CLUSTER 1

RADIOLOGIC PHYSICS, EQUIPEMENTS AND MAINTENANCE

1. What is the new mAs is the existing factor of 10 mAs is to be changed to 300 mA and 0.01s?
 3
2. What is the meaning of lead equivalence of the Lead apron?
 Equal to stopping power of the lead for x-ray
3. Which property of viewing box is the PRIORITY for quality control test?
 Uniform light output intensity
4. Which has the ovaries as their reproductive organs?
 Woman
5. The energy produced by the characteristics x-ray is the characteristic of:
 Electronic binding energy
6. Which will be the BEST first aid treatment for the processing chemical splash in the eye
 Wash thoroughly
7. Which is NOT a characteristic of the diagnostic x-ray beam?
 Mono energetic
8. What happens to the x-ray intensity if the distance from a point source is tripled?
 Reduce to one ninth
9. Which biological effect will exhibit a threshold type of the radiation dose response relationship?
 Lifespan shortening
10. Which is/are the basis of the radiation protection guidelines?
I. Stochastic effects
II. Deterministic effects
III. Linear non-threshold dose response relationship
IV. Non-linear threshold dose relationship dose response relationship
 I,II,III,IV
11. Which is NOT true regarding exposure time when taking radiographs?
 Is increased if mA is increased
12. What is the TRUE voltage across the kVp meter if it reads 120 kVp and the transformer turns ratio is
500?
 240 V
13. Which is NOT produced during ionization of matter?
 Neutron
14. Which is NOT an x-ray grid specification?
 Automatic interlock
15. Changes to DNA rather than the chromosomes are called
 Point Mutation
16. What type of x-ray unit will give the LEAST amount of voltage ripple?
 3 phase, 12 pulses
17. Which is NOT a particulate type of radiation?
 Gamma
18. Which is most probably the reason why tungsten is used as an x-ray target?
 High Melting point
19. Which will be the MOST likely to be attracted to an anode?
 Electron
20. Which atom has the LEAST composition in the human body?
 Nitrogen
21. Which technical factor will most likely contribute to radiographic contast?
 kVP
22. Which law states that the radio sensitivity of tissues depends on their maturity and metabolism?
 Bergonie and tribondeau
23. The acceptable kVp test accuracy is + and – 5 only. If the test result is acceptable, what was the set kVp
used if the actual kVp measured was 100 kVp?
I. 95 II. 105 III. 100
 I,II,III
24. If the distance from an x-ray source is halved, the radiation intensity increase by the factor of
 4
25. What is the MOST likely tube current(mA) used in fluoroscopy?
 3
26. Who must hold the patient during diagnostic x-ray procedure?
 Companion of patient
27. What is circuitry is characterized by the mAs varying continuously during the exposure?
 Falling load
28. a sensitometer
 is a device used for measuring densities of films
29. Which is NOT considered a month the factors that can determine shielding thickness?
 typed of x-ray examination
30. What device controls the replenishment system of the film processor?
 Float valve
31. The nucleus does NOT contains this ___
 Lipids
32. Which will NOT affect x-ray quality?
 mAs
33. What will MOST closely describe on how radiation will interact with a target molecule?
 Indirectly
34. Given a 50 kVp x-ray photon, the 100 kVp photon has a ____.
 Higher frequency
35. Which refers to the optical base density
 Base plus fog
36. Which does not apply to diagnostic x-ray?
 Reflection
37. What will be the dose reduction in percent for a radiographer who will be standing 2m away from the
patient instead of 1m only?
 20
38. There is a 10 percent reject film out of 2000 films in the department. However, 2 percent of this reject is
caused by darkroom related errors. How many films are caused by darkroom related errors?
 4
39. Which is found in the positive electrode side of the x-ray tube?
 Anode
40. Which material characteristics can readily transmit all incident x-ray.
 Radioparent
41. Which is TRUE for normal radiographic set up?
 Longer FFD reduces magnification
42. Which is characterized by the non-uniformity of x-ray intensity production of an x-ray tube along the
central ray?
 Anode heel effect
43. Which is the BEST method to use for reducing radiation doses in a radiographic procedure?
 Distance
44. Which is NOT a radiation damage model of human chromosome?
 Normal aberration
45. Which of the following items are included in the ICRP system of dose limitation?
I. Justification
II. Optimization
III. Dose limitation
 I, II and III
46. If SID is doubled, radiographic density is ______.
 Reduced by one fourth
47. In the equation, E=Hf, the H_____
 Is the planks constant
48. If the secondary coil has 500 more turns than the primary coil, what will be the relationship of the
secondary volatege to the primary voltage?
 500:1
49. What is the maximum voltage that crosses the x-ray tube during a complete wavelength?
 kVp
50. a dual filament cathode is capable of giving
 small and large focus
51. a chest x-ray examination will likely use
 1 mm focus
52. If the distance (SID) from an x-ray point source is doubled, what will happen to the x-ray output at the
same SID?
 One fourth
53. How many mGy is 10 Gy?
 10,000
54. Which is the MOST likely reason that grids are not used in ward chest radiography?
 Grid alignment is difficult
55. This is NOT a known type of energy losses in transformer.
 Friction losses
56. A spinning top test is used to:
 Check the accuracy of the timer
57. An mAs control is used in
 Single knob adjustment of time and mA
58. Which of these is the MOST radiosensitive?
 Bone marrow
59. How is the testing for constancy of radiation output for x-ray unit done?
 Make 3 exposures keeping the kVp and mAs the same but varying the mA and time
60. Who must assist and hold the patient during the conduct of a radiographic procedure?
 Companion of patient
61. What is the unit of radiographic workload?
 mA min/wk
62. Which is considered the MOST abundant macromolecule in the human body?
 Protein
63. Which type of emission is NOT likely to follow the inverse square law?
 Skylight
64. How many diodes do you find in a full wave rectified x-ray unit?
 4
65. Death occurs in the G.I syndrome because of ____.
 Damage lining of intestine
66. Which electromagnetic radiation is in the diagnostic x-ray region?
 65 KeV
67. Which of this cancer induced by radiation appears to have a threshold ?
 Skin cancer
68. Which can NOT be determined by a H and D curve of a processor control chart?
 Recorded detail
69. Which is NOT included in the acute radiation syndrome?
 Latent
70. Which is LEAST likely to be categorized as an x-ray detector?
 Photo multiplier tube
71. Which factor is LEAST likely to affect the screen film imaging system?
 Cassette dimensions
72. A Fluoroscope operates at 95 kVp, 2 mA. What is the power consumption?
 190 W
73. Which is the BEST method to use for reducing radiation doses in a fluoroscopic x-ray procedure for the
radiologic technologist?
 Distance
74. What will you do if the lid has been accidentally left open in a box if unexposed films in white light?
 Process three films and inspect
75. Which will have the longest wavelength?
 Microwave
76. The filament transformer is _______.
 A step down transformer
77. Which of the following must be followed when film is loaded for mammography?
 The film should be on the x-ray tube of the radiographic intensity screen
78. What will be the radiologic technologist FIRST do if a patient was found out to be pregnant AFTER the
x-ray procedure was done?
 Ask the patient how many weeks or stage of pregnancy she thinks of her pregnancy
79. Which will NOT increase film fog?
 Use of rare earth screen
80. The output of x-ray unit is 8R/mA – minute. What will be the patient exposure in R if the radiographer
uses 2 mA for 3 minutes of fluoroscopy?
 48
81. Which is NOT one of the major systems of an automatic processor?
 Electrical system
82. What type of graph shows the allowable exposure factors mA, kVp and time combination for an x-ray
tube?
 Radiographic
83. Which is a method for electrification?
 Induction

84. For electromagnetic radiation, which increases with increasing photon energy?
 Frequency
85. How much percentage of cells survived if 100 cells died after irradiation if 10,000 cell population?
 100
86. Electrons passing through matter lose energy primarily by producing this.
 Bremmstrahlung
87. Which test will be the first thing to do when starting a quality control program for an x-ray machine?
 Output constancy
88. How many total numbers of films were analyzed if the number of rejected films is 50 and the film
analysis showed a 5 value?
 550
89. Which is an example of stochastic effect of radiation?
 Lifespan shortening
90. How is the optimum development time determined?
 Ask the manufacturer of the film
91. Which is NOT needed to produce x-ray?
 Filter
92. Which atom has the least composition in body?
 Nitrogen
93. What do you call the transformer where the voltage of the secondary winding is higher than the voltage
of primary?
 Step up
94. In the equation E=mc*2, c refers to _____.
 Speed of light
95. What material is NOT used as the output phosphor of the image intensifier?
 TLD
96. What is the tolerance limit of x-ray beam exposure linearity test?
 10
97. What is the estimated annual dose in in mSv of a radiologic technologist who is working I a fluoroscopic
room for 8 hrs a day in 5 days a week for 200 working days a year basis if his workplace monitoring for
doses showed 20 dose microsievert per hour reading
  32
98. Which has the highest photon energy?
 X-ray
99. Which tissue has the highest radiosensitivity?
 Gonad
100. Which is NOT true regarding x-ray tube rating?
 Old and new x-ray tubes are expected to have same tube ratings.

CLUSTER 2

IMAGE PRODUCTION AND EVALUATION

1. This explains the theory of formation of the latent image.

 Gurney-Mott Theory
2. The emulsion layer of film is _______ um thick.
 3 to 5
3. What causes grid cutoff artifacts?
 Improper patient positioning
4. Base relative screen speed is equal to ______.
 400
5. Panchromatic film is defined as _____.
 Receptive to all colors
6. What is the time and temperature required for developing the film in an automatic processor?
 85 for 20 seconds
7. Cleaning of film viewer box should be _______.
 Weekly
8. What chemistry acts as a buffer and source of alkali?
 Carbonate
9. Which is the part of the cassette for easy opening and closing?
I. Locks
II. Hinged
 II and III
10. How long should lead apparel be checked for protective integrity?
 Weekly
11. Which of the following views uses an intra-oral film?
 Mandibular symphysis
12. In radiology, a film critique may be considered as ______.
 Technical evaluation of a radiograph
13. What is the common cause of inadequate agitation?
I. Failure of circulation pumps
II. Clogging of filters
III. Air lock in the lines
  I,II and III
14. Which of the following acts to bind the different layers of the x-ray film?
 Emulsion
15. Which of the following controls the swelling and softening of the x-ray film?
 Hardener
16. The average replenishment rate for fixer is approximately _______ cc/film.
 100-110
17. Quantum detection efficiency is also referred as the ______.
 X-ray absorption
18. What is the clearing time in a 90-second automatic processor?
 20-25
19. What is the traditional development time in manual processing?
 5 minutes
20. The degree of the hotness and coldness of the solution is ______.
 Temperature
21. It is recommended that the processing solutions be changed every _____ months.
3
22. When sodium sulfite is used as an x-ray processing chemical, it is a/an _____.
 Preservative
23. Fresh x-ray film should be stored at approximately ______.
 60-70 degrees F at 50-60 relative humidity.
24. What agent is used to minimize fog and maintain chemical balance between fresh and seasoned
chemicals?
 Potassium Bromide/Restrainer
25. Which of the following does NOT apply when you compare the base of polyester and the base of
cellulose triacetate ?
 Non flammable
26. Which of the following is NOT included in the replenishment system?
 Heat exchangers
27. The height of the darkroom safelight from loading bench should be ______.
 130 cm
28. The film that is sensitive to fluorescent light is ______.
 Screen type
29. Remnant x-rays are those that _____ patient.
 Exit
30. What kind of fog causes overdevelopment?
 Chemical
31. Which of the following is the oldest method of silver recovery?
 Electrolytic
32. A double-emulsion films contain the following.
 Wider latitude
33. One of the most common causes of wet film emerging from an automatic processor is ____.
 General lack of hardener in developer or fixer
34. Screens are cleaned ______.
  According to the manufacturer’s specification
35. What part of an automatic processor regulates the temperature?
 Thermostat
36. Which if the following is/are the function/s of the fixer?
I. Undeveloped silver halide crystals
II. To shrink and harden the gelaine
III. To neutralize the developer
 I, II and III
37. The pH is the qualitative measurement of the acidity and alkalinity of the solution. The abbreviation
pH stands for ______.
 Power of hydrogen
38. The average developer immersion time in an automatic 90 second processor is approximately ____.
 20
39. The essential ingredients of the fixer are ________.
 Acid, harder, hypo and preservative
40. Artifacts can be created by means of ____.
 All of the choices
41. Which of the following acts as a neutralizer during film development?
 Acetic acid
42. Which tool is used to identify poor screen contact?
 Wire mesh
43. What is the recommended tme in months that the solution be dischrarge?
 6
44. Which of the following is/are causes of dirty intensifying screens?
I. Crinkles
II. Finger mark
III. Crescent mark
 II and III
45. What are the causes of poor screen contact?
I. Warping of the cassette
II. Wrinkled screen
III. Cracked cassette frames
 I, II and III
46. Film should be stored at _____ degrees C.
 10-21
47. Which of the following refers to a frame-like film container used as a mounting for intensifying
screens?
 Cassette
48. Which of the following are types of processing artifacts?
I. Roller marks
II. Static marks
III. Chemical fog
 I and III
49. Agitation upon immersion of the film in the developer
  Produce uniform development
50. What material is used for cassettes to reduce attenuation up to 50 and permits a corresponding
reduction in patient dose?
 Bakelite
51. In order to overcome magnification when employing a 6-in OFD air gap for chest radiography, one
should use in FFD of ______ feet.
 10 or more
52. Which of the following technique would produce the greatest amount of radiographic density?
 300 mA, 2/5 sec
53. The density on a radiograph can be doubled by ______.
 Increasing the kV by 15
54. Ensuring good screen-film contact also ensures reduced _____.
 Blur
55. When a technologist is comparing two radiographs of the chest, one is taken with a 72- in FFD and
the other with a 50-in FFD (and a compensated technique), the radiograph with the 50-in FFD would
exhibit?
 Greater definition
56. The primary reason why distortion usually occur because subject anatomy is ____.
 Inclined
57. A technique of 200 mA, ¼ sec has been used to produce a film of satisfactory density. If the
milliamperage was changed to 500, the time needed to obtain the same milliamperage, all other
factors remaining constant, would be _______ second
 1/10
58. When a 6-in air gap is used in chest radiography, which of the following statements would be true?
 A 72-in FFD is needed for true lung and heart size
59. Radiographic noise increases with an increase in which of the following?
 Image receptor distance
60. The most important factor which affect the film sensitometry include
 All of the choices
61. Which if the following factors will DIRECTLY influence recorded detail?
I. Object-film distance
II. Focus-film distance
 I and II
62. The silver halide latent image is produced by _______.
 X-ray, light, or other forms of radiation
63. A grid ratio is determined by the relationship of the
 The height to the width of the strip
64. Using a grid upside down will cause ____.
 Severe grid cut off in the periphery of the film
65. The use of a grid will protect the ______.
 Film from scattered radiation
66. If the milliampere selector were set at 1000mA, what exposure time would be required to produce 80
mAs?
 2/25 sec
67. Which of the following techniques would be exhibit the GREATES density?
 300 mA, 1/3 sec, 80 kV, 12:1 grid
68. Which of the following is the MOST opaque?
 Bone
69. The PRIMARY function of filters in an x-ray machine is to reduce the _______.
 Patient’s exposure to low-energy x-rays
70. The higher the grid ratio, the greater the _______.
 Clean up of the grid
71. X-rays emerge from the patient in the direction of the image receptor is considered to which type of
x-rays?
 Transmitted x-rays
72. Which of the following factors does NOT affect subject contrast
 mAs
73. Which of the following factors statements relating to “artifacts” is FALSE?
 Gray-white scum occurs from incomplete washing
74. Radiographic contrast is DIRECTLY influenced by _____.
 Kilovoltage
75. To maintain the same density when changing a non-grid technique to utilize an 8:1 grid, the
technologist must make which of the following changes to milliampere seconds?
 Double
76. The 15 % rule in radiography indicates that _______.
 To reduce the exposure (mAs) to one-half at any level of kV, add 15% more
kilovoltage
77. Subject contrast is chiefly influenced by the ________.
 Kilovoltage
78. The presence of ascites will result in an increase of _______.
 Scattered radiation
79. Which technique would yield the shortest scale contrast
 100 mAs, 60 kV, 10:1 grid, medium-speed screens
80. Beam restricting device.
 A PBL
81. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
 Solution in manual processing has a longer solution life than of the automatic.
82. Which of the following sets of technical factors would produce the shortest scale of contrast?
 200 mA, 1/10 sec, 60 kV, 12:1 grid, large focal spot
83. Which of the following has an effect on the production of secondary and scattered radiation?
I. Thickness of the part being x-rayed
II. Density of the tissue being x-rayed
III. Kilovoltage
 I, II and III
84. Which of the following radiographic screen system generally controls the resolution?
I. size of the intensifying screen crystal layer
II. size of the silver halide crystal
III. film graininess
  I, II and III
85. A technique of 100 mA, ½ sec at 80 kV is converted to 100 mA, 1/8 sec. in order to maintain the
same density, what would be the new kilovoltage?
 92 kV
86. Which of the following can be done to REDUCE absorption blur?
 Patient suspended breathing
87. On collimatingto the area of interest, x-ray exposure must be ______.
 No change
88. Which of the following conditions can produced a fog-like image on a finished radiograph?
I. Improper safelights
II. A low ratio grid with high kV technique
III. Improper collimation
 I and III
89. An adjustment in the kV from 60 to 80 will produce ______.
I. An increased in latitude
II. Less patient absorption
III. Shorter wavelength
 I and III
90. Which of the following is considered as the simplest type of grid?
 Linear grid
91. A Potter-Bucky diaphragm is known as a ______
 Grid in motion during exposure
92. How often should the collimation be evaluated?
 Semi-annually
93. Which of the following techniques would produce the LEAST density?
 200 mA, 1/8 sec, 75 kVp, 60-in SID
94. FSB can be minimized by ______.
 Reducing OID
95. Definition is impaired by ____
I. Increase OFD
II. Decreased FFD
III. Motion
 I, II and III
96. Which of the following changes would have dramatic effect on radiographic contrast?
 Changing the kilovoltage from 86 kV to 82 kV
97. The PRIMARY function of filters in an x-ray machine is to ______.
 Reduce the patient’s exposure to low-energy x-rays
98. A technique of 100 mA, 1/20 sec at 60 kV was used to adequately expose a fractured forearm. What
technique would be best to use after a cast has been applied?
 100 mA, 1/20 sec, 75 kV (+ 15% kV)
99. Changing the grid with a higher grid ratio will result in a/an _______.
 Decrease patient dose
100. The original exposure factors are 200 mA, 86 kV, and 1/2 seconds. What would the new
exposure time in second if the kilovoltage is reduced to 80?
  3/4

CLUSTER 3

RADIOGRAPHIC PROCEDURE AND TECHNIQUES

1. In sialography, at the conclusion of the procedure the patient is ________.

 Given secretory stimulant to purge salivary gland
2. Determine the statement that refers to a posteroanterior position to better demonstrate the
mandibular rami.
 Central rays is angled cephalad
3. Which of the following is the reason why it is preferred to flex the knee 20 ro 30 degrees when
performing a lateral projection of the knee?
 The position relaxes the muscles and shows maximum volume of joint cavity
4. Determine the central ray direction in an anteroposterior projection of the sacrum.
 15 degrees cephalad
5. Which of the following is BEST visualized in a double contrast examinations of the stomach or large
bowel?
 Gastric or bowel mucosa
6. Identify the principal route of elimination of most aqueous iodine contrast media.
 Urinary tract
7. Determine the degree of flexion of the elbow in a Coyle method to demonstrate the coronoid
process.
 80
8. Which of the following are demonstrated in a tangential projection of the carpus
 Palmar aspect of greater multangular
9. Which of the following are common indications for oral cholecystography?
I. Hepatocellular disease
II. Hiliaryneoplasia
III. Cholelithiasis
 II and III
10. Determine the degree of body rotation necessary to demonstrate the sternoclavicular joint.
 10º-15º
11. Point out the method in a ‘swimmers” view for cervico-thoracic spine.
 Pawlow
12. Select the recommended projection by Lane, Kennedy and Kuschner in addition to a posteroanterior
oblique to better demonstrate severe metacarpal deformities or fractures of the hand.
 Reverse oblique
13. Which of the following statements refer to patient preparation for oral cholecystogram?
I. Prolong fasting is instructed to prevent gas formation
II. Avoidance of food after introduction of oral contrast media
III. Contrast media is given 2-3 hours after evening meal
 II and III
14. Identify the common reference in an axiolateral projection of the hip, Danelius-Miller method
 Cross-table lateral
15. Which of the following projections is utilized in a Cahoon method to show the styloid process?
 Posteroanterior axial

16. Choose the patient position that would BEST demonstrate the rectum and distal sigmoid portion of
the colon in a barium enema procedure.
 Lateral
17. Which of the following are ROUTINELY performed to examine the stomach?
I. Hypotonic duodenography
II. Double-contrast method
III. Biphasic examination
 II and III
18. Which of the following employs an axiolateral projection with 15 degrees caudad angulation of the
beam to demonstrate the mastoid?
 Law
19. Antero-posterior axial projection (Cleaves method) is performed for the demonstration of _____.
 Femoral necks
20. Which of the following statements refer to a right anterior oblique position in an upper
gastrointestinal series examination?
I. Gastric peristalsis is active in this position
II. Pyloric canal and duodenal bulb are well demonstrated for sthenic patient
III. Asthenic patient requires greater degree of rotation compared to hypersthenic patient
 I and II
21. In an antero-posterior projection of the wrist, the central ray is directed perpendicular to the _____.
 Midcarpal area
22. Determine the vertebral groups that form lordotic curves.
I. Lumbar
II. Cervical
III. Thoracic
 I and II
23. Which of the following maneuvers will show the femoral neck in an anteroposterior projection of the
femur?
 Foot inverted 15 degrees
24. Select the position/projection that would demonstrate the right axillary ribs.
 Left anterior oblique
25. Which of the following projection / method will show bilateral demonstration of petrous pyramids,
mastoids air cells, and bony labyrinths?
 AP axial (Towne)
26. Choose the instructions that might be given to a patient following an upper gastrointestinal series
examination.
I. Take a mild sedative
II. Increase dietary fiber
III. Drink plenty of water
 II and III
27. Determine the reason why the patient’s chin is elevated during a chest x-ray examination.
  To avoid superimposition of the apices
28. Determine the particular use of an axiolateral inferosuperior projection of the femoral neck.
I. For patients with limited movement of unaffected leg
II. When the axiolateral projection is contraindicated
III. For patients with bilateral hip fractures
 I and II
29. Point out the position/projection that would demonstrate the scaphoid fat stripe of the wrist.
 Posteroanterior
30. Determine the patient position in an x-ray examination of the thoracic spine to demonstrate the
apophyseal articulations.
 Coronal plane at 70º to the image receptor
31. Which of the following is a contraindication for a hysterosalphingography examination?
 Active uterine bleeding
32. Select the structures that are demonstrated in an AP projection of the cervical spine.
I. C3-7 cervical bodies
II. Intervertebral disk spaces
III. Apophyseal joints
 I and II
33. The cervical intervertebral foramina are BEST demonstrated in ______.
 Oblique projection
34. Identify the x-ray beam direction in a posterior profile position, Stenvers method, to demonstrate the
petrous portion of the temporal bone.
 12 º cephalad
35. Choose the projection that would BEST demonstrate a posterior displacement of tibial fracture.
 Lateral
36. Which of the following will be demonstrated in an antero-posterior projection of the abdomen?
I. Intraabdominal calcification
II. Evidence of tumor masses
III. Shape and size of liver, spleen and kidneys
 I, II and III
37. Point out the method employed when obtaining a radiograph of a patient with suspected hip fracture
 Danelius-Miller
38. Determine the patient position employed in an anteroposterior projection of the scapula.
 Arm is abducted at right angel to the body
39. For sthenic patient, how many degrees of the obliquity are required to shift the gallbladder away
from the vertebral column in a left anterior oblique position?
 30-35
40. Identify the reasons cited by Griswold on the importance of a 90º flexion of the elbow in lateral
position.
I. To ensure that the humeral epicondyles are perpendicular to cassette
II. To ensure that the olecranon process can be seen in profile
III. To ensure that the elbow fat pads are least compressed
 II and III
41. Which maneuvers/technique in the examination of the esophagus will demonstrate esophageal
reflux?
I. Toe touch
II. Water test
III. Compression
 I, II, and III

42. Which of the following characteristics refers to ionic contrast media?

 Greater side effect
43. Point out the wrist bones that are demonstrated in a posteroanterior axial oblique projection
employing Clements-Nakayama method.
 Trapezium and articulations with adjacent carpal bones
44. The pyloric canal and duodenal bulb are BEST demonstrated in which of the following positions
during a gastrointestinal tract series?
 Right anterior oblique
45. A radiographic procedure performed with the patient lying prone recumbent on the radiographic
table and the central ray directed horizontally to the iliac crest is referred to as ______ decubitus
position.
 Ventral
46. Choose the statement that refers to a patient place in an upright position for study of the stomach.
 Best demonstrate high transverse stomach for hypersthenic
47. The beam directed in a Schuller’s full basal projection of the cranium is directed perpendicular __.
 To the infraorbitomeatal line
48. Which of the following are indications for performing examination of the biliary tract?
I. Condition and patency of biliary ducts
II. Concentrating and emptying power of gallbladder
III. Function of the liver
 I, II and III
49. Demonstrating polyp on the left side of the large colon can BEST be accomplished with a
____position.
 Right lateral decubitus
50. Determine the position if the patient is recumbent and the central ray is directed horizontally.
 Decubitus
51. The angiographic study for the demonstration of pulmonary embolus is referred to as ____.
 Pulmonary arteriography
52. Lower extremity venography requires an injection of the iodinated contrast medium into the __.
 Deep vein of the foot
53. Which of the following would BEST be visualized in a trendelenburg position in an upper
gastrointestinal series examination?
 Diaphragmatic hernia
54. A technique for double-contrast enemas that reveals even the smallest intraluminal lesions was
developed by _____.
 Gordon
55. An oblique position for the stomach is performed to demonstrate the ______.
 I. Fundus
II. Duodenal bulb
III. Duodenal loop
 II and III
56. How long (in minute) will majority if all reactions to contrast media occur from the start of
injection?
 10-15
57. In a single-stage double contrast enema, ______.
 Patient is turned 360 degrees, placed in supine after which spot and overhead
radiographs are taken
58. Select the position/projection that would BEST demonstrate acromioclavicular separation.
 Anteroposterior erect, both shoulders
59. In performing parietoacanthial projection for facial bones examination, there must be no rotation and
tilting of the head during exposure. Which of the following should the Radiologic Technologist
consider to achieve positioning requirement?
I. Palpate the mastoid process with thumb and fingertips on each side to ensure that occusal
plane and interpupillary line are equidistant from the tabletop
II. Neck is extended and chin resting against the radiographic table
III. Midsaggital plane is placed perpendicular to the midline if the image receptor
 II and III
60. Select the position/projection that would BEST demonstrate air-filled fundus and duodenum in an
upper gastrointestinal series examination.
 Oblique
61. The method employed to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa in an anteroposterior axial projection
is ______.
 Beclere
62. Which of the following are ways of introducing contrast materials into the body?
I. Inhaled (vapor)
II. Swallowed (orally)
III. Administered rectally
 II and III
63. Select which of the following statements refer to radiography of the knee in lateral projection.
I. Knee is flexed 20 º to 30 º
II. Femoral condyles are superimposed
III. Patellofemoral joint is visualized
 I, II and III
64. Which of the following position/projection of the knee would BEST demonstrate the proximal
tibiofibular articulation?
 Medial Oblique
65. Choose the positions/projections that may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint.
I. Transthoracic lateral
II. Scapular Y projection
III. Inferosuperior axial
 I and III
66. The Kurzbauer method for sternoclavicular articulations is an x-ray procedure requiring ____.
 Standing/erect position
67. Which of the following does NOT described a characteristics of a positive contrast media?
I. Radiolucent
II. Radiopaque
III. Appears white on the finish radiograph
 II and III
68. Which of the following direct surgico-radiographic examination wherein the contrast medium is
introduced in the duct of wirsung?
 Pancreatography
69. Select the special radiographic examinations performed to determine the viability or non-viability of
the fetus and fluid.
 Amniography
70. Select the structure demonstrated in a Kemp Harper method in a submentovertical axial projection.
 Jugular foramina projected at/or near the level of the angles of mandible
71. Which position of the humerus will demonstrate the humeral head in profile in an antero-posterior
projection of the shoulder?
I. Neutral rotation
II. Internal rotation
III. External rotation
 III only
72. Which of the following muscles may produce a shadow on a chest radiograph?
I. Intercostals
II. Sternocleidomastoid
III. Pectoralis major
 I, II and III
73. Select the central ray direction employed in a modified posteroanterior axial projection of the skull
to demonstrate the superior orbital fissures.
 20º to 25 º caudad
74. Determine the reasons why an anteroposterior stress studies of the ankle may be performed.
I. To demonstrate ligament tear
II. To demonstrate fractures of distal tibia and fibula
III. Following inversion or eversion injuries
 I and III
75. Which of the following are indications for intravenous cholangiography?
I. Evaluation of the head of pancreas in cases of obstruction
II. Post cholecystectomy with recurrent symptoms of biliary tract disease
III. Demonstration of common bile duct abnormalities if oral cholecystogram is negative
 II and III
76. Choose the position/projection that can demonstrate branching of the biliary duct.
 Lateral
77. Identify the radiograph used to demonstrate tumor masses or prostatic enlargement in an intravenous
urography procedure.
 Post-void
78. Which of the following projections will demonstrate an oblique frontal projection of the facial
bones, orbits, maxillae, and zygomatic arches?
 PA oblique axial
79. Determine how long (in hour) will barium solution reach the ileocecal valve in barium follow
through for children.
 Three
80. Choose the position/projection that will separate the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from
superimposition on the ulna.
 Lateral oblique
81. Determine the central ray direction in a posterior oblique position of the cervical spine.
 15º cephalad to 4th cervical vertebra
82. Choose the structure that is BEST shown in a barium enema examination with the patient lying on
its side, midaxillary portion of the abdomen centered to the table and central ray directed
perpendicular to the anterior superior iliac spine.
 Rectum
83. The fovea capitis particularly the superoposterior walls of acetabulum could BEST demonstrated in
a _____method.
 Teufel
84. Point out the projection that would BEST demonstrate a posterior hip dislocation.
 Hsieh
85. Choose the structure that is BEST demonstrated in an upper gastrointestinal series examination with
the patient lying recumbent on the right side, midcoronal plane and anterior of abdomen centered to
midline of table, the central ray is directed perpendicular to L1-L2.
 Duodenal bulb in hypersthenic patient
86. Which of the following resulting image will be shown in a tangential projection (Lewis/Holly
methods)?
 Sesamoid bones projected axiolatteraly with slight overlap
87. Choose the position that will demonstrate the lumbosacral apophyseal articulation.
 30 º right posterior oblique
88. Which of the following maneuvers is applied in laryngopharyngography procedure to test the
elasticity and functionality of the glottis?
 Valsalva maneuver
89. Choose the MOST commonly employed radiographic positions to demonstrate the sternum.
I. Lateral position
II. Left anterior oblique
III. Right anterior oblique
 I and III
90. Choose the statement that refers to positioning of patient in an anterosuperior projection of the
scapula.
 Arm is abducted at right angle to the body
91. Which of the following procedures is performed to dilate a stenotic vessel?
 Percutaneous angioplasty
92. Fluoroscopic imaging of the ileocecal valve is generally part of _____.
 A small bowel series
 93. Determine the central ray direction in a lateral position, Pawlow method, to demonstrate the cervico-
thoracic vertebrae
 Angled 3 to 5 º caudad to cervico-thoracic area
94. Determine the position of the gallbladder in asthenic patient.
 Inferior and medial
95. Determine the patients position in posteroanterior that will BEST demonstrate the sternoclavicular
joints.
 In a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to image receptor
96. Determine the abdomen position/projection that would BEST demonstrate the size and shape of liver
and kidneys.
 Anteroposterior
97. Which of the following will separate the radialhead, neck and tuberosity from superimposition in
examination of the ulna?
 Lateral oblique projection
98. Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding a true posteroanterior projection of the skull
with the central ray perpendicular to the image receptor?
I. The central ray exit at the nasion
II. The midsagittal plane is parallel to the image receptor
III. The petrous pyramids are within the orbits
 I and III
99. Determine the procedure that should be performed the rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical
spine.
 Horizontal beam-lateral
100. Identify the projection/position performed to demonstrate the liver.
 Posteroanterior axial (Benassi method)

CLUSTER 5

RADIOLOGICAL SCIENCES

1. The measure of signal processing electronics, transducer integrity and frequency dependent matching
layers is an evaluation of ________.
 Display characteristics
2. Determine the condition that shows a radiographic appearance of the gastrointestinal tract as having
numerous thicker folds of the stomach above diaphragm.
 Hiatal hernia
3. Survey meters can be used to _______.
 Locate source of radiation
4. Which fast pulse sequence is often used with three-dimensional imaging a generate T1-weighted
images?
 Echo planar imaging
5. Choose what is referred to as a spinal fusion.
 Spondylosyndesis
6. Point out the reason why, in radiation therapy, mutileaf collimators are different from custom-shaped
blocks.
  Multileaf collimators are easy to set-up, produce sharper penumbra, can be used
with any field size
7. Identify the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the elbow it.
 Spondylolisthesis
8. Identify which is an example of a radiosensitizer.
 Hydroxyurea
9. MOST magnetic resonance image are formed by _______.
 An equilibrium relaxation
10. In computed tomography, the Hounsfield unit is a measure of _______ density.
 Tissue

11. Point out a condition that is manifested by painful urination.

 Dysuria
12. The ring-shaped part of a computed tomography scanner is the _______.
 Gantry
13. Identify the type of fracture that usually affects the 2nd and 3rd cervical vertebrae resulting from acute
hyperextension of the head on the neck.
 Hangman’s
14. Which of the following is a type of RF sequence that uses a single RF pulse of less than 90 degrees
allowing for shorter repetition time (TR) and more rapid imaging.
 Gradient echo
15. Determine the half-life of cobalt-60 beam.
 5.25 years
16. In magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), smooth objects are represented by ______ frequencies.
 Low
17. Which of the following conditions shows presence of large amounts of gas and fluid in the small and
large intestines as the main radiographic appearance?
 Adynamic ileus
18. Point out the condition that would manifest aspiration pneumonia.
 Vomiting
19. Choose the meaning of the term gross tumor volume as defined by the International Commission on
Radiological Units (ICRU).
 Gross palpable or visible/demonstrable tumor extent and location of malignant
growth
20. Choose the isotopes that are suitable for performing radionuclide therapy.
I. I-131
II. P-32
III. Sm-153
 I, II and III
21. To form an axial image, the gathered data in computed tomography scan is assembled into a ______.
 Matrix
22. The attenuation of ultrasound in soft tissue is ______db/cm-MHz.
 1.0
23. Select the crystal that have been used in scintillation detectors in computed tomography.
 I. Ultrafast ceramic
II. Calcium tungstate
III. Gadolinium oxysulfide
 I, II and III
24. Which of the following are controls affecting the amplification of echoes?
I. Time gain curse
II. Compression
III. Output
 I and II
25. Select the conditions in which the percentage depth dose is dependent on.
 Distance, field size, cGy/MU
26. Select the thyroid carcinoma that can be evaluated using In-111 pentetreotide (OctreoScan).
 Medullary
27. Point out what would likely result to the near field length if a transducer element diameter is doubled.
 Doubled.
28. What is the typical energy window used for Imaging Technitium-99m(Tc99m) on gamma cameras?
 20%
29. What is the half-life of cobalt-60 beam?
 5.26 years
30. Determine the dose that is the result of electron contamination of the incident beam as well as the
backscattered radiation (both electron and photons) from the medium.
 Electron
31. Identify the type of coil that is directly placed on the patient and is used in the imaging of superficial
structures.
 Surface
32. Identify the principal reconstruction algorithm used in computed tomography scan.
 Filtered back projection
33. Determine the indications for computed tomography imaging of the musculoskeletal system in children.
I. Tumors
II. Infections
III. Complex fractures and deformities
 I and III
34. Determine what would BEST describe a magnetic resonance (MR) image.
 Static
35. Adjusting the compression on some ultrasound equipment will affect the ______ process?
 Dynamic
36. Point out the purpose of Computed Tomography imaging system.
I. To detect and measure radiation transmitted through the patient
II. To produce, shape and filter the x-ray beam
III. To convert x-rays to digital data
 I and III
37. Select the main potential for biological response from radiofrequency.
 Tissue heating
38. Identify the condition indicating inflammation of the small fluid-filled sacs that are located around joints
causing reduced friction.
 Bursitis
39. What are the advantages of neonatal cranial sonography versus computed tomography?
I. Can be done with a portable unit
II. No partial volume effect
III. No bone interference
 I, II and III
40. Which of the following would describe the measured x-ray transmissions in computed tomography
scan?
I. Ray sum
II. Raw data
III. Scan profile
 I, II and III
41. Which of the following radionuclide generator equilibrium relationship where the parent t1/2 is a factor
of 100-1000 times greater than the daughter t1/2?
 Secular
42. Identify what is referred to when later echoes are electronically amplified more than earlier echoes.
I. Time gain compensation (TGC)
II. Depth gain compensation (DGC)
III. Time varied gain (TVG)
 I, II and III
43. Choose an example of a non malignant tumor.
 Adenoma
44. Which gallbladder’s segment is ultrasonographically observable at its neck closest to the cystic duct?
 Hartmann’s pouch
45. The strength of the echo is related to the height of deflection on the oscilloscope for the ____ display.
 A-mode
46. Determine what affects the dose to the patient in computed tomography.
I. Slice thickness and pixel size
II. Kilovoltage peak and milliampere per second
III. Linear attenuation coefficient and noise
 I, II and III
47. Select the factor that determines the amount of reflection at the interface of two dissimilar material’s.
 Specific acoustic impedance
48. Identify the source from where Fourier transformation converts magnetic resonance (MR) signals.
 Spatial location domain to space
49. Choose the BEST modality considered for staging the extent of tumor in the breast.
 Magnetic Resonance Imaging
50. Determine the thyroid carcinoma that can be effectively detected and staged through a whole-body
radioiodine scintigraphy.
 Papillary
51. Point out the size of pituitary tumor that can be considered as a macroadenoma.
 More than 1 cm
52. Identify the type of detectors usually used as dose calibrators.
 Ionization chambers
53. The attenuation of cerrobend is approximately _____ lead.
 The same as
54. Identify the factor that influences the character of a magnetic resonance imaging pixel.
 Proton density
55. Determine the system that aims to plan and deliver a uniform dose (±10% from the prescribed or stated
dose) throughout the volume to be treated.
 Patterson-Parker
56. Point out the type of stroke that does NOT belong to the group.
 Hemorrhagic
57. Which organ should the sonographer scan if uterine malformations are seen?
 Kidneys
58. The profile of the ultrasound beam is primarily controlled by the ________.
 Diameter of piezo electric crystals
59. Determine the ratio of pressure to particle velocity at a given point within the ultrasonic field.
 Impedance
60. Point out where Tc-99m MDP (methylendiphosphonate) localize within the body.
 Osteoblast
61. In an isocentric treatment technique, it is routine to normalize the dose at _____.
 Isocentric
62. Which of the following refers to a treatment-planning computerized tomography scan?
 Patient is never given contrast
63. The desired effect of Iodine-131 administration for thyroid cancer is ______.
 To reduce chance for hyperthyroidism
64. Determine which of the following statements refers to isocenter.
 Point around which the source of beam rotates.
65. Which modality will BEST demonstrate rupture of the spleen as a result of blunt abdominal trauma?
 Ultrasound
66. Which type of fracture can occur from falling on an outstretched hand involving the distal portion of the
radius?
 Colles
67. Which of the following is a description of a well-defined structure with increased echogenicity?
 Solid tumor
68. What is the gold standard in evaluating and diagnosing renal abscess?
 Computed Tomography
69. Determine what is referred to as the “colloid shift” in a nuclear medicine liver scanning.
 Increased uptake of colloid in spleen and bone marrow relative to liver
70. Presence of filling defect within the pulmonary artery or as an abrupt cutoff indicating complete
obstruction of a pulmonary vessel is a manifestation of _____.
 Pulmonary Embolism
71. Identify the system that is PRIMARILY used for single and double plane implants in brachytherapy.
 Paris
72. Point out what is referred to as range of computed tomography numbers.
  Dynamic range
73. A clay-shoveler’s fracture involved which area of the spine?
 Lower cervical and upper thoracic
74. Select the ultrasound display sign that is in bowel intussusceptions.
 Target
75. Determine the maximal allowed exposure to other members of the public from a patient who has
received an outpatient I-131 therapy.
 1 mSv
76. Select the conditions/organs for scintigraphy that will use Tc99m labeled RBC’s.
I. Hemangioma
II. Meckel’s diverticulum
III. Gastrointestinal bleeding
 I, II and III
77. The following may cause echogenic bile within the gallbladder lumen:
I. Prolonged fasting
II. Emyema
III. Hemobilia
 I, II and III
78. Which term is defined as the interruption of blood flow to vital organs or lack of the ability of body
tissues to use oxygen and nutrients needed?
 Ischemia
79. Determine the period in which a spin echo appears.
 Sometime after a 90 º radiofrequency pulse
80. Determine the gyromagnetic ratio of fluorine-19 in MHz/T.
 40.1
81. The MOST sensitive and specific noninvasive method of diagnosing mitral stenosis is ____.
 Echocardiography
82. Determine the modality of choice in the demonstration of intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts in
jaundiced patients.
 Nuclear medicine
83. The presence of fibropurulent fluid in the pleural space indicates which of the following conditions?
 Hydrothorax
84. Point out how image reconstruction time is defined.
 From end of scanning to image appearance
85. Identify the component in a computed tomography that permits the gantry frame to rotate continuously
allowing helical scanning.
 Slip ring
86. Identify the system that is PRIMARILY used for single and double plane implants in brachytherapy.
 Paris
87. Select the fixed source-skin-distance (SSD) technique wherein the dose is routinely normalized.
 At dmax
88. In computed tomography, a decrease in motion artifacts is caused by ______.
 Increase in matrix
89. Determine the periodic linearity check with respect to the dose calibrator quality control.
  Quarterly
90. Which of the following radiograph projections is employed if the patient is too ill to stand cases of
pneumoperitoneum?
 Left lateral decubitus, patient on left side
91. Which of the following refers to the relative comparison of x-ray attenuation of a voxel tissue to an
equal volume of water?
 Hounsfield unit
92. In computed tomography, poor sampling of the signal to be digitized by the analog to digital converted
will result in a/an ______ artifact.
 Aliasing
93. An epithelial tumor that grows as a projecting mass on the skin or from an inner mucous membrane is _.
 A papilloma
94. Choose the medium that has the LOWEST velocity of sound.
 Air
95. Select which is referred to in a reduction of available space in the spinal column causing compression of
the neural elements.
 Spinal stenosis
96. Point out the least obstacle to the transmission of ultrasound.
 Blood
97. Determine the coincidence resulting from two photons detected at the same time but originate from two
independent events in a positron emission tomography (PET)
 Scatter
98. In computed tomography, slice thickness can be measures by _____.
 Uniform water phantom
99. Which of the following is the proper sequence for producing a computed tomography image?
 Data acquisition, image reconstruction, image postprocessing
100. Point out the mechanism of uptake of Tc-99m HMPAO (hexamethylpropylamineoxime).
 Active Transport
 CLUSTER 2

IMAGE PRODUCTION AND EVALUATION

1. This explains the theory of formation of the latent image.

 Gurney-Mott Theory
2. The emulsion layer of film is _______ um thick.
 3 to 5
3. What causes grid cutoff artifacts?
 Improper patient positioning
4. Base relative screen speed is equal to ______.
 400
5. Panchromatic film is defined as _____.
 Receptive to all colors
6. What is the time and temperature required for developing the film in an automatic processor?
 85 for 20 seconds
7. Cleaning of film viewer box should be _______.
 Weekly
8. What chemistry acts as a buffer and source of alkali?
 Carbonate
9. Which is the part of the cassette for easy opening and closing?
I. Locks
II. Hinged
 II and III
10. How long should lead apparel be checked for protective integrity?
 Weekly
11. Which of the following views uses an intra-oral film?
 Mandibular symphysis
12. In radiology, a film critique may be considered as ______.
 Technical evaluation of a radiograph
13. What is the common cause of inadequate agitation?
I. Failure of circulation pumps
II. Clogging of filters
III. Air lock in the lines

 I,II and III

14. Which of the following acts to bind the different layers of the x-ray film?
 Emulsion
15. Which of the following controls the swelling and softening of the x-ray film?
 Hardener
16. The average replenishment rate for fixer is approximately _______ cc/film.
 100-110
17. Quantum detection efficiency is also referred as the ______.
 X-ray absorption
18. What is the clearing time in a 90-second automatic processor?
 20-25
19. What is the traditional development time in manual processing?
 5 minutes
20. The degree of the hotness and coldness of the solution is ______.
 Temperature
21. It is recommended that the processing solutions be changed every _____ months.
3
22. When sodium sulfite is used as an x-ray processing chemical, it is a/an _____.
 Preservative
23. Fresh x-ray film should be stored at approximately ______.
 60-70 degrees F at 50-60 relative humidity.
24. What agent is used to minimize fog and maintain chemical balance between fresh and seasoned
chemicals?
 Potassium Bromide/Restrainer
25. Which of the following does NOT apply when you compare the base of polyester and the base of
cellulose triacetate ?
 Non flammable
26. Which of the following is NOT included in the replenishment system?
 Heat exchangers
27. The height of the darkroom safelight from loading bench should be ______.
 130 cm
28. The film that is sensitive to fluorescent light is ______.
 Screen type
29. Remnant x-rays are those that _____ patient.
 Exit
30. What kind of fog causes overdevelopment?
 Chemical
31. Which of the following is the oldest method of silver recovery?
 Electrolytic
32. A double-emulsion films contain the following.
 Wider latitude
33. One of the most common causes of wet film emerging from an automatic processor is ____.
 General lack of hardener in developer or fixer
34. Screens are cleaned ______.
 According to the manufacturer’s specification
35. What part of an automatic processor regulates the temperature?
 Thermostat
36. Which if the following is/are the function/s of the fixer?
I. Undeveloped silver halide crystals
II. To shrink and harden the gelaine
III. To neutralize the developer
 I, II and III
37. The pH is the qualitative measurement of the acidity and alkalinity of the solution. The abbreviation
pH stands for ______.
 Power of hydrogen
38. The average developer immersion time in an automatic 90 second processor is approximately ____.
 20
39. The essential ingredients of the fixer are ________.
 Acid, harder, hypo and preservative
40. Artifacts can be created by means of ____.
 All of the choices
41. Which of the following acts as a neutralizer during film development?
 Acetic acid
42. Which tool is used to identify poor screen contact?
 Wire mesh
43. What is the recommended tme in months that the solution be dischrarge?
 6
44. Which of the following is/are causes of dirty intensifying screens?
I. Crinkles
II. Finger mark
III. Crescent mark
 II and III
45. What are the causes of poor screen contact?
I. Warping of the cassette
II. Wrinkled screen
III. Cracked cassette frames
 I, II and III
46. Film should be stored at _____ degrees C.
 10-21
47. Which of the following refers to a frame-like film container used as a mounting for intensifying
screens?
 Cassette
48. Which of the following are types of processing artifacts?
I. Roller marks
II. Static marks
III. Chemical fog
 I and III
49. Agitation upon immersion of the film in the developer
 Produce uniform development
50. What material is used for cassettes to reduce attenuation up to 50 and permits a corresponding
reduction in patient dose?
 Bakelite
51. In order to overcome magnification when employing a 6-in OFD air gap for chest radiography, one
should use in FFD of ______ feet.
 10 or more
52. Which of the following technique would produce the greatest amount of radiographic density?
 300 mA, 2/5 sec
53. The density on a radiograph can be doubled by ______.
 Increasing the kV by 15
54. Ensuring good screen-film contact also ensures reduced _____.
 Blur
55. When a technologist is comparing two radiographs of the chest, one is taken with a 72- in FFD and the
other with a 50-in FFD (and a compensated technique), the radiograph with the 50-in FFD would
exhibit?
 Greater definition
56. The primary reason why distortion usually occur because subject anatomy is ____.
 Inclined
57. A technique of 200 mA, ¼ sec has been used to produce a film of satisfactory density. If the
milliamperage was changed to 500, the time needed to obtain the same milliamperage, all other factors
remaining constant, would be _______ second
 1/10
58. When a 6-in air gap is used in chest radiography, which of the following statements would be true?
 A 72-in FFD is needed for true lung and heart size
59. Radiographic noise increases with an increase in which of the following?
 Image receptor distance
60. The most important factor which affect the film sensitometry include
 All of the choices
61. Which if the following factors will DIRECTLY influence recorded detail?
I. Object-film distance
II. Focus-film distance
 I and II
62. The silver halide latent image is produced by _______.
 X-ray, light, or other forms of radiation
63. A grid ratio is determined by the relationship of the
 The height to the width of the strip
64. Using a grid upside down will cause ____.
 Severe grid cut off in the periphery of the film
65. The use of a grid will protect the ______.
 Film from scattered radiation
66. If the milliampere selector were set at 1000mA, what exposure time would be required to produce 80
mAs?
 2/25 sec
67. Which of the following techniques would be exhibit the GREATES density?
 300 mA, 1/3 sec, 80 kV, 12:1 grid
68. Which of the following is the MOST opaque?
 Bone
69. The PRIMARY function of filters in an x-ray machine is to reduce the _______.
 Patient’s exposure to low-energy x-rays
70. The higher the grid ratio, the greater the _______.
 Clean up of the grid
71. X-rays emerge from the patient in the direction of the image receptor is considered to which type of x-
rays?
 Transmitted x-rays
72. Which of the following factors does NOT affect subject contrast
 mAs
73. Which of the following factors statements relating to “artifacts” is FALSE?
 Gray-white scum occurs from incomplete washing
74. Radiographic contrast is DIRECTLY influenced by _____.
 Kilovoltage
75. To maintain the same density when changing a non-grid technique to utilize an 8:1 grid, the
technologist must make which of the following changes to milliampere seconds?
 Double
76. The 15 % rule in radiography indicates that _______.
 To reduce the exposure (mAs) to one-half at any level of kV, add 15% more
kilovoltage
77. Subject contrast is chiefly influenced by the ________.
 Kilovoltage
78. The presence of ascites will result in an increase of _______.
 Scattered radiation
79. Which technique would yield the shortest scale contrast
 100 mAs, 60 kV, 10:1 grid, medium-speed screens
80. Beam restricting device.
 A PBL
81. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
 Solution in manual processing has a longer solution life than of the automatic.
82. Which of the following sets of technical factors would produce the shortest scale of contrast?
 200 mA, 1/10 sec, 60 kV, 12:1 grid, large focal spot
83. Which of the following has an effect on the production of secondary and scattered radiation?
I. Thickness of the part being x-rayed
II. Density of the tissue being x-rayed
III. Kilovoltage
 I, II and III
84. Which of the following radiographic screen system generally controls the resolution?
I. size of the intensifying screen crystal layer
II. size of the silver halide crystal
III. film graininess
 I, II and III
85. A technique of 100 mA, ½ sec at 80 kV is converted to 100 mA, 1/8 sec. in order to maintain the same
density, what would be the new kilovoltage?
 92 kV
86. Which of the following can be done to REDUCE absorption blur?
 Patient suspended breathing
87. On collimatingto the area of interest, x-ray exposure must be ______.
 No change
88. Which of the following conditions can produced a fog-like image on a finished radiograph?
I. Improper safelights
II. A low ratio grid with high kV technique
III. Improper collimation
 I and III
89. An adjustment in the kV from 60 to 80 will produce ______.
I. An increased in latitude
II. Less patient absorption
III. Shorter wavelength
 I and III
90. Which of the following is considered as the simplest type of grid?
 Linear grid
91. A Potter-Bucky diaphragm is known as a ______
 Grid in motion during exposure
92. How often should the collimation be evaluated?
 Semi-annually
93. Which of the following techniques would produce the LEAST density?
 200 mA, 1/8 sec, 75 kVp, 60-in SID
94. FSB can be minimized by ______.
 Reducing OID
95. Definition is impaired by ____
I. Increase OFD
II. Decreased FFD
III. Motion
 I, II and III
96. Which of the following changes would have dramatic effect on radiographic contrast?
 Changing the kilovoltage from 86 kV to 82 kV
97. The PRIMARY function of filters in an x-ray machine is to ______.
 Reduce the patient’s exposure to low-energy x-rays
98. A technique of 100 mA, 1/20 sec at 60 kV was used to adequately expose a fractured forearm. What
technique would be best to use after a cast has been applied?
 100 mA, 1/20 sec, 75 kV (+ 15% kV)
99. Changing the grid with a higher grid ratio will result in a/an _______.
 Decrease patient dose
100. The original exposure factors are 200 mA, 86 kV, and 1/2 seconds. What would the new exposure time
in second if the kilovoltage is reduced to 80?
 3/4
RAD POSITIONING

1. Typical clubfoot shows deviation from the normal alignment of the foot in relation to the weight-bearing axis of the
leg. Classify the deviation resulting in the elevation of the medial border of the foot.
- Supination
2. Point out the positioning technique employed if patient is placed in recumbent position and the central rat us
directed horizontally.
- Decubitus
3. Determine the central ray direction in an (plantodorsal) projection for the demonstration of the calcaneus.
- Directed 40 degrees cephalad
4. Determine the central ray direction to demonstrate the sacrum in an anteroposterior projection.
- 15 degrees cephalad
5. Various authors have described the degree of flexion of the knee to demonstrate the patella and patella femoral
joint in tangential projection. Point out the degree if flexion of the knee as recommended by Fodor, Malott, and
Merchant.
- 45
6. Selected the anatomic structure that is NOT clearly shown in an oblique projection of the lumbosacral vertebrae.
- Intervertebral foramen
7. Point out the position/projection in radiography of the chest that required the ribs posterior to the vertebral column
should superimpose as an evaluation criterion.
- Lateral
8. Various authors have described the degree of flexion of the knee to demonstrate the patella and patellofemoral
joint in tangential projection. Choose the degree of flexion of the knee as recommended by Laurin for easier
demonstration of patellar subluxation.
- 20
9. Plain radiographs of the facial bones should always be made with the patient in the _____ position if possible.
1. Erect
2. Supine
3. Lateral decubitus
4. Anterior axial
10. Point out the radiographic position/projection that can BEST demonstrate arthritic changes of the knees.
- Anteroposterior erect
11. The success of performing schuller method in a submentovertical projection to demonstrate the cranial base
depends on placing as nearly parallel with the plane of the cassette as possible the _____ line.
- Infraorbitomeatal
12. Identify the anatomic structure that an oblique position of the cervical spine will demonstrate.
- Intervertebral foramina
13. Determine the decubitus position with the patient lying prone recumbent on the radiographic table and the central
ray directed horizontally to the iliac crest.
- Ventral
14. Trauma patient MOST often cannot be properly positioned for the desired radiographic examination. A reverse
waters if performed if patient cannot be positioned in the waters method. Point out the statement that s attributed
to a reverse waters.
- Head is extended to position the mentomeatal line perpendicular to cassette
15. Point out the statement that is TRUE in a posteroanterior position of the mandible to better demonstrate the
mandibular rami.
- Central ray is angled cephalad
16. Choose the position/projection of the abdomen that would BEST demonstrate the size and shape of the liver and
kidney.
- Anteroposterior
17. Choose the statement that is TRUE in tangential projection of the zygomatic arch.
- The central ray is directed perpendicular to the infraorbitomeatal line
18. Point out the COMMON ROUTINE reference for and axiolateral projection of the hip in a Danelus Miller method.
 - Cross-table lateral
19. Choose the radiographic position/projection that would BEST demonstrate the right axillary ribs.
- Left anterior oblique
20. Point out the central ray direction in Pawlow method to demonstrate the cervico-thoracic vertebrae in lateral
position.
- Angled 3 to 6 degrees caudad to cervico-thoracic area
21. Determine the beam centering reference in an ateropsterior projection of the wrist with the central ray directed
perpendicular.
- Midcarpal area
22. Determine the degree of angulations and direction of the central ray in an right posterior oblique position to
demonstrate the cervical vertebrae if the patient’s body cannot be rotated,
- 45 toward the right
23. Distinguish the anatomical structure/condition demonstrated in a tangential projection of the carpus.
- Palmar aspect of the greater multangular
24. Identify the anatomic structure that will be demonstrated in a posteroanterior projection of the wrist in ulnar
flexion.
- Navicular not foreshortened
25. Choose the projection/ position utilized to show the styloid process in a Cahoon method.
- Posteroanterior axial
26. Determine the PRIMARY anatomic structure of the knee that is demonstrated in an oblique axial projection emplying
Kuchendorf method.
- Patella
27. Distinguish what is attributed to as ‘swimmers’ view method for demonstration of the cervicothoracic spine.
- Pawlow
28. Select the maneuver that will show femoral neck in a anteroposterior projection of the femur
- Foot inverted 15 degrees
29. Determine the degree of flexion of the elbow in a Coyle method to demonstrate the coronoid process
- 80
30. Point out the positioning term applied to describe the entry direction of x-ray beam travel.
- Projection
31. Determine the bone of the carpal canal that can BEST be shown in a 20 degree angulation of the wrist employing
Stecher position.
- Scaphoid
32. Identify the method recommended for the inclusion of a dorsoplantar axial projection for congenital clubfoot
examination.
- Kandel
33. Distinguish the anatomic structure that will NOT be demonstrated in an anteroposterior projection of the forearm.
- Superimposed radius and ulna at their distal ends.
34. Point out the radiographic position/projection that will BEST demonstrate the cuboif, sinus tarsi, and tuberosity of
the fifth metatarsal in an x-ray examination of the foot.
- Medial oblique
35. In a Schuller’s full basal projection of the cranium, the central ray directed perpendicular ______.
- To the infraobitomeatal line
36. Distinguish the structure/s demonstrated in Cleaves method in an anteroposterior axial projection.
- Femoral necks
37. Choose the projection/method that would BEST demonstrate the cervical intervertebral foramina.
- Oblique
38. Select the paranasal sinuses that are demonstrated in a lateral projection.
A. All four paranasal sinuses
B. Sphenoid and frontal sinuses
C. Maxillary and ethmoid sinuses
D. Frontal sinuses only
39. Point out the projection/method that will show bilateral demonstration of petrous pyramids, mastoids air cells and
bony labyrinths.
- Anteroposterior axial (Towne)
40. Identify the projection/position that will show the radial head, neck, and tuberosity free from superimposition in a
radiographic examination of the ulna.
- Lateral oblique
41. Determine the range of the degree of angulations of the central ray in an anteroposterior axial projection to
demonstrate to cervical spine.
- 15-20
42. Determine the degree of angulations and direction of the central ray applied when modifying the posteroanterior
axial projectionof the skull to demonstrate the superior orbital fissures.
- 20-25 caudad
43. Identify the radiographic examination that requires close-beam restriction
- Sella turcica- latera
44. Point out the method to demonstrate suspected acromioclavicular subluxation or dislocation employing both
anteroposterior and posterioanterior axial oblique projections.
- Alexander
45. Identify the statement that is attributed to a radiographic examination of the hand in a posterior projection
- Elbow flexed 90 degrees with the palmar surface down
46. Determine the method demonstrate the mastoid that employs an axiolateral projection with 15 degrees caudad
angulation of the beam.
- Henschen
47. Identify the method performed to demontsrate the cervical spine in an anteroposterior axial oblique
projection,positioning the midsagittal line at 45 degrees with the central ray directed 15 degrees caudad enetering
midway between the outer canthud and external auditory meatus.
- kasabach
48. Identify the radiographic projection/position/technique used in a kurzbauer method in an x-ray examination to
demonstrate sternoclavicular articulations.
- Axiolateral
49. Determine the statement that is NOT included in the radiographic evauation criteria for a posteroanterior projection
of the hand.
- Close metacarpophalengeal and interphalengeal joints
50. Point out the statement that is attributed to a radiographic examination of the wrist in an anteroposterior axial
projection to demonstrate the first carpometacarpal joint.
- a radial shift position of the hand.
51. Determine the central ray direction in radiography of the cranium when the frontal bone is of primary importance in
posteroanterior/posteroanterior axial projection.
- Perpendicular to the nasion
52. Identify the method that suggests a 15 degree caudad angulations of the central ray in an axiolateral projection to
demonstrate the petromastoid portion
- Henschen
53. Determine the radiographic projection that is NOT employed to demonstrate the zygomatic arches.
- Parietoacanthical-Waters
54. Select the evaluation criterion that is TRUE to a posteroanterior projection of the wrist.
- Show the distal radius and ulna and proximal half of metacarpals
55.
56. Select the radiographic wrist position that can be used to demonstrate anterior or posterior fractures displacement
- Lateromedial
57. An anteroposterior axial projection to demonstrate the lumbosacral and sacroiliac joints positions the patient in the
supine recumbent with the central ray angled cephalad directed through the lumbosacral.
- 30-35
58. Typical clubfoot shows deviations from the normal alignment of the foot in relation to the weight-bearing axis of the
leg. Identify the deviation resulting in plantar flexion and inversion of the calcaneus.
 - Equinus
59. Determine the arm rotation when positioning patient in an anteroposterior projection of the shoulder with the hand
supinated.
- Humerus n external rotation.
60. Point out the ROUTINE projections in a mammography examinations.
- Craniocaudal and mediolateral oblique
61. Determine the radiographic position/projection of the wrist that would show a radiograph with the pisiform
separated from adjacent carpal bones and a more distinct image of the triquetrium and hamate.
- Anteroposterior oblique- medial rotation
62. Determine the degree of angulation and direction of the central in an axial projection of the clavicle with the patient
in posteroanterior position.
- 15-30 caudad
63. Choose the procedure that will RULE OUT subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine.
- Horizontal beam- lateral
64. Identify the positioning principle applied in a TRUE lateral position of the skull.
- Interpupillary line perpendicular to the image receptor
65. Point out the radiographic positioning/projection for demonstrating the sesamoid bones of the foot FREE of
superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges.
- Tangential metatarsals/toes
66. Various authors have described the degree of flexion of the knee to demonstrate the patella and patellofemoral
joint in tangential projection. Select the range of flexion of the knee as recommended by Hughston.
- 50-60
67. Point out the anatomic structure of the elbow joint that is BEST demonstrated with the patient seated at the end of
x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, central ray directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint.
- Coronoid process
68. Point out the reason why the patient’s chin is slightly raised up and positioned on the chin rest of the chest stand
during a chest x-ray examination.
- To avoid superimposition of the apices
69. In patients with congenital dislocation of the hip, Martz and Taylor recommended two anteroposterior projections
of the pelvis to show the relationship of the femoral head to acetabulum. Distinguish the purpose of the projection
with the central ray perpendicular to the pubic symphysis
- To detect any lateral or superior displacement of femoral head.
70. Determine the statement that refers to a chest radiographic examination to demonstrate the pulmonary apices with
the patient in the anteroposterior position.
- Central ray is directed 15-20 degreed cephalad
71. Distinguish the BEST patient’s position to demonstrate the sternoclavicular joints in a posteroanterior projection.
- Slightly oblique position, affected side adjacent to image receptor.
72. Point out the patient positioning to demonstrate the apophyseal articulations in a radiographic examination of the
thoracic spine.
- Coronal plane at 70 degrees to the image receptor
73. Choose the bony radiographic landmark that is in the same transverse plane as the symphysis pubis.
- Prominence of the greater trochanter.
74. Determine the position/projection recommended by Oppenheimer to examine the thoracic zygapophyseal joints.
- Posteroanterior oblique.
75. Identify the radiographic position/projection that will demonstrate the coronoid process in profile.
- Medial oblique elbow
76. Choose the skull position/projection that will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoid sinuses, atlas, and odontoid
process.
- Submentovertical
77. Determine the radiographic projection/position that would BEST demonstrate a posterior displacement or tibial
fracture.
- Lateral
78. Various authors have described the degree of flexion of the knee to demonstrate the patella and patellofemoral
joint in tangential projection but they agreed on same beam direction. Distinguish the COMMON degree of cephalad
angulations of the beam determined by these various authors.
- 45
79. Select the limb positioning in a posteroanterior oblique projection of the knee that would BEST demonstrate the
proximal tibiofibular articulation.
- 45 degrees medial rotation
80. Choose the degree of central angulation in a West point inferosuperior axial projection of the shoulder joint.
- 25 anteriorly and 25 medially
81. Distinguish the anatomic structure demonstrated in a Twining method.
- Cervicothoracic region
82. Point out the range of the degree of body rotation necessary when positioning patient to demonstrate the
sternoclavicular joint.
- 10-15
83. Determin the patient breathing maneuver employed during x-ray exposure to BEST visualize the lower ribs.
- Expiration
84. Choose the radiographic method performed in a posteroanterior axial oblique projection to BEST demonstrate the
fovea capitis, particularly the superoposterior walls of acetabulum
- Teufel
85. Distinguish to radiographic procedure performed to BEST demonstrate hallux valgus, which is a lateral deviation of
the great at the metatarsophalengeal joint.
- An anteroposterior axial weight bearing of the foot.
86. Determine the degree of angulations and direction of the central ray employed to demonstrate the inferior orbital
fissure,
- 20-25
87. Select the position of the elbow that would BEST project the coronoid process free of superimposition.
- Internal oblique
88. Choose the procedure performed to demonstrate “bow” leg and “knock” knee.
- Weight-bearing anteroposterior projection
89. Identify the anatomic structure demonstrate in an axial projection of the knee.
- Intercondyloid fossa
90. Point out the knee position/projection that would BEST demonstrate suprapatellar effusion.
- Lateral
91. Identify the position/projection/method that is NOT employed for the demonstration of the dens when it is not
possible to perform an anteroposterior open-mouth projection
- Lateral- Law
92. Determine the radiographic projection that will demonstrate an oblique frontal projection of the facial bones, orbits,
maxillae and zygomatic arches.
- Parietoacanthial
93. Choose the radiographic reference of the skull that is used as the baseline in an axial projection of the nasal bones.
- Glabelloalveolar
94. Select the projection with corresponding degree of angulations and direction of the central ray that will
demonstrate an open intervertebral disk spaces of the cervical spine.
- Anteroposterior with 15-20 cephalad
95. Point out the radiographic method in an anteroposterior apical oblique axial projection that will BEST demonstrate a
scapulohumeral dislocation of the shoulder.
- Garth
96. Determine the central ray direction employed to demonstrate the pelvic outlet view of male patients.
- 20-35 degrees cephalad
97. Determine the central ray direction in the examination of the cranium in a posteroanterior/posterior axial projection
to demonstrate the superior orbital fissures.
- Angle 20-25 degrees to the nasion
98. Point out the degree of angulations and direction of the central ray for the forefoot and hindfoot in an
anteroposterior axial projection, weight-bearing composite method to demonstrate the entire foot free from the
shadows of the distal ends of tibia and fibula.
- 15 posteriorly and 25 anteriorly
99. Identify the statement that is TRUE to an anteroposterior axial projection to demonstrate the temporomandibular
articulations.
- Condyles of mandible and mandibular fossae of temporal bones are demonstrated.
100. In an axiolateral projection, Friedman method of the hip, the central ray is directed cephalad to the femoral neck
at an angle of ____ degrees.
- 35
101. Distinguish the anatomic structure demonstrated in a “serendipity” view
- Sternoclavicular dislocations
102. Point out the anatomic structure demonstrated in a radiographic examination of the lower limb employing
Merchant method.
- Patelofemoral joint.
103. Determine the anatomic structure that are BETTER demonstrate in the anteroposterior radiograph than in the
posterior radiograph of the wrist.
- Carpal interspaces
104. Point out the anatomic structure shown in the resultant image in a transthoracic lateral projection employing
Lawrence method for the proximal humerus.
- Proximal humerus outline demonstrated through the ribs and lung fields.
105. Select the MOST likely positions/projetions to be the correct routine for radiographic examination of the
forearm.
- Anteriorposterior and lateral
106. Which of the following projections would BEST demonstrate a lateral deviation of the nasal septum?
- Parietoacanthial- Water’s method
107. Choose the patient position that will obtain functional studies of the cervical spine.
- Lateral position while flexing and extending the head
108. Determine the degree of obliquity that will properly position the cervical spine for an oblique position.
- 45 °
109. Determine the central ray direction in a lateral projection of the nasal bones.
- 3/4 inch distal to the nasion
110. Determine the position of the palm of the hand in a routine lateral projection of the elbow.
- In lateral position
111. Identify the rotation required of the leg and foot in a medial oblique position of the foot.
- Medially
112. Point out the degree of flexion of the knee when positioning the knee in lateral on patient with new or unhealed
patellar fracture.
- Not more than 10 °
113. Identify the position/projection that would BEST demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation
- 45 ° internal rotation
114. Determine the technique that the Radiologic Technologist may employ to help obliterate the rib shadows and
vascular markings when obtaining a lateral position of the thoracic vertebra.
- Employ soft breathing technique
115. Identify the structure demonstrated in May method
- Zygoma
116. Select the projection that would BEST demonstrate talofibular joint.
- Medial oblique
117. Choose among the following the essential position in radiography of the paranasal sinuses.
- Erect
118. Choose the position/projection that will visualize the talocalcaneal joint.
- Plantodorsal projectio of Os calcis
119. Determine the projection of the foot that would BEST demonstrate the longitudinal arch.
 - Lateral weight-bearing
120. Determine the position of the cassete when performing an axiolateral (horizontal beam) projection of the hip.
- Top edge slightly above the iliac crest
121. Determine the structure BEST demonstrate in a skull anteroposterior axial projection (Townes method) with the
central ray directed 30 ° caudad to the orbitomeatal line passing midway between the external auditory meati.
- Occipital bone
122. Select the BEST technique to control patient voluntary motion.
- Careful explanation of procedure
123. Determine the chest examination that should be obtained on patient having traumatic injuries to rule out air-
fluid levels.
- Perform a dorsal decubitus lateral chest projection
124. Choose BEST projection/position that will demonstrate the carpal scaphoid bone
- Ulnar flexion/deviation
125. The left sacroiliac joint is placed perpendicular o the image receptor when the patient is in a _____ position.
- 25 ° to 30 ° anterior oblique
126. Which of the following position/projections will BEST demonstrate subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation?
- Posteroanterior oblique scapular Y
127. Which of the following positions/projections will BEST demonstrate the sinus tarsi, cuboid and tuberosity of the
5th metatarsal.
- Medial oblique
128. Identify the projection of the ankle that would BEST demonstrate the distal tibiofibular joint.
- 45 ° medial oblique
129. Determine the position of the patient to obtain an AP projection of the right ilium.
- Left side is elevated 40 °
130. Select the position that would BEST demonstrate the left apophyseal articulations of the lumbar vertebra.
- Left posterior oblique
131. Which of the following would BEST demonstrate blowout fracture of the orbit?
- Parietoacanthial projection- Waters method
132. Choose the degree of obliquity of patient position performed to demonstrate the glenoid fossa in profile
- 45 ° affected side down
133. Identify the structure demonstrated if the radiographic image indicated an “scotty-dog sign” in an oblique
position of the lumbar spine.
- Articular processes
134. In addition to a posteroanterior oblique projection of the hand, Lane,Kennedy and Kuschner recommended
which of the following projections to better demonstrate severe metacarpal deformities or fracture.
- Reverse oblique.
135. Select the position/projection that requires placing the shoulder in internal rotation
- Lateral humerus
136. Select the BEST choice for a right shoulder examination to rule out fracture.
- Anteroposterior and scapular Y
137. Identify the structure demonstrated with the patient in a 25 ° right posterior oblique position, central ray
entering 1 inch medial elevated anterior superior iliac spine.
- Left sacroiliac joint
138. Point out the MOST commonly employed projection to demonstrate vertical fracture of the patella.
- Settegast (Tangential)
139. In which of the following wrist projections will better demonstrate the carpal interspaces.
- Anteroposterior
140. Which Broden method would BEST demonstrate the anterior the anterior portion of the posterior facet of the
subtalar joint in 40-degree angulation of the beam.
- AP axial oblique in medial rotation
141. In patients with suspected fracture or dislocation of the shoulder, the arm and hand should be rotated in ______
position.
- Neutral
142. Which of the following projections will demonstrate the right zygapophyseal joint of the thoracic spine?
- Right anterior oblique
143. In a rotator cuff series of the shoulder joint, what structure is demonstrated if the humerus id positioned in
external rotation.
- Subscapularis tendon insertion
144. Select the reverse method for Danelius-Miller modification of the hip.
- Leonard-George
145. Identify the central ray direction in an anterior profile projection of the petrous pyramids with the midsagital
plane positioned 45 degrees to the film.
- 10 degrees caudad
146. Determine the central ray direction in a posterior axial projection of the skull for demonstration of superior
orbital fissures.
- 20 to 25 degrees caudad
147. Choose the central ray direction in a Kemp-Harer method to demonstrate the jugular foramina.
- 20 degrees posteriorly
148. Determine the central ray direction in Lysholm method to demonstrate the petrosmastoid portion.
- 35 deg caudad
149. Identify the projection employed by Zanelli to demonstrate the tempomandibular joint.
- Oblique transfacial
150. Point out the structure demonstrated in a modified Titterington method.
- Zygomatic arch
151. Which of the following method/projections is performed to demonstrate the sphenoid strut?
- Hough (parietoorbital oblique)
152. Which of the following techniques is performed to obliterae overlapping of the vascular marking and ribs.
- Quiet breathing
153. Identify the radiographic method employed to demonstrate any abnormal motion of the sacroiliac joints.
- Chamberlain
154. Choose the radiographic method performed to demonstrate joint mice.
- Camp coventry
155. To demonstrate the humerus if the arm cannot be rotated or abducted, which of the following id performed?
- Transthoracic lateral
156. Determine the position of the humerus in an antero-posterior projection of the shoulder to demonstrate the
humeral head in profile.
- External rotation
157. Determine the shoulder rotation performed to demonstrate the humerus in a true lateral position.
- Anteroposterior with internal rotation
158. Select the central ray direction in a Teufel method to demonstrate the acetabulum.
- 12 °cephalad
159. Determine the structure that would BEST demonstrated in an axial projection of the knee.
- Intercondyloid fossa
160. Determine the beam direction in an axial plantodorsal projection of the calcaneus
- 40 degrees
161. Select the articulating surface that would BEST be demonstrated in a medial oblique of the ankle in an
Isherwood method.
- Middle tallar
162. Identify the method employed to project the hypoglossal canal in an axiolateral oblique projection.
- Miller
163. The central ray in a posteroanterior projection of the hand is directed perpendicular and centered to the _____.
- Head of 3rd metacarpal bone.
164. Which of the following radiographic examination requires inclusion of proximal and distal ends of the
extremities?
- Long bone examination
165. Which of the following methods requires simultaneous exposure of both hands in an anteroposterior oblique
projection to show early signs of rheumatoid arthritis?
- Norgaard
166. Which of the following will avoid radiographic image rotation distortion in a bilateral examination of hands and
feet.
- Carpal canal
167. Select the structure demonstrated in a tangential projection, Gaynor-Hart method.
- Carpal canal
168. Determine the projection/position that would BEST demonstrate an anterior and posterior displacement of
fracture fragments and foreign bodies of the hand.
169. Point out the position of the hand in an anteroposterior projection of the elbow.
- Supinated.
170. Point out the structure that would BEST be demonstrated in a kuchendorf method of the extremeties.
- Patella
171. What is the central beam direction in an anteroposterior projection of the shoulder?
- Coracoid process
172. Identify the palpable bony landmark that is BEST utilized in radiography of the pelvis.
- Pubic symphysis
173. Select the position/projection performed to demonstrate the sternoclavicular articulations.
- Posteroanterior
174. Select the structures that would be demonstrated in a lateral projection of the paranasal sinuses.
- All four paranasal sinuses
175. Choose the projection that would demonstrate a unilateral zygomatic arch.
- Posteroanterior axial oblique
176. Which anatomic structure will be demonstrated in an anteroposterior (open-mouth) projection of the cervical
vertebrae?
- axis and odontoid
177. Which anatomic structure will be demonstrated in an anteroposterior axial projection employing Cleaves
method?
- Femoral necks
178. Select the position/projection in a chest examination that will project the hilum of the lung field approximately
to the center of the radiograph.
- Lateral
179. What would be the x-ray beam direction in an anteroposterior axial projection (Grashey method) of the cranium
if the orbitomeatal line is positioned perpendiculat to the table?
- 30 ° caudad
180. What degree of obliquity from lateral position is required to visualize the apophyseal articulation of the thoracic
spine?
- 20
181. Which talar articulating surface would BEST be demonstrated in medial oblique position of the foot in an
isherwood method?
- Anterior
182. Which of the following is the x-ray beam direction in a Hirtz modification of submentovertical projection?
- 5 degrees anteriorly
183. Which patient rotation is performed to obtain an anteroposterior projection of the left ilium?
- 40 degrees, left posterior oblique
184. Which of the following method is submentovertical (subbasal) mastoid projection with the supraorbitomeatal
line placed parallel with the cassette?
- Taylor
185. The proximal tibiofibular articulation can BEST be demonstrated in _____ positions/projections.
- a 45 degrees internal rotation
186. Identify the first portion of the kidney to become visible after a contrast agent during an intravenous
pyelography procedure.
 - Nephron
187. Point out the gallbladder for patients with asthenic body habitus.
- Inferior and medial
188. Determine the radiological examination of the seminal ducts.
- Epididymography
189. In asthenic patient, the radiographic positioning that will MOST effectively move the gallbladder away from the
vertebrae is_____.
- a left anterior oblique
190. In an anteroposterior oblique projection for a male cystourethrography, the patient is in supine and adjusted in
an oblique position. Select the range of the degree of rotation so that the bladder neck and entire urethra are free
of bony superimposition.
- 35-40
191. Identify the anatomic structure that is BEST demonstrated in a barium enema examination with radiograph
taken in posteroanterior axial projection.
- Rectosigmoid
192. Identify the Benassi recommended radiographic projection/position performed to demonstrate the liver
- Posterioanterior wall
193. Vaginography is performed to investigate congenital malformation and pathologic conditions. Identify the
statement that is NOT part of the evaluation criteria for the procedure.
- Hips and femora are not superimposed in the lateral
194. Determine the anatomic structure/condition that is BEST visualized in a double contrast examination of the
stomach or large bowel.
- Gastric or bowel mucosa.
195. Identify the radiographic position/projection in which branching of the billary duct can be demonstrated/
- Lateral
196. Choose the radiographic image view that would BEST demonstrate the filled bladder and mobility of the kidney.
- Anteroposterior erect
197. Point out the anatomic structure/condition in an upper gastrointesrial series examinatioon that is BEST
visualized in a trendelenburg position.
- Diaphragmatic hernia
198. Determine a patient condition that is a contraindication for a hysterosalpingography examination.
- Active uterine bleeding
199. Identify the preferred site for arterial puncture in angiographic studies.
- Femoral
200. Determine the radiographic position performed in a gastrointestinal tract series examination that would BEST
demonstrate the pyloric canal doudenal bulb.
- Left lateral
201. Point it the general patient positions in a radiographic studies of the stomach and dodenum.
- Recumbent
202. Identify the oblique positions that would BEST demonstrate the hepatic flexure of the colon
- Left posterior and right anterior
203. Classify which is a routine patient preparation in an upper gastrointestinal series examination
- Nothing by mouth (NPO) after midnight
204. In a gastrointestinal tract examination, determine the position/projection that will demonstrate the pyloric canal
and duodenal bulb in profile for asthenic and hyposthenic patients.
- Posteroanterior
205. The imaging criteria for intravenous pyelography are the same as for abdominal radiograph but MUST include
the area from the diaphragm to the ____.
- Inferior bladder
206. Point out the radiographic position/projection in barium swallows examination that would show the esophagus
between the heart and vertebra.
- Oblique
207. Select the anatomic structure demonstrate with the patient in supine position, central ray angled 30-40 degrees
directed 2 inches inferior to the anterior superior iliac spine in a barium enema examination.
- Rectosigmoid
208. In a barium enema examination, if patient is positioned lying on its sides, midaxillary portion of abdomen
centered to table and central ray directed perpendicular to the anterior superior iliac spine, the anatomic structure
that would be BEST demonstrate is the _____.
- Rectum
209. Choose the radiograph in an intravenous urography procedure that is used to demonstrate tumor masses or
prostatic enlargement.
- Post-void
210. Choose the positioning technique that would BEST demonstrate a high transverse stomach for hypersthenic
patient.
- Patient in prone, central ray angled 35 °-45 ° cephalad
211. Select the statement that is TRUE to scheduling radiographic procedure
- Lower gastrointestinal is scheduled first followed by upper gastrointestinal series.
212. Choose the preferred site for an arterial puncture for angiographic studies.
- Femoral
213. Choose the projection that would BEST show the right common carotid artery.
- Posteroanterior
214. Choose the projection that will demonstrate the right common carotid artery and its bifurcation with internal
and external carotid arteries.
- Lateral
 RADIOGRAPHIC POSITIONING

1. A posteroanterior projection of the wrist in ulnar flexion will demonstrate the ___________.
A. Navicular not forshortened
B. Interspaces between the carpals on the medial side of wrist
C. Greater multangular free of superimposition

2. What central ray direction is utilized of patient’s body cannot be rotated for a right posterior
oblique position for cervical vertebrae?
A. 45 degrees toward the right
B. 45 degree cephalad
C. 45 degrees caudad

3. What is primarily demonstrated in a Kuchendorf method in an oblique axial projection of the

knee?
A. Patella
B. Intercondyloid fossa
C. Condyles

4. What is the radiographic line of the cranium used in positioning for an axial projection of the
nasal bones?
A. Glabelloalveolar
B. Acanthomeatal
C. Orbitomearal

5. Hallux valgus is best demonstrated in ____________.

A. An anteroposterior axial weight bearing of the foot
B. An anteroposterior axial weight bearing of the knee
C. A mdiolateral projection of the ankle

6. Which of the following central ray directions is employed to demonstrate the inferior orbital
fissure?
A. 20-25 o cephalad
B. 10-15 o cephalad
C. 30-35 o caudad

7. The coronoid process can BEST be projected free of superimposition in which of the following
elbow positions?
A. Internal oblique
B. External oblique
C. Partial flexion

8. “Bow” leg and “knock” knee can be demonstrated by performing a ______________.

A. Weight-bearing AP projections
B. Lateral projections
C. Medial oblique positions of the knees

9. To demonstrate the zygapophyseal joint of the left thoracic which of the following oblique
projections is performed?
A. Left anterior oblique
B. Left posterior oblique
C. Right anterior oblique

10. The apophyseal articulation of the lumbosacral spine can be examined in ____________.
 A. A 30o right posterior oblique
B. A 45o left posterior oblique
C. An anteroposterior projections

11. What is the structure that is BEST demonstrated in a postero-anterior axial projection in a
barium enema examination
A. Rectosigmoid
B. Transverse colon
C. Hepatic flexure

12. Which type of body habitus will be demonstrated in a postero-anterior projection developed by
Gordon to project the greater and lesser curvatures and duodenal bulb?
A. Hypersthenic
B. Sthenic
C. Asthenic

13. Which anatomic structure will be demonstrated in an oblique position for the stomach?
I. Duodenal loop
II. Fundus
III. Duodenal bulb
A. I, II and III
B. II and III
C. I and III

14. Which are the statements that would refer to radiography of the large bowel?
I. Double contrast studies help demonstrate intraluminal lesions
II. Large bowel need to be emptied prior to examination
III. Single contrast studies help demonstrate polyps
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III

15. Which of the following views would BEST show radiographic demonstration of the filled bladder
and mobility of the kidney
A. Anteroposterior erect
B. Lateral
C. Post-void

16. An orbit radiography requiring no special apparatus that would show whether the foreign body
is located within the eyeball is the ________ method.
A. Parallax
B. Sweet localization
C. Pfeiffer Comberg

17. Which of the following procedures is employed in the demonstration of the mucosal pattern of
the large intestine with residual barium sulphate to show small polyps and other defects?
A. Post evacuation
B. Right/left obliques
C. Lateral decubitus

18. Which of the following is the recommended technique to better demonstrate contrast-filled
distal ureters during an intravenous urography procedure?
A. Position patient in 15-degree supine trendelenburg
B. Apply compression to the proximal ureters
 C. Apply compression to the distal ureters
19. What are the common contraindications for intravenous urography examination?
I. Kidneys ability to filter contrast medium from blood
II. History of allergies
III. Elevated creatinine level
A. I, II and III
B. II and III
C. I and III

20. Which of the following are the conditions to perform hypotonic duodenography examination of
the stomach?
I. For detection of pancreatic diseases
II. To evaluate postbulbar duodenal lesions
III. To incorporate the advantages of both single and double contrast UGIS
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III

21. What is the central ray direction in an anteroposterior projection of the sacrum?
A. 15o cephalad
B. To the pubic symphysis
C. At the level of the lesser trochanter

22. What is the position/projection that would BEST demonstrate arthritic changes in the knees?
A. Anteroposterior erect
B. Medial oblique
C. Anteroposterior recumbent

23. What chest radiographic position/projection requires that the ribs posterior to the vertebral
column should superimpose?
A. Lateral
B. Decubitus
C. Left anteroposterior oblique

24. Which of the following are TRUE regarding Waters method (parietoacanthial projection) of the
skull
I. Maxillary should be projected above the petrous ridges
II. Head is resting on an extended chin
III. Orbitomeatal is perpendicular to the image receptor
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III

25. Which positions can be used o demonstrate the sternoclavicular articulations?

I. Postero anterior
II. Right anterior oblique
III. Weight -bearing
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III

26. Which of the following statement that refers to a posteroanterior position to better
demonstrate the mandibular rami?
A. Central ray is angled cephalad
 B. Central ray is angled caudad
C. Head is positioned oblique toward the affected side

27. Which of the following positions/projections would demonstrate the right axillary ribs?\
A. Left anterior oblique
B. Anteroposterior
C. Posteroanterior

28. Which of the following criteria are required for visualization of the greater tubercle in profile?
I. Humerus in anteroposterior position
II. Epicondyles parallel to the image receptor
III. Arm in external rotation
A. I, II and III
B. II and III
C. I and III

29. What is the central beam angle and direction in an axial projection of the clavicle with the
patient in posteroanterior position?
A. 15o to 30o caudad
B. 15o to 30o cephalad
C. 5o to 15o cephalad

30. Which of the following principle is applied in a TRUE lateral position of the skull
A. Interpupillary line perpendicular to the image receptor
B. Infraorbitomeatal line perpendicular to transverse axis of image receptor
C. Midsagittal plane perpendicular to the image receptor

31. What is the position/projection that will demonstrate the sesamoid bones of the foot free of
superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges.
A. Tangential metatarsals/toes
B. Dorsoplantar metatarsals/toes
C. 30o lateral oblique/foot

32. What structure would BEST be demonstrated with the patient seated at the end of x-ray table,
elbow flexed 80o, central ray directed 45o laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint.
A. Coronoid process
B. Radial head
C. Olecranon process

33. Which of the following procedure can be applied to demonstrate better the carpal scaphoid?
I. Place wrist in radial deviation
II. Central ray angled 20o toward the fingers
III. Elevate the hand and wrist at 20o
A. II and III
B. I and III
C. I and II

34. Which method is employed o visualize the profile of the olecranon process as well as
superimposed outlines of bones of forearm and arm
A. Jones
B. Gaynor-hart
C. Modified Stecher

35. Which of the following structures are demonstrated in a lateral projection of the thoracic spine?
 I. Apophyseal joint
II. Intervertebral foramina
III. Intervertebral spaces
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III

36. What position/projection would BEST demonstrate the tarsal navicular free of superimposition?
A. Anteroposterior oblique, medial rotation
B. Lateral weight-bearing
C. Anteroposterior oblique, lateral rotation

37. Which of the following statements refers to demonstrate of the pulmonary apices with the
patient in the anteroposterior positions?
A. Central ray is directed 15 o to 20 o cephalad
B. Patient’s shoulders are rolled forward
C. Central ray is directed 15 o to 20 o caudad

38. Which of the following statements refers to radiography of the shoulder in inferosuperior axial
projection (nontrauma, Lawrence method)?
I. Arm should be in internal rotation
II. Coracoids process and lesser tubercle are seen in profile
III. Arm is abducted about 90 o from the body
A. II and III
B. I and III
C. I and II

39. Which of the following bony landmark is in the same transverse plane as the symphysis pubis?
A. Prominence of the greater trochanter
B. Anterior inferior iliac spine
C. Ischial tuberosity of the spine

40. What are the vertebral groups that form lordotic curves?
I. Lumbar
II. Cervical
III. Thoracic
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III

41. Which position will demonstrate the coronoid process in profile?

A. Medial oblique elbow
B. Anteroposterior scapula
C. Scapular Y

42. What are the projections of the abdomen may be used to demonstrate air or fluid levels?
I. Lateral decubitus
II. Anteroposterior Trendelenburg
III. Dorsal decubitus
A. I and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
43. Which skull position will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas and odontoid
process?
A. Submentovertical
B. Parietoacanthial
C. Anteroposterior axialº

44. What is the position used to demonstrate vertical fractures and patellofemoral articulations?
A. Tangential – patella
B. Lateral – knee
C. “Tunnel” view

45. What is the position that would BEST demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulations?
A. 45 o internal rotation
B. 90 o mediolateral axial
C. 45 o external rotation

46. Which functional study is used to demonstrate the degree of anteroposterior motion present in
the cervical spine?
A. Flexion and extension in lateral
B. Open-mouth projection
C. Right and left bending in anteroposterior
47. Which part of the head is positioned in contact with the image receptor to deonstarte the optic
foramen employing Bertel method?
A. Forehead and nose
B. Chin and nose
C. Chin, cheek, and nose
48. What is the structure demonstrated when employing Twining method?
A. Cervucothoracic region
B. Atlas/axis articulation
C. Lumbosacral region
49. which exposure technique should be employed to BEST visualize the lower ribs?
A. Expiration
B. Inspiration
C. During shallow breathing
50. Which positioning method would BEST the fovea capitis, particularly the superoposterior walls of
acetabulum?
A. Teufel
B. Celements-Nakayama
C. Danelius-Miller
51. What position/projection would BEST demonstrate acromioclavicular separation?
A. Anteroposterior erect, both shoulders
B. Anteroposterior recumbent, affected shoulders
C. Anteroposterior erect, affected shoulders
52. Which of the following structures are demonstrated in an AP projection of the cervical spine?
I. C3-7 cervical bodies
II. Intervertebral disk spaces
III. Apophyseal joints
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
53. What are the conditions that should be included in a preliminary patient history to decide
whether to deliver ionic or non-ionic contrast media?
I. History of respiratory disease
II. History of Cardiac Disease
 III. Patient Age
A. I, II and III
B. II and III
C. I and III
54. Which position will MOST effectively move the gallbladder away from the vertebrae in an
asthenic patient?
A. Left anterior oblique
B. Erect right lateral
C. Right anterior oblique
55. What condition/structure is demonstrated if an erect position is requested as part of an
intravenous urography?
A. Kidney mobility
B. The adrenal glands
C. The bladder neck
56. Which position/projection would demonstrate the esophagus between the heart and vertebra in
a barium swallow examination?
A. Oblique
B. Lateral
C. Posteroanterior
57. What is the structure demonstrated in a barium enema examination with the patient in supine
position, the central ray angled 30 o -40 o cephlad directed two inches inferior to the anterior
superior iliac spine (ASIS)?
A. Rectosigmoid
B. Splenic flexure
C. Transverse
58. What is the action that the Radiologic Technologist should perform to prevent the stomach or
duodenum from pressing against the vertebra which may be cause pressure filling defects on
thin patients during an upper gastrointestinal series procedure?
A. Put padding under the thorax and pelvis
B. Instruct patient to do breathing exercise
C. Place patient in head down position
59. Fluoroscopic imaging of the ileocecal valve is generally part of ____________.
A. A small bowel series
B. An endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
C. An upper gastrointestinal series
60. Which of the following carpal canal bones can BEST be demonstrated in the Stecher position
with a 20-degree angulation of the wrist?
A. Scaphoid
B. Pisiform
C. Hamate
61. Which of the following structures will be demonstrated in and antero-posterior projection of the
forearm?
I. Superimposed radius and ulna at their distal ends
II. Proximal row of slightly distorted carpal bones
III. Radius and ulna
A. II and III
B. I and II
C. I and III
62. Which of the following positions/projections n and x-ray examination of the foot would BEST
demonstrate the cuboid, sinus tarsi, and tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal?
A. Medial oblique
B. Lateral
C. Lateral oblique
63. A dorsoplantar projection of the foot will clearly demonstrate the joint space between the
metatarsals and midfoot if the tube is angled of ____________.
A. 10º posteriorly
B. 20 º posteriorly
C. 15 º anteriorly
64. The angles between the eyelids used as reference points are the ___________.
A. Canthi
B. Orbits
C. Nasion
65. The ribs posterior to the vertebral column should superimpose in which of the following chest
projections?
A. Lateral position
B. PA projection
C. Oblique position
66. A lateral projection of the paranasal sinuses will demonstrate which of the following sinuses?
A. All four paranasal sinuses
B. Sphenoid sinuses
C. Maxillary sinuses
67. When modifying the postero-anterior axial projection of the skull to demonstrate the superior
orbital fissures, the central ray is directed _________.
A. 20-25o caudad
B. 30-35 o caudad
C. 20-25 o cephalad
68. Which of the following examinations will require close-beam restriction?
A. Sella turcica – lateral
B. Facial Bones-PA
C. Lumbosacral-AP
69. Which of the following methods suggests both antero-posterior and postero-anterior axial
oblique projections for suspected acromioclavicular subluxation or disclocation?
A. Alexander
B. Lawrence
C. Grashey
70. Which of the following statements is NOT an evaluation criterion in a postero-anterior projection
of the hand?
A. Close metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints
B. Slightly separate digits with no soft tissue overlap
C. Clearly demonstrate soft tissue and bony trabeculation
71. An axial projection of the knee is performed to demonstrate the ______________
A. Intercondyloid fossa
B. Tibial tuberosity
C. Condyles
72. The suprapatellar effusion would best be demonstrated in which of the following knee
positions/projections?
A. Lateral
B. Medial oblique
C. Lateral oblique
73. Which line of the skull is used as the baseline in an axial projection of the nasal bones?
A. Glavelloalveolar
B. Infraorvitomeatal
C. Acanthomeatal
74. Which projection opens the intervertebral disk spaces of the cervical spine?
A. AP with 15-20o cephalad
B. Pa with 15-20o cephalad
C. RPO with 15-20o caudad
75. Which of the following methods is an antero-posterior apical oblique axial projection to BEST
demonstrate the scapulohumeral dislocations of the shoulder?
A. Garth
B. Grashey
C. Lawrence
76. Which of the following central ray directions is employed to demonstrate the outlet view of the
pelvis in male patients?
A. 20-35 degrees cephalad
B. Perpendicular to cassette
C. 30-45 degrees cephalad
77. Which of the following projections would demonstrate “bow” leg and “knock” knee?
A. Weight-bearing AP projections
B. AP axial intercondyloid fossa projection
C. Medial oblique positions of the knees
78. How many degrees cephalad angulation of the beam is used in an antero-posterior axial
projection (Taylor method) for anterior pelvic bones in male patients?
A. 25
B. 15
C. 40
79. Which of the following structures is BEST visualized in a trendelenburg position in an upper
gastrointestinal series examination?
A. Diaphragmatic hernia
B. Greater and lesser curvature
C. Pyloric canal
80. Which of the following structures is BEST demonstrated in postero-anterior axial projection in a
barium enema examination?
A. Rectosigmoid
B. Hepatic flexure
C. Splenic flexure
81. Routine excretory urpgraphy usually includes a post-micturation radiograph of the bladder to
demonstrate __________.
I. Residual urine
II. Hypoplasia
III. Tumor masses
A. I, II and III
B. II and III
C. I and III
82. The preferred site for an arterial puncture for angiographic studies is ______________.
A. Femoral
B. Radial
C. Axillary
83. Which of the following is referred to as a condition that is often the result of ureteral obstruction
or stricture?
A. Hydronephrosis
B. Pyelonephrosis
C. Nephroptosis
84. Which of the following are considered the MOST common allergic reactions to contras media?
I. Metallic taste in the mouth
II. Temporary hot flush
III. Itching
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
85. Routine excretory urography usually includes a post-micturation radiograph of the bladder. This
is done to demonstrate ________________.
I. Tumor masses
II. Residual urine
III. Hypoplasia
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
86. In radiographic studies of the stomach and duodenum, the patient is generally positioned in
____________.
A. Recumbent
B. Trendelenburg
C. Decubitus
87. The technical requirements in cholangiography procedures include the use of ___________.
I. A small focal spot
II. Short exposure time
III. High kVp technique
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
88. In an interventional pyelography examination, which of the following organs is demonstrated in
an erect position?
A. Kidney mobility
B. Renal structure
C. Bladder neck
89. Which of the following is TRUE in a lateral projection of the stomach during an upper
gastrointestinal series examination?
I. Anterior and posterior aspect of stomach is visualized
II. Best projection for the pylorus and duodenal bulb for asthenic patients
III. Best demonstrate the retrogastirc spine
A. I and III
B. II and III
C. I and II
90. Which of the following statements refer to an oblique projection (Wolf method) fr the stomach
in an upper gastrointestinal series examination?
I. Patient in left posterior oblique position
II. Will demonstrate possible hiatal hernia
III. Central ray directed 10-20 degrees caudad
A. II and III
B. I and III
C. I and II
91. Which of the following is BEST demonstrated if a patient is placed in a right posterior oblique
position during a barium enema examination?
A. Splenic flexure
B. Hepatic flexure
C. Transverse colon
92. Which of the following positions would BEST demonstrate a double contrast of the hepatic and
splenic flexures during a barium enema examination?
A. Antero-posterior erect
B. Right lateral decubitus
C. Antero-posterior recumbent
93. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE regarding lower extremity venography?
I. Patients is often examined in the semi-erect position
II. Tourniquets are used to force contrast medium into the deep veins
 III. All radiographs are taken in antero-posterior projections
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
94. Which of the following special radiographic examinations is used to demonstrate vesico-ureteral
reflux?
A. Voiding cystourethrogram
B. Intravenous pyelography
C. Retrograde pyelography
95. Which of the following remains as the MOST common imaging of the gastrointestinal system
even with current technological advancements
A. Radiographic contrast studies
B. Magnetic resonance imaging
C. Computed tomography
96. Which of the following urography techniques is used in examination of the upper urinary tracts
in infants and children?
A. Excretory
B. Antegrade
C. Angiographic
97. the location of gallbladder in hypersthenic patient is ___________
A. higher and more lateral than average
B. much lower near the level of iliac crest ad near the midline
C. halfway between the xiphoid tip and lower lateral rib margin
98. In a barium enema examination, which position would BEST demonstrate the “up” medial side of
ascending colon when the colon is inflated with air?
A. Lateral decubitus
B. Right/left lateral
C. Postero-anterior oblique
99. Which positioning maneuver is performed to project the symphysis pubis away from the base of
an opacified urinary bladder in a cystogram procedure?
A. Central beam is angled caudally
B. Examined in the erect position
C. A cross table lateral is performed
100. In sialography at the conclusion of the procedure the patient is __________
A. Given secretory stimulant to purge salivary gland
B. Required to have a twenty-four hours bed rest
C. Treated with anti coagulant medication
101. The imaging criteria for intravenous pyelography are the same as for abdominal radiograph
but MUST include the area from the diaphragm to the _____.
A. Inferior bladder
B. Superior pubis
C. Kidneys
102. What is the first portion of the kidney to become visible after ijection of a contrast agent
during an intravenous pyelography procedure?
A. Nephron
B. Calyces
C. Glomerulus structure
103. Which of the following statements refer to cardiac studies with barium?
I. The barium used is thicker than that used for the stomach examination
II. Barium solution is thicker for a slow descend and allowing the barium to adhere
to the esophageal walls
III. The exposure is made with the patient swallowing the bolus of barium
A. I, II and III
104. Which of the following statements refer to contrast arthrography of the knee.
 I. An examination of the soft tissue structures of joints after injection of contrast
agent
II. A combination of gaseous and water-soluble iodinated media for double-
contrast
III. Contrast studies may be made on any encapsuled joint but the knee is the most
frequent site of investigation
A. I, II and III
105. What are the procedures performed to demonstrate the cruciate ligaments after
radiography of the menici is completed in a double-contrast arthrography of the knee?
I. Patient is seated over the side of the x-ray table with knee flexed 90 degrees
II. A firm cotton pillow is placed under the knee so that forward pressure is applied
to the leg
III. With a grid cassette in position, a closely collimated and slightly underexposed
lateral projection is made
A. I and II
106. What are the primary indications for performing hip arthrography?
I. To detect a loose hip prosthesis or to confirm presence of infection in adults
II. To evaluate trauma, persistent pain, and limitation of motion
III. To evaluate congential hip dislocation before and after treatment for children
A. I and III
107. What will be the visceral and peripheral angiography examination performed to rule out an
aortic aneurysm or to evaluate congential or postsurgical conditions?
A. Thoracic aortography
B. Abdominal aortography
C. Pulmonary arteriography
108. Which of the following is an indication for cardiac catheterization procedures?
A. Performed to identify anatomic and physiologic conditions of the heart
B. Patients with active gastrointestinal bleeding
C. Short life expectancy due to other illness
109. What are the conditions in which depends the speed of the barium mixture passing through
the alimentary canal?
I. The motile function of the alimentary canal
II. The preparation consistency of suspending medium
III. The temperature of the medium
A. I, II and III
110. What are the mechanisms in which antegrade filling techniques are accomplished?
I. Introducing the contrast material directly into the kidney through percutaneous
puncture of renal pelvis
II. Through physiologic technique wherein the contrast agent is generally
administered intravenously
III. The contrast solution is introduced into the vein by rapid injection or by infusion
A. I and II
111. What are the gas displacement effects of prone position in adult patients during urogram
procedures?
I. Gas in the antral portion of stomach is displaced into its fundic portion
II. Gas in the sigmoid colon shifts into the ascending colon and rectum
III. Gas in the transverse colon shifts into the ascending and descending segments
A. I and III
112. What are the image quality and exposure technique applied in urogram procedures.
I. Urograms should have some contrast, density and degree of soft tissue density
as abdominal radiographs
II. Radiographs must show sharply defined outline of kidneys, lower border of the
liver, and lateral margin of psoas muscles
III. Amount of bone details visible varies according to the thickness of the abdomen
 A. I, II and III
113. Which of the following are the indications for an intravenous urography examination.
I. Ability of kidneys to filter contrast medium from the blood
II. Evaluation of abdominal masses, renal cysts, and renal tumors
III. Pyelonephritis, hydronephrosis, and effects of trauma
A. II and III
114. Which of the following is the range of the degree of rotation so that the bladder neck and
entire urethra are free of bony superimposition?
A. 35-40
B. 25-30
C. 45-50
115. What are the rationales of employing the “metallic bead chain technique”in performing
cystourethrography to investigates anatomic abnormalities causing stress incontinence in
women?
I. To delineate anatomic changes that occur in the shape and position of bladder
II. To delineate anatomic changes that occur in the position of the proximal
urethral orifice
III. To delineate anatomic changes that occur in the posterior urethrovesical angle
A. I, II, and III
116. In typical clubfoot, what is the deviation resulting in the evaluation of the medial border of
the foot?
A. Supination
B. Equinus
C. Adduction
117. Which of the following is the deviation resulting in plantar flexion and inversion of the
calcaneus in a typical clubfoot?
A. Equinus
B. Adduction
C. Supination
118. Which of the following methods recommended for the inclusion of a dorsoplantar axial
projection for congential clubfoot examination
A. Kandel
B. Kite
C. Freiberger
D. Conway
119. What is the central ray direction in an axial (plantodorsal) projection for the demonstration
of the calcaneus?
A. Directed 40 degrees cephalad
B. Enters the base of the 5th metatarsal
C. Directed 25 degrees cephalad
120. What is the degree of flexion of the knee as recommended by Fodor, Malott, and Merchant
to demonstrate the patella and patellofemoral joint in tangential projection?
A. 45
B. 55
C. 20

121. Which of the following degree of flexion of the knee is recommended by Laurin for easier
demonstration of the patellar subluxation?

A. 20

B. 45

c. 60
122. Which anatomic structure is not clearly shown in an oblique projection of the lumbosacral
vertebrae?

A. Intervertebral foramen

B. Zygapophyseal joint

C. Transverse process

123. What is the average degree of angulation of the central ray in an AP axial projection to
demonstrate the lumbosacral and sacroiliac joints?

A. 30-35

B. 20-25

C. 15-20

124. Which of the following statements is true to a PA projection to demonstrate the anterior ribs?

A. A posteroanterior projection will be demonstrate the ribs above the diaphragm

B. For unilateral examination, ribs from the opposite side should be include in its entirety

C. To demonstrate the 7th to 9th ribs, it is the best angle the beam 10-15 degrees cephalad

125. Schuller method in a submentovertical projection to demonstrate the cranial base requires
placing as nearly parallel with the plane of the cassette as possible the ______line.

A. Infraorbitomeatal

B. orbitomeatal

C. acanthiomeatal

126. Which of the following statements refers to a reverse Waters?

A. Head is extended to a position the mentomeatal line perpendicular to cassette

B. Central ray is directed perpendicular entering the mental point

C. Patient is placed in prone position with the head hyperextended

127. What is the structure demonstrated in an oblique position of the cervical spine?

A. Intervertebral foramina

B. Apophyseal joints

C. Intervertebral joints
 RADIOGRAPHIC PROCEDURES

1. The scapula Y projection of the shoulder demonstrates

1. An oblique projection of the shoulder
2. Anterior or posterior dislocation
3. A lateral projection of the shoulder
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

2. Which of the following projections requires that the shoulder be placed in internal rotation?
A. AP Humerus
B. Lateral forearm
C. Lateral humerus

3. With the patient’s head in PA position and the central ray directed 20 degree cephalad, which
part of the mandible will be visualized?
A. Symphysis
B. Rami
C. Body
D. Angel

4. During the intravenous urography the prone postion is generally recommended to demonstrates
1. The filling of ureters
2. The renal pelvis
3. The superior calyses
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1,2 and 3

5. to demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and oblique 45
degree

a. toward the affected side

b. with the arm of the side of the anatomic position

c. away from the affected side

d. with the arm in the external rotation

6. in the posterior oblique position in the cervical spine, the central ray should be directed

a. parallel to C4

b. 15 degree cephalad to C4

c. perpendicular to C4

d. 15 degree caudad to C4

7. which of the following is the functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion
present in the cervical spine?

a. open mouth projection

b. flexion and extension lateral

c. moving mandible AP

d. right and left bending AP

8. if the patient zygomatic arch has been traumatically depressed or the patient has flat
cheekbone, the arch maybe demonstrated by modifying the SMV projection and rotating the
patient’s head,

a. 15 degree toward the side being examined

b. 30 degree toward the side being examined

c. 15 degree away from the side being examined

d. 30 degree away from the side being examined

9. which of the following barium-filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LAO
position?

a. hepatic flexure

b. splenic flexure

c. sigmoid colon

d. ileocecal valve

10. what is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping on one vertebra on the
one below it?
a. spondyiysis

b. spondylolysis

c. spondylolisthesis

d. spondylosis

11. in a lateral projection of a nasal bones, the central ray is directed

a. ½ inch posterior to the anterior nasal spine

b. ¾ inch distal to the nasion

c. ¾ inch posterior to the glabella

d. ½ inch anterior to the EAM

12. Posterior displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the

a. AP projection

b. lateral projection

c. medial oblique projection

d. lateral oblique projection

13. which of the following position would best demonstrate the left apophyseal articulations of
the lumbar vertebrae

a. LPO

B. RPO

C. left lateral

d. PA

14. blowout fractures of the orbit are best demonstrated using the

a. lateral projection of the facial bones

b. posteroanterior projection with a 15 degree caudal angle

c. parietoacanthial projection (water’s method)

d. sweets localization method

15. inspiration and expiration projection of the chest may be performed to demonstrate

1. pneumothorax

2. foreign body

3. atelectasis

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1,2 and 3

16. shoulder arthrography maybe performed to evaluate

a. humeral dislocation

b. osteoarthritis

c. complete or incomplete rotator cough tear

d. acromioclavicular joint separation

17. to better demonstrate the ribs below the diaphragm

1. suspend respiration at the end of full exhalation

2. suspend respiration at the end of deep inhalation

3. perform the examination in the recumbent position

a. 1 only

b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only

d. 2 and 3 only

18. The patient positioned for An T- tube cholangiography is in a

a. 15 degree to 20 degree LPO

b. 15 degree and 20 degree RPO

c. 45 degree LPO

d. 45 degree RPO
19. Knee arthrography may be performed to demonstrate a

1. Torn meniscus

2. Baker’s cyst

3. Torn rotator cuff

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

20. Hysterosalpingography may be performed for demonstration of

1. Uterine tubal patency

2. Mass lesions in the uterine cavity

3. Uterine position

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

21. All of the following are palpable bony landmarks used in the radiography of the pelvis except
the

a. femoral neck

b. pubic symphysis

c. greater trochanter

d. iliac crest

22. Lateral deviation of the nasal septum may best demonstrated in the

a. Lateral projection

b. Parietoacanthial (Water’s Method) projection

c. PA Axial (Caldwell method)

d. AP Axial (Grashey/ towne method) projection

23. All of the following may be determined oral cholecystography except

a. Liver function
b. Emptying power of the gallbladder

c. Ability of the gallbladder to concentrate bile

d. Pancreatic function

24. Operative cholangiography maybe performed to

1. Visualized biliary stones or a neoplasm

2. Determine function of the hepatopancreatic ampulla

3. Examine the patency of the biliary tract

a. 1 and 2 only

b.1 and 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1,2 and 3

25. Which of the following procedures will best demonstrated the cephalic, basilic , and subclavian
veins?

A. Aortofemoral arteriogram

b. Lower limb venogram

c. Upper limb venogram

d. renal venogram

26. Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25 degree RPO position witrh the central ray
entering 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS?

a. Left sacroiliac joint

b. Left ilium

c. Right sacroiliac joint

d. Right ilium
27. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) usually involves

1. cannulation of the hepatopancreatic ampulla

2. introduction of contrast medium into the common bile duct
3. introduction of the barium directly into the duodenum
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1,2, and 3

28. Which of the following is(are) associated with Colle’s fracture?

1. Transverse fracture of the radial head.

2. Chip fracture of the ulnar styloid

3. Posterior or backward displacement

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

29. To best visualized the lower ribs, the exposure should be made

a. On normal inspiration

b. On inspiration, second breath

c. On expiration
d. During shallow breathing

30. Which of the following intervention procedures can be used to increase the diameter of a
stenosed vessel?

1. Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA)

2. Stent placement

3. Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC line)

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

31. Fluoroscopic imaging of the ileocecal valves generally part of a (n)

a. Esophagram

b. upper GI series

c. small bowel series

d. ERCP

32. The AP Trendelenburg position is often used during an upper GI examination to demonstrate

a. The duodenal loop

b. Hiatal hernia

c. filling of the duodenal bulb

d. hypertrophic pyloris stenosis

33. Which of the following is the best choice for a right shoulder examination to rule out frature?

a. Internal and external rotation

b. AP and tangential

c. AP and PA axial

d. AP and shoulder Y

34. Which of the following positions would be demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation?

a. AP

b. 90 degree mediolateral

c. 45 degree internal rotation

d. 45 degree external rotation

35. Which of the following bones participate in the formation of the acetabulum?

1. Ilium

2. Ischium

3. Pubis

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

36. Which of the following radiographic procedures requires that the contrast medium be
injected into the renal pelvis via a catheter placed within the ureter5?

a. Nephrotomography

b. Cystourethrography

c. Retrograde urography

d. IV urography

37. The AP projection of the sacrum requires that the central ray be directed

1. 15 degree cephalad

2. To the pubic symphysis

3. At the level of the lesser trochanter

A. 1 only
b. 2 only

c. 1 and 2 only

d. 1 and 3 only

38. Which of the following would best demonstrate arthritic changes in the knees?

a. AP recumbent

b. Lateral recumbent

c. AP erect

d. Medial Oblique

39. Which of the following would best demonstrate the lumbosacral apophyseal articulation?

a. AP

b. Lateral

c. 30 degree RPO

d. 45 degree LPO

40. When the patient is re3cumbent and the central ray is directed horizontally, the patient is
said to be in the

a. Trendelenburg position

b. Fowler’s position

c. decubitus position

d. Sim’s position

41. Which of the following position will demonstrate ureteral reflux?

a. IV urogram

b. Retrograde pyelogram

c. Voiding cystourathrogram

d. Nephrotomogram

42. Prior to the start of an IV urogram, which of the following procedures should be carried out?

1. Have patient empty the bladder

2. Review the patient’s allergy history

3. Check the patient’s creatinine level

a. 1 only
b. 2 only

c. 1 and 2 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

43. Which type of articulation is evaluated in arthrography?

a. Synarthrodial

b. Diarthrodial

c. Amphiarthrodial

d. Cartilaginous

44. Which of the following conditions is often the results of ureteral obstruction or stricture?

a. Pyelonephrosis

b. Nephroptosis

c. Hydronephrosis

d. Cystourethritis

45. Which of the following condition in which an occluded blood vessels stops blood flow to a
portion of the lungs?

a. Pneumothorax

b. Pulmonary embolism

c. Atelectasis

d. Hypoxia

46. Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture?

1. Fractured lateral malleolus

2. Fractured medial malleolus

3. Fractured posterior tibia

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

47. Which of the following is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children?

a. Appendicitis
b. Intusseception

c. Regional enteritis
d. Ulcerative colitis

48. Which of the following statements is (are) correct regarding the parietoacanthial projection
(Water’s method) of the skull?

1. The head is rested on the extended chin

2. The orbitomeatal line (OML) is perpendicular to the IR.

3. The maxillary antra should be projected above the petrosa

a. a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1,2 and 3

49. Skeletal conditions characterized by faulty bone calcification include

1. osteoarthritis

2. osteomalacia

3. rickets

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1,2 and 3

50. In which of the following positions/ projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized?

a. Dorsoplantar projection of the foot

b. Plantodorsal projection of the os calcis

c. Medial oblique position of the foot

d. Lateral foot

51. when comparing the male and female bony pelvis, it is noted that the

1. male pelvis is deeper

2. female pubic arch is greater than 90 degree

3. female greater sclatic notch is wider

 a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

52. angulation of the central ray may be required

1. to avoid superimposition of overlying structures

2. to avoid foreshortening or self-superimposition

3. to project through certain articulations

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2, and 3

53. all of the statement regarding of an exact PA projection of the skull, with the central ray
perpendicular to the IR, are true except

a. the orbitomeatal line is perpendicular to the IR

b. the midsagittal plane (MSP) is parallel to the IR

c. the petrous pyramid fill the orbits

d. the central ray exist at the nasion

54. ingestion of barium sulfate is contraindicated in which of the following situations?

1. suspected perforation of a hallow viscus

2. suspected large bowel obstruction

3. presurgical patients

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1,2 and 3 only

55. “flattening” of the hemidiaphragms is characteristic of which of the following condition?

a. pneumothorax

b. emphysema
c. pleural effusion

d. pneumonia

56. which projection of the foot will best demonstrate of longitudinal arch?

a. mediolateral

b. lateromedial

c. lateral weight-bearing

d. 30 degree medial oblique

57. the axiolateral or horizontal beam projection of the hip requires the cassette to be placed

1. in contact with the lateral surface of the body

2. in a vertical position and exactly perpendicular to the long axis of the femoral neck

3. with top edge slightly above the iliac crest

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

58. in the AP axial projection (Towne Method) of the skull, with central ray directed directed 30 degree
caudad to the OML and passing midway between the external auditory meati, which of the following
best demonstrated

a. occipital bone

b. frontal bone

c. facial bone

d. basal formina

59. the best way to control voluntary motion is

a. immobilization of the part

b. short exposure time

c. careful explanation of the procedures

d. physical restraint

60. what are the positions most commonly employed for a radiographic examination of the sternum?

1. lateral
2. RAO

3. LAO

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

61. which of the following are best demonstrated in the oblique position of the cervical spine?

1. intervertebral foramina

2. apophyseal joints

3. intervertebral joints

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

62. aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the

a. right main bronchus

b. left main bronchus

c. esophagus

d. proximal stomach

63. how should a chest examination to rule out air fluid levels be obtained on a patient having traumatic
injuries?

a. perform the examination in a Trendelenburg position

b. include a dorsal decubitus lateral chest projection

c. erect inspiration and expiration images should be obtained

d. perform the examination AP supine at 4 inch SID

64. which of the following position is obtained with the patient lying prone recumbent on the
radiographic table, and the central ray directed horizontally to the iliac crest

a. ventral decubitus position

b. left lateral decubitus position

c. dorsal decubitus position

d. right lateral decubitus position

65. all of the following positions may be used to demonstrate the sternoclavicular articulations except

a. weight bearing

b. RAO

c. LAO

d. PA

66. which of the following is a radiographic procedure that functions to dilate a stenotic vessel?

a. percutaneous nephrolithotomy

b. renal arteriography

c. percutaneous angioplasty

d. surgical nephroplasty

67. which of the following positions is required to demonstrate small amounts of fluid in pleural cavity

a. lateral decubitus, affected side up

b. AP Trendelenburg

c. lateral decubitus, affected side down

d. AP supine

68. which of the following projections will best demonstrate the cranial scaphoid

a. lateral wrist

b. ulnar flexion /deviation

c. radial flexion/deviation

d. carpal tunnel

69. to better demonstrate the mandibular ramia the PA position, the

a. skull is oblique toward the affected side

b. central ray is angled cephalad

c. skull is oblique away from the affected side

d. central ray is angled caudad

70. the left sacroiliac joint is positioned perpendicular to the IR when the patient is positioned in a

a. left lateral position

b. 25-30 degree LPO position

c. 25-30 degree LAO position

d. 30-40 degree LPO position

71. which of the following statements are true regarding lower extremity venography?

1. the patient is often examined in a semi-erect position

2. contrast medium is injected through a vein in the foot

3. imaging begins in the hip and proceeds inferiorly

a. 1 only

2. 1 and 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

72. which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate subacromial or subcoracoid
dislocation?

a. tangential

b. AP axial

c. transthoracic lateral

d. PA oblique scapular y

73. which of the following will best demonstrate the size and shape of the liver and kidneys?

a. lateral abdomen

b. AP abdomen

c. dorsal decubitus abdomen

d. ventral decubitus abdomen

74. which of the following will best demonstrate the right axillary ribs

1. RAO

2. LAO

3. RPO

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

75. in which projection of the foot are the sinustarsi, cuboid and tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal best
demonstrated?

a. lateral oblique foot

b. lateral foot

c. medial oblique foot

d. weight-bearing foot

76. what is the position of the gallbladder in a asthenic patient?

a. superior and medial

b. superior and lateral

c. inferior and medial

d. inferior and lateral

77. To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in:

a. The recumbent position

b. The erect position
c. The anatomic position
d. The Fowler’s position
 RADIOGRAPHIC POSITIONING AND TECHNIQUES

1. In sialography, at the conclusion of the procedure the patient is _______.

A. Given secretory stimulant to purge salivary gland
B. Required to have a twenty-four hours bed rest
C. Treated with anti-coagulant medication
D. Sen home with the cannula in place
2. determine the statement that refers to a posteroanterior position to better demonstrate the mandibular rami.
A. Head is positioned oblique toward the affected side
B. Central ray is angled caudad
C. Central ray is angled cephalad
D. head is positioned oblique away from the affected side
3. Which of following reason why it is preferred to flex the knee 20 to 30 degrees when performing a lateral projection of
the knee?
A. The position relaxes the muscles and shows maximum volume of the joint cavity
B. This places the patella parallel to the plane of the cassette
C. This places the medial condyles slightly superior to lateral condyle
D. The position will prevent fragment separation in new or unhealed patellar fractures
4. Determine the central ray direction in an anteroposterior projection of the sacrum.
A. 15˚ cephalad B. To the pubic symphysis
C. 20˚ caudad D. All the level of the lesser trochanter
5. Which of the following is BEST visualized in a double contrast examination of the stomach or large bowel?
A. Position of the organ B. Diverticula
C. Gastric or bowel mucosa D. Size and shape of organ
6. Identify the principal route of elimination of most aqueous iodine contrast media.
A. Respiratory system B. Urinary tract
C. Gastrointestinal tract D. Biliary tract
7. Determine the degree of flexion of the elbow in a Coyle method to demonstrate the coronoid process.
A. 80 B. 35-40
C. 70 D. 45-60
8. Which of the following are demonstrated in a tangential projection of the carpus?
A. Palmar aspect of greater multangular
B. Calcification/foreign bodies in the dorsum of wrist
C. Fracture of navicular
D. Dislocation of lunate
9. Which of the following are common indications for oral cholecystograpy.
I. Hepatocellular disease
II. Biliary neoplasia
III. Cholelithiasis
A. I and II B. I, II and III C. I and III D. II and III
10. Determine the degree of body rotation necessary to demonstrates the sternoclavicular joint.
A. 20˚-25˚ B. 45˚ C. 35˚ D. 10˚-15˚
11. Point out the method in a swimmer’s view for cervico-thoracic spine.
A. Waters B. Pawlow C. Haas D. Caldwell
12. Select the recommended projection by Lane, Kennedy, Kuschner in addition to a posterioanterior oblique to better
demonstrate severe metacarpal deformities or fractures hand.
A. Anteroposterior oblique B. Reverse oblique
C. Lateromedial oblique D. Posteroanterior axial
13. Which of the following statements refers to patient preparation for oral cholecystogram?
I. Prolong fasting is instructed to prevent gas formation
II. Avoidance of food after introduction of oral contrast media
III. Contrast media is given 2-3 hours after evening meal
A. I and II B. II and III C. I, II and III D. I and III
15. Which of the following projections is utilized in a cahoon method to show the styloid process?
A. Posteroanterior oblique B. Posteroanterior axial
C. Lateral D. Tangential
16. Choose the patient position that would BEST demonstrate the rectum and distal sigmoid portion of the colon in a
barium enema procedure.
A. Right postero-anterior oblique B. Left postero-anterior oblique
C. Lateral D. Posterio-anterior axial
17. Which of the following are ROUTINELY performed to examine the stomach?
I. Hypotonic duodenography
II. Double-contrast method
III. Biphasic examination
A. I and III B. I and II C. II and III D. I, II and III
18. Point out the method employed when obtaining a radiograph of a patient with suspected hip fracture
A. Lauenstein-Hickey B. Danelius-Miller
C. Chassard-lapine D. Gaynor-hart
19. Determine the patient position employed in an anteroposterior projection of the scapula.
A. Arm is raised upward, forearm resting over the head
B. Thorax is rotated toward the affected side
C. Arm is abducted at the right angle to the body
D. Elbow is flexed with hand pronated
20. For sthenic patient, how many degrees of obliquity are required to shift the gallbladder away from the vertebral
column in a left anterior oblique position?
A. 5-10 B. 30-25 C. 20-25 D. 10-15
21. Identify the reasons cited by Griswold on the importance of a 90 flexion of the elbow in lateral position.
I. To ensure that the humeral epicondyles are perpendicular to cassette
II. To ensure that the olecranon process can be seen in profile
III. To ensure that the elbow fat pads are least compressed
A. I and II B. I, II and III C. II and III D. I and III
22. Which maneuvers/techniques in the examination of the esophagus will demonstrate esophagus reflux?
I. Toe touch
II. Water test
III. Compression
A. I, II and III B. I and II C. II and III D. I and III
23. Which of the following characteristics refers to ionic contrast media?
A. Greater side effect B. Less side effect
C. Have a low osmolarity D. Higher cost
24. Point out the wrist bones that are demonstrated in a posteroanterior axial oblique projection employing Clements-
Nakayama method.
A. Dorsal surface of the metacarpals
B. Scaphoid bones free of superimposition
C. Trapezium and articulations with adjacent carpal bones
D. Carpal canal
25. The pyloric canal and duodenal bulb are BEST demonstrated in which of the following positions during a
gastrointestinal tract series?
A. Left lateral B. Right anterior oblique
C. Recumbent postero-anterior D. Recumbent antero-posterior
26. A radiographic procedure performed with the patient lying prone recumbent on the radiographic table and the central
ray directed horizontally to the iliac crest is referred to as _____ decubitus position.
A. Ventral B. Right lateral C. Left lateral D. Dorsal
27. Choose the statement that refers to a patient placed in an upright position for study of the stomach.
A. Best demonstrate high transverse stomach for hypersthenic patient
B. Fundus id filled with air, barium in the pylorus
C. Best position for demonstration of the duodenal bulb
 D. Pylorus filled with air and barium in the fundus
28. The beam direction in Schuller’s full basal projection of the cranium is directed perpendicular _____.
A. To the acanthomeatal line B. Midway the angles of the mandible
C. To the infraorbitomeatal line D. To the external auditory meatus
29. Which of the following are indications for performing examination of the biliary tract?
I. Condition and patency of biliary ducts
II. Concentrating and emptying power of gallbladder
III. Function of the liver
A. II and III B. I and II C. I, II and III D. I and III
30. Demonstrating poylp on the left side of the large colon can BEST be accomplished with a position.
A. Right anterior oblique B. Left posterior oblique
C. Left lateral decubitus D. Right lateral decubitus
31. Determine the position if the patient is recumbent and the central ray directed horizontally
A. Sims’ B. Trendelenburg C. Decubitus D. Fowler’s
32. The angiographic study for the demonstration of pulmonary embolus id referred to as________.
A. Pulmonary arteriography B. Pulmonary arteriogram
C. Thoracic aortogram D. Thoracic angiogram
33. Lower extremity venograph requires an injection of iodinated contrast medium into the _______.
A. Popliteal vein B. Deep veins of the foot
C. Femoral vein D. Superficial veins of foot
34. Which of the following would BEST be visualized in a trendelenburge position in an upper gastrointestinal series
examination?
A. Greater and lesser curvature B. Pyloric canal
C. Diaphragm hernia D. Duodenum
35. A technique for double-contrast enemas that reveals even the smallest intraluminal lesion was developed by
_________.
A. Welin B. Gordon C. Chassard-lapine D. Ettinger and Elkin
36. An oblique position for the stomach is performed to demonstrate the __________.
I. Fundus
II. Duodenal bulb
III. Duodenal loop
A. I and II B. II and III C. I and III D. I, II and III
37. How long (in minutes) will majority of all reaction to contrast media occur from the start of injection?
A. 50-60 B. 20 C. 10-15 D. 1-5
38. In a single stage double contrast enema ____________.
A. The most commonly obtained projection are PA/AP, axial for sigmoid and lateral for rectum.
B. Patient in prone position, colon filled to the colic flexure and right lateral projection is taken
C. Patient is turned 360 degrees, placed in supine after which spot and overhead radiograph are taken
D. Welin method is utilized
39. Select the position/projection that would BEST demonstrate acromioclavicular separation
A. Anteroposterior erect, both shoulders B. Anteroposterior erect, affected shoulders
C. Anteroposterior recumbent, affected shoulders D. Anteroposterior recumbent, both shoulders
40. In performing parietoacanthial projection for facial bones examination, there must be no rotation and tilting of the
head during exposure. Which of the following should the Radiologic Technologist consider achieve positioning
requirement?
I. Palpate the mastoid process with thumb and fingertips on each side to ensure that occlusal plane and interpupillary
are equidistant from the tabletop
II. Neck is extended and chin resting against the radiographic table
III. Midsagital plane is placed perpendicular to the midline of the image receptor
A. I, II and III B. II and III C. I and II D. I and III
41. Select the position/projection that would BEST demonstrate air-filled fundus and duodenum in an upper
gastrointestinal series examination.
A. Oblique B. Lateral C. Posteroanterior D. Anteroposterior
42. The method employed to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa in an anteroposterior axial projection is _______.
A. Holmblad B. Settegast C. Camp-coventry D. Beclere
43. Which of the following are indications for intravenous cholangiography?
I. Evaluation of the head of pancreas in cases of obstruction
II. Post cholecystectomy with recurrent symptoms of biliary tract disease
III. Demonstrate of common bile duct abnormalities if oral cholecystectogram is negative
A. II and III B. I and III C. I and II D. I, II and III
44. Choose the position/projection that can demonstrate branching of the biliary duct.
A. Lateral B. Posteroanterior C. Anteroposterior D. Oblique
45. Identify the radiograph used to demonstrate tumor masses or prostatic enlargement in an intravenous urography
procedure.
A. Lateral B. Oblique C. Post-void D. Anteroposterior erect
46. Which of the following projections will demonstrate an oblique frontal projection of the facial bones, orbits, maxillae,
and zygomatic arches?
A. PA oblique B. PA oblique axial C. Lateral D. Parietoacanthial
47. Determine how long (in hours) will the barium solution reach the ileocecal valve in barium follow through for children.
A. Three B. Six C. One D. Twenty-four
48. Choose the position/projection that will separate the radial head, neck and tuberosity from superimposition on the
ulna.
A. Lateral oblique
49. Determine the central ray direction in a posterior oblique position of the cervical spine.
A. Perpendicular to 4th cervical vertebra B. Parallel to 4th cervical vertebra
C. 15˚ cephalad to 4th cervical vertebra D. 15˚ caudad to 4th cervical vertebra
50. Choose the structure that is BEST shown in a barium enema examination with the patient lying on its side, midaxillary
portion of the abdomen centered to table and central ray directed perpendicular to the anterior superior iliac spine.
A. Cecum B. Rectosigmoid C. Rectum D. Ileocecal
51. The fovea capitis particularly the superoposterior walls of the acetabulum could BEST be demonstrated in a ________
method.
A. Cecum B. Teufel C. Danelius-Miller D. Clements- Nakayama
52. Point out the projection that would BEST demonstrate a posterior hip dislocation.
A. Teufel B. Stauning C. Bridgeman D. Hsieh
53. Choose the structure that is BEST demonstrated in an upper gastrointestinal series examination with the patient lying
recumbent on the right side, midcoronal plane and anterior of abdomen centered to midline of table, the central ray is
directed perpendicular to L1-L2.
A. Duodenal bulb in hypersthenic patient
B. Duodenal bulb is sthenic patient
C. Duodenal bulb asthenic patient
D. Duodenal bulb hyposthenic patient
54. Which of the following resulting image will be shown in a tangential projection (Lewis/Holly method)?
A. Toes and distal portion of metatarsal rotated laterally
B. Tangential profile of metatarsal head and sesamoid
C. Sesamoid bones projected axiolaterally with slight overlap
D. Lateral projection of phalenges and interphalangeal articulation
55. Choose the position that will demonstrate the lumbosacral apophyseal articulation.
A. Anteroposterior B. 30˚ right posterior oblique
C. Lateral D. 45˚ left posterior oblique.
56. Which of the following maneuvers is applied in laryngopharyngography procedure to test the elasticity and
functionality of the glottis?
A. Valsalva maneuver B. Normal phonation
C. Quite inspiration D. Mueller maneuver.
57. Choose the MOST commonly employed radiographic positions to demonstrate the sternum.
I. Lateral position
II. Left anterior oblique
 III. Right anterior oblique
A. II and III B. I, II and III C. I and II D. I and III
58. Choose the statement that refers to positioning of patient in an anterosuperior projection of the scapula
A. Arm is raised upward, forearm resting over the head
B. Patient is abducted at right angle to the body
C. Patient is positioned in recumbent position
D. Elbow is flexed with hand supinated
59. Which of the following procedures is performed to dilate a stenotic vessel?
A. Renal arteriography
B. Surgical Nephrostomy
C. Percutaneous Nephrolithiasis
D. Percutaneous angioplasty
60. Flouroscopic imaging of the ileocecal valve is generally part of ____________.
A. A small bowel series B. An esophagram
C. An upper gastrointestinal series D. An endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatoraphy
61. Determine the central ray direction in a lateral position, Pawlow method, to demonstrate the cervico-thorocic
vertebrae.
A. Angle 3-5 degrees caudad to cervico-thoracic area
B. Perpendicular to the film
C. Center to the midaxillary line of the body
D. Angled 10-20 degrees caudad cervico-thoracic area
62. Determine the position of the gallbladder in asthenic patient.
A. Superior and medial B. Inferior and medial
C. Superior and lateral D. Inferior and lateral
63. Determine the patient’s position in posteroanterior that will BEST demonstrate the sternoclavicular joints.
A. In slight oblique position, affected side away from image receptor
B. In a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to image receptor
C. In erect, and with weights
D. In erect, with and without weights
64. Determine the abdomen position/projection that would BEST demonstrate the size and shape of liver and kidneys.
A. Lateral B. Ventral decubitus
C. Dorsal decubitus D. Anteroposterior
65. Which of the following will separate the radial head, neck and tuberosity from superimposition in examination of the
ulna?
A. Lateral projection B. AP Projection
C. Lateral oblique position D. Medial oblique position
66. Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding a true posterioanterior projection of the skull with the central
ray perpendicular to the image receptor?
I. The central ray exits at the nasion
II. The midsagittal plane is parallel to the image receptor
III. The petrous pyramid are within the orbits
A. I and II B. I and III C. I, II and III D. II and III
67. Determine the procedure that should be performed to rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine.
A. Horizontal beam- lateral
B. Anteriorposterior cervical spine- recumbent
C. Lateral- flexion and extension
D. Oblique cervical spine- seated
68. Identify the projection/ position performed to demonstrate the liver.
A. Left lateral B. Anteroposterior
C. Right posterior oblique D. Posteroanterior axial (Benassi method)
 Patient Care

1. Which of the following is NOT a part of the upper extremity?

A. Brachial B. Tarsal

C. Palmar D. Antecubital

2. Choose the following organ that removes bilirubin from the blood, manufactures plasma

proteins, and is involved with the production of prothrombin and fibrinogen?

A. Kidney B. Galllbladder

C. Liver D. Spleen

3. What kind of learning does a Radiologic Technology acquire when he undergoes computer

Tomography subspecialty in a hospital institution with an approved training program and

accreditation?

A. Life-long B. Self-directed

C. Formal D. Informal

4. A radiographer was accepted as a casual employee in a hospital. He begins to worry

about his inadequacy, his limitation to communicate, his manner of dressing and his inability

to approach a patient and do what is best. What do these express?

A. Depression B. Low self-esteem

C. Poor critical thinking D. Inexperience

5. What is the function of the heart valves?

A. Eliminate unlikely materials from the bloodstream

B. Move the blood through arteries

C. Ensure one direction of blood flow

D. Filter infection inside the heart

6. Select the unusual and exaggerated reaction to foreign protein or other substances.

A. lethargy B. syncope

C. anaphylaxis D. angioneurotic edema

7. Choose the medical term used to describe "hardening"?

A. Fibrosis B. Plaque

C. Sclerosis D. Stenosis

8. When the Radiographer is tasked to remove the retention urinay catheter, he should start by:

A. Cleaning the urinary meatus

B. Maintaining patient privacy

C. Give information to the patient

D. Deflating the ballon

9. What blood type is the Universal Recipient? Blood type

A. AB B. B

C. A D. O

10. What is the term that describe movements of the small intestine to transport food

elements in its lumen?

A. Spasm B. Peristalsis

C. Stratification D. Segmental motion

11. What is the range of normal adult respiratory rate/min?

A. 30-40 B. 20-30

C. Less than 10 D. 10-20

12. Select which area controls body temperature, sleep and appetite.

A. Thyroid gland B. Hypothalamus

C. Pancreas D. Adrenal gland

13. What is a violation of the sterile technique observed in the operating

room or when doing interventional radiology procedures?

A. Holding sterile objects below the waist Level

B. Replacement of soiled gloves

C. Pass face to face when passing a colleague in sterile gown

D. Circulating nurse should stay outside of the sterile area

14. What is the medical term to de scribe awareness or feeling of an approaching seizure

A. Aura B. Aphasia C. Vertigo D. Ataxia

15. If an artery is cut in a cross section, what would it look like?

A. Cylinder B. Quadrangle

C. Rectangle D. Oval

16. What is the membrane lining the abdominal cavity?

A. Pericardium B. Pleura

C. Meninges D. Peritoneum

17. What is the vertebral level of the xiphoid process?

A. T9 B.T 11 C. T 7 D. T6
18. What cardiac phase is the volume of the heart highest?

A. Cardiac output B. End of systole

C. Diastole D. Ejection fraction

19. Identify the location of a stone by the medical term, "cholelithiasis":

A. Gallbladder B. Common bile duct

C. Cystic duct D. Pancreatic duct

20. What is the virtue of giving "what is best" to your patient?

A. Justice B. Sacrifice

C. Non maleficence D. Beneficence

21. Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding the cardiovascular system?

A. The left ventricle generates more pressure than the right ventricle.

B. The heart contains 2 pumps that are arranged in series.

C. The base of the heart rests on the diaphragm.

D. The right ventricle is the pump of the pulmonary circuit.

22. What does the terminology "centesis" means?

A. Drain B. Puncture

C. Open D. Weakness

23. What is the conditions present which help an aerobic bacteria grow?

A. Oxygen B. Increased temperature

C. UV light D. Temperature <0 degrees

24. The Radiologic Technologist is on evening duty in the Department, he noticed that one

of his colleagues who is also on duty smells of alcohol. What should you do?

A. Inform the chief technologist of the incident

B. Report the incident to the Human Resource Department for disciplinary action

C. Approach him to ask and personally investigate the incident

D. The chairman of the Department should be informed.

25. What is the meaning of the prefix "Aur-" means ?

C. Tongue A. Head

B. Lip D. Ear

26.What does the prefix "Ante" means?

A. Before B. After

C. Behind D. Against

27. The suffix "cyan-" means:

A. Blue B. Yellow

C. Black D. Red

28. This refers to the inculcation of advanced knowledge, skills and ethical

values in the post licensure specialization in a multidisciplinary field of study.

A. Professional Tract for Radiologic Technology

B. Career Progression

C. Continuing Professional Development

D. Asean Qualification Framework

29. In Radiologic Technology - Patient relationship, which one of the following is NOT acceptable?
A. Shall hold in confidence all information obtained in the course of professional practice

B. Shall uphold the principle of informed consent

C. He could give his clinical opinion especially in emergency situations.

D. Shall only provide services for which he is qualified.

30. Saliva contains an enzyme that acts upon which of the following nutrients?

A. Starch B. Minerals

C. Proteins D. Fats

31. Who Owns the medical record of the patient?

A. The court B. The patient

C. The attending physician D. The hospital

32. The suffix "-ectomy " means:

A. drain B. surgically removed

C. cut into D. scope examination

33. An increase in the secretion of this hormone would MOST likely decrease

the level of TSH production:

A. Calcitonin B. Parathormone

C. Levothyroxine D. Acetylcholinee

34. The volume of blood (in liters) that each ventricle of the heart ejects every minute is known As

A. Blood pressure B. Cardiac output

C. Heart rate D. Stroke volume

35. Select the meaning of "litigation"

A. Obligation to be fulfilled by Law B. Injury or harm to patient

C. Negligence D. Lawsuit

36. What organ function as storage of bile?

A. Common bile duct B. Gallbladder

C. Liver D. Hepatocytes

37. What is the length (in meters ) of the jejunum?

A. 3 B.1.5

C.2.5 D.1

38. Which of the following parts of the nephron does the function of filtration?

A. Proximal convoluted tubule

B. Glomerulus

C. Distal convoluted tubule

D. Nephron Loop

39. What happens if a licensed radiographer allows a person without a professional

license to practice radiography?

A. Subject to administrative liability

B. Allowed when the hospital administration employs the person

C. Allowed if the case is emergency

D. Maybe accepted if there is no one to take over the licensed radiographer's responsibilities

40. Choose the area which is NOT the usual site of ureteral constriction.

A. Uretero-iliac

B. Uretero-vertebral
C. Uretero-pelvic

D. Uretero-vesical

41. What is the outer layer of the heart?

A. Septum

B. Apex

C. Epicardium

D. Myocardium

42. What does suffix "asthenia" means?

A Pain

B. Paresthesia

C. Suffering

D. Weakness

43. The ward has requested for an interventional procedure on a patient with

hepatitis B, the following precaution should be practiced:

A. Contact

B. Airborne

C. Protective

D. Oral

44. Select the ethical principle practiced where the health care

professional observes equal attention, Care and benefit to patients

A. Justice

B. Stewardship

C. Autonomy
D. Double effect

45.The patient's chart can be taken out of the hospital under the following Circumstances:

A. Patient's relative pays for patient hospitalization and shows receipt

B. The court asks for it.

C. Patient owns their clinical record

D. When a lawyer needs it to study the case

46.What is the portion of the small intestine that is attached to the large intestines?

A. Jejunum

B. Caecum

C. ILEUM

D. Appendix

47. What is the thoracic level of the Xyphoid process?

A. T11

B. T9

C. T10

D. T12

48. The skin is disinfected before any interventional radiology imaging procedure to:

A. ensure success of procedure

B. decrease possibility of introducing microorganisms into the Open wound

C. protect health workers from contamination

D. protect sterile drapes from contamination

49. A bone Scan read as "compatible with multiple metastasis", may mean spread of cancer to
A. distant sites

B. Contiguous areas

C. lymph nodes

D. bones and others organs

50. What is the muscle lining the wall of the hollow organs and some blood vessels?

A. Smooth B. Striated

C. Cardiac D. Skeletal

51. What do you call the waves of muscular contraction that propel contents

of the digestive tract from one area to another field?

A. Pendula movements B. Churning motion

C. Peristalsis D. Augmentation motion

52. The Continuing Professional Development council shall be composed of a chairperson

and two members. The first member shall come from

A. The Association of Deans and Faculties of RT Colleges Universities

B. The Board of Radiologic Technology

C. The Professional Radiologic Technologist from an Accredited Hospital

D. The ACCredited Professional Organization

53. What is the medical term for "difficulty of speaking" ?

A. Dysphasia B: Aphagia

C. Aphasia D. Dysphagia

54. The distal greater omentun is attached to the

A. liver B. rectum
C. splenic flexure D. transverse colon

55. The liver has lobes

A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 6

56. How is the abdomen divided to describe the location of organs?

A.9 areas B. 2 horizontal lines

C. 6 sections D. 3 vertical lines

57. Which joint is the intercondylar eminence found?

A. Shoulder B. Elbow

C. Knee D. Ankle

58. In surgical asepsis, the sterile person should drape:

A. the area farthest away from them first

B. the area nearest the invasive site first

C. from unsterile to sterile areas

D. the area closest to them first

59. Which of the following is NOT Used for administration of contract media?

A. Subcutaneous B. Intramuscular

C. Intra-arterial D. Intra venous

60. Which of the following is NOT a paranasal sinus?

A. ethmoid B. Mastoid

C. frontal D. maxillary

61. Which of the following is an accessory organ of the gastrointestinal

system that is responsible for secreting insulin?

A. Spleen B. Pancreas

C. Liver D. Adrenal gland

62. What does the term "cephalo" refers to?

A. Spine B. Feet

C. Neck D. Head

63. Identify the hormone that lowers the blood glucose level.

A. Growth hormone B. Insulin

C. Cortisol D. Glucagon

64. What is the medicine that a patient should take to prepare bowels in barium enema

procedure?

A. Analgesic B. Anticholinergic

C. Cathartic D. Antipyretic

65. What is the inferior boundary of the superior mediastinum?

A. Diaphragm B. Thoraic inlet

C. Sternal angle D. Line drawn at pulmonary hilum

66. What is the outer layer of the heart?

A. Epicardium B. Myocardium

C. Apex D. Septum

67.What is an auxiliary branch of Radiology that deals with the technical application of

X-rays, gamma rays, ultrasound and radio frequency rays in the diagnosis and treatment
of diseases ?

A. Radiologic Technology B. Interventional Radiology

C. Radiation Oncology D. Nuclear Medicine

68. Fertilization of an ovum by a spermatozoon occurs in which of the following structures?

A. Cervix C. Fallopian tube

B. Ovary D. Uterus

69.What structures comprise the upper respiratory system?

A. Larynx, Lungs, nose

B. Nasal cavity, pharynx, Larynx

C. Pharynx, trachea, bronch1

D. Nasal cavity, larynx, trachea

70. The set of teeth used in biting an apple are the

A. Premolars B. Canines

C. Incisors D. Molars

71. What could have possibly happened when a patient, after contrast media

injection tor an X-ray procedure developed difficulty of breathing ?

A. Septic shock B. Anaphylactic shock

C. Hypovolemic shock D. Cardiogenic shock

72.The non-Radiologic Technology member (RA #7431) of the Board of

Radiologic Technology should be a physician in the field of:

A. Nuclear Medicine B. Medical Physics

C. Radiology D. Radiation Oncology

73. What is the abdomen divided to describe the location of organs?

A. 3 vertical lines B. 6 sections

C. 9 areas5 D. 2 horizontal lines

74. A radiologic technologist is attending a function when an elderly woman, happily eating her

meal suddenly becomes agitated and gasping for her breath. What should he do?

A. Bring immediately to the emergency room B. Vital signs and call for help

C. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation D: Abdominal thrust

75. An elderiy female patient is scheduled for Computed Tomography of the brain. She was

quiet when she came but began to cry and could not hold her emotion as she waits for her

turn to be called. How Would you approach the situation?

A. As other patients are bothered, waiting for their turn to be called, it is prudent to call the

ward to reassess patients or reschedule at a better time.

B. Tell patient not to worry as the radiologist assigned is very good and well trained and

procedure will go along without complications

C. Elderly patients are usually emotional and sensitive and

Counselling is not your line of specialty and not related to the X-ray procedure.

D. Appease her wories by talking to her on what bothers her.

76.The Radiographer noticed redness on the patient' s IV therapy site, but

patient do not complain of pain. What is the possible complication of IV therapy that the

Radiographer should be aware of?

A. Occlusion B. Air embolism

C. Infiltration D. Phlebitis
77. How do you practice safety precaution when disposing used needles and syringes?

A Place Syringe and uncapped needle in separate waste bins

B. Placed capped needles in a waste basket for Contamination garbage

C. Recap needle and dispose quickly

D. Detach needle from syringe and place in a collected needle receptacle

78. False and extravagant, unethical advertisement of practice is classified as malpractice.

A. Criminal B. Civil

C. Legal D. Administrative

79. What is the average total blood volume (liters) in the body?

A. 7 B.4 C. 6 D. 5

80. What area is NOT part of the upper extremity?

A. Antecubital B. Palmar

C. Brachial D. Inguinal

81. Which of the following does NOT pass through the glomerular filtration membrane?

A. Solutes B. Water

C. Electrolytes D. Blood cells

82. Where does the filtration process happen in the nephron?

A. Glomerulus B. Loop

C. Proximal convoluted tubule D. Renal cortex

83. The waste products pass from the bloodstream into urine through

A. glomerular filtration only

B. re-absorption

C. secretion only

D. glomerular filtration and secretion

84. What is the proximal part of the sternum?

A. Acromion B. Manubrium

C. Xyphoid D. Coracoid

85. Identify the structure that produces the male sex hormones

A. Testes B. Glans penis

C. Prepuce D. Prostate

86. The Continuing Professional Development/CPD Units could be gathered from the following,

EXCEPT

A. Corporate Social Responsibility

B. Gender and Development

C. Self-directed and life-long learning

D. Overtime lecture in a Post Graduate Course

87. A Radiologic Technologist who is selfless and who voluntarily helps patients waiting at the

Department for a procedure, helps his fellow radiologic technologists, practices the virtue of:

A. Love B. Justice

C. Fortitude D. Prudence

88. A 56 years old male patient was diagnosed to have lung cancer two month ago and was told

to have stage of the disease, He has divided to stop medication, had alternative treatment and

sought consultations of second and third opinion from other physicians. He would be mostly in
what stage of grieving?

A. Barganing B. Anger

C. Depress1on D. Denial

Situation1 -A young man was brought at the Emergency Room because of a

vehicular accident late in the evening. He has an open Wound at the left leg which was bleeding.

He was referred for an X-ray of the leg to rule out fracture.

89. What is the FIRST THING that the Radiologic Technologist should do?

A. Perform the x-ray quickly while a relative apply Wound pressure

B. Inform attending physician to give orders on what to do

C. ASK an emergency room staff to come to attend to the patient

D. Apply direct pressure to the wound with a clean gauze.

90. The Radiologic Technologist on duty took the x-ray, but part of the Leg was NOT included in

the X-ray film and he needs to repeat the procedure. identify what ethical principle in patent care

was Violated

A. Maleficence B. Beneficence

C. Patient 's rights D. Non maleficence

91. On the X-ray, the radiologic technologist saw a fracture at the dista end of the fibula.

As it was already late in the evening and everybody is sleeping, the Radiologic Technologist

should relay his findings directly to the

A. radiology resident

B. X-ray supervisor on night duty

C. attending physician

D. emergency room staff

92. The Orthopedic Resident came to See the X-ray and decided to putt a cast

leg and requested for an X-ray. Why is a repeat X-ray of the leg requested?

A. To check alignment of the segments

B. To see if there are other fractures present on the bones of the leg

C. Is no longer necessary as the fracture was already seen

D. To check if there are complications due to the fracture

Situation 2-A patient is scheduled for an Interventional Radiology procedure

As the RT assigned, one of your duties is to check the chart for important entries relevant to

the procedure such patient history in-formed consent, previous work up, Procedure preparation,

among others.

93. Select why is the skin disinfected prior to an Interventional Radiology

procedure?

A. Ensure success of the invasive procedure

B. Decrease possibility of 1ntroducing micro-organism

C. Protect the sterile drapes from contamination

D. Protect the Radiology team to be infected

94. What is the TECHNIQUE performed by the Interventional Radiologist n doing a procedure?

to keep an area free from contamination

A Septic B. Aseptic

C. Contamination-free D. Antiseptic

95.Identify the area frequently used to feel the pulse:

A. liac B. Ankle
C. Carotid D. Radial

96. The PRIMARY responsibility of obtaining a free and informed consent from

a competent patient belongs to the:

A. Attending Physician B. Proxy consent Maker

C. Resident Physician D. Nurse Assigned

Situation 3- RG is a Radiologic Technology supervisor in one of Metro Manila Hospitals

Who inqired for possible application as CPD Provider for his institution, He found out the

Following information:

97. Who can Not Apply as a CPD Provider?

A. Non-PRC professional

B. Individual or sole proprietor

C. Accredited Professional Organization

D. Corporation or Professional Societies

98. The required number of CPD units in the new CPD implementing rules and regulations

During the transition period is

A.35 B.25 C 15 D 45

99.RG has friends who are who are working as OFW in KSA/ kingdom of Saudi Arabia

And they could renew their professional identification card (PIC) with the following requirements:

A. Nominal number of CPD Units and passport

B. CPD unit requirement of only 25, not 45 units

C. A narrative description of work abroad and certification as an OFW

D. A certificate of RT employment abroad

100. The application as conference provider when approved by the CPD council has a duration

Validity of years.

A.2

B.4

C.3

D. .5
EXTRACTED RAD SCI TG ONLY

1.IDA compounds are used to label with

Technetium 99m (Te99m) for biliary scan.

IDA means

A. Isosordide acid

B. Imminodiacetic acdd

CAminodiacetate acid

D. Immunodiacetic acid

2.Determine what produces microwaves to

oscillate electrons ina linear accelerator.

A. Waveguide

B. Electron gun

C. Magnetron

D. Modulator

3. As Defined by the International Commission on Radiological Units (1CRU), what does the term clinical
target volume mean?

A. Tissue volume that contains a demonstrable GTV and/or

subclinical microscopic malignant diseasse, which has to be eliminated.

B. Gross palpable/visible/demonstrable tumor extent and location of malignant growth.

C. Tissues to be irradiated to specified dose according to specified time-dose pattern.

D. Primary tumor, metastatic lymphadenopathy, or other

metastasis.
4.The uptake of Technetium-

methylenediphosphonate (Tc-MPP) is bone

tissue is based on

A. Phagocytosis by the bone matrix

B. Surface adsorption of labeled phosphate on

hydroxyapatite crystals

C. Passive diffusion and exchange with hydroxide ions

D. Metabolic trapping

5.Horseshoe kidneys may be confused

sonographycally with which of the following

entities?

A.Tumor growth

B. Hyperneprome

C. Lymphadenopathy

D.Carcinoma of head of pancreas

6.Point out a condition that is caused by

inhalation of irritating dusts which leads to

chronic inflammation and pulmonary fibrosis.

A.Silicosis

B.Asbestosis

C. Anthracosis

D.pneumoconiosis
7.Which uncertainties is the reason why

margins are always added around a tumor

when treatment fields are designed by

radiation mucologists?

A. Determining tumor extent, patient motion, and changes of

tumor during course of treatment.

B. Penumbra of beam, patient motion, and changes due to

weight gain during treatment.

C. Determining tumor extent, penumbra of beam, and patient

motion

D. Penumbra of beam, respiration, and weight gain during the

course of treatment

8.The unit used for expressing the ratio of two

quantities of electrical signal or sound

energy is

A.Hertz

B.Decibel

C.Density

D.Attenuation

9.The cephalic index is defined as the ratio of

bipareital diameter (BPD) to

A.Binocular distances
B.Occipito-frontal diameters

C.Femur length

D.Abdominal circumference

10. Select the interaction in the clinical range

that is the MOST predominant for

megavoltage photon beams.

A.Pair production

B.Photoelectric effect

C.Photodisintegration

D.Compton effect

11. A pituitary tumor is considered a macro

adenoma if its size is

A. Less than 2 cm

B. More than 1 cm

C. More than 2 cm

D. Less than 1 cm

12. Sound production occurs when plezo

electric crystals (PEC)

A. Are deformed with acoustic oscillations

B. Respond to applied voltage

C. Respond to frequency

D. Are deformed with applied mechanical pressure

13. Select the MOST definitive test for

esophageal tumor.

A. Complete blood count

B.Barium swallow

C. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy

D. Computed tomography

14. The radiopharmaceuticals

tracer gastric emptying study are,

used for dual

A. Tc99m sulfur colloid labeled eggs and Gallium 67 in

water

B. Indium 111 labeled eggas and Tc99m DTPA in water

C. Tc99m sulfur colloid labeled eggs and Te99m tin

collold in water

D.Tc99m DTPA in water and Tc99m sulfur colloid

labeled eggs

15. Which of the following are characteristics

of first generation computed tomography unit?

L. Pencil beam

II. Translate rotate mode

III. Bow tle filter

A. II and III

B.I and II

C.I, II and III

D. I and II

16. Which dose is the result of electron

contamination of the incident beam as

well as the backscattered radiation (both

electrons and photons) frequency the

medium?

A. Depth

B. Percent

C. Electron

D. Surface

18. Determine an injury of the brain that is

caused by severe impact.

C Contusion

19. Lefort's method for cassification of

fracture involving the craniofacial bones is

A. Type 3

B. Type 2

C Type 1
 D. Type 4

20. Dose calibrators are usually_type detectors.

A. nal (Sodium lodide)

B. Geiger counters

C lonization chambers

D . Solid state

21. Choose the modality that is considered as

the gold standard for noninvasive

diagnosis of appendicitis

A. Computed tomography

B. Magnetic resonance imaging

C. Radiography

D. Ultrasound

22. Which of the following conditions is

characterized by a dilated calyces and

renal pelvis?

A.Hydronephrosis

B.Pyelonephritis

CHypernephroma

D . Nephrosis
23. Which of the following is the MOST

important consideration to avoid

radiation-induced pneumonitis?

A. Daily fractionation schedule and the patient's weight

B. Total dose, fractionation schedule and the patient's

weight

C. Total dose and also which portion of the lung was

irradiated

D. The patient's smoking history and the total dose

24. Which of the following quantities the

degree that a structure attenuates an x-

ray beam?

A. Hounsfield unit

B. Heat unit

C Lnear attenuation coefficlent

D. Absorption efficiency

25. The linear attenuation coeficientis

directly related to_

A Hounsfield unit

B. Projections

C Heat unit

D. Absorption efficiency
26. A well-defined structure with increased

echogenicity is a description of

A.Liver cyst

B.Abscess

C.Solid tumor

D.Multiple cysts

27. What is the computation of an unknown

value using known values on either side?

A. Interpolation

B. Z-axis reformation

C. Extrapolation

D.Z-axds resolution

28. Select the gold standard in evaluation and

lagnosis of renal abscess.

A. Ultrasound

B. Computed tomography

C Radiography

D. Magnetic resonance

29. Point out the coincidence resulting from

two photons detected at the same time

but originate from two independent

events in a position emission tomography

(PET).

A. Random

B. Recolled

C Scatter

D. Multiple

30. In a nuclear medicine hepatobilary

imaging, the gallbladder normally will

Ppear in

A2minutes

Blhour

CI0min

D30min

31. Which is an abnormal permanent

enlargement of the air spaces distal to the

terminal bronchioles?

A. Bronchial asthma

B. Pneumonia

C Bronchitis

D. Emphysema

32. A flattening filter is used to

A. Remove all of the electrons from the beam

B. Determine the dose rate

C Reduce the dose rate in the center of unfiltered

beam

D. Cause the dose rate to be increased

33 . Which of the following conditions shows a

radiographic appearance as having

numerous thicker folds of the stomach

above the diaphragm in a gastrointestinal

series examination?

A. Achalasia

B. Esophageal varices

C. Gastric ulcer

D. Hiatal hernia

34. Which of the following is a hospital

acquired infection and inflammation of

the alveoli?

A. Nosocomial pneumonia

B. Community acquired pneumonia

C Community acquired upper respiratory tract

infection

D. Upper respiratory tract infection

The maximum dose of a 6MV photon

beam occurs approximately

depth in cm

A.2.0

B. 1.5

C 3.0

D. 0.5

36. Which imaging modality would BEST

demonstrate the posterior fossa,

cerebellum, and brainstem?

A. Magnetic resonance imaging

B. Position emission tomography

C. Single photo emission computed tomography

D. Computed tomography

37. Which of the folowing is a common cause

of cystitis/urinary tract infection?

A. Infection from the ureter and kidneys

B. Complete bladder emptying after voiding

C. Descending infection from the urethra

D. Ascending infection from the urethra

38. In the Larmor equation, B equals the

A. Gyromagnetic ratio

B. Magnetic dipole

C Frequency of precession
D. Static magnetic field

39. Computed tomography equipment must

be frequently calibrated so that water is

consistently represented by CT number

zero and other tissues with their

appropriate CT number. This is referred to as

A. Image reconstruction

B. Uniformity at daily basisl

C. Noise

D. Linearity

40. What is the MOST popular radiofrequency

pulse sequence which reduces scan time

consisting of a 90 degrees' pulse initiating

partial saturation sequence folowed by a

180 degrees' pulse at 50% of the echo-

time?

A. Partial saturation

B. Gradient echo

C Spin-echo

D. Inversion recovery

41. Which of the following is the MOST

sensitive and specific noninvasive method

of diagnosing mitral stenosis?

A.Ultrasonography

B. Cardiac arteriography

C. Computed tomography

D.Echocardiography

42. On a sagittal scan, the portal vein is seen

as a circular anechoic structure

A.Medial to the head of the pancreas

B. Posterior to the aorta

C.Inferior to the head of the pancreas

D.Anterior to the inferior vena cava

43. The main pathologic problem brought

about by embolism is

A.Edema

B.Obstruction

C. Inflammation

D.Infection

44. The process by which protons release the,

energy that is absorbed from the

radiofrequency pulse is_

A. Precession

B. Refraction

C. Relaxation

D.lonization

45. Select the radiation therapy unit that

operate at approximately 50 to 120 kVp.

A.Superficial

B.Orthovoltage (range at 250 kvp)

C. Betatrons

D.Linear accelerator

46. ldentify the part of the brainstem that

appears as heart-shaped or circular-

shaped structure on axial computed

tomography scans of the brain.

A. Tectum

B. Pons

CMedulla

D. Midbrain

47. What is the PRIMARY advantage of

magnetic resonance imaging compared

with other imaging modalities?

A. Spatial resolution

B. Fast imaging time

C Low cost

D. Contrast resolution

48. The original A-mode techniques were used to

evaluate:

1 Hydrocephalus

2 Mass lesions

3. Midline shift

A.I, Il and Ill

B.I and il

C ll and II

D. l and l

49. What radiopharmaceuticals are used for

dual tracer gastric emptying study?

A. Indium ll labeled eggs and Tc99m DTPA in water

B. Tc99m DTPA in water and Tc99m sulfur colloid

labeled eggs

C. Tc99m sulfur colloid labeled eggs and Gallium 67

in water

colloid in water

D. Te99m sulfur collold labeled eggs and Tc99m tin

50. Which of the following is the hallmark of

the radiographic appearance of

emphysema?

A. Honey comb pattern of fibrosis and areas of dilatation

B. Hour glass sign

C. Presence of Humptons sign

D. Pulmonary over-inflation with flattening of domes of diaphragm

51. What is the main goal of radiation therapy

in patients with bone metastasis?

A.Prevent fractures and reduce the pain

B. Prevent fractures and reduce nausea

C. Prevent tumor from spreading further

D.Eradicate the tumor

52. An instrument used to detect frequency

shift is called,

A. Doppler

B. Real-time

CAmode

D. Static scanner

53. Point out the condition that would MOST

likely cause acoustic enhancement

A. Gallstone
B. Solid mass

C. Fluid-filled mass

D. Calcified mass

54. In a Nuclear Medicine liver scanning, the

colloid shift refers to-

A. Increased uptake of colloid in spleen and bone

marrow relative to liver

B. Redistribution of colloid within the liver over

time

C. Small colloid particles clumped together to form

D. Te99m sulfur colloid changing to albumin collold

large particles and localizes in lungs

55. Choose the BEST radiographic examination

for an adult patient with pleural effusion.

A. An apicolordotic view, antero-posterior and

lateral

B. An anteroposterior projection and lateral

position

C A posteranterior projection and lateral decubitus

on the affected side

D.A chest PA and lateral decubitus on the

unaffected side
56. Which of the following are the common

areas of the body that are radiographedt

determine bone age?

D. Hand and wrist

57. Computed tomography is the BEST Imagng procedure for

Screening patients with blunt trauma for presence of

splenic injury. Splenic lacerations will result in a computed

tomography scanning appearance of,

I. Asplenic enlargement

II. An irregular cleft or defect in the splenic border

II. Free blood in the peritoneal cavity

A.land Ill

B. l and Il

Cll and lI

D. I, Il and Ill

58. Which of the following is the process by

which the entire data setis used for high-

quality, 3D images?

A. Image matrix

B. Surface rendering

C. Skin rendering

D. Volumetric rendering
59. The unit of measure of radlation in airis

A.Curie

B. Gray

C. Roentgen

D. Sievert

60. Which of the following

radiopharmaceuticals is used for "hot-

spot" myocardial imaging?

A. Te-99m Tetrofosmin

B. To-99m PYP (pyrophosphate)

C To-99m Sestamibi

D. To-99m MDP (mathylendiphosphonate)

61. Which device provides the link between

the computed tomography technologst

and other components of the imagjng

system?

A. Gantry

B. Detector assembly

C. Data acquisition system

D. Computer

62. What type of computed tomography scan artifact will produce a starburn appearance

A. streak artifacts
B. motion artifact

C. Beam hardening artifacts

D. partial volume effect

63.One of the acoustic parametes whidh

determines the intensity of the wltrasound wave is

A Period

B. power

C partice displacement

D. wavelength

64. What describes the loss in the untormity

of individual cells and thelr architectural

orientation?

B. Aplasia

C Atrophy

D. Hyperplasla

65. What is the ratio of pressure to particle

velocity at a given point within the

ultrasonlc fleld?

A. Insonation

B. Interference

C. Impedance
D, Nolse

66. A disorder that is characterized by small

testes that fails to mature and produce

sperm is a syndrome

A. Down

B. Turners

C Marine

D. Klinefelters

67. The average energy of cobalt-60 beam is

A.2.0 MeV

B.0.6 MeV

C.4.0 MeV

D, 1.2 MeV

68. Which of the following radionuclide is

used to image the neuroendocrine

tumors?

A. lodine 131 lipiodol

B. Nitrogen 13 ammonia

C. Indium 111 WBC

D. lodine 123 MIBG (metaiodobenrylguanidine)

69. What radiation therapy machine uses 50-

150 kV potential range?

A. Superficial

B. Contact

C. Supervoltage

D. Orthovoltage

70. The isocenter is the

A. point around which the source of beam

B. point on the central axis where maximum

rotates dose occurs

C. imaginary point in the beam where dose is

normalized

D. unnecessary dose on the skin surface

71. Which of the following sonographic study

may be utilized to detect irregularties of

blood flow?

A. Real-time

B. A-mode

C. B-mode

D. Doppler

72. The depth of maximum dose of 18 MNV

rays ls at
A.2.5 to 3.0 cm

B. the surface

C15 to 2.0em

D. 3.0 to 3.5 cm

73. The abdomen is defined as_

A. the peritoneal cavity

B. the portion of the body between the lowest

aspect of rib cage and pelvic floor

C the portion of the body between the diaphragn

and the ililac crests

D. the portion of the body between the thorax and

pelvis that contains the pertoneal cavty

74, What Is the MOST common longerm

adverse effect observed fllowing

administration of an 1-1N Nal therapy

dose for treatment of Graves' dsease?

A. Pancytopania

B. Leukemia

C. hypothyroldlsm

D. Adenocaneinoma of the thyrold

75. Which of the following is an area d

ischemia of the brain from cut-oft

circulation?

A. abscess

B. Hydrocephalus

C. Meningts

D. Stroke

76.In a computed tomography sean lmaga,

the differentlation of densitles ls refered

to as

A. contrast resolutlon

B. linear attenuatlon coetficdent

C. temporal resolution

D. spatial resolution

77.Image reconstruction time is defined as

that from

A. end of scanning to image appearance

B. patient positioning to patient dismissal

C. patient positioning to start of scanning

D. start of scanning to end of scanning

78. In whieh of the following will the

connection between esophagus and

tracheobronchial tree can be

radiographlcally demonstratad?

A. In a fistula

B. In a tumor

CIn an atresia

D. In an abscess

79. Which of the following will provide an

visual representation of the dose at

various positions across the radlation field?

A. Isodose curve

B. Percentage depth dose (PDD)

C. Phantom

D. Tissue maximum ratlo (TMR) data

80. Axial cranial sonography are taken at what

interval?

A. 2mm

B. Scm

C. Smm

D. 2cm

81. Which of the following refers to an area in

any organ where the concentrations of

radioactivity are significantly less than the

surrounding tissue?
A. Gold spot

B. Hot spot

C Cold spot

D. Silver spot

82. What is the reason, why radioactive

materials are used in clinical studies?

A. Used in making radioactive materials

function pulmonary capillary bed

B. Prevents their passage through the

C. Physiologic compounds can be manipulated qchemically

D. Suspected cases of pulmonary emboil

83. Which of the following is one of the

features of the Scintillation detector

arrays?

A. Cesium iodide

B. Sodium iodide

C. Cadmium tungstate

D. Crystal photomultiplier tube assembles

84. How much scanning time ls requlred In

dynamic studles?

A.1 second or more

B. Less than 1 minute

C. Greater than t hour

D. 45 seconds

85.Which of the folowing reason, why a low

tissue density has a capabilty to CT scan

than to a conventional radlography?

1. CT scan is valuable in a neurologlc work

2. Low tissue density that moved otherwise be hidden

3. Unable to visualize the blend of the surrounding anatomy

A.2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C1and 3 only

D.1,2 and 3 only

86.CT scan resolves differences In tissue

density as low as

A. 0.3%

B. 2%

C. 5%

D.A, Band c

87.Which of the following reasons, why CT

Scanning is well accepted Imaging

modality for neurologic and body

procedures?

1. Reduce scan time

2. Low benefits

3. Improved low-contrast resolution

A. 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

Cland 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

88.What is the typical appearance of a fibroid

from MR imaging?

1. Sharply defined

2. Rounded masses

3. Appear identical to a rapldly growing mass

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C2and 3 onhy

D.1,2 and 3

89. What are some distinguishing features of

adenomyoma on MRimaging?

A. Smooth margins

B. Widening in shape

C. Regular in shape

D. Irregular in shape
90.What are some distinguishing features of

leiomyoma on MR imaging?

1. With to be rounded

2. Tend to be rounded

3. Have ill-defined margins

A.2 and 3 only

B.land 2 only

Cland3 onhy

D.1,2and3

91. Which of the following Imaging study wos

first routinely performed for evaluntdon

of suspected disarrangement ef the knee?

A. Computed tomography

B. Magnetic resonance arthrogaphy

C. Ultrasound

D. Conventlonal radiographs arthrogaphy

92. MR imaging is useful to diagnose a

A. Rheumatoid arthritis

B. Osteoporosis

C.Musde atroghy

D. Bursitis
93.On what part of radiation therapy

technique wherein the source of radiation

is at some distance from patient?

A. Brachytherapy

B. Teletherapy

CTreatment field

D. Nucdear Medicine

94. Which of the folowing refer to the wedge

shape beam attenuating device used to

preferentially absorb the beam to ater

the shape of the isodose curve?

A. Treatment field

B. Wedge Filter

C. Surgical bed

D. Wedge phantom

95. Which of the following technique in which

the radioactive material is placed within

the patient?

C. Brachytherapy

96. Which of the following is the first sân

sparing machine?
A. Cobalt 60

B. Computed tomography

C. Linear accelerator

D. Isocentric Machine

97. Which of the following is the first skin sparing

machine?

A. Intermediate

B. Superficial

C. Supervoltage

D. Decay

98. What is the half-Hife of technetium 99m?

A.1 hour

B.1 day

C. 22 hours

D.6 hours

99. Which of the following prominent organs

are currently studied routinely in nuclear

medicine department?

1. Bone

2. Brain

3. Vessels

A. l and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only

C2and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

100. What radioactive materials are

commonly used for therapeutic purposes

in nuclear medicine?

A. lodine 131 ( imaging is iodine 123)

B. Sodium nitrate

C Technetium 99m

D. Xenon 133
 Radiologic Sciences
Type of computed tomography to reduce patient dose and enhanced image contrast.

-Collimator assembly

What is the gray matter appearance of computed tomography?

-Hyper dense

What routine head CT protocol is the acquisition of scout for determining the
appropriate angle

-Lateral

What is the process in which the X-ray machine and determines the production of
diagnostic quality geometry

-Simulation

What is Isocenter:

-Point around which the source of beam rotates

Increase primary reason of the use of betatron radiation therapy became unpopular.

- Produce low dose rate and limited field sizes

What radioactive isotopes are used in tandems and oviods?

- Iridium 192

The reason of Tc99m Pertechnetate is taken to the thyroid gland?

- Same ion size with iodine

The mechanism of radiopharmaceuticals qualification in lung scanning.

-Capillary blockage

What is the term used for the role of sound attenuation tissue?

- Half value layer

Characteristic of 1st generation in CT Scan imaging.

- 5 min imaging time

The percentage depth dose depends on

- Field size, distance, energy

Instrument used to detect frequency shift

- Doppler

In a computed tomography imaging what component of collimator controls patient dose

profile

- Pre patient
In CT, what is the most common matrix size used?

- 512 x 512

In the scanning system, what is the major component of magnetic resonance imaging?

- Magnet

What is the common cystitis/ UTI?

- Ascending infection from the urethra

What is non- malignant tumor?

- Adenoma

What is the penumbra of a linear accelerator beam?

- Smaller than that of cobalt60 machine

What will provide a visual representation of the dose the values

- isodose curve

What is likely condition indicate a non- shadowing, non-motile pathogenic foci seen
with in the gallbladder?

- Polyps

Why immobilization is particularly important in the treatment of head and neck?

- Proximity of several radiosensitive and smooth tumor margins

The coil which is directly place to the patient in MRI imaging

- Surface coil

The most specific non-invasive method of diagnosing mitral stenosis

- Echocardiography

A radiopharmaceutical used for "hot spot" myocardial imaging

- Tc99m PYP (Pyro Phosphate)

Most common long term observed in administration of I-131 NAL therapy dose treatment
of Grave's diseases

- Hypothyroidism

What is the concern of cardiac toxicity from breast

- Sometimes a serious problem

Ultrasonographically, what would be the ratio of article velocity of a given point

- impedance

What is the unit used to expressing the ratio of electrical signal or sound energy

- Decibel
What increases scanning time

- increase in number of excitation

What could be confused for pancreas in scanning the tail of the pancreas, from prone
position

- Splenic flexure

What decreases motion artifacts

- Decrease in repetition time

What technology may spiral CT has

- Slip rings

What is Lefort's method fracture involving cranial facial bones

- Type 3

What is the reason why Lucite tray is Inserted in the path of the beam

- Beam spoilers

What low Z material used for patient couch

- Carbon Fiber

What condition would manifest aspiration pneumonia

- Vomiting

Medical diagnosis for patient who is experiencing sign and symptoms of bronchiectasis
due to mucus plug

- Cystic Fibrosis

What is the best sonographic window to the left hemi diaphragm

- Spleen

The portal vein sagittal scan which is seen circular echoic structure

- Anterior to the inferior Vena Cava

What is the proper sequence producing a CT image

- Data acquisition
- Image reconstruction
- Image post processing

What hyperparathyroidism is often detected in thyroid imaging

- Primary hyperparathyroidism

What CT scan generation characterize by a Ring Artifact

- Third
What position is best to visualize a transplant kidney in NUCLEAR MEDICINE

- Laterally

What is the basis for the formula computing the value of CT number

- Linear Attenuation Coefficient for water

What conditions is characterizing by a dilated calyces and renal pelvis

- Hydronephrosis

What will be confused as a horseshoe kidney sonographically

- Lymphadenopathy

What will be determine by chromatography procedure in NUCLEAR MEDICINE

- Radiochemical Purity

What is the major factor determining the acoustic power output of the transducer

- Magnitude of the voltage spike

What is the least obstacle of the transmission of the ultrasound

- Blood

The radiopharmaceuticals used for dual tracer gastric emptying study

- Tc99m DTPA in water and Tc99m Sulfur Colloid Labeled eggs

These are the hall mark of the radiographic appearance of the emphysema

- Pulmonary over inflation with flattening of domes of the diaphragm

Aspiration Pneumonia is due to

- Vomiting

This is possible medical diagnosis for patient who is experiencing sign and symptoms
of bronchiectasis due mucus plugs

- Cystic Fibrosis

A radiographic landmark of laryngotracheobronchitis is

- Hourglass sign

The following are true statement about in emphysema

- Appearance of retrosternal is radiolucent with dirty chest appearance

- The chest is barrel shape

If the frontal radiograph of the lower neck shows a characteristic of smooth,

fusiform, tapered narrowing subglottic airways cause by edema, this must be the hall
mark of

- Spasmodic Croup
Fracture involving cranio facial bone is classified as

- Type 3

Because of this condition this is considered as a medical emergency

- Epiglottitis

Pathophysiologically, the effect of emphysema in the lungs are the following

- Dyspnea in respiratory rate

- Decrease area in gastric change

Epiglottitis can be seen clearly in

- Neck Lateral

The hall mark manifestation in pathologic conditions is the involvement of the pleura
and pleural thickening in a plaque pacification along the lower chest due to
disposition of calcification

- Asbestosis

Main management of the lung cancer are the following

- Chemotherapy
- Radiotherapy
- Surgical resection

This Is the major type of lung cancer

- Squamous Cell Carcinoma

This is the major type of lung cancer

- Squamous Cell Carcinoma

Aspiration pneumonia otherwise Known as

- chemical Pneumonitis

the presence of filling defect in the pulmonary artery complete obstruction of the
pulmonary vessels is the manifestation of

- Pulmonary Embolism

Medically which of the following is considered a sign

- Abdominal tenderness to palpation

This is an infection or inflammation of the alveoli acquired in the hospital

- Pneumonia Nosocomial

The radiographic appearance of tuberculoma presence in

- Single multi nodules 1-3 cm diameter commonly the periphery of upper lobes
of the lungs
The main pathologic problem brought above embolism

- Obstruction

A radiographic appearance condition shows rounded thickening shadow with a

configuration of adult's thumb

- Epiglottitis

Medically, which of the following considered a symptom

- Vertigo

If a radiographic diagnosis in septic embolism, the radiographic technologist knows

that the management is

- High dose of Antibiotic

Intra bronchial foreign body usually manifested as

- Affecting the right side of the lungs with atelectasis

This is the single most affective non-invasive technique in evaluating lung cancer
and its metastasis

- CT scan

This treatment is effective in locally advance lung cancer, the common side effect
skin irritation, skin peeling, fatigue, and taste changes

- Radiotherapy

Patient with PTB is brought to the X-ray room for radiographic evaluation. The RT on
duty must follow this type of precaution

- Standard airborne pre-caution

Which of the following disease is caused by a virus

- SARS

This are the radiographic appearance of asthma

- Hyper lucent lung increase in retrosternal space

This condition appears initially in radiograph as normal in the early stage but in
progressive stage. This is considered as a typical pneumonia

- SARS

Necrotic area in pulmonary parenchyma that has a dense center with a hazy, defined
periphery with a typical air fluid level within the structure

- cavity lung abscess

This is an abnormal permanent enlargement of an air spaces distal to the terminal

bronchioles

- Emphysema
This are the radiographic appearance of atelectasis concerned

- Airless lung, varying tissue in a thin plate like

Best position for taking an adult patient with pleural effusion are

- PA view and Lateral decubitus in the affected side

The following are the radiographic appearance emphysema

- Pulmonary hyperinflation
- Reduction in the number in size of peripheral arteries
- Chest barrel
- Chest vascular marking is prominent than usual

A septic embolism is brought about by

- Microorganism

The presence of Fibro Purulent fluid in the pleural space indicates this condition

- Empyema

The following cause of pulmonary edema

- Right sided heart failure

- Left sided heart failure
- Severe bronchopneumonia

According to the classification of the fracture in Lefort's method involving naso-

frontal suture

- Type 2

This is the main function of esophagus

- For passage of Bolus

Characteristic of this conditions esophagus of tracheobronchial tree is seen

- Fistula

Demonstration of connection between esophagus

- Fistula

Physiologically, choking and cyanosis are all present in

- Tracheoesophageal fistula

Radiographic appearance of deeper ulceration obstruction of the esophagus condition

are the following

- Ingestion of corrosive agent

The most definitive test for esophageal tumor is

- Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
Ingestion of type of solution is more severe than the other type of substances

- Alkaline Ingestion

Radiographic appearance of this condition is seen in Gl series having numerus thicker

folds of the stomach above the diaphragm

- Hiatal Hernia

Pathophysiologically Achalasia is

- Functional obstruction

Presence of Jelly stool with a palpable shape mass and radiographic string stair case
are classic signs of this condition

- Intussusception

What is the modern way of crushing a stone within a urinary bladder in the urethra

- Lithotripsy

The client with chronic renal failure complains a filling nauseated at least part of
everyday. The RT on duty knows that

- Accumulation of waste product of blood

A client is schedule for IVP. The RT on duty should

- Checked for allergies to shellfish

The common case of cystitis/UTI is

- Ascending infection from the urethra

Usually what is the causative agent that could cause UTI

- Escherichia Coli

A 54-year-old client comes to an ambulatory clinic in moderate stress, and considered

as a bladder cancer. Which of the following symptoms medical personnel most likely to
expect the client to report during assessment?

- Painless Hematuria

A RT is with a client that has been diagnosed as having a kidney mass. The patient
asks him the reason of renal biopsy is to

- Gives specific cytological information about the lesion

The RT on duty expect that after an intravenous pyelogram

- Encouraging increase intake pleural fluids

Local dilation if vessel wall

- Aneurysm

The single elongated cytoplasmic extension carrying impulses away the cell bodies

- Axon
suffix word which is tapering or puncture

- Synthesis

Subarachnoid space is located between in the

- Pia mater and Arachnoid

The Genus non motile fast aerobic bacteria that include a causative agent in the
lungs is termed as

- Mycobacterium

The subarachnoid space is located between the

- Pia mater and Arachnoid

What is vertigo?

- Dizziness

Which of the following tumor is malignant?

- Adenoma

This condition shows a large amount of cerebro spinal fluid in the ventricles

- Hydrocephalus

Which of the following is the very serious infection of the brain

- Encephalitis

Which of the following is the injury of the brain cause by severe impact

- Contusion

Which of the following combining means to be numb or analgesic

- Narc/o

Anatomically, most common cause of back pain in a 55 year old men is a

- Lumbosacral

In the practice of fundamentals transfer of patient in the radiology room in order to

avoid back pain, least principle

- Must be observed a used of proper body mechanics

Tetraplegia known as

- Paralysis of neck down

When poisons fall form the 3rd floor of the building the mechanism of injury is

- Axial Loading

Patient from vehicle accident needs to be assist immediately except

- Assessment of gags reflux

Autonomic dysflexia is associated with

- Neurogenic bladder

Main management of cervical, lumbar, and sacral injuries fracture is

- Immobilization

Diagnosis and knowledgement of multiple sclerosis EXCEPT

- intension tremor decrease motor coordination

A 23 years old patient was admitted due to paralysis in the ICU, an emergency
tracheostomy due to the development of decreasing respiratory. The RT on duty must
prepare an MRI equipment and procedure and understand that the pathology was

- Immune starts to destroy myelin sheath that surrounds the axon resulting to
segmental dymyelation

- (Nodes of Ranvier)

Radiographic assessment of the brain in the cerebral blood vessels

- Computed Angiography

The following are the signs and symptoms of Parkinson's disease EXCEPT

- Headache

The client with myasthenia Gravis in Gillian Barrie syndrome or amyotrophic internal
sclerosis to experience

- Increase risk of respiratory complications

The client with myasthenia gravis while undergoing radiographic procedure

- Decrease the number of function acetylcholine receptor

Following spinal cord injury that the physician indicates client’s paraplegic. The
family ask the RT what does it means and he explain that the

- Lower extremity are paralyze

A client with spinal cord injury has a paraplegia. The RT recognized that one major
early problem will be

- Bladder control

This are the parts of central nervous system

- Brain and spinal cord

Which is not part of autonomic nervous system

- Skeletal muscle

The following increases transmission or impulses in the nervous system

- Nodes of Ranvier and myelin sheaths

A laborer fell from the 3rd floor of the building where he is employed as a Mason.
Upon through neurological examination, he was found to have a deficit cerebellum. The
RT on duty knows that the function of cerebellum

- Coordinate voluntary movement and maintains trunk stability and equilibrium

Cranial nerves III, IV, and VI are tested together for

- Constriction, Converging, and Accommodation

The test for cerebellum are the following EXCEPT

- Proprioception test, light touch, finger to nose

A patient who is a victim of mauling and stoning Is admitted to ER and has

neurologic manifestations. He has an abnormal injury and eyes that reacts only when
response to pain. The Glass glow scale is

- 7

Which type of stroke is not included in the group

- Hemorrhagic stroke

Hemorrhagic stroke

- Aneurysm

All statements are true regarding dementia EXCEPT

- Debilitating decrease affecting ability and is characterize tremor and

achalasia

While waiting to transfer the patient, the RT expect that this area should be

- Assist either the level of unconsciousness

Which of the following have a personal expect to assist most commonly possible
increase in intracranial pressure

- Headache and Vomiting

Hydrocephalus can be most accurate. Defined as

- Progressive enlargement of head due to excessive accumulation of cerebro

spinal fluid

Hydrocephalus is caused by

- Excessive production of impaired absorption of cerebrospinal fluid

A 51 yr./old man has noted constant dull, right hip pain for the past 3 months. The
physical examination he has diminished range of motion of the right hip, a radiograph
reveals 10 x 43 cm mass involving the right ischium pelvis. The mass has irregular
borders and there are extensive of bony obstruction. The lesion was resected grossly,
and the mass was bluish- white. Which of the following most likely diagnosis?

- Chondrosarcoma
A 62 year old man, no abnormal finding on his physical examination. A chest
radiograph shows no abnormality of heart or lung field but there are several lucenses
noted in the vertebral bodies. The sternal bone marrow aspirate performed yields a
dark red jelly like material in the syringe. Which of the following cell type most
likely to have a numerous microscopic examination of this aspirate?

- Giant cell

An 11 year old boy has a pain in his left leg that has persisted for 3 weeks. On
physical examination, his temperature was 37. 9-degree C. A radiograph of his leg
reveals a mass interdiaphyseal region and the left femur overlying cortical erosion
and soft tissue extension. A bone biopsy performed, and microscopic examination shows
a numerous small round cell. Which of the following neoplasm most likely to have?

- Ewing's Sarcoma

A 14 years' old west African man has a history of multiple episodes' sudden onset of
severe abdominal pain and back pain for hours. He now has a painful right hip that is
tender to palpation. A radiograph reveals irregular bony destruction of the femoral
head. Which of the infections agent most likely responsible for his findings?

- Salmonella enterica

A 69 years old man has noted increasing back and leg pain for 3 yrs. He has greater
difficulty of healing in the left leg. On physical examination he has a decrease
range in motion of the hips. A radiograph bony sclerosis of the sacroiliac and upper
tibial regions. Which of the following conditions most likely to have?

- Paget's disease of the bone

An 18 years old woman, was noted pain and swelling of her right distal thigh
associated activity for the past years. She has no history of trauma, on examination
after performing exercise tenderness of the palpation of the right knee. A radiograph
shows expansive eccentric lytic lesion located in the metaphysis of the distal femur
that is surrounded by rim of reactive new bone. Which of the following bone disease
is she most likely to have?

- Aneurysmal Bone cyst

• A 16 years old boy has noted a pain in his left knee after each hockey practice
session for the past months. On examination there is tenderness to palpation of his
left knee, with reduced range of motion. A plain radiograph of the left leg reveals a
mass of the proximal tibial metaphysis that erodes bone cortex, lifting up into the
periosteum reacted new bone is apparent. The mass due to not extend of the epiphyseal
region. A bone biopsy is performed and microscopic examination shows atypical
elongated cells with hyperchromatic nuclei in a osteoid stroma. Which of the
following neoplasm is he most likely to have?

- Osteosarcoma

A 15 years old girl is noted to be developing odd, twisted appearance to her back for
the past 3 years. On examination she is tall and thin. A radiograph reveals an
abnormal lateral bowing of the spine with 20 degrees lateral curvature in the mid-
thoracic region.

- Asymmetrical cartilage growth of the vertebral body end plates

A 23 years old man notes some minor discomfort over the lateral of his right knee
after a day working in a cramped (because the IT put the desktop work station on the
floor). On the physical examination he has a palpable "bump” in this region. A
radiograph of the knee lateral bony projection from the lower femoral metaphysis
there is no adjacent soft tissue swelling compose of 3 cm of bony cortex. Which of
the following is most likely diagnosis?

- Osteochondroma

A 45 years old woman has had a worse breathing for 9 years. She has known to sleep in
sitting of 2 pillows. She has had a difficulty for the past years. She has now a
history. A month ago, she had a stroke with resultant ability to move her left arm
she Is fibril. A chest radiograph reveals normal ventricular with a prominent left
atrial border. Which of the following conditions is most likely to account for her
finding?

- Mitral Vein Stenosis

Term for concentration of matter.

- Density

When the length of a vessel is halved,

- The resistance is halved

Beam is narrowest in what the portion?

- Focus

Area where the velocity is the highest.

- Within the center of the lumen

Type of artifact causes an ultrasound reflection to be placed at an incorrect depth.

- Range ambiguity

The width of the beam depends on what?

- Depth

The diameter of a disc shaped unfocused piezoelectric crystal is 5 mm. Estimate the
minimum lateral resolution of the system.

- 2.5 mm

I-P/ area is equation of what?

- Intensity

Ultrasound is a cyclic sound pressure with a frequency greater than the upper limit
of human hearing. At what value does ultrasound begin?

- Greater than 20 kHz

The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that the machine can use when imaging is
limited by the

- Depth of penetration

Mirror image artifact is caused by;

- Reflection of ultrasound by highly reflective tissue interfaces

The slice thickness (or elevation plane) of ultrasound can cause?

- Liquid filled structure to fill echo on adjacent structure on the same

depth

The term DUTY FACTOR is defined as?

- The transit pulse duration divided by the time between one transit pulse to
the next
- (Rationale: duty factor = pulse duration / pulse repetition period)

When ultrasound frequency increases, the doppler shift?

- Increases

An advantage of spatial compound scanner is that it:

- Reduce speckle

The doppler ultrasound spectral mirror artifact occurs when?

- The doppler angle is at 90%

The color doppler frequency alliasing occurs?

- When the color doppler prp is too low

Doppler frequency alliasing can be reduce or eliminate by?

- decreasing the ultrasound frequency

Imaging tissue harmonic:

- Increase image resolution

- reduce slice thickness artefact
- reduce side lobe artifact

The width of ultrasound beam on focus will be decrease by?

- Both frequency and aperture width will be increase

• Harmonic imaging is used in conjunction with contrast agent because it?

- Increases in echogenicity on contrast agent relative on tissue

Echo enhancement is present on tissue that have?

- Low attenuation

(RATIONALE: acoustic/ echo enhancement has increased echogenic energy or hyperechoic

energy behind low attenuating tissue such as fluid filled structure: ex cyst, urinary
bladder gallbladder)

A patient with a known mass in the left medial segment. What anatomical landmark is
used to separate left medial segment to right anterior segment?

- Medial hepatic vein

A patient with an enlargement on the caudate lobe of the liver. What anatomical
landmark is used to differentiate the anterior border of the caudate lobe?

- Fissure of ligamentum venousum

You are to rule out the recannulization of paraumbilical. What anatomical landmark is
used to differentiate this structure?

- Ligamentum teres

Which vessel courses of main lobar

- Middle hepatic vein

Oxygenated blood is supplied to the liver

- Portal vein and hepatic artery

You are performing sonogram slender female, notice the extension of inferior aspect
of the right lobe of the liver. This is most likely represent

- Riedel's lobe

The slice thickness (or elevation plane) of the ultrasound can cause:

- Liquid filled structure to fill echo on the adjacent structure on the same
depth.

The duty factor is defined as:

- The transit pulse duration divided by the time between one transit pulse to
the next.
- (FORMULA: DF=PD/PRP)

You identified a single, homogenous, hyperechoic lesion measuring 2.4cm on the

posterior aspect of the right lobe of the liver. What describes this mass?

- Cavernous Hemangioma

A patient is referred for sonographic liver to rule out metastatic disease, what best
describe for the appearance of liver metastasis?

- All of the above are associated with liver metastasis

Which is NOT a feature of hepatic cyst?

- Increase attenuation
You scan the liver a noticed an irregularities on the surface of the liver. A nodular
liver surface is characterized by this classic abnormality?

- cirrhosis

Which is NOT TRUE on fatty liver?

- Is an irreversible disorder

It is the common term on benign tumor on the liver?

- Cavernous Hemangioma

You scan the liver and noticed a luminar narrowing on the hepatic vein. The Color and
Specular Doppler reveals high velocity on the stricture, this describes what
abnormality?

- Cirrhosis

This is associated with invasion of the portal vein?

- Hepatocellular Carcinoma

Which is not an acoustic variable?

- Intensity

What sonographic wave is ultrasonic and is least useful in the diagnostic imaging?

- 30 kHz

What is the frequency of wave with a 1msec period?

- 1 kHz

The unit output of sound intensity

- Decibel (DB)

The beam intensity is increase by which of the ff:

- One million times

The more pixel per inch

- Better spatial resolution

Greater output intensity

- Pulse doppler

The thermal index=30 indicates

- Tissue temperature may rise 3 degrees

What is the best lateral resolution

- 0.06 cm
If the frequency decreases, the numerical value of radial resolution

- Increase

If the transducer diameter increases, the lateral resolution at its smallest

dimension is

- Increase

Subarachnoid space in the skull is located between the

- Pia Mater & Arachnoid

The branch that supply the blood to the brain?

- Circle of Willis/ Arterial Circle

What is the other term for vertigo?

- Dizziness

Which of the following is nonmalignant tumor?

- Adenoma

Which of the following have increased amount of CSF in the ventricles?

- Hydrocephalus

What is the severe inflammation of the brain?

- Encephalitis

In radiology department, what is the method to reduce or minimize back strain?

- Body Mechanics

Enhancement, multipath & side nodules result in

- Artifact

When the transducer increases, the lateral resolution of its smallest dimension is

- Increased

When we increase frequency the near zone

- Increased

When the frequency is decreased, the numerical value of the radial resolution is

- Increased

Which of the following has the best lateral resolution?

- 0.06 cm

Which is/are of the following the unit of longitudinal resolution?

- Feet/Foot
The range equation relates the distance of the reflector to

- Time flight & propagation speed

Which of the following sets of properties of a test phantom is the most relevant in
measuring the depth collimation accuracy?

- Propagation Speed

Assuming a constant frequency, and an increase in the diameter of an unfocused

circular transducer will result

- Beam of the near field increased

Changing which of the ff would not affect the hard copy imaging

- Display brightness and contrast

What are the typical chemical Doppler frequency

- 1 to 10 MHz

What is the amount of attenuation of 6 MHz in 0 5 cm of the same tissue

- 2dB

How many bits are needed to represent 14 shades of gray?

- 4

What artifact has a grainy appearance and caused by interference effects of scattered
sound?

- Speckle

Multiple reflections are equally in space is called

- Reverberation

The angle between ultrasound pulse and two medium at 90°. What it is called?

- Orthogonal Incidence

Refraction occurs when:

- Oblique surface and different propagation speed

Sound travelling from medium 1 to medium 2 propagation speed measures 1600 m/s, 1500
m/s respectively. The oblique incidence

- Angle of incidence= angle of reflection

Depth calibration measures 100 mm spaced wires to be 90 mm reflectors 50 mm. what

will the machine calculate the distance?

- 450 mm

In an analog screen converter. What components store the image data?

- Dielectric mix
When the ultrasound machine displays only high reflective objects sonography should?

- Increase Output Power

At what location of the sound beam SPTA intensity the highest?

- Focal point

What can pulse Doppler measures that a continuous wave cannot?

- Location

What is the fraction of time that is sound transmitting?

- Duty Factor

If the ff. SPTA is equal which would have the lowest SPPA?

- Continuous wave

The DB is defined as the ______ two intensities.

- Ratio

You undergo quality assurance study using a tissue equivalent phantom. By adjustment
using the knob of the control console system by changing the range from highly bright
to fairly visible. What are you evaluating?

- System sensitivity

Which of the following is not a measure of area?

- Cubic Meter

If a power of a sound wave is increased by 8, how many decibel is this?

- 9db

Which of the following is true of all waves?

- All carry energy from one to another

If the system is set at 0db at full intensity, what is the output power when uses 10
db at full intensity?

- 10 db

According to AIUM, statement of bioeffect, that no confirm of bioeffect below

intensity _____. What per square cm SPTA.

- 0.1

Which of the following is not a measure of area?

- Cubic meter

Which of the following is true of all waves?

- Both carry energy to one side to the other

Force is applied to a surface, if the force is tripled with the surface area where
the force is applied Is also triple. What is the pressure?

- Unchanged

Which of the following units are appropriate to describe the period of acoustic wave

- Minutes

Two waves arrive at the same location and interfere the resultant sound wave smaller
than either of the two original wave is called

- Destructive interference

ultrasound is defined with frequency of

- Greater than 0.02 MHZ

Compare two sound wave. A and B. The frequency of wave A is one third to the wave B.
How does the period of wave A is compared to wave B?

- Is three time longer than B

- Note: Frequency and wavelength is inversely proportional!

What sound wave is ultrasonic and least useful in diagnostic imaging?

- 24 kHz

What is the unit of power?

- Watts

The maximum value of density is 60lb/in squared, while the maximum value of density
is 20Ib/in squared. What is the amplitude wave?

- 20lb/in²

The final amplitude of sound wave is reduced to one half. The final power is ____ to
the original power?

- None of the above

If the frequency is decreased the numerical value of radial exposure is

- Increased

A complication of cushing syndrome the attending radiologic technologist must be

caution

- Spontaneous fracture

Which of the following is the reason why F-18 (Flourodioxideglucose)?

- Undergoes metabolic trapping

Clay shoveler fracture include which area of the spine?

- Cervical only
With a given FOD measures with lower limb energies

- PDD

Which of the following should sonographically appear as a cystic mass surrounding?

- Hydrocele

The ability of an imaging system to detect _____ reflection

- Sensitivity

The chromatography procedure in nuclear medicine are used to determine

- Radionuclide purity

Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of Parkinson's disease.

- Headache, Tumor and Anorexia

The time that the transducer is crossing, 1 measured at 18s of total elapsed time.
What is the duty factor?

- 0.005

If the frequency of a US is doubled, what happen to the period

- Halved

If the waves amplitude is doubled, what happens to the power

- Quadrupled

Which of the following terms best describe the relation between frequency and the
length percent

- Inverse

Frequency closest to the lower limits of the ultrasound.

- 15,000 Hz

The frequency of the ultrasound is increased from 0.77 MH2 to 1.54 MHZ, what happened
to the wavelength?

- Halved

A complication of Cushing syndrome the attending Radtech must be cautious

- spontaneous fracture

Clay shovelers fracture involve which area of the spine?

- Cervical only

Which of the following infection acquired in the hospital with the inflammation of
alveoli?

- Nosocomial Pneumonia
Which of the following should sonographically appear as a cystic mass surrounding

- Hydrocele
- The ability of imaging system to detect reflection.

Sensitivity

Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of Parkinson’s disease

- Headache, vomiting and anorexia

The approximate CT number of water is express in HU.

- Zero

The portion of the magnetic field extending away from the confines of the that
connect and used for imaging but can affect nearby and personnel is called

- Motion Blur

Multi beam collimator are different from custom shape block because

- they produce scalp isodose distribution of penumbra, extremely heavy can be

produce any size or shape

Position to demonstrate Epiglottitis

- Neck Lateral

Most common CT noise

- Quantum Noise

Rupture of the spleen can be best demonstrated via

- CT

Non- invasive technique to diagnose mitral valve

- Echocardiography

Captopril renal scan

- For renal stenosis

In hyperthyroidism, most common functional study

- Increase in SHF and high T4

In the treatment of head and neck immobilization is important because

- in close proximity with radiosensitive organ

Thickening shadow with a thumb like appearance can be best demonstrated in lateral
neck.

- Epiglottitis

The 1st portion of the kidney to become visible after injection of contrast medium?

- Calyces
What radiotherapy machine operates of the principle of the electron accelerate in a
circular orbit in changing magnetic field?

- Betatron

The appropriate quality use for dose calculation speck

- HDD

Which of the following procedures is also known as short distance therapy?

- Brachytherapy

The sonogram such as mass in the head of the pancreas. The sonographer should

- Outline the hepatic artery and splenic artery to determine whether they are
dilated

The mechanisms of Radiopharmaceutical localization in Lung Scanning

- Active Transport

What type of radiotherapy machine operates 50-156 kv potential range

- Orthovoltage

A flattening filters

- Reduces the dose rate in the center of unfiltered beam

The geometric factor that greatly affects spatial resolution in CT Scan

- Focal Spot Size

The ratio of pressure of particle velocity of a given point between an ultrasound

beam is

- Impedance

The process by which the entire data is set is used for high quality images

- Image Matrix

The characteristics of ultrasound pattern of duodenal atresia

- Chadwick's sign

Isocenter is

- The point of central axis where the maximum dose occurs

Ring artifacts are characteristics of

- 3rd Generation CT

Which of the following is an example of radiosensitizers

- Hydroxyurea
When an 0.5 cm margin is added to all sites to a 15x15 cm field the added are

- 15 cm²

When pelvic radiation delivered to an obese patient the advantage of prone position
is that

- The abdomen is flattened against the couch and compressed and causing the
small bowel to move anteriorly

Normal appearance of structures in ultrasound measures of gb diameter

- 3mm

Survey meters are

- Detect the source of radiation

Which of the following procedure is not performed with Tc99m Sulfur Colloid?

- GI Bleed Studies

The computation of an unknown value to known value

- Extrapolation

Which of the following diagnosis does not limit the sonographic characteristics of
hyaditid form mole?

- Missed abortion

The common cause of cystitis or urinary tract infection

- infection from the ureters and kidneys

What is the standard MRI pulse sequence can provide T1, T2 and proton density
weighted images?

- Planar imaging

The axial scan can be obtained by placing the transducer in the parietal bone just
above the

- External Auditory Meatus

Fibro Purulent fluid in the pleural spaces indicates which of the following
conditions?

- Empyema

What type of coil is directly placed in the patient that is used in imaging of
superficial structure?

- Surface coil

The process in which the arrangement is be required using a x-ray machine that works
and mimics as therapy machine that produces a quality radiograph

- Simulation
What is the most popular RF pulse sequence because of the reduction of scan time
which consist of 90 degrees pulse that initiates upon saturation sequence and
followed by 180 degree pulse and 50% of the echo time?

- Spin Echo

Hemorrhage on CT scans becomes isodense after how man

- 24 hrs.

A Lucite tray inserted in the path of the beam can be considered

- Beam spoiler

Which of the following procedures short distance therapy?

- Brachytherapy

Which of the following has not a low LET radiation

- Proton

The mechanism of radiopharmaceutical uptake liver spleen scanning

- Phagocytosis by the RA system

CT equipment must be frequently calibrated so that water is consistently represented

by CT number zero and other fissure with their appropriate CT number

- Uniformity

Treatment fields are designed by radiation oncologist margins are always added around
the tumor because of,

- Uncertainties of the tumor extent, penumbra of the beam and patient's

motion

This is the reduction of available space in the spinal column causing of the
compression of neural elements

- Spinal Stenosis

Ultrasound examination of the prostate Is found to be enla wed the sonographer should
also check the:

- Scrotum or hydrocele

The differentiation in densities in CT scan image refers to as

- Contrast Resolution

A guide for determining electron beam energy; in MeV is to

- Divide the 80% Isodose line by 10 and then the maximum tumor depth in
centimeters

Thyroiditis will appear sonographically as a

- Diffusely enlarged thyroid lobe with decreased echogenicity

Physiologically in the effects of emphysema in the lungs involves the

- dyspnea and decrease in respiratory rate

- air stuck in alveoli

Percentage is considered acceptable in an primary beam transmission to the _____?

- 5%

The activity of the given amount of a radioactive nuclide to ionize air molecules

- Ionizing constant

Which of the following is the least obstacle to the transmission of UTZ?

- Fat

Relative comparison of x-ray attenuation of voxels fat tissue to equal of matter

- Linear attenuation coefficient

A viral inflammation of the brain in meninges is referred to as

- Encephalitis

A technetium 99m DMSE scan is used for determining in

- Nephrolithiasis

A magnetic resonance sequence uses a 180 degree pulse followed by a 90 degree pulse
this refers to as

- Inversion Recovery

CT artifact that is most common in scanning the base of the skull?

- Beam Hardening

Which of the following is an injury of the brain caused by severe impact?

- Contusion

Sonographically the gastroesophageal junction can be visualized?

- Sonographically cannot be recognized

The most definitive test for esophageal tumor?

- CT

The characteristic of this condition that ends in a blind pouch?

- Esophageal Diverticula

Which of the following term refers to the excessive carbon dioxide in the blood?

- Hypercapnia

What term refers to hernia protrusion of the urinary bladder?

- Vesicocele
Which of the following involves the emission of a signal from a patient?

- Projection Recovery

Which of the following refers to the net measurement of radiation dose that
demonstrate of radiation throughout patient's body?

- Dosimetry

Which of the following deals with the measurement of absorbed dose from ionizing
radiation with matter?

- Radiation Dosimetry

What is the condition referring to the presence of cavities in the pons

- Punto bulbia

What is another term for alpha particle

- 2 Protons

Which of the following describe the special case of Compton effect if the photon
scattered right angle to its original direction and the angle emission depends on the
energy

- Gazing hit

What is the approximate velocity of sound

- 5000 m/s

Which of the following detectors gives information about energy distribution of an

incident radiation

- Dosimetry

The principal advantage of CT over conventional tomography is

- Reduced patient dose

Which type of monitoring device is used to measure radiation base on the change of
thermal energy per unit macs of the medium

- Calometry

The approximate CT number of water is expressed in HU

- Zero

What does the term metastasis mean

- Spread of cancer to a distant side tumor

Which of the following disease involves chronic inflammation in the intestine?

- Crohn's disease
Multi beam collimator are different from custom shape block became,

- They produce scalloped isodose distribution of penumbra, extremely heavy

can be produced in any size

A cobalt 60 source comes from what stable element

- Cobalt 59

What part of LINAC machine produce electron

- Electron Gun

The portion of the magnetic field extending away from the confines of the that
connect and use for imaging but can affect nearby or personnel is called

- Fringe field

What is the common fringe is used for palliative treatment

-Parallel opposed

WITH NUMBERS

1. How does 201 Tl decay?

a. By positron emission b. By electron capture

c. Bly beta emission d. None of the above

2. If an assay of a vial containing 131-I shows 50 mCi present on May 2,

approximately what will the assay show on May 18?
a. 25 mCi b. 12.5 mCi c. 40 mCi d. 6 mCi

3. If a bone scan has been ordered on a 5-year-old girl, and the physician prescribes
62% of the adult dose to be given, how many mCi should be administered?

a. 21.7 mCi b. 12.4 mCi c. 7.4 mCi d. 3.1 mCi

4. If the biological half-life of an isotope is 6 hours, and the physical half-life

is 12 hrs, what is the effective half-fife?

a. 6 hrs b. 12 hrs c. 2 hrs d. 4 hrs

5. The physical half-life of a radionuclide is the time it takes:

a. For half of the substance to leave the body

b. For the nuclide to decay to one half of the original activity

c. For the kit to become half expired

d. For half of the substance to be metabolized

6. If a kit has 310 mCi of activity present at 8:00 a.m., what will the vial assay
show in 4 hours and 10 minutes if the decay factor is 0.618?

a. 175 mCi

b. 192 mCi

c. 501 mCi

d. 155 mCi

7. A vial containing 99m-Tc is assayed at 9:00 a.m. and contains 255 mCi. To
calculate the remaining activity at 3.00 p.m., what decay factor would be used?

3. 0.721

b. 0.595

c. 0.500

d. 0.600

8. Which of the following is boiled during preparation?

a. MAA

b. Sulfur colloid

C. Albumin colloid

d. Diphosphonates

9. The presence of 12 ug Af* in 1 ml of %*T c eluate is:

a. An example of radionuclidic impurity

b. An example of chemical impurity

c. An example of radiochemical impurity

d. Acceptable since it is less than 15 ug/ml

10. Which of the following is an example of radionuclidic impurity?

a. Presence of free 99m-Tc in a preparation of 99mm-Tc sulfur colloid

b. Presence of 99m-Mo in 99m-Tc eluate

c. Presence of aluminum ions in 99mTc eluate

d. Presence of pyrogens in eluate

11. If a kit contains 140 mCi of 99m-Tc in 23 ml, how much volume must be withdrawn
to obtain a dose of 5 mCi

a. 0.8 ml b. 30 ml c. 1.2 ml d. 0.6 mla

12. 99mTC MAA has a biological hall-life of 2 - 4 hours; what will the effective
half-life be?

a. 1.5 - 3.0 hours b. 2.0 - 4.0 hours c. 0.5 - 1.0 hours d. 1.5 - 2.4 hours
13. Which of the following is an example of radiochemical impurity?

a. Presence of free 99mTc in a preparation of 99mTc sulfur colloid

b. Presence of *Mo in *Tc eluate

c. Presence of aluminum ions in *m Tc eluate

d. Presence of pyrogens in eluate

14. Which of the following can be said regarding effective half-life?

a. It is always longer than the physical half-life

b. It is always shorter than both the physical and the biological half-life

C. It is always shorter than physical half-life, but longer than the biological half-
life

d. It is always longer than biological half-life, but shorter than the physical half-
life

15. A 99Mo/99mTc generator exists in _____ equilibrium and the parent isotope has a
_____ physical half-life than the daughter isotope

a. Transient, longer

b. Transient shorter

c. Static, longer

d. Static, shorter

16. When a neutron deficient nucleus emits a positron:

a. atomic mass number decreases by 1

b. atomic mass number increases by 1

c. atomic number increases by 1

d. atomic mass number is unchanged

17. Which of the following will not affect the distribution of 18FDG on a PET image?

a. Intense physical activity the day before imaging

b. Serum insulin level

c. Serum glucose level

d. Bladder catheterization

e. All of the above affect distribution

18. Normal FDG distribution would show the least activity in the:
a. Brain

b. Bone

c. Bladder

d. Myocardium

19. All positron-emitting isotopes are produced in a cyclotron.

a. True

b. False

20. 18FDG-PET is not an important tool for:

a. Restaging of colorectal cancer

b. Monitoring response to treatment on non-Hodgkins lymphoma

c. Detecting Helicobacter pylori

d. Imaging metastases in breast cancer

21. 18FDG-PET images shows a map of the ______ distribution in the body.

a. Oxygen

b. Insulin

c. Glucose

d. Potassium

22. In the event of a spill of 99mTc to clother, one should immediately:

a. Enter a shower fully clothed

b. Remove and store the clothes until they decay to background

c. Wash the clothes in hot water and then survey them to determine remaining activity

d. Remove and destroy the clothing

23. If the radiopharmaceutical is spilled on the floor, the first priority is to:

a. Contact the Radiation Safety Officer

b. Pour a chelating solution over the area of the spill

c. Cover the area with absorbent paper and restrict access around it

d. Call the housekeeping department to arrange for cleaning

24. What is the best way to decrease the radioactive dose to visitors if a patient is
surveyed to emit 3 mR/hr at bedside?

a. Have the patient wear lead aprons

b. Keep the patient well hydrated and encourage frequent voiding

c. Have the visitor sit or stand as far as possible from bedside

d. Have the visitor wear lead shielding

25. Which of the following is the most effective means of measuring low levels of
removable radiation?

a. By performing an area survey c. By performing a wipe test

b. With a pocket dosimeter d. With a TLD

26. Which of the following measures absorbed doses?

a. Millicurie b. Becquerel c. Gray d. All of the above

27. All of the following are critical factors in keeping radiation exposure to a
minimum except

a. Time spent near the radioactive source

b. Geometry of the container holding the source of radiation

c. Distance from the source of radiation

d. Shielding of the radioactive source

28. Gaseous radiopharmaceuticals may only be used in rooms that:

a. Have at least one window

b. Contain oxygen supply

c. Are at a positive pressure compared to surrounding rooms

d. Are at a negative pressure compared to surrounding rooms

29. A technologist has 500 mrem registered on his ring badge in one month. What
should be done to decrease exposure in the future?

a. Use lead pigs and syringe shield when preparing radiopharmaceuticals

b. Have another technologist elute the generator

c. Wear lead aprons

d. All of the above

30. Which of the following collimators will magnify an image?

a. Flat field b. Diverging c. Converging d. High resolution

31. The advantages of using a Co sheet source over a fluid filled flood source with
99mTc added include

a. It does not have to be prepared each day

b. Lower cost

c. shorter half-life
d. All of the above

32. The purpose of the pulse height analyzer is to:

a. Keep any of the electrical signal which resulted from scatter or background the
final image

b. To convert light into an electrical signal and to magnify that signal

c. To convert radioactivity into light

d. To filter out photons which strike the crystal from oblique angles

33. The technologist has set a 15% symmetric window for a 140 keV photopeak. What
will happen l0 a

158 keV signal?

a. It will be accepted by the pulse height analyzer

b. It will be rejected by the pulse height analyzer

34. Output devices in nuclear medicine include:

a. CRTs b. Video monitors c. Magnetic tape d. All of the above e. A

and B only

35. Static on film may result from:

a. Removing a sheet of film too quickly from the box of cassette

b. Contact with skin

c. Contact with dust and/or lint particles

d. All of the above

36. If films appear too light, which of the following should be monitored?

a. Chemicals are replenished at the correct rate

b. Developer temperature is set according to manufacturer's recommendation

c. Water does not overflow into developer in the film processor

d. All of the above

e. A and B only

37. PET images are reconstructed using:

a. Coincidence detection

b. K space filling

c Filtered back protection

d. Fast fourier transform

38. Following an annihilation reaction, two 511 keV photons are emitted in opposite
directions If one of the photons is deflected in the body:
a. Only the unscattered photon will contribute to the image.

b. The deflected photon may be detected outside the LOR

C. The LOR may contain an angle.

d. None of the above.

39. The orbital electron shell that is closest to the nucleus is:

a. J

b К

c. L

d. M

40. The number of protons in an atom is also known as:

a. Atomic mass number

b. A

c. Atomic number

d. X

41. Isotopes have the same number of _____ and different number of ______.

a. Neutrons, protons

b. Electrons, neutrons

c. Protons, neutrons

d. Neutrons, electrons

42. With beta decay.

a. Characteristic X-rays and Auger electrons are produced

b. A positron and negatron are emitted from the nucleus

c. A helium nucleus is emitted

d. A proton is transformed into a neutron

43. With electron capture (choose all correct answers):

a. Characteristic X-rays and Auger electrons are produced

b. Occurs in High Z materials

c. A helium nucleus is emitted

d. A proton is transformed into a neutron

44. Which of the following is not a type of electromagnetic radiation?

a. Microwaves
b. Neutrons

c. X-rays

d. Radio waves

45. ________ describes the thickness of the medium needed to attenuate the beam's
original intensity in half.

a. Linear attenuation coefficient c. Inverse square law

b. Half-value layer d. Decay constant

48. What term describes the relationship with beam intensity and distance from the
source of a beam for photons as it travels through some medium?

a. Linear attenuation coefficient c. Inverse square law

b. Quantum model d. Transmission proportionality

47. Which of the following is not a filter used for low-energy treatment machines?

a. Copper b. Thoraeous c. Tungsten d. Aluminum

48. Which photon interaction with matter is most likely to occur with diagnostic
imaging?

a. Coherent scattering c. Photoelectric effect e. Photodisintegration

b. Compton effect d. Pair production

49. Which photon interaction with matter is most likely to occur with radiation
therapy delivery via linear accelerators?

a. Coherent scattering c. Photoelectric effect e. Photodisintegration

b. Compton effect d. Pair production

50. Which photon interaction with matter is most likely to occur with radiation
therapy delivery via orthovoltage?

a. Coherent scattering c. Photoelectric effect e. Photodisintegration

b. Compton effect d. Pair production

51. What interaction is responsible for neutron contamination in radiation therapy?

a. Coherent scattering c. Photoelectric effect e. Photodisintegration

b. Compton effect d. Pair production

52. Pair production occurs in

a. Photon beams > 1,022 keV c. Photon beams > 1.022 MeV

b. Electron beams > 1.022 keV d. Electron beams > 1.022 MeV

53. In the coherent scattering interaction, the energy of the ejected photon is
______ than the incident photon.

a. Lower
b. Greater

c. Equal

d. A photon is not ejected in coherent scattering

54. Proton and alpha particles exhibit a ______ peak at the end of their range of
travel, where most of their energy is deposited.

a. Bragg b. Bremsstrahlung c. Characteristic d. Auger

55. What is not true regarding neutron interactions?

a. Are directly ionizing

b. Interact with the nucleus

c. Wax and water are used for blocking neutrons

d. Do not lose much energy when they react with target

nuclei

56. Decay constant (ʎ) can be determined by diving the element's half-life by:

a. 103

b. 2.7 x 10^11 Ci

C. 0.693

d. 100 ergs/g

57. Which of the following are used to calibrate linear accelerators?

a. Pocket ionization chambers c. Cutie pie ionization chambers

b. Thimble chambers d. Geiger-Muller chambers

58. Regarding radiation protection for photo beams, which of the following would have
the greatest effect to minimize dose?

a. Double the shielding c. Double the time

b. Double the distance d. All of the above will have an equal effect

59. What is not an advantage of the use of film badge dosimeters for personnel
monitoring?

a. Inexpensive c. Can be used for diff. types and energies of radiation

b. Easy to use d. Accurate

60. Thermoluminescent dosimeters are commonly made of what material?

a. Lithium fluoride

b. Aluminum oxide
c. silver bromide

d. Sulfur hexafluoride

61. Which of the following personnel monitors provide immediate readings?

a. Film badge dosimeters c. Thermoluminescent dosimeters

b. Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter d. Pocket ionization chambers

62. What is an advantage of using optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter (OSL)

over another type of personnel dosimeter?

a. Can be read immediately

b. Can detect different energies of radiation

c. Are the most inexpensive personnel dosimeter

d. Do not require additional equipment to measure readings

63. When determining shielding of radiation oncology departments, work load

describes:

a. How often the beam is on each week

b. Fraction of time beam is directed at each barrier

c. Fraction of time the adjacent area will be occupied

d. Distance from source of radiation to adjacent area

64. An occupancy factor of

should be used for control rooms when planning shielding thickness,

a. 50

b. ½

C. 1

d. 100

65. Which is true regarding direct effects of radiation?

a. Occurs more often with low LET radiation

c. Occurs more often with high LET radiation

b. Interacts with the water in the cell

d. Increases with an increase in oxygen

66. Which is true regarding indirect effects of radiation?

a. Cannot be modified by chemical factors c. Target is DNA of the cell

b. Occurs with neutrons d. More common with high LET radiation

67. Which of the following is not an example of chromosome damage resulting from
ionizing radiation?

a. Double-strand break

b. Translocation

c. Ring formation

d. Anaphase bridge

68. Acute effects are seen within

months of radiation exposure.

a. 2

b. 4

c. 6

d. 8

69. Somatic effects of radiation:

a. Occurs in the irradiated individual

b. Has a threshold dose

c. Is passed on to future generations

d. Severity increases with increased dose

70. What is the definition of LD 50/30?

a. Dose that will result in death of 50% of individuals within 30 days

b. Dose that will result in complications in 5% of the population in 5 years

c. Dose that will result in complications in 50% of the population in 5 years

d. Dose that will result in death of 50% of individuals within 30 years

71. Dose limits for a fetus of a radiation worker who has declared their pregnancy
is:

a. 0.5 mSv/term

b. 5 mSv/term

c. 0.5 mSv/month

d. 5 mSv/month

72. Radiosensitivity of a cell increases with:

a. Decreased mitotic activity c. Increased specialization

b. Increased mitotic activity d. Decreased oxygen within the cell

73. What is true regarding the use of oxygen with radiation exposure?

a. Oxygen has the greatest effect when administered prior to radiation exposure

b. Oxygen has more of an effect with low LET

c. Oxygen has the greatest effect when administered after radiation exposure

d. Oxygen has minimal effect on the response of tissue to radiation

74. Hypofractionation uses:

a. Multiple fractions per day

b. Increased number of fractions

c. Lower dose per fraction

d. Increased dose per fraction

75. Which is not true regarding hyper fractionation:

a. Goal Is to decrease late effects in normal tissue

b. Treated with lower dose per fraction

c. Fractions should be delivered 3 h apart

d. Total dose is increased

76. The Dmax of a 10 MV photon beam is:

a. 0.5 cm b. 1.0 cm c. 2.0 cm d. 2.5 cm

77. In a LINAC, what structure transports the microwaves from the stand to the
Accelerator Structure?

a. Klystron b. Accelerating waveguide c. Bending magnet d. Waveguide

78. The cathode of the linear accelerator is the:

a. Magnetron

b. Electron gun

c. Tungsten target

d. Bending magnet

79. Targets In a linear accelerator are typically made of:

a. Tungsten

b. Lead

c. Copper

d. Concrete
80. What component of the linear accelerator is responsible for signaling the machine
to shut off once the requested dose has been delivered?

a. Pulsed power supply

b. ionization chamber

c. Klystron

d. Circulator

81. What are the collimator jaws of the linear accelerator?

a. Primary collimators c. Secondary collimators

b. Multileaf collimators d. None of the above

82. The X-ray tube of a conventional simulator is located in the:

a. Stand b. Gantry c. Image intensifier d. Modulator cabinet

83. What part of the CT simulator is often referred to as the 'bore"?

a. X-ray tube b. Gantry c. Fan beam detectors d. X-ray tube

84. The Hounsfield unit of air is:

a. +1000 b. -1000 C. O d. -100

85. Voxels represent the ______ of a CT image.

a. Brightness b. Contrast c. Slice thickness d. Number of pixels

86. What advanced treatment delivery equipment is a LINAC mounted on a robotic arm?

a. Tomotherapy

b. Cyberknife

C. Gamma knife

d. Proton beam therapy

87. On the linear accelerator, the door interlock should be tested:

a. Daily

b. Weekly

c. Monthly

d. Annually

88. Daily photon output constancy on the linear accelerator should be within ____

% of normal limits.

a. 1 b. 2 C. 3 d. 4
89. The door interlock test for the CT simulator is completed:

a. Daily

c. Monthly

b. Annual

d. There is no door interlock for CT simulators

90. Which of the following is not true regarding iodine contrast?

a. Can be administered intravenously

b. Kidney function must be checked prior administration

C. Is ionic only

d. Patients allergic to shellfish should not receive iodine contrast

91. Prior to the administration of intravenous contrast, you should assess the
patient for:

a. Shellfish allergy

b. Lung function

c. Joint pain

d. GI complications

92. An example of a positioning device is:

a. Thermoplastic mask b. Chemical mold c. Head holder d. Vacuum mold

93. Thermoplastic immobilization devices are used to immobilize the:

a. Head and neck

b. Chest

c. Abdomen

d. Pelvis

94. What is not included in the CTV?

a. GTV

c. Margin for motion

b. Microscopic disease

d. All of the above are included in the CTV

95. What volume accounts for the patient's physiologic movement, such as breathing?

a. Clinical target volume c. Gross target volume

b. Internal margin d. Motion volume

96. What term describes critical structures in or near the treatment field?

a. Internal target volume c. Organs at risk

b. Irradiated volume d. Internal margin

97. Which of the following beam modifying devices would not be used to compensate for
missing tissue in a patient?

a. Cerrobend blocks

b. Bolus

c. Compensating filters

d. Wedges

98. Blocks are ____ HVL thick.

a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7

99. What device would be used in order to compensate for missing tissue as well as
increase the dose to skin?

a. Compensating filters

b. Bolus

c. Wedge

d. Hand block

100. Percent depth dose increases with:

a. Increased energy

b. Decreased field size

c. Increased depth

d. All of the above

101. Orthogonal films are two films taken ______ degrees apart

a. 45

b. 90

c. 180

d. 275

102. Which modality of radiation therapy measures movement of the tumor?

a. 2D b. 3D c. 4D d. IMRT
103. Which of the following is not necessary to be included in a radiation therapy
prescription?

a. Anatomic site c. Treatment technique

b. Side effect management teaching d. Fractionation schedule

104. Unintended table movement during treatment is an example of;

a. Mechanical malfunction C. Radiation malfunction

b. Electrical malfunction d. Human error

PART 2

1. Which of the following refers to the height of the wave?

A. Amplitude

B. Altitude

C. Wavelength

2. Which of the following refers to the distance traveled per unit time?

A. Propagation speed

B. Sound frequency

C. Acoustic impedance

3. Which of the following is observed during breast ultrasonography?

A. Lactiferous duct

B. Duct of wursung

C. Lymphatic duct

4. What is the key importance in the diagnosis of vascular stenosis?

A. Spectral Doppler B. Continuous wave Doppler C. Pulse Doppler

5. Which of the following is the difference between the maximum value and equilibrium
(average) value of an acoustic variable?

A. Amplitude

B. Power

C. Intensity

6. Which organ should the sonographer scan if uterine malformations are seen?

A. Kidneys B. Gallbladder C. Spleen

7. What would most likely be imaged using linear arrays rather than phased or
curvilinear arrays?

A. Infants

B. Brains

C. Adults

8. What factor in ultrasound that is unchanged or constant when a sound beam is

refracted?

A. Frequency

B. Wavelength

C. Sound velocity

9. What is the normal sonographic texture of the spleen?

A. Moderately echogenic but less echogenic than liver

B. Strongly echogenic but more echogenic than liver

C. Hypoechoic

10. Which of the following conditions that thyroiditis will usually appear
sonographically?

A. Diffusely enlarged thyroid lobes with decreased echogenicity

B. Diffusely enlarged thyroid lobes with no change in echogenicity

C. Multiple cysts within the thyroid

11. What is the condition that would most likely cause acoustic enhancement?

A. Fluid-filled mass

B. Calcified mass

C. Solid mass

12. Which of the ultrasound display is seen in splenomegaly?

A. Increased echogenicity B. Decreased echogenicity C. Sonolucent

13. What is referred to as the range of frequencies contained in an ultrasound pulse?

A. Bandwidth

B. Propagation

C. Refraction
14. What is the resultant effect of transmission of vibration from particle to
particle in a medium.

A. Propagation of sound

B. Production of scattered radiation

C. Cessation of sound propagation

15. The profile of the ultrasound beam is primarily controlled by the

A. diameter of piezo electric crystals

B. type of transducer

C. component of crystals

16. A 3.5 MHz pulse will be attenuated after passing through 2 cm of soft tissue by
____ dB.

A. 7

B. 3.5

C. 1.75

17. Which of the following can improve axial resolution?

A. Higher-frequency transducers

B. Lower-frequency transducers

C. Larger transducers

18. The acoustic impedance of a type of tissue depends on _____.

A. Ultrasound velocity and tissue density

B. Ultrasound frequency and tissue viscosity

C. Ultrasound wavelength and tissue density

19. Sonographically, hydronephrosis may best be demonstrated by

A. Fluid-filled pelvo-calyceal collecting system

B. Distorted shape of the kidney outline

C. Hyperechoic pelvo-calyceal collecting system

20. Sonographically, 'horseshoe' kidneys may be confused with

A. Lymphadenopathy

B. Carcinoma of head of pancreas

C. Hypernephroma
21. Which of the following positions will the portal vein be seen as a circular
anechoic structure on a sagittal scan?

A. Anterior to the inferior vena cava

B. Medial to the head of the pancreas

C. Posterior to the aorta

22. What is the common site for disk herniation?

A. L4-L5

B. L3-L4

C. L2-L3

23. Which of the following are malignant diseases of the bone?

I. Osteosarcoma

II. Ewing sarcoma

III. Chondrosarcoma

A. I, II and III

24. Which of the following is an invasive procedure to determine deep vein

thrombosis?

A. Venography

B. Arteriography

C. Doppler ultrasound

25. Which of the following is the most accurate screening procedure for assessing
renovascular lesions?

A. Arteriography

B. Venography

C. Doppler ultrasound

26. Which of the following is referred to as an increased cerebrospinal fluid in the

ventricles of the brain?

A. Hydrocephalus

B. Meningitis

C. Hematoma

27. Which of the following is a noninfectious arthritis characterized by

osteoporosis, soft tissue swelling, and erosion of metacarpophalangeal joints and
ulnar styloid processes?

A. Rheumatoid

B. Osteoarthritis
C. Psoriatic

28. Which of the following is currently considered as major imaging modality for
demonstration of gallstones?

A. Ultrasound B. Radiography C. Computed Tomography

29. "Apple core" and "napkin-ring" are common descriptive terms for annular carcinoma
of the _____.

A. Colon

B. small intestine

C. stomach

30. What is the fracture classification of a small bony fragment pulled from a bony
process?

A. Avulsion

B. Compound

C. Torus

31. What is the radiographic manifestation of laryngotracheobronchitis?

A. Hourglass sign

B. Cystic lesion sign

C. Honeycomb pattern

32. Which radiologic assessment of the brain that will show occlusion in the cerebral
blood vessels?

A. Computed angiography B. Magnetic resonance imaging C. Computed tomography

33. Intrathecal refers to a route of drug administration via an injection into the

A. Spinal canal

B. Brain cavity

C. Pleural cavity

34. Which condition is considered as a serious infection of the brain?

A. Encephalitis

B. Meningitis

C. Spinalitis

35. Which injury of the brain is caused by severe impact?

A. Contusion

B. Convolution

C. Encephalitis
36. Which type of stroke does not belong to the group?

A. Hemorrhagic B. Embolic C. Ischemic

37. What condition will show a radiographic appearance of a deeper ulceration with
stricture formation in the esophagus?

A. Ingestion of corrosive agents

B. Gastroesophageal reflux disease

C. Esophageal cancer

38. What pathologic condition will result if the posterior elements of one or more
vertebrae fail to unite?

A. Spina bifida

B. Meningocele

C. Spondylolisthesis

39. Which pathologic condition will sometimes occur after trauma, causing an
interrupted blood supply to the bone?

A. Ischemic necrosis

B. Stress fracture

C. Vasculitis

40. Which radiographic position will clearly demonstrate the epiglottitis.

A. Neck lateral

B. Chest anteroposterior

C. Neck posteroanterior

41. Which condition is characterized with an esophagus that ends in a blind pouch?

A. Esophageal atresia

B. Tracheoesophageal fistula C. Esophageal diverticula

42. Abdominal scan includes an antero-posterior scout with 7mm from top of diaphragm
to _____.

A. Symphysis pubis

B. Iliac crest

C. Urinary bladder

43. Which of the following positions in a routine head computed tomography will
involve the acquisition of a scout to set up the scans at the appropriate angle?

A. Lateral
B. Oblique

C. Antero-posterior

44. What is the approximate computed tomography number of water when expressed in HU?

A. 0

8. -5

C. 15

45. Which of the following determines the number of Hounsfield units represented as
shades of gray on an image?

A. Window width

B. Window level

C. Window center

46. Which of the following is referred to as the mathematical operation on a set of

data in computer tomography?

A. Filter

B. Algorithm

C. Projection

47. Which of the following are the principles that define helical scanning?

I. Continuously rotating x-ray tube

II. Uninterrupted table movement

III. Constant x-ray output

A. I, II and III

48. Which type of magnet used in magnetic resonance imaging needs liquid helium to
reduce electrical resistance?

A. Superconductive

B. Resistive

C. Solenoid

49. What modalities will produce transverse axial sectional images?

I. Computed tomography

II. Conventional radiography

III. Computerized axial tomography

A. I and III
50. Windowing is an example of _____ in computed tomography.

A. Point processing operation

B. Geometric processing operation

C. Global operation

51. What will be the signal received from the patient after a 90° radiofrequency (RF)
pulse?

A. Free induction decay

B. Magnetically transferred

C. A gradient echo

52. What is referred to as electromechanical devices made up of rings and brushes to

transmit electricity across a rotating interface?

A. Slip

B. Spiral

C. Helical

53. What is the reason for using a filter in computed tomography?

A. To produce a more uniform beam at the detector

B. To decrease the intensity at the patient's skin

C. To reduce the energy at the detector

54. What is the component that controls picture contrast in a computed tomography
scanner control console?

A. Window controls

B. Floppy disk drive

C. Touch panel

55. Which of the following defines window level in computed tomography?

A. Middle of the range of computed tomography numbers

B. Computed tomography number in the middle of the image

C. Range of computed tomography numbers in the image

56. Which of the following software program will generates sagittal and coronal
images from the transaxial dataset?

A. Multi planar reformatting

B. Multislice computed tomography

C. Multidetector computed tomography

57. What determines image quality in computed tomography?

I. Noise and artifacts

II. Radiation dose

III. Spatial and contrast resolution

A. 1, II and III

58. What is referred to as the computed tomography number fluctuation from pixel in
the image for a scan o water phantom?

A. Noise

B. Linearity

C. Spatial resolution

59. Which of the following is not an indication for computed tomography of the spine?

A. Strokes

B. Osteomyelitis

C. Spondylolisthesis

60. What indication written on the request for computed tomography of the neck will
not be performed?

A. Polyps

B. Mass

C. Goiter

60. What component part of a computed tomography gantry is responsible for reducing
patient dose and enhancing image contrast?

A. Collimator assembly

B. Detector array

C. X-ray tube

61. What is referred to as the time between the inverting 180-degree radio-frequency
pulse and the 90-degree excitation pulse.

A. Inversion time

B. Effective echo time

C. Time to echo

62. Which of the following defines the brightness of the image in magnetic resonance
imaging?

A. Magnetic resonance signal strength

B. External magnetic field

C. Relaxation time

63. Which of the following technology made spiral computed tomography possible?

A. Slip rings

B. Fast reconstruction

C. X-ray detectors

64. Which of the following formula is used in computing the value of computed
tomography number

A. Linear attenuation coefficient for water

B. Electron density of water

C. Mass density of water

65. What type of artifact in a computed tomography scan will produce a starburst
appearance?

A. Streak artifact

B. Beam hardening artifact

C. Partial volume effect

66. What property in magnetic resonance will most influence image appearance?

A. Flow

B. Atomic number

C. Relaxation

67. What type of magnet used in magnetic resonance imaging will require a large
amount of electrical supply?

A. Resistive

B. Permanent

C. Solenoid

68. What fast pulse sequence is often used with three-dimensional imaging to generate
T1-weighted images?

A. Gradient echo

B. Spin echo

C. Echo planar imaging

69. Testicular scintigraphy is best indicated for

A. Testicular torsion

B. Testicular hernia

C. Varicocele
70. What is the mechanism of radiopharmaceutical localization in lung scanning?

A. Capillary blockade

B. Phagocytosis

C. Active transport

71. What is assessed in captopril renal scans?

A. renal artery stenosis

B. chronic renal failure

C. pyelonephritis

D. obstruction

72. What is the half-life of F-18 in minutes?

A. 110 (109.7 minutes)

B. 118

C. 90

73. What disease process will result in increased radioiodine uptake by the thyroid
gland?

A. Iodine deficiency-induced hypothyroidism

B. Jod-basedow phenomenon

C. Factitious hyperthyroidism

74. What is the use of a gastric emptying study in nuclear medicine?

A. Determine the time taken for food to be digested by the stomach

B. Determine half clearance time for food to pass from mouth to stomach

C. Assess the function of the pyloric sphincter

75. Which studies or combinations of studies are most appropriate in the evaluation
of a suspected hip joint replacement infection?

A. Labeled leukocyte and sulfur colloid marrow imaging

B. 3-phase bone scintigraphy and sulfur colloid marrow imaging

C. Labeled leukocyte imaging alone

76. What is the malignancy that is least likely to present as a photopenic lesion or
"cold" defect on Tc-99m MDP (methylene diphosphonate) bone scintigraphy?

A. Metastatic breast carcinoma

B. Metastatic renal cell carcinoma

C. Metastatic thyroid carcinoma

77. Which of the following is a radionuclide impurity?

A. Mo99 in the Tc99m eluate

B. Unbound I-123 in I-123 mIBG

C. HR Tc in the Tc99m eluate

78. What are the compounds used to label with Technetium 99m (Tc99m) for biliary
scan?

A. Imminodiacetic acid

B. Isosordide acid

C. Aminodiacetate acid

79. Which of the following isotopes are used for coincidence imaging?

I. C-11

II. 0-15

III. N-13

A. I, II and III

80. What is the best time to image the kidney using Technetium 99m dimercaptosuccinic
acid (Tc99m DMSA)?

A. 4 hours post injection

B. Immediately after injection

C. 30 minutes post injection

81. What is the most common long-term adverse effect observed following
administration of an I-131 NaI therapy dose for treatment of Graves’ disease.

A. Hypothyroidism B. Leukemia C. Pancytopenia

82. Which of the following radionuclides are used in radiosynoviorthesis?

I. Erbium 169

II. Rhenium 187

III. Strontium 89

A. I and II

83. What is the primary use of simulators?

A. Duplicate mechanical movements of therapy machine

B. Create verification films

C. Produce radiographs
84. Orthovoltage x-ray beams are generally _____.

A. More penetrating than superficial beams

B. More penetrating than LINAC

C. Less penetrating than superficial beams

85. The contour of a patient must be taken for calculating an isodose distribution
and _____?

A. Must be accurate because it has an effort on dose

B. Must represent patient’s shape, but size is not important.

C. Must represent patient’s size, but shape is not important.

86. How will a cardiac toxicity from breast irradiation be considered?

A. Is sometimes a serious problem

B. Is never heard of
C. Will occur following 1000 Gy.

87. At what point will the dose be routinely normalized in a fixed source-skin
distance (SSD) technique?

A. At dmax

B. On the surface

C. At the isocenter

88. What is the unit of measure of radiation in air?

A. Roentgen

B. Sievert

C. curie

89. What is the approximate depth (in centimeter) will occurs with a maximum dose of
a 6 MV photon beam?

A 1.5

B. 0.5

C. 2.0

90. Which argan irradiated will cause xerostomia in radiation therapy?

A. Salivary glands B. Floor of tongue C. Upper chest

91. What are the primary reasons why the use of betatrons in radiation therapy became
unpopular?

I. Produce low dose rates

II. Limited field sizes

III. Difficult to acquire and expensive

A. I and II

92. Which of the following is an example of a radioprotector compound?

A. Cysteamine

B. Thiamine

C. Methotrexate

93. What type of therapy machine is best treatment of cancers using 10-15 kvp?

A. Grenz-ray

B. Contact

C. Orthovoltage

94. Which radiotherapy machine operates on the principle that an electron wit
accelerate in a circular orbit in a changing magnetic field?

A. Betatron

B. Linear accelerator

C. Cyclotron
RADSCI

Which influences characteristic of MRI pixel? PROTON DENSITY

To make use of paramagnetic agent effectively,
T1 RELAXATION TIME
what should be changed?
What pulse sequence involves repetition time,
INVERSION RECOVERY
echo time and relaxation time
GRADIENT MAGNETIC FILED PULSE AND
Referred as pulse sequence
RADIOFREQUENCY PULSE

The function of Fourier transform is to change THE MR SIGNAL INTO FREQUENCY SPECTRUM
The signal received from patient after a 90
FREE INDUCTION DECAY (FID)
degrees
The CT generation that the data acquisition
schemes uses fan beam x-rays and 360 degree THIRD GENERATION
rotation of x-rays and detector.
MRI smooth objects are represented by: LOW FREQUENCIES
The CT number fluctuation from pixel in the
NOISE
image for scan of water phantom.
A disease that is not an indication of CT cervical
STROKE
spine
The indication in written request that would not
POLYPS
necessitates in performing CT of the neck
An MRI procedure for pregnant patient can be AT ANY PERIOD PROVIDED MATERIALLY WITH
done? PROPER PATIENT MANAGEMENT
Image receptor type used in MRI COIL
TWO ESSENTIAL COMPONENTS OF DIGITAL
Which is true to CT?
IMAGE PROCESSING
The principal mechanism in the production of
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
MRI signal
Gyromagnetic ratio for hydrogen Is equal to 42 mega Hertz per Tesla
What regions are the relaxation centers in MRI? HIGH MAGNETIZATION
The principal potential for biologic response from
TISSUE HEATING
radiofrequency
Electromechanical devices made up of rings and
brushes to transmit electricity across the rotation SLIP RING
interface
X-ray generator used in modern CT HIGH FREQUENCY
PRODUCE MORE UNIFORM BEAM AT THE
What is the reason for using a filter in CT
DETECTOR
The measures of current density induced by
AMPERE PER SQUARE CENTIMETER
transient magnetic fields
The CT scanner console components that controls
WINDOW CONTROLS
picture contrast
MIDDLE RANGE OF COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY
What defines window level in CT
NUMBER
RADSCI

Software program that generates sagittal and

MULTIPLANAR REFORMATTING
coronal image for trans-axial data set
The required periodic control in MRI system for
DAILY
test objects imaging
What can define proton density HYDROGEN CONCENTRATION
What measures transient magnetic field TESLA PER SECOND
The threshold in tesla induction of magnetic
3 PER SECOND
phosphates at low frequencies
Which operation is an example of windowing in
POINT PROCESSING PROGRAM
CT
IMPROVED VOLUME COVERAGE SPEED
The goal of spiral/helical CT scanning
PERFORMANCE
The hazard for patients and personnel in an MRI
FERROMAGNETIC PROJECTILES
facility that cause biological effect
The application of volume CT based on volume
THREE DIMENSIONAL IMAGING
formulation, classification and image projection
Where will the data from the CT detectors are
PRE PROCESSOR
first sent
What CT artifacts are caused by poor sampling of
the signal be digitized by analog to digital ALIASING
converter in CT
What contrast effect will occur when an MRI
POSITIVE
contrast agent causes tissues to appear brighter
Referred to as range of CT number WINDOW WIDTH
Referred to as the size, shape, motion and oath
BEAM GEOMETRY
traced by the x-ray beam in CT
MR signal after relaxation of net magnetization is O (ZERO)
Which would describe a MR image? REPRESENTABLE
Which of the following best exhibit an abnormal
UNEXPECTED PIXEL BRIGHTNESS
tissue character in MRI?
Attributed to the cause of patient anxiety in the
CLAUSTROPHOBIA
start of an MRI exam
A particulate emission that occurs in radioactive
decay in lodine-131 to destroy thyroid follicular BETA
cells
Malignancies that is LEAST likely to present
photopenic lesion/cold defect on Tc99m MDP METASTATIC BREAST CARCINOMA
bone scintigraphy
TO DETERMINE THE TIME TAKEN FOR FOOD TO
A gastric emptying study in nuclear medicine
BE DIGESTED BY THE STOMACH
The radiopharmaceutical used to HOT SPOT
Tc99m PYP (PYROPHOSPHATE)
myocardial imaging
The radiopharmaceutical used to HOT SPOT
PRIMARY HYPOTHYROIDISM
myocardial imaging
RADSCI

Disease process resulting in the increase

IODINE DEFICIENCY INDUCES HYPOTHYROIDISM
radioiodine uptake of thyroid gland
Thyroid cancer that can be used as dose
IONIZATION CHAMBER
calibrators
Evaluated with the use of thin layer or paper
LABELLING EFFICIENCY
chromatography
The condition wherein the PET imaging is used for
PRE-RADIATION AND POST-RADIATION
evaluation
SURFACE ABSORPTION OF LABELLED
Basis for uptake in Tc99m MDP bone tissue
PHOSPHATE ON HYDROXYPATITE CRYSTALS

The half-life of FDG-18 110 minutes

Radiopharmaceutical that is LEAST likely to
localized within the myocardium as part of F-18 FLORBETABEN
normal physiologic uptake
Radiopharmaceutical that is used as indicator of
F-18 FLUOROTHYMIDINE
cellular proliferation
How the spatial resolution should be tested in
WEEKLY
nuclear medicine
The maximum allowed exposure to other
member of the public from patient who has 5 mSv
received an outpatient lodine 131 therapy
The device that could be utilized to identify
WELL COUNTER
spilled radionuclide
Thyroid carcinoma can be effectively detected
and staged through a whole body radioiodine PAPILLARY
scintigraphy
What is assessed on a captoril renal scan RENAL ARTERY STENOSIS
Radiopharmaceuticals used for dual tracer gastric TC99m DTPA IN WATER AND TC99M SULFUR
emptying study COLLOID LABELLED EGGS
What is the resultant effect when one uses low
energy collimation to image a medium energy REDUCE RESOLUTION
radioisotope
The coincidence resulting from two photons
detected at the same time but originate from two RANDOM
independent events in a PET
Responsible for increase of detection of count
ELECTRONIC COLLIMATION
with PET compared with SPECT
Tomographic uniformity of PET scan should be
DAILY
check
Indication of testicular scintigraphy TESTICULAR TORSION
where will TC99m MDP localized within the bodv CALCIUM HYDROXYPATITE
Studies or combination of studies in evaluating LABELED LEUKOCYTES AND SULFUR COLLOID
suspected hip joint placement infection MARROW IMAGING
RADSCI

What diagnostic imaging preferred in pre-

operative localizing hyper functioning parathyroid RADIONUCLIDE SCINTIGRAPHY
adenoma
Impurity with 99Mo/99Tc-m generator eluate is
CHEMICAL
place in a special paper that change colors
What quantises radiochemical impurity CHROMATOGRAPHY
Condition which is medically considered as " sign
ABDOMINAL TENDERNESS
"
Condition with present of fibro purulent fluid in
the pleural space? EMPYEMA
What is the hallmark manifestation involving
pleura with thickening appears as linear plaques
of opacification along with the lower chest wall
due to deposition and calcification of industries
substance ASBESTOSIS
A non infectious arthritis that is characterized by
osteoporosis, soft tissue swelling and erosion of
the metacarpophalngeal joints aand ulnar styloid
process? RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS
Osteogenesis imperfect is usually located in the LONG BONES
An inherited generalize disorder of the
connective tissue characterized by multiple
fractures OSTEOGENESIS
AIR LESS LUNGS, FROM THIN PLATE-LIKE
Radiographic appearance of atelectasis STREAKS TO LOBAR COLLAPSE
An abnormal permanent inflammation of the
alveolar sac? EMPHYSEMA
When patients ventricle have excessive
cerebrospinal fluid HYDROCEPHALUS
Damage due to impact CONTUSION
Radiographic appearance of large amount of gas
and fluid in the small and large bowel assembly
representing paralysis of intestinal motility ADYNAMIC ILEUS
Radiographic appearance of a Gl tract has a
numerous thick folds of the stomach above the
diaphragm HIATAL HERNIA
Radiographic appearance of a deeper ulceration
with stricture formation in the esophagus INGESTION OF CORROSIVE AGENT
A premalignant lesion cause by gastroesophageal
reflux BARETTES ESOPHAGUS
A fracture occurs in a bone weakened by a pre
existing condition such as multiple myeloma and
metastatic lesion PATHOLOGIC
A condition that sometimes occur that an
unstable the blood in the bone ISCHEMIC NECROSIS
Characterized by flattening of the diaphragm EMPHYSEMA
RADSCI

Likely area where aspirated foreign body is

lodged in older children and adults RIGHT MAIN BRONCHUS
Fracture with 2 or more fragments COMMINUTED
Inflammation of fluid filled sacs around joints that
causes reduced friction BURSITIS
Fracture characterized as small bony fragments
pulled from a bony process AVULSION
Females likely to have homogenous, glandular
breast tissue POST PUBERTAL ADOLOSCENT
Condition occurs in forward slipping of one
vertebra on one below it SPONDYLOLITHIASIS
Pathologic condition wherein one or more
vertebra fail to unite SPINA BIFIDA
Fracture occurs from falling on an outstretched
hand involving distal portion of radius COLLES
Fracture wherein sphincter of the bone force
through the skin COMPOUND

Hallmark of radiographic appearance of PULMONARY OVER INFLATION WITH

emphysema FLATTENING OF THE DOMES OF DIAPHRAGM
Radiography assessment of brain shows inclusion
in the cerebral blood vessels COMPUTED ANGIOGRAPHY
Which of the following is a very serious intection
of the brain? ENCEPHALITIS
Body landmark of laryngotracheobronchitis HOURGLASS SIGN
In lateral radiograph of the neck, the radiographic
appearance will show a rounded thickening
shadow with a configuration of an adult thumb EPIGLOTITIS
The local dilatation or the vessel wall ANEURYSYM
Esophagus characterized as esophageal blind
pouch ESOPHAGEAL ATRESIA
Medically considered as symptoms VERTIGO
The system used in single or double plan eimplant
in brachy PARIS
What typ of therapy machine is used for
treatment of cancer in 10-15 kVp GRENZ RAY
What range is supervoltage x-ray unit implied to 500 - 1000 kVp
The depth of max dose of 18 mV x-ray? 3.0 - 3.5 cm
What is the useful depth dose range of grenz ray
therapy 0.5 um
THE POINT AROUND WHICH THE SOURCE OF
What is isocenter THE BEAM ROTATES
Precaution to reduce the risk of ingestion of small 1. GOOD HYGIENE 2. WASH HAND BEFORE
fragments of cerrobend materials in block cutting EATING, DRINKING, AND SMOKING
room
RADSCI

At a given depth, what is the resultant effect of a

percentage depth dose INCREASE WITH HIGH BEAM ENERGY
What is the function of Lucite tray inserted in the
path of the beam BEAM SPOILER
Refers to the procedure and patient position
during treatment planning in CT PATIENT SUPINE ON FLAT SURFACE
Rad thera machine that operates to the principle
that electron accelerates toa circular orbit with
interchanging magnetic field BETATRON
An example of radioprotectors CYSTAMINE
Immobilization is important in rad thera of head PROXIMITY OF RADIOSENSITIVE ORGANS AND
and neck tissue because SMALL TUMOR MARGIN
Radiation therapy unit that operates in 50-120
kVp SUPERFICIAL
Considered as radiosensitizer HYDROXYUREA
In rad therapy, body planes are: 1. AXIAL 2. SAGITTAL 3. CORONAL
Depth use in 6 MV photon energy 1.5 cm
Depth dose use in 4 Mv x-ray 1.0 Cm
The organ irradiated causing xerostamia SALIVARY GLAND
When using SSD and photon beam, what is
defined field size area for radiation therapy AT THE ROTATION AXIS OF MACHINE
What is the equipment that is primarily used to
treat superficial skin lesion CONTACT THERAPY
Goal of radiation therapy in patient with bone
metastasis REDUCE PAIN AND PREVENT FRACTURE

Purpose of testicular shield in radiation therapy SHIELD THE TESTES FROM PRIMARY BEAM
Shape of radioactive sources frequently used in
tandems and ovoids in radiation therapy TUBES
What is the purpose of flattening filter in rad
thera REDUCE DOSE AR CENTER OF UNFILTERED BEAM

As defined by the ICRU, what does the term TISSUE VOLUME THAT CONTAINS A
clinical target volume mean DEMONSTRATED GTV (GROSS TUMOR VOLUME)
DUPLICATION OF MECHANICAL MOVEMENT OF
Primary use of simulator THERAPY MACHINE
MORE PENETRATING THAN SUPERFICIAL X-RAY
What referred to as orthovoltage x-ray beam BEAM
Unit measure in air ROENTGEN
The resultant dose of electron contamination of
incident beam as well as the back scatter rad
(both electrons and protons) from the medium SURFACE
The factor in USD that is unchanged or constant
when a sound beam is refracted FREQUENCY
RADSCI

HOMOGENOUS WITH MEDIUM LEVEL OF

Sonographic texture of a normal testis ECHOGENECITY
Characteristic of transducer frequencies that are
likely use in breast imaging HIGH (10 MHz)
USD spatial compounding will likely offer an
improved LESION CONTRAST
Condition wherein renal calculi composed of
calcium salts HYPERECHOIC
Artifact that will not be exhibited in Doppler
images ZIPPER
Temporal resolution in USD is independent of PULSE LENGHT
Condition that will cause acoustic enhancement FLUID FILLED MASS
What will characterized the flow in a normal
blood during vessel an USD exam BLUNT
USD sign in bowel intussusceptions TRIDENT
Factors that will determine the amount of
reflection at the interface of 2 disimilar materials SPECIFIC ACOUSTIC IMPEDANCE
Type of resolution wherein sliece thickness is
closely related to USD images obtained using
convex array ELEVATIONAL
MODERATELY ECHOGENIC BUT LESS ECHOGENIC
Normal sonographic texture of spleen THAN LIVER
Describe as a well defined structure and increase
echogenecity SOLID TUMOR
Referred as the progressive weakening if sound
beam as it travel ATTENUATION
Where the sound does orinates from an USD
equipment FROM OSCILLATING EQUIPMENT
Sonographic demonstration that may aid in an
diagnostic obstructive jaundice MASS OF HEAD ON PANCREAS
Condition is often used to evaluate gestational ANECHOIC SAC SURROUNDED BY THICK RINDED
sac ECHOES
The display of spleenomegaly is USD INCREASE ECHOGENECITY
Refers the characteristic of sound propagation of
the medium depends on density it travels ACOUSTIC IMPEDANCE
The prefix "piezo" denotes PRESSURE
Focusing method that offer variable focal depths
in USD PHASED ARRAY
The factor determining the acoustic power
output of the transducer MAGNITUDE OF VOLTAGE SPIKE
What is the resulting effect if the piezoelectric
crystal (PEC) respond to applied voltage SOUND PRODUCTION
Factor that defines the number of reflection in
the interface of 2 different materials SPECIFIC ACOUSTIC IMPEDANCE
RADSCI

What is the resulting effect in the near field

length if the transducer element diameter is
doubled QUADRUPLED
The varying value of sound wave is PRESSURE
The effect of using focus on transducer AXIAL RESOLUTION
The frequency that is harmonic frequency of 2.5
MHz 5 MHz
The single elongated cytoplasmic extension
carrying impulses away the ceil body AXON
What is the approach for the evaluation of left
kidney in an USD exam CORONAL
The portal vein sagittal scan which is seen circular
echoic structure ANTERIOR TO THE INFERIOR VENA CAVA
With what will be confused by the kidney
horseshoe LYMPHAADENOPATHY
Patient is likely to be image using linear array
rather than phased or curvilinear array INFANT
An array would be used in an USD intracranial
imaging of vasculature (va temple) PHASE ARRAY
Condition wherein hypothyroidism will usually
appear sonographically DIFFUSE ECHOGENECITY
Number of and quot; line of sight and quot; what
100
would make up an USD image
Color of blood flow in a color Doppler that would
display if the Doppler angle is 90 degree BLACK
USD image resolution would likely to be affected
by USD line density LATERAL
What is the part of the CT gantry that reduces
patient dose and improves image contrast DETECTOR ASSEMBLY
Appearance of gray matter in CT HYPERDENSE
Routine for CT acquisition scout to have scan for
appropriate scan angle LATERAL
What is the process in which planned filed
arrangement is verified by x-ray machine that
mimics the geometry of therapy machine that
produces quality diagnostic radiographs SIMULATION
THE POINT AT WHICH THE SOURCE OF BEAM
What is the isodose curve ROTATES
What is the reason why use of betatron in PRODUCES LOW DOSE RATES AND LIMIT FIELD
radiation therapy became unpopular SIZE
What radioactive isotopes are used for tandem
and ovoids IRIDIUM 192
What is the reason for Tc99m pertechnetate
taken up for thyroid gland SAME ION SIZE WITH IODINE
Mechanism of radiopharmaceutical localization in
lung scanning CAPILLARY BLOCKAGE
RADSCI

Term used for role of attenuation tissue HALF VALUE LAYER

The characteristic of first gen CT 5 MINUTES IMAGING TIME
The percentage of depth dose is dependent on 1. FIELD SIZE 2. DISTANCE 3. ENERGY
The instrument used to detect frequency shift is. DOPPLER
In CT imager what component of collimator
controls patient dose profile PRE PATIENT
In CT what is the common used matrix size 512x512
In system imaging, what is the major component
of magnetic resonance imaging unit MAGNET
What is the common cause of cystitis ASCENDING INFECTION OF THE URETHRA
What is non malignant tumor ADENOMA

What is penumbra of linear accelerator beam SMALLER THAN THAT OF COBALT 60 MACHINE
What will provide the visual representation of
dose in various position across the radiation field ISODOSE CURVE
What is likely condition will indicate a non
shadowing non-mobile, echogenic foci seen in the
GB POLYP

Why immobilization is particularly important in PROXIMITY OF SEVERAL RADIOSENSITIVE

treatment of the head and neck cancer ORGANS AND OFTEN SMALL TUMORS MARGIN
The coil directly placed on the patient in order to
image superficial SURFACE
Most sensitive and specific non invasive in
diagnostic mitral stenosis ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY
The radiopharmaceutical used to " hot spot"
myocardial imaging Te99m PYP PYROPHOSPHATE
Most common long term adverse effect observed
following administration of an lodine 131 Nal
therapy dose treatment of graves HYPOTHYROIDISM
What is the concern of cardiotoxicity from breast
irradiation IS SOMETIMES A SERIOUS PROBLEM
In the ultrasonic field, what will be the ration of
pressure to particle velocity at given point IMPEDANCE
What is the unit to expressing the ration of two
quantities of electronic signal or sound energy DECIBEL

What increases scanning time INCREASE IN THE NUMBER OF EXCITATION

What confuses the pancreas when scanning head
of pancreas from prone position SPLENIC FLEXURE OF THE COLON
What decreases motion artefact DECREASE REPETITION TIME
Esophagus that ends in a blind pouch ESOPHAGEAL ATRESIA
What connects the esophagus and the
tracheobronchial that be readiographically
demonstrated as FISTULA
RADSCI

What determines the amount of reflection in the

interface of two dissimilar materials SPECIFIC ACOUSTIC IMPEDANCE
What is the equal to the ratio of operating
frequency to the frequency bandWidth TRANSDUCER QUALITY FACTOR
In dose calibrator quality control, when is the
linearity checked QUARTERLY

What is the primary purpose of testicular shield SHIELD THE TESTES FROM PRIMARY BEAM
What is the main goal of radiation therapy in
patient with bone metastasis TO PREVENT FRUCTURE AND REDUCE PAIN
Scan parameter is a chosen field echo sequence
to satisfy unique contrast appearance on
resultant image FLIP ANGLE
This is a necrotic area of pulmonary parenchyma
that has a dense center with hazy, poorly defined
periphery with a typical air-fluid level within the
structure CAVITY LUNG ABSCESS
The time between the inverting 180 degree
radiofrequency pulse and 90 degree excitation
pulse INVERSION TIME
TO DETERMINE THE TIME TAKEN FOR FOOD TO
The gastric emptying in nuc med DIGEST IN THE STOMACH
A well defined structure with increase
echogenicity SOLID TUMOR
The treatment for patient undergoing nuc med
therapy for policythemia P-32 SODIUM PHOSPHATE
In lateral radiograph of the neck, radiographic
appearance would show a rounded thickening
shadow with a configuration of an adult thumb EPIGLOTITIS
What is medically considered as a symptoms VERTIGO
In SSD technique and a photon beam, what
defines a field AT THE ROTATIONAL AXIS OF THE MACHINE
Intrabronchial foreign body manifested as RIGHT SIDE ATELECTASIS
What is observed during ultrasonography LECTIFEROUS DUCT
What is seen in splenomegaly display INCREASED ECHOGENICITY
The best modality to demonstrate rupture of the
spleen as a result of blunt trauma COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY
The effect of insertion of aluminium, copper, tin
filters into x-ray beam LOW ENERGY X-RAYS WILL BE ABSORBED
The device placed between the klystron and the
waveguide system in the linear accelerator CIRCULATOR
What geometric factor affects spatial awareness
in CT DETECTOR APERTURE WIDTH
RADSCI

The presence of filling defect within the

pulmonary artery indicating complete obstruction
of pulmonary vessel PULMONARY EMBOLISM
What is a hospital acquired infection and
inflammation of the alveoli NOSOCOMIAL PNEUMONIA
What is the main pathologic problem brought by
embolism OBSTRUCTION
The pitch in a multi-slice CT is defined as patient
couch movement per rotation divided by BEAM WIDTH
What sonographic exam is used to detect
irregularities in blood flow DOPPLER
What would most likely cause acoustic
enhancement FLUID FILLED MASS
What GB segment is ultrasonographically
observable at its neck closest to the cystic duct HARTMANN'S POUCH
What will define the brightness of the image in
MRI MRI SIGNAL STRENGHT
What radiographic position clearly demonstrates
epiglotitis NECK LATERAL
What technology made spiral CT possible SLIP RING
What is LeFort's method for classification of
fracture involving the craniofacial bones TYPE 3
What low Z material is used for patient support
couch of CT unit CARBON FIBER
What condition would manifest aspiration
pneumonia VOMITING
What medical diagnosis is given to a patient who
experienced sign and symptoms of bronchiectasis
due to mucus plug CYSTIC FIBROSIS
What is the best sonographic window to the left
hemidiaphragm SPLEEN

What is the proper sequence in producing CT DATA ACQUISITION, IMAGE RECONSTRUCTION,

image IMAGE POST PROCESSING
What hyperparathyroidism can be detected in
parathyroid imaging PRIMARY HYPERPARATHYROIDISM
Which CT generation produces ring artifact THIRD GENERATION
What position best demonstrate transplanted
kidney in nuclear medicine LATERALLY
What is the basis for the formula of computing
the value of CT number LINEAR ATTENUATION COEFFICIENT FOR WATER
What condition is characterized as horseshoe
kidney HYDRONEPHROSIS
It is mistakenly identified as horseshoe kidney LYMPHADENOPATHY
What is confused with horseshoe kidney
sonographically LYMPHADENOPATHY
RADSCI

It is determined by a chromatography procedure

in nuclear medicine RADIOCHEMICAL PURITY
What is the major factor in determining the
acoustic power output of transducer MAGNITUDE OF THE VOLTAGE SPIKE
It is the least obstacle for transmission of USD BLOOD
The radiopharmaceuticals used for dual tracer Tc99m DTPA in water and Tc99m Sulfur Colloid
gastric emptying study? labeled eggs
Aspirating pneumonia is due to VOMITING
Radiographic landmark of
laryngotracheobronchitis GLASS HOUR SIGN

THE APPEARANCE OF RETROSTERNAL SPACE IS

The following are true statement about RADIOLUCENT WITH DIRTY CHEST APPEARANCE
emphysema AND THE CHEST IS BARREL SHAPE
If the frontal radiograph of the lower neck shows
a characteristic smooth, fusiform, tapered
subglottal airway caused by edema, this must be
a landmark of SPASMODIC CROUP
According to classification of fracture by LeFort's
method fracture involving craniofacial is classified
as TYPE 3
Because of this condition, it is considered medical
emergency EPIGLOTITIS
Pathophysiologically the effect of emphysema in 1. DYSPNEA
the lungs are the following 2. DECREASED IN RESPIRATORY RATE
Epiglotitis can be clearly seen in NECK LATERAL
1. CHEMOTHERAPY
Main management of lung cancer are the 2. RADIATION THERAPY
following 3. SURGICAL RESECTION
This is the major type of lung cancer SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA
Aspiration pneumonia is also termed as CHEMICAL PNEUMONITIS
Medically, which of the following is considered a
"sign" ABDOMINAL TENDERNESS BY PALPATION

PRESENCE OF SINGLE AND MULTIPLE NODULES

The radiographic appearance of tubercoluma is 1-3 CM IN DIAMETER COMMONLY THE PERI
The main problem brought about embolism is OBSTRUCTION
If the radiographic diagnosis is Septic embolism,
the radiotechnolist, the radiologic technologist
knows that the management is HIGH DOSE F ANTIBIOTICS
AFFECTING THE RIGHT SIDE OF THE LUNGS WITH
Intrabronchial foreign body usually manifested as ATELECTASIS
This is the single most effective non invasive
technique evaluating the lung cancer, its location,
metastasis and extend of masses CT SCAN
RADSCI

This treatment is effective for local advanced lung

cancer but it has common side effect, skin
irritation, skin peeling, fatigue and taste change. RADIOTHERAPY
When patient with PTB is brought to the x-ray
room for radiographic evaluation STANDARD AIRBORN PRECAUTION
Which of the following diseases caused by a virus SARS
1. HYPERLUCENT LUNG 2. INCREASED
These are the radiographic appearance of asthma RETROSTERNAL SPACE
This condition appears initially in the radiograph
as normal in early stages between in progressive
stage appears with focal to generalize patchy
intestinal infiltrates. This is commonly considered
as an atypical pneumonia SARS
This is necrotic area of pulmonary parenchyma
that has a dense center with a defined periphery
with a typical air-fluid levels within the structure CAVITARY LUNG ABSCESS
This is an abnormal permanent enlargement of
air spaces distal to the terminal bronchiole EMPHYSEMA
1. PULMONARY INFLATION
2. REDUCTION IN THE NUMBER AND SIZE OF
The following are radiographic appearance of PERIPHERAL ARTERIES
emphysema 3. CHEST BARREL
4. VASCULAR MARKINGS ARE MORE
PROMINENT THAN USUAL BUT
LOOKSIRREGULAR AND INDISTINCT
A septic embolism is brought about by MICROORGANISM
The presence of fibropurulent fluid in the pleural
space indicates this condition EMPYEMA
1. SEVERE BRONCHOPNEUMONIA
2. RIGHT SIDED HEART FAILURE
The following will cause pulmonary edema 3. LEFT SIDED HEART FAILURE
According to the classification of fracture by
Leforts method, a fracture involving the naso-
frontal sinuses is TYPE 2
This is the main function of esophagus FOR PASSAGE OF BOLUS
Demonstration of the connection of esophagus FISTULA
Physiologically, choking, cyanosis and coughing
are all present in TRACHEOESOPHAGEAL FISTULA
This is the characteristic of condition in an
esophagus and tracheobrochial tree is seen in FISTULA
The radiographic appearance of this condition are
the following: deeper ulceration with stricture of
the esophagus. TRACHEOESOPHAGEAL FISTULA
The most definitive test for esophageal tumor is ESOPHAGOGASTRODUODENOSCOPY
RADSCI

The ingestion of this solution is more severe than

any other substances ALKALINE INGESTION
The modern way of cutting a stone within the
urinary bladder or urethra LITHOTRIPSY
The pathophysiology of achalasia FUNCTIONAL OBSTRUCTION
A client has a chronic renal failure complains the
feeling of nauseated at least everyday. The RT on ACCUMULATION OF WASTE PRODUCT IN THE
duty who know that such conditions is brought by BLOOD
Radiographic appearance as seen in Gl studies as
having numerous thicker folds in the stomach
above the diaphragm HERNIATAL HERNIA
Presence of currant jelly stools with a palpable
sausage shape mass and radiographic string and
stair case appearance is a classical sign of INTUSUEECEPTION
A client is scheduled for IVP. The radtech on duty
should CHECK ALLERGIES TO SHELLFISH

What is the common cause for cystitis/UTI ASCENDING INFECTION FROM THE URETHRA
Usually what is the causative agent that would
cause UTI ESCHERICHIA COIL
A 54 year old client comes to the ambulatory
clinic in moderate stress and probable bladder
cancer. Which of the following symptoms should
a medical personnel most likely to expect to
client during the assessment PAINLESS HEMATURIA