SPEC 112 FINALS 1st SEM SY 2019- 2020 SET A

Choose the letter of the best answer. Kindly shade your chosen answers on the answer sheet provided.

1. How many molecules are present in 25g of H2SO4?

A. 1.05 x 1023 B. 1.50 x 1023 C. 3.01 x 1023 D. 6.023 x 1023 E. 6.023 x 1015

2. Which of the following is close to 0 °F?

A. 0 °C B. -10 °C C. -5 °C D. -18 °C E. -32 °C

3. Which of the following is equivalent to 25°C?

A. 0 °F B. 32 °F C. 273 K D. 298 K E. 460 R

4. The word atom came from a Greek word “atomos” that means
A. basic B. round C. infinite D. tiny E. indestructible

5. Which of the following is not one of Dalton’s laws?

a) Atoms are indestructible.
b) Atoms of the same element have isotopes with different masses.
c) Atoms of different elements have different chemical and physical properties.
d) All of these are examples of Dalton’s laws. e) None of these are of Dalton’s

6. The “plum pudding” model of the atom was devised by:

a) Dalton b) Democritus c) Rutherford d) None of them e) All of them

7. Bohr’s model of the atom was able to accurately explain:

a) Why spectral lines appear when atoms are heated.
b) The energies of the spectral lines for each element.
c) Why electrons travel in circular orbits around the nucleus.
d) none of the above answers is correct. e) all are correct assumptions

8. What subatomic particle has a mass of one atomic mass unit?

a) proton b) neutron c) electron d) proton and neutron e) none of them

9. How many electrons does iron have?

a) 26 b) 30 c) 56 d) 80 e) It depends

10. Which of the following is true of the distance of an electron from the nucleus of a 1H atom?
a) It is 1 amu. b) It remains constant over time.
c) It’s distance at any given time can only be predicted by looking at a“wavefunction”.
d) It is impossible to say where an electron will be at any given time.
e) It orbits the nucleus of hydrogen

11. Orbitals hold:

a) A maximum of one electron each b) A maximum of two electrons each
c) A number of electrons that depends on the energy level.
d) A number of electrons that depends on the type of orbital. e) None of the above

12. Which type of orbital looks like a figure-8 when drawn?

a) s-orbital b) p-orbital c) d-orbital d) f-orbital e) none of the above

13. Which of the following typically has a low melting point?

a) metals b) nonmetals c) metalloids d) transition metals e) it depends

14. The difference between a “family” and a “group” in the periodic table is that:
a) Families are columns and groups are rows.
b) Families are rows and groups are columns.
c) Families determine the energy level of an element and groups determine their properties.
d) None of the above is true.
e) At least two of them are true

15. Which of the following elements has three valence electrons?

a) lithium b) boron c) nitrogen d) All of them e) None of them

16. The electron configuration for gallium is:

a) [Ar] 4s24d104p1 b) [Ar] 4s23d103p1 c) [Ar] 4s23d104p1 d) [Ar] 4s23d103p2 e) none is correct.
17. What section of the periodic table is a very strong oxidizer?
a) alkali metals b) lanthanides c) halogens d) alkaline earth e) none is correct.

18. Which element has the largest atomic radius?

a) fluorine b) carbon c) tin d) iodine e) bromine
19. The octet rule explains why:
a) the electronegativity of fluorine is greater than that of bromine
b) the electronegativity of fluorine is greater than that of boron
c) the electronegativity of fluorine is smaller than that of gallium
d) none of these answers is correct e) all are correct

20. Cations have:

a) Positive charge b) Negative charge c) No charge d)it depends e) uncertain charge

21. How many grams are there in 2.1 moles of sodium?

a) 48.3 grams b) 0.0913 grams c) 11.0 grams d) 22.054 grams e) none is correct

22. How many molecules are there in 45 grams of aluminum trifluoride (?

a) 2.28 x 1027 b) 3.23 x 1023 c) 1.12 x 1024 d) 4.23 x 1023 e)none is correct

23. Avogadro’s law states that:

a) The volume of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature in Kelvins.
b) The volume of a gas is directly proportional to the number of moles present.
c) The volume of a gas is directly proportional to the ideal gas constant.
d) all of these e) none of these

24. What is the valence of carbon in carbon dioxide?

a) II b) III c) IV d) V. e) None of the above

25. Metallic properties of chemical elements from A subgroups increase from:

a) left to right; b) right to left; c) top to bottom; d) bottom to top. e) Can’t be determined

26. Nonmetallic properties of chemical elements from A subgroups increase from:

a) left to right b) right to left c) top to bottom d) bottom to top e) Can’t be determined

27. Atomic radii of chemical elements from A subgroups increase from:

a) left to right b) right to left; c) top to bottom; d) bottom to top e) Can’t be determined

28. Electronegativity of chemical elements from A subgroups increases from:

a) left to right b) top to bottom c) right to left d) bottom to top e) Can’t be determined

29. Ionization energy of chemical elements from A subgroups increases from:

a) left to right b) top to bottom c) right to left d) bottom to top e) Can’t be determined

30. Which properties are usually identical for elements from the same subgroup?
a) number of protons b) highest valence c) valence d) electronegativity e) None of these

31. Which properties are identical for elements from the same period?
a) atomic radius b) ionization energy c) valence d) chemical properties e) None of these

32. How many electron orbitals are there on the p-sublevel?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 6

33. What is the maximal number of electrons which can occupy d-sublevel?
a) 2 b) 6 c) 10 d) 14 e)20

34. How many unpaired electrons are there in the nitrogen atom (in its normal state)?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) zero

35. What is the number of electrons on the outer shell (level) of the chlorine atom:
a) 17; b) 8 c) 18 d) 7 e) 19

36. What is the maximal number of electrons on the same orbital?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 6 d) 10 e) 14

37. Choose the correct order of electron orbitals fulfillment:

a) 1s/2s/2p/3s/3d; b) 1s/2s/3p/3s/3d c) 1s/2s/3s/2p/3d d) 1s/2s/2p/3s/3p. e) None of these
38. Choose the electron configuration of the nitrogen atom (in its normal state):
a) 1s22s22p3; b) 1s22s12p4; c) 1s22s32p2; d) 1s12s22p4. E) 1s22s22p63s23p1

39. What element has the following electron configuration: 1s22s22p63s23p1

a) Na; b) Mg; c) Al; d) Si. E) Fe

40. Choose possible electron configurations (in both normal and excited states) for the carbon atom:
a) 1s22s22p2; b) 1s22s12p3; c) 1s32s22p1; d) 1s22s22p1. E) 1s22s22p63s23p1

41. Atoms of different elements having the same mass number but different atomic number.
A. Isobars B. Isomers C. Isotopes D. isodense E. isotones

42. Protium, Deuterium and Tritium are:

A. Isotopes of Oxygen B. Isotopes of Carbon C. Isotopes of Hydrogen D. Isobars of Oxygen E. Isobars of Hydrogen

43. The electrons present in the outer most orbit is called

A. nuclide B. valence C. configuration D. Isotopes E. Isobars

44. Which is more likely to give a loose electron?

A. Potassium B. Calcium C. Copper D. Tin E. Iodine

45. Process that involves removal of electrons

a) Oxidation b) Cation formation c) Anaion formation d) Chemical Bonding e) Reduction

46. Explains stability of Noble Gases

a) Dalton’ Law b) Rutherford’s Findings c) Thomson’s Findings d) Avogadro’s Law e) Octet Rule

47. Which of the following is an example of Ionic Bonding

a) NaCl b) O2 c) CO2 d) CCl4 e) CH3OH

48. What Is the atomic mass unit of Oxygen Molecule?

a) 4 b) 8 c) 16 d) 32 e) 48

49. Choose the correct order of electron orbitals fulfillment:

a) 3s/3p/3d/4s b) 3p/3s/4s/4d c)3s/3p/4s/4d d) 3s/3p/4s/3d e) 3s/4s/3p/3d

50. Which of the following is an example of Covalent Bonding

a) NaCl b) CCl4 c) NH4OH d) HCl e)FeO

51. What is the charge of a nucleus of an atom?

a) Positive b) Negative c) No Charge d) Can’t be determined e) It depends

52. How many neutrons are there in an element with atomic number of 10 and mass number of 22?
a) 10 b) 22 c) 14 d) 12 e) none of the above

53. How many moles are represented by 11 grams of CO2?

a) 0.05 b) 0.10 c) 0.15 d) 0.25 e) 0.75

54. How many grams of SO2 are present in ½ mole of SO2?

a) 4 b) 8 c) 16 d) 32 e) 48

55. How many molecules are present in 245 g of H2SO4?

a) 2.28 x 1027 b) 3.23 x 1023 c) 1.50 x 1024 d) 4.23 x 1023 e)none is correct

56. A unit of measurement used in chemistry to express amounts of a chemical substance.

a) g/mol b) molecule c) mole d) amu e) none is correct.

57. STP is
a) 0 K, 1 atm b) 0 K, 1 Kpa c) 0 °C,1 Kpa d) 25 °C, 1 atm e) 0 °C, 1 atm

58. A substance that gives hydrogen (H+) ions in water or in aqueous solution.
a) Lewis acid b) Lewis base c) Arrhenius acid d) Arrhenius base e) Buffer Solution

59. Which is a description of Bronsted – Lowry Acid?

a) gives hydrogen ions b) gives hydroxyl ions c) proton acceptor d) proton donor e) electron pair donor

60. How is pH computed?

a) log (1/H+) b) log (H+) c) - log (1/H+) d) - log (H+) e) 1/ log (H+)

61. High concentration of hydrogen ions will mean

a) high pH b) neutral pH c) low pH d) zero pH e) none is correct

62. Distilled water has a pH between

a) 0 – 3 b) 3 – 6 c) 6 -8 d)8 – 11 e)11 – 14

63. The pH of acid is?

a) 0 b) 7 c14 d) < 7 e) > 7
64. Calculate the pH of a solution whose hydrogen ion concentration is 4.6 x 10-2 gm ions/litre.
a) 0.337 b) 1.337 c) 2.337 d) 3.337 e) 4.337

65. A solution is one which maintains a constant pH even when small amount of acid or alkali are added to the solution.
a) Lewis acid b) Indicator c) Arrhenius acid d) Arrhenius base e) Buffer Solution

66. Shows the exact completion of a chemical reaction by changing color at the end point.
a) Lewis acid b) Indicator c) Arrhenius acid d) Arrhenius base e) Buffer Solution

67. If pH of a solution is 9, what is its pOH?

a) 1 b) 3 c) 5 d) 7 e) 9

68. If the pH of a solution is 5.25, calculate the hydrogen ion concentration of the solution.
a) 6.523 x 10-6 b) 0.623 x 10-6 c) 3.623 x 10-6 d) 1.623 x 10-6 e) 5.623 x 10-6

69. Calculate the pH of 0.001 m NaOH solution.

a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 13 e) 14

70. Calculate the molarity of a solution containing 4 grams of sodium hydroxide (NaOH) in one liter of the solution.
a) 0.1 M b) 0.1 m c) 0.2 m d) 0.2 M e) 0.5 M

71. Calculate the molality of a solution containing 15g of methanol (CH3OH) in 150 g of solvent. (mass of methanol=32)
a) 2.223 m b) 3.125 m c) 3.125 M d) 2.223 m e) 5.56 m

72. A solution is prepared by dissolving 4 g of sodium hydroxide in 18 g of water. Determine mole fraction of water.
a) 0.09 b) 0.11 c) 0.78 d) 0.89 e) 0.91

73. Calculate the normality of an oxalic acid solution containing 3.2 g of oxalic acid in 4 litres of solution.
a) 0.005 b) 0.010 c) 0.015 d) 0.0125 e) 0.025

74. It is valid only in aqueous solution or water-soluble acid and bases.

a) Lewis theory b) Indicator c) Arrhenius theory d) Bronsted-Lowry theory e) Buffer Solution

75. Phenolphthalein changes color to____ when solution is basic.

a) yellow b) red c) green d)pink e) colorless

76. Which is the correct formula for iron(II) phosphate?

A) Fe2PO4 B) Fe3(PO4)2 C) Fe2PO3 D) Fe(PO4)2 E) Fe(PO3)2

77. Which of the following is the formula for hydroiodic acid?

A) HIO4 B) HIO3 C) HIO2 D) HIO E) HI

78. The formula for calcium phosphate is

A) CaPO4. B) Ca3(PO4)2. C) Ca2(PO4)3. D) Ca3P2. E) Ca3(PO3)2.

79. The formula for magnesium sulfate is

A) MnS B) MgS C) MnSO3 D) MgSO4 E) MgSO3

80. The formula for sodium sulfide is

A) NaS. B) K2S. C) NaS2. D) Na2S. E) SeS.

81. Give the formula for cobalt(II) chlorate dihydrate

A) CoCl2•2H2O B) CoClO3(H2O)2 C) Co(ClO3)2(H2O)2 D) Co(ClO3)2•2H2O E) Co2(ClO3)3•2H2O

82. Name the compound Co(NO3)2

A) Cobalt (I) nitrate B) Cobalt (II) nitrate C) Cobalt (I) nitride D) Cobalt nitrite E) Cobalt (II) nitride

83. Name the compound Al2O3

A) Aluminum oxide B) Aluminum (II) oxide C) Dialuminum trioxide D) Aluminum trioxide E) Aluminum (I) oxide

84. Which is the formula for lead(IV) chloride?

A) Pb4Cl B) PbCl2 C) PbCl3 D) PbCl4 E) Pb2Cl4

85. Name the acid H3PO4 (dissolved in water).

A) Phosphoric acid B) Phosphorous acid C) Hydrogen phosphate D) Hydrophosphate acid E) Hydrophosphoric acid