ROBYX REVIEW CENTER

IMAGE PRODUCTION AND EVALUATION

Prepared by: Prof. Roberto D. Yumul, RRT

July 2018 Radiologic Technology and X-ray Technology Licensure Examinations

-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer “for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking
the corresponding letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES. Use pencil no. 2 only.

MULTIPLE CHOICE:

1. Which of the following is/are considered starter B. Preservative

solution C. Restrainer
1. acetic acid D. Solvent
2. potassium bromide
3. sodium sulphite 10. It refers to the permanence of the radiograph.
A. archival quality
A. 1 and 2 B. film storage
B. 1 and 3 C. synergism
C. 2 and 3 D. superadditivity
D. all of these
11. Which of the following refers to the quality that
2. Which of the following is best for controlling crossover? makes daylight system attractive?
A. Tabular grain A. speed
B. Fast IS B. contrast
C. Double emulsion C. density
D. Using film screen system D. latitude

3. It is the other term for latent image formation 12. Rapid processor is useful in
A. photographic effect A. angiography
B. Gurney-Mott theory B. radiography
C. Frankel defect C. digital radiography
D. Goetze principle D. chest x-ray

4. Type of film contrast having wider range of size 13. It is very useful in mammography
A. Low contrast A. extended processing
B. High contrast B. daylight processing
C. Medium contrast C. manual processing
D. Average contrast D. automatic processing

5. It refers to green-sensitive film 14. What is the required processing time for rapid
A. orthochromatic processing?
B. panchromatic A. 30 s
C. monochromatic B. 40 s
D. isochromatic C. 50 s
D. 10 s
6. It used incandescent lamps with a color filter.
A. safelight 15. What is the minimum flow rate for the wash tank
B. visible light in most processors?
C. collimator A. 12 L/min or 3 gal/min
D. negatoscope B. 16 L/min or 4 gal/min
C. 8 L/min or 2 gal/min
7. What is the required temperature for film storage D. 4 L/min or 1 gal/min
in refrigerator for a year or more than 1 year?
A. 100 (500F) 16. What are the principal advantages associated
B. 200 (680F) with extended processing?
C. 210 (700F) 1. greater image contrast
D. 50 (37.40F) 2. lower patient dose
3. higher latitude
8. Radiographic film should be stored at temperature
lower than A. 1 and 2
A. 100 (500F) B. 1 and 3
B. 200 (680F) C. 2 and 3
C. 210 (700F) D. 1, 2 and 3
D. 50 (37.40F)
17. It refers to the development of images without
9. It prevents reducing agents from producing fog, which the use of wet chemistry.
is created when unexposed silver bromide crystals A. Dry processing
develop. B. Extended processing
A. Activator C. Daylight processing
 D. Manual processing D. Restricting device

18. Which of the following parts of the intensifying 30. Type of grid that is motor-driven back and forth
screen farthest from the film? several times during exposure.
A. base A. Moving grid
B. phosphor B. Reciprocating grid
C. reflective layer C. Stationary grid
D. protective coating D. Grid

19. It is a dull, uniform optical density that appears 31. What is the required distance using air-gap
if the film has been inadvertently exposed to technique?
lights, x-rays, heat or humidity. A. 10 to 15 cm
A. fog B. 10 to 15 inches
B. density C. 10 to 15 feet
C. contrast D. 10 to 15 meters
D. base + fog
32. Which of the following is disadvantage of using
20. air-gap technique?
A. image magnification
21. What is the size of a master roller? B. focal-spot blur
A. 1 inch C. increase density
B. 2 inch D. A and B
C. 3 inch
D. 4 inch 33. What is the required amount of mAs if 16:1 grid
ratio is used?
22. The light emitted must be of proper wavelength A. 6x
(color) to match the sensitivity of the x-ray film. B. 5x
This is called C. 4x
A. detective quantum efficiency D. 3x
B. conversion efficiency
C. spectral matching 34. What is the required amount of mAs if 12:1 grid
D. afterglow ratio is used?
A. 6x
23. It refers to the number of grid strips per B. 5x
centimetre. C. 4x
A. grid frequency D. 3x
B. grid ratio
C. grid radius 35. The relationship between kVp and density may
D. grid cutoff described as
A. directly proportional
24. A grid is constructed with 50 µm strips and a B. Direct, although not proportional
350 µm interspace. What is the percentage of x- C. Governed by the 15-50 rule
rays incident on the grid will be absorbed by its D. Controlled by x-ray tube current
entrance surface?
A. 12.5% 36. It refers to the range of optical density from the
B. 13.0% whitest to the blackest part of the radiograph.
C 14.0% A. gray scale of contrast
D. 15.0% B. low contrast
C. high contrast
25. Which of the following will result using high- D. medium contrast
ratio grids?
A. increase patient dose 37. Sharpness of image is best measured by
B. decrease patient dose A. spatial resolution
C. increase recorded detail B. resolution
D. increase x-ray absorption C. contrast resolution
D. contrast
26.
38. A modest reduction in image contrast is required
27. Which grid is designed to minimize grid cutoff? for a knee exposed at 62 kVp/12 mAs. What
A. focused grid technique should be tried?
B. crossed grid A. 65 kVp/8 mAs
C. linear B. 59 kVp/8 mAs
D. parallel C. 62 kVp/8 mAs
D. 60 kVp/8 mAs
28.
39. It means that the anatomical part of interest
29. Potter-Bucky diaphragm is also known as appears bigger than normal.
A. Bucky A. elongation
B. Stationary grid B. foreshortening
C. Collimator C. distortion
 D. magnification

40. Poor alignment of the anatomical part may result 49. It describes the relationship between optical
in density and radiation exposure.
A. elongation A. characteristic curve
B. foreshortening B. H & D curve
C. distortion C. sensitometric curve
D. magnification D. all of these

41. It describes the ability to see the detail on the 50. What is the formula in computing magnification
radiograph and is best measured by contrast factor?
resolution. A. MF = image size/object size
A. visibility of detail B. MF = object size/image size
B. spatial resolution C. MF = image size x object size
C. resolution D. MF = object size x image size
D. definition
51. It refers to the unequal magnification of different
42. He developed the fixed-kVp radiographic portions of the same object.
technique chart. A. shape distortion
A. Arthur Fuchs B. size distortion
B. Mc Arthur C. distortion
C. Arthur Judd D. magnification
D. Mc Douglas
52. Distortion depends on
43. A. object thickness
B. object position
44. It refers to the random fluctuation in the optical C. object shape
density of the image. D. object size
A. radiographic noise
B. radiographic contrast 53. It refers to misrepresentation in the image of the
C. radiographic distortion actual spatial relationships among objects.
D. radiographic density A. spatial distortion
B. spatial resolution
45. It refers to the ability to visualize recorded detail C. contrast resolution
when image contrast and optical density are D. resolution
optimized.
A. visibility of detail 54. It results when the plane and the image plane are
B. detail not parallel.
C. recorded detail A. distortion
D. definition B. magnification
C. image cut-off
46. It refers to the ability to image small objects that D. increase density
have high subject contrast.
A. spatial resolution 55. Focal-spot blur is the most important factor for
B. resolution determining
C. contrast resolution A. spatial distortion
D. image resolution B. spatial resolution
C. contrast resolution
47. It improves as screen blur decreases, motion blur D. resolution
decreases, and geometric blur decreases.
A. spatial resolution 56. It is an irregularity on an image that is not caused
B. resolution by the proper shadowing of tissue by the primary
C. contrast resolution x-ray beam.
D. image resolution A. artifact
B. density
C. contrast
48. High kVp produces which of the following? D. distortion
1. high contrast
2. few gray tones 57. Which of the following are handling and storage
3. long-scale contrast artifacts?
4. short-scale contrast 1. light fog
5. low contrast 2. radiation fog
6. many gray tones 3. static
4. kink marks
A. 1, 2 and 4 5. hypo retention stain
B. 3, 5 and 6 6. scratches
C. 5
D. 1 A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 4, 5 and 6
C. 1, 3 and 5
 D. all of these

58. Underreplenished fixer will result in 68. Which of the following affects subject factors?
A. milky appearance 1. subject contrast
B. greasy appearance 2. patient thickness
C. brittle appearance 3. tissue mass density
D. pi lines 4. effective atomic number
5. object shape
59. Which of the following will appear if 6. kVp
temperature or humidity is too low?
1. crown A. 1, 3, 5 and 6
2. tree B. 2, 3, 5 and 6
3. smudge static C. 1, 3 and 5
D. all of these
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3 69. Most commonly used beam-restricting device in
C. 2 and 3 radiography.
D. all of these A. variable aperture collimator
B. grids
60. Which of the following will appear if C. cones
temperature or humidity is too high? D. cylinders
A. fog
B. static 70. Which of the following is the simplest type of
C. increase density beam-restricting devices?
D. increase contrast A. aperture diaphragm
B. cones
61. Which of the following will appear if the film C. cylinders
bin is inadequate shielded from radiation? D. collimators
A. fog
B. static 71. What is the standard leakage radiation in an x-ray
C. increase density tube?
D. increase contrast A. 100 mR/hr
B. 10 mR/hr
62. Which of the following will appear if the C. 1 mR/hr
safelight is too bright, is too close to the D. 100 R/hr
processing tray, or has an improper filter?
A. fog 72. The focusing cup is made of what material?
B. static A. gold
C. increase density B. nickel
D. increase contrast C. molybdenum
D. copper
63. Which of the following will appear if the film
has been left in the x-ray room during other 73. Primary barrier should have a
exposures. A. 1/16 mm Pb thickness
A. fog B. 1/32 mm Pb thickness
B. static C. 0.5 mm Pb thickness
C. increase density D. 1 mm Pb thickness
D. increase contrast
74. Which of the following is used to increase OID?
64. Type of artifact resulted from improper handling A. Long SID
or storage either before or after processing. B. Air-gap technique
A. kink marks C. Small FSS
B. radiation fog D. Large FSS
C. wet-pressure sensitization
D. crown static 75. It is a rigid holder that contains the film and
radiographic intensifying screens.
65. A. cassette
B. film bin
66. Dirt or chemical stains on rollers will result to C. film box
A. Static mark D. darkroom
B. Pi lines
C. Guide shoe mark 76. It is measured in line pairs per millimetre
D. Brittle artifact (lp/mm)
A. spatial resolution
67. It is related to the slope of the straight-line B. contrast resolution
portion of the characteristic curve. C. density
A. film contrast D. contrast
B. subject contrast
C. spatial resolution 77. If phosphor continues to emit light after
D. film latitude stimulation the process is called
 A. phosphorescence
B. luminescence A. 1 and 2
C. screen effect B. 1 and 3
D. artefact C. 2 and 3
78. What is the intensification factor of calcium D. 1, 2 and 3
tungstate?
A. 20-100 88. What is the most common cause of poor archival
B. 30-100 quality?
C. 40-100 A. silver sulfide stain
D. 50-100 B. silver bromide stain
C. silver nitrate stain
79. What is the color emission of calcium tungstate? D. silver halide stain
A. blue
B. green 89. Chemical used as hardener in automatic
C. blue-amber developer.
D. green-red A. glutaraldehyde
B. aldehyde
80. Which of the following will result if there is a C. aluminium chloride
higher concentration of phosphor crystals? D. potassium alum
A. higher speed
B. higher spatial resolution 90. What is the strongest alkali?
C. higher effect in density A. sodium carbonate
D. higher effect on contrast B. potassium carbonate
C. sodium hydroxide
81. What is the speed of a detail screen? D. potassium hydroxide
A. 50 to 80
B. 20-30 91. Which is/are used as restrainer/s?
C. 40-50 1. potassium bromide
D. 100-120 2. potassium iodide
3. potassium alum
82. It engaged in controlling the replenishment rate
of the processing chemicals A. 1 and 2
A. microswitch B. 1 and 3
B. feeding tray C. 2 and 3
C. guide shoes D. 1, 2 and 3
D. squeegee assembly
92. It penetrates the gelatin of the emulsion causing
83. Which system consists of master roller, planetary it to swell.
rollers and guide shoes? A. solvent
A. turnaround assembly B. water
B. transport roller C. wetting agent
C. replenishment D. all of these
D. dryer
93.
84. Chelates are introduced as
A. sequestering agent 94. The fog level for unprocessed film is
B. activator approximately
C. hardener A. 0.2 mR
D. alkali B. 0.3 mR
C. 0.4 mR
85. Fog can be produced by D. 0.5 mR
1. chemical contamination
2. radiation 95. It helps to swell the gelatin, produces alkalinity
3. improper storage at elevated temperature and controls pH level of the solution.
and humidity A. activator
B. preservative
A. 1 and 2 C. restrainer
B. 1 and 3 D. hardener
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3 96.

8 97. What is the temperature of the wash water below the

6. It removes aluminium ions developer temperature?
A. Boric acids/salts A. 5 degrees C
B. Acetate B. 3 degrees C
C. Ammonium C. 5 degrees F
D. Folic acid D. 3 degrees F

87. It maintains chemical balance. 98. It refers to radiation emitted with equal intensity
1. sodium sulphite in all directions.
2. preservative A. isotropic emission
3. activator B. isotropic distribution
 C. isotropic radiation 108. He developed the calcium tungstate as material
D. isotropic calculation used in fluoroscopy.
A. Thomas Edison
B. Michael Pupin
99. What should be used to clean the intensifying C. J.J. Thompson
screen? D. Thomas Jefferson
A. soap
B. antistatic compound 109. Which of the following chemical is used to
C. antiallergic soap control oxidation?
D. bar soap A. preservative
B. restrainer
100. It is a device used to test time accuracy. C. hardener
A. phototimer D. activator
B. AEC
C. spinning top 110. Which of the following is present in developing
D. rectifier solutions?
A. Sodium sulfite
101. Oscillating grid is positioned within a frame B. Potassium bromide
with C. Silver nitrate
A. 2-3 cm D. Sodium hydroxide
B. 5-7 cm
C. 10-15 cm 111. Which of the following is sensitive to aerial
D. 12-13 cm oxidation?
A. Hydroquinone
102. The used of increase in bucky factor will result B. Phenidone
to C. Preservative
1. increase technique factors D. Restrainer
2. increase in patient dose
3. increase in density 112. What is the color of an oxidized developer?
A. Brownish
A. 1 and 2 B. Yellowish
B. 1 and 3 C. Bluish
C. 2 and 3 D. Amber
D. all of these
113. It enhances the action of developing agent by
103. What is the purpose of the interspace material controlling the concentration of hydrogen ions
of a grid? or the pH.
A. maintain a precise separation between A. sequestering agent
the delicate lead strips of the grid. B. chelates
B. absorb secondary radiation C. restrainer
C. absorb primary radiation D. Synergism
D. maintain the absorption of radiation
114. It neutralizes the pH of the emulsion and stops
104. The leaves of the second-stage collimator developer action.
shutter are usually made of lead that is at least A. acetic acid
A. 3 mm B. wetting agent
B. 4 mm C. sequestering agent
C. 5 mm D. boric acid
D. 6 mm
115. Which occurs when the tube or the image receptor is
105. An extremely effective device for reducing the not properly aligned?
level of scatter radiation that reaches the image A. Elongation
receptor. B. magnification
A. grid C. foreshortening
B. lead strips D. minification
C. collimator
D. filter 116. Which occurs when the part is improperly aligned?
106. A carefully fabricated series of sections of A. elongation
radiopaque material (grid strips) alternating B. magnification
with section C. foreshortening
A. grid D. minification
B. lead strips
C. collimator 117. Distortion is a misrepresentation of _____.
D. filter A. size only
B. shape only
107. Compression of anatomy improves spatial C. size and shape
resolution and contrast resolution and D. detail
A. lowers patient dose
B. increase patient dose 118. Size distortion in radiography can be ____ only.
C. decrease density A. foreshortening
D. increase density B. magnification
C. elongation
 D. distortion A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
119. As size distortion decreases, the resolution of C. 2 and 4
recorded detail D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
A. increases
B. decreases 127. An increase from table-top to bucky can affect size
C. is not affected A. in geometry
D. is lost B. sharpness
C. definition
120. Resolution will increase as ______ increases. D. distortion
A. phosphor size 
B. phosphor layer thickness 128. Major cause of magnification
C. phosphor concentration A. OFD
D. all of the above B. FSS
C. FFD
121. Radiographic film/screen system resolution is D. IS
generally controlled by ____.
A. intensifying screen crystals 129. The total size distortion will result from the
B. film emulsion crystals combined effects of:
C. bucky oscillation A. SID and OFD
D. SID B. OID and SID
C. OFD and FFD
122. Elongation and Foreshortening can be minimized by D. SID and FFD
ensuring the proper CR alignment of the following:
1. X-ray tube 130. Types of shape distortion include
2. Part 1. magnification.
3. Image receptor 2. elongation.
4. Entry or exit point of the CR 3. foreshortening.

A. 1 and 2 A. 1 only
B. 2 and 4 B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2, and 3

123. Inaccurate central ray will lead to

A. Shape distortion
B. Size distortion
C. Magnification
D. Distortion

124. Subject contrast is most likely to be affected by the:

A. exposure time
B. tube current (mA)
C tube voltage (kV)
D. focus size

125. As OID increases, size distortion (magnification)

A. decreases
B. increases
C. the same
D. elongated

126. What is the motion factors resulting to poor recorded

detail?
1. Tube
2. Patient
3. Part
4. Image receptor