INDUSTRIAL SECURITY MANAGEMENT

Direction: Select the correct answer from the choices enumerated below each number.
Encircle the letter that corresponds to your answer.

1) Primary requirement in maintaining and organizing a Private Security Agency.

A. It should be 100% Filipino owned and controlled by Filipino citizens.
B. Bond requirement
C. Equipment requirement
D. Trained, skilled and qualified personnel
2) Restriction for high powered firearms prescribed that its number should not exceed ____ percent of the total
number of guards of a Private Security Agency.
A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20
3) Third line of physical defense.
A. Perimeter defense C. Storage system
B. Inside perimeter defense D. Outside perimeter defense
4) Doors, floors, windows, roofs and walls constitute the second line of defense usually referred to as:
A. Perimeter defense B. Inside perimeter defense C. Storage system D. Clear zone
5) Common weakness for a sentry dog when used as an animal barrier.
A. Ability to check identity C. Incorruptible
B. Keen sense of smell and hearing D. Loyalty
6) Most common animal barrier used to secure facilities.
A. Geese B. Sentry dogs C. Cats D. Parrots
7) A line protection adjacent to a protected area and passing thru points of possible entry.
A. Clear zone B. Inside perimeter C. Outside perimeter D. Restricted areas
8) A line protection surrounding and removed from protected areas.
A. Clear zone C. Outside perimeters
B. Inside perimeter D. Restricted areas
9) From the standpoint of security, when should locks be changed?
A. At least once a year C. At least three times a year
B. At least twice a year D. On a quarterly basis
10) If utility openings such as air intakes, sewers, and exhaust tunnels have a cross section of ninety-six inches or
more, as a security consultant what should be the appropriate recommendation?
A. It should be protected by filters and bar grills
B. It should be closed immediately to avoid entry of persons with petit physique
C. It should be manned with an armed guard at all times
D. Sensors should be place on it to detect movement
11) Minimum acceptable height for a fence used as a security barrier.
A. 5 feet B. 8 feet C. 10 feet D. 12 feet
12) To deny outsiders from visual access in a certain facility what must be constructed?
A. Full view fence B. Chain link fence C. Solid fence D. Multiple fences
13) As a security consultant, you have noticed that windows of a particular building has been constructed less than 18
feet from the ground and 14 feet away from another building, what will be your recommendation to fortify said
facility?
A. The windows must be reinforced with steel grills
B. A fence of at least 18 feet must be constructed around the building
C. Screens should be installed to prevent petty thievery
D. A wall should be constructed around the building.
14) The simplest form of lock which uses a bolt containing a notch.
A. Warded locks B. Coded locks C. Disc tumbler locks D. Cylinder locks
15) It serves as the trigger apparatus for protective alarms.
A. Circuit B. Sensor C. Signaling device D. Alarm device
16) An inquiry into the reputation, integrity, character, morals and loyalty of an individual to determine a person’s
suitability for appointment or access to classified matters.
A. National agency check C. Personnel security
B. Local agency check D. Loyalty check
17) The working protective detail that provides close physical security to the principal.
A. VIP security B. Personal security C. Close in security D.Protective security
18) A vehicle always fronting the principal’s vehicle to neutralize any possible threat.
A. Escort vehicle B. Recon vehicle C. Decoy vehicle D. Shield vehicle
19) Maximum number of licensed Private Security Personnel allowed for Private Security Agencies.
A. 200 B. 500 C. 800 D. 1,000
20) Minimum number of licensed Private Security Personnel allowed for Private Security Agencies.
 A. 200 B. 500 C. 800 D. 1,000
21) Minimum number of licensed Private Security Personnel for Company Guard Forces.
A. 20 B. 30 C. 50 D. 200
22) It includes barriers, perimeter fences or guards at the gate.
A. Perimeter defense B. Inside perimeter defense C. Storage system D. Exclusion areas
23) The following are examples of an inside perimeter defense, except:
A. Doors B. Floors C. Vaults D. Grills
24) It is an independent structure designed to control physical and/or visual access between outside areas, usually
classified as solid and full-view.
A. Masonry walls B. Chain link C. Fence D. Utility openings
25) House-like structures placed above the fence installed to provide additional view to human guards around the
perimeter.
A. Masonry walls C. Guard control system
B. Top guard D. Tower guard
26) Usually installed at residences which is also called “night latch” and is operated by a key on the outside and a knob
on the inside.
A. Cylinder lock C. Disc tumbler lacks
B. Lever locks D. Code operated locks
27) A key that will open everything in a system involving two or more master key groups.
A. Grand master key B. Master key C. Sub-master D. Change key
28) A term used in England for lock pickers, safe combination crackers.
A. Padlock expert B. Peterman C. Peterpan D. Grand master
29) It projects light in concentrated beams, and ideal to use in illumination of buildings, perimeter areas and
boundaries.
A. Flood lights B. Search lights C. Fresnel lights D. Street lights
30) A type of detection system wherein when the security has been breached, the siren is sounded in remote stations
located in the immediate vicinity of the installation.
A. Central station system C. Proprietary system
B. Local alarm system D. Local alarm by chance system
31) A metallic container use primarily for safekeeping usually anchored to the building and should be at least 750 lbs.
A. Safe B. Vault C. File room D. Depository
32) A heavily constructed fire resistant storage facility and is always part of the building structure. Its door should be
made of steel at least 6 inches in thickness.
A. Safe B. Vault C. File room D. Depository
33) It includes all measures designed to prevent individuals of doubtful loyalty, character and integrity from gaining
access to classified information and sensitive facilities.
A. Document security B. Personnel security C. Personal security D. VIP security
34) It consists of device, patterns or compilation of information which is used in one’s business and gives the user
advantage over competitors.
A. Trade secrets C. Proprietary information
B. Formula D. Intellectual property
35) A Private Security Agency applying for a regular license to operate must possess how many pieces of licensed
firearms for guard duty purposes?
A. 50 B. 30 C. 500 D. 1000
36) When may firearms issued to Private Security Agencies be confiscated?
A. When the firearm has been used or is about to be used in the commission of a crime.
B. When there is written court order.
C. When the firearm is carried or used outside the property or compound serviced by the agency without
proper authority.
D. All of the foregoing
37) He exercises the power to revoke, for causes, licenses issued to security guards.
A. Chief, PNP C. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
B. Undersecretary, for DOJ D. Secretary, DILG
38) Industrial establishments must establish the first line of physical defense. It refers to:
A. Perimeter barriers
B. The building itself
C. Doors, locks, and window barriers
D. Entry point where security guards are locate
39) Minimum age requirement for Security Manager or Operator of a Security Agency.
A. 25 years old B. 30 years old C. 35 years old D. 40 years old
40) A natural or man-made structure which is capable of delaying illegal access to a facility.
A. Wall B. Fence C. Barrier D. Beach front
41) Means and ways that trained personnel and employees making them security conscious.
A. Security promotion C. Security investigation
B. Security education D. Security seminar
42) Registration of a security agency must be processed at what particular government agency?
A. PNP SAGSD C. DND, Civil Defense Office
B. NAPOLCOM D. Security and Exchange Commission
43) Physical security is a system of barriers placed between the potential intruder and the objects/matters to be
protected. As a criminologist, this is simply a denial of ________.
A. Opportunity to commit the offense
B. Access to the object of protection
C. Opportunity and access to object of protection
D. Criminal instinct to surface in the potential offender
44) Weakest link in the security chain.
A. Security guards B. Managers C. Barriers D. Personnel
45) Perimeter barriers, protective lighting, and ________ systems are known in industrial security as Physical Security.
A. Guarding B. Reporting C. Relieving D. Accounting
46) This is an additional outwardly inclined fixed structure, usually barbed wires placed above vertical fences to
increase physical protection from intruders of a certain areas.
A. Cellar guard B. Tower guardhouse C. Top guard D. Tower guard
47) The exterior and interior parallel area near the perimeter barrier of an industrial compound to afford better
observation and patrol movement is known as ___________.
A. Protective zone B. Clear zone C. Twilight zone D. Patrol lane zone
48) The government agency that issues licenses for Private and Government Security Guards.
A. PNP SOSIA C. PNP FEO
B. Municipal / City Mayor’s office D. PNP SAGSD
49) First measure undertaken before a comprehensive security program for an industrial plan could be developed.
A. Security survey C. Security check
B. Security education D. Security inspection
50) A security survey of a plant or industrial firm is also known by other terms, except.
A. security audit C. security inspection
B. Risk assessment D. security check
51) Today, there are three categories of security guards belonging to the “Blue Army”. One of those listed below does
not belong to the group.
A. Body guards C. Agency guards
B. Company guards D. Government security guards
52) Whether to put up its own security guards organic to the firm or hire contractual agency guards have their
individual merits and disadvantages. To determine which type of guarding system an industrial firm will require,
management must consult ___.
A. A security agency owner
B. A police officer
C. A military intelligence officer
D. A security consultant not connected to or owning a Security Agency, or part thereof
53) As a security officer, you cannot prevent nor predict natural hazards like storm, earthquakes, floods and the like. In
order to reduce the disastrous effects of these natural hazards, you will_______________.
A. Prepare a disaster or emergency plan for these hazards for the firm
B. Not take any concern on such hazards
C. Alert your guards when hazards occur
D. Call PAGASA and inquire when the next storm is coming
54) Practical exercise or test of a plan or activity to determine its effectiveness is called-
A. Evacuation Plan B. Dry-run C. Fire drill D. Sham drill
55) The management of keys used in plant, office or business organization to prevent unauthorized access is referred to
as.
A. Key management C. Lock control
B. Key control D. Security key control
56) As a security chief of an industrial firm, inventory shows that pilferage is rampant in the warehouses. What will
be your choice of action?
A. Tighten checking at exists of vehicles of the compound/complex.
B. Prepare your protective plans and confer with management for their immediate implementation
C. Deploy intelligence men in pilferage prone areas to catch the culprits
D. To resign, as you have failed your job.
57) In an industrial firm, there is a need for document security. As a security officer, you can advice management on
this aspect although this is not totally your assigned work. Document security is not a protection of vital records
from-
A. Unauthorized access C. Theft or loss
B. Compromise or destructing D. Authorized handling
58) The main reason for a Personnel Security Investigation is –
A. To weed out undesirable employees;
B. To check loyalty of employees to the organization;
 C. Preclude assignment to sensitive position for those who are security risks
D. To determine the character and reputation of certain employees secretly tagged as risks.
59) A system of barriers placed between the matters protected and the potential intruder
A. Physical Security C. Personnel Security
B. Document Security D. Computer Security
60) This type of alarm system utilizes a station located outside the compound.
A. Local alarm system C. Proprietary system
B. Central Alarm system D. Auxiliary system
61) It is installed as part of the building which holds up to 10,000 cubic meters of essential items. At least 12 feet in
height, with enough ventilation and fire proof of at least 1 hour.
A. Safe B. Vault C. File Room D. Protective cabinet
62) It is susceptibility of a plant or establishment to damage, loss or disruption of operations due to various hazards.
A. Relative criticality of operation C. Risk assessment
B. Relative vulnerability D. Risk analysis
63) It refers to the importance of the establishment with reference to the natural economy and security.
A. Relative criticality of operation C. Risk assessment
B. Relative vulnerability D. Risk analysis
64) The first watchmen in America were called –
A. Night watch B. Bellmen C. Rattle watch D. Leatherman
65) What type of license is issued after complying with licensing requirements by a person who wants to engage in
security management?
A. Regular License to Operate C. Regular License to Exercise Profession
B. Temporary License to Operate D. Temporary License to Exercise Profession
66) All firearms of the security agency should be covered with firearms license issued by the PNP through Firearms
Explosives Division under the Civil Security Group and renewable every ______.
A. 2 years B. 6 years C. 6 months D. 1 year
67) The minimum capitalization of an applicant for license to operate a security agency.
A. Php 500,000.00 B. Php 100,000.00 C. Php 1,000,000.00 D. Php 5,000,000.00
68) The process of assigning information or material to one of the four security categories after determination has been
made that the information requires the security protection as provided.
A. Declassify B. Regarding C. Classify D.Compartmentation
69) The act of emphasizing the importance and role of security in achieving the company goals and objective by
securing employee’s cooperation and support.
A. Security Promotion C. Refreshers Conference
B. Security Reminders D. Initial Interview
70) A technique conducted to develop security awareness among employees of the company.
A. Security Education C. Security Promotion
B. Security Reminders D. Refreshers Conference
71) The act of changing the assigned classification from classified information or matter.
A. Degrading B. Upgrading C. Reclassifying D.Compartmentation
72) The document issued by the Chief of the PNP or his duly authorized representative authorizing a person to perform
his duties as private security or training personnel.
A. Certificate of Profession C. License to Operate
B. License to Exercise Security Profession D. Duty Detail Order
73) Any information that in some special way relates to the status or activities of the possessor and over which the
possessor asserts ownership.
A. Special Information C. Proprietary Information
B. Trade secret D. Patent
74) A system wherein the badge or coded pass issued to an employee who gives him authorization to enter a specific
areas in the establishment?
A. Badge of authority C. Single Pass system
B. Multilinear Pass system D. Pass Exchange System
75) The application for renewal of license to operate shall be filed at least how many days before expiry date of license
to operate?
A. 30 B. 60 C. 120 D. 180
76) Which among the following is a not factor to be considered in Background Investigation?
A. Loyalty B. Reputation C. Integrity D. Ethics
77) What is the basic mission of the guard force?
A. All of these
B. Protect all the property within the limits of the facility
C. Ensure customer relation
D. Meeting minimum criteria to assure effective function
78) It refers to the potential damage or loss of an asset.
A. Probability B. Vulnerability C. Criticality D. Risk
79) What is a valuable tool which gives departing employee an opportunity to list grievances?
 A. Exit Interview C. Refresher conference
B. Security promotion D. Profiling
80) The exclusive right to patent protection expires after –
A. 5 years B. 17 years C. 70 years D. 15 years
81) What is the type of protective alarm wherein the currency activation devices are placed in the teller’s cash drawer
and connected to the alarm system using a wire connector?
A. Foot rail activator C. Bill traps
B. Foot button D. Knee or thigh button
82) What is the type of security hazard which can be in the form of rumor mongering, propaganda, undermining
morale and injecting defeatist attitudes, and other emotional approaches?
A. Sabotage B. Subversion C. Espionage D. Pilferage
83) It refers to a systematic process of identifying and implementing security countermeasures to achieve an
acceptable level of risk at an acceptable cost.
A. Risk analysis B. Risk management C. Risk assessment D. Risk reduction
84) A kind of alarm device which detects any sound caused by attempted force entry?
A. Vibration detection device C. Laser beam alarm
B. Electric eye device D. Audio detection device
85) What lighting system is used in times of power failure or other emergencies when other systems are inoperative?
A. Standby lighting C. Floodlights
B. Movable lighting D. Emergency lighting
86) A type of inspection which is on-going and never ending activity.
A. Structured inspection C. Formal inspection
B. Unstructured inspection D. Continuous inspection
87) The examination of the level of risk in the organization.
A. Risk management B. Risk administration C. Risk analysis D.Risk interpretation
88) In what stage a new employee would receive detailed presentation of personnel security policy?
A. Security promotion C. Orientation and training
B. Security reminders D. Refresher conference
89) An investigation of an individual made upon the basis of written information supplied by him in response to
official inquiry and by reference to appropriate national agencies
A. Personnel security investigation C. National Agency check
B. Local Agency check D. Background investigation
90) The process of categorizing a document or information according to the degree of security needed.
A. Classification B. Upgrading C. Compartmentation D. Certification
91) The process of assigning higher category of document or information according to the degree of security needed.
A. Upgrading B. De-classification C. Classification D.Compartmentation
92) Utilization of physical measures to prevent unauthorized access to facilities, plants, equipment and safeguard them
against man-made and natural hazards.
A. Physical Security C. VIP Security
B. Personnel security D. Document Security
93) This involves the security of plants and business enterprises which includes the safeguarding of personnel,
processes, properties and operations.
A. Personnel security C. Industrial security
B. Document security D. Communication security
94) After the tour of duty of Security Guard Mato Lugin, what shall he do with his firearm?
A. Brings the firearm to his residence
B. Deposits the firearm inside the drawer of the guard’s table
C. Returns the firearm for safekeeping in the company’s depository
D. Turn over to the next security guard-on-duty
95) An industrial complex must establish its first line of physical defense. It must have;
A. perimeter itself B. communication barriers C. perimeter barriers D. window barriers
96) An unobstructed area maintained on both sides of the perimeter barrier.
A. clear zone B. building wall C. bodies of water D. wire fence
97) It is a type of perimeter barrier made of chain link with mesh openings not larger that two inches square, and made
or #9 gauge wire or heavier.
A. clear zone B. building wall C. bodies of water D. wire fence
98) The standard weight of a safe is:
A. 500 lbs. B. 1000 lbs. C. 750 lbs. D. 600 lbs
99) In industrial Security, before a security expert can recommend what types of security will be needed to a particular
industrial establishment; he has to conduct first a security____ of the establishment.
A. Structure B. Payment C. Report D. Survey
100) Natural hazards such as storms, earthquakes, floods or lahar cannot be prevented from occurring. To minimize
the disastrous effects of these phenomena, the security officer must prepare a:
A. Security education plan C. Guard deployment plan
B. Disaster or emergency plan D. Civil defense plan
101) This employed as an indirect approach of educating the employees, such as posting security posters and
distributing fliers.
A. Security Promotion C. Refresher Conference
B. Security Reminders D. Orientation
102) It is design to remind employees of the company about their responsibilities, review the guidelines and
policies, introduction of new policies and regulations and a movement of getting employees feedback about the
company policies that is being implemented.
A. Security Promotion C. Refresher Conference
B. Security Reminders D. Orientation
103) There is no formal or logical sequencing. For example, the inspection may start with countermeasures for
proprietary information, then emergency plan, followed by investigation and so forth.
A. Formal Inspection C. Structured Inspection
B. Informal Inspection D. Unstructured Inspection
104) There is a formal or logical sequence to the process. For instance, the audit may start with the 1st line of
defense, then the 2nd line, then the 3rd line, etc.
A. Formal Inspection C. Structured Inspection
B. Informal Inspection D. Unstructured Inspection
105) Usually the result of a long and firmly entrenched inspection program understood by all and accepted as part
of the organizational life.
A. Formal Inspection C. Structured Inspection
B. Informal Inspection D. Unstructured Inspection
106) It is usually preceded by an announcement, and the unit under inspection “prepares” for events, including
some extra housekeeping activities that would not otherwise happen at that point in time.
A. Formal Inspection C. Structured Inspection
B. Informal Inspection D. Unstructured Inspection
107) Planned assumption and acceptance of the potential risk by making a deliberate managerial decision of doing
nothing about the threat, or setting aside resources for use in case of a specific loss incident.
A. Risk Self-assumption B. Risk Transfer C. Risk Spreading D. Risk Reduction
108) Moving the financial impact of the potential loss over to an insurance company.
A. Risk Self-assumption B. Risk Transfer C. Risk Spreading D. Risk Reduction
109) Spreading the risk through compartmentation or decentralization to limit the impact (criticality) of the
potential loss.
A. Risk Self-assumption B. Risk Transfer C. Risk Spreading D. Risk Reduction
110) Decreasing the risk by minimizing the probability of the potential loss. The reduction of criminal opportunity
is often accomplished by situational crime prevention strategies to discourage, deter, or deny criminal incidents.
A. Risk Self-assumption B. Risk Transfer C. Risk Spreading D. Risk Reduction
111) Eliminating or removing the risk totally from the business, government, or industrial environment for which
the risk manager has responsibility
A. Risk Avoidance B. Risk Management C. Risk Analysis D. Risk Reduction
112) An action taken or a physical entity used to reduce or eliminate one or more vulnerabilities.
A. Risk Asset B. Countermeasures C. Adversary D. Asset
113) Any information, facility, material, information, or activity which has a positive value to its owner whether it
is an individual, private or government entity.
A. Risk Asset B. Countermeasures C. Adversary D. Asset
114) An individual, group, organization, or government that conducts activities or has the intention and capability to
conduct activities detrimental to the individual, private or government entity.
A. Risk Asset B. Countermeasures C. Adversary D. Asset
115) One who steals with preconceived plans and takes away any or all types of items or supplies for economic
gain.
A. Casual Pilferer B. Systematic Pilferer C. Adversary D. Asset
116) One who steals due to his inability to resist the unexpected opportunity and has little fear of detection; is no
plan or premeditation and he is usually a “loner” on the job.
A. Casual Pilferer B. Systematic Pilferer C. Adversary D. Asset
117) Any act or condition which may result in the compromise of information, loss of life, and loss or destruction of
property or disruption of the activity of the installation.
A. Countermeasures B. Adversary C. Risk Spreading D. Security Hazard
118) Private Security Agency shall not exceed fifty rounds of ammunition per unit of duly licensed firearms.
Individual issue to each a security guard shall be limited to one half of such basic load or _____ rounds for every
security guard.
A. 25 B. 10 C. 30 D. 5
119) Issued by the PNP thru CSG Directorate after the applicant/licensee should have complied with all the
requirements while it has less than two hundred guards.
 A. temporary license to operate C. security guard license
B. regular license to operate D. license to practice profession
120) Regular License to Operate is renewable every ______.
A. 2 years B. 60 days C. 1 year D. 6 years
121) All applications for renewal of license to operate shall filed at least _______ before expiry date of LTO subject
of the renewal application filed/accepted thereafter shall penalized for late filing.
A. 60 days B. 30 days C. 3 months D. 6 months
122) A pattern of radio waves is transmitted and partially reflected back to an antenna. If they strike a moving
object, they return at a different frequency which results in initiating an alarm signal.
A. Microwave Motion Detection Device C. Laser Beam Alarm
B. Photoelectric or Electric Eye Device D. Metallic foil or wire
123) An invisible/visible beam is emitted and when this is disturbed or when an intruder breaks contact with the
beam, it will activate the alarm.
A. Microwave Motion Detection Device C. Laser Beam Alarm
B. Photoelectric or Electric Eye Device D. Metallic foil or wire
124) A laser emitter floods a wall or fencing with a beam so that when this beam is disturbed by a physical object,
an alarm is activated.
A. Microwave Motion Detection Device C. Laser Beam Alarm
B. Photoelectric or Electric Eye Device D. Metallic foil or wire
125) It will detect any action that moves the foil or wire. An electrically charge strips of tinfoil or wire is used in the
doors, windows or glass surfaces of the protected area.
A. Microwave Motion Detection Device C. Laser Beam Alarm
B. Photoelectric or Electric Eye Device D. Metallic foil or wire
126) It will detect any vibration caused by attempted force entry. A vibration sensitive sensor is attached to walls,
ceilings or floors of the protected area.
A. Vibration Detection Device C. Metallic foil or wire
B. Audio Detection Device D. Laser Beam Alarm
127) It will detect any sound caused by attempted force entry. A supersonic microphone speaker sensor is installed
in walls, ceilings and floors of the protected area.
A. Vibration Detection Device C. Metallic foil or wire
B. Audio Detection Device D. Laser Beam Alarm
128) This system is set to dial a predetermined number or numbers when the alarm activate. The numbers selected
might be the police or the subscriber’s home number, or both.
When the phone is answered, a recording states that an intrusion in progress at the location so alarmed.
A. Local alarm by chance system C. Local alarm system
B. Dial alarm system D. Auxiliary alarm
129) This is local alarm system in which a bell or siren is sounded with no predictable response.
This system is used in residence or small retail establishment which affords a respond system.
The hope is that a neighbor or passing patrol car will reach to alarm and call for police assistance, but such a
call is purely a matter of chance.
A. Local alarm by chance system C. Local alarm system
B. Dial alarm system D. Auxiliary alarm
130) Company-owned alarm systems with a unit in the nearest police station so that in case of need, direct call is
possible. The company maintains the equipment and lines both for the company and those in the police, fire and
other emergency agencies by special arrangement. The auxiliary system can be availed of by radio, landlines, or
cell phones.
A. Local alarm by chance system C. Local alarm system
B. Dial alarm system D. Auxiliary alarm
131) This system consists of ringing up a visual or audible alarm near the object to be protected. When an intruder
tries to pry a window, the alarm thereat goes off.
A. Local alarm by chance system C. Local alarm system
B. Dial alarm system D. Auxiliary alarm
132) Located in the industrial firm itself with a duty operator. In case of alarm, the duty operator calls whatever is
the primary need; firefighters, police, an ambulance or a bomb disposal unit.
A. Proprietary system C. Auxiliary system
B. Central Station System D. Local alarm system
133) A type of alarm where the control station is located outside the plant or installation. When the alarm is
sounded or actuated by subscriber, the central station notifies the police and other public safety agencies.
A. Proprietary system C. Auxiliary system
B. Central Station System D. Local alarm system
134) It is the signaling system that activates the alarm.
 A. enunciator B. transmission line C. trigger device D. sensor
135) A circuit which transmit the message to the signaling apparatus.
A. enunciator B. transmission line C. trigger device D. sensor
136) It emits the aural or visual signals or both.
A. enunciator B. transmission line C. trigger device D. censor
137) Its function is to alert the security personnel for any attempt of intrusion into a protected area, building or
compound.
A. protective lighting B. protective alarm C. perimeter barrier D. none of them
138) An aural or visual signal given by the annunciator to security when intruder actuates device in a protected area.
A. lighting B. alarm C. barrier D. fence
139) These are wide beam units, primary used to extend the illumination in long, horizontal strips to protect the
approaches to the perimeter barrier.
A. search lights B. fresnel lights C. street lights D. flood lights
140) These are highly focused incandescent lamp and are designed to pinpoint potential trouble spots.
A. search lights B. fresnel lights C. street lights D. flood lights
141) This lighting equipment received the most widespread notoriety for its value in reducing crime.
A. search lights B. fresnel lights C. street lights D. flood lights
142) These can be used to accommodate most outdoor security lighting needs, including the illumination of
boundaries, fences and buildings and for the emphasis of vital areas or particular buildings.
A. search lights B. fresnel lights C. street lights D. flood lights
143) This has gained acceptance for exterior lighting of parking areas, roadways, buildings and commercial interior
installations. Constructed on the same principle as mercury vapor lamps, they emit a golden white to light pink
color and this provide high lumen efficiency and relatively good color rendition.
A. High-pressure sodium vapor C. metal halide
B. fluorescent D. mercury vapor lamp
144) This provides good color rendition, high lamp efficiency as well as long life. However, it cannot project light
over long distance and thus are not desirable as flood type lights.
A. High-pressure sodium vapor C. metal halide
B. fluorescent D. mercury vapor lamp
145) It has similar physical appearance to mercury vapor but provides a light source of higher luminous efficiency
and better color rendition.
A. High-pressure sodium vapor C. metal halide
B. fluorescent D. mercury vapor lamp
146) It is considered more efficient that the incandescent and used widespread in exterior lighting. This emits a
purplish-white color, caused by an electric current passing through a tube of conducting and luminous gas.
A. High-pressure sodium vapor C. metal halide
B. fluorescent D. mercury vapor lamp
147) It is the least expensive in terms of energy consumed and has the advantage of providing instant illumination
when the switch is on.
A. High-pressure sodium vapor C. incandescent lamp
B. fluorescent D. mercury vapor lamp
148) A security force maintained and operated by any private company/corporation utilizing any of its employees to
watch, secure or guard its business establishment premises, compound or properties.
A. Private Security Agency C. Government Guard Unit
B. Company Guard Force D. Private Detective Unit
149) The state or quality, condition of being secure, freedom from fear, harm, danger, loss, destruction or damages;
A. Physical Security Measures C. Security
B. Physical Security D. Protective Security
150) A type of security applied for the protection of top-ranking officials of the government or private entity,
visiting persons of illustrious standing and foreign dignitaries.
A. Mall security C. Industrial Security
B. VIP security D. Personnel Security

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