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UT-SA-2024 Test (08-05-2023)

1. The document provides instructions for a test consisting of 75 multiple choice questions divided into 3 parts: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. 2. Students must fill out an answer sheet and will receive 4 marks for each correct answer, 0 marks for an unanswered question, and -1 mark for an incorrect answer. 3. The physics section contains 25 multiple choice questions regarding concepts like electric charges, forces, fields, and other physics topics.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
68 views13 pages

UT-SA-2024 Test (08-05-2023)

1. The document provides instructions for a test consisting of 75 multiple choice questions divided into 3 parts: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. 2. Students must fill out an answer sheet and will receive 4 marks for each correct answer, 0 marks for an unanswered question, and -1 mark for an incorrect answer. 3. The physics section contains 25 multiple choice questions regarding concepts like electric charges, forces, fields, and other physics topics.

Uploaded by

Furious AGARWAL
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Vidyamandir Classes

Read the following Instructions very carefully before you proceed.


1. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part I: Physics, Part II: Chemistry, Part III: Mathematics).
2. Each part has 25 questions, making it a total of 75 questions in the paper.
3. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which Only One choice is correct.
4. For answering a question, an ANSWER SHEET (OMR SHEET) is provided separately. Please fill your Test
Code, Roll No. and Group Properly in the space given in the ANSWER SHEET.
5. For each question you will be given 4 Marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus ONE (–1) mark
(NEGATIVE MARKING) will be given.

PART - I (PHYSICS) 100 MARKS


This Subject contains 25 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which
Only One is Correct :
1. There are two charges +1 microcoulombs and +5 microcoulombs. The ratio of the forces acting on them will be
(1) 1:5 (2) 1:1 (3) 5:1 (4) 1 : 25
2. A charge q 1 exerts some force on a second charge q 2 . If third charge q 3 is brought near, the force of q 1 exerted
on q 2
(1) Decreases (2) Increases (3) Remains unchanged
(4) Increases if q 3 is of the same sign as q 1 and decreases if q 3 is of opposite sign
3. Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square ABCD , as shown in the adjoining figure. The force on the
charge kept at the centre O is
A B
+q +2q

– 2q +q
D C
(1) Zero
(2) Along the diagonal AC

Class-XII Test-01|2024 IITJEE


Vidyamandir Classes

(3) Along the diagonal BD


(4) Perpendicular to side AB
4. A total charge Q is broken in two parts Q1 and Q 2 and they are placed at a distance R from each other. The
maximum force of repulsion between them will occur, when
Q Q Q 2Q
(1) Q2  , Q1  Q  (2) Q2  , Q1  Q 
R R 4 3
Q 3Q Q Q
(3) Q2  , Q1  (4) Q1  , Q2 
4 4 2 2
5. Three charges 4 q, Q and q are in a straight line in the position of 0, l / 2 and l respectively. The resultant force on
q will be zero, if Q 
q
(1) –q (2)  2q (3)  (4) 4q
2
6. Two small spheres each having the charge Q are suspended by insulating threads of length L from a hook. This
arrangement is taken in space where there is no gravitational effect, then the angle between the two suspensions and
the tension in each will be
1 Q2 1 Q2
(1) 180 o , (2) 90 o ,
4  0 (2 L) 2 4  0 L2

1 Q2 1 Q2
(3) 180 o , (4) 180 o ,
4  0 2 L 2
4  0 L2

7. 2C and 6 C two charges are repelling each other with a force of 12 N . If each charge is given 2C of charge,
then the value of the force will be
(1) 4 N (Attractive) (2) 4 N (Repulsive)
(3) 8 N (Repulsive) (4) Zero
8. Three equal charges are placed on the three corners of a square. If the force between q 1 and q 2 is F12 and that
F12
between q 1 and q 3 is F13 , the ratio of magnitudes is
F13

(1) 1/2 (2) 2 (3) 1/ 2 (4) 2


9. Two similar spheres having  q and  q charge are kept at a certain distance. F force acts between the two. If in
the middle of two spheres, another similar sphere having  q charge is kept, then it experiences a force in magnitude
and direction as
(1) Zero having no direction (2) 8 F towards  q charge
(3) 8 F towards  q charge (4) 4 F towards  q charge
10. A cylindrical portion of radius ‘r’ is removed from a solid sphere of radius
R and uniform volume charge density  in such a way that the axis of
the hollow cylinder coincides with one of the diameters of the sphere.
(‘r’ is negligible compared to R). Then the electric field intensity at point
A is
r ˆ r ˆ
(1) i (2)  i
30 30
r ˆ r ˆ
(3) i (4)  i
6 0 6 0

Class-XII Test-01|2024 IITJEE


Vidyamandir Classes

11. Two small conducting spheres of equal radius have charges 10 C and 20 C respectively and placed at a distance
R from each other experience force F1 . If they are brought in contact and separated to the same distance, they
experience force F2 . The ratio of F1 to F2 is
(1) 1:8 (2) –8:1 (3) 1:2 (4) –2:1
12. Two copper balls, each weighing 10g are kept in air 10 cm apart. If one electron from every 10 6 atoms is transferred
from one ball to the other, the coulomb force between them is (atomic weight of copper is 63.5)
(1) 2 . 0  10 10 N (2) 2 . 0  10 4 N (3) 2 . 0  10 8 N (4) 2 . 0  10 6 N
13. Three charges are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of
side ‘a’ as shown in the following figure. The force experienced by the A
+Q
charge placed at the vertex A in a direction normal to BC is
(1) Q 2 /(4  0 a 2 )

(2)  Q  /(4  0 a 2 )
–Q +Q
(3) Zero B a C
(4) Q 2 /(2 0 a 2 )
14. Two particles of equal mass m and charge q are placed at a distance of 16 cm from each other. They do not
q
experience any force. The value of is
m
 0 G
(1) l (2) (3) (4) 4 0 G
G 4 0

15. An electron is moving round the nucleus of a hydrogen atom in a circular orbit of radius r. The coulomb force F
1
between the two is (Where K  )
4  0

e2 e2  e2  e2
(1) K ˆr (2) K r (3) K r (4) K ˆr
r3 r3 r3 r2
16. A charge of Q coulomb is placed on a solid piece of metal of irregular shape. The charge will distribute itself
(1) Uniformly in the metal object
(2) Uniformly on the surface of the object
(3) Such that the potential energy of the system is minimised
(4) Such that the total heat loss is minimised
17. Equal charges q are placed at the four corners A, B, C, D of a square of length a . The magnitude of the force on
the charge at B will be
3q 2 4q 2
(1) (2)
4  0 a 2
4  0 a 2

1  2 2  q2   2
(3)   (4) 2  1  q
 2  4  a 2  2  4  0 a
2
  0 
18. A charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal charges Q. The system of the three charges will be
in equilibrium, if q is equal to
Q Q Q Q
(1)  (2)  (3)  (4) 
2 4 4 2
19. Two small spheres each carrying a charge q are placed r metre apart. If one of the spheres is taken around the
other one in a circular path of radius r , the work done will be equal to
(1) Force between them  r (2) Force between them  2r

Class-XII Test-01|2024 IITJEE


Vidyamandir Classes

(3) Force between them / 2r (4) Zero


20. Two charged spheres of radii 10 cm and 15 cm are connected by a thin wire. No current will flow, if they have
(1) The same charge on each (2) The same potential
(3) The same energy (4) The same field on their surfaces
21. A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is charged so that the potential on its surface is 10 V. The potential at the
centre of the sphere is
(1) 0V (2) 10 V
(3) Same as at point 5 cm away from the surface
(4) Same as at point 25 cm away from the surface
22. If a unit positive charge is taken from one point to another over an equipotential surface, then
(1) Work is done on the charge
(2) Work is done by the charge
(3) Work done is constant
(4) No work is done
23. Electric lines of force about negative point charge are
(1) Circular, anticlockwise (2) Circular, clockwise
(3) Radial, inward (4) Radial, outward
24. An electron and a proton are in a uniform electric field, the ratio of their accelerations will be
(1) Zero
(2) Unity
(3) The ratio of the masses of proton and electron
(4) The ratio of the masses of electron and proton
25. In the electric field of a point charge q , a certain charge is carried from point A to B , C , D and E . Then the
work done A
(1) Is least along the path AB
(2) Is least along the path AD
(3) Is 0 along all the paths AB, AC , AD & AE +q
(4) Is least along AE B E
C D

Class-XII Test-01|2024 IITJEE


Vidyamandir Classes

PART - II (CHEMISTRY) 100 MARKS


This Subject contains 25 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which Only
One is Correct :
26. In certain investigatory project, a student prepared two solutions of HCl of 0.01m in water (K f = 1.86 K
kg mol–1) and benzene (Kf = 5.12 K kg mol–1). He observed that depression in freezing points of the two
solutions are 0.037°C for water and 0.05°C for benzene. He assigned following reasons for the different
values. Which of these are correct?
I. Experimental error.
II. Different values of Kf for benzene and water.
III. Different boiling points of benzene and water.
IV. Different molecular state of HCl in water and benzene.
(1) All are correct (2) II, III (3) I, III (4) II, IV

27. Two beakers A and B containing water and aqueous solution of sugar T=25°C
respectively are placed in close evacuated container as shown in the
figure. What will be observed gradually with passage of time?
A B

(1) Level of water in beaker A becomes lower than that in beaker B.


(2) Level of water in beaker A and B remains constant.
(3) Level of water in beaker A increases and that in beaker B decreases.
(4) Level of both the beakers increases.

28. What happens when isotonic solution of sucrose (S1) and urea (S2) are put into communication through
semipermeable membrane?
(1) Transference of solvent from solution of S1 to that of S2 takes place.
(2) Transference of solvent from solution of S2 to that of S1 takes place.
(3) No net transference of solvent from solution of S1 to that of S2 takes place.
(4) Change in temperature of solution takes place.

29. Calculate the apparent degree of ionisation of an electrolyte MX2 in water, if the observed molar mass by
measuring elevation in boiling point is 65.6 (Normal molar mass = 164)
(1) 75 % (2) 85 % (3) 65 % (4) 25 %

30. The amount of ice that will separate on cooling a solution containing 50 g of ethylene glycol in 200 g of
water to –9.3°C is (Kf = 1.86 K molality–1).
(1) 38.71 g (2) 38.71 mg (3) 4.2 g (4) 42 mg.

31. Two liquids A and B have vapour pressure in the ratio PA : PB  2 : 3 at a certain temperature. Assume
A and B form an ideal solution and the ratio of mole fractions of A to B in the vapour phase is 1 : 3 , then
the mole fraction of A in the solution at the same temperature is
(1) 1/3 (2) 2/3 (3) 1/4 (4) 3/4

Class-XII Test-01|2024 IITJEE


Vidyamandir Classes

32. Which one of the following aqueous solution has the highest freezing point at 1 atm?
(1) 0.1 M urea (2) 0.1 M acetic acid
(3) 0.1 M NaCl (4) 0.1 M BaCl2

33. 1 molal aqueous solution of an electrolyte X3Y2 is 25% ionised. The boiling point of the solution is (
K b , H2O  0.52 K kg/mol)
(1) 375.5 K (2) 374.04 K (3) 377.12 K (4) 373.25 K

34. 2 moles of a sparingly soluble salt PbCl2 dissociates in 1 litre solution to give 1 mole of Pb+2 ions, what
is the osmotic pressure of the solution at 300 K.
(1) 98.52 atm (2) 73.89 atm (3) 60 atm (4) 50.5 atm

35. The boiling point of an aqueous solution of a nonvolatile solute is 100.15°C. What is the freezing point
of an aqueous solution obtained by diluting the above solution with an equal volume of water? The values
of Kb and Kf for water are 0.512°C and 1.86°C molalilty1.
(1)  0.544°C (2)  0.512°C (3)  0.272°C (4)  1.86°C
36. At which of the following pressure, water will boil at 101.5°C ?
(1) 76 cm of Hg (2) 76 mm of Hg (3) > 76 cm of Hg (4) < 76 cm of Hg

37. A liquid is kept in a closed vessel. If a glass plate (negligible mass) with a small hole is kept on top of the
liquid surface, then the vapour pressure of the liquid in the vessel is
(1) more than what would be if the glass plate were removed.
(2) same as what would be if the glass plate were removed.
(3) less than what would be if the glass plate were removed.
(4) cannot be predicted.

38. Which of the following solution will have least vapour pressure?
(1) 0.1 M BaCl2 (2) 0.1 M urea (3) 0.1 M Na2SO4 (4) 0.1 M Na3PO4

39. Which of the following is a colligative property?


(1) molar mass (2) osmotic pressure
(3) viscosity (4) optical activity

40. The vapour pressure of a solution of a nonvolatile solute B in a solvent A is 95% of the vapour pressure
of the solvent at the same temperature. If the molecular weight of the solvent is 0.3 times the molecular
weight of the solute, what is the ratio of weight of solvent to solute?
(1) 0.15 (2) 5.7 (3) 0.2 (4) none of these

41. For CrCl3.xNH3, elevation in boiling point of one molal solution is double than that of one molal urea
solution, hence x would be (complex is 100% ionized)

Class-XII Test-01|2024 IITJEE


Vidyamandir Classes

(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) None of these

 
42. For an ideal binary liquid solution with PA > PB , which of the following relation between XA (mole
fraction of A in liquid phase) and YA (mole fraction of A in vapour phase) is correct?
X A YA
(1) XA = YA (2) XA > YA (3) XA < YA (4) 
X B YB
43. A complex contains Pt (IV) and has van’t Hoff factor 3 in aqueous solution. The complex is
(1) K2[PtCl4] (2) K2[PtCl6] (3) K3[PtCl5] (4) K[PtCl3]

1 1
44. The plots of vs (where XA and YA are the mole fraction of A in liquid and
X A YA
vapour phase respectively) is linear with slope and intercept respectively are given as
   
  (p A  p B )   (p B  pA )
(1) pA / p B and  (2) pA / p B and 
pB pB
   
  (p A  p B )   (p B  pA )
(3) p B / pA and  (4) p B / pA and 
pB pB
45. Which of the following statements regarding Henry’s law not correct?
(1) The value of K H change with the nature of the gas.
(2) Higher the value of K H at a given pressure, higher is the solubility of the gas in the liquids
(3) The partial pressure of the gas in vapour phase is proportional to the mole fraction of the gas in
the solution.
(4) Different gases have different K H (Henry’s law constant) value at the same temperature.

46. For a mixture of two volatile, completely miscible liquids A and B, with PB  500 torr and PB  800
torr. What is the composition of last droplet of liquid remaining in equilibrium with vapour?
Provided the initial ideal solution has a composition of x A  0.6 and x B  0.4
(1) x A  0.6 ; x B  0.4 (2) x A  0.5 ; x B  0.5
(3) x A  0.7 ; x B  0.3 (4) x A  0.3 ; x B  0.7
47. At 300K, 40 mL of O3  g  dissolves in 100 g of water at 1.0 atm. What mass of ozone dissolved in 400 g of
water at a pressure of 4.0 atm at 300 K?
(1) 0.1 g (2) 1.2 g (3) 0.48 g (4) 4.8 g
48. In an experiment a stream of dry air is passed over an aqueous solution, solvent, anhydrous CaCl 2 setup
in one go, if mass loss in solvent is 2.5 gm and mass gain in anhydrous CaCl2 is 5 gm, then molality of this (very
dilute) solution is____.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
49. Which represents correct difference when non-volatile solute is present in an ideal solution?

Class-XII Test-01|2024 IITJEE


Vidyamandir Classes

(1) I, II, III (2) I, III (3) II, III (4) I, II


50. Which will form maximum boiling azeotrope?
(1) C6 H6  C6 H5CH3 (2) HNO3  H 2O
(3) C2 H5OH  H 2O (4) n-hexane and n-heptane

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Class-XII Test-01|2024 IITJEE


Vidyamandir Classes

PART - III (MATHEMATICS) 100 MARKS


This Subject contains 25 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which
Only One is Correct:

2x 1
51. If f ( x )  , then f 1 ( x ) 
2x  1
1 x 2x  1 1  2x 2 x
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2(1  x ) 2x 1 1 2x 2 x

52. If f ( x )  2 x 2  2 x  4 and f (2α)  4 f (α), then α is equal to


(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 0 (4) –2

x 1
53. If f ( x)  , then f (2 x) in terms of f ( x) is
x 1
f (3 x)  1 3 f ( x)  1 2 f ( x)  1 2 f ( x)  1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 f ( x)  3 f ( x)  3 2 f ( x)  3 3 f ( x)  2

54. If f ( x  2)  ( x  3)2  2 x, then f ( x ) 

(1) x2  2 (2) x2  5 (3) x2  4 x  9 (4) ( x  5) 2  2( x  2)

55. Let f ( x )  5 x 2  3 x  4, x  R. Then f ( x) is a/an


(1) periodic function (2) odd function
(3) even function (4) neither even nor odd
56. Which of the following is an odd function?
e x  e x e x  e x
(1) f1 ( x )  (2) f 2 ( x) 
2 2e x
e x  e x e x  e x
(3) f3 ( x)  (4) f 4 ( x)  x 
2e  x 2

57. If f ( x)  5 x  7, then f 1 ( x ) is
1 5x x7 x5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5x  7 7 5 7

58. Which among the functions is inverse of itself?


2 2 1  x2 1 x
(1) y  a 2log x (2) y  5x (3) y (4) y
1  x2 1 x

59. If log 4 [log 3[log 2 x ]]  1, then x is


4 2
(1) 23 (2) 9 (3) 24 (4) 43

Class-XII Test-01|2024 IITJEE


Vidyamandir Classes

 1
3 | x | 5, x
2

 1
60. If : R  R is defined by f ( x)  log x,  x  2.
 2
 x 2  4, x2


 1 1 2 3
The value of f     f    f    f    f (3) is
 3  3 3 2
(1) 0 (2) –1 (3) 19 (4) 1  log 2

61. If f  {(1, 3),(2,5),(3,7)} and g  {(3,10),(4,13),(5,16),(6,19),(7,22)}, then g  f is


(1) {(1, 10), (2, 16), (3, 22)} (2) {(3, 3), (5, 5), (7, 7)}
(3) {(1, 10), (2, 13), (3, 5)} (4) {(1, 16), (2, 10), (3, 22)}

62. If f ( x )  [ x ] where, [ ] represents the greatest integer function and g ( x) | x |, then the value of
 7  7
( g  f )     ( f  g )    is
 3  3
(1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) –1

63. The function f :  0, 3  1, 29  defined by f  x   2 x 3  15 x 2  36 x  1, is

(1) One-one and onto (2) onto but not one-one


(3) one-one but not onto (4) neither one-one nor onto
64. A function f is defined for all positive integers and satisfies f 1  4035 and

1
f 1  f  2   .....  f  n   n 2 f  n  , then the value of equal ;  n  1
f  4035

(1) 2015 (2) 2016 (3) 2017 (4) 2018


1 1
65. Let f  x   and g  x    , then
x x x x

(1) Domain of f and g is  . (2) Domain of f  R and domain of g  .

(3) Domain of f is  , 0  and domain of g is  .

(4) Domain of f is R and domain of g is n sin x  m cos x

66. Let f : R  R defined by


f(x) = 2x3 + 2x² + 300x + 5 sin x, then f is
(1) one –one onto (2) one –one into
(3) many one onto (4) many one into

Class-XII Test-01|2024 IITJEE


Vidyamandir Classes

 x²  1
If g : [-2, 2]  R where g(x) = x  tan x  
3
67.  is an odd function where [.] denotes greatest integer
 p 
function, then the value of parameter P is
(1) –5 < P < 5 (2) P<5 (3) P>5 (4) none of these
1
68. If g(x) = x² + x – 2 and (gof) (x) = 2x² – 5x + 2, then f(x)
2
(1) 2x – 3 (2) 2x + 3 (3) 2x² + 3x + 1 (4) 2x² – 3x – 1
69. f (x) be a real valued function such that 2f x   3  3f x   2  f x   1 , then

(1) Number of integers in range of f(x) is 2


2
(2) Maximum value of f (x) is 
3
(3) Minimum value of f(x) is 1
(4) f (x) = 2 has exactly two real solutions
70. f(x) be a real valued function such that f 2  x   f 2  x  and f 7  x   f 7  x  and f (1) = 5 then

 f 1  10 
9
r
the value of is equal to
r 1

(1) 45 (2) 54 (3) 36 (4) none of these

71. The smallest natural number K for which f  x   log x 5     x2 


x 10  1  sin x    is an odd function
K
x   2, 2 , is ([x] denotes largest integer  x)
(1) 38 (2) 39 (3) 40 (4) 41
1
72. If g(x) = and g2(x) = g(g(x)) , g3(x) = g(g(g(x))) and so on. Then the range of g2674 (x) is :
1 x
(1)  ,   (2)  , 0    0,  
(3)  , 0    0, 1  1,   (4)  , 1  1,  
73. If m and n(n > m) are positive integers, the number of solutions of the equation
n|sin x| = m |cos x| in  0, 2 is

(1) m (2) n (3) mn (4) 4

74. If 3  h  x²  x  1   h  x²  2x  2   4x²  x  9  x  R, where h : R  R. Find the value of h(2).

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 5


75. A function f from integers to integers is defined as

Class-XII Test-01|2024 IITJEE


Vidyamandir Classes

n + 3, n ∈ odd
f(n) =
, n ∈ even

suppose k  odd and f ( f( f (k )))  27 , then the sum of digits of k, is:

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 9

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Class-XII Test-01|2024 IITJEE


Vidyamandir Classes

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Class-XII Test-01|2024 IITJEE

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