27-04-2025

1103CMD303021250043 MD

PHYSICS

1) Two equal point charges are fixed at x = –a and x = +a on the x-axis. Another point charge Q is
placed at the origin. The resultant electrical force on Q, when it is displaced by a small distance x
along the x-axis, is approximately proportional to :-

(1) x
(2) x2
(3) x3

(4)

2) Four equal charges q0 each, are kept fixed on the vertices of a square of side 'a'. Charge q1 is kept
at the center of the square as shown in the figure. Then which statement is correct. (here charge q1
is restricted to move perpendicular to XY plane i.e. along z-axis)

(1) charge q1 is always in stable equilibrium.

(2) charge q1 is in unstable equilibrium.
(3) charge q1 is always in stable equilibrium only if q1 and q0 have different (opposite) signs.
(4) charge q1 is always in stable equilibrium only if q1 and q0 have same signs.

3) Let ‘e’ be charge of an electron. Let point charges be present at vertices of a cube of side ‘a’ & let
‘F’ be magnitude of force between two electrons separated by distance ‘a’. Which of the following
cannot be the force exerted by any of the charge on any other charge present on vertices of the
cube.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) F

4) Three point charges lie at the vertices of an equilateral triangle as shown. All three charges have
the same magnitude, but charge A and B are positive and charge C is negative. The net electric force
that charges B and C exert on A.

(1) is in the +x–direction

(2) is in the –x–direction
(3) is in the +y–direction
(4) is in the –y–direction

5) The net electric field on two sides of a large charged nonconducting sheet kept in an external
electric field is shown in the figure. The charge density on the sheet in S.I. Units is given by (ε0 is the

Permittivity of free space in S.I. Units) :-

(1) 2ε0
(2) 4ε0
(3) 10ε0
(4) Zero

6) For a uniformly charged sphere, the electric field from its centre :-

(1) increases linearly upto the surface

(2) decreases linearly upto the surface
(3) remains zero upto the surface
(4) first increases and then decreases upto the surface

7) A point charge q = 10–11 C is placed at 4 cm above a square plate (8 cm × 8 cm) having charge
density
0.5 × 10–8 C/m2. Find the flux related with it.

(1) 0.188 V-m

(2) 0.12 V-m
(3) 0.288 V-m
(4) 0.388 V-m

8) The five charges each of 10 × 10–6 coloumb are placed at vertex of an regular pentagon of side
10cm. The force exerted on the charge of 1 m C placed at centre of pentagon in newton will be

(1) 13.5
(2) zero
(3) 4.5
(4) 6.75
9) A circular ring of radius R with uniform positive charge Q is located in the y-z plane with its
centre at the origin O. What should be the work done by the field to move a charge +q from (0, 0, 0)
to ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) The magnitude of electric field strength E such that an electron placed in it would experience
force equal to its weight is given by :

(1) mge
(2) mg/e
(3) e/mg
(4) e2g/2m

11) Which of the following quantity is invariant :-

(1) Charge
(2) Mass
(3) Specific charge
(4) All of these

12) A positively charged glass rod attracts an object. The object must be :-

(1) negatively charged

(2) neutral
(3) either negatively charged or neutral
(4) either positively charged or neutral

13) When 1019 electrons are removed from a neutral metal plate, the electric charge on it is

(1) – 1.6 C
(2) + 1.6 C
(3) 10+19 C
(4) 10–19 C

14) What is the electric flux linked with closed surface?

(1) 1011 N-m2/C
(2) 1012 N-m2/C
(3) 1010 N-m2/C
(4) 8.86 × 1013 N-m2/C

15) If q1 + q2 = 8q then which of the following force between q1 and q2 is not possible :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) When the distance between the charged particles is halved, the force between them becomes :-

(1) One-fourth
(2) Half
(3) Double
(4) Four times

17) Which of the following charge can be present on oil drop in Millikan's experiment ?

(1) 4.0 × 10–19 C

(2) 1.6 × 10–20 C
(3) 10.0 × 10–19 C
(4) None

18) When air is replaced by a dielectric medium of constant k, the maximum force of attraction
between two charges, separated by a distance-

(1) decreases k times

(2) increases k times
(3) remain unchanged

(4)
becomes times

19) Two identical shell having +10µC and –90µC attract each other with a force 'F' of they kept in
contact and separated by the same distance, the new force magnitude between them :-

(1)

(2) 16F
(3)

(4) 9F

20) Two charges of Q each are placed at two opposite corners of a square. A charge q is placed at
each of the other two corners. If the resultant force on Q is zero, how are Q and q related ?

(1) Q = – q
(2) Q = – 2q
(3) q = – 2 Q
(4) Q = – 2 q

21) Two point charges exert on each other a force F when they are placed r distance apart in air.
When they are placed R distance apart in a medium of dielectric constant K, they exert the same
force. The distance R equals :-

(1)

(2)

(3) rK
(4)

22) Four charges each equal to –Q are placed at the four corners of a square and a charge q at its
centre. If the system is in equilibrium the value of q is:-

(1)
–

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Three charges 2q, –q, –q are located at the vertices of an equilaterial triangle. At the centre of
the triangle:-

(1) the field is zero but potential is non-zero

(2) the field is non-zero but potential is zero
(3) both field and potential are zero
(4) both field and potential are non-zero

24) Three equal charges each +q are placed on the corners of an equilateral triangle of side a. Then
the coulomb force experienced by one charge due to the rest of the two is :-

(1) Kq2/a2
(2) 2Kq2/a2
(3)
(4) Zero

25) For a ring having radius R of uniform linear charge density λ (As shown in figure) its intensity of

electric field at its centre equals to :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

26) Select the correct alternative :-

The charge gained by the uncharged body from a charged body due to conduction is equal to
(1)
half of the total charge initially present.
(2) The magnitude of charge increases with the increase in velocity of charge
(3) Matter can not exist without charge although charge can exist without matter
Electrostatic repulsion is the true test of electrification (electrification means body has net
(4)
charge)

27) Three identical particles of charge (q) & mass (m) are kept at corners of equilateral triangle of

side a. If the given system is in equilibrium inpresence of electric and gravitation force the ratio

is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

28) 4µC and 16µC charges are separated by 10cm distances. Where third charge –1µC should be
placed so that net force on it is zero :-

(1) at 6.67m from 4μC

(2) at 3.33m from 4μC
(3) at 10cm from 4μC
(4) at 10cm from 16μC

29) Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square ABCD, as shown. The force on a +ve

charge kept at the centre of the square is

(1) zero
(2) along diagonal AC
(3) along diagonal BD
(4) perpendicular to the side AB

30) Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square ABCD as shown in Fig. The force on a
charge kept at the centre O is :-

(1) Zero
(2) along diagonal AC
(3) along diagonal BD
(4) Perpendicular to the side AB

31) A regular polygon has 20 sides, Equal charges, each Q, are placed at 19 vertices of the polygon
and a charge q is placed at the centre of polygon. If the distance of each vertex from the centre is 'a'
net force experienced by q is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) zero

32) Consider the following suspended charged ball system. If α > β then at eqilibrium which of the

following may be true :-

(1) q1 > q2 & m1 = m2

(2) q1 = q2 & m1 = m2
(3) q1 > q2 & m1 < m2
(4) q1 = q2 & m1 > m2

33) A and B are two small, identical and conducting spheres. Their separation is 'r'. They have
unequal amount of charge q and 2q respectively. They repel each other with force F. If they are
brought in contact and again separated to distance '2r' then they will repel each other with force :-

(1)
F

(2)
F

(3)
F
(4) 9F

34) Two small conducting spheres of equal radius have charges +10μC and –20μC respectively and
placed at a distance R from each other experience force F1. If they are brought in contact and
separated to the same distance, they experience force F2. The ratio of F1 to F2 is :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) –8 : 1
(3) 1 : 8
(4) –2 : 1

35) Three charges –q1, +q2 and –q3 are placed as shown in the figure. The x-component of the force
on –q1 is proportional to :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) If q1 + q2 = q, then the value of the ratio , for which the force between q1 and q2 is maximum
is :-

(1) 0.25
(2) 0.75
(3) 1
(4) 0.5

37) Force of attraction between two point charges Q and –Q separated by d metre is Fe. When these
charges are placed on two identical conducting spheres of radius R = 0.3 d whose centres are d
metre apart, the force of attraction between them is :-

(1) Greater than Fe

(2) Equal to Fe
(3) Less than Fe
(4) None of these

38)

ABC is right-angle triangle with sides AB=3 cm, BC = 4 cm, AC = 5 cm. Charges 15, 12 and –20 esu
are placed at A, B, C respectively. Magnitude of the force experienced by the charge at B in dynes is
:-
(1) 125
(2) 35
(3) 25
(4) zero

39) The figure is a plot of lines of force due to two charges q1 and q2. Find out the sign of charges:-

(1) Both negative

(2) Upper positive and lower negative
(3) Both positive
(4) Upper negative and lower positive

40) If the uniform surface charge density on the infinite plane sheet in σ, electric field near the
surface will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Dimension of electric field is :

(1) [MLT3A–1]
(2) [MLT–3A1]
(3) [MLT–3A–1]
(4) [MLT3A1]

42) Three identical charges of magnitude Q = 2µc are placed at corner's of right triangle as shown
in figure find net electrostatic force on charge q0 = 1µc placed at mid point of AB :-
(1) 14.4 N
(2) 28.8 N
(3) 7.2 N
(4) 57.6 N

43) Where should be the 3rd charge + Q placed so that it remain in equilibrium :-

(1) x = 14 m
(2) x = 40 m
(3) x = 62 m
(4) x = 82 m

44) Looking at the various electric lines of forces between charges Q1 and Q2, find the value of .

(1)

(2)

(3) +2
(4) –2

45) A solid metallic sphere is placed in a uniform electric field. Which of the lines A, B, C and D

shows the correct path ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

CHEMISTRY

1) Among the following compounds the most acidic is :-

(1) p-Nitrophenol
(2) p-Hydroxybenzoic acid
(3) O-Hydroxy benzoic acid
(4) p-Toluic acid

2) Which of the following does not have resonance?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) CH2 = CH–C≡N

3) Which of following is a correct order of C – O bond length for given compounds :

(1) A > B > C

(2) B > A > C
(3) C > B > A
(4) A > C > B

4) Identify order of resonance energies of each of the following :

(i) (ii) (iii)

(1) i > ii > iii

(2) ii > iii > i
(3) i > iii > ii
(4) iii > ii > i

5) In which of the following lone pair is involved in resonance ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

6) Which of the following cation is most stable?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Correct stability order of following carbanion is?

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) II > I > III > IV
(3) III > II > I > IV
(4) IV > III > II > I

8) Which is maximum acidic :-

(1)

(2)

(3) CH–CH=CH
(4)

9) Which of following is correct regarding stability of given resonating structures ?

(1) I > II > III

(2) I > III > II
(3) II > I > III
(4) II > III > I

10) The total number of +M groups are

(a) –OH
(b) –NH2
(c) –COOH

(d)
(e) –NO2

(f)

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 0

11) Assertion : is more stable than .

Reason : has more s-character than .

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are False.

12) Which of the following compound is strongest base :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Correct order of stability of the following carbocations is:

(1) a > b > c > d

(2) a > b > d > c
(3) b > a > d > c
(4) a > d > b > c

14) Which of the following compound does not produce CO2 on reaction with NaHCO3 ?

(1)

(2) CH3SO3H

(3)
(4)

15) Compare basic strength : -

(1) a > b > c

(2) c > a > b
(3) b > a > c
(4) c > b > a

16) The correct order of decreasing acid strength of trichloroacetic acid (A), trifluoroacetic acid (B),
acetic acid (C) and formic acid (D) is:-

(1) A > B > C > D

(2) A > C > B > D
(3) B > A > D > C
(4) B > D > C > A

17) Arrange the following in decreasing order of Ka

(a) F–CH2CH2COOH

(b)
(c) F–CH2–COOH
(d) Br–CH2–CH2–COOH
Correct answer is :

(1) b > d > a > c

(2) a > c > d > b
(3) c > b > a > d
(4) d > b > a > c

18) Which of the following will not show electromeric effect?

(1) CH2=CH2
(2) CH3–CH3
(3) HC≡CH
(4) All of these

19) Which of following is the correct order of stability of the carbocation?

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) I > II > IV > III
(3) II > I > IV > III
(4) II > I > III > IV

20) I. II. III. IV.

Which of the following order is correct for basic strength ?

(1) III > IV > I > II

(2) I > III > II > IV
(3) I > IV > III > II
(4) III > II > I > IV

21) Incorrect order is :-

(1)

(Acidic strength)

(2)

(Basic strength)

(3)
(Stability)
(4)
(Heat of Hydrogenation)

22) Correct decreasing order of pKb value of following compounds :

(I) (II) CH3—NH2 (III) CH3—NH—CH3 (IV)

(1) I > IV > II > III

(2) I > II > IV > III
(3) IV > I > II > III
(4) I > II > III > IV

23)

Column-I Column-II

(A) (P) Anti aromatic

(B) (Q) Aromatic

(C) (R) Non aromatic

(D)

Correct match is
(1) A, D → Q, B → P, C → R
(2) A → Q, B, C → P, D → R
(3) A → Q, B → P
(4) A, D → Q, B, C → R

24) Sum of α- hydrogen in :- (i) (ii)

(i) + (ii) = ?

(1) 13
(2) 14
(3) 15
(4) 16

25)
compare acidic strength :-

(1) a > b > c > d

(2) b > d > a > c
(3) d > b > a > c
(4) a > c > b > d

26) Which acid base reaction is feasible?

(1) Only (i)

(2) Only (ii)
(3) Both (i) & (ii)
(4) None of these

27) Correct basic order of a, b and c is?

(1) a > b > c

(2) c > a > b
(3) a > c > b
(4) c > b > a
28) Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The acidic strength of nitrophenol is higher than phenol because of electron
withdrawing nitro group.
Statement II: o-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol will have same acidic strength as they
have one nitro group attached to the phenolic ring.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

29) In which of the following compound addition of HCl does not take place according to
markovnikov rule.

(1) Ph – CH = CH2
(2) CH3 – CH = CH2

(3)

(4) CCl3–CH = CH2

30)

Relation between B and D is ?

(1) Position isomers

(2) Chain isomers
(3) Identical
(4) No Relation

31) Which of the following carboxylic acid is most reactive towards decarboxylation?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Which of the following alkanes cannot be produced by Kolbe electrolysis of sodium or potassium
salts of carboxylic acids?
(1) Methane
(2) Ethane
(3) Butane
(4) Hexane

33) In the reaction with HCl, an alkene reacts in accordance with the Markovnikov’s rule, to give a
product 1-chloro-1-methylcyclohexane. The possible alkene is:

(1)

(2)

(3) (a) and (b)

(4)

34) Compare the Rate of EAR

(1) 2 > 1 > 3

(2) 1 > 2 > 3
(3) 3 > 2 > 1
(4) 3 > 1 > 2

35) Which of the following alkane is synthesised from single alkyl halide by wurtz reaction:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
36) CH2OHCH2CH2COCH3 CH2OHCH2CH2CH2CH3
Suitable reagent for above reaction is :–

(1) Zn–Hg/HCl
(2) NH2NH2/C2H5ONa
(3) Red P + HI
(4) All

37) Which of the following reactions will yield 2, 2-dibromo propane ?

(1) H2C=CH Br + HBr

(2) CH3C≡C CH3 + 2HBr
(3) CH3C≡CH + 2HBr
(4) CH3CH=CH Br + HBr

38)
What is relation between (A) and (B) ?

(1) Functional group isomer

(2) Geometrical isomer
(3) Position isomer
(4) Chain isomer

39)

Which of the following alkane have maximum boiling point?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40)

In the following reaction:

The major product is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41)
The final product A and B are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

42)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Major product :

Major product is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

44)
Here 'A' is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Assertion : Electrolysis of sodium propanoate gives ethane at anode.

Reason : In electrolysis, alkane obtained on anode and H2 obtained on cathode.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

BIOLOGY

1) Which one of the following is incorrect ?

(1) Parthenium or carrot grass causes pollen allergy

(2) Vegetative cell of pollen grains has abundant food reserve.
(3) All pollen grains cause severe allergies and bronchial affliction.
(4) Sporopollenin is the most resistant organic matter known.

2) What is the ploidy of perisperm of castor?

(1) n
(2) 2n
(3) 3n
(4) 4n

3) In angiosperm the functional megaspore in the linear tetrad is generally lie towards -

(1) First nearest to the micropyle

(2) Second from micropylar end
(3) Third from micropylar end
(4) Fourth from micropylar end

4) In following three diagram identify A, B, C and D respectively and find out the correct match

among the following set of options :-

A B C D
Shoot apical
(1) Hypocotyl Scutellum Endosperm
meristem
Shoot
(2) Hypocotyl apical Scutellum Endosperm
meristem
Shoot apical
(3) Scutellum Hypocotyl Endosperm
meristem
Shoot apical
(4) Endosperm Scutellum Hypocotyl
meristem
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
5) Assertion :- In majority of angiosperms a typical anther is bilobed.
Reason :- It's each lobe having two theca in immature anther

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

6) Assertion :- Non synchronised pollen release and stigma receptivity is of evolutionary

significance.
Reason :- It prevents self pollination and promotes more genetic variability.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but reason is true.

7) In Pinus, endosperm cells have 30 chromosomes then how many chromosomes are present in
sieve cells :-

(1) 30
(2) 60
(3) 10
(4) 15

8) When embryo develops from a haploid cell of embryosac, other than egg cell the process is known
as

(1) Apogamy
(2) Apospory
(3) Adventive embryony
(4) Diplo spory

9) Read the following four statements (A - D) :-

(A) The pollen tube releases the two male gametes into the cytoplasm of antipodal cell
(B) The central cell after triple fusion becomes the primary endosperm cell (PEC)
(C) PEC develops into embryo
(D) Endosperm development preceds embryo development
How many of the above statements are wrong ?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

10) Few events of male gametophyte development in angiosperm are shown in figure given below.
Arrange the diagram in ascending order of their occurence and select the correct order from options
given below:

(1) i, ii, iii, iv, v

(2) i, v, iv, iii, ii
(3) i, ii, iv, iii, v
(4) i, v, ii, iv, iii

11) How many of the following structure in angiosperm plant have haploid set of chromosomes in
cell ?
Microspore, generative cell, synergid, nucellus, integument, antipodal cell, endosperm, zygote,
vegetative cell of pollen

(1) Six
(2) Eight
(3) Five
(4) Three

12)

Consider the following statements about cleistogamy:

i. Present in Commelina, Oxalis and Viola
ii. Flowers are invariably autogamous
iii. Anthesis is absent
iv. Pollinators are required for seed set

How many statements are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) One

13) Vallisneria is a ___(A)___ plant and pollination in it occurs by ___(B)____. What is A and B
respectively ?

(1) A-Monoecious ; B-Water

(2) A-Dioecious ; B-Wind
(3) A-Dioecious ; B-Water
(4) A-Monoecious ; B-Wind

14) In the embryos of a typical dicot and a grass, true homologous structures are :-
(1) Coleorhiza and coleoptile
(2) Coleoptile and scutellum
(3) Cotyledons and scutellum
(4) Hypocotyl and radicle

15) Formation of embryo directly from any diploid cell of ovule other than megaspore mother cell is
known as :-

(1) Apospory
(2) Adventive embryony
(3) Parthenocarpy
(4) Parthenogenesis

16) How many mitosis and meiosis will be needed to form 200 seed from mother cells in
angiosperms:-

(1) 200, 200

(2) 200, 50
(3) 1000, 250
(4) 400, 100

17) Statement A :- Endosperm development in gymnosperm occurs earlier than fertilization.

Statement B :- Endosperm development in angiosperm precedes embryo development

(1) Statement A is true and statement B is false

(2) Statement A and B both are false
(3) Statement A is false while B is true
(4) Statement A and B both are true

18) How many microsporangia will be present in 10 young flower of mustard ?

(1) 480
(2) 40
(3) 280
(4) 240

19) How many of the following statements are incorrect ?

(i) In papaya geitonogamy is possible but not allogamy.
(ii) In date palm allogamy is possible but not autogamy.
(iii) In cucurbits geitonogamy is possible but not autogamy.
(iv) In maize autogamy is possible but not allogamy.

(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) Three
20) Which of the following is incorrectly matched ?

(1) Adventive embryony – Citrus

(2) Endospermic seed – Castor
(3) Non endospermic seed – Maize
(4) Aril – Litchi

21) Difference in between the length of the filaments of stamens and length of style in flowers called
:-

(1) Herkogamy
(2) Protandry
(3) Protogyny
(4) Heterostyly

22) List some of the plants is given below ?

Chara, Marchantia, Vallisneria, Papaya, Date palm.
How many are dioecious plants ?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Two

23) How many plants in the list given below are poly carpic :-
Wheat, Rice, Maize, Bamboo, Mango, Apple. Guava, Lemon, Orange

(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

24) In Castor, coconut and cereals?

(1) Endosperm completely consumed

(2) Endosperm persist in the mature seed
(3) Endosperm used up during seed germination
(4) Both 2 & 3

25) Polar nuclei are situated in the central cell :-

(1) Below the egg apparatus

(2) Below the antipodals
(3) Above the egg apparatus
(4) All of the above

26) Match the column-I and II and choose the correct combination from the given option :
Column-I Column-II
(A) Apomixis (I) Salvia
(B) Polyembryony (II) Banana
(C) Parthenocarpy (III) Mango
(D) Protoandry (IV) Asteraceae
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

27) Which of followings is correct about castor, maize & papaya ?

(1) Autogamy is prevented in all three plants

(2) Autogamy is prevented but not geitonogamy in all three plants
(3) Geitonogamy is prevented in all three plants.
(4) Both Autogamy & geitonogamy is prevented in all three plants

28) In figure below, find out coleoptile, shoot apex and epiblast.

(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) D, F and G
(4) E, F and G

29) Ploidy level in nucellus, definitive nucleus and egg of a plant from parental combination 8N( ) ×
12N( ) is respectively

(1) 12N, l2N and l6N

(2) 6N, l2N and 6N
(3) 10N, 10N and 5N
(4) 12N, l2N and 6N

30) In mature seed how much amount of moisture is present

(1) 5-10 percent

(2) 10-15 percent
(3) 15-20 percent
(4) 20-25 percent

31) Vallisneria, Hydrilla, Zostera, Water hyacinth, Water lily

In how many plants from above list pollen grains are protected from wetting by a mucilagenous
covering :

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Two

32)

Match the following

A. Monocolpate i. Malvaceae
B. Bisporangiate anther ii. Monocot
C. Multinucleated iii. Gymnosperm
D. Unitegmic iv. Tapetum

(1) A-iii, B-i, c-iv, D-ii

(2) A-ii, B-i, c-iv, D-iii
(3) A-i, B-ii, c-iii, D-iv
(4) A-iv, B-iii, c-ii, D-i

33) In Coconut, the central cavity with full of coconut water is the:

(1) Original embryo sac vacuole while the nuclei around it form the peripheral endosperm kernel.
(2) Free nuclear endosperm.
(3) Cellular endosperm.
(4) All of these

34) Which of the followng is not matched correctly?

(1) Amorphophallus – Entomophily

(2) Eichhornia – Hydrophily
(3) Maize – Anemophily
(4) Yucca – Entomophily

35) Seed coat and embryo in seed represents :-

(1) Gametophytic and sporophytic generation, respectively

(2) New sporophytic and old gametophytic generation, respectively
(3) Old sporophytic and new sporophytic generation, respectively
(4) New sporophytic and new gametophytic generation, respectively
36) Give the name of the cell division type at A, B, C and D :-

(1) A-Meiosis-I, B-Mitosis, C-Mitosis, D-Mitosis

(2) A-Meiosis-I, B-Meiosis-II, C-No division, D-Mitosis
(3) A-Mitosis, B-No division, C-Meiosis-II, D-Meiosis-I
(4) A-Mitosis, B-Mitosis, C-Meiosis-I, D-Meiosis-I

37) Total number of microspore tetrads formed in a dithecous anther if each sporangia has
50 microspore mother cells would be

(1) 50
(2) 200
(3) 800
(4) 100

38) Select the correct option among them :

(1) Perisperm – Reduced nucellus – found in mango

(2) Testa – dark and hard in gram seed
(3) Tegmen – axis of embryo
(4) Stalk of seed – Hilum of ovule

39) While planning for an artificial hybridization programme involving dioecious plants, which of the
following steps would not be relevant?

(1) Bagging of female flower

(2) Dusting of pollen on stigma
(3) Emasculation
(4) Collection of pollen

40) Assertion (A) : Hydrophily constitutes a major mode of pollination in most of the aquatic
angiospermous plants.
Reason (R) : Vallisneria and Zostera are examples of water pollinated plants.

(1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) If both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) If A is true but R is false
(4) If A is false but R is true

41) Which type of pollination occurs in self-incompatible plant?

(1) Self-pollination
(2) Cross-pollination
(3) Water pollination
(4) Wind pollination

42) Device to discourage self-pollination or increase cross-pollination is

(1) Pollen release and stigma receptivity are not synchronised

(2) Anther and stigma placed at different position
(3) Same height of stamen and stigma
(4) Both (a) and (b)

43) Identify the A, B and C in below given flow chart :-

(1) A - Exine, B - Intine, C - Sporopollenin

(2) A - Microspore, B - Grow in form of pollen tube, C - No enzyme is known to digest it
(3) A - Pollen grain, B - Made up of pectin and cellulose, C - Help in preservation as fossils.
(4) A - Pollen grain, B - Sporopollenin, C - Cellulose and pectin

44)

Match the following columns I & II, and choose the correct option.

Column - I Column - II

(i) Flowers pollinated by flies (a) Well exposed stamens

(ii) Flowers pollinated by wind (b) Usual floral rewards

(iii) Tassels in corn cob (c) Trap pollen grains

(iv) Nectar and Pollen grains (d) Foul odours

(1) i - a, ii - d, iii - b, iv - c
(2) i - d, ii - a, iii - c, iv - b
(3) i - d, ii - a, iii - b, iv - c
(4) i - b, ii - c, iii - a, iv - d

45) Statement I : Cleistogamy do not favours inbreeding depression.

Statement II : Cleistogamy is disadvantageus in respect to no further development of variation in
offsprings

(1) Statement I & II are correct

(2) Statement I & II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct

46) The variety of beaks of finches that Darwin found in Galapagos island is a clear indication of the
following evolutionary process

(1) Parallel adaptation

(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Adaptive convergence

47) Analogous organs arise due to

(1) Divergent evolution

(2) Artificial selection
(3) Genetic drift
(4) Convergent evolution

48) Assertion (A): The mouth parts of insects explain divergent evolution.
Reason (R): The mouth parts of all insects contain similar structures but are variously modified in
different groups of insects to suit their feeding habits

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) are (R) wrong

49) How many statements is/are true for above diagram.

(1) In these animals, the same structure developed along different direction due to adaptation to
different needs.
(2) These structure are homologous.
(3) These indicates common ancestory.
(4) These structure shows divergent evolution.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

50) Find out the correct evolutionary sequence of mammals.

(1) Early reptiles → Sauropsids → Thecodont → Mammals

(2) Early reptiles → Sauropsids → Pelycosaurs → Therapsids → mammals
(3) Early reptiles → Synapsids → Therapsids → Pelycosaurs → mammals
(4) Early reptiles → Synapsids → Pelycosaurs → Therapsids → mammals

51) The correct sequence of periods from most ancient to most recent is :-

(1) Triassic → Jurassic → Cretaceous → Tertiary → Permian

(2) Permian → Jurassic → Triassic → Tertiary → Quaternary
(3) Permian → Triassic → Cretaceous → Jurassic → Tertiary
(4) Permian → Triassic → Jurassic → Cretaceous → Tertiary → Quaternary

52) Assertion : Similarities in proteins and genes performing a given function among diverse
organisms gives clues to common ancestry.
Reason : They show convergent evolution.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Assertion is correct but reason is not correct
(3) Both assertion and reason are incorrect
(4) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

53) Which pair shows convergent evolution ?

(1) Lemur - Marsupial mouse

(2) Numbat - Spotted cuscus
(3) Anteater - Numbat
(4) Mole - Anteater

54) Which of the following statement is true ?

(1) Early reptiles were like shrews.

(2) When reptiles came down mammals took over this earth.
(3) About 65 bya dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from earth.
(4) Ichthyosaurs was biggest land reptile.

55) Assertion: The aquatic mammals like Dolphins, whales etc, do not contain gill slits.
Reason: their adaptation to aquatic life is secondary .

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

56) Select the odd one w.r.t. examples of homologous organs.

(1) Forelimbs of vertebrates

(2) Excretory organs in earthworm and cockroach
(3) Brain of vertebrates
(4) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita

57) Out of following how many organs are vestigeal in human body?
Nictitating membrane, Muscles of pinna, sacrum, IInd molars, cannine teeth, colon, body hairs,
nipples in female

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Eight

58) The evolution of reptiles from amphibians, is indicated by which connecting link ?

(1) Archaeopteryx
(2) Protopterus
(3) Platypus
(4) Seymauria

59) Select the biggest carnivorous land reptile from the options given below which was about 20
feet in height and had huge fearsome dagger like teeth. [NCERT-XII-140]

(1) Pelycosaurs
(2) Brachiosaurus
(3) Triceratops
(4) Tyrannosaurus

60) Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era is characterised by –

(1) Dinosaurs were dominant and first birds appeared

(2) Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal like reptiles
(3) Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appeared
(4) Flowering plants and first dinosaurs appeared

61) Golden age of fish was during :

(1) Cenozoic era

(2) Cretecious
(3) Silurian
(4) Devonian

62) Evolution of birds and mammals occured in :

(1) Eocene and oligocene periods

(2) Silurian and devonian periods
(3) Carboniferous and Permian periods
(4) Cretaceous and triassic periods

63)

Trilobites were evolved during -

(1) Silurian
(2) Cambrian
(3) Pre-Cambrian
(4) Devonian

64) Match the column-I and Column-II

Column I Column II
A Origin of first seed plant i. Carboniferous
B Origin of Gymnosperm ii. Permain
C Origin of Angiosperm iii. Cretaceous
D Extinction of dinosaurs iv. Tertiary
E Extinction of Archeopterix V Quaternary
(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(iv)
(2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(ii) & (iii), D-(iv), E-(v)
(3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iii), E-(iii)
(4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii), E-(iii)

65) Select the correct statements about fossils -

(A) Fossils are remains or impressions of past organisms which are found preserved in rocks.
(B) Old fossils complex and new fossils are simple ones.
(C) Fossils do not represents extinct organisms.
(D) They are always found in rocks only
(E) Most of the fossils shows similarity with modern organisms.

(1) A and E
(2) B, C, D
(3) A and B
(4) A, B, C, D, E

66) The four sketches A, B, C, D given below represent for different type of Dinosaurs which one of
those is correctly identified and matched with the features.
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Nome of
Feature
Dinosaurs
Tyranosaurs Got extinct before
(1) (A)
rex Brachiosaurs
2 rows of triangular
(2) (B) Stegosaurus
plate on Dorsal side
Largest Carnivorous
(3) (C) Triceratops
Dinosaurs
One of the Largest
(4) (D) Brachiosaurs
herbivorous Dinosaur
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

67) During Evolution of plants, progymnosperms gave rise to all of the following plants, except

(1) Cycads
(2) Angiospermic
(3) Seed fern
(4) Ginkgos

68) The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different patterns of structure, yet they perform similar
function. This is an example of:

(1) Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution

(2) Homologous organs tliat have evolved due to convergent evolution
(3) Homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution
(4) Analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution

69) The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic
adaptations in response to a common enviroment challenge, is called

(1) natural selection

(2) convergent evolution
(3) non-random evolution
(4) adaptive radiation

70) Darwin’s finches discovered from the Galapagos Islands serve as a good example of

(1) Mimicry
(2) Camouflage
(3) Seasonal migration
(4) Biogeographical evidence of evolution

71) Choose the correct statements.

I. Law of embryonic developement was given by Von Baer.
II. Recapitulation theory was proposed by Spemann.
III. Haeckel theory states that ‘Ontogeny repeats phylogeny’.
IV. Haeckel theory and biogenetic law were proposed by the same person.
The correct combination is :

(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) I, III and IV
(4) I, II, III and IV

72) Embryos never pass through adult stages of other animals .This was noted by-

(1) Wallace
(2) muller
(3) Lamarck
(4) Karl Ernst Von Baer

73) In the developmental history of a mammalian heart, it observed that it is passed through a two
chambered fish like heart stage, 3 chambered frog like heart stage & finally to four chambered heart
stage. To which hypothesis can this above cited statement be approximated?

(1) Hardy - Weinberg law

(2) Lamarck's principle
(3) Biogenetic law
(4) Mendelian principle

74) Due to continental drift, pouched mammals of Australia survived because

(1) Competition with other existing species
(2) Chance mutation
(3) Lack of competition
(4) Genetic recombination

75) Which of the following evidences are included in evidences from biochemistry for common
ancestry?

(1) Similarities in vertebrates heart and brain.

(2) Similarities of embryos
(3) Similarity in protein and genes among diverse organisms
(4) Similarity in function of various organs.

76) Which one of the following amino acid was found to be synthesized in the Miller's experiment ?

(1) Tyrosine
(2) Methionine
(3) Glutamic acid
(4) Glycine

77) In evoluton the studies can be made at molecular level. For example, the proteins present in the
blood of man and ape are similar. The base sequence in nucleic acids and amino acids sequence in
proteins of related organism is alike. These are the examples which are specifically referred to in:-

(1) convergent evolution

(2) molecular analogy
(3) molecular homology
(4) homoplastic appearance

78) The best evidence in support of organic evolution are:-

(1) Palaentological and evidences from comparative morphology

(2) Evidences from comparative morphology and anatomy
(3) Homologous organs and Analogous organs
(4) Palaentological and biogeographical

79) Identify the correct match from following?

Column-A Column-B

(1) Invertebrate 300 MYA

(2) Jaw less fish 350 MYA

(3) Sea weeds 500 MYA

(4) Coelacanth 320 MYA

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

80) Organic evolution means :-

(1) History of race

(2) Development of race
(3) Progressive development of race
(4) History and development of race with variations

81) Identify the correct sequence of changes in modes of nutrition in organism after origin of life on
earth:
(a) Non oxygenic photosynthesis
(b) Chemoheterotrophs
(c) Oxygenic photosynthesis
(d) Chemoautorophs

(1) (b), (a), (c), (d)

(2) (d), (b), (c), (a)
(3) (d), (c), (a), (b)
(4) (b), (d), (a), (c)

82) Which was not a consequence of liberation of oxygen by cyanobacteria on earth?

(1) Atmosphere became oxidizing

(2) Formation of ozone layer
(3) Aerobic mode of respiration started
(4) Chances of further chemical evolution increased

83)

Which of the following statements are incorrect?

(A) Water is essential for the origin of life.
(B) New life comes from pre-existing life.
(C) Oparin coined the term "Prebiotic soup".
(D) Formation of life was succeeded by chemogeny.

(E) Protobionts were non-living clusters of macromolecules.

(1) A, B, D, E
(2) B, C, D
(3) A and E
(4) C and D

84)

Read the following statements (A-D) :-

(A) Miller maintain 800°C temperature in his experiments
(B) Miller observed fats in his experiment
(C) Blue Green Algae were 1st sign of life
(D) Panspermia is related with spores
How many of the above statements are true ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Three

85) Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement-I: The earliest organisms that appeared on earth were non-green and presumably
anaerobes.
Statement-II: The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that do not released
oxygen.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

86) According to chemical evolution, the condition on primitive earth were:- (a) High temperature
(b) Volcanic storms
(c) Reducing atmosphere containing CH4, NH3 etc
(d) Low temperature
(e) oxidizing atmosphere

(1) b, c and d
(2) a, b and e
(3) c, d and e
(4) a, b and c

87) Match the Column I and II and choose the correct options given :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Origin of earth (i) 4 BYA

(b) Origin of life (ii) 4.5 BYA

(c) Origin of first cellular form of life (iii) 3 BYA

(d) Origin of first non cellular form of life (iv) 2 BYA

(1) a - (i), b - (ii), c - (iii), d - (iv)
(2) a - (ii), b - (i), c - (iv), d - (iii)
(3) a - (iv), b - (iii), c - (ii), d - (i)
(4) a - (iii), b - (ii), c - (i), d - (iv)

88) Match the following :-

 Column-A Column-B
(A) Earth is about 4000 years old (i) Spontaneous generation
(B) Life came from outer space (ii) Biogenesis
Life came out of decaying & rotting matter
(C) (iii) Special creation
like straw, mud etc.
(D) New life comes from pre-existing life (iv) Panspermia
(1) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-iv
(4) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii

89) Statement-I : S.L. miller with his experiment proved theory of biogenesis.
Statement-II : Theory of biogenesis attemp to us to explain origin of universe.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

90) In following experiment of Stanley Miller A,B,C are simulation of ?

(A) (B) (C)

Primitive Hot dilute

(1) Raining
atmosphere soup

Hot dilute Primitive

(2) Raining
soup atmosphere

Primitive Hot dilute

(3) Raining
atmosphere soup

Hot dilute Primitive

(4) Raining
soup atmosphere
(1) 2
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 2 4 2 1 1 2 1 2 1 3 2 2 3 4 4 1 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 2 3 2 4 1 2 4 1 2 3 3 2 3 4 1 3 1 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 4 2 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 3 4 4 3 1 1 2 2 1 2 2 4 2 3 3 2 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 1 1 3 1 2 2 4 1 4 1 3 2 4 2 3 2 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 3 1 4 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 4 2 2 1 2 1 3 4 3 3 3 3 2 3 4 4 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 2 4 4 1 1 1 2 4 2 1 2 2 2 3 2 2 2 3 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 3 2 4 3 4 1 3 4 4 2 3 2 1 2 1 4 4 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 4 2 3 1 4 4 4 2 4 3 4 3 3 3 4 3 4 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 4 4 2 1 4 2 2 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

For very small x << a as given in question.

=
Since a2 – b2 (a – b) (a + b)

for x < < a.

2) q1 is in unstable eqilibrium if q0 & q1 have same signs.

As charge moves toward the (+) ve z-axis or –ve z-axis, then net force on charge will be along
the displace direction& would not come ever.
q1 is in stable equlibrium if q1 & q0 have difference signes
In this case as charge moves away from centre then net force on the charge opposite to
displace direction.

3) For cube distance between two charges can be a, ,

so force can be
Here q1 = n1e, q2 = n2e & n1, n2 will be integer

and ,

F2 = (n1, n2)
 so, denominator can't be 4

4)

The component of forces will be in -y direction only So, answer is (4).

5) E0 – E = 8
E0 + E = 12
∴ 2E = 4

σ = 4ε0

6)

7) ϕ = = 0.188 V-m

13) Asking About:

The net electric charge on a neutral metal plate after removing 1019 electrons.

Concept:
• Charge of an Electron: Each electron has a charge of –e, where:
e = 1.6 × 10–19C
• Charge Conservation: If electrons are removed, the plate becomes positively charged
because electrons carry negative charge.
• The total charge removed is equal to the number of electrons multiplied by the charge of a
single electron.

Formula:
Q=n×e
where:
• Q = Total charge gained/lost,
• n = 1019 (number of electrons removed),
• e = 1.6 × 10–19 C (charge of one electron).

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Substituting the values:
Q = (1019) × (1.6 × 10–19)
Q = 1.6 C
Since electrons were removed, the charge becomes positive:
Q = +1.6C
Final Answer:
+1.6 C
​Hence, option (2) is correct.

14)

17) No charge is given option is integer multiple of e– so answer is (4)

18) According to Coulomb's law,

F=
If a dielectric medium of constant k is placed between them,

F1 =

or, F1 = (New force decreases k times)

24)

Net force on q =
=

25) Ecentre = 2

32)

Concept Based:
• Electrostatic Force: The repulsive force between two charged bodies due to their charges.
• Tension in the Strings: The force exerted by the strings the balls, which has both
horizontal vertical components.
• Equilibrium of Forces: Conditions for horizontal vertical forces to balance in a static
system.
Formula :
• Horizontal equilibrium:
 The electrostatic force Fe must balance the horizontal Component of tension:

Fe = T1sin(α) for ball and Fe = T2 sin(θ) for ball 2

Vertical equilibrium:
The vertical forces (gravitational forces) are balanced by the vertical components of the
tension:
m1 = T1cos (α) for ball 1 and m2g cos(ß) for ball 2
Calculation:
• Horizontal equilibrium:
Since a > b this implies sin (a) > sin (b), so the tension T1 in the string of ball 1 must be than
the tension T2 in the string of ball 2. Therefore, We have:

T1 < T2
This means that the tension in the string of ball 1 is less than the tension in the string of ball 2.
• Vertical equilibrium:
Since T1 < T2 and cos(a) < cos(ß), it follows that the mass m1 of ball 1 must be less than the
mass of m2 of ball 2.
Hence:

m 1 < m2
• Relating the charges:
The greater horizontal displacement of ball 1 implies that the electrostatic force on ball 1 is
larger. This can only happen if q1 ≥ q2 (the charge on ball 1 is greater than to the charge on
ball 2).

From the analysis, we conclude the correct answer is Option 3: q1 > q2 ​ & m1 < m2

37)
Effective distance between centre of charges
d1 < d

As F ∝ ⇒

40) 1. Question Explain.

The problem involves a uniform surface charge density a on an infinite plane sheet. We need to
determine the electric field near the surface of this sheet.
2. Concept Based:

A. The electric field near the surface of a uniformly charged infinite plane sheet can be derived
using Gauss's law.
B. For a surface with charge density, the electric field is uniform and points perpendicular to the
surface.

3. Formula Used:
Gauss's law states that the electric flux through a closed surface is proportional to the charge
enclosed. For an infinite sheet of charge, the electric field on either side of the sheet is given by:
Where:

A. σ is the surface charge density.

B. is the permittivity of free space.

Since the field is the same on both sides of the sheet, we only consider the contribution from one
side when calculating the electric field near the surface.
4. Calculation:
Using Gauss's law and considering the symmetry of the problem:

A. Electric field near the surface of the sheet will be:

Thus, the magnitude of the electric field near the surface is independent of the distance from the
sheet and only depends on the charge density σ.
5. Answer:

A. Option 1.

This is the correct answer. The electric field near the surface of a uniformly charged infinite sheet is

43)
For F = 0, E = 0 for point P-

⇒ x = 82 m

CHEMISTRY

46)
(Stabilised by intramolecular H-bonding)

47) does not show resonance because lone pair on oxygen is not in conjugation with π
bond.

CH2 = CH – C≡N
π in reso with π

48) Solution:
Bond Length ∝ Resonance ∝ Number of ∝ _ H

⇒ A is pure (=) Bond

⇒ B is partial = Bond due to Resonance

⇒ 'C is partial = Bond due to Resonance.

But here resonance is more.
∴ C-O Bond length is greater Then 'B
∴ Order of c-o Bond length is :-
.

49)

RESONANCE ENERGY × Stability

× Aromaticity
[More the number of Benzene rings more is resonance energy]
ORDER of resonance energy is -
iii > ii > i

50)

NCERT XIth Page No. # 345, Part IInd Edition 2017

51) In +ve is part of aromaticity.

52)
So, Stability order ⇒ (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV)

53)
Cyclopentadiene have aromaticity in its conjugate base, therefore it is more acidic.

54)
So, stability order ⇒ I > III > II

55)

All the lone pair containing groups are electron donating group (EDG) and shows +M effect

Example:-

56)
% s character is more so E.N. of sp carbon is more and Θve charge on more electronegative
atom is more stable.

57) is strongest base because N has localised lone pair due to which it can donate
its lone pair easily.
58)
So, stability order ⇒ a > b > d > c
(+H order ⇒ C–H > C–D)

59)

Reaction with NaHCO3 is feasible, if acidic strength of acid is more than H2CO3.
Ka order = H2CO3 > Phenol
∴ Phenol does not produce CO2 on reaction with NaHCO3.

60)

Solution/Explanation:

Question: The question asks compare the basic strength of the compounds.

Concept: The basicity of an amine depends on the availability of the lone pair of electrons on
the nitrogen atom. Factors that influence the availability of the lone pair include:

A. Electron-donating groups: Electron-donating groups increase electron density on the

nitrogen atom, making it more basic.

B. Electron-withdrawing groups: Electron-withdrawing groups decrease electron density on

the nitrogen atom, making it less basic.

C. Hybridization: More s-character in the hybrid orbital of the lone pair decreases basicity.

D. Steric hindrance: Bulky groups around the nitrogen atom hinder the approach of a
proton, reducing basicity.

Explanation:
The order of basic strength = Piperidine > Piperazine > Morpholine

=c>a>b

Final Answer: 2

Question Level: Tough

61)

62)

63)

CH3–CH3 will not show electromeric effect as it is unreactive towards external reagent
(does not contain π electron density).

64)
So stability order → I > II > IV > III
65)

Ortho substituted aniline are weaker bases than aniline due to ortho effect.

66)

67)
Aromatic amines are less basic than aliphatic amines.
Basicity in amines order ⇒ 2° > 1° > 3° (for methyl group), Basic Strength ⇒ III > II > IV >
I
So, correct order of pKb values ⇒ I > IV > II > III

68)

(P) Anti aromatic → B

(Q) Aromatic → A, D
(R) Non aromatic → C
69)

⇒ 10αH + 3αH
⇒ Total 13αH

70) Benzoic acid is more acidic than phenol which is more acidic than alcohol –NO2 has –M,
and –I effect so most acidic.

71)

NaNH2 is more Basic compare to NaOH

72)

In 'c' l.p. is localized and 'N' is sp³ hybridized → most basic

In 'a' l.p. is localized and 'N' is sp² hybridized
In 'b' l.p. is delocalized → ∴ least basic

73)

o, m and p- nitrophenol have different acidic nature.

74)

75)
B and D are identical products

76) Rate of decarboxylation α –I ; –M.

77) In Kolbe’s electrolysis, the alkane is formed when an aqueous solution of Na or K salt of
carboxylic acid is electrolysed. The alkane formed has, two or more carbon atoms. This method
can be used to prepare alkanes with even number of carbon atoms.

78)

79) EAR ∝ stability of carbocation

∝ +M, +H, +I

80)

Wurtz reaction gives symmetrical alkane

When single alkyl halide is used

81)
So we use NH2 – NH2 | C2H5ONa
So that OH group remains unaffected.
Other given reducing agent affect OH.
82)

83)
So, these are geometrical isomer.

84)

85) Solution/Explanation:
We have to find out major produce of given reaction.

Concept:
86)

87)

88)

89)

90)
BIOLOGY

94)

NCERT Page No 21

99) NCERT XII Pg 34(E), 35-37(H)

100)

NCERT (XII), Pg # 23 (E), 24 (H)

101) NCERT XII Page No. # 6,10,11

Haploids : Microspore, Generative cells, synergid, antipodal cells, vegetative cell of pollen

102) NCERT-XII Pg. # 28, para-2.2.3

103) NCERT XIIth Pg.#29

104)

NCERT XII Page 35

114)

115)

116) NCERT-XII, Pg#38, Para.-2.5 &

Module-1, Pg#116

117) NCERT-XII Page no. 31 (E), 33 (H)

Castor and maize are monoecious plants with unisexual flower, while papaya is dioecious
plant.

118)

NCERT XII Pg. # 35

123)
124) NCERT XII, Page # 29, 30

126)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 10

128) NCERT XII Pg.#36

133) NCERT - Pg. # 07

134)

NCERT pg.no. 13 and 14

139) NCERT XII, Page # 130

140) NCERT XII, Page # 138

141) NCERT XII, Page # 139

148) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 126

149) NCERT Reference: Class XII, Page No. 140

158)

The correct answer is 4. Analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution.
• Analogous Organs: These are organs that have similar functions but different underlying
structures and evolutionary origins.
• Convergent Evolution: This is the process where unrelated organisms independently evolve
similar traits due to similar environmental pressures.
In this case:
• The eyes of octopuses and cats have similar functions (vision), but they have very different
underlying structures and evolved independently.
• The similarity in function arose due to the similar environmental pressure (the need to see in
their respective environments).

162)

Pg 129, 7.3, 2nd para, last line

 164)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 124

165) The correct answer is 3) Similarity in protein and genes among diverse organisms.
Here's why:

A. Biochemical evidence for common ancestry focuses on the similarities in the molecular
makeup of different organisms.
B. Similarities in protein and genes are a strong indicator of common ancestry.

• Proteins: All living organisms use proteins for various functions. The amino acid sequences of
these proteins show similarities across different species. The more closely related two species are,
the greater the similarity in their protein sequences.
• Genes: Genes are the units of heredity that carry the instructions for building proteins.
Similarities in the DNA sequences of genes across different organisms also provide strong evidence
of common ancestry.

169) NCERT XII, Page # 138,139 ; Para last & first

173) Module 3 Pg. # 111, 112

177) NCERT Pg no. 111, 112

178) Module-3, Pg # 108, 109

179) NCERT-Pg. # 111

180)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 112