UT-SA-2024 Test (08-05-2023)
UT-SA-2024 Test (08-05-2023)
– 2q +q
D C
(1) Zero
(2) Along the diagonal AC
1 Q2 1 Q2
(3) 180 o , (4) 180 o ,
4 0 2 L 2
4 0 L2
7. 2C and 6 C two charges are repelling each other with a force of 12 N . If each charge is given 2C of charge,
then the value of the force will be
(1) 4 N (Attractive) (2) 4 N (Repulsive)
(3) 8 N (Repulsive) (4) Zero
8. Three equal charges are placed on the three corners of a square. If the force between q 1 and q 2 is F12 and that
F12
between q 1 and q 3 is F13 , the ratio of magnitudes is
F13
11. Two small conducting spheres of equal radius have charges 10 C and 20 C respectively and placed at a distance
R from each other experience force F1 . If they are brought in contact and separated to the same distance, they
experience force F2 . The ratio of F1 to F2 is
(1) 1:8 (2) –8:1 (3) 1:2 (4) –2:1
12. Two copper balls, each weighing 10g are kept in air 10 cm apart. If one electron from every 10 6 atoms is transferred
from one ball to the other, the coulomb force between them is (atomic weight of copper is 63.5)
(1) 2 . 0 10 10 N (2) 2 . 0 10 4 N (3) 2 . 0 10 8 N (4) 2 . 0 10 6 N
13. Three charges are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of
side ‘a’ as shown in the following figure. The force experienced by the A
+Q
charge placed at the vertex A in a direction normal to BC is
(1) Q 2 /(4 0 a 2 )
(2) Q /(4 0 a 2 )
–Q +Q
(3) Zero B a C
(4) Q 2 /(2 0 a 2 )
14. Two particles of equal mass m and charge q are placed at a distance of 16 cm from each other. They do not
q
experience any force. The value of is
m
0 G
(1) l (2) (3) (4) 4 0 G
G 4 0
15. An electron is moving round the nucleus of a hydrogen atom in a circular orbit of radius r. The coulomb force F
1
between the two is (Where K )
4 0
e2 e2 e2 e2
(1) K ˆr (2) K r (3) K r (4) K ˆr
r3 r3 r3 r2
16. A charge of Q coulomb is placed on a solid piece of metal of irregular shape. The charge will distribute itself
(1) Uniformly in the metal object
(2) Uniformly on the surface of the object
(3) Such that the potential energy of the system is minimised
(4) Such that the total heat loss is minimised
17. Equal charges q are placed at the four corners A, B, C, D of a square of length a . The magnitude of the force on
the charge at B will be
3q 2 4q 2
(1) (2)
4 0 a 2
4 0 a 2
1 2 2 q2 2
(3) (4) 2 1 q
2 4 a 2 2 4 0 a
2
0
18. A charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal charges Q. The system of the three charges will be
in equilibrium, if q is equal to
Q Q Q Q
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 4 4 2
19. Two small spheres each carrying a charge q are placed r metre apart. If one of the spheres is taken around the
other one in a circular path of radius r , the work done will be equal to
(1) Force between them r (2) Force between them 2r
27. Two beakers A and B containing water and aqueous solution of sugar T=25°C
respectively are placed in close evacuated container as shown in the
figure. What will be observed gradually with passage of time?
A B
28. What happens when isotonic solution of sucrose (S1) and urea (S2) are put into communication through
semipermeable membrane?
(1) Transference of solvent from solution of S1 to that of S2 takes place.
(2) Transference of solvent from solution of S2 to that of S1 takes place.
(3) No net transference of solvent from solution of S1 to that of S2 takes place.
(4) Change in temperature of solution takes place.
29. Calculate the apparent degree of ionisation of an electrolyte MX2 in water, if the observed molar mass by
measuring elevation in boiling point is 65.6 (Normal molar mass = 164)
(1) 75 % (2) 85 % (3) 65 % (4) 25 %
30. The amount of ice that will separate on cooling a solution containing 50 g of ethylene glycol in 200 g of
water to –9.3°C is (Kf = 1.86 K molality–1).
(1) 38.71 g (2) 38.71 mg (3) 4.2 g (4) 42 mg.
31. Two liquids A and B have vapour pressure in the ratio PA : PB 2 : 3 at a certain temperature. Assume
A and B form an ideal solution and the ratio of mole fractions of A to B in the vapour phase is 1 : 3 , then
the mole fraction of A in the solution at the same temperature is
(1) 1/3 (2) 2/3 (3) 1/4 (4) 3/4
32. Which one of the following aqueous solution has the highest freezing point at 1 atm?
(1) 0.1 M urea (2) 0.1 M acetic acid
(3) 0.1 M NaCl (4) 0.1 M BaCl2
33. 1 molal aqueous solution of an electrolyte X3Y2 is 25% ionised. The boiling point of the solution is (
K b , H2O 0.52 K kg/mol)
(1) 375.5 K (2) 374.04 K (3) 377.12 K (4) 373.25 K
34. 2 moles of a sparingly soluble salt PbCl2 dissociates in 1 litre solution to give 1 mole of Pb+2 ions, what
is the osmotic pressure of the solution at 300 K.
(1) 98.52 atm (2) 73.89 atm (3) 60 atm (4) 50.5 atm
35. The boiling point of an aqueous solution of a nonvolatile solute is 100.15°C. What is the freezing point
of an aqueous solution obtained by diluting the above solution with an equal volume of water? The values
of Kb and Kf for water are 0.512°C and 1.86°C molalilty1.
(1) 0.544°C (2) 0.512°C (3) 0.272°C (4) 1.86°C
36. At which of the following pressure, water will boil at 101.5°C ?
(1) 76 cm of Hg (2) 76 mm of Hg (3) > 76 cm of Hg (4) < 76 cm of Hg
37. A liquid is kept in a closed vessel. If a glass plate (negligible mass) with a small hole is kept on top of the
liquid surface, then the vapour pressure of the liquid in the vessel is
(1) more than what would be if the glass plate were removed.
(2) same as what would be if the glass plate were removed.
(3) less than what would be if the glass plate were removed.
(4) cannot be predicted.
38. Which of the following solution will have least vapour pressure?
(1) 0.1 M BaCl2 (2) 0.1 M urea (3) 0.1 M Na2SO4 (4) 0.1 M Na3PO4
40. The vapour pressure of a solution of a nonvolatile solute B in a solvent A is 95% of the vapour pressure
of the solvent at the same temperature. If the molecular weight of the solvent is 0.3 times the molecular
weight of the solute, what is the ratio of weight of solvent to solute?
(1) 0.15 (2) 5.7 (3) 0.2 (4) none of these
41. For CrCl3.xNH3, elevation in boiling point of one molal solution is double than that of one molal urea
solution, hence x would be (complex is 100% ionized)
42. For an ideal binary liquid solution with PA > PB , which of the following relation between XA (mole
fraction of A in liquid phase) and YA (mole fraction of A in vapour phase) is correct?
X A YA
(1) XA = YA (2) XA > YA (3) XA < YA (4)
X B YB
43. A complex contains Pt (IV) and has van’t Hoff factor 3 in aqueous solution. The complex is
(1) K2[PtCl4] (2) K2[PtCl6] (3) K3[PtCl5] (4) K[PtCl3]
1 1
44. The plots of vs (where XA and YA are the mole fraction of A in liquid and
X A YA
vapour phase respectively) is linear with slope and intercept respectively are given as
(p A p B ) (p B pA )
(1) pA / p B and (2) pA / p B and
pB pB
(p A p B ) (p B pA )
(3) p B / pA and (4) p B / pA and
pB pB
45. Which of the following statements regarding Henry’s law not correct?
(1) The value of K H change with the nature of the gas.
(2) Higher the value of K H at a given pressure, higher is the solubility of the gas in the liquids
(3) The partial pressure of the gas in vapour phase is proportional to the mole fraction of the gas in
the solution.
(4) Different gases have different K H (Henry’s law constant) value at the same temperature.
46. For a mixture of two volatile, completely miscible liquids A and B, with PB 500 torr and PB 800
torr. What is the composition of last droplet of liquid remaining in equilibrium with vapour?
Provided the initial ideal solution has a composition of x A 0.6 and x B 0.4
(1) x A 0.6 ; x B 0.4 (2) x A 0.5 ; x B 0.5
(3) x A 0.7 ; x B 0.3 (4) x A 0.3 ; x B 0.7
47. At 300K, 40 mL of O3 g dissolves in 100 g of water at 1.0 atm. What mass of ozone dissolved in 400 g of
water at a pressure of 4.0 atm at 300 K?
(1) 0.1 g (2) 1.2 g (3) 0.48 g (4) 4.8 g
48. In an experiment a stream of dry air is passed over an aqueous solution, solvent, anhydrous CaCl 2 setup
in one go, if mass loss in solvent is 2.5 gm and mass gain in anhydrous CaCl2 is 5 gm, then molality of this (very
dilute) solution is____.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
49. Which represents correct difference when non-volatile solute is present in an ideal solution?
2x 1
51. If f ( x ) , then f 1 ( x )
2x 1
1 x 2x 1 1 2x 2 x
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2(1 x ) 2x 1 1 2x 2 x
x 1
53. If f ( x) , then f (2 x) in terms of f ( x) is
x 1
f (3 x) 1 3 f ( x) 1 2 f ( x) 1 2 f ( x) 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 f ( x) 3 f ( x) 3 2 f ( x) 3 3 f ( x) 2
57. If f ( x) 5 x 7, then f 1 ( x ) is
1 5x x7 x5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5x 7 7 5 7
1
3 | x | 5, x
2
1
60. If : R R is defined by f ( x) log x, x 2.
2
x 2 4, x2
1 1 2 3
The value of f f f f f (3) is
3 3 3 2
(1) 0 (2) –1 (3) 19 (4) 1 log 2
62. If f ( x ) [ x ] where, [ ] represents the greatest integer function and g ( x) | x |, then the value of
7 7
( g f ) ( f g ) is
3 3
(1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) –1
1
f 1 f 2 ..... f n n 2 f n , then the value of equal ; n 1
f 4035
x² 1
If g : [-2, 2] R where g(x) = x tan x
3
67. is an odd function where [.] denotes greatest integer
p
function, then the value of parameter P is
(1) –5 < P < 5 (2) P<5 (3) P>5 (4) none of these
1
68. If g(x) = x² + x – 2 and (gof) (x) = 2x² – 5x + 2, then f(x)
2
(1) 2x – 3 (2) 2x + 3 (3) 2x² + 3x + 1 (4) 2x² – 3x – 1
69. f (x) be a real valued function such that 2f x 3 3f x 2 f x 1 , then
f 1 10
9
r
the value of is equal to
r 1
n + 3, n ∈ odd
f(n) =
, n ∈ even