exceed the number of:
Choices Answers Correct
A seats by 2%
B passengers by 10%
C seats by 10% C
D passengers by 2%
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question on aeroplanes intended to be operated at pressure altitude above 25000 ft, the total number of oxygen
dispensing units shall exceed the number of:
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question regarding the first aid oxygen, the supply of undiluted oxygen carried on board a pressurised aeroplane
with 8 passengers operated at pressure altitude 27000 ft, shall be sufficient for at least:
Choices Answers Correct
A 1 passenger for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin altitude A
exceeds 8000 ft
B 2 passengers for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin
altitude exceeds 8000 ft
C 1 passenger for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin altitude
only exceeds 14000 ft
D 2 passengers for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin
altitude only exceeds 14000 ft
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question the cockpit voice recorder, when required, must start to record automatically:

Choices Answers Correct

A prior to the aeroplane moving under its own power until the termination of flight when the
parking brake is set
B when the parking brake is released until the termination of flight when the parking brake is set
C when full thrust is applied until the termination of the flight when the aeroplane is no longer
capable of moving under its own power
D prior to the aeroplane moving under its own power until the termination of the flight when the D
aeroplane is no longer capable of moving under its own power
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a final reserve fuel for:

Choices Answers Correct

A 45 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard
conditions
B 30 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard B
conditions
C 30 minutes of flight at cruising speed at FL 140
D 45 minutes of flight at cruising speed at FL 140
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question the purpose of the first aid oxygen is to:

Choices Answers Correct

OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question the purpose of the first aid oxygen is to:

A supply all the passengers in case of depressurisation

B provide the cabin attendants with respiratory protection
C provide undiluted oxygen to passengers for physiological reasons following a cabin C
depressurisation
D provide the flight crew with respiratory assistance after depressurisation
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question refuelling performed while passengers are embarking or disembarking the aircraft:

Choices Answers Correct

A is acceptable provided that all the aircraft doors must be completely opened
B is acceptable provided that the ground area beneath the exits intended for emergency evacuation B
and slide deployment areas must be kept clear
C is prohibited
D is acceptable provided that all flight crew shall remain at their station
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question In accordance with the fuel policy for isolated aerodromes, for aeroplanes with turbine engines, the amount
of Additional Fuel should not be less than the fuel to fly after arriving overhead the destination aerodrome
Choices for:
Answers Correct
A 2 hours at normal cruise consumption, including final reserve fuel A
B 30 minutes at normal cruise consumption, including final reserve fuel
C 2 hours at holding consumption at 1500 ft (450m) above aerodrome elevation in standard
conditions
D 30 minutes at holding consumption at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard
conditions
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question a single deck aeroplane, equipped with an approved seating capacity of 61 seats and carrying passengers,
must be equipped with at least:
Choices Answers Correct
A 1 megaphone A
B 2 megaphones
C 2 megaphones if there are more than 31 passengers on board
D 3 megaphones
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question a co-pilot does not serve at the flight controls during take-off and landing unless:
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question a co-pilot does not serve at the flight controls during take-off and landing unless:

Choices Answers Correct

A he has operated the controls as a pilot for three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane in the
preceding 60 days
B he has operated the controls as a pilot for three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane of the
same type/class or in a flight simulator of the aeroplane type to be used in the preceding 60
days
C he has operated the controls as a pilot for three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane in the
preceding 90 days
D he has operated the controls as a pilot for three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane of the D
same type/class or in a flight simulator of the aeroplane type to be used in the preceding 90
days
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question When requested by an Authority to produce the aircraft documentation required to be carried on board, the
commander:
Choices Answers Correct
A can request a delay of 48 hours
B shall comply within a reasonable period of time B
C can refuse to present them
D shall only comply if authorised by the operator
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Without ETOPS Approval, an operator shall not operate a two-engined Class A aeroplane with a maximum
approved passenger seating configuration of 20 or more over a route which contains a point further from an
Choices adequate aerodrome, at a distance flown:
Answers Correct
A in 60 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed A
B in 30 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed
C in 90 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed
D in 120 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question What is the minimum capacity of life rafts that must be provided for passengers in the event of the
aeroplane ditching?
Choices Answers Correct
A Enough for 10%
B Enough for 30%
C To cover the loss of 2 life rafts
D To cover the loss of a life raft of the greatest capacity D
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question What is the minimum capacity of life rafts that must be provided for passengers in the event of the
aeroplane ditching?
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question An aeroplane has a max approved seating configuration of 61 to 200. How many hand held fire extinguishers
are required to be carried?
Choices Answers Correct
A One on the flight deck and two in the passenger cabin
B One on the flight deck and four in the passenger cabin
C three in the passenger cabin only
D One on the flight deck and three in the passenger cabin D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question If you have an aeroplane with 201 seats, how many crowbars/fire axes have to be on the aeroplane?

Choices Answers Correct

A 1
B 4
C 2 C
D 3
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question For a light aircraft following a medium what is the minimum time for wake turbulence separation (assuming
take-off from the same point)?
Choices Answers Correct
A 3 min
B 2 min B
C 1 min
D 5 min
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question The radar separation between a medium aeroplane followed by a light aeroplane departing from or arriving on
the same, or parallel runway less than 760 m apart is:
Choices Answers Correct
A 4 nm
B 3 nm
C 5 nm C
D 2 nm
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question Aeroplanes having a maximum approved seating capacity between 61 200 passengers will require the following
number of megaphones on the passenger deck:
Choices Answers Correct
A 0
B 2
C 1 C
D 5
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question An aeroplane with a seating capacity of 180 has a total of 47 passengers on board. According to JAR OPS the
required amount of First Aid Oxygen is:
Choices Answers Correct
A Enough for 3 passengers for the duration of flight following a depressurisation when the cabin
altitude is between 10,000 ft and 14,000 ft
B Sufficient for one passenger when the cabin altitude exceeds 8,000 ft but does not exceed 15,000 B
ft for the remainder of the flight following a depressurisation
C Sufficient for one passenger for the duration of the flight above 8,000 ft cabin altitude
D None required
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question The number of emergency exits must be:

Choices Answers Correct

A Dependent on aeroplane capacity
B Enough to evacuate the passengers in 90 sec. with 50% of the emergency exits unavailable B
C chosen by the operator
D Enough to evacuate the passengers in 120 sec with 50% of the emergency exits unavailable
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question In a 4 engined jet transport aircraft, in order to gain the optimum performance, a cruise climb technique is
sometimes applied. This normally involves flying the aircraft at:
Choices Answers Correct
A levels above the optimum altitude
B the service ceiling
C levels below the optimum altitude
D about the optimum altitude D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question When a third pilot is carried on a public transport flight as cruise pilot the first officer must hold
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question When a third pilot is carried on a public transport flight as cruise pilot the first officer must hold

Choices Answers Correct

A a CPL
B a CPL with theoretical exams passed at ATPL level
C an ATPL C
D an ATPL and be certificated as Captain on type
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question How many hand held fire extinguishers must be located in the passenger cabin of an aircraft with a passenger
seating configuration of 375?
Choices Answers Correct
A 4
B 5 B
C 6
D 7
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question An aircraft with a certificated MTOM of 232,000 kg and certificated to carry 350 passengers requires
1.one crash axe or crowbar on the flight deck
Choices 2.one crash axe or crowbar in the rear galley area
3.one crash axe or crowbar in the mid galley area
Answers Correct
A (ii) only
B (i) only
C (i) and (ii) C
D (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question At take-off the maximum mass of the aeroplane shall be:

Choices Answers Correct

A not more than the basic empty mass plus the payload
B not more than the maximum landing mass
C equal to or less than that at which the take-off run can be completed under ISA conditions and
nil headwind
D not more than that which would enable compliance with any noise abatement procedure D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Aeroplanes that fly at night are required to be lit. The starboard navigation light is required to be:
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question Aeroplanes that fly at night are required to be lit. The starboard navigation light is required to be:

Choices Answers Correct

A green and visible through 140o from dead ahead
B green and visible through 110o from dead ahead B
C red and visible through 140o from dead ahead
D red and visible through 110o from dead ahead
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question The recent experience conditions of a commander assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an operator must not
be less than:
Choices Answers Correct
A 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aircraft or approved simulator
B 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aircraft or approved simulator in B
the preceding 90 days
C 3 take-offs and 3 landings on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months
D 6 take-offs and 6 landings during the last 6 months
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the:

Choices Answers Correct

A journey logbook
B flight manual
C operation manual C
D operational flight plan
Ref CPL A AND H
Question During a flight, the chief steward informs the crew that a passenger is using a portable device suspected to
disturb the aircraft electronic systems. The captain:
Choices Answers Correct
A authorises its use during the whole flight phase
B authorises its use except during take-off and landing phases
C must not authorise any person to use such a device on board C
D may authorise the use of this device, as an exception
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of eight occupants (including pilot). The pilot has
a passenger load of six adults and two children (5 and 6 years old). The boarding of all passengers is:
Choices Answers Correct
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of eight occupants (including pilot). The pilot has
a passenger load of six adults and two children (5 and 6 years old). The boarding of all passengers is:
A authorised, providing both children are sitting on the same seat, using the same seat belt with
an adult sitting on the seat next to them, in order to release their seat belt if necessary
B authorised, providing both children are sitting on the same seat and using the same seat belt.
No other particular precautions are necessary
C forbidden C
D authorised, providing both children are of a similar stature, sitting on the same seat and using
the same seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat next to them in order to release their seat
belt
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Supplemental oxygen is used to:

Choices Answers Correct

A provide people on board with oxygen during a cabin depressurisation A
B protect a crew who fights a fire
C provide with oxygen passengers who might require it, following a cabin depressurisation
D assist a passenger with breathing disorders
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a non-precision approach procedure which is based upon the
use of an ILS (glide slope out) is not lower than:
Choices Answers Correct
A 150 ft
B 200 ft
C 250 ft C
D 300 ft
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The NO SMOKING sign must be illuminated:

Choices Answers Correct

A when oxygen is being supplied in the cabin A
B during climb and descent
C in each cabin section if oxygen is being carried
D during take-off and landing
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of
information. The operator will see that this file is kept on ground. It contains
more particularly:
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of
information. The operator will see that this file is kept on ground. It contains
Choices more particularly:

1. The weather conditions for the day including the weather forecast at destination
2. One copy of the operational flight plan and, if required, the weight and balance sheet
3. Copies of the relevant parts of the aircrafts material report
4. The en-route NOTAM documentation when specifically issued by the operator
5. Notification for special loadings
6. For each flight, details of the days performances and limitations with completed charts

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Answers Correct
A 2, 3, 4, 5 A
B 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
C 1, 3, 5
D 2, 4
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if required:

Choices Answers Correct

A a copy of the weight and balance sheet A
B a copy of the calculated take-off performances
C the calculation of the airborne fuel quantity
D the aircraft equipment report (log book)
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is a dry lease?

Choices Answers Correct

A Where the person leasing the aeroplane is responsible fuel etc
B Where the aeroplane is operated under the AOC of the person to whom it is leased B
C Where the aeroplane is operated under the AOC of the person from who it is leased
D Where the leased aeroplane comes complete with flight crew
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The captain is asked by the authority to present the documents of the airplane. He:
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question The captain is asked by the authority to present the documents of the airplane. He:

Choices Answers Correct

A can request a delay of 48 hours
B must do so, within a reasonable period of time B
C can refuse to present them
D can only do so after having consulted the operator
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The file kept by an employer on its flight crews records:

Choices 1. the training

2. the test results
3. a log of flying hours
4. a summary of the training by reference period

Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct answers?

Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 3, 4 A
B 1, 2, 3
C 2, 3
D 3, 4
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the requirement for the issue of an AOC?

Choices Answers Correct

A Not already hold an AOC issued by another authority A
B Have a fleet of serviceable aeroplanes
C Have registered offices in all countries of operations
D Have facilities for all maintenance
Ref CPL A AND H
Question During a night flight, an observer on the flight deck first sees an aircraft coming in from the front right.
The light observed would be a:
Choices Answers Correct
A Steady green light
B Steady white light
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question During a night flight, an observer on the flight deck first sees an aircraft coming in from the front right.
The light observed would be a:
C Flashing green light
D Steady red light D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Which of the following are the duties of a Flight Dispatch Officer?

Choices (i) Assist the pilot-in-command in flight preparation and provide the relevant information required
(ii) Assist the pilot-in-command in preparing the operational and ATS flight plans, sign when applicable and
file the ATS flight plan with the appropriate ATS unit
(iii) Furnish the pilot-in-command while in flight, by appropriate means, with information, which may be
necessary for the safe conduct of the flight
(iv) In the event of an emergency, initiate such procedures as may be outlined in the operations manual

Answers Correct
A (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
B (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
C (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
D All statements are correct D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The period of validity of an operator proficiency check is:

Choices Answers Correct

A 6 months A
B 12 months
C 18 months
D 2 years
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Damp lease is:

Choices Answers Correct

A One operator leases out, or in, just the aeroplane no crew is involved
B The aeroplane and a full crew
C The lessor provides the aeroplane plus cockpit crew and the lessee provides the cabin crew C
D None of the above
Ref CPL A AND H
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question DH is used in a:

Choices Answers Correct

A Non precision approach
B Precision approach B
C Un-centred approach
D Centred approach
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What must be ensured with respect to navigation equipment?

Choices Answers Correct

A The failure of one piece does not affect another A
B All navigation equipment must be serviceable at the start of flight
C All equipment must conform to ICAO specifications
D if one piece of equipment fails there must be a spare available
Ref CPL A AND H
Question During a flight, the captain is informed that a passenger is using a portable electronic device, which is
adversely affecting the aircraft's electrical avionics. The captain must:
Choices Answers Correct
A Stop the passenger from using the device A
B Allow the device to be used at take-off and landing
C Allow the device to be used from take-off to landing
D Allow the device to be used for certain exceptions
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Following an electrical failure, the emergency lighting unit must provide illumination for:

Choices Answers Correct

A 90 secs
B 5 mins
C 10 mins C
D 30 mins
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking:

Choices Answers Correct

A Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking/disembarking
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking:

B All flight crew must be on board

C Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board C
D The stairs shall be fully extended
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When are flight crew allowed to leave their stations?

Choices Answers Correct

A In the performance of their duties A
B At any time specified by the operations manual
C When having lunch
D Only when the captain allows it
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The term decision height (DH) is used for:

Choices Answers Correct

A an indirect approach
B a conventional approach followed by a visual manoeuvre
C a precision approach C
D a conventional approach
Ref CPL A AND H
Question During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front left,
will first see the:
Choices Answers Correct
A white steady light
B green flashing light
C green steady light C
D red steady light
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An operator must ensure that, for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground a copy of the:

Choices Answers Correct

A operation flight plan A
B ATC (Traffic Control) flight plan
C flight plan processing
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question An operator must ensure that, for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground a copy of the:

D flight route sheet

Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is conversion angle?

Choices Answers Correct

A Ch long x sin lat.
B Ch long x ½ cos lat.
C Ch long x ½ sin lat.
D Ch long x cos lat D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question With reference to the retention of documents how long must command course records be kept by the operator:

Choices Answers Correct

A 3 months
B 15 months
C 24 months
D 3 years D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the co-pilot currency requirement?

Choices Answers Correct

A 3 flights in the last 90 days
B 3 take-offs and landings in the last 60 days
C At the controls for 3 flights in the last 60 days
D At the controls for 3 take-offs and landings in the last 90 days D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A pilot is not able to operate as pilot-in-command unless:

Choices Answers Correct

A He has completed 3 take-offs and landings in any aircraft or approved simulator within the
previous 60 days
B He has completed 3 flights as pilot-in-command in an aeroplane or approved simulator of the type
to be used in the previous 90 days
C He has completed 3 flights as pilot in an aeroplane or simulator of the same type to be used
within the previous 30 days
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question A pilot is not able to operate as pilot-in-command unless:

D He has completed 3 take-offs and landings in an aeroplane or approved simulator of the same type D
to be used within the previous 90 days
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Regarding the FDR and CVR, which of the following statements is true:

Choices Answers Correct

A All commercial aircraft above 15.000 kg have to carry both a FDR and CVR
B The CVR monitors all human voice exchanges on the flight deck throughout the flight keeping the B
last 30 minutes as a hard copy
C A FDR shall be capable of retaining recorded information for at least the last 24 hours of
operation
D A Type 1 recorder retains information recorded during the last 30 minutes of operation
Ref CPL A AND H
Question After an incident, the FDR recordings must be kept for:

Choices Answers Correct

A 30 days
B 60 days B
C 90 days
D 120 days
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What allows a pilot to act as co-pilot for take-off and landing?

Choices Answers Correct

A Performed a flight in the previous 90 days
B Operated as PIC or as co-pilot at the controls for a take-off and landing in the previous 90 B
days
C Performed at least 3 landings and take-offs in the previous 90 days
D Performed at least 9 landings and take-offs in the previous 90 days
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least the last:

Choices Answers Correct

A 48 hours of operation
B 25 hours of operation B
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least the last:

C flight
D 30 hours of operation
Ref CPL A AND H
Question at least one of the following hand fire extinguishers must be conveniently located on the flight deck:

Choices Answers Correct

A a foam fire-extinguisher
B a water fire-extinguisher
C a powder fire-extinguisher
D a halon fire-extinguisher or equivalent D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question for a non-pressurised aircraft, 100% of passengers shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:

Choices Answers Correct

A the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft
B the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft B
C the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10000 ft but not
exceeding 13000 ft
D the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft and for any period exceeding 30
minutes at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft
Ref CPL A AND H
Question for a non pressurised aircraft, all required cabin crew members shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen
during:
Choices Answers Correct
A the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft and for any period exceeding 30 A
minutes at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft
B the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft
C the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft
D the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10000 ft but not
exceeding 13000 ft
Ref CPL A AND H
Question for a non pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is:

Choices Answers Correct

A therapeutical oxygen specially carried for certain passengers
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question for a non pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is:

B available for supply to passengers for physiological reasons

C used for protection against smoke and carbon dioxide
D required to operate at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question when a flight data recorder is required, it must start automatically to record the data:

Choices Answers Correct

A when lining up
B when taking-off
C when the landing gear is retracted
D prior to the aircraft being capable of moving under its own power D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An operator shall ensure that for the duration of each flight or series of flights, relevant information is
preserved on the ground. This includes:
Choices Answers Correct
A a coy of the calculated take-off performance
B mass and balance documentation, if required B
C the calculation of the airborne fuel quantity
D meteorological information
Ref CPL A AND H
Question During an ILS procedure, if the reported RVR/visibility is less than the applicable minima, the approach
shall not be continued beyond:
Choices Answers Correct
A the glide slope intersection
B the FAF, or 1500 ft above the aerodrome/heliport if there is no FAF
C the middle marker, or 500 ft above the aerodrome/heliport if thereis no middle marker
D the outer marker or equivalent, or 1000 ft above the aerodrome/heliport if there is no outer D
marker or equivalent
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Following an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original
recordings for a minimum period of:
Choices Answers Correct
A 60 days A
B 30 days
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question Following an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original
recordings for a minimum period of:
C 90 days
D 45 days
Ref CPL A AND H
Question For three and four-engined aeroplanes, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air
conditions) within:
Choices Answers Correct
A 2 hours flight time at one-engine-inoperative cruising speed A
B 2 hours flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating
C 1 hour flight time at one-engine-inoperative cruising speed
D 1 hour flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating
Ref CPL A AND H
Question where no outer marker or equivalent position exists, if the reported RVR/Visibility is less than the
applicable minima, the approach shall not be continued beyond:
Choices Answers Correct
A 1000 ft above the aerodrome/heliport A
B the FAF
C the middle marker
D the glide slope intersection
Ref CPL A AND H
Question 10% of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the
entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than:
Choices Answers Correct
A 10,000 ft but not exceeding 15,000 ft
B 14,000 ft but not exceeding 15,000 ft
C 10,000 ft but not exceeding 13,000 ft C
D 10,000 ft but not exceeding 14,000 ft
Ref CPL A AND H
Question 100% of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the
entire flight time at pressure altitudes above:
Choices Answers Correct
A 14,000 ft
B 10,000 ft
C 13,000 ft C
D 15,000 ft
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question 100% of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the
entire flight time at pressure altitudes above:
Ref CPL A AND H
Question a commander shall ensure that the amount of usable fuel remaining in flight is not less than the fuel
required to proceed to an aerodrome where a safe landing can be made with:
Choices Answers Correct
A fuel to fly 20 minutes at best range speed
B 15 minutes of remaining fuel
C fuel to hold 30 minutes at 1500 ft above the aerodrome
D final reserve fuel remaining D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with
supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above:
Choices Answers Correct
A 15,000 ft
B 10,000 ft B
C 13,000 ft
D 14,000 ft
Ref CPL A AND H
Question an operator shall ensure that a copy of the operational flight plan is stored in an acceptable form for at
least:
Choices Answers Correct
A 12 months
B 3 months B
C 15 months
D 24 months
Ref CPL A AND H
Question during a VOR procedure, if the reported RVR/visibility is less than the applicable minima, the approach
shall not be continued beyond:
Choices Answers Correct
A the middle marker, or 500 ft above the aerodrome/heliport if there is no middle marker
B the FAF, or 1500 ft above the aerodrome/heliport if there is no FAF
C 1000 ft above the aerodrome/heliport on the final approach segment C
D the final path intersection
Ref CPL A AND H
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question for a non pressurised aircraft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied
with supplemental oxygen during:
Choices Answers Correct
A the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft and for any period exceeding 30
minutes at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft
B the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft
C the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft C
D the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10000 ft but not
exceeding 13000 ft
Ref CPL A AND H
Question on board a non-pressurised aircraft, 10% of the passengers shall be supplied with oxygen throughout the
entire flight time, after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than:
Choices Answers Correct
A 10,000 ft but not exceeding 13,000 ft A
B 10,000 ft but not exceeding 12,000 ft
C 11,000 ft but not exceeding 13,000 ft
D 11,000 ft but not exceeding 12,000 ft
Ref CPL A AND H
Question on board a non-pressurised aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the
flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
Choices Answers Correct
A 13,000 ft A
B 12,000 ft
C 11,000 ft
D 10,000 ft
Ref CPL A AND H
Question the operator must ensure that the information contained in the aircraft technical log is stored for a
minimum period of:
Choices Answers Correct
A 15 months
B 3 months
C 24 months C
D 12 months
Ref CPL A AND H
Question the operator must ensure that the mass and balance documentation of a flight is stored for a minimum period
of:
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question the operator must ensure that the mass and balance documentation of a flight is stored for a minimum period
of:
Choices Answers Correct
A 1 month
B 3 months B
C 6 months
D 1 year
Ref CPL A AND H
Question when the flight data recorder is required, it must stop automatically to record the data:

Choices Answers Correct

A when the main gear shock strut compresses when touching the runway
B after the aircraft is unable to move by its own power B
C when the landing gear is extended and locked
D when the aircraft clears the runway
Ref CPL A AND H
Question which of the following are included in the Aerodrome Operating Minima for a non-precision approach?
1.the required RVR
Choices 2.the ceiling
3.the minimum descent height (MDH)
4.the decision height (DH)
Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 4
B 1, 4
C 1, 2, 3
D 1, 3 D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is:

Choices Answers Correct

A 90 NM between aircraft flying above FL 285
B 60 NM between all aircraft operating below MNPS airspace
C 60 NM between aircraft meeting minimum navigation performance specifications C
D 90 NM between all aircraft flying in the NAT region
Ref CPL A AND H
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question Who is responsible for providing an Operation Manual for the use and guidance of the operations personnel?

Choices Answers Correct

A The owner of the aircraft
B The aircraft producer
C The aircraft operator C
D The national authority
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Who must finally determine that the load and its distribution is such that the mass and balance limits of
the aircraft are not exceeded and confirm their acceptance by countersigning the mass and balance
Choices documentation?
Answers Correct
A The commander A
B The operator
C The flight engineer
D The airline's dispatcher
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When are life jackets required?

Choices Answers Correct

A 50 nm from land A
B 100 nm from land
C 300 nm from land
D 400 nm from land
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the requirement for the carriage of life rafts?

Choices Answers Correct

A 30 mins or 120 nm whichever is less
B 50 nm from land
C 120 mins or 400 nm whichever is less C
D 60 mins flying time at the one engine out cruise speed
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A copy of what info is to be left on the ground?

Choices Answers Correct

OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question A copy of what info is to be left on the ground?

A Passenger manifests, notification of special passengers

B Route specific maps and charts
C NOTAMS, Tech log, Op flight plan, Mass and Balance, Spec load notification C
D AICs, AISs, and all company NOTAMs
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Which of the following is to be left on the ground?

Choices Answers Correct

A The aeroplane noise certificate
B The operations manual
C Parts of the operations manual relevant to the flight
D Operational flight plan D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What are the rules on the carriage of PRMs?

Choices Answers Correct

A Cannot impede the performance of crew duty A
B Must be seated away from emergency exits
C No more than 5% of passengers may be PRMs
D They must provide their own food
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A VFR aircraft used for flight in controlled airspace should have:

Choices Answers Correct

A Bearing indicator, accurate barometric altimeter
B Equipment necessary for VFR flight B
C One VOR, ADF, DME and ILS
D 2 radios and an SSR transponder
Ref CPL A AND H
Question How many fire extinguishers are required in the cabin for a maximum seating capacity of 31 pax?

Choices Answers Correct

A 1
B 2 B
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question How many fire extinguishers are required in the cabin for a maximum seating capacity of 31 pax?

C 3
D 4
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When does a pilot start to physically become affected due to lack of oxygen, above what level?

Choices Answers Correct

A 8,000 ft
B 14,000 ft
C 24,000 ft
D 6,000 ft D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum non-radar separation time if a light
aeroplane ( 700 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on
Choices the approach to landing?
Answers Correct
A 3 minutes A
B 2 minutes
C 4 minutes
D 5 minutes
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Time for separation for wake turbulence for a light behind a medium

Choices Answers Correct

A 3 min for landing A
B 3 min for departure
C 2 min if departing from an intersection
D 3 min if approaching in the opposite direction
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When is it compulsory to carry life jackets for each person on board?
1.Flight over water and at a distance of more than 50 nm from shore
Choices 2.Cruising speed unable to reach shore with one engine inoperative
3.flight over water more than 100 nm from shore
4.Where a hazard exists during take-off or landing or ditching
Answers Correct
A 1, 4 A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question When is it compulsory to carry life jackets for each person on board?
1.Flight over water and at a distance of more than 50 nm from shore
2.Cruising speed unable to reach shore with one engine inoperative
3.flight over water more than 100 nm from shore
4.Where a hazard exists during take-off or landing or ditching
B 2, 3
C 3, 4
D 1, 2, 3, 4
Ref CPL A AND H
Question With reference to the retention of documents how long must journey logs be kept by the operator:

Choices Answers Correct

A 3 months A
B 12 months
C 15 months
D 24 months
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The period of validity of a line check is:

Choices Answers Correct

A 6 months
B 12 months B
C 18 months
D 2 years
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Which of the following statements is true?

Choices Answers Correct

A OCH is referenced to aerodrome elevation
B OCA is referenced to threshold elevation
C OCH is referenced to threshold elevation C
D Both OCA and OCH are referenced to aerodrome elevation
Ref CPL A AND H
Question All flight crew members are to be at their duty stations:

Choices Answers Correct

OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question All flight crew members are to be at their duty stations:

A during take-off and landing

B in an emergency
C in turbulence
D unless absence is necessary to satisfy physiological needs D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Is refuelling permissible when passengers are on board, embarking or disembarking?

Choices Answers Correct

A It is permissible
B It is permissible when relevant precautions are taken except when using AVGAS or wide-cut fuels B
C It is not permissible except when using wide cut fuels or AVGAS
D It is permissible only as long as the passengers remain on board
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When must wake turbulence be considered?

Choices Answers Correct

A High rate roll manoeuvres over the runway
B A heave category landing with full lift enhancing devices employed B
C A heavy landing in a strong crosswind
D A high landing in a light crosswind
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the dispersal time for wake turbulence from a wide-bodied aircraft?

Choices Answers Correct

A 30 secs
B 1 nm
C 3 mins C
D 10 mins
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The wake turbulence category HEAVY applies to aircraft with a max certificated all up mass in pounds in
excess of:
Choices Answers Correct
A 299,200 A
B 275,000
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question The wake turbulence category HEAVY applies to aircraft with a max certificated all up mass in pounds in
excess of:
C 136,000
D 125,000
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When a potentially hazardous condition is encountered in flight:

Choices Answers Correct

A the appropriate ground station must be notified as soon as practicable A
B other aircraft should be informed without delay
C the operator must be notified within two hours of landing
D the Authority must be notified within ten days
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Which of the following combinations of statements describes what is recorded by a cockpit voice recorder?
1.Radio communications transmitted from the aircraft
Choices 2.Speech on the flight deck
3.Communications through the intercom
4.Navigation aid identification heard through headphones
5.PA messages
Answers Correct
A All of the above A
B All except (iv)
C All except (ii)
D All except (iv) and (v)
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An operator is required to maintain certain records of flight crew training. These include:
1.Type Rating Courses
Choices 2.Conversion Courses
3.Recurrent Training
4.Command Courses
Answers Correct
A All of the above A
B All except (iii)
C All except (iv)
D All except (iii) and (iv)
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An operator shall produce documents and records, when requested by the Authority, within:
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question An operator shall produce documents and records, when requested by the Authority, within:

Choices Answers Correct

A ten days
B 24 hours
C a reasonable time C
D 14 days
Ref CPL A AND H
Question If the commander of an aeroplane violates any local rule, regulation or procedure he is to report the
matter:
Choices Answers Correct
A to the local Authority without delay A
B to the Authority of the State of the operator without delay
C to the local Authority within ten days
D to the Authority of the State of the operator within 14 days
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An un-pressurised aircraft must carry sufficient oxygen for 10% of the passengers for the time in excess of
30 minutes spent at altitudes between:
Choices Answers Correct
A 10,000 ft and 13,000 ft A
B 10,000 ft and 12,000 ft
C 8,000 ft and 10,000 ft
D 10,000 ft and the service ceiling
Ref CPL A AND H
Question a helicopter with a passenger compartment seating capacity of 10 seats must be equipped with:

Choices Answers Correct

A three hand fire-extinguishers in the passenger compartment
B on hand fire-extinguisher in the cockpit and two hand fire-extinguishers in the passenger
compartment
C one hand fire-extinguisher in the cockpit and one hand fire-extinguisher in the passenger C
compartment
D two hand fire-extinguishers in the cockpit and two hand fire-extinguishers in the passenger
compartment
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question EXCEPT for night VMC operations, the recent experience conditions of a commander assigned to a flight on a
helicopter by an operator must not be less than:
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question EXCEPT for night VMC operations, the recent experience conditions of a commander assigned to a flight on a
helicopter by an operator must not be less than:
Choices Answers Correct
A 6 take-offs and 6 landings during the last 6 months
B 6 take-offs, 6 circuits and 6 landings as pilot flying on the same type of helicopter or flight
simulator of the helicopter type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
C 3 take-offs, 3 circuits and 3 landings as pilot flying on the same type of helicopter or flight C
simulator, of the helicopter type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
D 3 take-offs and 3 landings on this type of helicopter during the last 6 months
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question for a VFR flight by day with reference to visual landmarks, the final reserve fuel should be sufficient to
fly for:
Choices Answers Correct
A 30 minutes of flight at best range speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard
conditions
B 20 minutes of flight at best range speed B
C 30 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard
conditions
D 30 minutes of flight at best range speed
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question for Performance Class 2 operations onshore, the commander must operate to take-off minima with an RVR/VIS
not lower than:
Choices Answers Correct
A 800 m A
B 1500 m
C 600 m
D 500 m
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question in order to be operated IFR or at night with potentially hazardous weather conditions along the route to be
flown, a helicopter must be equipped with airborne weather radar equipment if fitted with a maximum approved
Choices passenger seating of:
Answers Correct
A 15
B 19
C 6
D 9 D
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question the minimum flight crew is 2 qualified pilots for:
Note: MAPSC = Maximum Approved Passenger Seating Configuration
Choices Answers Correct
A All IFR operations
B IFR operations using helicopters with a MAPSC of more than 6 or operations using helicopters
with a MAPSC of more than 9
C IFR operations using helicopters with a MAPSC of more than 9 or operations using helicopters C
with a MAPSC of more than 19
D All IFR operations and VFR operations using helicopters with a MAPSC of more than 9
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question when flying VFR navigating by means other than by reference to the visual landmarks, the final reserve fuel
should be sufficient to fly for:
Choices Answers Correct
A 30 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard A
conditions
B 30 minutes of flight at best range speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard
conditions
C 20 minutes of flight at best range speed
D 45 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard
conditions
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question a helicopter must be equipped with a megaphone when operated with a maximum approved passenger seating
configuration of more than:
Choices Answers Correct
A 19 A
B 13
C 9
D 10
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question EXCEPT for night VMC operations, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate a helicopter unless
he has carried out (except when flying under the supervision of a nominated commander), at least:
Choices Answers Correct
A 3 take-offs, 3 circuits and 3 landings as pilot flying in a helicopter (or a flight simulator)
of the same type to be used, in the previous 3 calendar months
B 6 take-offs, 6 circuits and 6 landings in a helicopter (or a flight simulator) of the same type
to be used, in the previous 3 calendar months
C 3 take-offs, 3 circuits and 3 landings as pilot flying in a helicopter (or a flight simulator) C
of the same type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
D 6 take-offs, 6 circuits and 6 landings as commander in a helicopter (or a flight simulator) of
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question EXCEPT for night VMC operations, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate a helicopter unless
he has carried out (except when flying under the supervision of a nominated commander), at least:
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question the operator shall ensure that:

Choices Answers Correct

A for the conduct of VFR flights in class E airspace, flight visibility at and above 3050m (10000
ft) is at least 5 km and clear of cloud
B for the conduct of VFR flights in class C airspace, horizontal distance from clouds is at least
1000m
C for the conduct of VFR flights in class F airspace, vertical distance from clouds is at least
250m
D for the conduct of VFR flights in class B airspace, horizontal distance from clouds is at least D
1500m
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question except if a different value is approved by the authority, the contingency fuel for a VFR helicopter flight
in a non-hostile environment should be:
Choices Answers Correct
A an amount of fuel sufficient for 15 minutes flying at long range speed
B 10% of the planned trip fuel
C 5% of the planned trip fuel C
D an amount of fuel sufficient for 15minutes flying at holding speed
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question except if a different value is approved by the authority, the contingency fuel for an IFR helicopter flight
should be:
Choices Answers Correct
A an amount of fuel sufficient for 15 minutes flying at long range speed
B 5% of the planned trip fuel
C 10% of the planned trip fuel C
D an amount of fuel sufficient for 30 minutes flying at long range speed
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question the amount of fuel to be carried by a helicopter for a IFR flight, when no alternate is required, should
include a final reserve fuel quantity to fly:
Choices Answers Correct
A 20 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above the destination, in standard conditions
B 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above the destination, in standard conditions B
C 30 minutes at best range speed
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question the amount of fuel to be carried by a helicopter for a IFR flight, when no alternate is required, should
include a final reserve fuel quantity to fly:
D 20 minutes at best range speed
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question the amount of fuel to be carried by a helicopter on a VFR flight in a non-hostile environment should
include contingency fuel of:
Choices Answers Correct
A quantity to fly 30 minutes at best range speed
B 10% of the planned trip fuel
C quantity to fly 20 minutes at best range speed
D 5% of the planned trip fuel D
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question the amount of fuel to be carried by a helicopter on a VFR flight navigating by day with reference to visual
landmarks, should include a final reserve fuel of quantity to fly:
Choices Answers Correct
A 30 minutes at best range speed
B 20 minutes at best range speed B
C 20 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above the destination heliport
D 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above the destination heliport
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question the pre-flight fuel calculation, for a helicopter on an IFR flight should include contingency fuel
quantity:
Choices Answers Correct
A of 10% of the planned trip fuel A
B of 5% of the planned trip fuel
C to fly 20 minutes at best range speed
D to fly 30 minutes at best range speed
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question when an operators fuel policy includes planning to an isolated heliport flying IFR, for which a destination
alternate does not exist, the amount of fuel at departure:
Choices Answers Correct
A is the same as for non-isolated heliports where an alternate heliport is accessible
B should include additional fuel to fly 2 hours at holding speed, including final reserve fuel B
C should include additional fuel to fly 2 hours at best range speed, including final reserve fuel
D should include additional fuel to fly 2 hours at holdng speed in addition to the final reserve
fuel
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question when an operators fuel policy includes planning to an isolated heliport flying IFR, for which a destination
alternate does not exist, the amount of fuel at departure:
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question an operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a NDB approach is:

Choices Answers Correct

A 200 ft
B 300 ft B
C 250 ft
D 350 ft
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question Provided the appropriate ATS authority permits use of a flight visibility less than 5 km and the IAS is 140
kt or less, in accordance with minimum visibilities for VFR operations, helicopters may be permitted to
Choices operate down to a flight visibility of:
Answers Correct
A 800 m A
B 1500 m
C 2000 m
D 3000 m
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question assuming the following circumstances:

Choices - for offshore Performance Class 1 operations

- two pilot operations
- an offshore helideck
- an acceptable alternate heliport is available

The minimum RVR/visibility required for take-off is:

Answers Correct
A 500 m
B 150 m
C 250 m C
D 800 m
Ref HELI ALL
Question assuming the following circumstances:
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question assuming the following circumstances:

Choices - for onshore Performance Class 1 operations

- a heliport equipped with runway edge lighting, centre line marking and RVR information
- an acceptable alternate heliport is available
The minimum RVR/Visibility required for take-off is:

Answers Correct
A 500 m
B 200 m
C 150 m C
D 800 m
Ref HELI ALL
Question assuming the following circumstances:

Choices - for onshore Performance Class 2 operations

- an acceptable alternate heliport is available

The minimum RVR/Visibility required for take-off is:

Answers Correct
A 800 m A
B 200 m
C 500 m
D 150 m
Ref HELI ALL
Question a VFR flight, navigating by means other than by reference to visual landmarks, with no alternate heliport,
can be undertaken only if the visual meteorological conditions (VMC) at the destination heliport are
Choices effective:
Answers Correct
A at the estimated time of arrival A
B during the period commencing 2 hours before and ending 2 hours after the expected time of
arrival
C during the period commencing 2 hours before and ending 1 hour after the expected time of arrival
D during the period commencing 1 hour before and ending 1 hour after the expected time of arrival
Ref HELI ALL
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question an IFR flight with no alternate heliport can be undertaken only if the visual meteorological conditions
(VMC) at the destination heliport are effective:
Choices Answers Correct
A at the estimated time of arrival A
B during the period commencing 2 hours before and ending 2 hours after the expected time of
arrival
C during the period commencing 2 hours before and ending 1 hour after the expected time of arrival
D during the period commencing 1 hour before and ending 1 hour after the expected time of arrival
Ref HELI ALL
Question In a helicopter, each crew member shall be properly secured by all safety belts
and harnesses provided
Choices
1. during taxiing
2. during take-off
3. during landing
4. whenever deemed necessary by the commander in the interest of safety
5. during other phases of flight

Answers Correct
A 2, 3, 4
B 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
C 1, 2, 3, 4 C
D 2, 3, 4, 5
Ref HELI ALL
Question minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot operation under IFR or at night
shall be:
Choices Answers Correct
A 5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 30 days on
the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role
B 3 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on
the type class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role
C 5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 90 days on
the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role
D 5 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on D
the type class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role
Ref I.R.
Question During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold
altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway threshold is at more than:
Choices Answers Correct
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold
altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway threshold is at more than:
A 4 m (14 ft) below the airdrome altitude
B 2 m (7 ft) above the airdrome altitude
C 2 m (7 ft) below the airdrome altitude C
D 4 m (14 ft) above the airdrome altitude
Ref I.R.
Question a Category III B operations, is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with, a
decision height lower than 50 ft, or no decision height and a runway visual range lower than 200m but no
Choices less than:
Answers Correct
D 75 m D
D 150 m
D 100 m
D 50 m
Ref I.R.
Question A category C aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the
horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:
Choices Answers Correct
A 1,500 m
B 3,600 m
C 1,600 m
D 2,400 m D
Ref I.R.
Question When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their speed at the
threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at
Choices the maximum certified landing weight multiplied by a factor of:
Answers Correct
D 1.3 D
D 1.45
D 1.5
D 1.15
Ref I.R.
Question A Category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual
range of at least?
Choices Answers Correct
A 250 m
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question A Category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual
range of at least?
B 150 m
C 75 m C
D 200 m
Ref I.R.
Question VFR Operating minima, establishes that, the operator shall ensure about VFR flights, that:

Choices Answers Correct

A for conducted VFR flights in airspace B, horizontal distance from clouds is 1,000m at least
B special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km B
C for conducted VFR flights in airspace F, vertical distance from clouds is 250m at least
D for conducted VFR flights in airspace E, flight visibility at and above 3,050m (10,000 ft) is 5
km at least (clear of cloud)
Ref I.R.
Question A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual
range of at least:
Choices Answers Correct
A 50 m
B 100 m
C 250 m
D 200 m D
Ref I.R.
Question The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a cruising speed of 150 knots. The aircraft is flown
by a single pilot. The usable runway has edge lights, high intensity runway centre lights and RVR readings
Choices for threshold mid and end of runway. The approach minimums for runway 06 are: DH = 300 feet, horizontal
visibility (HV) = 800 metres. The weather conditions are: horizontal visibility (HV) 900 metres and ceiling
200 feet, is take-off possible:
Answers Correct
A Yes, if there is an accessible airport within 75 NM A
B No, the ceiling being below the DH for the runways approach procedure
C No, visibility being below 1,200 metres
D Yes, visibility being higher than the horizontal visibility for the approach procedure
Ref I.R.
Question A category III C precision approach (CAT III C) is an approach with:

Choices Answers Correct

OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question A category III C precision approach (CAT III C) is an approach with:

A a runway visual range of at least 350 m

B a runway visual range of at least 50 m
C a runway visual range of at least 200 m
D no runway visual range limits D
Ref I.R.
Question What is required for navigation in IMC?

Choices Answers Correct

A Radio equipment and equipment for guidance until the visual point A
B Anti-icing equipment
C A serviceable weather radar
D One VHF box and one HF box
Ref I.R.
Question According to Airfield Operating Minima, the lowest MDH using ILS (LLZ only), VOR, NDB, SRA no glide path?

Choices Answers Correct

A NDB MDH 300 ft A
B VOR MDH 250 ft
C ILS (LLZ only) MDH 200 ft
D VOR/DME MDH 300 ft
Ref I.R.
Question What is the minimum required RVR for CAT IIIB operations?

Choices Answers Correct

D 100m
D 75m D
D 150m
D 200m
Ref I.R.
Question In accordance Aerodrome Operating Minima, the Category III A Operation, is a precision instrument approach
and landing using ILS or MLS with a decision height lower than 100 feet an RVR (runway visual range) no less
Choices than:
Answers Correct
A 250 m
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question In accordance Aerodrome Operating Minima, the Category III A Operation, is a precision instrument approach
and landing using ILS or MLS with a decision height lower than 100 feet an RVR (runway visual range) no less
than:
B 200 m B
C 230 m
D 300 m
Ref I.R.
Question What are the circling minimum and MDH for a Cat B aeroplane?

Choices Answers Correct

A 1,600 m 400 ft
B 1,500 m 500 ft B
C 1,500 m 450 ft
D 1,500 m 600 ft
Ref I.R.
Question A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with:

Choices Answers Correct

A a decision height of at least 100 ft A
B a decision height of at least 200 ft
C a decision height of at least 50 ft
D no decision height
Ref I.R.
Question In accordance with Aerodrome Operating Minima, the lowest minima to be used by an operator in a category B
aeroplane for circling are:
Choices Answers Correct
A MDH = 400 ft and visibility = 1.500 m
B MDH = 500 ft and visibility = 1.600 m B
C MDH = 600 ft and visibility = 2.400 m
D MDH = 700 ft and visibility = 2.600 m
Ref I.R.
Question In accordance with Aerodrome Operating Minima General, it is established, among other considerations, that
an Operator must take full account of Aeroplane Categories. The criteria taken into consideration for
Choices classification of Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat), which is equal to
the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1,3. Corresponding Aeroplane Category
when Vat is from 141 kts to 165 kts is:
Answers Correct
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question In accordance with Aerodrome Operating Minima General, it is established, among other considerations, that
an Operator must take full account of Aeroplane Categories. The criteria taken into consideration for
classification of Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat), which is equal to
the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1,3. Corresponding Aeroplane Category
when Vat is from 141 kts to 165 kts is:
A E
B D B
C B
D C
Ref I.R.
Question What is the minimum horizontal visibility for a Cat D aircraft on a circling approach?

Choices Answers Correct

A 1.500 m
B 1.600 m
C 2.400 m
D 3.600 m D
Ref I.R.
Question What is the take-off RVR limit for a Cat A aeroplane, when high intensity centreline lights and edge lights
are on and the crew is IFR qualified and approved?
Choices Answers Correct
A 150m if threshold RVR is available
B 150m
C 200m
D 250m D
Ref I.R.
Question The RVR for a Category III B operation with roll out guidance or control systems that fall passive the
minimum RVR is:
Choices Answers Correct
A 50 m
B 75 m
C 125 m C
D 200 m
Ref I.R.
Question The minimum MDH and meteorological visibility for a category C aircraft circling are respectively:
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question The minimum MDH and meteorological visibility for a category C aircraft circling are respectively:

Choices Answers Correct

A 700 ft 3.600 m
B 600 ft 2.400 m B
C 500 ft 1.600 m
D 400 ft 1.500 m
Ref I.R.
Question What is the minimum RVR for a CAT III C approach?

Choices Answers Correct

A No minimum A
B 50 m
C 75 m
D 100 m
Ref I.R.
Question A category A aircraft can carry out an indicated (circling) approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if
the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:
Choices Answers Correct
A 1.600 m
B 2.400 m
C 1.500 m C
D 3.600 m
Ref I.R.
Question According to Aerodrome Operating Minima a Category II A approach has a Decision Height of less than 100 feet
and a minimum RVR (Runway visual Range) of:
Choices Answers Correct
A 200 m A
B 250 m
C 300 m
D 230 m
Ref I.R.
Question What is the circling minima for a Cat A aeroplane?

Choices Answers Correct

A 1.500 m A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question What is the circling minima for a Cat A aeroplane?

B 1.600 m
C 2.400 m
D 3.600 m
Ref I.R.
Question assuming the following circumstances:

Choices - for a Category A aeroplane

- an aerodrome equipped with runway edge lighting and centre line lighting and multiple RVR information
- an acceptable alternate aerodrome is available

What is the minimum RVR value for take-off?

Answers Correct
A 200 m
B 150 m B
C 250 m
D 300 m
Ref I.R.
Question a category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway
visual range of at least:
Choices Answers Correct
A 50 m
B 100 m
C 250 m
D 200 m D
Ref I.R.
Question a category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway
visual range of at least:
Choices Answers Correct
A 250m
B 150m
C 75m C
D 200m
Ref I.R.
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question for operations under IFR or at night the minimum flight crew is 2 pilots for:

Choices Answers Correct

A all turbo-propeller aeroplanes with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more A
than 9 and for all turbo-jet aeroplanes
B all turbo-propeller aeroplanes and for all turbo-jet aeroplanes
C all turbo-propeller aeroplanes with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more
than 19 and for all turbo-jet aeroplanes
D all turbo-propeller aeroplanes and for all turbo-jet aeroplanes with a maximum approved
passenger seating configuration of more than 9
Ref I.R.
Question the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category A aeroplane is a meteorological
visibility of:
Choices Answers Correct
A 2400 m
B 1500 m B
C 1600 m
D 3600 m
Ref I.R.
Question the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category B aeroplane is a meteorological
visibility of:
Choices Answers Correct
A 2400 m
B 1500 m
C 3600 m
D 1600 m D
Ref I.R.
Question the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category C aeroplane is a meteorological
visibility of:
Choices Answers Correct
A 1500 m
B 3600 m
C 1600 m
D 2400 m D
Ref I.R.
Question the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category D aeroplane is a meteorological
visibility of:
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category D aeroplane is a meteorological
visibility of:
Choices Answers Correct
A 3600 m A
B 2400 m
C 1600 m
D 1500 m
Ref I.R.
Question in establishing the aerodrome operating minima
which will apply to any particular operation, an operator must take full
Choices account of:

1. equipment available for navigation

2. dimensions and characteristics of the runways
3. composition of the flight crew
4. obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas
5. facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditions

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Answers Correct
A 2, 3, 5
B 1, 2, 4, 5
C 2, 4, 5
D 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 D
Ref I.R.
Question on an IFR flight a commander shall not commence take-off unless the expected weather conditions at the
destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above:
Choices Answers Correct
A the planning minima, during a period from hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of A
arrival at the aerodrome
B the planning minima, at the estimated time of arrival
C the aerodrome operating minima, at the estimated time of arrival, and for a reasonable period
before and after such a predicted time
D the aerodrome operating minima, during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated
time of arrival at the aerodrome
Ref I.R.
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question In accordance with Aerodrome Operating Minima, for a Category III B approach, the RVR shall not be less
than:
Choices Answers Correct
A 50 m
B 150 m
C 100 m
D 75 m D
Ref I.R.
Question Regarding all weather operations, if VAT is from 121 kt to 140 kt, the aeroplane is in:

Choices Answers Correct

A Category E
B Category D
C Category C C
D Category B
Ref I.R.
Question Regarding all weather operations, if VAT is from 141 kt to 165 kt, the aeroplane is in:

Choices Answers Correct

A Category E
B Category B
C Category C
D Category D D
Ref I.R.
Question Regarding all weather operations, if VAT is from 91 kt to 120 kt, the aeroplane is in:

Choices Answers Correct

A Category B A
B Category C
C Category D
D Category E
Ref I.R.
Question The aerodrome operating minima for a VOR/DME approach are:
MDH = 360 ft
Choices Required RVR = 1500 metres
Reported RVR is 1800 metres.
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question The aerodrome operating minima for a VOR/DME approach are:
MDH = 360 ft
Required RVR = 1500 metres
Reported RVR is 1800 metres.
the pilot may continue the final approach:
Answers Correct
A regardless of the ceiling reported A
B if the ceiling reported is higher than 360 ft
C if the ceiling reported is higher than 240 ft
D if the ceiling reported is higher than 240 ft during the day and 360 ft at night
Ref I.R.
Question What is the minimum visibility fior a Cat A aircraft during a circling approach?

Choices Answers Correct

A 1500 m A
B 1600 m
C 2400 m
D 3600 m
Ref I.R.
Question What are the threshold speeds for a Cat D aeroplane?

Choices Answers Correct

A 121 140 kts
B 131 155 kts
C 141 165 kts C
D 145 160 kts
Ref I.R.
Question A category 1 precision approach (CAT 1) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range
of at least:
Choices Answers Correct
A 550 m A
B 350 m
C 800 m
D 500 m
Ref I.R.
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - JAR-OPS Requirements
Question What is the Cat III A RVR minimum?

Choices Answers Correct

A 50 m
B 100 m
C 200 m C
D 250 m
Ref I.R.
Question The minimum visibility for a Cat C aeroplane on a circling approach is:

Choices Answers Correct

D 2400 m D
D 2500 m
D 2600 m
D 2700 m
Ref I.R.
Question Aircraft are categorised according to their threshold speeds, multiplied by a factor. What aircraft
category corresponds to a range of speeds 141 kts 165 kts?
Choices Answers Correct
A B
B E
C D C
D C
Ref I.R.
Question An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250¿ and minimum visibility of 750 metres.
ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs. When may the approach be started?
Choices Answers Correct
A When threshold and mid-runway RVRs are greater than 750m
B when all 3 RVRs are greater than 750m
C When the met viz is greater than 750m. RVR is for precision approaches only
D When threshold RVR is greater than 750m D
Ref I.R.
Question If you are flying IFR to a destination with no alternative, when must weather be good for you to continue?

Choices Answers Correct

A 3 hours before to 3 hours after ETA
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question If you are flying IFR to a destination with no alternative, when must weather be good for you to continue?

B 3 hours before to 1 hour after ETA

C 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA
D 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA D
Ref I.R.
Question The RVR for a Category III B operation with roll out guidance the minimum RVR is:

Choices Answers Correct

A 50 m
B 75 m B
C 125 m
D 200 m
Ref I.R.
Question Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) airspace of the North Atlantic is defined within:

Choices Answers Correct

A flight levels 270 and 400 from the equator to the pole
B flight levels 285 and 420 from the 27o North to the pole B
C flight levels 280 and 475 from 27o North to the pole
D sea level and FL 660 from 27o North to the pole
Ref ATPL A
Question During a transoceanic and polar flight, the transport precession is the rotation in degrees of the gyro
North with respect to the:
Choices Answers Correct
A compass North
B grid North
C magnetic North
D true North D
Ref ATPL A
Question When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be
located, for a twin-engined aircraft, at an equivalent distance not exceeding:
Choices Answers Correct
A 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with two engines
B 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with two engines
C 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with single engine
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be
located, for a twin-engined aircraft, at an equivalent distance not exceeding:
D 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with a single engine D
Ref ATPL A
Question On a polar stereographic chart where the earth convergence between 2 points located on the parallel 60oN is
20o, the great circle maximum cross-track difference with the straight line joining the 2 points is:
Choices Answers Correct
A 9.2 NM
B 4.0 NM
C 30 NM C
D 4.0 NM
Ref ATPL A
Question In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro
heading, following a:
Choices Answers Correct
A great circle line A
B rhumb line
C spherical flight segment
D straight map line
Ref ATPL A
Question A polar stereographic chart has a grid printed over it which is parallel to the meridian 054oW, with Grid
North in the direction of the North geographic pole. An aircraft is following a true course of 330o. At
Choices position 80oN 140oE, its grid heading (GH) with this system will be:
Answers Correct
A 316o
B 276o
C 136o C
D 164o
Ref ATPL A
Question When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the pilot has to:

Choices Answers Correct

A maintain the Mach number previously assigned up to the last position shown in the oceanic A
clearance
B take the Mach number specified in this initial flight plan
C take any Mach number
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the pilot has to:

D take the Mach number provided for this type of flight by his airline
Ref ATPL A
Question MNPS is the abbreviation for:

Choices Answers Correct

A Minimum Navigation Positioning System
B Maximum North-Atlantic Precision System
C Military Network Performance Structure
D Minimum Navigation Performance Specification D
Ref ATPL A
Question An aircraft leaves point P (60oN 030oW) on a true heading equal to 090o while the gyro compass, which is
assumed to be operating perfectly and without an hourly rate corrector unit, indicates 000o. The aircraft
Choices arrives at point Q (62oN 010oW) on a true heading equal to 095o. On the journey from P to Q the gyro
compass remains in free gyro mode. If the flight lasted 1 hour 30 minutes, the gyro heading at Q will be:
Answers Correct
A 328o A
B 345o
C 003o
D 334o
Ref ATPL A
Question The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of VHF ground stations in NAT
region is:
Choices Answers Correct
A 121.5 MHz
B 123.45 MHz B
C 243 MHz
D 118.5 MHz
Ref ATPL A
Question During a flight to Europe, planning in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you
expect to cross the 30oW meridian at 00H30 UTC, you will then normally be:
Choices Answers Correct
A within the organised night-time flight track system
B with the organised daytime flight track system
C out of the organised flight track system C
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question During a flight to Europe, planning in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you
expect to cross the 30oW meridian at 00H30 UTC, you will then normally be:
D in a random space
Ref ATPL A
Question If both precision navigation systems of an aircraft are unserviceable during a flight in MNPS airspace, and
if you cannot establish communication with the air traffic control, you:
Choices Answers Correct
A descend below the MNPS space
B take an intermediate flight level B
C return to departure airport
D land at the nearest airport
Ref ATPL A
Question In a polar Antarctic regions, the pilot uses a South polar stereographic chart whose printed over grid is
parallel with the zero meridian and Grid North in the direction of geographic North along this meridian.
Choices The aircraft position is 80oS 130oE, its true route is 110o, the grid route at this moment is:
Answers Correct
A 240o A
B 060o
C 110o
D 340o
Ref ATPL A
Question On an alternate field, the captain of turbojet engined aircraft must mandatorily have a quantity of fuel and
lubricant sufficient for flying during:
Choices Answers Correct
A 30 minutes at cruising speed
B 45 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
C 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft C
D 45 minutes at cruising speed
Ref ATPL A
Question With the Control Display Unit (CDU) of an Inertial Navigation System (INS)
you can read the following information:
Choices
Desired track (DTK) = 100o – Track (TK) = 120o

You can conclude that the:

Answers Correct
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question With the Control Display Unit (CDU) of an Inertial Navigation System (INS)
you can read the following information:

Desired track (DTK) = 100o – Track (TK) = 120o

You can conclude that the:

A track Error Angle (TKE) is left (L)

B track Error Angle (TKE) is right (R) B
C aircraft is converging towards its ideal course
D aircraft is diverging from its ideal course
Ref ATPL A
Question When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be
located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an equivalent distance not exceeding:
Choices Answers Correct
A 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with 1 engine inoperative A
B 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with all engines operating
C 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all engine inoperative
D 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all engines operating
Ref ATPL A
Question During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the
longitudinal spacing must be at least:
Choices Answers Correct
A 20 minutes
B 10 minutes
C 15 minutes
D 5 minutes D
Ref ATPL A
Question A polar track is a track part of which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the earth
magnetic field is less than:
Choices Answers Correct
D 19 micro-tesla
D 6 micro-tesla D
D 38 micro-tesla
D 10 micro-tesla
Ref ATPL A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the
direction of the prevailing NAT traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able
Choices to maintain its assigned flight level should:
Answers Correct
D If below FL 410, climb or descend 1,000 ft while turning towards the alternate aerodrome
D If below FL 410, climb 500 ft or descend 1,000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome
D If above FL 410, climb 1,000 ft or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome
D If above FL 410, climb or descend 1,000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome D
Ref ATPL A
Question Posit: g, the longitude difference Lm, the average latitude Lo, the latitude of the tangent. The transport
precession is equal to:
Choices Answers Correct
A g/2*sin Lm
B 15o/h*sin Lm
C g*(sin Lm-sin Lo)
D g*sin Lm D
Ref ATPL A
Question The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number is:

Choices Answers Correct

A 15 minutes
B 5 minutes
C 10 minutes C
D 20 minutes
Ref ATPL A
Question Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when:

Choices Answers Correct

A Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within uncontrolled airspace
B Flying above 3000 ft
C Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within controlled airspace
D Operating at or above FL 60 or 2000 ft whichever is higher D
Ref ATPL A
Question On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engined aircraft must mandatorily have a minimum
quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during:
Choices Answers Correct
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engined aircraft must mandatorily have a minimum
quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during:
A 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
B 2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
C 2 hours with normal cruising consumption C
D 30 minutes with normal cruising consumption
Ref ATPL A
Question On a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the Greenwich meridian in the direction of the
true North pole, the true orientation of the great circle linking point 62oN 010oE to point 66oN 050oW is
Choices 305o. The grid route at the starting point of this great circle is:
Answers Correct
A 301o
B 298o
C 295o C
D 292o
Ref ATPL A
Question During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you
expect to cross the 30oW meridian at 2330 UTC; you will normally be:
Choices Answers Correct
A in a day flight route system
B in random airspace B
C in a night flight route system
D out of the organised route system
Ref ATPL A
Question A pilot whose aircraft does not have MNPS certification has to fly via the SHANNON-GANDER great circle. The
flight must be planned to take place:
Choices Answers Correct
A at flight level FL 280 or less A
B outside scheduled flight times
C at a Mach number of 0.70 or less
D at a constant airspeed of 480 kt
Ref ATPL A
Question The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without restriction in MNPS airspace can be
at the very least:
Choices Answers Correct
A Two inertial navigation units and a DECCA
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without restriction in MNPS airspace can be
at the very least:
B Two inertial navigation units B
C Three inertial navigation units
D One inertial navigation unit
Ref ATPL A
Question For a long-range four-jet aircraft in cruising flight, the optimum altitude and the lock-on altitude
increases. The most cost-effective flight plan will consist of choosing cruising levels which increase
Choices during the flight in order to fly:
Answers Correct
A between the lock-on altitude and the optimum altitude
B about the lock-on altitude
C about the optimum altitude C
D just below the optimum altitude
Ref ATPL A
Question Astronomic precession:

Choices Answers Correct

A causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the southern hemisphere A
B causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Southern hemisphere
C is zero at the North pole
D is zero at the South pole
Ref ATPL A
Question An aircraft flying at flight level 370 (FL 370) on MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance
with its air traffic control clearance (degradation of navigational performance requirements, mechanics
Choices troubles etc) but is able to maintain its assigned level (FL 370), and due to a total lost of communications
capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or
track by turning 90o (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action
will be turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its
assigned route and:
Answers Correct
A climb or descend 1000 ft or descent 500 ft
B climb or descend 1000 ft
C climb or descend 500 ft C
D climb 500 ft or descend 1000 ft
Ref ATPL A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you
expect to cross the 30oW meridian at 11H00 UTC; you will then normally be:
Choices Answers Correct
A in a random space
B within the organised daytime flight track system
C within the organised night-time flight track system
D out of the organised flight track system D
Ref ATPL A
Question An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic
control clearance (due to degradation of navigational performance requirements), but is able to maintain its
Choices assigned level and due to a total loss of communication capability could not obtain a revised clearance from
ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90o (90 degrees) to the right or left
whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be turn to acquire and maintain in either
direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb 1000 ft or descent 500 ft,
if:
Answers Correct
A at FL 410 A
B above FL 410
C below FL 410
D at FL 430
Ref ATPL A
Question During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving
aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the:
Choices Answers Correct
A grid North for any chart
B grid North for a given chart B
C true North for a given chart
D true North for any chart
Ref ATPL A
Question An aircraft flying above flight level 410 on MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with
its air traffic control clearance (degradation of navigational performance requirements, mechanics troubles,
Choices etc), but is able to maintain its assigned level, an due to a total loss of communications capability, could
not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning
90o (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be turn to
acquire and maintain in either direction track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and:
Answers Correct
A climb 500 ft or descend 1000 ft
B climb or descend 500 ft
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question An aircraft flying above flight level 410 on MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with
its air traffic control clearance (degradation of navigational performance requirements, mechanics troubles,
etc), but is able to maintain its assigned level, an due to a total loss of communications capability, could
not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning
90o (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be turn to
acquire and maintain in either direction track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and:
C climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft
D climb or descend 1000 ft D
Ref ATPL A
Question Which errors in estimates minutes shall be reported by aircraft over-flying the North Atlantic?

Choices Answers Correct

A 5 or more
B 3 or more B
C 10 or more
D 2 or more
Ref ATPL A
Question A pilot is using a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel to the zero meridian, with Grid North in
the direction of the North geographic pole. In polar regions, the pilot stops navigation in free-gyro mode
Choices after leaving the 6 microteslas zone, and the grid heading controlled by information from the inertial
navigation system (INS) is 045o. After switching to magnetic mode, the compass heading is 220o. The INS
position at this moment is 76oN 180oW. The magnetic variation on the chart is 10oE. The compass shift on
this heading at this point in time is;
Answers Correct
A -15o
B +5o
C -5o C
D +15o
Ref ATPL A
Question The abbreviation MNPS means:

Choices Answers Correct

A Main Navigation Performance Specification
B Minimum Navigation Performance Specification B
C Maximum Navigation Performance Specification
D Magnetic Navigation Performance Specification
Ref ATPL A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question Arriving at the point of entry into MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace over the
North Atlantic and not having yet received the oceanic clearance, the crew:
Choices Answers Correct
A keeps flying in accordance with the air-filed flight plan A
B returns to base immediately
C carries out a holding pattern
D keeps flying deviating its course by 30 nautical miles from that of the air- filed flight plan
Ref ATPL A
Question An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic
control clearance (due to degradation of navigational performance requirements), but is able to maintain its
Choices assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance
from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90o (90 degrees) to the right or
left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be turn to acquire and maintain in either
direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb or descend 500 ft, if:
Answers Correct
A below FL 410 A
B at FL 410
C above FL 410
D at FL 430
Ref ATPL A
Question In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the
direction of the prevailing NAT traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft not
Choices able to maintain its assigned flight level should:
Answers Correct
A Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated by 90 NM from its assigned route or
track
B Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated by 60 NM from its assigned route or
track
C Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated by 30 NM from its assigned route or C
track
D Descend below FL 275
Ref ATPL A
Question You plan to fly from point A (60oN 010oE) to point B (60oN 020oE). The gyro North of the gyro compass,
assumed to be operating perfectly, with no rate correction device, is aligned with the true North of point
Choices A. The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting from A given that the flight time scheduled is
1h30 min with a zero wind, is equal to:
Answers Correct
A 066o
B 080o
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question You plan to fly from point A (60oN 010oE) to point B (60oN 020oE). The gyro North of the gyro compass,
assumed to be operating perfectly, with no rate correction device, is aligned with the true North of point
A. The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting from A given that the flight time scheduled is
1h30 min with a zero wind, is equal to:
C 076o C
D 085o
Ref ATPL A
Question an IFR flight with no alternate airfield can be undertaken only if the minimum weather conditions
stipulated in the regulations are effective for at least:
Choices Answers Correct
A 3 hours before to at least 3 hours after the expected time of arrival
B 2 hours before to at least 2 hours after the expected time of arrival
C 3 hours before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival
D 1 hour before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival D
Ref ATPL A
Question The North Atlantic airspace is regulated accordance to:

Choices Answers Correct

A the ICAO document 7030 (additional regional procedures) A
B rules issued by the bordering States (document 6530)
C rules common to the bordering States, grouped in document 7050 (North Atlantic Ocean Airspace)
D Canadian rules, because this country has the greatest surface area of territorial waters in this
airspace
Ref ATPL A
Question A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised
Track System) must be done:
Choices Answers Correct
A At or prior entering the NAT region A
B Prior entering the NAT region
C As soon as possible after entering the NAT region
D When crossing the oceanic airspace boundary
Ref ATPL A
Question An air traffic unit may request the aircraft to report position when flying east-west south of 70oN between
5oW and 65oW, every:
Choices Answers Correct
A 5o of longitude
B 10o of longitude B
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question An air traffic unit may request the aircraft to report position when flying east-west south of 70oN between
5oW and 65oW, every:
C 20o of longitude
D 15o of longitude
Ref ATPL A
Question The ascent or descent through MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace of a non-
MNPS certified aircraft is:
Choices Answers Correct
A authorised when the aircraft has two precision navigation systems
B forbidden in all cases
C authorised under radar control if the aircraft is in VHF contact with the MNPS controller
D authorised only if the aircraft is in radio contact with the aircraft present in this space D
Ref ATPL A
Question When a course is plotted at minimum time route, one passes from the air isochrone to the corresponding
ground isochrone by applying to point K (original spot) a vector KK which is equal to:
Choices Answers Correct
A none
B wind at K
C mean wind from the preceding ground isochrone C
D mean wind up to the next ground isochrone
Ref ATPL A
Question The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS airspace is:

Choices Answers Correct

A 60 NM A
B 30 NM
C 90 NM
D 120 NM
Ref ATPL A
Question In the MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification area, a pilot should first of all take the
following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system:
Choices Answers Correct
A notify Control and wait for a reply within a reasonable time A
B request authorisation from Control to track another aircraft
C set a different heading approximately 45o from the previous one
D immediately climb or descend 1000 ft
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question In the MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification area, a pilot should first of all take the
following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system:
Ref ATPL A
Question Posit: g the longitude difference; Lm the average latitude; Lo the latitude of the tangent. The correct
formula expressing the travel precession applied during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal to:
Choices Answers Correct
A 9*sin Lm
B 15o/h*sin Lm B
C g*(sin Lm-sin Lo)
D g/2*sin Lm
Ref ATPL A
Question a jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude will have:

Choices Answers Correct

A increased manoeuvring limits
B reduced range B
C increased flight envelope
D increased Mach number stability
Ref ATPL A
Question In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air-air communications is:
Choices Answers Correct
A 118,800 MHz
B 131,800 MHz B
C 121,800 MHz
D 128,800 MHz
Ref ATPL A
Question If a pilot has connected the automatic pilot to the gyro compass (which is assumed to be operating
correctly) and the latter is fitted with a rate correction device which is properly corrected by
Choices astronomical precession, the course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions) is a:
Answers Correct
A rhumb line
B great circle B
C curve of some type or other
D spherical flight segment
Ref ATPL A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels:

Choices Answers Correct

A 275 and 400
B 280 and 400
C 280 and 390
D 285 and 420 D
Ref ATPL A
Question Which separation will be provided if Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) is used when operating in
MNPS airspace?
Choices Answers Correct
A 90 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical
B 60 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical B
C 60 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical
D 90 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical
Ref ATPL A
Question An air traffic unit may request the aircraft to report position when flying east-west north of 70oN between
10oW and 50oW, every:
Choices Answers Correct
A 10o of longitude
B 20o of longitude B
C 15o of longitude
D 5o of longitude
Ref ATPL A
Question The validity period of a flight track system organised in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification) airspace during an Eastbound flight normally is:
Choices Answers Correct
A 11H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
B 10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
C 01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC C
D 00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
Ref ATPL A
Question You are the captain of a commercial airplane and you notice, after take-off, a flock of birds which may
present a bird strike hazard, you must:
Choices Answers Correct
A inform the other aircraft by radio
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question You are the captain of a commercial airplane and you notice, after take-off, a flock of birds which may
present a bird strike hazard, you must:
B immediately inform the appropriate ground station B
C inform the appropriate ground station within a reasonable period of time
D draft a bird strike hazard report upon arrival and within at most 48 hours
Ref ATPL A
Question The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from:

Choices Answers Correct

A 30o North to 90o North
B 27o North to 90o North B
C 27o North to 70o North
D 30o North to 70o North
Ref ATPL A
Question When in MNPS and the final LRNS fails, the pilot should:

Choices Answers Correct

A Climb/descend 1000 ft
B Contact ATC and await a reply within a reasonable period of time B
C Ask ATC for permission to follow another aeroplane
D Turn left or right through 90o and parallel track by 30 nm
Ref ATPL A
Question At 18h40min UTC, a complete failure of the inertial systems of an aircraft flying on the LONDON-ANCHORAGE
line occurs in the geographic North pole region. The wind is nil, the grid heading at this moment is 315o.
Choices The crew then uses the Sun to continue the flight. The bearing of the Sun on occurrence of the failure is:
NOTE:The time equation is nil. The chart used is a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with
the zero meridian, the Grid North is in direction of the geographic North pole.
Answers Correct
A 035o
B 325o B
C 180o
D 000o
Ref ATPL A
Question In MNPS, at FL 370, you need to change your clearance but have no communications with ATC. You turn left or
right and get a 30 nm. Separation from your assigned track. Do you then:
Choices Answers Correct
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question In MNPS, at FL 370, you need to change your clearance but have no communications with ATC. You turn left or
right and get a 30 nm. Separation from your assigned track. Do you then:
A Climb or descend 500 ft A
B Climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft
C Climb or descend 1000 ft
D Maintain your flight plan level
Ref ATPL A
Question If the grid datum is 054oW, position 80oN 140oE and true heading of 330o, what is the grid heading?

Choices Answers Correct

A 316o
B 276o
C 164o
D 136o D
Ref ATPL A
Question The North Atlantic system is based on:

Choices Answers Correct

A Canadian territory since it has the largest territorial waters
B ICAO 7030 Doc B
C States Common rules 7050 Doc
D States Bordering Rules 6530 Doc
Ref ATPL A
Question A flight crossing 030oW in MNPSA at 1100UTC will be:

Choices Answers Correct

A in daytime OTS
B in night time OTS
C outside OTS C
D in random airspace
Ref ATPL A
Question What are the vertical limits of MNPS Airspace?

Choices Answers Correct

A FL 290 to FL 410
B FL 245 to FL 450
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question What are the vertical limits of MNPS Airspace?

C FL 285 to FL 410
D FL 285 to FL 420 D
Ref ATPL A
Question An airline operator shall make sure that if the aircraft planned for the flight is a performance class B
aeroplane, it will be able, throughout its flight route or its alternate route scheduled from this initial
Choices route, to reach a climb rate of at least:
Answers Correct
A 300 ft/min with all engines operating at maximum continuous power A
B 300 ft/min with one engine inoperative and all the others operating at maximum continuous
power
C 500 ft/min with all engines operating at maximum cruise power
D 500 ft/min with one engine inoperative and all the others operating at maximum continuous power
Ref ATPL A
Question What is the minimum longitudinal separation between 2 aeroplanes flying at the same Mach number in MNPS
Airspace?
Choices Answers Correct
A 5 minutes
B 10 minutes B
C 15 minutes
D 20 minutes
Ref ATPL A
Question The validity period of a flight track system, organised in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification) airspace during a westbound flight normally is:
Choices Answers Correct
A 0000 UTC to 0800 UTC at 30 degrees West
B 1130 UTC to 1900 UTC at 30 degrees West B
C 0100 UTC to 0800 UTC at 30 degrees West
D 1030 UTC to 1900 UTC at 30 degrees West
Ref ATPL A
Question What is the minimum required vertical separation in MNPS Airspace?

Choices Answers Correct

A 500 ft
B 1000 ft B
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question What is the minimum required vertical separation in MNPS Airspace?

C 2000 ft
D 4000 ft
Ref ATPL A
Question What is minimum lateral separation in MNPS airspace?

Choices Answers Correct

A 60 nm below FL 285
B 60 nm above FL 285 B
C 90 nm above FL 285
D 90 nm in all NAT airspace
Ref ATPL A
Question In the Area where the MNPS is applicable, the vertical separation that can be applied between FL 290 and FL
410 inclusive is:
Choices Answers Correct
A 2000 ft
B 500 ft
C 1000 ft C
D 1500 ft
Ref ATPL A
Question In MNPS Airspace between FL 285 and FL 410 inclusive, what is the vertical separation?

Choices Answers Correct

A 500 ft
B 1000 ft B
C 1500 ft
D 2000 ft
Ref ATPL A
Question At 60oN 030oW, the true heading is 090o and the Gyro is 000o. At 62oN 010oW, the True heading is 095o and
it has taken 1.5 hours to travel the distance. What will the Gyro read assuming no Latitude Nut correction:
Choices Answers Correct
A 334o
B 328o B
C 345o
D 003o
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question At 60oN 030oW, the true heading is 090o and the Gyro is 000o. At 62oN 010oW, the True heading is 095o and
it has taken 1.5 hours to travel the distance. What will the Gyro read assuming no Latitude Nut correction:
Ref ATPL A
Question A minimum time track is a:

Choices Answers Correct

A spherical capable flight segment
B great circle track
C rhumb line
D track determined according to weather conditions D
Ref ATPL A
Question If your ETA at a significant point on a NAT track changes by how much must you inform ATC?

Choices Answers Correct

A 1 min or more
B 5 min or more
C 3 min or more C
D 10 min or more
Ref ATPL A
Question If the whole flight is in MNPSA on the organised track system, what should be entered on the flight plan?

Choices Answers Correct

A PTS plus daily code
B Position at every 10 deg latitude
C NAT plus daily code C
D OTS plus daily code
Ref ATPL A
Question When flying gyro on a transoceanic or polar flight near the North Pole, what is the precession due to:

Choices Answers Correct

A True North A
B Grid North
C Magnetic north
D Compass north
Ref ATPL A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question an operator shall ensure that all relevant operational and technical information for an individual flight is
preserved on ground for a predetermined period of time. Consequently, if practicable, a copy of the
Choices operational flight plan shall be retained, during at least:
Answers Correct
A 3 months A
B 12 months
C 15 months
D 24 months
Ref ATPL A
Question Which equation relates to transport wander in polar and trans-oceanic areas? (Where gm = ch long, Lm = mean
lat, Lo = tangent of mean lat)
Choices Answers Correct
A gm x sin Lm A
B 15 x sin Lm
C gm x 2 (Lo - Lm)
D 15 x 2 (Lo - Lm)
Ref ATPL A
Question the route of a twin-engined aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 8.618 kg or a
maximum approved seating configuration of more than 19 passengers must be planned in such a way that on one
Choices engine an appropriate aerodrome can be reached within:
Answers Correct
A 90 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative
B 30 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative
C 60 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative C
D 120 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative
Ref ATPL A
Question Astronomic precession is:

Choices Answers Correct

A depending on the chart used
B independent of the latitude
C existing whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying C
D zero when the aircraft is on the ground
Ref ATPL A
Question Contingency in MNPSA but cannot maintain assigned flight level:

Choices Answers Correct

OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question Contingency in MNPSA but cannot maintain assigned flight level:

A Descend whilst turning off track to take up a separation of 90 nm

B Descend whilst turning off track to take up a separation of 60 nm
C Descend whilst turning off track to take up a separation of 30 nm C
D Descend below FL 275
Ref ATPL A
Question In the event of communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace,
the pilot must:
Choices Answers Correct
A return to his flight plan route if its different from the last oceanic clearance received
and acknowledged by him
B continue his flight compliance with the last oceanic clearance received and acknowledged by him
C join one of the so-called special routes
D change the flight level in accordance with the predetermined instructions D
Ref ATPL A
Question On a polar stereographic chart with a grid based on the Greenwich meridian, a track is drawn from 62oN 010oE
to 66oN 050oW. If the initial True track was 305o, what was the initial grid track?
Choices Answers Correct
A 315o
B 305o
C 295o C
D 285o
Ref ATPL A
Question Astronomical (earth rate) precession is:

Choices Answers Correct

A Independent of latitude
B Dependent on chart being used
C Zero on the ground
D Valid whether the aircraft is on the ground or in the air D
Ref ATPL A
Question On reaching the Shanwick OCA to fly in MNPSA, you have not yet received your clearance:

Choices Answers Correct

A Maintain a track 30 nm laterally spaced from your flight plan track
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question On reaching the Shanwick OCA to fly in MNPSA, you have not yet received your clearance:

B Maintain your flight plan track but 500 ft above or below your planned flight level
C Stay outside controlled airspace until you have received your clearance C
D Enter on your flight planned track and flight level and await a late clearance
Ref ATPL A
Question On a polar stereographic chart with grid aligned with the prime meridian; you are heading 045oT; your
position is 76oN 180oW, what is your grid heading?
Choices Answers Correct
A 045o
B 225o B
C 315o
D 135o
Ref ATPL A
Question Ignoring astronomical effects, wind and drift, what route will a constant gyro heading follow?

Choices Answers Correct

A Great circle A
B Rhumb line
C Spherical route
D Loxodrome
Ref ATPL A
Question In MNPSA north of 70oN, how frequently can ATC ask for you to report your position?

Choices Answers Correct

A Every 10 degrees of latitude
B Every 5 degrees of latitude
C Every 20 degrees of longitude C
D Every 10 degrees of longitude
Ref ATPL A
Question On an NDB approach with an MDH of 360 and a required RVR of 1500m and a reported RVR of 2500m, when can you
start an approach; ie which is most correct?
Choices Answers Correct
A When the cloud base is above the system minimum
B With any cloud base
C When the cloud base is above 360 C
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question On an NDB approach with an MDH of 360 and a required RVR of 1500m and a reported RVR of 2500m, when can you
start an approach; ie which is most correct?
D When the cloud base report is received
Ref ATPL A
Question The chart is a South polar stereographic projection of the Antarctic regions. A grid, printed over it, its
aligned with meridian 180o, the grid North in the direction of the geographic North (non standard grid).
Choices The grid course followed by the aircraft is Rg-280o, the position is 80oS 100oE. The true course followed
at this moment is:
Answers Correct
A 000o A
B 260o
C 080o
D 100o
Ref ATPL A
Question In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is the:

Choices Answers Correct

A indicated airspeed
B Mach number B
C ground speed
D true airspeed
Ref ATPL A
Question For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes unless otherwise specified, an aircraft must
be equipped with at least:
Choices Answers Correct
A One Inertial Navigation System (INS)
B Two Inertial Navigation System (INS)
C Two independent long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS)
D One Long Range Navigation System (LRNS) D
Ref ATPL A
Question If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks, the intended
organised track should be defined in iteras of the FPL by:
Choices Answers Correct
A using the abbreviation OTS followed by the code letter assigned to the track
B inserting co-ordinates defining significant points with intervals of 10o of longitude
C the abbreviation NAT followed by the code letter assigned to the track C
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks, the intended
organised track should be defined in iteras of the FPL by:
D inserting co-ordinates as detailed in the NAT track message
Ref ATPL A
Question The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is:

Choices Answers Correct

A 60 NM between aircraft flying above FL 285 A
B 60 NM between aircraft operating below MNPS airspace
C 90 NM between aircraft flying above FL 285
D 90 NM between all aircraft flying the NAT region
Ref ATPL A
Question At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within NAT region?

Choices Answers Correct

A Between FL 290 and FL 410 A
B Between FL 275 and FL 400
C Between FL 245 and FL 410
D Below FL 290
Ref ATPL A
Question Penetration into the North Atlantic ocean airspace is:

Choices Answers Correct

A subject to an optional clearance depending on the type of flight (scheduled or not)
B not subject to a clearance, since the flight is already controlled
C subject to a clearance only if the flight route is changed
D subject to a mandatory clearance D
Ref ATPL A
Question While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of a transport aircraft notices a fast and high
increase in the indicated airspeed without any change in the pre-selected engine and attitude parameters.
Choices The preceding crews had reported the occurrence of wind-shears in final phase you must:
Answers Correct
A take a level flight attitude to reduce speed, then come back to glide path from above
B reduce rapidly the selected thrust in order to reach 1.2 Va and try a precision landing
C maintain aircraft on the glide path, accept a positive speed deviation, monitor the speed C
evolution
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of a transport aircraft notices a fast and high
increase in the indicated airspeed without any change in the pre-selected engine and attitude parameters.
The preceding crews had reported the occurrence of wind-shears in final phase you must:
D reduce rapidly the selected thrust, maintain on the glide path
Ref ATPL A
Question When flying above optimum altitude:

Choices Answers Correct

A range reduces
B mach number stability increases
C flight envelope increases
D range increases D
Ref ATPL A
Question In the Southern Hemisphere (130oE, 80oS), grid is aligned with the Greenwich Meridian, aircraft is heading
110oT, what is the grid heading?
Choices Answers Correct
A 240o A
B 110o
C 340o
D 080o
Ref ATPL A
Question The chart being used is a polar stereographic chart and grid north is aligned with the Greenwich Meridian.
The gyro is aligned with grid North, heading 120o, at 1400 UTC at latitude 600N. Take-off is delayed until
Choices 1630 UTC, gyro not corrected for rate pre:
Answers Correct
A +130
B -32.50 B
C -73.50
D +32.50
Ref ATPL A
Question The limits of MNPS Airspace are:

Choices Answers Correct

A From sea level to FL 660
B From FL 285 to FL 420, from 27oN to the North Pole B
C From FL 270 to FL 480, from 27oN to the North Pole
D From the Equator to the North Pole
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question The limits of MNPS Airspace are:

Ref ATPL A
Question An aeroplane flying east/west between 5oW and 65oW, south of 70oN has to report position every:

Choices Answers Correct

A 10o longitude A
B 20o longitude
C 15o latitude
D 5o latitude
Ref ATPL A
Question Flying to Europe in MNPS at 1000 UTC crossing 030oW:

Choices Answers Correct

A In flight route day system
B In flight route night system
C In random airspace
D Out of organised route track system D
Ref ATPL A
Question For optimum performance for an aeroplane, a step cruise climb is performed. What is the best level to climb
to?
Choices Answers Correct
A Between lock on and optimum levels
B Around lock on level
C Around optimum level C
D Below lock on level
Ref ATPL A
Question What is the true bearing of sun from an aeroplane at the North Pole using a grid track of 315o at 1840Z?

Choices Answers Correct

A 035o
B 325o B
C 180o
D 000o
Ref ATPL A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question How far from an en route alternate airfield can a 2-engined aeroplane with more than 20 seats and a MTOM of
8.600 kg be flown?
Choices Answers Correct
A 120 minutes flying time
B 90 minutes flying time
C 60 minutes flying time
D 60 minutes at the one engine out speed D
Ref ATPL A
Question Estimate Errors in MNPSA must be reported to ATS if they differ by:

Choices Answers Correct

A 3 min or less
B 3 min
C 5 min
D 3 min or more D
Ref ATPL A
Question You are at a latitude of 59o57¿ N with a heading of 120o showing on a gyro compass. You experience a delay
of 2 hrs 30 mins; what is the effect on your compass?
Choices Answers Correct
A -18.5o
B 16.5o
C -32.5o C
D 32.5o
Ref ATPL A
Question Contingency at FL 410 necessitates diversion to an alternate against NAT traffic without ATC clearance but
able to maintain altitude:
Choices Answers Correct
A Turn left or right and climb 1.000 ft/descend 500 ft A
B Climb or descend 500 ft
C Climb 500 ft
D Descend 500 ft
Ref ATPL A
Question How far away can a take-off alternate be for a 2-engined aeroplane?

Choices Answers Correct

A 60 mins at one engine cruise speed A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question How far away can a take-off alternate be for a 2-engined aeroplane?

B 60 mins at normal cruise speed

C 120 mins at one engine cruise speed
D 120 mins at normal cruise speed
Ref ATPL A
Question The take-off alternate has to be within which of the following distances from the aerodrome of departure:

Choices Answers Correct

A For an aeroplane with two engines, a distance equivalent to a flight time of 30 minutes at the
one engine inoperative engine cruise speed
B For an aeroplane with three or more engines, a distance equivalent to a flight time of two hours B
at the one engine inoperative engine cruise speed
C For an aeroplane with two engines, a distance equivalent to a flight time of two hours at the
one engine inoperative engine cruise speed
D For an aeroplane with three or more engines, a distance equivalent to a flight time of four
hours at the one engine inoperative engine cruise speed
Ref ATPL A
Question How do you calculate Conversion Angle?

Choices Answers Correct

A ½ Ch long x sin lat. A
B Ch long x sin lat.
C ½ Ch long x cos lat.
D Ch long x cos lat.
Ref ATPL A
Question When leaving MNPS airspace and you have lost communications, what Mach No. do you select?

Choices Answers Correct

A Your flight plan Mach No.
B The Mach No. to make good the next EET
C Your last cleared Mach No. C
D The TAS as submitted on your flight plan
Ref ATPL A
Question In determining Aerodrome Operating Minima, what of the following needs to
be considered?
Choices
1. Crew composition
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question In determining Aerodrome Operating Minima, what of the following needs to
be considered?

1. Crew composition
2. Ability to communicate/receive meteorological information
3. Significant obstacles in the missed approach area
4. Dimensions and characteristics of the runway
5. Navigation equipment in the aeroplane

Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 4, 5
B 1, 2, 3
C 2, 3, 4, 5
D All of the above D
Ref ATPL A
Question What Mach number do you maintain when leaving MNPS?

Choices Answers Correct

A Flight Plan Mach number
B Mach number complying with local regulations
C Last cleared Mach number from MNPS C
D You revert to flight plan TAS
Ref ATPL A
Question An operator must select two destination alternates when either:

Choices Answers Correct

A The appropriate weather reports or forecasts for the destination, or any combination thereof,
indicate that during a period commencing 1 hour before and ending 1 hour after the estimated
time of arrival, the weather conditions will be below the applicable planning minima:
B No meteorological information is available
C Both A and B are correct C
D Neither A nor B are correct
Ref ATPL A
Question A flight under IFR should not be commenced unless the weather conditions at destination and a nominated
alternate are on:
Choices Answers Correct
A arrival equal to or above, within a reasonable period of time before and after the nominated A
time, the operating minima for aerodrome use
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question A flight under IFR should not be commenced unless the weather conditions at destination and a nominated
alternate are on:
B arrival equal to and above the operating minima for aerodrome use
C departure equal to or above the operating minima for aerodrome use
D or above the minima between departure and the ETA
Ref ATPL A
Question 'An air traffic control unit may request an aircraft to report its position when flying east-west north of
70oN between 10oW and 50oW, every:
Choices Answers Correct
A 10o of longitude
B 15o of longitude
C 5o of longitude
D 20o of longitude D
Ref ATPL A
Question A polar track is a route which part of the length crosses an area where the horizontal component of the
earth's magnetic field is less than:
Choices Answers Correct
A 38 micro-teslas
B 6 micro-teslas B
C 10 micro-teslas
D 17 micro-teslas
Ref ATPL A
Question Separation in RVSM in MNPS is?

Choices Answers Correct

A 60 nm and 500 ft
B 60 nm and 1000 ft B
C 90 nm and 500 ft
D 90 nm and 1000 ft
Ref ATPL A
Question Routing from Shannon to Canada, when not MNPS equipped, how are you able to fly:

Choices Answers Correct

A Outside the times of OTS
B Laterally displaced from the OTS
C At FL 280 or below C
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question Routing from Shannon to Canada, when not MNPS equipped, how are you able to fly:

D You cannot fly the route

Ref ATPL A
Question In MNPS, FL 370, you need to change your clearance but have no communications with ATO. You turn left or
right and get 30 nm separation, do you:
Choices Answers Correct
A Climb or descend 500 ft A
B Climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft
C Climb or descend 1000 ft
D Climb 500 ft or descend 1000 ft
Ref ATPL A
Question On a polar stereographic chart, with a grid referenced on the Greenwich meridian and convergency of 10oW,
true heading of 300o, what is grid heading?
Choices Answers Correct
A 310o
B 300o
C 010o
D 290o D
Ref ATPL A
Question A flight to Europe is expected to be at 030oW at 0030UTC. Where will you be?

Choices Answers Correct

A Inside the daytime organised track system
B Random airspace
C Outside the organised track system C
D Inside the night time organised track system
Ref ATPL A
Question What is the lowest decision height for CAT II operations?

Choices Answers Correct

A 50 ft
B 100 ft B
C 200 ft
D 150 ft
Ref ATPL A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the
direction of the prevailing NAT traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able
Choices to maintain its assigned flight level should:
Answers Correct
A If at FL 410, climb or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome
B If at FL 410, descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome
C If at FL 410, climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome C
D If at FL 410, climb 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome
Ref ATPL A
Question (Refer to figure 071-01)

Choices On the diagram where:

Nt = True North
Nm = Magnetic North
Ng = Grid North

If the magnetic variation is equal to 65oW and if the grid variation is equal to 4oE, the correct
arrangement of the different north is:

Answers Correct
A 4
B 1
C 2
D 3 D
Ref ATPL A
Question Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, north of 70oN between
10oW and 50oW, every:
Choices Answers Correct
A 10o of longitude
B 20o of longitude B
C 15o of longitude
D 5o of longitude
Ref ATPL A
Question Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, south of 70oN between
10oW and 50oW, every:
Choices Answers Correct
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, south of 70oN between
10oW and 50oW, every:
A 10o of longitude A
B 5o of longitude
C 20o of longitude
D 15o of longitude
Ref ATPL A
Question Astronomic precession:

Choices Answers Correct

A causes an apparent wander on the axis of the directional gyro to the right in the southern
hemisphere
B causes an apparent wander on the axis of the directional gyro to the left in the southern B
hemisphere
C is zero at the North pole
D is zero at the South pole
Ref ATPL A
Question Astronomic precession:

Choices Answers Correct

A causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the Northern hemisphere
B causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Northern hemisphere B
C is zero at the North pole
D is zero at the South pole
Ref ATPL A
Question During a flight from Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you
expect to cross the 30oW meridian at 1330 UTC; you will normally be:
Choices Answers Correct
A outside the validity period of the organised track system
B in a polar track system
C in a night-time organised track system
D in a day-time organised track system D
Ref ATPL A
Question During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you
expect to cross the 30oW meridian at 0300 UTC; you will normally be:
Choices Answers Correct
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you
expect to cross the 30oW meridian at 0300 UTC; you will normally be:
A in a day-time organised track system
B outside the validity period of the organised track system
C in a night-time organised track system C
D within the polar track system
Ref ATPL A
Question If all long range navigation systems of an aircraft become unserviceable during a flight in MNPS airspace,
and if no instructions are received from the air traffic control, you must consider:
Choices Answers Correct
A descend below the MNPS space
B climbing or descending 500 feet B
C return to departure airport
D land at the nearest airport
Ref ATPL A
Question In airspace where MNPS is applicable, the minimum vertical separation between FL 290 and FL 410 is:

Choices Answers Correct

A 500 ft
B 1000 ft B
C 2000 ft
D 1500 ft
Ref ATPL A
Question In case of total loss of communications, if an aircraft operating in MNPS airspace is unable to continue its
flight in accordance with its ATC clearance, it must offset from the assigned route by 30 nm and climb by
Choices 1000 ft or descend by 500 ft to a level
Answers Correct
A below FL 410
B above FL 410
C at FL 410 C
D at FL 430
Ref ATPL A
Question In NAT region, a revised estimate should be transmitted to the ATS when the estimated time for the next
position has changed by:
Choices Answers Correct
A 10 minutes or more
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question In NAT region, a revised estimate should be transmitted to the ATS when the estimated time for the next
position has changed by:
B 5 minutes or more
C 3 minutes or more C
D 2 minutes or more
Ref ATPL A
Question In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air to air communications is:
Choices Answers Correct
A 128.800 MHz
B 118.800 MHz
C 121.800 MHz
D 123.45 MHz D
Ref ATPL A
Question Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) airspace in the applicable areas of the North Atlantic
is defined between the following flight levels:
Choices Answers Correct
A FL 280 and FL 475
B FL 270 and FL 400
C sea level and FL 660
D FL 85 and FL 420 D
Ref ATPL A
Question Minimum time route is a route calculated for:

Choices Answers Correct

A a period of 12 hours
B a given flight from departure to destination B
C a period of 24 hours
D aircraft flying in MNPS airspace
Ref ATPL A
Question The validity period of a day-time organised track system in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification) airspace is normally at 30oW between:
Choices Answers Correct
A 01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
B 10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
C 11H30 UTC to 18H00 UTC C
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question The validity period of a day-time organised track system in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification) airspace is normally at 30oW between:
D 00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
Ref ATPL A
Question The validity period of a nigh-time organised track system in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification) airspace is normally at 30oW, between:
Choices Answers Correct
A 01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC A
B 10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
C 11H30 UTC to 18H00 UTC
D 00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
Ref ATPL A
Question Minimum lateral separation in NAT is:

Choices Answers Correct

A 90 nm between all aircraft in NAT
B 60 nm between aircraft operating below MNPSA
C 60 nm above FL 285 C
D 90 nm above FL 285
Ref ATPL A
Question How is VOR information in N Canada airspace referenced?

Choices Answers Correct

A Magnetic north
B Grid north
C Gyro north
D True north D
Ref ATPL A
Question How does one define the planned tracks north of 70oN?

Choices Answers Correct

A Latitude in degrees with meridians spaced at 10o
B Latitude in degrees with meridians spaced at 20o B
C Longitude spaced at 5o intervals
D Latitude spaced at 5o intervals
Ref ATPL A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question In the event of contingencies against the flow of NAT system, you can't get prior approval from ATC. You:

Choices Answers Correct

A if above FL 410 climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft while turning to alternate
B if below FL 410 climb or descend 1000 ft while turning to alternate
C if above FL 410 climb or descend 1000 ft while turning to alternate C
D if below FL 410 climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft while turning to alternate
Ref ATPL A
Question When flying a non-MNPS aircraft, climb through MNPS Airspace is allowed:

Choices Answers Correct

A When under radar and in VHF communications with a controller A
B When in contact with other aircraft in the area
C Always prohibited
D When it has 2 LRNS
Ref ATPL A
Question If at FL 410 in MNPS and RVSM, you suffer an emergency requiring descent, do you:

Choices Answers Correct

A Climb/descend 500 ft and offset by 60 nm
B Climb 500 ft/descend 1000 ft and offset by 30 nm
C Climb 1000 ft/descend 500 ft and offset by 30 nm C
D Climb/descend 1000 ft and offset by 60 nm
Ref ATPL A
Question Above FL 410 and needing to go against the NAT track system, you will turn through 90o and ensure 30 nm
separation from your planned track. What will you then do?
Choices Answers Correct
A Climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft
B Climb or descend 1000 ft B
C Climb 500 ft or descend 1000 ft
D Climb or descend 500 ft
Ref ATPL A
Question Within NAT, IFR only is applicable in the area:

Choices Answers Correct

A Above 3000 ft
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question Within NAT, IFR only is applicable in the area:

B Above FL 60 or 2000 ft whichever is the higher B

C Uncontrolled airspace 400 nm from shore
D Controlled airspace 100 nm from shore
Ref ATPL A
Question On MNPS special routes without special clearance, the minimum navigation requirement is:

Choices Answers Correct

A 1 LRNS A
B 2 LRNS
C 1 INS
D 2 INS
Ref ATPL A
Question The validity time for an Eastbound OTS is:

Choices Answers Correct

A 1030 UTC to 1900 UTC
B 1130 UTC to 1900 UTC
C 0100 UTC to 0800 UTC C
D 0000 UTC to 0800 UTC
Ref ATPL A
Question You are flight planned on a NAT OTS track for the whole length. The flight plan will define the route
format as:
Choices Answers Correct
A NAT plus the track code letter A
B NAT plus co-ordinates
C NAT OTS plus entry and exit points
D OTS plus the track code letter
Ref ATPL A
Question Desired track is 100o, actual track is 120o. Which statement is correct?

Choices Answers Correct

A Track error angle is right A
B Track error angle is left
C Converging with desired track
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question Desired track is 100o, actual track is 120o. Which statement is correct?

D Diverging from desired track

Ref ATPL A
Question Earth rate or astronomic precession:

Choices Answers Correct

A Causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Northern Hemisphere A
B is zero at the South Pole
C is zero at the North Pole
D Causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the Northern Hemisphere
Ref ATPL A
Question You are at 60oS 100oE, using a polar stereographic chart with the grid based on the 180o meridian. Grid
north is in the direction of geographic north. If you are heading 258oG, what is your true heading?
Choices Answers Correct
A 158o
B 178o
C 338o
D 358o D
Ref ATPL A
Question On a polar stereographic chart, the grid is aligned on the 180o meridian. At 80oS 100oE, with a grid
heading of 280o, what is the true heading?
Choices Answers Correct
A 000o A
B 080o
C 180o
D 260o
Ref ATPL A
Question An aeroplane is at 60oN 010oE and is to fly to 60oN 020oE. The flight time is 1.5 hours in still air. The
gyro is set with the reference to true north and not corrected in flight for precession. What is the
Choices required initial heading if a constant gyro heading is to be maintained?
Answers Correct
A 080o
B 076o B
C 066o
D 086o
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question An aeroplane is at 60oN 010oE and is to fly to 60oN 020oE. The flight time is 1.5 hours in still air. The
gyro is set with the reference to true north and not corrected in flight for precession. What is the
required initial heading if a constant gyro heading is to be maintained?
Ref ATPL A
Question Flying in MNPS, what are the vertical and Latitude limits:

Choices Answers Correct

A FL 285 - FL 420, North Pole - 27N A
B B ¿ FL 200 - FL 470, North Pole - 27N
C FL 296 - FL 400, Equator - 27N
D D – FL 295 – FL 410
Ref ATPL A
Question The autopilot is coupled to a gyro-magnetic compass corrected for variation so that true headings may be
flown. What path would you follow over the ground?
Choices Answers Correct
A a rhumb line A
B a great circle
C a curve of pursuit
D none of the above
Ref ATPL A
Question The validity of NAT minimum time tracks for longitude 030oW is:
1.1130 to 1800 UTC
Choices 2.0100 to 0800 UTC
3.0800 to 1400 UTC
4.1800 to 0100 UTC
Answers Correct
A (i) and (ii) A
B (ii) and (iii)
C (i) and (iv)
D (iii) and (iv)
Ref ATPL A
Question At 60oN 030oW, the true heading is 090o, gyro bearing is 000o. At 62oN 010oW, the true heading is 095o and
it has taken 1.5 hrs to travel that distance. Assuming the latitude nut is functioning correctly what will
Choices the gyro read?
Answers Correct
A 003o
B 348o
C 328o C
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL - Navigation requirements for Long Range Flights
Question At 60oN 030oW, the true heading is 090o, gyro bearing is 000o. At 62oN 010oW, the true heading is 095o and
it has taken 1.5 hrs to travel that distance. Assuming the latitude nut is functioning correctly what will
the gyro read?
D 354o
Ref ATPL A
Question You are flying in the MNPSA and in the event of an in-flight incident combined with a communications failure
are required to climb or descend by 500 ft. You are:
Choices Answers Correct
A At FL 410
B Above FL 410
C Below FL 410 C
D None of the above
Ref ATPL A
Question Earth rate or astronomical rate:

Choices Answers Correct

A Makes the gyro spin axis turn left in the northern hemisphere
B Makes the gyro spin axis turn right in the northern hemisphere B
C is zero at the North Pole
D is zero at the South Pole
Ref ATPL A
Question What is the relative bearing of sun from an aeroplane at the North pole using a grid track of 315o at 1840Z
if the grid is aligned with the prime meridian?
Choices Answers Correct
A 035o
B 325o B
C 180o
D 000o
Ref ATPL A
Question Minimum time tracks in the NAT MNPS airspace are issued

Choices Answers Correct

A daily
B twice daily B
C weekly
D hourly
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
Question Minimum time tracks in the NAT MNPS airspace are issued

Ref ATPL A
Question The minimum horizontal and vertical separation between aircraft in MNPS airspace is:

Choices Answers Correct

A 40 nm and 1000ft
B 60 nm and 1000ft
C 60 nm and 2000 ft
D 90 nm and 1000 ft D
Ref ATPL A
Question The minimum equipment list of a public transport airplane is to be found in the:

Choices Answers Correct

A flight record
B CARS
C flight manual
D operation manual D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still parked. The reference
document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:
Choices Answers Correct
A the minimum equipment list A
B the operation manuals chapter Abnormal and Emergency procedures
C the JAR OPS
D the flight manual
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question A list to be carried in the aeroplane detailing minimum equipment required must be approved by:

Choices Answers Correct

A Country of operations
B Country of operator B
C Country of manufacturer
D No such book is required to be approved by an authority
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
Question The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment on which certain in-flight failures can be
allowed and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by:
Choices Answers Correct
A the operator from a main list drawn up by the manufacturer
B the operator and is specified in the operation manual
C the operator and approved by the certification authority
D the manufacturer and approved by the certification authority D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is established by:

Choices Answers Correct

A the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the manufacturer
B the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
C the manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority C
D the manufacturer of the aircraft, but need not to be accepted by the authority
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the equipment on which certain in-flight failures can be allowed
and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. The Mel is drawn up by:
Choices Answers Correct
A the manufacturer and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)
B the operator and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) B
C the operator and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)
D the manufacturer and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by:

Choices Answers Correct

A the aeronautical authority the airline operator depends on
B the manufacturer
C the airline operator C
D the Civil Aviation Authority of the European states
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Following an indication of an unserviceability whilst taxiing to the holding point, what do you consult
first?
Choices Answers Correct
A Flight manual
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
Question Following an indication of an unserviceability whilst taxiing to the holding point, what do you consult
first?
B Operator
C State of registration
D MEL D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Who issues and updates the MEL?

Choices Answers Correct

A The authority
B The designer
C The manufacturer
D The operator D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The MEL (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:

Choices Answers Correct

A the aircraft manufacturers list
B the aircraft state of registry
C the operator C
D the manufacturer
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An operator is permitted to use an aircraft with certain items of equipment out of service if this is
provided for in:
Choices Answers Correct
A the approval conditions for return to service following maintenance
B the Maintenance Schedule, in the Approval Specifications Section
C the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) or Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) C
D JAR-OPS Subpart M
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The field of application of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is defined by a phase of flight operation. The
commander must use the limitations provided by the MEL:
Choices Answers Correct
A At any time during the flight
B Prior to the aircraft take-off
C At the parking area prior to the aircraft taxiing C
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
Question The field of application of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is defined by a phase of flight operation. The
commander must use the limitations provided by the MEL:
D Until the aircraft has come to a complete stop at the end of the flight
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a
flight and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by:
Choices Answers Correct
A the operator from a main list drawn up by the manufacturer
B the operations manual
C the operator and approved by the certification authority
D the manufacturer and approved by the certification authority D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by:

Choices Answers Correct

A the Civil Aviation Authority
B the manufacturer and approved by the authority
C the aeronautical authority the airline operator depends on
D the airline operator and approved by the authority D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The MMEL is?

Choices Answers Correct

A Compiled by the manufacturer and approved by the operator
B Compiled by the manufacturer and approved by the state of design or state of the manufacturer B
C Compiled by the operator and approved by the state of design
D Compiled by the manufacturer and not approved by the operator
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When taking off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the following
effects:An increase in the take-off distanceA decrease of the take-off runAn increase in the stalling speedA
Choices decrease of the stalling speedA decrease of the climb gradientThe combination regrouping all the correct
statements is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 3, 5 A
B 2, 4, 5
C 1, 2, 3
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
Question When taking off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the following
effects:An increase in the take-off distanceA decrease of the take-off runAn increase in the stalling speedA
decrease of the stalling speedA decrease of the climb gradientThe combination regrouping all the correct
statements is:
D 2, 3, 5
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure must be anti-icing fluid free at the latest when:

Choices Answers Correct

A leaving the icing zone
B releasing the brakes in order to take-off
C it is implementing its own anti-icing devices
D it is rotating (before taking-off) D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question The application of a type II de-icing fluid on an aircraft on ground will provide a:

Choices Answers Correct

A certain time of protection depending on its concentration A
B 24 hours protection time
C certain time of protection independent of the outside temperature
D 3 hours protection time
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question When an aircraft, having already undergone an anti-icing procedure, must be protected again?

Choices Answers Correct

A You must wait until the protection time of the anti-icing fluid is over before applying the new
layer of anti-icing fluid
B You can apply directly the new layer of anti-icing fluid without previous de-icing
C You must operate the aircraft de-icing/anti-icing devices before applying the new layer of anti-
icing fluid
D First, you must de-ice again the surface of the airplane, then applhy the new layer of anti- D
icing fluid
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure:

Choices Answers Correct

A the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied cold
B the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied hot
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
Question During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure:

C the anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing fluid is applied hot C
D the de-icing fluid is applied without heating and the anti-icing fluid is applied hot
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question An aircraft having undergon an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the protection time of the anti-
icing fluid:
Choices Answers Correct
A must only undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off
B must undergo a de-icing procedure before a new application of anti-icing fluid for take-off B
C need not to undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off
D must only undergone a de-icing procedure for take-off
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question The EPR probes of an aircraft are covered in ice. The indicated EPR:

Choices Answers Correct

A will be lower than the real EPR
B will be higher than the real EPR B
C will be zero
D will be correct
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight induces an increase in the:

Choices Answers Correct

A tuck under
B value of the stall angle of attack
C stalling speed C
D roll rate
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question The greatest possibility of ice buildup, while flying under icing conditions, occurs on:

Choices Answers Correct

A The aircraft front areas A
B The upper and lower wing surfaces
C The upper and lower rudder surfaces
D Only the pilot and static probes
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
Question The greatest possibility of ice buildup, while flying under icing conditions, occurs on:

Ref CPL A AND ATPL A

Question During the winter an aircraft is parked overnight prior to an early morning departure. The crew notice a
slight glistening ice deposit on top of the wings or blades which appears translucent. Under these
Choices conditions:
Answers Correct
A the take off performance of the aircraft will not be affected
B there is no risk of ice accretion
C the aircraft should be sprayed with de-icing fluid of the correct type C
D a longer starting procedure will be necessary to warm up the aircraft
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question The accumulation of frost, snow or ice on an aeroplane in flight induces, amongst other serious
consequences, an increase in the:
Choices Answers Correct
A tuck under
B value of the stall angle of attack
C stalling speed C
D roll rate
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question The application of a type II anti-icing fluid on an aircraft on the ground will provide a:

Choices Answers Correct

A limited holdover time A
B protection time up to 24 hours
C limited time of protection independent of the outside temperature
D protection against icing for the duration of the flight
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question When planning a flight in icing conditions, what are the requirements?

Choices Answers Correct

A Aircraft to be equipped with approved anti-icing equipment A
B Apply anti-icing fluid
C A Met officer will decide if the flight can take place
D Take off anyway and hope for the best
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
Question The terminal VOR transmits the following weather data. When do you expect carburettor icing?

Choices Answers Correct

A Outside Air Temperature (OAT): + 15oC Dew Point (DEWP): -5oC
B Outside Air Temperature (OAT): + 10oC Dew Point (DEWP): +7oC B
C Outside Air Temperature (OAT): + 25oC Dew Point (DEWP): +5oC
D Outside Air Temperature (OAT): - 10oC Dew Point (DEWP): -15oC
Ref CPL A AND H
Question For stable clouds:The most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0oC and -10oCThe most favourable
temperatures for icing are between 0oC and -15oCIcing becomes rare at t<-18oCIcing becomes rate at t<-
Choices 30oCThe diameter of water droplets is between 0.002 and 0.03 mmThe diameter of water droplets is between
0.004 and 0.2 mmWhich of the following combinations contains all the correct statements?
Answers Correct
A 1, 3, 5 A
B 2, 4, 6
C 2, 3, 5
D 1, 4, 6
Ref CPL A AND H
Question If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:

Choices Answers Correct

A Dependent on the temperature
B Less than the actual
C Equal to the actual
D Greater than the actual D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time starts:

Choices Answers Correct

A at the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage) A
B at the beginning of the first stage (de-icing stage)
C at the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage)
D at the end of the first stage (de-icing stage)
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on:The type and intensity of the showersThe ambient
temperatureThe relative humidityThe direction and speed of the windThe temperature of the airplane skinThe
type of fluid, its concentration and temperatureThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
Question The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on:The type and intensity of the showersThe ambient
temperatureThe relative humidityThe direction and speed of the windThe temperature of the airplane skinThe
Choices type of fluid, its concentration and temperatureThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 2, 3, 4, 5
B 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 B
C 1, 2, 4, 6
D 1, 3, 5, 6
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at take-off:

Choices Answers Correct

A separate on each side of the runway A
B stagnate on the runway
C separate to the right side
D separate to the left side
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight with icing conditions:

Choices Answers Correct

A The aircraft shall be equipped with approved ice-protection systems A
B The flight should be planned so that a change of cruising level can be initiated rapidly
C The aircraft shall before flight be sprayed with anti-iing fluid
D A meteorologist shall decide whether the flight may be performed without ice-protection systems
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Ice accretion depends on many factors including ambient temperature and type of precipitation. Which of the
following woule give the longest holdover time?
Choices Answers Correct
A Steady snow
B Freezing fog
C Rain on a cold soaked wing
D Frost D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What happens to the EPR if the probe is blocked by ice?

Choices Answers Correct

OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
Question What happens to the EPR if the probe is blocked by ice?

A Over reads A
B Under reads
C Depends on temperature
D Nothing
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In icing conditions and after the application of an anti-icing fluid on your airplane, you are waiting to
take-off by:avoiding positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the preceding aircraftavoiding
Choices positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the preceding aircraftpositioning yourself in the engine jet
wash of the preceding aircraftpositioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the preceding aircraftThe
combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 2 A
B 3, 4
C 2, 3
D 1, 4 D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In icing conditions, the pilot in command must:

Choices Answers Correct

A ensure sufficient anti-ice is still present on surfaces
B ensure surfaces are free from build-up of ice within constraints allowed by the operations
manual
C ensure no ice more than 5mm in depth is on surfaces
D ensure holdover time has not exceeded the time since de-icikng started D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The holdover time following an anti-icing procedure being carried out will vary considerably depending on
the ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection
Choices will be in weater conditions of:
Answers Correct
A frost A
B freezing fog
C rain on a cold soaked wing
D steady snow
Ref CPL A AND H
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
Question If after anti-icing has been completed a pre-departure inspection reveals evidence of freezing, the correct
action is to:
Choices Answers Correct
A switch on all the aeroplane anti-icing and de-icing systems and leave on until clear of icing
conditions when airborne
B compelte departure provided that the recommended anti-icing holdover (protection) time for the
prevailing conditions and type of fluid used has not been exceeded
C carry out a further de-icing process C
D complete departure as soon as possible to reduce the possibility
Ref CPL A AND H
Question For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of the following types of
weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be shortest?
Choices Answers Correct
A Steady snow
B Freezing fog
C Frost
D Freezing rain D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What effect does snow and ice contamination have on aircraft performance?Increase take-off runDecrease take-
off runIncrease stall speedDecrease stall speedReduce climb gradient
Choices Answers Correct
A 2, 4, 5
B 1, 3, 5 B
C 2, 3, 4
D 1, 2, 3
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In high ambient temperatures (30oC) and at relative humidities as low as 40%, in air free from cloud, fog
and precipitation, serious carburettor icing
Choices Answers Correct
A Can occur but only at low power settings A
B Cannot occur
C Can occur at anyu power settings
D Can occur, but only at full power and cruise settings
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Holdover tie can be considerably reduced by:
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
Question Holdover tie can be considerably reduced by:

Choices Answers Correct

A air temperature being slightly below 0 deg C
B airframe temperature being slightly below 0 deg C
C strong winds and effect of jet blast from other aeroplanes C
D effect of headwind
Ref CPL A AND H
Question How long is holdover time for Type II anti-icing fluids?

Choices Answers Correct

A 24 hours
B 3 hours
C A certain time dependent on concentration C
D A certain time independent of skin temperature
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the worst case for hold over time following de-ice/anti-ice?

Choices Answers Correct

A Freezing rain A
B Freezing fog
C Frost
D Snow
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When anti-icing has been applied, when must you make sure it is still active?

Choices Answers Correct

A When clear of icing conditions
B On rotation
C At brake release for take-off C
D Until one can use ones own anti-icing equipment
Ref CPL A AND H
Question After anti-icing has been completed, a pre-departure inspection reveals presence of frost, ice or snow. The
correct action is to:
Choices Answers Correct
A switch on all the aircraft anti-icing and de-icing systems and leave on until clear of icing
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
Question After anti-icing has been completed, a pre-departure inspection reveals presence of frost, ice or snow. The
correct action is to:
B complete departure as soon as possible to reduce the possibility of further contamination
C carry out a new de-icing/anti-icing procedure C
D complete departure provided that the recommended anti-icing holdover (protection) time for the
prevailing conditions and type of fluid used has not been exceeded
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In icing conditions, if you have exceeded the holdover time, the correct procedure is to:

Choices Answers Correct

A de-ice again the aircraft, then apply anti-icing fluid A
B apply directly anti-icing fluid without conducting previous de-icing procedures
C operate the aircraft de-icing/anti-icing systems
D de-ice the aircraft
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce the holdover time considerably:

Choices Answers Correct

A during strong winds or as a result of other aircraft engines jet blast A
B when the outside temperature is close to 0oC
C when the temperature of the aeroplane skin is close to 0oC
D when the aeroplane is parked facing into wind
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The commaner shall not commence take-off in icing conditions:

Choices Answers Correct

A unless the external surfaces are free from any ice contamination greater than 5 mm
B unless the external surfaces are clear of any contamination, except as permitted by Aircraft B
Flight Manual
C unless the external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid and the aircraft is not to
be operated in forecasted icing conditions greater than moderate icing
D even if the ice contamination does not lead to an excedence of mass and balance limits
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The greatest possible risk if ice build-up occurs when flying in icing conditions:

Choices Answers Correct

A On the aircraft front surfaces A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
Question The greatest possible risk if ice build-up occurs when flying in icing conditions:

B Only on pitot or static probes

C On the rudder upper and lower surfaces
D On the wind upper and lower surfaces
Ref CPL A AND H
Question After de-icing/anti-icing still in freezing conditions, how should you position the aircraft?

Choices Answers Correct

A In prop and jet wash
B In jet wash but not prop wash
C In prop wash but not jet wash
D In neither D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question If taking off in icing conditions, pilot-in-command must make sure:

Choices Answers Correct

A Icing does not affect performance within the constraints of the operations manual A
B Icing does not affect the mass and balance of the aeroplane
C Icing on the airframe is not greater than 5 mm
D Anti-ice is still present on the airframe
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When does the anti-icing holdover time begin on a 2 step procedure?

Choices Answers Correct

A From the start of the anti-icing procedure A
B From the end of the anti-icing procedure
C When all icing deposits have been removed from the airframe
D From the start of the de-icing procedure
Ref CPL A AND H
Question After the anti-icing time has expired, do you:

Choices Answers Correct

A De-ice then anti-ice? A
B Just de-ice?
C Do nothing?
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
Question After the anti-icing time has expired, do you:

D Just anti-ice?
Ref CPL A AND H
Question For a de-icing and anti-icing procedure, how are the fluids applied:

Choices Answers Correct

A Both hot
B Anti-icing hot, de-icing cold
C De-icing hot, anti-icing cold C
D Both cold
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The observations and studies conducted on the behaviour of birds on the ground, ahead of an aircraft taking
off and having reached an average speed of 135 kt, show that birds fly away:
Choices Answers Correct
A about two seconds beforehand A
B about ten seconds beforehand
C as soon as they hear the engines noise
D from the beginning of the take-off roll
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question During take-off an aircraft hits a bird. Due to control vibrations a landing must be made immediately.
Following this icident the pilot:
Choices Answers Correct
A must file an AIR PROX report: the Control Tower having given no warning
B must file a Bird Strike report B
C must file a airworthiness report
D is not obliged to report this incident
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Which one of the following sets of conditions is most likely to attract birds to an aerodrome?

Choices Answers Correct

A The extraction of minerals such as sand and gravel
B Mowing and maintaining the grass long
C A modern sewage tip in close proximity
D A refuse tip in close proximity D
Ref CPL A AND H
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
Question Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of birds?

Choices Answers Correct

A Edible rubbish
B Long grass B
C An area liable to flooding
D Short gang-mown grass
Ref CPL A AND H
Question As regards the detection of bird strikehazard, the pilot means of information and prevention are:
1.ATIS
Choices 2.NOTAMs
3.BIRDTAMs
4.Weather radar
5.The report by another crew
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 5 A
B 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
C 1, 3, 4
D 2, 5
Ref CPL A AND H
Question 90% of bird strikes occur:

Choices Answers Correct

A under 500 m A
B above 1000 m
C between 500 and 1000 m
D between 500 and 1500 m
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An analysis of the bird strikes shows that the highest risk is encountered in a layer from:

Choices Answers Correct

A from 0 to 150 m A
B from 500 to 1200 m
C from 100 to 800 m
D from 200 to 500 m
Ref CPL A AND H
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
Question What would be most likely to attract birds near an airfield?

Choices Answers Correct

A Mowed grass kept long
B Modern sewerage plant
C Mineral extraction
D A refuse tip D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Which habitat is the least favourable for birds?

Choices Answers Correct

A Long grass A
B Rubbish tips
C Short grass cut by gang mowers
D Areas that flood
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the most effective method for scarding birds?

Choices Answers Correct

A Shell crackers A
B Landrover with loudspeaker
C Scarecrow
D Making movement
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The most efficient bird scaring technique generally available is:

Choices Answers Correct

A the use of model predators, scarecrows, etc
B broadcasting of recorded distress calls B
C firing shellcrackers
D various visual methods
Ref CPL A AND H
Question After take-off the pilot of a commercial aeroplane notices a flock of birds which could pose a bird-strike
risk. Does the pilot:
Choices Answers Correct
A contact the ground station immediately A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
Question After take-off the pilot of a commercial aeroplane notices a flock of birds which could pose a bird-strike
risk. Does the pilot:
B inform other aircraft by radio
C inform the appropriate persons in a reasonable time
D ignore the problem and hope someone else will make a report
Ref CPL A AND H
Question 90% of bird strikes happen at:

Choices Answers Correct

A 500 - 1500m
B 500 - 1000m
C Over 1000 ft
D Under 500 ft D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The highest risk of bird strikes occurs:

Choices Answers Correct

A above 1000m
B under 500m B
C between 500 and 1000m
D between 500 and 1500m
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Which one of the following sets of conditions is most likely to attract birds to an aerodrome?

Choices Answers Correct

A maintaining the grass on the airfield
B a opened refuse tip in close vicinity B
C modern and close sewage treatment centre in close proximity
D the extraction of mine4rals such as sand and gravel
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the best way of clearing birds from an airfield using modern methods?

Choices Answers Correct

A Model predators
B Shell crackers
C Flashing lights
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question What is the best way of clearing birds from an airfield using modern methods?

D Recorded distress calls D

Ref CPL A AND H
Question An aircraft has a bird-strike at take-off and is forced to land immediately due to vibrations from the
engine. Does the pilot:
Choices Answers Correct
A Report an AIRPROX because ATC did not inform him of birds
B File a bird strike report B
C Inform the RSPB
D Check with the engineers if any damage has occurred
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the best way for crews to be warned of bird activity?
1.ATIS
Choices 2.BIRDTAMs
3.Weather radar
4.Other crews
5.NOTAMs
Answers Correct
A All of the above
B 1, 2, 5
C 3, 4, 5
D 1, 4, 5 D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Studies of bird behaviour on the ground have shown that, with an aircraft at approximately 135 kt is taking
off, the birds will fly away:
Choices Answers Correct
A 2 seconds before hand A
B 10 seconds before hand
C When they hear the noise of the engines
D At the start of the take-off run
Ref CPL A AND H
Question According with the noise abatement take-off and climb procedure B, as established in DOC 8168 Ops Volume 1,
part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt, until reaching:
Choices Answers Correct
A 3000 ft
B 500 ft
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question According with the noise abatement take-off and climb procedure B, as established in DOC 8168 Ops Volume 1,
part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt, until reaching:
C 1500 ft
D 1000 ft D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Acording to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the ICAO, DOC 8168 Volume 1 part V, data
available indicates that the procedure which results in noise relief during the part of the procedure close
Choices to the airport:
Answers Correct
A is procedure A
B is procedure B B
C is either procedure A or B, because there is no difference in noise distribution
D depends on the wind component
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question In accordance with (ICAO) DOC 8168 OPS, noise preferential routes are established to ensure that departing
and arriving aeroplanes avoid overflying noise-sensitive areas in the vicinity of the aerodrome as far as
Choices practicable. In establishing noise preferential routes:
Answers Correct
A turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is
limited to 20o (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 kt)
B turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the aeroplane has reached and can
maintain throughout the turn a height of no less than 100m above terrain and the highest
obstacle
C no turns should be required coincident with a reduction of power associated with a noise C
abatement procedure
D turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is
limited to 28o (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 kt)
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question According to the recommended noise abatement take-off and climb procedure A established in ICAO, DOC 8168
Volume 1 part v, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to climb power, has to be done as soon as the aircraft reaches:
Choices Answers Correct
A 2000 ft
B 3000 ft
C 1500 ft C
D 1000 ft
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question According to ICAO Document 8168 Part V, when using Procedure A for noise abatement, when must you reduce
power:
Choices Answers Correct
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question According to ICAO Document 8168 Part V, when using Procedure A for noise abatement, when must you reduce
power:
A 1000 ft
B 1500 ft B
C 2000 ft
D 3000 ft
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question According to ICAO Doc 8168, a noise abatement departure procedure is NOT to be initiated at less than:

Choices Answers Correct

A 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation
B 1000 ft above aerodrome elevation
C 800 ft above aerodrome elevation C
D 2000 ft above aerodrome elevation
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question According to the recommended noise abatement take-off and climb procedure NADP2, established in ICAO Doc
8168, acceleration and flaps/slats retraction is initiated:
Choices Answers Correct
A at 1500 ft
B not below 1000 ft
C at 3000 ft
D not below 800 ft D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Class B noise abatement procedures are used:

Choices Answers Correct

A Near airfield A
B Away from airfield
C Depends on the prevailing wind
D Not applicable
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question When using ICAO noise abatement Procedure A the flap retraction is commenced at

Choices Answers Correct

A 1000 ft
B 2000 ft
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question When using ICAO noise abatement Procedure A the flap retraction is commenced at

C 1500 ft
D 3000 ft D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during
instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168 the:
Choices Answers Correct
A operator A
B state of the operator
C state in which the aeroplane is operating
D commander
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum height at which a power reduction shall be allowed is:

Choices Answers Correct

A 600m (2000 ft)
B 450m (1500 ft)
C 150m (500 ft)
D 300m (1000 ft) D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question About procedures for noise attenuation during landing:

Choices Answers Correct

A They are applied in the case of an instrument approach only
B They prohibit the use of reverse thrust
C Such procedures do not exist
D Such procedures will not involce the prohibition of using reverse thrust D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway, under the following
circumstances:
Choices 1.When cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots
2.When the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots
3.When the runway is not clear or dry
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 3
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway, under the following
circumstances:
1.When cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots
2.When the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots
3.When the runway is not clear or dry
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
B 1, 2
C 1, 2, 3 C
D 2, 3
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Following take-off, the noise abatement climb procedures specified by the operator is:

Choices Answers Correct

A different according to airports and airplane types
B for all airplane types, the same for a specific airport
C different for a same airplan type, according to airports
D for the same airplane type, the same for all airports D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Which one of the following factors should prevent a runway being chosen as the preferential landing runway
for noise abatement purposes in visual meteorological condition (VMC)?
Choices Answers Correct
A It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidance A
B Cross-wind component, including gusts, is 10 kt
C It has a tail wind component of any value
D It has a tail wind component of 3 kts and a cross wind, including gusts, of 12 kt
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Which statement is correct concerning turns on noise abatement procedures?

Choices Answers Correct

A All turns must give at least 100m obstacle and terrain clearance
B Turns of a bank angle of up to 20 deg are allowed maintaining VAT + 10- 20 kts
C Turns of a bank angle of up to 28 deg are allowed maintaining VAT + 10- 20 kts
D No turns should be coincident with a reduction in power D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What precludes a runway being used for noise abatement procedures if landing in VMC?

Choices Answers Correct

OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question What precludes a runway being used for noise abatement procedures if landing in VMC?

A Any tailwind
B Cross wind including gusts of 10 kts
C Tail wind up to 3 kts
D No ILS or visual guidance D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Noise abatement for landing:

Choices Answers Correct

A Precludes the use of thrust reverse
B Should not preclude the use of thrust reverse B
C Stop use of thrust reverse before the threshold
D Allows limited use of thrust reverse
Ref CPL A AND H
Question the take-off climb procedures for noise abatement to be specified by the operator should be:

Choices Answers Correct

A for all aeroplane types, the same for a specific aerodrome
B for any one aeroplane type, the same for all aerodromes B
C for all aeroplane types, the same for all aerodromes
D different according to aerodromes and aeroplane types
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when:

Choices Answers Correct

A it has a tail wind regardless its magnitude
B Cross wind component, including gusts, is 10 kt or less
C It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidance C
D Tail wind component, including gusts, is less than 4 kt
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Which statement is correct about noise abatement procedures during landing?

Choices Answers Correct

A There are no noise abatement procedures for landing
B These procedures prohibit the use of reverse thrust
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question Which statement is correct about noise abatement procedures during landing?

C These procedures shall not prohibit the use of reverse thrust C

D These procedures are applied in case of instrument approach only
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Which statement is correct concerning noise abatement?

Choices Answers Correct

A There is no prohibition on the use of thrust reverse A
B Reverse thrust is not permitted at any time
C At night, thrust reverse is not permitted
D Thrust reverse may be permitted, but only at idle power
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Who is responsible for establishing and distribution amendments to noise abatement procedures?

Choices Answers Correct

A The country where the aeroplane is operated
B The country where the aeroplane is registered
C The country of the operator of the aerodrome C
D The operator of the aerodrome
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When would you not have to turn on a noise abatement procedure?

Choices Answers Correct

A Below 1000 ft
B When changing radio frequencies
C When reducing power C
D when raising flap
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What conditions can the choice of runway preclude noise abatement procedures?
1.Cross wind > 15 knots
Choices 2.Tail wind > 5 knots
3.Windshear and thunderstorm reported
Answers Correct
A (i), (ii) and (iii) A
B (i) and (ii)
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question What conditions can the choice of runway preclude noise abatement procedures?
1.Cross wind > 15 knots
2.Tail wind > 5 knots
3.Windshear and thunderstorm reported
C (i) and (iii)
D (ii) and (iii)
Ref CPL A AND H
Question After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. The
fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres:
Choices Answers Correct
A under no circumstances
B only from left or right side
C from any side
D only from front or rear side D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question After landing, in case of high temperature of the brakes you:

Choices Answers Correct

A apply the parking brake and you approacoh the wheels either from fore or aft
B release the parking brake and you approach the wheels sidewards
C release the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from aft or fore C
D apply the parking brake and approach the wheels sidewards
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is:

Choices Answers Correct

A Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes A
B Water may only be used for minor fires
C A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire
D Burning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually extinguished by using carbon dioxide
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question After landing heavy and fast, an enginer should approach the landing gear from:

Choices Answers Correct

A the sides
B the front or rear B
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question After landing heavy and fast, an enginer should approach the landing gear from:

C neither
D only when the gear has cooled down
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question If you have a fire in a toilet, what fire extinguishers would you use:

Choices Answers Correct

A All available liquids
B Only toilet extinguishers
C All available in sequence
D All available simultaneously D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question An aircraft is configured for seating 61 to 200 passengers. What is the requirement for hand held fire
extinguishers.
Choices Answers Correct
A 4 conveniently located in the passenger compartment
B 5 conveniently located in the passenger compartment
C 2 conveniently located in the passenger compartment
D 3 conveniently located in the passenger compartment D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Due to risk of tyres explosion, after landing, when the brakes are at a very high temperature, one should
approach the landing gear:
Choices Answers Correct
A from any direction
B sidewards
C either from aft or fore C
D from the inboard side
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question After a fast landing, hot brakes are suspected. What action should be taken?

Choices Answers Correct

A Apply the parking brake and approach the aeroplane from the front to rear
B Apply the parking brake and approach the aeroplane from the sides
C Release the brakes and approach the aeroplane from the sides
D Release the brakes and approach the aeroplane from the front or rear D
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question After a fast landing, hot brakes are suspected. What action should be taken?

Ref CPL A AND ATPL A

Question You see smoke coming from the air conditioning. Do you?

Choices Answers Correct

A don your oxygen mask and smoke goggles A
B Turn all the air conditioning off
C Investigate to find the source of the smoke
D Do an emergency descent
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for:1. a paper fire 2. a plastic fire 3. a hydrocarbon fire 4. an
electrical fire.
Choices The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 3, 4
B 1, 2, 3, 4 B
C 2, 3
D 1, 2, 3
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Beneath fire extinguishers the following equipment for fire fighting is on board:

Choices Answers Correct

A crash axes or crowbars A
B water and all type of beverages
C a hydraulic winch and a big box of tools
D a big bunch of fire extinguishing blankets
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A class B fire is a fire of:

Choices Answers Correct

A solid material usually of organic nature
B liquid or liquefiable solid B
C electrical sources fire
D special fire: metal, gas, chemical product
Ref CPL A AND H
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are: 1. H2O 2. CO2 3. dry-chemical 4. halon.
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
Choices Answers Correct
A 2, 3, 4
B 1, 2, 3, 4 B
C 1
D 3, 4
Ref CPL A AND H
Question To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:

Choices Answers Correct

A useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions
B useless because the toxical cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen B
C useless because breathing oxygen would explode under smoke conditions
D possible and recommended
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for:
1.a paper fire
Choices 2.a hydrocarbon fire
3.a fabric fire
4.an electrical fire
5.a wood fire
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 2, 3, 4
B 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
C 1, 3, 5 C
D 2, 4, 5
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In case of a fire due to the heating of the brakes, you fight the fire using:
1.a dry powder fire extinguisher
Choices 2.a water spray atomizer
3.a water fire-extinguisher
4.a CO2 fire-extinguisher to the maximum
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 2 A
B 2, 3, 4
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question In case of a fire due to the heating of the brakes, you fight the fire using:
1.a dry powder fire extinguisher
2.a water spray atomizer
3.a water fire-extinguisher
4.a CO2 fire-extinguisher to the maximum
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
C 3, 4
D 1, 4
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for:a paper firea fabric firean electric firea wood firea
hydrocarbon fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Choices Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 A
B 1, 3, 5
C 2, 3, 4
D 2, 4, 5
Ref CPL A AND H
Question H2O extinguishers are fit to fight:

Choices Answers Correct

A electrical source fires
B Class B fires
C Class A fires C
D special fires: metals, gas, chemical products
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The safest extinguishant to use
is:
Choices Answers Correct
A water
B dry powder B
C CO2 (carbon dioxide)
D foam
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you:

Choices Answers Correct

A pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fire-extinguishers
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you:

B carry out a damp cranking

C carry out a dry cranking C
D fight thenozzle fire with a water fire-extinguisher
Ref CPL A AND H
Question You will use a powder fire-extinguisher for:
1 a paper fire
Choices 2 a plastic fire
3 hydrocarbon fire
4 an electrical fire
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 3
B 1, 2, 3, 4 B
C 2, 3
D 1, 4
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with:

Choices Answers Correct

A all available liquids
B all available extinguishers simultaneously B
C all available extinguishers in sequence
D only the extinguisher corresponding to the toilets
Ref CPL A AND H
Question To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you use:
1.a water fire-extinguisher
Choices 2.a powder or chemical fire-extinguisher
3.a halon fire-extinguisher
4.a CO2 fire-extinguisher
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 3, 4
B 3, 4 B
C 1, 2
D 2, 3, 4
Ref CPL A AND H
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question You will use a water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) on a fire of: 1. solids (fabric, carpet, etc)
2.liquids (ether, gasoline, etc) 3. gasmetals (sodium, etc). 4. electrical fires. The combination regrouping
Choices all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 3 and 4
B 2
C 3
D 1 D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question CO2 type extinguishers are fit to fight:
1.class A fires
Choices 2.class B fires
3.electrical source fires
4.special fires: metals, gas, chemical product
Which of the following combinations contains all the correct statements:
Answers Correct
A 1, 3, 4
B 1, 2, 4
C 2, 3, 4
D 1, 2, 3 D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to:

Choices Answers Correct

A Determine which system is causing the smoke
B Begin an emergency descent
C Put on the mask and goggles C
D Cut off all air conditioning units
Ref CPL A AND H
Question To fight a fire in an air conditioned cargo hold:

Choices Answers Correct

A Fire fighting is not necessary, since the transport of combustible goods in an air conditioned
cargo hold is forbidden
B Extinguish fire and reduce air conditioning
C Extinguish fire only
D You turn off the cargo hold ventilation and extinguish fire D
Ref CPL A AND H
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle. The fire shut-off handle will be
switched off when:
Choices Answers Correct
A fire is no longer detected A
B the fire shut-off handle has been pulled
C the fire-extinguisher has been triggered
D all the fire-extinguishers connected to this engine have been triggered
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for:
1.a paper fire
Choices 2.a hydrocarbon fire
3.a fabric fire
4.an electrical fire
5.a wood fire
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 2, 3, 4
B 1, 3, 5
C 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 C
D 2, 4, 5
Ref CPL A AND H
Question You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of: 1.solids, (fabric, plastic, etc) 2. liquids (alcohol,
gasoline, etc) 3. gasmetals (aluminium, magnesium, etc) 4. Electrical fires. The combination regrouping all
Choices the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 3 A
B 1, 2, 3, 4
C 2, 3, 4
D 1, 2, 4
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What action is required in flight for a fire in an air conditioned cargo hold?

Choices Answers Correct

A Put out the fire
B Reduce the airflow and put out the fire
C Turn off the ventilation and put out the fire C
D Don't do anything because it is not permissible to have flammable or toxic materials in modern
aeroplane holds
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question What action is required in flight for a fire in an air conditioned cargo hold?

Ref CPL A AND H

Question For a flight deck fire which of the ollowing do you use?
1.CO2
Choices 2.Halon
3.Dry Powder
4.Water
Answers Correct
A (iii), (iv)
B (i), (ii) B
C (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
D (i), (ii), (iii)
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When does the fire handle warning light go out?

Choices Answers Correct

A When all bottles to that engine are discharged
B When fire detected as being out B
C When fire handle is pulled
D When that fire bottle has been fired
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are:
1.H2O
Choices 2.CO2
3.dry-chemical
4.halogen
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements:
Answers Correct
A 3, 4
B 1, 2, 3, 4
C 2
D 2, 3, 4 D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A Halon fire extinguisher should preferably be used on which of the following types of fire:

Choices Answers Correct

A Paper
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question A Halon fire extinguisher should preferably be used on which of the following types of fire:

B Plastic
C Hydrocarbon C
D Brake
Ref CPL A AND H
Question CO2 type fire extinguishers are usable on:
1.Class A fires
Choices 2.Class B fires
3.Electrical fires
4.Special fires metal, chemical
Answers Correct
A (ii), (iii) and (iv)
B (i), (ii) and (iv)
C (i), (iii) and (iv)
D (i), (ii) and (iii) D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A class A fire is a fire of:

Choices Answers Correct

A liquid or liquefiable solid
B solid material, generally of organic nature B
C electrical origin
D metal or gas or chemical (special fares)
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Water fire extinguisher with a directed spray can be used on which fires?

Choices Answers Correct

A Solid fires A
B Liquid fires
C Gas fires
D Special fires
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In case of an engine jet pipe fire while of the ground you:

Choices Answers Correct

OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question In case of an engine jet pipe fire while of the ground you:

A pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fire extinguishers
B carry out a dry motoring cycle B
C fight the jet pipe fire with a water fire extinguisher
D carry out a wet motoring cycle
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The system which must be switched off in case of a belly compartment fire is generally the:

Choices Answers Correct

A ventilation of the cargo compartment A
B pressurisation
C total airconditioning
D trim air
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Why should you not use oxygen masks when the cabin is affected by smoke?

Choices Answers Correct

A Because the oxygen would spontaneously combust
B Because the mask allows the smoke to mix with the oxygen B
C Because the chemical oxygen generator does not work in smoky conditions
D You should use the oxygen masks in smoky conditions
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A dry-chemikcal type fire extinguisher is fit to fight?
1.class A fires
Choices 2.class B fires
3.electrical source fires
4.special fires: metals, gas, chemicals
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
Answers Correct
A 3, 4
B 1, 2, 3
C 1, 2, 3, 4 C
D 2, 4
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What type of fire extinguisher do you use on a magnesium fire?
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question What type of fire extinguisher do you use on a magnesium fire?

Choices Answers Correct

A Water
B Sand B
C Halon
D Foam
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The use of passenger oxygen in the case of severe smoke in the cabin is:

Choices Answers Correct

A Useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions
B Useless because breating oxygen would explode under smoke conditions
C Possible and recommended
D Useless because the toxic cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The principle of operation of a fire loop detector is an the temperature increases, the:

Choices Answers Correct

A resistance decreases A
B reference current decreases
C pressure decreases
D pressure decreases
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) can be used on a fire of:
1.solids (fabric, carpet, etc)
Choices 2.liquids (ether, gasoline, etc)
3.gas
4.metals (sodium, etc)
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 3
B 2
C 1 C
D 3 and 4
Ref CPL A AND H
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question Halon or equivalent fire extinguishers can be used in case of fire fighting in an aeroplane:

Choices Answers Correct

A in the fuel tanks and in the cargo holds
B in the cockpit and cargo holds B
C in the wheel bays and lavatories
D in the avionics bay and the wheel bays
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In case of an engine tail pipe fire while on the ground you should abort the starting procedure and:

Choices Answers Correct

A carry out a dry cranking A
B carry out a damp cranking
C pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engine's fire-extinguishers
D fight the fire with a water fire-extinguisher
Ref CPL A AND H
Question To fight a fire in an air conditioned class E cargo hold, the correct initial action is to:

Choices Answers Correct

A discharge the fire extinguishers in the affected compartment
B shut off the ventilating airflow within the affected compartment B
C confirm visually the fire
D evacuate the smoke
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The engine fire warning system on a multi-engine aircraft consists of:

Choices Answers Correct

A One warning light, individual bells
B Individual warning lights, common bell B
C Individual warning lights, individual bells
D One warning light, one bell
Ref CPL A AND H
Question If there is a fire in the cargo compartment in the lower half of the fuselage, what is your action?

Choices Answers Correct

A Turn off the ventilation A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question If there is a fire in the cargo compartment in the lower half of the fuselage, what is your action?

B Turn off all the air conditioning

C Reduce the airflow
D Turn off the pressurisation
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Which statement is most correct with regard to the use of fire extinguishers?

Choices Answers Correct

A CO2 is best used in a cargo aeroplane on cargo fires
B Water is best used on small fires
C Halon is best used on fires within the passenger compartment C
D Dry powder is best used on cockpit fires
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a situation where there is dense smoke in the cabin:

Choices Answers Correct

A It is recommended to use O2 only above 10,000 ft in this case
B It is useless to use passenger O2 because it will explode
C It is recommended to use passenger O2 and is sensible
D It is useless to use passenger O2 masks because they mix O2 with the cabin air D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In the event of a jet pipe fire on the ground, what do you do?

Choices Answers Correct

A Wet motor
B Dry motor
C Pull fire handle C
D Fight with water
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What items for use in fire fighting would you expect to see close to a fire extinguisher?

Choices Answers Correct

A axe
B gloves B
C breating equipment
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question What items for use in fire fighting would you expect to see close to a fire extinguisher?

D blanket
Ref CPL A AND H
Question On what type of fire would you use a CO2 extinguisher?

Choices Answers Correct

A Paper
B Hydrocarbon
C Plastic
D Electrical D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The correct colour for hand held fire extinguisher labels is

Choices Answers Correct

A black for CO2 A
B red for water
C yellow for BCF
D blue for foam
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A fire in the toilet waste bin is extinguished with:

Choices Answers Correct

A BCF A
B a liquid agent
C 2 types of extinguisher simultaneously
D 2 types of extinguisher one after the other
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A fire extinguisher must be carried in the cockpit. It should contain:

Choices Answers Correct

A BCF A
B CO2
C Water
D Foam
Ref CPL A AND H
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question Engine fire warnings include:

Choices Answers Correct

A a red light that can be cancelled and an audio warning that can be cancelled
B a red light that cannot be cancelled and an audio warning that can be cancelled B
C a red light that can be cancelled and an audio warning that cannot be cancelled
D a red light and an audio warning that cannot be cancelled until the fire is out
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A slow decompression may be caused by:
1.a slight airtightness defect
Choices 2.a bad functioning of the pressurisation
3.the loss of a window
4. the loss of a door
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 3, 4
B 1, 2 B
C 3, 4
D 1, 2, 3
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31,000 ft. What is the initial action by
the operating crew?
Choices Answers Correct
A Disconnect the autopilot
B To put on oxygen masks B
C Transmit a MAYDAY message
D Place the seat belts sign to ON
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the
cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will
Choices indicate:
Answers Correct
A a rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm
B a rate of climb B
C zero
D a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and
following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the
Choices cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is:
Answers Correct
A 15,000 ft
B 14,000 ft
C 13,000 ft C
D 25,000 ft
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be:

Choices Answers Correct

A to put on the oxygen mask A
B to set the transponder to 7700
C to warn the ATC
D to comfort your passengers
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question (Refer to figure 071-04)Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to
3 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14,000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is
Choices approximately:
Answers Correct
A 22,500 ft
B 24,500 ft B
C 27,000 ft
D 29,000 ft
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40,000 ft is:

Choices Answers Correct

A 1 minute
B 30 seconds
C 12 seconds C
D 5 minutes
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator
controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen when the supply selector is at the normal
Choices position. At what approximate altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only?
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator
controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen when the supply selector is at the normal
position. At what approximate altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only?
Answers Correct
A 25,000 ft
B 32,000 ft B
C 14,000 ft
D 8,000 ft
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure:

Choices Answers Correct

A attains its maximum permitted operating limit
B increases
C remains constant
D decreases D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question (Refer to figure 071-04)Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to
2 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14,000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is
Choices approximately:
Answers Correct
A 20,750 ft A
B 12,000 ft
C 8,600 ft
D 2,900 ft
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question For an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator controls the amount of pure oxygen mixed with air.
Following explosive decompression with the regulator set to normal, at what approximate altitude will pure
Choices oxygen be supplied:
Answers Correct
A 8,000 ft
B 24,000 ft
C 14,000 ft
D 32,000 ft D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Oxygen should be used after rapid decompression in an emergency descent until what altitude?
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question Oxygen should be used after rapid decompression in an emergency descent until what altitude?

Choices Answers Correct

A 10,000 ft A
B 15,000 ft
C 13,000 ft
D 14,000 ft
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question When the pressurisation system fails, the differential pressure:

Choices Answers Correct

A rises
B falls B
C remains the same
D fluctuates
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question What is supplementary oxygen used for?

Choices Answers Correct

A To passengers in an aircraft, following a loss of pressurisation A
B For passengers who may require it, following a loss of pressurisation B
C For passengers with breathing difficulties
D Protect crew when combating a fire
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Flying at FL 390, before what cabin altitude must the Oxygen drop out masks be automatically presented?

Choices Answers Correct

A 12,000 ft
B 13,000 ft
C 14,000 ft
D 15,000 ft D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Following a rapid decompression, above what height does a lack of 02 affect performance:

Choices Answers Correct

A 14,000 ft
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question Following a rapid decompression, above what height does a lack of 02 affect performance:

B 2,500 ft
C 8,000 ft C
D 25,000 ft
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question A fast decompression is recognisable by the following elements: 1.mist in the cabin 2. blast towards the
exterior of the aircraft 3. expansion of body gases 4. blast of air released violently from the lungs. The
Choices combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 3, 4 A
B 2, 3, 4
C 1, 2, 3
D 1, 4
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question In a pressurisation malfunction:
1.Noise increase
Choices 2.Change in RCDI
3.Pressure differential decreases
Answers Correct
A 1, 2
B 2, 3
C 1, 3
D 1, 2, 3 D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Gradual decompression is caused by: 1.Window leak 2. Door leak 3. Window blown 4. Emergency escape hatch
open
Choices Answers Correct
A (i), (ii) A
B (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
C (iii), (iv)
D (ii), (iii)
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question After compression and descent, there will be enough supplementary oxygen available for flight crew for all
flight time above:
Choices Answers Correct
A 13,000 ft A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question After compression and descent, there will be enough supplementary oxygen available for flight crew for all
flight time above:
B 15,000 ft
C 25,000 ft
D 14,000 ft
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question An aeroplane suffers cabin decompression at 31,000 ft, what is the crew's initial reaction:

Choices Answers Correct

A Disconnect autopilot
B Put FASTEN SEAT BELTS sign on
C Declare MAYDAY
D Don 02 masks D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question (Refer to figure 071-04)Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to
2 psi. Assuming you don't want the cabin altitude being greater than 10,000 feet, the maximum achievable
Choices flight altitude is approximately:
Answers Correct
A 12,000 ft
B 5,000 ft
C 15,100 ft C
D 15,000 ft
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question A slow decompression may be caused by:
1.a leak in a doorseal during normal pressurised flight
Choices 2.loss of a cabin window
3.malfunction of all pressurised systems
4.loss of a door
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 2, 4
B 1, 2, 3, 4
C 1, 3 C
D 1, 2, 3
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This warning must be triggered on
reaching the following altitude:
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This warning must be triggered on
reaching the following altitude:
Choices Answers Correct
A 10,000 ft (approx. 3000 m) A
B 14,000 ft (approx. 4200 m)
C 8,000 ft (approx. 2400 m)
D 12,000 ft (approx. 3600 m)
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question following a decompression, the maximum pressure altitude at which each member of the flight crew on flight
deck duty are able to fly with no supplemental oxygen with no flight time limitation is:
Choices Answers Correct
A 15,000 ft
B 13,000 ft
C 10,000 ft C
D 8,000 ft
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question oxygen masks for use by flight crew members shall be a quick donning type of mask, in pressurised
aeroplanes operating at pressure altitudes above:
Choices Answers Correct
A 41,000 ft
B 10,000 ft
C 39,000 ft
D 25,000 ft D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question for a pressurised aeroplane, the minimum requirement for supplemental oxygen needed to supply 100% of the
passengers following a cabin pressurisation failure, is:
Choices Answers Correct
A the entire flight time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 13,000 ft
B 30 minutes
C the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15,000 ft, but in no case less C
than 10 minutes
D the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than 10,000 ft but not
exceeding 13,000 ft
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question for a pressurised aircraft, the definition of supplemental oxygen is:
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question for a pressurised aircraft, the definition of supplemental oxygen is:

Choices Answers Correct

A oxygen supplied to the aeroplane occupants in the case of cabin pressurisation failure A
B oxygen supplied to a passenger who needs oxygen for physiological reasons
C oxygen used for protection against smoke and carbon dioxide
D oxygen specifically carried for therapeutic purposes
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question A slow decompression may be caused by:
1.A slight air leak from an overwing exit
Choices 2.A malfunction of the pressurisation
3.The loss of a window
4.The loss of a door
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 3
B 1, 2 B
C 3, 4
D 1, 2, 3, 4
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question What is the time of useful consciousness after a rapid decompression at 40,000 ft?

Choices Answers Correct

A 12 seconds A
B 30 seconds
C 10 minutes
D 3 minutes
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question What would be evident during a rapid decompression?
1. Violent rush of gas from lungs
Choices 2.Expansion of body gases
3.Blast of air to the exterior
4.Mist in the cabin
Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 4
B 2, 3, 4
C 1, 2, 3
D All of the above D
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Noise Abatement
Question What would be evident during a rapid decompression?
1. Violent rush of gas from lungs
2.Expansion of body gases
3.Blast of air to the exterior
4.Mist in the cabin
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question The cockpit windows suddenly mist up, the temperature drops and the background noise level increases. This
indicates:
Choices Answers Correct
A over pressurisation
B a failure of the environmental control system
C the automatic cabin fire extinguisher system has gone off
D explosive decompression D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question When the pressurisation system fails, the RCDI shows:

Choices Answers Correct

A A climb A
B A descent
C No change
D Fluctuations
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Mist in the cabin accompanied by a drop in pressure and temperature are indications of:

Choices Answers Correct

A A rapid decompression A
B A slow decompression
C An electrical fire
D A plastic fire
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question At what cabin altitude would the flight crew be alerted if the cabin pressure was reducing unnoticed?

Choices Answers Correct

A 10,000 ft A
B 11,000 ft
C 13,000 ft
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question At what cabin altitude would the flight crew be alerted if the cabin pressure was reducing unnoticed?

D 800 ft
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Normal flow on a diluter deman oxygen system is obtained by selecting:

Choices Answers Correct

A NORMAL
B NORMAL and breathing in B
C 100% and breathing in
D EMERGENCY
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an increasing tail wind. In the
absence of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1. Flies above the glide path 2. Flies below the glide path 3. Has
Choices an increasing true airspeed 4. Has a decreasing true airspeed. The combination of correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 2, 4 A
B 2, 3
C 1, 3
D 1, 4
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind. In the
absence of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1. Flies above the glide path 2. Flies below the glide path 3. Has
Choices an increasing true airspeed 4. Has a decreasing true airspeed. The combination of correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 2, 4 A
B 2, 3
C 1, 3
D 1, 4
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst
may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of:
Choices Answers Correct
A 60 kt
B 40 kt
C 80 kt C
D 20 kt
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst
may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of:
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gust or strong down wind which forces you to go around.
1.maintain the same aircraft configuration (gear and flaps)
Choices 2.reduce the drags (gear and flaps)
3.gradually increase the attitude up to triggering of stick shaker
4.avoid excessive attitude change
The combination of correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 2, 3
B 1, 4
C 1, 3 C
D 2, 4
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an increasing head wind. In the
absence of a pilot action, the aircraft:1. Flies above the glide path 2. Flies below the glide path 3. Has
Choices an increasing true airspeed 4. Has a decreasing true airspeed. The combination of correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 2, 3
B 1, 4
C 1, 3 C
D 2, 4
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing tail wind. In the
absence of a pilot action, the aircraft:1. Flies above the glide path 2. Flies below the glide path 3. Has
Choices an increasing true airspeed 4.Has a decreasing true airspeed. The combination of correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 2, 4
B 1, 4
C 2, 3
D 1, 3 D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question If an aircraft hits windshear with an increasing tailwind:
(i)TAS increases
Choices (ii)TAS decreases
(iii)Aircraft descends below glideslope
(iv)Aircraft climbs above glideslope
Answers Correct
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question If an aircraft hits windshear with an increasing tailwind:
(i)TAS increases
(ii)TAS decreases
(iii)Aircraft descends below glideslope
(iv)Aircraft climbs above glideslope
A (i), (iii)
B (i), (iv)
C (ii), (iii) C
D (ii), (iv)
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question A horizontal tailwind gust may cause an aeroplane to:

Choices Answers Correct

A climb
B climb or descend depending on gust strength
C descend C
D have no effect on the flight path
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question If you encounter a microburst just after take-off, at the beginning you will have:a head winda strong rear
windbetter climb performancea diminution of climb gradientan important thrust dropThe combination regrouping
Choices all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 2, 4
B 1, 4
C 4, 5
D 1, 3 D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question On the approach you hit windshear and have to go around. Do you:

Choices Answers Correct

A Do nothing to your gear and flaps
B Take gear and flap in
C Pitch up to the stick shaker C
D Avoid excessive attitude manoeuvres
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question On the approach, you experience a decrease in tail wind, what happens to the aeroplane without any
corrections being applied?
1.Climbs above glide path
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question On the approach, you experience a decrease in tail wind, what happens to the aeroplane without any
corrections being applied?
Choices 1.Climbs above glide path
2.Descends below glide path
3.TAS increases
4.TAS decreases
Answers Correct
A 1, 3 A
B 1, 4
C 2, 3
D 2, 4
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question In the worst case scenario of recovery from the effects of a microburst, having increased to full go around
power, in co-ordinating power and pitch it may be necessary to:
Choices Answers Correct
A reduce speed to V2 and hold
B climb away at Vat + 20 kt
C increase the pitch angle until the stick shaker is felt and hold at slightly below this angle C
D slowly increase speed whilst maintaining a positive rate of climb
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Just after take-off an aircraft encounters a microburst situated directly ahead. The initial indications
will be:an increase in head windan increase in tail windbetter climb performancea decrease in climb
Choices gradientThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 4
B 2, 3
C 1, 3 C
D 2, 4
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question On encountering windshear what do you do?

Choices Answers Correct

A Apply take-off power and pull to the stick shaker A
B Apply small increase in power
C Apply moderate power and pull to the stick shaker
D Pull to the stick shaker
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question What do you do in a microburst?

Choices 1. Apply engine power

2. Retract speed brakes
3. Retract flaps and gear
4. Retract all drag devices
5. Pitch up to stick shaker
Answers Correct
A 1, 3, 5
B 1, 4, 5
C 1, 2, 5 C
D 2, 3, 5
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question While approaching the outer-marker, the tower informs you about the presence of a microburst. You will
expect to encounter:
Choices Answers Correct
A windshears (vertical and horizontal) A
B wake turbulence
C supercooled water
D convection motion of air mass
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Wind shear is:

Choices Answers Correct

A a vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance
B a horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance
C a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and/or wind direction over a short distance C
D a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and/or wind direction over a large distance
Ref CPL A AND H
Question How can the direction of wing tip vortices be described?

Choices Answers Correct

A Both clockwise
B Both counter clockwise
C From above the wing to below the wing
D From below the wing to above the wing D
Ref CPL A AND H
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question In a mountainous region you encounter windshear and see an increase in airspeed. You:

Choices Answers Correct

A reduce power to stay on the glidepath
B reduce power to 1.2VS and make a precision landing
C bring to level flight, allow speed to fall and intercept the glidepath from above
D allow speed to increase while staying on the glidepath and monitoring speed D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In windshear associated with a microburst, you experience a 40 kts headwind. Coming out of the microburst,
you will experience a windshear of:
Choices Answers Correct
A -20 kts
B -40 kts
C -60 kts
D -80 kts D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Windshear may be described as a change in wind direction and/or speed in space, including updraughts and
downdraughts. To counter the effects of windshear the amount of control action that is required is:
Choices Answers Correct
A medium
B small
C substantial C
D null
Ref CPL A AND H
Question One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it:

Choices Answers Correct

A can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes A
B occurs only at a low altitude (2000 ft) and never in the vertical plane
C occurs only at a low altitude (2000 ft) and never in the horizontal plane
D can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a windshear?

Choices Answers Correct

A Pitch angle
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a windshear?

B Vertical speed
C Ground speed
D Indicated airspeed D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question On the approach you experience an increasing headwind. What happens to the aircraft:
1.Descends below the glide path
Choices 2.Climbs above the glide path
3.TAS increases
4.TAS decreases
Answers Correct
A 1 and 4
B 1 and 3
C 2 and 4
D 2 and 3 D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the first indication of windshear? A change in:

Choices Answers Correct

A pitch angle
B ground speed
C vertical speed
D indicated airspeed D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What are the characteristics of windshear?

Choices Answers Correct

A It occurs at any altitude in the horizontal and vertical plane A
B It can occur at any altitude only in the horizontal plane
C it occurs only below 2000 ft and never in the horizontal plane
D It only occurs below 2000 ft and never in the vertical plane
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Which parameter will change first, when penetrating an horizontal windshear?

Choices Answers Correct

OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question Which parameter will change first, when penetrating an horizontal windshear?

A Groundspeed
B Pitch angle
C Vertical speed
D Indicated airspeed D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Under a microburst, what happens?

Choices Answers Correct

A Air is diverging and local pressure increases A
B Air rotates and local pressure decreases
C Air is diverging and local pressure decreases
D Air rotates and local pressure increases
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What would you expect to encounter in a microburst?

Choices Answers Correct

A Rain
B Hail
C Windshear C
D Thunder and lightning
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When you encounter windshear, what input is needed by the pilot?

Choices Answers Correct

A Small
B Nil
C Substantial C
D Moderate
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is wind shear?

Choices Answers Correct

A Horizontal change in wind speed
B Vertical change in wind speed
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question What is wind shear?

C Vertical or horizontal change in wind velocity over a short distance C

D Vertical and horizontal change in wind velocity over a long distance
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a microburst downdrafts in the order of 3000 to 4000 ft/min can produce vector changes in horizontal wind
of:
Choices Answers Correct
A 30 to 40 kts
B 10 to 20 kts
C 60 to 80 kts C
D 100 to 140 kts
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHT aircraft are using the same runway, or parallel
runways separated by less than 760m, (in approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied a wake
Choices turbulence radar separation minima of:
Answers Correct
A 2 NM
B 4 NM
C 3 NM
D 5 NM D
Ref All
Question An airplane creates a wake turbulence when:

Choices Answers Correct

A generating lift A
B flying at high speed
C using a high engine RPM
D flying with its gear and flaps extended
Ref All
Question According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied
to:
Choices Answers Correct
A LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by less than
760m (using whole runway)
B LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft B
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied
to:
C LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same runway
D MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
Ref All
Question To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuvre:

Choices Answers Correct

A Below and downwind from the larger aircraft
B Above and downwind from the larger aircraft
C Above and upwind from the larger aircraft C
D Below and upwind from the larger aircraft
Ref All
Question For the purposes of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a
heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?
Choices Answers Correct
A 9.3 km (5 NM)
B 7.4 km (4 NM) B
C 11.1 km (6 NM)
D 3.7 km (2 NM)
Ref All
Question The wake turbulence:

Choices Answers Correct

A starts when pulling out the drag devices and stops when retracting the drag devices
B starts as soon as the aeroplane is running for take-off and stops as soon as it has come to a
stop at landing
C starts when the airplane reaches a height of 300 ft above the ground and stops when it crosses
this height before landing
D starts during the rotation and stops as soon as the airplanes wheels touch the ground D
Ref All
Question The wake turbulance caused by an aircraft is mainly the result of:
1.An aerodynamical effect (wing tip vortices)
Choices 2.The engines action (propellers rotation or engine gas exhausts)
3.The importance of the drag devices (size of the landing gear, of the flaps, etc).
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question The wake turbulance caused by an aircraft is mainly the result of:
1.An aerodynamical effect (wing tip vortices)
2.The engines action (propellers rotation or engine gas exhausts)
3.The importance of the drag devices (size of the landing gear, of the flaps, etc).
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A 1, 2 and 3
B 3
C 2 and 3
D 1 D
Ref All
Question According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied
to:
Choices Answers Correct
A MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel
separated by less than 760m
B MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft B
C LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway
D LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
Ref All
Question DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft
types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass. Heavy (H) Category, are
Choices all aircraft types of:
Answers Correct
A 146,000 kgs or more
B 135,000 kgs or more
C less than 136,000 kgs but more than 126,000 kgs
D 136,000 kgs or more D
Ref All
Question For purposes of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation time if a light
aeroplane (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136,000 kg but more than 7,000 kg) on
Choices the approach to landing?
Answers Correct
A 2 minutes
B 4 minutes
C 5 minutes
D 3 minutes D
Ref All
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted when a
light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway?
Choices Answers Correct
A 5 minutes
B 4 minutes
C 3 minutes C
D 2 minutes
Ref All
Question When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind coming from the left side, you adopt a path, whenever
possible?
Choices Answers Correct
A distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the right of and under its path
B distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the left of and above its path B
C identical to the one of the preceding airplane
D distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it and under its path
Ref All
Question The wake turbulence is the most severe when the aircraft is:
1.slow
Choices 2.heavy
3.in a clean configuration
4.flying with a high thrust
The combination of correct statement is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 4
B 1, 2, 3 B
C 1, 2, 3, 4
D 2, 3, 4
Ref All
Question The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is:

Choices Answers Correct

A Small, light, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration
B Large, heavy, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration
C Small, light, at low speed in clean configuration
D Large, heavy, at low speed in clean configuration D
Ref All
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures, which letter should be entered into a flight plan to denote
an aeroplane which has a weight of less than 136,000 kg but greater than 7,000 kg:
Choices Answers Correct
A H
B M B
C L
D S
Ref All
Question Wake turbulence should be taken into account when:

Choices Answers Correct

A a preceding aeroplane has performed low altitude high roll rate rolling manoeuvres over the
runway
B when just before the landing a much lighter aeroplane has landed with a strong crosswind on a
long runway
C during cruise the vertical separation is reduced to 1000 ft
D a much heavier aeroplane has landed just previously on the same runway, a light crosswind D
condition exist and all high-lift devices are being used
Ref All
Question In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off aircraft:

Choices Answers Correct

A The runway will be clear of any hazard turbulence
B The left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway
C The right and left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway
D The right wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway D
Ref All
Question The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a:

Choices Answers Correct

A low weight and low speed
B low weight and high speed
C high weight and low speed C
D high weight and high speed
Ref All
Question When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just landed, you should take-off:
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just landed, you should take-off:

Choices Answers Correct

A in front of the point where the aircrafts wheels have touched down
B beyond the point where the aircrafts wheels have touched down B
C at the point where the aircrafts wheels have touched down and on the wind side of the runway
D at the point where the aircrafts wheels have touched the ground and on the underwind side of the
runway
Ref All
Question According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of 9.3 km (5.0 NM) shall be applied
when a:
Choices Answers Correct
A LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m
(1000 ft)
B LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300m B
(1000 ft)
C HEAVY aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300m (1000
ft)
D MEDIUM aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m
(1000 ft)
Ref All
Question The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is
about:
Choices Answers Correct
A 3 minutes A
B 30 seconds
C 1 minute
D 10 minutes
Ref All
Question When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind coming from the right side, you adopt a path,
whenever possible?
Choices Answers Correct
A identical to the one of the preceding airplane
B distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining on the left of and under its path
C distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining on the right of and above its path C
D different from the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it and under its path
Ref All
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question To which situation is 3 mins wake turbulence separation applied?

Choices Answers Correct

A Light following a medium departing from a runway intersection on a parallel runway less than A
760m apart
B A light taking off after a heavy has taken off in the opposite direction
C A medium landing after a heavy aircraft
D A light aircraft departing after a heavy on the same runway
Ref All
Question Wake turbulence risk is highest:

Choices Answers Correct

A if, just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at the same runway with heavy
crosswind
B when a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated parallel runway with a B
light crosswind
C following a preceding aircraft at high speed
D when a preceding aircraft has briefly applied take-off thrust just prior to take off
Ref All
Question Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the following is established:

Choices Answers Correct

A drag
B lift B
C spin up
D lift destruction
Ref All
Question Under what conditions is a radar separation of 5 nm required for wake turbulence spacing:

Choices Answers Correct

A Heavy following a heavy
B Medium following a heavy B
C Light following a heavy
D Heavy following a medium
Ref All
Question Where is the best position following a heavier aeroplane?
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question Where is the best position following a heavier aeroplane?

Choices Answers Correct

A Above its flight path and downwind
B Below its flight path and upwind
C Below its flight path and upwind
D Upwind and above its flight path D
Ref All
Question Wake turbulence starts:

Choices Answers Correct

A when selecting the drag dev ices and stops when retracting the drag devices
B when the airplane reaches a height of 300 ft above the ground and stops when it crosses this
height before landing
C during rotation and stops as soon as the airplanes wheels touch the ground C
D as soon as the aeroplane is commencing the take-off run and stops as soon as it has comed to a
stop after landing
Ref All
Question For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and minimum
time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136,000 kg and more than 7,000 kg) is following directly behind a
Choices heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?
Answers Correct
A 7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes
B 11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes
C 9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes C
D 9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes
Ref All
Question In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at:

Choices Answers Correct

A high altitude converge on the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure increases by
a few hectopascals
B low altitude diverge from the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure decreases by
a few hectopascals
C low altitude diverge from the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospherica pressure increases C
by a few hectopascals
D low altitude converge on the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure decreases by
a few hectopascals
Ref All
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip:

Choices Answers Correct

A counter-clockwise
B clockwise
C from the underwing toward the upper side of the wing C
D from the upper side of the wing toward the underwing
Ref All
Question According to DOC 4444 (ICAO) a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied:

Choices Answers Correct

A to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a runway
with a displaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross
B between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT aircraft
utilizing an opposite-direction runway for take-off
C to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of parallel C
runway separated by less than 760m
D to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a runway
with a displaced landing threshold
Ref All
Question When is 3 minutes separation applied?

Choices Answers Correct

A A light aeroplane departing after a heavy aeroplane from the same position
B A medium aeroplane departing after a heavy aeroplane has made a missed approach in the opposite
direction
C A light aeroplane landing following a medium aeroplane C
D A medium aeroplane landing following a heavy aeroplane
Ref All
Question The wake turbulence is the most severe when the aircraft is:
1.slow
Choices 2.heavy
3.in a clean configuration
4.flying with a high thrust
The combination of correct statement is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 2 and 3 A
B 1, 3 and 4
C 2, 3 and 4
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question The wake turbulence is the most severe when the aircraft is:
1.slow
2.heavy
3.in a clean configuration
4.flying with a high thrust
The combination of correct statement is:
D All of the above
Ref All
Question What flying conditions give the worst wake turbulence?

Choices Answers Correct

A Large, heavy, slow and clean A
B Large, heavy, fast and full flaps, large
C Large, high power, slow and full flaps
D Large, high powers fast and clean
Ref All
Question You are a heavy aeroplane behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach. What is the required separation?

Choices Answers Correct

A 7.4 km, 4 nm A
B 3.6 km, 2 nm
C 5.5 km, 3 nm
D 9.2 km, 5 nm
Ref All
Question For a light aircraft departing after a medium what is the minimum time for wake turbulence separation?

Choices Answers Correct

A 3 min
B 2 min B
C 1 min
D 5 min
Ref All
Question What is the major factor causing wake turbulence?
1.Wing Tip Vortices
Choices 2.Engines
3.High Lift Devices
4.Size of the Landing Gear
Answers Correct
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question What is the major factor causing wake turbulence?
1.Wing Tip Vortices
2.Engines
3.High Lift Devices
4.Size of the Landing Gear
A 1 A
B 2, 3
C 1, 4
D 3
Ref All
Question A strongly swept back wing stalls. If the wake of the wing contracts the horizontal tail, the effect on the
stall behaviour can be:
Choices Answers Correct
A tendency to increase speed after initial stall
B nose up tendency and/or lack of elevator response B
C nose down tendency
D increase sensitivity of elevator inputs
Ref All
Question When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum time
approach separation, according with DOC 4444 (ICAO) shall be:
Choices Answers Correct
A 1 min
B 2 min
C 3 min C
D 4 min
Ref All
Question In calm wind conditions, an aircraft at take-off creates tip vortices that:

Choices Answers Correct

A stagnate on the runway
B separate outwards on each side of the runway B
C separate outwards to the right side only
D separate outwards to the left side only
Ref All
Question What is the weight range for medium category aircraft?
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question What is the weight range for medium category aircraft?

Choices Answers Correct

A 5,700 kg to 100,000 kg
B 7,000 kg to 125,000 kg
C 5,700 kg to 136,000 kg
D 7,000 kg to 136,000 kg D
Ref All
Question Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the commander should submit a
report of the act to:
Choices Answers Correct
A the Authority of the State of the operator only
B the local authority only
C both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator C
D the Authority of the State within which the aeroplane is operating at the time of the unlawful
interference
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the
country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the:
Choices Answers Correct
A State of the operator, the CAA and ICAO
B State of Registry of the aircraft and the CAA
C State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the operator and ICAO C
D State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator only
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question when a commercial transport passenger airplane is equipped with a door in the flight crew compartment area,
this door must include:
Choices Answers Correct
A a locking system to prevent any unauthorised access A
B a device preventing the flight crew from being locked in the cockpit
C distinctive red or yellow coloured markings indicating the access area (in case of a blocked
door)
D a sealing system allowing the maintenance for as long as possible of the pressure in the cockpit
in case of a depressurisation in the compartment area
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to
unlawful interference:
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to
unlawful interference:
Choices Answers Correct
A code 7700
B code 7600
C code 7500 C
D code 2000
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the transponder code to be used by an aircraft that is subject to unlawful interference (hijacked)
is:
Choices Answers Correct
A 7500 A
B 7600
C 7700
D 7800
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is:

Choices Answers Correct

A 2000
B 7600
C 7700
D 7500 D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When you have been unlawfully interfered with, the state in which you land is required to inform certain
people:1. State of the Operator 2. ICAO 3. State of registration of aircraft 4. CAA
Choices Answers Correct
A All of the above
B 1, 2
C 1, 2, 3 C
D 2, 4
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The flight deck door should be capable of being:

Choices Answers Correct

D remotely locked from either side inside or outside the compartment
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question The flight deck door should be capable of being:

D locked from within the compartment D

D directly locked from outside the compartment
D remotely locked by cabin crew operation from outside the compartment
Ref CPL A AND H
Question According to ICAO Annex 17, following an unlawful interference, who shall take adequate measures for the
safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft, until their journey can be continued? The:
Choices Answers Correct
A contracting State in which the unlawful interference occurs A
B CAA
C Commander of the aircraft
D aircraft's operator
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A bomb alert is received at cruise altitude, fuel is not a problem that needs to be considered, what do you
do?
Choices Answers Correct
A Descend to safety altitude
B Go to the maximum altitude not affected by pressure
C Go to cabin altitude pressure and remain clean until the final approach
D Descend to cabin pressure altitude or safety altitude whichever is the higher, and go to landing D
configuration as a safety measure
Ref CPL A AND H
Question For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers, it must be shown by actual
demonstration that the maximum seating capacity, including the required numberof crew members, can be
Choices evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground in:
Answers Correct
A 90 seconds A
B 132 seconds
C 120 seconds
D 60 seconds
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question What is the evacuation time for an aeroplane with more than 44 seats?

Choices Answers Correct

A 60 secs
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question What is the evacuation time for an aeroplane with more than 44 seats?

B 90 secs B
C 120 secs
D 132 secs
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question the time for emergency evacuation where the seating capacity is more than 44 is:

Choices Answers Correct

A 2 min with 50% of the exits unavailable
B 90 sec with 50% of the exits unavailable B
C 90 min with 50% of the exits unavailable
D 90 sec with all the exits available in a real emergency
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question An aircraft is flying in heavy rain. To carry out a safe approach, it is necessary to:

Choices Answers Correct

A carry out an approach with flaps up, in order to avoid exposing too much lifting surface to the
rain
B reduce the approach speed, because the runway may be very slippery on landing
C maintain the normal approach speed up to landing
D increase its approach speed, because the rain affects the lift by deteriorating the boundary D
layer
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterise?

Choices Answers Correct

A a slow depressurisation
B a fast depressurisation B
C an electrical fire
D a plastic fire
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The safety position for adults looks like: seat belts fastened:

Choices Answers Correct

A head placed on a knee cushion, arms around the thigh A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question The safety position for adults looks like: seat belts fastened:

B head down as far as possible, grasp the passenger in front of you

C head down as far as possible, grasp the legs with your arms
D cross the arm in front of the face
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In case of a ditching, the cabin attendants will: 1. evacuate women and children first 2. have the
passengers embark directly in the liferafts 3. prevent passenger movements which may impede the airplanes
Choices floatation ability 4. ensure the complete evacuation of the airplane. The combination regrouping all the
correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 2, 3
B 2, 3, 4 B
C 1, 2, 3, 4
D 1, 4
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:

Choices Answers Correct

A an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board
B a landing on land or sea from which it is guaranteed no injuries will result to the occupants
C a voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in order to protect the aircraft and
its occupants
D an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board D
or on the surface
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Following an emergency landing which will need an escape from the aircraft, you will:
1.Remain on the runway
Choices 2.Clear the runway using the first available taxiway
3.Keep one engine or the APU running in order to maintain the electrical power supply on
4.Turn off all systems
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 2, 3
B 1, 3
C 1, 4 C
D 2, 4
Ref CPL A AND H
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question After ditching, when must a passenger inflate the lift jacket?

Choices Answers Correct

A If the water is deep
B Before leaving the aeroplane
C On entering the water
D When exiting the aeroplane D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What are the tasks to be undertaken by cabin crew when evacuating passengers? 1. Women and children first 2.
Ensure no movement of passengers for floatation 3. Direct into life rafts 4. Ensure aircraft evacuated
Choices Answers Correct
A (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
B (ii), (iii) and (iv)
C (iii) and (iv) C
D (ii) and (iv)
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The attitudes to be adopted by the passengers, sitting in the travelling direction, in case of an emergency
landing are:
Choices 1.legs together and feet flat on the floor
2.head resting against the back of the front seat
3.forearms on the armrests
4.seat belt very tightly fastened
5.head resting on the forearm
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 2, 3, 4
B 2, 4, 5
C 1, 4, 5 C
D 1, 2, 3, 4
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a ditching situation, except for infants, the passengers shall be instructed to inflate their life
jackets:
Choices Answers Correct
A as soon as ditching is prepared
B immediately on the opening of the exits
C immediately on ditching
D when exiting the aircraft D
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question In a ditching situation, except for infants, the passengers shall be instructed to inflate their life
jackets:
Ref CPL A AND H
Question After an overweight landing on a short runway, do you check:

Choices Answers Correct

A Pressure of tyres
B pressure of hydraulic fluid
C Temperature of hydraulic fluid
D Temperature of brakes D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Information about evacuation can be found in the:

Choices Answers Correct

A Journey Logbook
B Operation Manual B
C Operational Flight Plan
D Flight Manual
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In case you have to assume the emergency brace position, do you:
1.legs together, feet flat on the floor
Choices 2.Arms on arm rests
3.Head on forearms
4.Head on seat in front
5.Seat belt tight round waist
The correct combination is:
Answers Correct
A All of the above
B 1, 2, 3, 4
C 1, 3, 4, 5 C
D 1, 2, 4, 5
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What action should you take after an emergency landing requiring emergency evacuation?
1.Remain on runway
Choices 2.Take first taxiway exit off runway
3.Shut off all systems
4.Keep one engine or APU on to supply electrical equipment.
The correct combination is:
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question What action should you take after an emergency landing requiring emergency evacuation?
1.Remain on runway
2.Take first taxiway exit off runway
3.Shut off all systems
4.Keep one engine or APU on to supply electrical equipment.
The correct combination is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 4
B 2, 3
C 1, 3 C
D 2, 4
Ref CPL A AND H
Question After an accident or serious incident in flight, the state where the aeroplane lands should report to:

Choices Answers Correct

A State of Registry/ICAO
B State of Registry/State of the Operator
C State of Registry/JAA
D State of Registry/ State of the Operator/ICAO D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Who is responsible for initiating the procedures outlined in the Operations Manual in the event of an
emergency?
Choices Answers Correct
A In the air theaircraft commander, on the ground the flight dispatcher A
B In the air thepilot, on the ground the operator
C In the air theflight crew, on the ground ATC
D In the air thecabin crew, on the ground the handling agent
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A four-jet aircraft must be equipped with an in-flight fuel jettisoning system in order to reduce the
aircraft weight in an emergency:
Choices Answers Correct
A until the central tank is empty in order to cope with the wing and landing gear constraints at
landing touchdown
B unless it is capable of meeting the climb requirements: 2.7% in approach configuration with 1 B
engine inoperative and 3.2% in landing configuration with all engines operative
C in order to reach the maximum structural landing weight in less than 15 minutes after activation
of the jettisoning system
D in order to reduce the landing distance to 60% of the effective runway length
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question A four-jet aircraft must be equipped with an in-flight fuel jettisoning system in order to reduce the
aircraft weight in an emergency:
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question From the following list:

Choices 1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard
2. The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane
3. Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane
4. The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability of the aeroplane

Which of the above are requirements that must be shown to exist during fuel jettisoning tests?
Answers Correct
A 1, 3, 4
B 1, 2, 3, 4 B
C 1, 4
D 2, 3
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question When jettisoning fuel for certification the following conditions must be
demonstrated:
Choices
(i) Fuel jettisoning must be free from fire hazards
(ii) Fuel discharges clear of aircraft
(iii) Fuel or fumes do not enter the aircraft
(iv) Fuel jettisoning does not affect the controllability of the aircraft
(v) Fuel can be jettisoned within 30 minutes
Answers Correct
A (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) A
B (i), (ii) and (iii)
C (ii), (iii) and (v)
D (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:

Choices Answers Correct

A under flight level 50 (FL 50)
B in a holding stack, after control clearance
C in a straight line and at a relatively high flight level C
D during final phase of approach
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:

Ref CPL A AND H

Question In what period of time must a fuel jettisoning system be capable of jettisoning sufficient fuel to meet the
precise climb and discontinued approach requirements:
Choices Answers Correct
A 15 minutes A
B 30 minutes
C 60 minutes
D 90 minutes
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In what minimum time must sufficient fuel be jettisoned in order to comply with approach/climb gradient
specifications?
Choices Answers Correct
A 90 minutes
B 60 minutes
C 30 minutes
D 15 minutes D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The time limit for fuel jettison to reduce from MTOM to emergency landing mass is:

Choices Answers Correct

A 15 minutes A
B 30 minutes
C 10 minutes
D 20 minutes
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Where is it best to carry out fuel jettison?

Choices Answers Correct

A Below flight level 50
B In a holding pattern if cleared by ATC
C Straight and level at a high altitude as possible C
D On final approach
Ref CPL A AND H
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question In order to carry hazardous materials on board a public transport airplane, they must be accompanied with
a:
Choices Answers Correct
A transport document for hazardous materials A
B representative of the company owning the materials
C specialised handling employee
D system to warn the crew in case of a leak or of an abnormal increase in temperature
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Who makes sure that the air transportation of an item of dangerous goods is not prohibited?

Choices Answers Correct

A The shipper when completing the shippers declaration for dangerous goods A
B The captain, always using the list of prohibited aircraft items
C The operator
D It is not specified
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question A passenger is allowed to carry match-boxes:

Choices 1. on himself/herself
2. in his/her hand luggage
3. in his/her checked luggage

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 3
B 1 B
C 1, 2
D 2, 3
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question When carrying hazardous dangerous air cargo on an aeroplane with passengers what must you have?

Choices Answers Correct

A A trained person accompanying the goods
B Details on procedures if split during an emergency
C A company representative
D Transport documentation D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question (Refer to figure 071-06)Considering the two holds of an aircraft. Each hold consists of 4 compartments to
accommodate freight pallets or luggage containers. You are asked to load:
Choices 2 pallets of live animals marked AVl-
2 luggage containers marked BAG
1 mortal remains marked HUM-
1 pallet of food product marked EAT-
1 pallet of radioactive materials marked RRY-
1 pallet of toxic materials marked RHF.
The locations still vacant shall be markedXXX. According to the table of compatibility of special freight
and hazardous materials given in the appendix, the most operational distribution in the holds shall be:
Answers Correct
A Hold 1 : EAT - BAG - RRY - RHF; Hold 2 : BAG - AVl - AVl - HUM
B Hold 1 : EAT - BAG - AVl - AVl Hold 2 : BAG - HUM - RRY - RHF
C Hold 1 : BAG - BAG - RRY - HUM Hold 2 : AVl - AVl - XXX - EAT (RHF disembarked)
D Hold 1 : BAG - RHF - HUM - RRY Hold 2 : AVl - AVl - BAG - EAT D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question which of the following are considered dangerous goods that are required to be carried on board the
aeroplane?
Choices 1. Portable fire extinguishers
2. Emeergency oxygen supplies
3. Passenger food
4. First aid kits
5. Alcoholic beverages
Answers Correct
A 1, 2
B 1, 2, 4 B
C 1, 3, 4
D 2, 4, 5
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question The authorisation for the transport of hazardous materials is specified on the:

Choices Answers Correct

A airworthiness certificate
B registration certificate
C air carrier certificate C
D insurance certificate
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of hazardous materials are
specified in the:
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of hazardous materials are
specified in the:
Choices Answers Correct
A operation manual A
B flight manual
C AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication)
D air carrier certificate
Ref CPL A AND H
Question ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organisation) Appendix 18 is a document dealing with:

Choices Answers Correct

A the technical operational use of aircraft
B the air transport of live animals
C the noise pollution of aircraft
D the safety of the air transport of hazardous materials D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in question are
defined as such by:
Choices Answers Correct
A The directives of the Community Union
B The UNO document entitled Dangerous Goods Regulations
C The ICAO document entitled Technical Instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by C
air
D The IATA document entitled Regulations governing the transportation of dangerous goods by air
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by:

Choices Answers Correct

A the shipper A
B the operator
C the captain
D the handling agent
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In the hazardous materials transportation act, the freight compliance with the regulatory arrangements is
the responsibility of the:
Choices Answers Correct
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question In the hazardous materials transportation act, the freight compliance with the regulatory arrangements is
the responsibility of the:
A sender A
B captain
C station manager
D aerodrome manager
Ref CPL A AND H
Question From the following list:

Choices 1. Fire extinguishers

2. Portable oxygen supplies
3. First-aid kits
4. Passenger meals
5. Alcoholic beverages

Which are classed as Dangerous Goods that are required to be on the aeroplane
Answers Correct
A 1, 2, and 5 only
B 1, 2 and 3 only B
C 3, 4 and 5 only
D 2, 3 and 4 only
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In addition to the languages required by the State of Origin, what language should be set for the markings
related to dangerous goods:
Choices Answers Correct
A English, French or Spanish
B French
C Spanish
D English D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:

Choices Answers Correct

A no passenger is carried on the same flight
B national aviation administration permission has been granted
C government permission has been granted
D the airline complies with the Technical Instructions D
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:

Ref CPL A AND H

Question Who is responsible for ensuring that the regulatory procedures for the transportation of dangerous goods is
complied with?
Choices Answers Correct
A Captain
B Sender B
C Station Manager
D Aerodrome Manager
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The information concerning dangerous products that passengers may carry, are listed in the:

Choices Answers Correct

A aircrafts flight manual
B IATA document Dangerous products transportation
C JAR-OPS documentation
D ICAO document named Technical safety instructions for the air transportation of dangerous D
products
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Regarding the carriage of dangerous goods, the transport document, if required, is drawn up by:

Choices Answers Correct

A The operator
B The captain
C The handling agent
D The shipper D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organisation) Appendix 18 is a document dealing with the:

Choices Answers Correct

A safety of the air transport of hazardous materials A
B technical operational use of aircraft
C air transport of live animals
D noise pollution of aircraft
Ref CPL A AND H
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question Where is permanent approval for the carriage of dangerous goods given?

Choices Answers Correct

A Certificate of Airworthiness
B Aircraft registration
C Air Operators Certificate C
D Insurance Certificate
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 071-05)For the two labels represented in the appendix, the principal and secondary risks
are respectively:
Choices Answers Correct
A corrosive material, toxic
B corrosive material, infectious
C infectious material, corrosive
D toxic material, corrosive D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 071-05)If a packet is marked with the label shown in the appendix (Label A) it is:

Choices Answers Correct

A an explosive substance
B a corpse
C an infectious substance
D a toxic material D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question As a pilot in command, during flight preparation, if you are notified that a dangerous package has been
damaged during its loading, you:
Choices Answers Correct
A accept it after a visual inspection
B mention it on the Notification to Captain
C ensure that arrangements are made for its removal C
D mention it on the shipper's declaration
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Assuming that the operator is approved by his national authority, carriage of dangerous goods is allowed,
provided that:
Choices Answers Correct
A the operator complies with the technical instructions (ICAO DOC 9284) A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question Assuming that the operator is approved by his national authority, carriage of dangerous goods is allowed,
provided that:
B the dangerous goods transport document is approved by the national authority prior to each
flight
C the operator has certified the dangerous goods
D no passengers and dangerous goods are carried on the same flight
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The authorisation for the transport of dangerous goods is specified on the:

Choices Answers Correct

A airworthiness certificate
B registration certificate
C air operator certificate C
D insurance certificate
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The dangerous goods regulations ICAO annex 18 require that, when delivering cargo for transport, the
responsibility for compliance with the regulations are to:
Choices Answers Correct
A aerodrome manager
B commander
C station manager
D sender D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The dangerous goods transport document regarding the safe transport of dangerous goods by air is specified
in the:
Choices Answers Correct
A air transport permit
B technical instructions B
C flight manual
D operations manual
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The regulations for transportation of dangerous goods are contained in:

Choices Answers Correct

A ICAO Appendix 8
B ICAO Annex 18 B
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question The regulations for transportation of dangerous goods are contained in:

C the Washington Convention

D ICAO Annex 17
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Where dangerous goods are carried on a flight which takes place wholly or partly outside the territory of a
State, which language must be used on the transport document in addition to any other language?
Choices Answers Correct
A Spanish
B French
C English C
D English, French, Spanish, Russian, Chinese
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Where is the general information about the carriage of dangerous goods to be found?

Choices Answers Correct

A Operations Manual A
B AIC
C Aircraft flight notes
D Journey LogBook
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What are Class 6 dangerous goods?

Choices Answers Correct

A Explosives
B Toxic B
C Radioactive
D Flammable liquids
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Who checks that any dangerous cargo offered for shipping is legal?

Choices Answers Correct

A The pilot-in-command
B The operator
C The shipper C
D No one specified
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question Who checks that any dangerous cargo offered for shipping is legal?

Ref CPL A AND H

Question Which language must dangerous goods is labelled in?

Choices Answers Correct

A English A
B French
C Spanish
D English, French or Spanish
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Where is information on dangerous goods allowed to be carried by passengers found?

Choices Answers Correct

A CARS
B ICAO Annex 18 for carriage of dangerous goods B
C Dangerous Goods Procedures in Ops manual
D AFM
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What manual should you use to find the specific instructions for the carriage of dangerous goods:

Choices Answers Correct

A Technical Instructions A
B ICAO Annex 18
C ICAO Annex 16
D AFM
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What does ICAO Annex 18 relate to?

Choices Answers Correct

A Dangerous goods A
B Flight time limitation
C Facilitation
D Flight Crew Licensing
Ref CPL A AND H
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question For a given aircraft and runway contamination, increased pressure altitude will:

Choices Answers Correct

A maintains or increases the hydroplaning speed
B decreases the hydroplaning speed
C maintains the hydroplaning speed
D increases the hydroplaning speed D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
1.Water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves
Choices 2.Speed is greater than 96 kt
3.Water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves
4.Speed is greater than 127 kt
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 3 and 4
B 1 and 4
C 2 and 3
D 1 and 2 D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
1.Water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves
Choices 2.Speed is greater than 114 kt
3.Water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves
4.Speed is greater than 83 kt
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 1 and 4
B 1 and 2 B
C 2 and 3
D 3 and 4
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain:
1.you increase your approach speed
Choices 2.you land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the wheels with the runway and immediately land your
nose gear
3.you decrease your approach speed
4.you use systematically all the lift dumper devices
5.you land as smoothly as possible
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain:
1.you increase your approach speed
2.you land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the wheels with the runway and immediately land your
nose gear
3.you decrease your approach speed
4.you use systematically all the lift dumper devices
5.you land as smoothly as possible
6.you brake energetically
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 4 A
B 3, 5
C 2, 3, 4
D 1, 4, 5, 6
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question a runway is referred to as contaminated when more than 25% of the required runway surface is covered with
the one of the following elements:
Choices 1.a water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway
2.a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water
3.compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further)
4.ice, including wet ice 5 moist grass
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 3, 4
B 1, 2, 3, 4
C 2, 3, 4 C
D 1, 3, 4, 5
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question The braking efficiency is a piece of information presenting itself in the form of a:

Choices Answers Correct

A letter falling between A and E
B percentage varying from 10% to 100%
C zero followed by two decimals
D combination of the terms: poor, medium, good D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is:
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is:

Choices Answers Correct

A poor A
B unreliable
C medium
D good
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question The touch down areas located at both ends of the runways are typical for the appearance of:

Choices Answers Correct

A rubber reversion hydroplaning
B dynamic hydroplaning
C viscous hydroplaning C
D rubber steaming hydroplaning
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the:

Choices Answers Correct

A aircraft's weight
B depth of the standing water on the runway B
C strength of the head wind
D amount of the lift off speed
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic
hydroplaning as soon as the:
Choices
1. water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves
2. speed is greater than 123 kt
3. water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves
4. speed is greater than 95 kt

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Answers Correct
A 2 and 3
B 1 and 4
C 3 and 4
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic
hydroplaning as soon as the:

1. water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves

2. speed is greater than 123 kt
3. water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves
4. speed is greater than 95 kt

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

D 1 and 2 D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 10 bars, there is a risk of dynamic
hydroplaning as soon as the:
Choices
1. water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves
2. speed is greater than 104 kt
3. water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves
4. speed is greater than 96 kt

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Answers Correct
A 1, 2 A
B 1, 4
C 2, 3
D 3, 4
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question The tire pressure of an aircraft main landing gear is 10.8 bars. The speed at which the hydroplaning
phenomenon will appear is approximately:
Choices Answers Correct
A 112 kt A
B 56 kt
C 87 kt
D 145 kt
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplanes mainwheel tyre pressure is 206 psi, the
approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur in the event of applying brakes is:
Choices Answers Correct
A 80 kt
B 114 kt
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplanes mainwheel tyre pressure is 206 psi, the
approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur in the event of applying brakes is:
C 100 kt
D 129 kt D
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as:
1.Water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves
Choices 2.Speed is greater than 132 kt
3.Water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves
4.Speed is greater than 117 kt
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 2 A
B 1, 4
C 2, 3
D 3, 4
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared lengthof a runway in metres. If this is less than the published
length, how is this reported:
Choices Answers Correct
A by a four figure group added to item D, which gives the length in metres
B it is not reported
C in plain language at item T (the final paragraph) of a SNOWTAM C
D as a percentage of the total length of the runway available as the final items of a SNOWTAM
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question If airworthiness documents do not show any additional correction factor for landing performance
determination on a wet runway, the landing distance shall be increased by:
Choices Answers Correct
A 20%
B 15% B
C 105
D 5%
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Braking action is described as 0.25 or below. Is it good/medium/poor?

Choices Answers Correct

A Poor A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question Braking action is described as 0.25 or below. Is it good/medium/poor?

B Medium to Poor
C Medium
D Good to medium
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question An aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 10 Bar is in danger of dynamic hydroplaning if:
1.The aeroplane speed is in excess of 107 kts
Choices 2.The water depth is equal to the tyre tread depth
3.The aeroplane speed is in excess of 95 kts
4.The water depth is equal to half the tyre tread depth
Answers Correct
A 1, 2 A
B 1, 4
C 2, 3
D 3, 4
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Viscous hydroplaning is caused by:

Choices Answers Correct

A a smooth and clear runway surface
B a smooth and dirty runway surface B
C bald tyres
D a rough runway surface
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question An aircraft with a tyre pressure of 14 Bar will be subject to hydroplaning when:
1.The water depth is equal to the tyre tread depth
Choices 2.The speed is greater than 123 kts
3.The water depth is equal to half the tyre tread depth
4.The speed is greater than 95 kts
Answers Correct
A (i) and (ii) A
B (ii) and (iii)
C (i) and (iv)
D (iii) and (iv)
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question In a SNOWTAM, if the cleared length of runway is less than the published length, what and where would the
information be displayed?
Choices Answers Correct
A Box D with the cleared length expressed as a percentage
B Box D with the cleared length is metres B
C Box T explained in plain English
D Box C with the runway designator
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question How is braking efficiency presented?

Choices Answers Correct

A Decimal followed by two significant figures
B Sequentially from A to E
C Poor, medium, good C
D As a function of the length of the runway
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 10 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:

Choices Answers Correct

A Water depth is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves
B Speed is greater than 108 kt B
C Speed is greater than 96 kt
D Runway temperature is greater than 40oC
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:

Choices Answers Correct

A Speed is greater than 83 kt
B Water depth is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves
C Speed is greater than 119 kt C
D Speed is greater than 95 kt
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:

Choices Answers Correct

A Tail wind is greater than 10 kt
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:

B Speed is greater than 129 kt B

C Water depth is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves
D Speed is greater than 95 kt
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:

Choices Answers Correct

A Speed is greater than 138 kt A
B Speed is greater than 117 kt
C Water depth is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves
D Cross wind is greater than 15 kt
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question When there is a risk of hydroplaning the pilot of an aeroplane:

Choices Answers Correct

A should make a positive landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as A
possible
B should use maximum reverse thrust, however should start braking below the hydroplaning speed
C should use normal landing, braking and reverse technique
D must wait for landing until the risk for hydroplaning is no longer existing
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Landing on a flooded runway in heavy rain:
1.Decrease your approach speed
Choices 2.Make a positive touch down on the main gear and lower the nose gear as soon as practicable
3.Increase the approach speed
4.Make a smooth touchdown
5.Use all available lift dumpers in a systematic manner
6.Brake heavily
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 2, 4, 5, 6
B 2, 5 B
C 1, 2, 5
D 1, 4, 5
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question What is the aquaplaning speed if the main gear tyre pressure is 10.8 Bar?

Choices Answers Correct

D 112 kts D
D 143 kts
D 85 kts
D 95 kts
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question What is the most important factor to be taken into account concerning dynamic hydroplaning?

Choices Answers Correct

A Weight of the aeroplane
B Lift off speed B
C Depth of the water
D Configuration of the aeroplane
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question If no other figure is published, by what factor must the landing distance on a wet runway be connected by?

Choices Answers Correct

A 5%
B 10%
C 15% C
D 20%
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question In the H field of a SNOWTAM the information displayd is 0.25. This means that the braking action is:

Choices Answers Correct

A Medium
B Medium to poor
C Poor C
D Medium to good
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question An aircraft has a tyre pressure of 12.4 bar. Dynamic hydroplaning is likely to begin at:

Choices Answers Correct

A 106 kt
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question An aircraft has a tyre pressure of 12.4 bar. Dynamic hydroplaning is likely to begin at:

B 121 kt B
C 143 kt
D 82 kt
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question Viscous hydroplaning occurs primary if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and:

Choices Answers Correct

A is rough textured
B is very smooth and clean
C is very smooth and dirty C
D the tyre treads are not in a good state
Ref CPL A AND H
Question a runway is considered damp when:

Choices Answers Correct

A its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance A
B surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance
C it is covered with a firm of water of less than 3 mm
D it is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is:

Choices Answers Correct

A 24 hours A
B 12 hours
C 6 hours
D 3 hours
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways
and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of
Choices arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:
Answers Correct
A 20%
B 18%
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways
and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of
arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:
C 15% C
D 17.6%
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A runway covered with 4 mm thick water is said to be:

Choices Answers Correct

A flooded
B wet
C contaminated C
D damp
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the definition of a wet runway?

Choices Answers Correct

A 25% contamination of the runway with water depth less than 3 mm A
B More than 25% coverage of water greater than 3 mm deep
C Water standing on a runway without grooves or a porous pavement
D Water standing on a runway with water depth less than 3 mm, appearing non-reflective
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Which combination of statements describes a wet runway?
1.it is covered with a quantity of water or loose or slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3
Choices mm of water
2.the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does not give it a shiny appearance
3.the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it reflective, but does not create large stagnant
sheets of water
4.it bears stagnant sheets of water
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 4
B 2, 4
C 2, 3
D 1, 3 D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A runway is considered to be contaminated when its surface is covered more than:
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question A runway is considered to be contaminated when its surface is covered more than:

Choices Answers Correct

A 10% with ice
B 25% with compacted snow B
C 20% with melted snow
D 15% with melted snow
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A runway is considered to be wet when;
1.Slush/snow equivalent or water less than 3 mm in depth
Choices 2.Change of colour but not shiny
3.Shiny appearance
4.Large stagnant sheets of water
Answers Correct
A 4 only
B 2, 4
C 1, 3 C
D 3, 4
Ref CPL A AND H
Question At high All Up Mass, unintentional over-pitching is likely to occur:

Choices Answers Correct

A in a transition to or from the hover A
B as a result of excessive cyclic movement
C after attaining effective translational lift
D when commencing a flare
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question At normal operating rotor RPM ground resonance can be prevented from developing to a critical point, if
action is taken early enough, by:
Choices Answers Correct
A applying collective pitch control and lifting off A
B engaging the autopilot or the stability augmentation system, if fitted
C compensating for helicopter movement with cyclic control
D avoiding any control input until all vibration has ceased
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question Blade sailing, with the attendant possibility of a blade strike on the tail boom or rear fuselage, is most
likely to occur:
Choices Answers Correct
A during an autorotative descent
B during very low rotort RPM conditions, particularly whilst starting or stopping the rotor in B
gusty conditions
C whilst hovering in strong winds
D when carrying out extreme manoeuvres
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question For a twin-engine helicopter if it is not possible to return to the heliport of departure due to
meteorological reasons, the commander must select a take-off alternate within:
Choices Answers Correct
A 1 hour flight time at normal cruise speed A
B 30 minutes at best range speed with one engine inoperative
C 30 minutes at normal cruise speed
D 1 hour at best range speed with one engine inoperative
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question Ground resonance occurring when rotor RPM is within operating limits can be alleviated by:

Choices Answers Correct

A avoiding any control input until all vibration has ceased
B applying the rotor brake as rapidly as possible
C compensating for helicopter movement withy cyclic control
D applying collective pitch and lifting off D
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question If ground resonance is encountered in a helicopter, the correct recovery action is:

Choices Answers Correct

A to apply pitch for take-off immediately, regardless of rotor RPM
B to shut down immediately, regardless of rotor RPM
C to take-off if rotor RPM sufficient, to shut down and apply rotor brake if rotor RPM C
insufficient
D to increase rotor RPM to take-off power and get airborne
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question If the engine fails in the hover, at 3 ft skid height in still air, in a single engine helicopter the
recommended action is:
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question If the engine fails in the hover, at 3 ft skid height in still air, in a single engine helicopter the
recommended action is:
Choices Answers Correct
A counteract yaw with pedals, use cyclic to raise tail rotor, lower collective slightly to
maintain rotor RPM
B use rudder to prevent yaw, hold cyclic steady, lower collective briefly then raise to cushion
landing
C counteract yaw with pedals, maintain position with cyclic, cushion touchdown with collective C
D use rudder to prevent yaw, push cyclic forward for touchdown , use collective to cushion landing
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question In a helicopter with manual throttle, if the main rotor is overpitched the corrective action is to:

Choices Answers Correct

A reduce engine power and leave collective pitch constant
B reduce both engine power and collective pitch
C increase engine power and collective pitch
D reduce collective pitch and increase engine power D
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question In the event of an engine failure in a single engine helicopter in the cruise, the recommended sequence of
immediate actions is:
Choices Answers Correct
A correct yaw with pedals, lower collective, transmit mayday, select landing site, use cyclic and
collctive to position for landing
B lower collective, counteract yaw with pedals, select attitude for appropriate airspeed with B
cyclic, select landing site, transmit mayday, position helicopter for an into wind landing
C flare with cyclic, counteract yaw with pedals, establish descent with collective, select landing
site, adjust collective for range, land into wind, transmit mayday
D select airspeed, lower collective, adjust yaw pedals, transmit mayday, autorotate to open
ground, adjust speed for landing
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question Should a helicopter suffer from retreating blade stall in flight, to reduce the effects:

Choices Answers Correct

A the cyclic control should be pulled back to decrease speed in a flare manoeuvre
B the collective pitch should be increased
C the cyclic control should be pushed forward to increase speed
D the collective pitch should be reduced D
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND - Windshear and Microbust
Question To minimise the dangers of blade sailing:

Choices Answers Correct

A ensure that rotor RPM during start-up or shut-down are increased or decreased as slowly as
possible
B the start-up and shut-down should be carried out facing directly into wind
C flapping restrictors, if fitted, should be withdrawn before start-up or shut- down
D the start-up and shut-down should be carried out with the helicopter facing slightly out of wind D
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H