Q1.

The net torque about O in the following diagram is:

(a) 100 Nm anticlockwise
(b) 80 Nm clockwise
(c) 80 Nm anticlockwise
(d) 20 Nm anticlockwise
Q2. In the given diagram, a uniform half metre scale PQ is balanced
horizontally across a knife
edge.
(A) Calculate:
(a) the mass of scale
(b) the force on the knife edge

(B) State the direction in which the force on the knife edge acts.
Q3. Two rods, one of
aluminum and other of iron
having weights 20 N and 30
N (acting at their respective
centres, are joined together
as shown.
Find which direction the rod will rotate (Clockwise or
anticlockwise) about O.
Q4 A uniform metre rule can be balanced at 60 cm mark if 100 gm
mass is hung at 80 cm mark.
(A) Draw the diagram of arrangement.

(B) Find the mass of metre rule.

(C) In which direction the rule will tilt if 100 gm mass is shifted from
80 cm to 85 cm?

Q5. One end of a spring is kept fixed while the other end is stretched
by a force as shown in
the diagram.
(i) Copy the diagram and
mark on it the direction
of the restoring force.
(ii) Name one instrument which works on the above principle.
Q6. A boy of mass 30 kg is sitting at a distance of 2 m from the
middle of a see-saw. Where should a boy of mass 40 kg sit, so as to
balance the see-saw ?
Q17. A man can open a nut by applying a force of 150 N by using a
lever handle of length 0.4 m. What should be the length of the
handle, if he is able to open it by applying a force of 60 N?

Q18. A body of mass 1.5 kg is dropped from the 2nd floor of a

building which is at a height of 12 m. What is the force acting on it
during its fall? (Take, g = 9.8 m/s²)
Q19. A half-metre rod is pivoted at the center with two weights of 20
gf and 12 gf suspended at a perpendicular distance of 6 cm and 10
cm from the pivot respectively, as
shown below.

(i) Which of the two forces acting on

the rigid rod causes clockwise
moment?
(ii) Is the rod in equilibrium?
(iii) The direction of 20 kgf force is reversed. What is the magnitude
of the resultant moment of the forces on the rod?
Q20. Two forces each of 5 N act vertically upwards and downwards,
respectively. On the two ends of a
uniform meter rule which is placed at
its mid-point as shown in the
diagram. Determine the magnitude
of the resultant moment of these
forces about the mid-point.
Q21. How is work done by a force measured, when the force
(1) Is in the direction of displacement?
(ii) Is at an angle 0 to the direction of displacement?

Q22. (1) When does a force do work?

(ii) What is the work done by the moon when it revolves around the
earth?
Q23. A man having a box on his head, climbs up a slope and another
man having an identical box walks the same distance on a levelled
road. Who does more work against the force of gravity and why?
Q24. What should the angle between force and displacement be to
get the
(i) minimum work?
(ii) maximum work?

Q25. The heart of a normal person beats 72 times in a minute and

does a work of 1 joule per beat. What is power of the heart
Q26. 6.4 kJ of energy causes a displacement of 64 m in a body in the
direction of force in 2.5 s. Calculate
(1) the force applied
(2) power in horse power (HP). (Take, I HP = 746 W)
Q27. An engine can pump 30000 L of water to a vertical height of 45
m in 10 min. Calculate the work done by the machine and its power.
(Take, g = 9.8 m/s², density of water = 10 kg/m³, 1000 L = 1 m³).
Q28. The diagram below shows a pulley arrangement:
(A) Copy the diagram and mark the direction of tension on each
strand of the string.
(B) What is the velocity ratio of the arrangements?
(C) If the tension acting on the string is T,
then what is the relationship between T
and effort E?
(D) If the free end of the string moves
through a distance x, find the distance by
which the load is raised.
Q29. A block and a tackle has a velocity ratio 4 and is used to lift a
load of 300 kgf through a vertical height of 15 m. The effort applied
is 90 kgf in the downward direction with reference to this, the
following questions:
(A) The distance moved by the effort:

(a) 60 m
(b) 45 m
(c) 30 m
(d) 15 m

(B) The mechanical advantage:

(a) 2.11
(b) 3.13
(c) 3.33
(d) 4.44

Q30. A pulley system with velocity ratio 4 is used to lift a load of 150
kgf through a vertical height of 20 m. The effort required is 50 kgf in
the downward direction.
With reference to this, answer the following questions:
(A) Distance moved by the effort is:
(a) 10 m
(b) 20 m
(c) 40 m
(d) 80 m

(B) Work done by the effort is:

(a) 20,000 J
(b) 30,000 J
(c) 40,000 J
(d) 50,000 J

(C) The mechanical advantage is:

(a) 3
(c) 2
(b) 4
(d) 1
Q31. (A) Draw a diagram to show a block and tackle pulley system
having a velocity ratio of 3 marking the direction of load (L), effort
(E) and tension (T).

(B) The pulley system drawn lifts a load of 150 N when an effort of
60N is applied. Find its mechanical advantage.
(C) Is the above pulley system an ideal machine or not?
Q32. Draw a diagram of a pulley system of velocity ratio 4.
Calculate its mechanical advantage if its efficiency is 90%.
Q33. Which class of levers has a mechanical advantage always
greater than one? What change can be done in the lever to increase
its mechanical advantage?

Q34. A boy uses a single fixed pulley to lift a load of 50 kgf to same
height. Another boy uses a single movable pulley to lift the same
load to the same height. Compare the effort applied by them. Give a
reason to support your answer.

Q35. The speed of light in air is 3 × 108 ms-1. Calculate the speed of
light in water. The refractive index of water is 4/3.
Q36. (i) The refractive index of glass with respect to air is 1.5. What
is the value of the refractive index of air with respect to glass?
(ii) A ray of light is incident as a normal ray on the surface of
separation of two different mediums. What is the value of the angle
of incidence in this case?

Q37. A coin placed at the bottom of a beaker appears to be raised by

4.0 cm. If the refractive index of water is 4/3, find the depth of the
water in the beaker.
Q38. A 10 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis
of a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. The distance of the object
from the lens is 20 cm. Find the:
(a)Position
(b)Nature
(c)Size of the image formed.
Q39. (a) The refractive index of Ruby is 1.71. What is meant by this
statement?
(b) The refractive index of some medium are given below:
Crown glass- 1.52
Water- 1.33
Sapphire- 1.77
In which of the medium is the speed of light
(i)maximum
(ii)minimum
(iii) Calculate speed of light in sapphire.
Q40. A light of wavelength 6000 in air, enters a medium with
refractive index 1.5. What will be the frequency and wavelength of
light in that medium?
Q41. A rectangular glass slab rests in the bottom of a trough of
water. A ray of light incident on water surface at an angle of 50°
passes through water into glass. Calculate the angle of refraction in
glass. Given that μ for water is 4/3 and that for glass is 3/2.
Q42. The velocity of light in a transparent medium is 1.8 x108ms-1,
while that in vacuum is 3 x108ms-1. Find by how much the bottom of
the vessel containing the liquid appears to be raised if the depth of
the liquid is 0.25 m.
Q43. A ray of light PQ is incident normally on the hypotenuse of a
right angled prism ABC as shown in the diagram given alongside.
(i) Copy the diagram and complete the
path of the ray PQ till it emerges from the
prism.
(ii) What is the value of the angle of
deviation of the ray?
(iii) Name an instrument, where this
action of the prism is used.
Q44. The diagram given alongside shows a right-angled prism with
a ray of light incident on the side AB.
(The critical angle for glass is 42°).
(2) Copy the diagram and complete the
path of the ray of light in and out of the
glass prism.
(ii) What is the value of the angle of
deviation shown by the ray?
Q45. (i) Two isosceles right-angled prisms are arranged as shown in
the figure. Copy the diagram and
complete the path of the ray AB along
which it passes through the prisms
and comes out.

(ii) Name the phenomenon being

displayed by the path of the ray in the
diagram.
Q46. A convex lens of focal length 10 cm is placed at a distance of 12
cm from a wall. How far from the lens should an object be placed so
as to form its real image on the wall?

Q47. An object placed 4 cm in front of a converging lens produces a

real image 12 cm from the lens. What is the magnification of the
image? What is the focal length of the lens? Also draw the ray
diagram to show the formation of the image.
Q48. An object is 2 m from a lens which forms an erect image one-
fourth (exactly) the size of the object. Determine the focal length of
the lens. What type of the lens is this?
Q49. Find the position and size of the virtual image formed when an
object 2 cm tall is placed 20 cm from (a) diverging lens of focal
length 40 cm and (b) converging lens of focal length 40 cm.
Q50. Draw a diagram to show the convergent action of a convex
lens by treating it as a combination of glass block and two
triangular glass prisms, with the aid of two parallel incident rays.
Q51. Draw a diagram to show the refraction of two parallel incident
rays by a concave lens by treating it as a combination of a glass
block and two triangular glass prisms. What does this diagram
illustrate?

Q52. A lens forms an upright and diminished image of an object,

irrespective of its position. What kind of lens is this? Draw an
outline ray diagram to show the formation of image. State the
position and one more characteristics of the image.
Q53. An object 60 cm from a lens gives a virtual image at a distance
of 20 cm in front of the lens. What is the focal length of the lens? Is
the lens converging or diverging? Give reasons for your answer.
Q54. Free vibrations are:

(a) The vibrations under the influence of a periodic force

(b) The vibrations with larger amplitude
(c) The vibrations when the frequency continuously decreases
(d) The vibrations with a constant frequency and constant
amplitude.

Q55. The diagram below shows four sound

waves. Which sound has the highest pitch?
Q56. Pendulum A, B, C and D are tied to flexible string PQ and are at
rest. Pendulum C is disturbed. Which of the following statements is
true?

(a) Only pendulum C will start vibrating

(b) Pendulums A, B and D will also start
vibrating but A and D will vibrate with
the maximum amplitude.
(c) Pendulums A, B and D will also start
vibrating.
(d) Vibrations of pendulum C are forced vibrations.
Q57. When describing frequency we use simple waveform, a sine
wave to describe the basic
principle of oscillation or
vibration. A simple
waveform is made up of a
single frequency, a perfect
oscillation resulting in a
periodically repeating
waveform. Overtones are
the harmonics above the
fundamental frequency.
Based on the information,
answer the questions.
(A) Which among the following figures represent second overtone
for a wave on a string?

(a) Figure 1
(b) Figure 2
(c) Figure 3
(d) Figure 4

(B) Which among the following figures will represent fundamental

tone for a wave on a string?

(a) Figure 1
(b) Figure 2
(c) Figure 3
(d) Figure 4
Q58. (A) Which one of the following graphs A or B shows free
vibrations in vacuum and which one shows free vibrations in a
medium?

(B) How did you came to this conclusion.

Q56. The adjacent diagram shows three
different modes of vibrations P, Q and R of
the same string.
(A) Which vibration will produce a louder
sound and why?

(B) The sound of which string will have maximum shrillness?

(C) State the ratio of wavelengths of P and R.

Q57. A person standing between two vertical cliffs produces a

sound. Two successive echoes are heard at 4 s and 6 s. Calculate the
distance between the cliffs.
(Speed of sound in air = 320 m s¹)

Question: 58
The diagram in figure shows a cell of e.m.f. ε = 2 volt and internal
resistance r = 1 ohm connected to an
external resistance R = 4 ohm. The ammeter
A measures the current in the circuit and the
voltmeter V measures the terminal voltage
across the cell. What will be the readings of
the ammeter and voltmeter when (i) the key
K is open, and (ii) the key K is closed
Question: 59
A battery of e.m.f. 3.0 V supplies current through a circuit in which
resistance can be changed. A high resistance voltmeter is connected
across the battery. When the current is 1.5 A, the voltmeter reads 2.7
V. Find the internal resistance of the battery.

Question: 60
A cell of emf 1.8 V and internal resistance 2 ohm is connected in
series with an ammeter of resistance 0.7 ohm and resistance of 4.5
ohm as shown in figure

(a) What would be the reading of the

ammeter?
(b) What is the potential difference across the terminals of the cell?
Question:61
A battery of emf 15 V and internal resistance 3 ohm is connected to
two resistors of resistances 3 ohm and 6 ohm in series. Find:
(a) the current through the battery
(b) the p.d. between the terminals of the battery.
Question: 61. A cell of e.m.f. ε and internal resistance r sends current
1.0 A when it is connected to an external resistance 1.9 ohm. But its
sends current 0.5 A when it is connected to an external resistance of
3.9 ohm. Calculate the values of e and r.

Question: 62. You have three resistors of values 2 Ω, 3 Ω and 5 Ω .

How will you join them so that the total resistance is less than 1 Ω?
Draw diagram and find the total resistance.
Question: 63
Three resistors each of 2 ohm are connected together so that their
total resistance is 3 ohm. Draw a diagram to show this arrangement
and check it by calculation.

Question 64:
Three resistors of 6.0 ohm, 2.0 ohm and 4.0 ohm are joined to an
ammeter A and a cell of emf 6.0 V
as shown in figure. Calculate:
(a)the effective resistance of the
circuit.
(b) the reading of ammeter
Question 65.
A cell of e.m.f. 2 V and internal resistance 1.2 Ω is connected to an
ammeter of resistance 0.8 Ω and two resistors of 4.5 Ω and 9 Ω as
shown in fig.

Find:
(a) The reading of the ammeter,
(b) The potential difference across the terminals of the cells, and
(c) The potential difference across the 4.5 ohm resistor
Question: 66
An electric bulb is rated ‘100 W, 250 V’. What information does this
convey?
Question: 67
Calculate the current through a 60 W lamp rated for 250 V. If the
line voltage falls to 200 V, how is power consumed by the lamp
affected?

Question: 68
An electric gadget draws a current 200 mA from a battery of 12 V.
Find its resistance.
Question: 69
When a potential difference of 2 volt is applied across the ends of a
wire of 5 m length, a current of 1 A flows through it. Calculate:
(i) the resistance per unit length of the wire,
(ii) the resistance of 2 m length of the wire,
(iii) the resistance across the ends of the wire if it is doubled on
itself.
Question: 70
A wire of resistance 9 ohm having length 30 cm is a tripled on itself.
What is its new resistance?
Question: 71
Question: 72
Question: 73
The current through a 12 V tungsten filament lamp connected to a 12
V accumulator of negligible resistance is 3-0 A. Calculate:
(i) the resistance of the filament,
(ii) the power of the lamp, and
(iii) the electrical energy in kWh consumed in 5 hours.
Question: 74
(a) Calculate the electrical energy in kWh consumed in a month, in a
house using 2 bulbs of 100 W each and 2 fans of 60 W each, if the
bulbs and fans are used for an average of 10 hours each day.
(b) If the cost per unit is 4.50, calculate in part (a) the amount of
electric bill to be paid per month.
Question: 75
The primary coil of a transformer has 200 turns while the
secondary coil has 1000 turns. What type of transformer is this? if
the input voltage is 10V, what will be the output voltage?

Question: 76
Applying e.m. f to primary coil is 210 V. If the number of turns in
primary coil is 200 turns and that of in secondary coil is 20 turns,
then find out the output voltage. Name the type of the transformer.
Question: 77
A transformer lowers e.m.f. 220 V to 12 volts. If the number of turns
in primary are 8800, how many turns are in secondary coil?

Question: 78
A transformer lowers e.m.f. from 220 V to 15 V. If 400 W power is
given in primary, calculate (i) the current in primary coil and (ii)
the current in secondary coil.
Question: 79
A transformer lowers e.m.f. from 220 V to 15 V. If the number of
turns in primary are 3520, how many turns are in the secondary
coil?

Question: 80
Calculate the amount of heat released when 5.0 g of water at 20 ºC
is changed into ice at 0 ºC. Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J/g
ºC, specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 J/g.
Question: 81
Calculate the amount of heat released when 5.0 g of water at 20 ºC
is changed into ice at 0 ºC. Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J/g
ºC, specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 J/g.
Question: 82
m1 g of steam at 100 ºC, is condensed to form water at 100 ºC. If
there is no heat loss to the surroundings, the heat released in this
process is used to convert m2 g of ice at 0 ºC into water at 0 ºC. Find
:

(i) The heat lost by steam in terms of m1.

(ii) The heat gained by ice in terms of m2.

(iii) Form a heat equation and find the ratio of m2 : m1 from it.
(Specific latent heat of vaporization of steam = 2268 kJkg-1; Specific
latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 kJkg-1; Specific heat capacity of
water = 4200 Jkg-1ºC-1).
Question: 83
A piece of iron of mass 2.0 kg has a thermal capacity of 966J/ºC.

(i) How much heat is needed to warm it by 15 ºC?

(ii) What is its specific heat capacity in S.I. units.

Question:84
Calculate the heat energy that will be released when 5.0 kg of steam
at 100 ºC condenses to form water at 100 ºC. Express your answer
in SI unit. (Specific latent heat of vaporization of steam is 2268
kJkg-1)
Question: 85
A thermos flask of negligible heat capacity contains 100 g of ice and
30 g of water. Calculate :

(i) the mass of steam at 100 ºC needed to condense in the flask so as

to just melt the ice;
(ii) the amount of water in the flask after condensation. (Specific
latent heat of vaporization of steam = 2260 Jg-1, Specific latent heat
of fusion of ice = 336 Jg-1, Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 Jg-1
ºC)

(iii) Is it possible to condense the water formed, back to ice by

adding ice at 0 ºC? Explain giving a suitable reason to justify your
answer.

Question: 86
10125 J of heat energy boils off 4.5 g of water at 100 ºC to steam at
100 ºC. Find the specific latent heat of steam.
Question: 87
In a laboratory experiment for finding the specific latent heat of ice,
100 g of water at 30 ºC was taken in a calorimeter made of copper
and mass 10 g. When 10 g of ice at 0 ºC was added to the mixture
and kept within the liquid till the ice melted completely, the final
temperature of the mixture was found to be 20 ºC:
(i) what is the total quantity of water in the calorimeter at 20 ºC

(ii) Specific heat capacities of water and copper being 4.2 J g ºC-1
and 0.4 J g º respectively, what quantity of heat would each release
in cooling down to 20 ºC from the initial stage?

(iii) Write an expression for the heat gained by ice on melting.

(iv) Calculate the value of the latent heat of fusion of ice from the
data discussed above.

Question: 88
A vessel of negligible heat capacity contains 60 g of ice in it at 0 ºC.
8 g of steam at 100 ºC is passed into the ice to melt it. Find the final
temperature of the contents of the vessel (specific latent heat of
fusion of ice = 336 Jg-1, specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 Jg-1 ºC-
1).

Question: 89
An electric heater is rated 500 kVA, 220 V. If the heater is operated
for 1 hour, calculate the energy consumed
(i) in kWh and
(ii) in joule.

Question: 90
An electric bulb is marked 220V – 100 W. The bulb is connected to a
220 V supply.
(i) Calculate (a) the resistance of the filament. (b) Current flowing
through the filament.

(ii) is the filament resistance of the glowing bulb greater, smaller or

same as compared to its resistance when it is not glowing?
Question:91
What quantity of heat will be produced in a coil of resistance 80
ohm if current of 3 A is passed through it for 4 second.

Question:92
Calculate the electrical energy in SI units consumed by a 100 W bulb
and a 60 W fan connected in parallel in 5 minutes.
Question:93
A family uses a light bulb of 100 W, a fan of 100 W and an electric
heater of 1000 W each for 8 hours daily. If the cost of electricity is
Rs2.00 per unit, what is the expenditure for the family per day on
electricity?
Question:94
A bulb is marked 100 W, 220 V and an electric heater is marked
2000 W, 220 V

(i) What is the ratio of their resistances?

(ii) In which of the above a thicker connecting wire or lead is

required?

Question:95
A geyser has a label 2 kW, 240 V. What is the cost of running it for
30 minute, if the cost of electricity is Rs 3.00 per unit?
Question: 96
An electric kettle is rated 2.5 kW, 250 V. Find the cost of running the
kettle for two hours at 60 paisa per unit.
Question: 97
Raju on walking on a beach happens to find an unknown piece of
metal. He brought the metal piece to his school lab, where he got the
piece checked by lab assistant. The lab assistant measure the mass
of unknown metal piece and found it as 0.5 kg. The lab assistance
show shows the chart as shown to Raju where there are different
substances with their values of specific heat. With the data given,
answer the following questions. (To heat the metal by 1°K, add 115 J
of heat).

(A) Identify the metal.

(a) Brass
(b) Copper
(c) Platinum
(d) Silver

(B) How many Joules of heat would be required to heat 0.5 kg of

aluminum by 2K?

(a) 300 J
(b) 450 J
(c) 900 J
(d) 1800 J
(C) If 130 J of energy were added to 1 kg of each of these samples,
which among the following will experience highest increase in
temperature?
(a) Aluminum
(b) Brass
(c) Copper
(d) Platinum

(D) Which sample of copper will show maximum increase in

temperature, if 500 J of energy were added to the sample?
(a) 0.5 kg
(b) 1.0 kg
(c) 1.5 kg
(d) 2.0 kg
Question: 98
A metal piece of mass 420 g present at 80°C is dropped in 80 g of
water present at 20°C in a calorimeter of mass 84 g. If the final
temperature of the mixture is 30°C then calculate the specific heat
capacity of the metal piece.
[Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J g-¹ °C-¹ Specific heat
capacity of calorimeter = 200 J g-¹ °C-¹ ]
Question: 99
50 g of metal piece at 27°C requires 2400 J of heat energy so as to
attain a temperature of 327°C. Calculate the specific heat capacity of
the metal.
Question: 100
250 g of water at 30°C is present in a copper vessel of mass 50 g.
Calculate the mass of ice required to bring down the temperature of
the vessel and its contents to 5°C.
Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 x 10³ J kg -¹
Specific heat capacity of copper vessel = 400 J kg-¹ °C-¹ Specific heat
capacity of water = 4200J kg-¹ °C-¹