Basics
Basics
2. Give Analogy between electric circuit and Magnetic circuit (Dec-2010)(May 2013)
S.No Electric Circuit Magnetic circuit
Emf MMF
1 Current=Resistance Flux=Reluctance
ρℓ ℓ
2. Resistance = Reluctance =μ
A o μr A
1 1
3. Conductance = Resistance Permeance =Reluctance
V NI
4. E=d H= l
5. A conductor 80cm long moves at right angle to its length at a constant speed of 30 m/s
in a uniform magnetic field of flux density 1.2T. Find the emf induced when the
conductor motion is normal to the field flux?(May-2011)
E = B ℓ v sin θ
= 1.2 × 80 × 10−2 × 30 × sin 90°
E = 28.8 V
6. What are the core losses and how can this loss be minimized? (May-2012)
When a magnetic material undergoes cyclic magnetization, two kinds of power losses
occur on it. Hysteresis and eddy current losses are called as core loss
Hysteresis loss– This loss can be reduced by selecting good quality magnetic material.
Eddy current loss – This loss can be reduced by using thin laminations for the core.
7. Clearly define MMF and EMF. (May-2012& Dec 2014)
2
MMF: Itis the cause for producing flux in a magnetic circuit. The amount of flux setup
in the core depends upon the current (I) and number of turns (N).
MMF=NI
EMF:It is the driving force in the electric circuit
EMF = Current × Resistance, EMF = I × R (Volts)
8. What is hysteresis loss and how can this loss be minimized? (Dec-2011, 2013, 2016)
When the magnetic material is subjected to repeated cycles of magnetizationand
demagnetization, it results into disturbance in the alignment of the various domain. All the
energy is never returned through field completely collapses. This loss of energy appears
as heat in the magnetic material. This can be minimized by selecting good quality magnetic
material like Silicon.
Ferromagnetic Ferrimagnetic
4
The field pattern in space is fixed but the field intensity at every point varies as a
replica of the time variation of current.
𝐵. ⃗⃗⃗⃗
∮ ⃗⃗⃗ 𝑑𝑠 = 𝜇0 𝐼
5
29. Define Magnetic flux density (Nov 2017)
Magnetic flux density is defined as the amount of magnetic flux in an area taken perpendicular to
the magnetic flux's direction.
32. How are hysteresis and eddy current losses minimized? (May 2018)
Core losses majorly include Hysteresis loss and eddy current loss. Eddy Current
loss can be reduced by increasing the number of laminations. The laminations provide small
gaps between the plates. As it is easier for magnetic flux to flow through iron than air or oil,
stray flux that can cause core losses is minimized.
PART-B
1. Explain clearly the statically induced emf and dynamically induced emf?(May-2012)
(Dec-2013, 2014, 2015, 2016)
Or
Derive the expression for self-inductance and mutual inductance and also define
coefficient of coupling. (May 2017)
EMF gets induced in a conductor, whenever their exits change in flux with that conductor,
according to Faraday’s Law. Such change in flux can be brought about by different methods.
Namely,
1. Dynamically Induced emf
2. Statically Induced emf
1. Dynamically induced emf:
The change in the flux linking with a conductor (or) circuit can be brought about by its
motion relative to magnetic field. This is possible by moving flux with respect to coil conductor
or circuit or it is possible by moving conductor, coil, and thecircuit with respect to stationary
magnetic flux.
In second case, the motion of the conductor is perpendicular to the flux. Hence whole
length of conductor is cutting the flux line hence there is maximum possible induced emf in the
conductor. Under such condition plane of flux and plane of motion arte perpendicular to each
other.
6
Consider a conductor moving with velocity v m/s such that its plane of motion or direction of
velocity is perpendicular to the direction of flux lines as shown below.
Let the conductor is moved through distance dx in a small time intervaldt, then
Area swept by conductor=𝑙 × dx m2
Flux cut by conductor=Flux density× Area swept
dϕ = 𝐵 × ℓ × dx ωb
According to Faraday’s law the magnitude of induced emf is perpendicular to rate of change of
flux
𝐅𝐥𝐮𝐱 𝐜𝐮𝐭
e = 𝐓𝐢𝐦𝐞
dϕ B ℓ dx
= =
dt dt
𝑒 = 𝐵𝑙𝑣 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑠
This is (maximum) induced emf when plane of motion is exactly perpendicular to the plane of
flux. But if the conductor is moving with a velocity v at a certain angle 𝜃 measured with respect
to direction of field.
Under this condition,
Magnitude of Induced emf
𝑒 = 𝐵𝑙𝑣 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃volts
𝜃 – is measured with respect to plane of the flux.
7
1. Fleming’s Right hand rule:
The thumb, fore finger, middle finger of right hand at right angle to one another. If
fore finger points in the direction of magnetic field, thumb in the direction of motion of
the conductor, then the middle finger will point in the direction of induced emf.
3. Lenz’s law:
The direction of an Induced emf produced by the electromagnetic induction is such
that it sets up a current which always opposes the cause that is responsible for inducing the emf.
dϕ
e = −N
dt
It is classified into
Self inducede.m.f.
Mutually induced e.m.f.
Self inducede.m.f.
8
Consider a coil having ‘N’ turns and carrying current ‘I’ when switch ‘S’ is in closed position.
The current magnitude can be varied with the help of variable resistance connected in series
with battery.
The flux produced by the coil links with the coil itself. The total flux linkages of coilwill
be Nϕ wb turns.
If ‘I’ changed flux also changed. Flux linkage also be changed.According to Faraday’s
law, due to rater of change of flux linkages there will be induced e.m.f in the coil. So without
physically moving coil or flux there is induced e.m.f. in the coil. The phenomenon is called self
induced.
Expression or Magnitude of self inducede.m.f.
According to Faraday’s Law of electromagnetic induction, self inducede.m.f. can be expressed
as,
dϕ
e = −N
dt
Negative sign indicates that direction of the e.m.f. is opposing change in current due to which it
ϕ
exists.Φ = ×I
I
ϕ
Rate of change of flux = × Rate of change of current
I
dϕ ϕ dI
= .
dt I dt
ϕ dI
e = −N .
I dt
Nϕ dI
= −( )
I dt
Nϕ
is called as coefficient of self inductance it is denoted by L
I
Nϕ
L=
I
𝑑𝐼
𝑒 = −𝐿 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑠
𝑑𝑡
Expression for Coefficient of self-Inductance:
Nϕ
L= I
9
mmf NI
Φ = =
Reluctance S
N NI 2
𝑁2
L= = 𝑁 /𝑆 =
I S ℓ/𝜇𝑎
𝑵𝟐 𝛍𝐨 𝛍𝐫 𝐚
𝐋 =
𝓵
ℓ - length of magnetic circuit
a- Area of cross section of magnetic circuit through which flux is passing.
Consider two coils which are placed adjacent to each other as shown in figure. The coil
A hasN1 turns while coil B has N2 number of turns. The coil A has switch S, variable resistance
R and battery of ‘E’ in series with it. A galvanometer is connected across coil B to sense
induced e.m.f. and current because of it.
Current through coil A is I1 producing flux ∅1. Part of this flux will link with coil B, will
complete its path through coil B as shown in figure (mutual flux ∅2).
Now if current through coil A is changed by means of variable resistance R, then flux ∅1
changes. Due to this, flux associated with coil B, which is mutual flux ∅2also changes. Due to
Faraday’s law there will be induced e.m.f. in coil B which will set up a current through coil B,
which will be detected by galvanometer G.
Magnitude of Mutually induced emf
10
-ve sign indicates that this emf will setup a current which will oppose the change of flux linking
with it.
ϕ2
Φ2 = × I1
I1
ϕ2
Rate of change of Φ2 = × Rate of change of current I1
I1
dϕ2 ϕ2 dI1
= .
dt I1 dt
ϕ2 dI1
e2 = − N2 .
I1 dt
N2 ϕ2 dI1
e2 = − ( )
I1 dt
N2 ϕ2
Here is called coefficient of mutual Inductance
I1
𝐝𝐈𝟏
𝐞𝟐 = − 𝐌
𝐝𝐭
N 2 k 1 ϕ1 N 1 k 2 ϕ2
M = &M =
I1 I2
Multiply both M
N2 k1 ϕ1 N1 k2 ϕ2
M ×M =
I1 I2
𝑁 1 𝜙1 𝑁 2 𝜙2
M2 = K1 K2
𝐼1 𝐼2
M2 = K1 K2 L1L2
M = K√L1 L2
Where, K = √K1 K 2is called coefficient of coupling.
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Discuss the AC operation of Magnetic circuit (May-2012& Dec 2014, 2016)
In many applications and machines such as transformers and A.C machines, the
magnetic circuits are excited by A.C. supply. In such an operation, inductance plays vital role
even in steady state operation through in D.C., it acts as a short circuit. In such cases the flux is
determined by the A.C. voltage applied and the frequency. Thus the exciting current has to
adjust itself according to the flux so that every time B-H relationship is satisfied.
Consider a coil having N turns wound on iron core. The coil carries an alternating
current I varying sinusoidally, thus the flux ∅ produced by the exciting current ‘I’ is also
sinusoidally varying with time.
11
Φ = ∅𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡
Where, ∅𝑚 = maximum value of flux in core
ω = 2пf where, f is frequency in Hz
According to Faraday’s law, the flux changes with respect to coil, the emf gets induced in the
coil given by,
dϕ d
e = N dt = N dt [ϕm sin ωt]
𝐍𝛟𝐦 𝟐 𝛑𝐟
𝐄= = 𝟒. 𝟒𝟒 𝐟𝐍ϕm
√𝟐
ϕm = AcBm
E=4.44 f N AcBm
dλ
P = .i
dt
Power is the rate of change of energy hence energy input which gets stored in the magnetic field
during interval t1 to t2 is,
t2 t2
dλ
ωf = ∫ p dt = ∫ i dt
t1 t1 dt
λ2
𝛚𝐟 = ∫ 𝐢 𝐝𝛌
λ1
Thus ωf is the increase in the field energy as the flux linkages of the coil changes from 𝜆1 and 𝜆2
during the interval t1 and t2
Hcℓc =m.m.f= NI
12
Hc ℓc
I=
N
Where 𝜆=N∅ and ∅=Bc ac
i.e𝜆 =N ac Bc
d𝜆 = N ac dBc
The flux density of the core is changing from B1 to B2 as the flux linkages change from 𝜆1 to 𝜆2
λ2
Hc ℓc
ωf = ∫ dλ
λ1 N
B2
Hc lc
ωf = ∫ ( ) N ac dBc
B1 N
B2
ωf = ∫ Hc lc ac dBc
B1
-------------------------------------------------&&&&&-------------------------------------------
3. Discuss in detail the magnetic circuits and electrical analogy of magnetic circuit (May-2011)
Magnetic circuit is defined as the closed path traced or followed by the magnetic lines of
force, ie flux. Such a magnetic circuit is associated with different magnetic quantities as m.m.f,
flux, reluctance, permeability etc,
Consider simple magnetic circuit which consists of an iron core with cross sectional area
of ‘a’ m2 with a mean length of ‘l’ m. A coil of N turns is wound on one of the sides of the
square core which is excited by a supply. This supply drives a current I through the coil. This
current carrying coil produces the fluxwhich completes its path through the core fig (a).
This is analogous to simple electric circuit in which a supply iee.m.f. of E volts drives a
current I which completes its path through a cored conductor having resistance R. This
analogous electrical circuit shown in fig (b).
I=current flowing through coil
N=Number of turns
Φ=Flux in Weber’s; Β =Flux density in the core
µ=Absolute permeability of the magnetic material
µr=Relative permeability of the magnetic material
13
fig.a fig.b
NI
H = AT/m
ℓ
NI
Φ = ℓ
μo μr a
m. m. f F
Φ = =
Reuctance S
NI=magneto motive force m.m.f in AT
l
S= (Reluctance)
μo μr a
Flux is similar to in electric circuit
e. m. f
I=
Resistance
Electrical Analogy of simple magnetic circuit diagram
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. What is eddy current? Explain in detail eddy current loss (May-2011,2015, 2016) (DEC
2015)
Consider a coil wound on the core and carries an alternating current, i.e current
magnitude varies with respect to time, and then flux produced by current is also of alternating
nature. So core is under the influence of the changing flux and under such condition, according
to Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction emf gets induced in the core Now if the core is
14
solid, then the induced emf circulates currents through the core. Such currents in the core which
are due to induced emf in the core are called as eddy currents. Due to such currents there is
power loss in the core. Such loss is called eddy current loss.
Lamination thickness usually varies from 0.3 to 5mm for electromagnetic devices used for
power station and 0.01 to 0.5 mm for devices used in electronic application.
-------------------------------------&&&&-------------------------------------------------
5. Explain power loss that occurs in magnetic material when it undergoes a cyclic
magnetization?(May-2011,2015, 2016)
Two type of power loss appears in magnetic material when it undergoes a cyclic
magnetization.
1. Hysteresis loss
2. Eddy current loss.
15
1. Hysteresis loss
When a magnetic material is subjected to repeated cycle of magnetization and
demagnetization, it results into disturbance in the alignment of the various domains. Energy gets
stored when magnetic field established and energy is returned when the fields collapses. Due to
hysteresis, all the energy is never returned through field completely collapses. The loss of
energy as heat in the magnetic material. This is called hysteresis loss. Due to hysteresis loss heat
is produced.
i) Initially variable resistance is kept maximum current through circuit low. H also low
I is increased for low value of H, B do not increase rapidly. But after knee point B
increases rapidly upto certain point. This point is called point of saturation.
ii) After saturation point now current is again reduced to zero. Due to this field strength
also reduces to zero. But B do not trace the same curve back but fall back as
compared to previous magnetization curve. This phenomenon of falling back of flux
density while demagnetization cycle is called hysteresis.
16
iii) The value of flux density when exciting current through the coil and magnetic field
strength is reduced to zero is called residual flux density. The magnitude of this
residual flux or magnetism depends on the nature of the material of the core. And
this property of material is called retentivity.
iv) But now if it is required to demagnetize the core entirely then it is necessary to
reverse the direction of current through the coil.This is possible with the help of the
intermediate switch.
v) If now this reversed current increased,core get saturated in opposite direction.
vi) If I decreased to zero, core shows hysteresis properly, Hysteresis loss reduced by
selecting good quality of magnetic material.
------------------------------------------------&&&&------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------&&&&&---------------------------------------------------------
7. Define permeability of a magnetic material and the factors on which it depends (May-
2010)
It is related to the medium which magnet is placed. The force excited by one magnetic
pole to other depends on the medium in which magnets are placed.
It is defined as the ability with which the magnetic material forces the magnetic flux
through a given medium
Types
i) Absolute permeability
ii) Relative permeability
i) Absolute permeability:
It is the ratio of B in a particular medium to H producing that flux density.
B
μ=
H
Permeability of free space
17
B
μo = Hinvacuum =4π × 10−7 H/M
If magnet placed in a free space or vacuum or in air then theratio of B and H is called
permeability of free space.
ii) Relative permeability
It is defined as the ratio of flux density produced in a medium to flux density produced
in free space, under the influence of same H and under identical conditions
μ
μr = μ where, H is same
o
Φ=∅m sin 𝜔𝑡
Where,∅m= maximum value of flux in core
ω = 2пf where, f is frequency in Hz
According to Faraday’s law, the flux changes with respect to coil; the emf gets induced
in the coil given by,
𝑑𝜙 𝑑
e = N 𝑑𝑡 = N 𝑑𝑡 [𝜙𝑚 sin 𝜔𝑡]
e = Nϕm cos ωt volts
Thus 𝜔f is the increase in the field energy as the flux linkages of the coil changes from
𝜆1 and 𝜆2 during the interval t1 and t2
Hcℓc =m.m.f=Ni
Hc ℓc
I=
N
λ2
Hc ℓc
ωf = ∫ dλ
λ1 N
Where 𝜆=N∅ and ∅=Bc ac.
i.e𝜆 =N ac Bc
The flux density of the core is changing from B1 to B2 as the flux linkages change from 𝜆1 to 𝜆2
B Hc lc
ωf =∫B 2 ( ) N ac dBc
1 N
B
ωf= ∫B 2 Hc ℓc ac dBc
1
B
ωf =ac ℓc ∫B 2 Hc dBc
1
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
9. Compare the electric and magnetic circuit by their similarities and dissimilarities
Similarities(Dec 2011& Dec 2014).
19
R∝ℓ 1
1 μ
a → depend on nature of material α
α 1
to area ‘a’
α
Emf MMF
7. I=Resistance ϕ=reluctance
I ϕ
B= a ωb/m2
8. δ = A/m2
a
Conductivity is Reciprocal of resistivity=1/R
Permeance is reciprocal of the
9.
reluctance=1/S
Kirchhoff’s current and voltage law is Kirchhoff’s m.m.f. law and flux law is
10.
applicable to the electric circuit applicable to the magnetic circuit
Dissimilarities
Sl.No Electric circuit Magnetic circuit
In the electric circuit the current actually Due to m.m.f. flux gets established and
1. flows i.e there is movement of electron does not flow in the sense in which
current flows.
There are many material which can be used There is no magnetic insulator as flux
2. as Insulator ie air, p.v.c., Synthetic resin etc, can pass through all the materials, even
from which current cannot pass through the air as well.
Energy must be supplied to the electric circuit Energy is required to create the
3. to maintain the flow of current magnetic flux, but it is not required to
maintain it.
The resistance and the conductivity are The reluctance, permeance and
independent of current density (𝛿) under permeability are dependent on the flux
4.
constant temp. But may change due to the density
temp
Electric lines of flux are not losed they start Magnetic lines of flux are closed lines.
from positive charge and end on negative They flow from N pole to S pole
5.
charge externally while S pole to N pole
internally
There is continuous consumption of electrical Energy is required to create the
6.
energy magnetic flux and not to maintain it
10. Derive an expression for energy density in the magnetic field?(Dec-2010, 2015)
Induced emf in a coil
dI
e = −L
dt
This opposes the supply voltage.
dI dI
V = − e = − [−L ]=L
dt dt
dI
𝑃𝑂𝑤𝑒𝑟 = V × I = L×I
dt
dI
E = power × time = L × I × dt
dt
E=LIdI joules.
The above expression is energy in current dI.
20
I
E = ∫ L dI I
O
I LI2
E= 𝐿 ∫O I dI = 2
Energy
Energy density=Unit volume
We know that L=N ∅ /I
E=1/2 L I2
Nϕ
=1/2× × I2
I
1
E= 2 N ∅ I
We know thatNI=Hℓ
Φ=Ba
1
E = 2 × Hℓ × Ba
Where a× ℓ =volume of magnetic material per unit volume E=1/2 B H
Where B=µ H
E 1
∴ Unit volume = 2 μ H 2 Jolules/m3
E 1 B2
= Jolules/m3
Unit volume 2 μ
------------------------------------------------&&&&&-----------------------------------------------------
11. Explain in detail?(May-2010)
1) B-H relationship
2) Leakage flux
3) Fringing
4) Stacking factor
1) B-H relationship:-
𝑁𝐼
H= 𝑙 , As current in coil changes magnetic field strength alo changes. Due to this flux
produced and hence the flux density also changes.
A graph b/w flux density (B) and the magnetic field strength (H) for magnetic material is
called as its magnetization curve or B-H curve
21
𝑁𝐼
‘H’ can be calculated as and b can be calculated by ∅/A, with help of R. I is varied H also
𝑙
varied
Middle portion: -H increases B also increases. The point at which portion of the curve bends is
called knee point.
Saturation portion: - After knee point, rate of increase in B reduce drastically finally the curve
parallel to ‘X’ axis. It is called saturation portion.
B
B=µ H=μo μr H; μr = μ
oH
2) Leakage flux
Flux which does not follow the desired path is called leakage flux. The flux which is
available in the air gap and utilized to produce the desired effect is called metal flux denoted
by ϕu
3) Fringing
When flux enters into the air gap, it passing through the air gap in terms of parallel flux
lines. There exists a force of repulsion between the magnetic lines of force which are parallel
and having same direction. Due to this repulsive force there is tendency of the edge of the air
gap. The tendency of the flux to bulge out at the edges of the air gap is called magnetic
fringing.
22
Effects:
1)It increases the effective cross sectional area of air gape
2) It reduces the flux density in the air gap
4) Stacking factor:-
The laminated construction helps to keep eddy current losses to low value. Due to stacks
of lamination, the net cross sectional area occupied by the magnetic material less than its gross
cross sectional area.
Net cross sectional area occupied by magnetic material
Stacking factor =
gross cross − sectional area
23
This is the basic hysteresis property in which B lags behind. It can also be recognized as
a memory typenonlinearity in which the materials remember its previous history. Further it is
observed that the hysteresis loop becomes wider for increasing maximum flux densities. The
dotted curve drawn through the positive and negative tips of the hysteresis loop with increasing
maximum flux densities is the normal magnetization and is obtainable in virgin (Unmagnetized)
material by increasing the DC magnetization in either direction. It is easily seen that because of
hysteresis and saturation, the magnetic characteristic of a given material cannot be described by
a few overall parameters but must be expressed in the form of a set curves. It will be shown that
the area of the hysteresis loop is the energy loss (it appears in the form of heat energy) per unit
volume in one cycle of magnetization. This loss depends upon the quality of material and
maximum flux density at which the material is operated.
ii) Saturaion:
Saturation is the state reached when an increase in applied external magnetic
field H cannot increase the magnetization of the material further, so the total magnetic flux
density B more or less levels off. (It continues to increase very slowly due to the vacuum
permeability.) Saturation is a characteristic of ferromagnetic and ferromagnetic materials, such
as iron, nickel, cobaltand their alloys.
iii) Hysteresis:
Hysteresis the lag in a variable property of a system with respect to the effect producing i
t as this effect varies, espthe phenomenon in which the magnetic flux density of a ferromagnet
ic material lags behind the changing external magnetic field strength
iv) Permeability:
Permeability is the measure of the ability of a material to support the formation of
a magnetic field within itself. Hence, it is the degree of magnetization that a material obtains in
response to an applied magnetic field.
Or
The importance of magnetic materials is twofold:
Magnetic materials are used to obtain large magnetic flux densities with relatively low
levels of magnetizing force.
Magnetic materials can be used to constrain and direct magnetic fields in well-
defined paths.
Ferromagnetic materials, typically composed of iron and alloys of iron with cobalt, tungsten,
nickel, aluminum, and other metals, are by far the most common magnetic materials.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
13. Draw and explain the typical magnetic circuit with air gap and its equivalent electric
circuit. Hence derive the expression for air gap flux.(May 2013,Nov 2017)
The series magnetic circuit can also have a short air gap.Such air gap is not possible in case of
electric circuit.
𝑙𝑔
𝑆𝑔 = 𝜇 for air µr = 1
0 μr 𝑎𝑖
The cross sectional area of air gap is assumed to be equal to area of the iorn ring
ℓ ℓ𝑔
𝑆𝑇 = 𝜇𝑎𝑖 +
𝑖 𝜇0 𝑎𝑖
𝑚.𝑚.𝑓 𝑁𝐼
Ф=𝑟𝑒𝑙𝑢𝑐𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 =𝑆
𝑇
NI=𝑆𝑖 Ф +𝑆𝑔 Ф AT
𝑁𝐼
Ф= 𝑆
𝑖 +𝑆𝑔
------------------------------------------------&&&&--------------------------------------
PROBLEMS
1. The total core loss of a specimen of silicon steel is found to be 1500 w at 50 Hz. Keeping
the flux density constant the loss becomes 3000w when the frequency is raised to 75Hz.
Calculate separately the hysteresis and eddy current loss at each of their
frequencies?(May-2011, Dec- 2013, 2015)
Given:
Core Loss=1500w,F=50,B=3000w, Frequency Is Raised=75hz
25
Formula used:
ωh = ηBm1.6 f
ωh = Af
ωe = K e Bm2 f 2 t 2 V
= Bf 2
Solution:
P=Af + 𝐵f 2 ------------------ 1
Divequ 1 by f
p
= A + Bf
f
At 50Hz, the losses in 1500 watts
1500
= A + 50B
50
30=A+50B ------------------ 2
At 75 Hz
3000
= A + 75B
75
40=A+ 75B -------------------- 3
Solve 2, 3
A+50B=30
A+ 75B=40
B=0.4
A=10
Result:
At 50Hz
Hysteresis loss
Af=10×50
=500 w
Eddy current loss
Bf2 =0.4 × 502
=1000 watts
At 75 Hz
Hysteresis loss=10 ×75=750w
Eddy current loss=0.4 ×752=2250w
------------------------------------------------&&&&&---------------------------------------------
2. A ring composed of three sections. The cross section area is 0.001 m2 for each section. The
mean arc length area la=0.3m, lb=0.2m,lc=0.1m, an air gap length of 0.1mm is cut in the
ring, µr for sections a, b,c, are 5000,1000, 10000 respectively. Flux in the air gap is 7.5×10-
4wb. Find i)mmf ii) exciting current if the coil has 100 turns,iii) reluctance of the
section(Dec-2011)
Given:
a=0.001 m2, la=0.3m, lb=0.2m,lc=0.1m, ℓg = of 0.1mm, µr=5000,1000, 10000,∅ = 7.5 × 10 −
4wb.
Formula used:
ℓg
Total reluctance=Rg+ Ra+ Rb+ Rc, Rg = μ
o μrg a
26
Solution:
ℓg 0.1×10−3
i) Rg = μ = 4π×10−7 ×1 × 0.001 = 79554
o μrg a
ℓa 0.3
Ra = = = 47748
μo μra a 4π × 10−7 × 5000 × 0.001
ℓb 0.2
Rb = = −7
= 159109
μo μrb a 4π × 10 × 1000 × 0.001
ℓc 0.1
Rc = = −7
= 7957
μo μrc a 4π × 10 × 10000 × 0.001
Total reluctance = 294368
ii)Mmf=flux × reluctance=7.5 ×10-4×294585
=221AT
MMF 221
iii)Current required = = 100
N
=2.21 Amps.
---------------------------------------------------&&&&----------------------------------------------
3. For the magnetic circuit shown in fig determine the current required to establish a
flux density of 0.5T in the air gap.
Given:
N=1000, B=0.5T, a=2×2=4 cm2lg=1cm
27
li=length of iron path=8+8+6+5=27cm
μcore = 5000μo
μr = 5000
li lg mmf
Formula used: Si = μ , Sg = μ a , Φ =
o μr a o sT
Solution:
Φ=B×a
=0.5 ×4× 10−4 = 0.2 mωb
li 27 × 10−2
Si = =
μo μr a 5000 × 4π × 10−7 × 4 × 10−4
=107.4295×103 AT/wb
lg 1 × 10−2
Sg = =
μo a 4π × 10−7 × 4 × 10−4
=19.8943× 106 AT/wb
ST= Si+ Sg=20× 106 AT/wb
mmf NI
Φ= = 0.2 × 10−3 =
sT 20 × 106
I=4A
---------------------------------------------------&&&&--------------------------------------------
4. The magnetic circuit has dimension: 𝑨𝒄 = 4×4 𝒄𝒎𝟐 , b𝒍𝒈 = 0.06 cm ,𝒍𝒄 = 40 cm and N= 600
turns. Assume the value of 𝝁𝒓 = 𝟔𝟎𝟎𝟎 for iorn.Find the exciting current for 𝑩𝒄 =1.2 T and
corresponding flux and flux linkages.(May 2013)
Given: 𝐴𝑐 = 4×4 𝑐𝑚2 , b𝑙𝑔 = 0.06 cm ,𝑙𝑐 = 40 cm and N= 600, 𝜇𝑟 = 6000, 𝐵𝑐 =1.2 T
Formula used:
𝐵𝑐 𝐵𝑔
Ni=𝜇 𝑙𝑐 + 𝜇 𝑙𝑔 , Ф =𝐵𝑐 𝐴𝑐 𝜆=NФ
0 𝜇𝑟 0
Soluation:
Assume fringing neglected
𝐴𝑐 =𝐴𝑔 therefore 𝐵𝑐 =𝐵𝑔
𝑩𝒄 𝑙
i =𝜇 (𝜇𝑐 +𝑙𝑔 )
0𝑁 𝑟
1.2 0.4
=4𝜋×10−7 ×600 (6000 +0.0006)
=1.06 A
Ф 19.2∗10−4
𝐵𝑔 = 𝐴 =16.484∗10−4 = 1.165 T
𝑔
𝐵𝑐 𝐵𝑔
Ni =𝜇 𝑙𝑐 + 𝜇 𝑙𝑔
0 𝜇𝑟 0
1.2×0.4 1.165×0.0006
Ni =4𝜋×10−7 ×6000+ =619.90
4𝜋×10−7
619.90
I= =1.0345 A
600
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.The core loss (Hysteresis loss +eddy current loss ) for a given specimen of magnetic
material is found to be 2000w at 50 hz .keeping the flux density constant, the frequency of
the supply is raised to 75 hz resulting in a core loss of 3200W.Compute separately
hysteresis and eddy current losses at both the frequencies.(Dec 2013).
Given: Hysteresis loss +eddy current loss=2000w,f=50,
Hysteresis loss +eddy current loss=3200,f=75
Formula used:
ωh = ηBm1.6 f
ωh = Af
ωe = K e Bm2 f 2 t 2 V
= Bf 2
Solution
ωh = ηBm1.6 f; ωh = Af;
2 2
ωe = K e Bm2 f t V;
= Bf 2
P=Af + 𝐵f 2 ------------------ 1
Divide equation 1 by f
p
= A + Bf
f
At 50Hz, the losses in 2000 watts
2000
= A + 50B
50
40=A+50B ------------------ 2
At 75 Hz the losses in 3200 watts
3200
= A + 75B
75
42.67 =A+ 75B -------------------- 3
29
Solve equation 2 &3
A+50B = 40
A+ 75B = 42.67
B=0.10668
A=34.66
At 50Hz, the hysteresis and eddy current losses is calculated by
Hysteresis loss
Af=34.66 ×50=1733.3 w
Eddy current loss
Bf2=0.1068× 502 =267 w
At 75 Hz the hysteresis and eddy current losses is calculated by
Hysteresis loss = Af= 34.66 ×75=2599.95 w
Eddy current loss= Bf2 = 0.1068 ×752= 600.75w
-------------------------------------&&&&--------------------------------------------------
6.A steel ring has a mean diameter of 20 cm, a cross section of 25 cm2 and a radial air gap
of 0.8 mm cut across it.When excited by a current of 1 A through a coil of 1000 turns
wound on the ring core it produces an air gap flux 1 m wb.Neglecting leakage and
fringing. Calculate
i) relative permeability of steel and
ii) total reluctance of the magnetic circuit.(Dec 2013)
Given: d= 20 cm=20x 10-2 m N=1000,a=25 cm2=25 X 10-4,Ф𝑔 =1 mwb,𝑙𝑔 =0.8x10-3m,I=1 A
ℓ𝑔 ℓ𝑠
Formula used: 𝑠𝑔 =μ a , 𝑠𝑠 =μ
o o μr a
Solution:
d= 20 cm=20x 10-2 m
N=1000,a=25 cm2=25 X 10-4,Ф𝑔 =1 mwb,𝑙𝑔 =0.8x10-3m,I=1 A
i) μ=B/H
B=flux/area= 1×10-3/ 25×10-4 = 0.4 wb/m2
MMF=NI=1000 AT,
H=MMF/ ℓt = 1000/0.6283=1591.59 AT/m
μ=B/H=0.4/1591.59 =2.505 × 10-4 H/m
30
μ= μo μr= 4𝜋 × 10−7 ×μr =2.505 × 10-4, μr =199.34.
Reluctance of the air gap=𝑠𝑔 = ℓ𝑔 /μo a = 0.8 ×10-3/(4𝜋 × 10−7 ×25×10-4)
= 254647.9 AT/wb.
ℓ𝑠
Reluctance of the steel=𝑠𝑠 =μ = 0.6275/ (4𝜋 × 10−7 ×199.34×25×10-4)
o μr a
= 2294379.03 AT/wb.
Total reluctance of the magnetic circuit= 𝑠𝑔 + 𝑠𝑠 =254647.9 +2294379.03
= 2549026.93 AT/m.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8. For the magnetic circuit as shown below, find the self and mutual inductance
between the two coils. Assume core permeability = 1600. (May 2014,Dec-2017)
Solution:
ℓ1 = (6+0.5+1) × 2 + (4+2) = 21 cm
ℓ2 = (3+0.5+1) × 2 + (4+2) = 15 cm
ℓ0 = 4+2 = 6 cm
ℓ1 21×10−2
R1 = μ = 4π×10−7 ×1600 ×2×2× 10−4 = 0.261 × 106
o μr A1
ℓ2 15×10−2
R2= = 4π×10−7 ×1600 ×2×2× 10−4 = 0.187 × 106
μo μr A2
ℓ𝑜 6×10−2
R0 = = 4π×10−7 ×1600 ×1×2× 10−4 = 0.149 × 106
μo μr A0
(1.453×10−3 ) × (0.149×106 )
∅21 = (0.149×106 )+(0.187×106 )
= 0.649 mwb
Solution:
E1 = 6000 V, E2 = 240V f = 50Hz, Bm = 1.4 wb/m2 A = 150 cm2I = 0.1 A (rms)
ɸm
Bm= 𝐴
ɸm
1.4 = 150×10−4
∅m= 0.021wb
E1 = 4.44 f ∅m N1
6000 = 4.44 × 50 × 0.021 × N1
N1 = 1287
E2 = 4.44 f ∅m N2
240 = 4.44 × 50 × 0.021 × N2
N2 = 51.48 = 52
N1 ɸm 27.027
L1 = = = 270.3 H
𝐼 0.1
N2 ɸm 1.092
L2 = = = 10.92 = 11 H
𝐼 0.1
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10. The core of an electromagnet is made of an iron rod of 1 cm diameter, bent in to a
circle of mean diameter 10 cm, a radial air gap of 1 mm being left between the ends of
the rod. Calculate the direct current needed in coil of 2000 turns uniformly spaced
around the core to produce a magnetic flux of 0.2 mwb in the air gap. Assume that the
relative permeability of the iron is 150, that the relative permeability of the iron is 150,
that the magnetic leakage factor is 1.2 and that the air gap is parallel. (May 2017)
Given:
Mean diameter D = 10cm = 10 × 10-2 m
32
π π
Aa = × (1)2 = 4 cm2
4
ℓg = 1mm = 1 × 10-3 m
N = 2000, ∅g = 0.2 mwb
μr= 150, λ = 1.2
ℓi = πD = π × 10 × 10-2 = 0.3141 m
Solution:
AT for airgap:
ɸg 0.2 ×10−3
Bg = = 0.785 ×10−4 = 2.547 wb/m2
𝑎
Bg 2.547
Hg = = 4𝜋 ×10−7 = 2026838 AT/m
𝜇𝑜
ATg= Hg × ℓg = 2026838 × 1 × 10-3 = 2026.83 AT
Total AT 7120.83
Direct Current (I) = = = 3.56 A
𝑁 2000
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.An iron rod 1.8 cm diameter is bent to form a ring of mean diameter 25cm and wound
with 250 turns of wire. A gap of 1mm exists in between the end faces. Calculate the current
required to produce a flux of 0.6mWb. Take relative permeability of iron as 1200.(May-18)
Given Data:
Mean Diameter = 25 × 10−2 𝑚
𝑁 = 250
𝑙𝑔 = 1𝑚𝑚 = 1 × 10−3 𝑚
𝜑 = 0.6𝑚𝑤𝑏 = 0.6 × 10−3 𝑤𝑏
𝜇𝑟 = 1200 𝜇0 = 4𝜋 × 10−7
𝑑 = 1.8𝑐𝑚
Solution:
𝜋𝑑2 𝜋
𝑎= = (1.8)2 = 2.544𝑐𝑚2
4 4
𝑎 = 2.544 × 10−4 𝑚2
𝜑 0.6 × 10−3
Flux density = = = 2.358𝑤𝑏/𝑚2
𝑎 2.544 × 10−4
𝐵
𝐻𝑔 = = 1876436.8𝐴𝑇/𝑚
𝜇0
33
AT required for air gap = 𝐻𝑔 × 𝑙𝑔
= 1876436.8 × 1 × 10−3
𝐴𝑇𝑔 = 1876.43𝐴𝑇
𝐵 2.358
𝐻𝑖 = = = 1563.7𝐴𝑇/𝑚
𝜇0 𝜇𝑟 4𝜋 × 10−7 × 1200
𝑙𝑖 = 𝜋𝐷 = 𝜋 × 25 × 10−2 = 0.7854𝑚
AT required for iron path = 𝐻𝑖 × 𝑙𝑖 = 1563.7 × 00.7854
𝐴𝑇𝑖 = 1228.12𝐴𝑇
Total AT = 𝐴𝑇𝑔 + 𝐴𝑇𝑖 = 1876.43 + 1228.12 = 3104.55
𝐴𝑇 3104.55
Current I = = = 12.42𝐴
𝑇 250
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.An electromagnetic relay has an exciting coil of 800 turns. The coil has a cross section of
5cm×5cm.find (a) coil inductance if the air gap length is 0.5cm .(b) field energy stored for
a coil current of 1.25A(c) Permeance at air gap. (May-18)
Given:N=800,l=0.5cm I=1.25A
𝑁 2 𝑎𝜇0 𝜇𝑟 (800)2 × 25 × 10−4 × 4𝜋 × 10−7 × 1
𝐿= =
𝑙 0.5 × 10−2
= 0.401𝐻
1
𝐹𝑖𝑒𝑙𝑑 𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦 𝑠𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑒𝑑 = 𝐿𝐼 2
2
1
= (0.401) × (1.25)2
2
𝐹𝑖𝑒𝑙𝑑 𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦 𝑠𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑒𝑑 = 0.313𝐽
1 1
Permeance = = 𝑙
𝑆
𝜇0 𝜇𝑟
−7
Permeance = 6.28 × 10
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
13. A toroidal core made of mild steel has a mean diameter of 16cmand a cross-
sectional area of 3cm2.Calculate a)The MMF to produce a flux of 𝟒 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟒 𝑾𝒃 )the
corresponding values of the reluctance of the core and relative permeability.
Given: d=16cm, a=3cm2∅ = 4 × 10−4 𝑊𝑏
∅ 𝒎𝒎𝒇
Formula used: 𝐁 = 𝐀, 𝑺 = ∅
Solution:
∅ 4 × 10−4
The flux density = B = = = 1.33Wb/m2
A 3 × 10−4
Magnatic field strength:
𝐻 = 900𝐴𝑇/𝑚
−2
𝑚𝑚𝑓 = 950 × 𝜋 × 16 × 10 = 478𝐴𝑇
𝒎𝒎𝒇 𝟒𝟕𝟖
Reluctance𝑺 = = 4×10−4 = 119.5 × 10−4 𝐴𝑇/𝑊𝑏
∅
𝑺 = 𝒍/𝝁𝑨
𝜋 × 16 × 10−2
119.5 × 10−4 =
𝝁 × 3 × 10−4
34
𝜋 × 16 × 10−2
𝝁= = 𝟎. 𝟏𝟎𝟒𝟑 × 10−2
119.5 × 10−4
𝟎. 𝟏𝟎𝟒𝟑 × 10−2
𝝁𝑟 = −7
= 1116
4𝜋 × 10
35
UNIT 2
TWO MARKS
1. What is all day efficiency of Transformer?(Dec 2011) (May 2016)
In distribution transformers, the energy output is calculated in kilo watt hours (Kwh) and
energy spent in supplying the various losses is also determined in Kwh over its operation for a
day.
Output in kwh during a day
All day η= Input in kwh during aday
2. Why polarity test has to be done in a transformer?(Dec 2010)
On primary side one end is ‘+ve’ with respect to other at any instant. At the same instant,
one end of secondary winding is ‘+ve’ with respect to other. There relative polarities of primary
and secondary windings must be known for operating transformer in parallel.
4. Explain why the wattmeter in O.C. test on transformer reads core loss and that in S.C.
test reads copper loss at full load?May 2006, 2017
When secondary side open I2=0, therefore reflected current on primary side I2=0.
I1=I0. I0 is very small. When I2=0 Copper loss is zero& I1=I0.Therefore copper loss in Primary
side is low.Total Cu loss in O.C. test negligible. But input voltage is high Therefore iron losses
are at rated voltage will appear. While in S.C. test voltage is low hence no core losses are found
out.
5. Which equivalent circuit parameter can be determined from the open circuit test on a
transformer?(May 2011)
From the open circuit test the exciting branch parameters can be obtained which includes
resistance Ro indicating core loss component and no load inductance Xo indicating magnetizing
reactance.
2. Copper loss.
12. List the advantage and application of auto transformer (Dec 2012, 2013), (APR- 2015)
(or) Mention the use of Auto transformer? (May 2006)
Advantages - Refer Q. No: 7
Applications
1. for safely starting the m/c like induction motors, synchronous motors i.e as a starter
2. To give a small boost to a distribution cable to compensate for a voltage drop i.e, as a
booster.
3. as a furnace transformer to supply power to the furnace at the required supply voltage.
4. for interconnecting the system which are operating roughly at same voltage level.
5.Used in laboratories, variable voltage regulators, variable voltage rectifiers etc.
3
13. What happens if DC supply is applied to the transformer? (May 2012, Dec 2014, 2015)
If D.C. Supply is given, the current will not change due to constant supply and
transformer will not work. For D.C. supply f=0, X2=0 total impedance is very low,therefore
winding draw large current, this may cause burning of winding and heat generated and finally
permanent damage to the transformer.
14. Why all day η is lower than commercial efficiency? (May 2012)
The load on distribution transformer varies continuously during the period of day. The
primary of transformer always energized may be with or without energized may be with or
without load continuously core loss appear and Cu loss depend upon the load condition. Due to
these losses the all-day η is low than commercial η.
Advantages
E2 −V2
% regulation up= × 100
E2
4
18. How are sleding in transformer oil caused?(May 2006)
While heating if the oil is exposed to oxygen then reaction takes place due to which large
deposits of dark and heavy material are formed in the oil. This is called sleding of oil. Such
deposits can log the cooling ducts. The sleding is possible due to decomposition of oil with long
term and continuous use.
19. What is the condition for max 𝜼 in a single phase transformer?(May 2010)
The max 𝜂 ours when
Pi=I22 R2e
=Pcu
(i.e)Copper loss=Iron loss
22. Why the efficiency of Transformer is more than rotating electrical Machine?(Dec 2009)
There are no moving parts in transformer hence the friction and mechanical losses
are absent in transformer. Hence η of transformer is more than rotating m/c.
23. A 1000 KVA, 50 KV/40 KV, 1ϕ Auto transformer is fully loaded find the current in the
common section of the winding?(Dec 2009)
V2 40 4
= = =K
V1 50 5
I1
=K
I2
4
I1 = ( ) × I2
5
1000
Current in 50 KV winding= = 20A
50
I1 = 20A
20 × 5
I2 = = 25A
4
24. Draw typical equivalent circuit of Transformer?(Dec 2007)
5
25. What are the losses in the transformer? And how those losses are minimized?(Dec 2014)
1. Hysteresis loss - Hysteresis loss can be minimized by selecting materials for core
such as silicon steel & steel alloys with low hysteresis coefficient
and electrical resistivity.
2. Eddy current loss - Eddy current losses are minimized by laminating the core their
moving parts.
When a transformer is taken off-line, a certain amount of residual flux remains in the core
due to the properties of the magnetic core material. The residual flux can be as much as 50 to
90% of the maximum operating flux, depending the type of core steel. When voltage is reapplied
to the transformer the flux introduced by this source voltage builds upon that already existing in
the core. In normal steady state operation condition the exciting current of a transformer is
usually very low – less than 5% of the rated current. However at the moment when a transformer
is connected to the power system, a large inrush current will flow in the transformer during
the transient period. This current may be high as 10 – 20 times the rated current.
6
30. What are the different types of testing of transformer?
Polarity test, ratio test, Load test, Open and short circuit test and Sumpner’s test
7
PART-B
The secondary is short circuited with the help of thick copper wire. As secondary is
shorted, its resistance is very small and on rated voltage it may draw very large current. This
short circuit current can cause overheating and burning of transformer. In order to avoid burning
the primary is energized by low voltage and rated current. The current flowing through the
winding are rated current hence total copper loss is full load copper loss. The wattmeter,
Ammeter, voltmeter readings are note down
8
Wsc
cos ϕsc = V
sc Isc
Wsc
R ie =
ISC2
Vsc
Zie = , Xie = √Zie2 −R ie2
Isc
n×(VA rating)×cos ϕ
%η at any load=n×(VA rating)×cos ϕ+w 2w × 100
o +n sc
Calculation of Regulation
I R2 cos ϕII2 X2 sin ϕ
% R= 2 × 100
V2
I R1 cos ϕII1 X1 sin ϕ
=1 × 100
V1
I1,I2 are rated currents for full load regulation.
For any other load, the currents I1,I2 must be changed by fraction ‘n’.
2. Explain the principle of operation of a transformer. Derive its EMF equation. (MAY
2012, 2014,DEC-2017)
Working of Transformer
A transformer is a static piece of equipment used either for raising or lowering the
voltage of an a.c. supply with a corresponding decrease or increase incurrent. It essentially
consists of two windings, the primary and secondary, wound on a common laminated magnetic
core as shown in Fig. The winding connected to the a.c. source is called primary winding (or
primary) and the one connected to load is called secondary winding (or secondary). The
alternating voltage V1 whose magnitude is to be changed is applied to the primary.
Depending upon the number of turns of the primary (N1) and secondary(N2), an alternating e.m.f.
E2 is induced in the secondary. This induced e.m.f. E2in the secondary causes a secondary
9
current I2. Consequently, terminal voltageV2 will appear across the load. If V2 > V1, it is called a
step up-transformer. Onthe other hand, if V2< V1, it is called a step-down transformer
When an alternating voltage V1 is applied to the primary, an alternating flux f isset up in the
core. This alternating flux links both the windings and inducese.m.f.s E1 and E2 in them
according to Faraday’s laws of electromagneticinduction. The E.M.F. E1 is termed as primary
E.M.F. and E.M.F. E2 is termed assecondary e.m.f.
𝑑∅
𝐸1 = −𝑁1
𝑑𝑡
𝑑∅
𝐸2 = −𝑁2
𝑑𝑡
𝐸2 𝑁2
=
𝐸1 𝑁1
Secondary and primary respectively. If N2> N1, then E2> E1 (or V2> V1) and we get a step-up
transformer. On the other hand, if N2 < N1, then E2< E1 (or V2< V1) and we get a step-down
transformer. If load is connected across the secondary winding, the secondary e.m.f. E2 will
cause a current I2 to flow through the load. Thus, a transformer enables us to transfer a.c. power
from one circuit to another with a change in voltage level. The following points may be noted
carefully:
(i) The transformer action is based on the laws of electromagnetic induction.
(ii) There is no electrical connection between the primary and secondary.
The a.c. power is transferred from primary to secondary through magnetic flux.
(iii) There is no change in frequency i.e., O/P power has the same frequency as the input power.
(iv) The losses that occur in a transformer are:
(a) core losses—eddy current and hysteresis losses
(b) copper losses—in the resistance of the windings
In practice, these losses are very small so that output power is nearly equal to the input primary
power. In other words, a transformer has very high efficiency.
EMF Equation
When the primary is excited by an alternating voltage V, it circulates alternating
current, produced an alternating flux ϕ. The primary winding has , number of turns. The
alternating flux ϕ linking with the primary winding itself produces an e.m.f. E1. The secondary
winding itself produces an e.m.f. E2
Consider the ¼ th cycle of the flux complete cycle gets completed in 1/f seconds. In ¼ thperiod
the change in flux is fromθ to ϕm .
dϕ ϕm − 0
= = 4fϕm volts.
dt 1/4f
As ϕ is sinusoidal, the induced emf in each turn of both the windings is also sinusoidal.
R.M.S value
Form factor=Average value = 1.11
R.M.S value =form factor Average value
=1.11× 4fϕm = 4.444fϕm .
If N1 number turns in Primary
E1=N1× 4.444fϕm . volts
If N2 number turns in Secondary
E2=N2× 4.444fϕm . volts
Thus the e.m.f. equation is E = 4.444f Tϕm . volts where T – total no. of turns
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Define the voltage Regulation of two winding Transformer and explain its significance?
(Dec 2010)
Because of voltage drop across the primary and secondary impedance it is
observed that the secondary terminal voltage drops from it’s no load value (E2) to load value (V2)
as load and load current increases.
Regulation is defined as change in magnitude of the secondary terminal voltage,
when full load, i.e rated load of specified power factor supplied at rated voltage is reduced to no
load, with primary voltage maintained constant expressed as the percentage of the rated terminal
voltage,
E2-Secondary terminal voltage on no load
V2- Secondary terminal voltage on given load.
E2 −V2
% voltage regulation= × 100
V2
E2 −V2
The ratio is called per unit regulation.
V2
As load increases, the voltage drops tend to increase and V2 drops more.
In case of lagging power factor V2< E2→′ + ′ve voltage regulation, while in
leading p.f E2< V2→′ − ′ve voltage regulation
E2 −V2 Total voltage drop
% R= V2
× 100 = V2
× 100.
11
I R2e cos ϕ±I2 X2e sin ϕ
% R= 2 × 100.
V2
Zero voltage regulation:
At certain leading power factor we get E2=V2 and regulation becomes zero.
𝑉
cos 𝜙 = cos 𝜙 {tan−1 𝑉𝑅 }
∝
4. Explain the reason for tap changing in transformer? State on which winding the tapes
are provided? Why?(Dec 2010)
Tappings are needed in supply network because the voltage at consumer premises
should remain in the permissible limits as declared by the electric supply company. It is also
required to control active and reactive power with change in load, the voltage variations are to be
adjusted. Depending on the constructional availability, the tapping may be in phase and (or)
neutral point (or) in the middle of the winding.
1. If tapping are available in phase end, the number of bushing instructors are reduced.
2. When tapping available in neutral point then insulation between various parts is small
which is economical especially in high voltage transformer.
3. Tapping are placed near the Centre of the winding if large voltage variation is required
which also reduces magnetic asymmetry.
Normally tapping are provided on high voltage winding due to following reasons
i) A fine voltage regulation is possible with high voltage winding as it carries large number of
turns.
ii) The low voltage winding of the transformer carries large current. So if tappings are provided
on low voltage side then there are difficulties encountered in the interruption of high currents
which makes its impracticable.
iii) For the reason of requirement of insulation, the low voltage winding is placed near the core
while the high voltage winding is placed outside. Hence practically it is easier and simpler to
provide tapping on the high voltage winding.
iv) If tapping are provided on low voltage side then the exact voltage regulation may not be
provided.
v) In case of step down transformer, it is added advantage to provide tapping’s on H.V. side. At
light loads, the L.V side voltage increases. It is required to decrease this voltage by adjusting
the tapping on H.V. side to a position number of turns are large.
12
Transformer with tapping on h.v side
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. Explain clearly the causes for voltage drop in a power transformer on load and develop
the equivalent circuit for a single phase transformer?(Dec 2011, 2014 & May- 2014)
̅̅̅2 − 𝐼2 𝑍
SecondaryVoltage V2=𝐸 ̅̅̅2
13
Equivalent circuit means the combination of fixed and variable resistance and reactance’s, which
exactly simulates performance and working of the machine.
No load equivalent circuit
Im=Iosin 𝜙0 , Iw=Iocos 𝜙0
Im produces flux and is assumed to flow through reactance X o called no load reactance
while Ic is active component representing core losses, hence is assumed to flow through the
resistance Ro. The circuit consists of exciting circuit.
V1 V1
Ro= , Xo =
Ic Im
When load is connected to the transformer then secondary current I2 flows. This cause
voltage drop across R2 and X2. Due to I2, primary draws an additional current 𝐼21 =I2/K, now I1 is
the phasor addition of Io and 𝐼21 . This I1 causes the voltage drop across primary resistance R1
and reactance X1
R2 X2 Z2
R 2′ = , X 2′ = , Z 2′ =
K2 K2 K2
E2 N
E2′ = I2′ = KI2 Where K=N2
K 1
14
Similarly, Equivalent circuit Referred to secondary
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. Derive an expression for saving of copper when an auto transformer is used (Dec 2011,
2014, 2015
For any winding the cross section of winding is proportional to the current I. The total
length of winding is proportional to the number of turns N. Hence the weight of copper is
proportional to the product N and I
Weight of copper NI
15
WTw= Total weight of copper in two winding transformer
WAT=Weight of copper in auto transformer
In Auto transformer
wTw N1 I1 + N2 I2
=
wAT (N1 − N2 )I1 + N2 (I2 − I1 )
N1 I1 +N2 I2
=N
1 I1 −N2 I1 +N2 I2 −N2 I1
N1 I1 +N2 I2
=N
1 I1 +N2 I2 −2N2 I1
N I
K=N2 = I1
1 2
wTw N1 I1 + KN1 . I1 /K
=
wAT N I + KN (I1 ) − 2(KN )I
1 1 1 K 1 1
2N1 I1
=2N
1 I1 −2(KN1 )I1
16
2N1 I1 1
=2N =
1 I1 (1−K) 1−K
wAT = (I − k) wTw
Saving of copper is K times the total weight of copper in two winding transformer.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
17
8. Explain in details various types of 3ϕ types of transformer connections?(May 2010,
2016)
1. Star-Star connection.
Here, both primary and secondary winding are connected in star. This connection is economical
1
for small high voltage transformer as phase voltage is times that of line voltage, number of
√3
turns per phase and the quantity of Insulation required is minimum. The ratio of line voltages on
primary and secondary sides is the same as the transformation ratio of ratio of each transformer.
There is phase shift of 30° b/w the phase voltage and line voltage on both primary and secondary
side.
𝑉𝐿1 𝑉𝐿1
Vph1= Vph2=K( ) 𝑉𝐿2 = √3Vph2
√3 √3
Advantages
1
1)Phase voltage is times line voltage hence less number of turns are required. Stress on
√3
insulation is less.
2)Phase current is same as line current. Winding carry high currents. This makes cross section of
the winding is high.
Winding are mechanically strong
3)There is no phase shift between primary and secondary voltage
4)Due to neutral, 3 ϕ 4 wire system possible
Disadvantages
1) If load on secondary side is balanced then the performance of this connection is not
satisfactory then shifting of neutral point is possible
2)It produce 3rd harmonics.
2. Delta-Delta connection
In this type of connection, both the three phase primary and secondary windings are connected in
delta as shown in figure.
There is no phase shift between primary and secondary voltages.
18
VL1 = Vph1 VL1 −Line voltage on Py.side
Vph2= K Vph1=K.VL1. VL2 - Line voltage on Sy.side
Vph1-Phase voltage on Py. Side
Vph2- Phase voltage on Sy. Side
Advantages
1) No third harmonics present
2) If the load unbalanced 3 ϕ voltages are constant.
3) If one of the transformer disabled then supply can be continued with remaining two
transformers of course of reduced 𝜂.
4) There is no distortion in the secondary side.
1
5) Phase voltage equal to line voltage but phase current time of line current
√3
Disadvantage
Not suitable for 3ϕfour wire connection.
3.Star-Delta connection
In this type of connection, the primary is connected in star fashion while the secondary is
connected in delta fashion as shown below.
The delta connections on secondary side allows third harmonic current to flow which provides a
sinusoidal flux.
𝑉𝐿1 𝑉𝐿1
Vph1= ; 𝑉𝐿2 =K
√3 √3
Advantages
19
1. Primary side is star connected ∴ few number of turns required.
2. Avoid distortion due to Primary side neutral point.
3. Hence unbalanced loads canhandle safely.
Disadvantages
Secondary voltage is not in phase with the primary. Not possible to operatethis
connection parallel with star-star, Delta-Delta connected Transformer.
4. Delta-Star connection
In this type of connection, the primary is connected in delta fashion while the secondary is
connected in star fashion as shown in figure.
Advantages
1. Cross section required on primary side less.
2.3ϕ 4 wire system is possible
3.No distortion
4.Due to star connection, economical saving of cost
5.Large unbalanced load can handle.
Disadvantage
So Limitation is there.
5. Open delta (or) V-V connection
In delta – delta connected three phase transformer, if one of the transformer is unable to operate
then the supply to the load can be continued with the remaining two transformer at the cost of
reduced efficiency.
20
The connection thus obtained is called V – V connection or open delta connection. Consider the
figure in which three phase supply is connected to the primaries. At the secondary side three
equal three phase voltages will be available on no load.
∆-∆ capacity=√3 VL IL = 3VL Iph--------------- 1
V-V capacity=√3 VL IL= √3 VLIph(IL = Iph for V-V connection) --------------------2
2 √3VL Iph 1
= = = 0.557 = 58%
1 3𝑉𝐿 Iph √3
3phase load can be carried without exceeding the ratings of the transformer is 58% of original
load.
The limitation with V-V connection.
1.Average p.f at which V-V bank is operating is less than that with the load.
2.The two transformers in V-V bank operate at different p.f except for balanced UPF load
3.The terminal voltage available on the secondary side become unbalanced.
6. Scott connection (or) T - T connection
This type of connection uses two transformer as that of open delta connection. With the
help of this type of connection the conversion from three phase is possible which is shown in
figure.
T.T connected primary & secondary side one of the transformer in the connection is
called main transformer which is provided with a 50% tapping on both primary and secondary
winding. The other transformer known as teaser transformer having 0.866 tap is connected to
centre tap on main transformer on primary & secondary side. Horizontal winding is called as
main winding. Vertical winding is called as teaser winding.
21
9. 1)Draw equivalent circuit of Tr. (Dec 2009)- Ref Question No: 7
2)Explain working principle of Auto Tr.
3)Different type of 3phase connection - Ref Question No:8
Below figure shows the connections of a loaded step-down as well as step-up auto transformer.
In each case, I1 is the input current and I2 is the output or load current. Regardless of
autotransformer connection (step-up or step-down), the current in the portion of the winding that
is common to both the primary and the secondary is the difference between these currents (I1and
I2). The relative direction of the current through the common portion of the winding depends
upon the connections of the autotransformer. It is because the type of connection determines
whether input current I1 or output current I2 is larger. For step-down
autotransformer I2> I1 (as for 2-winding transformer) so that I2 - I1 current flows through the
common portion of the winding. For step-up autotransformer,I2<I1. Therefore, I1 - I2 current
flews in the common portion of the winding
22
In an ideal autotransformer, exciting current and losses are neglected. For such an
autotransformer, as K approaches 1, the value of current in the common portion (I2 - I1 or I1 - I2)
of the winding approaches zero. Therefore, for value of K near unity, the common portion of the
winding can be wound with wire of smaller cross-sectional area. For this reason, an
autotransformer requires less copper.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10. What are tap changing transformer? Explain on load tap changing transformer.(Dec
2009)
Ref Question No. 4 (Part – B)
Under the load condition, it is required to maintain the voltage on secondary side of the
transformer with the help of certain arrangement when transformer is connected to a system.
Tap changing is done by motor operated mechanism, remote control or with a help of
handle
In tap changing mechanism, selector switch is used, it should not break current,
additional separate oil filled compartment is used to mount diverter switch which breaks the load
current by interrupted are which can form carbon. It should not mixed with oil in the main tank
to decrease the dielectric strength. Make before break switch is used in transition period.
The selector switch 1 and 2 are provided on taps 1 and 2 respectively. The diverter switch
is connecting tap 1 to the neutral terminal.
Resistance R1 short circuited.
External diverter switch is moved to open the constant a.
The load current flow through resistance R1 and b.
The contact c closes those to open the resistance R1 when the moving contact of diverter
switch contains its movement to the left. Resistance R1, R2 connected across taps 1,2 now
current flow b,c
Further movement of diverter switch to left makes contact ‘b’ to open. Now current from
tap 2 to flow through R2& C.
If switch closes ‘d’, short circuit R2.Thus current flows through tap 2 and d.
23
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11. Explain parallel operation of single or three phase transformer?(Dec 2008) (May 2016)
---------------------------------------------------------------------&&&&--------------------------------------
12. Explain the constructional details and working of core type and shell type transformer
with neat sketches.(May 2013)(Dec 2013)
Parts of transformer
1. Primary winding : the winding , which is connected to supply is called primary winding
2. Secondary winding : the winding which is connected to load is called secondary winding
3. Transformer core: the two winding of the transformer are magnetically coupled through the
core. The core is made up of silicon steel to reduce the hysteresis loss. It is also made up of
limited stamping which are insulated from each other by core varnish or oxide layer to
reduce the eddy current loss. The thickness of lamination varies from 0.35 mm to 0.5 mm.
the two types of transformer cores are : A) core type b) shell type
Construction
Transformer core:
The core of the transformer is either square or rectangular in size, it is further divided into two
parts. The vertical portion on which coils are wound is called limb while the top and bottom
horizontal portion is called yoke of the core.
Core is made up of lamination. Because of laminated type of construction, eddy current losses
gets minimized. Generally high grade steel laminations are used, these lamination are insulated
from each other by using insulation like varnish.
All lamination are varnished, laminations are overlapped so that to avoid the air gap at the joints.
For this generally L shaped or I shaped lamination are used which shown
25
The cross section of the limb depend on the type of coil to be used either circular or rectangular.
The different cross section of limbs, practically used as shown
To avoid high reluctance at the joint, the alternate layers are stacked differently to
eliminate the joints. This called staggering. The butt joints are staggered in alternate layers.
The coils are wounded on the limbs and are insulated from each other. In the basic of
transformer shown, the two winding wound are shown on two different limbs i.e. primary on one
limb while secondary on other limb. But due to the leakage flux increases which affect the
transformer performance badly. Similarly it is necessary that the winding must be very close to
each other to have high mutual inductance. To achieve this, the two winding are split into
number of coils and are wound adjacent to each other on the same limb. A very common
arrangement is cylindrical concentric coils are shown
26
Such cylindrical coils are used in the core type transformer. These coils are mechanically strong,
these are wound in the helical layer. The different layers are insulated from each other by paper,
cloth or mica. The low voltage winding is placed near the core from ease of insulating it from
core. The high voltage is placed after it.
The other type of coil which is very commonly used for the shell type of transformer is sandwich
coils. Each high voltage portion lies between the two low voltage portions sandwiching the high
voltage portion. Such subdivision of winding into small portion reduces the leakage flux. Higher
the degree of sub-division, smaller in reactance .the sandwich coil is shown.
The top and bottom coils are low voltage coils. All the portions are insulated from each other by
paper
The various construction used for the single phase transformer are,
It has a single magnetic circuit. The core is rectangular having two limbs. The winding en
circles the core. The coils used are of cylindrical type. As mentioned earlier, the coils are wound
in helical layers with different layer insulated from each other by paper or mica. Both the coils
are placed on both the limbs. The low voltage coil is placed inside near the core while high
voltage coils surround the low voltage coils. Core is made up of large number of thin lamination.
As the winding are uniformly distributed over the two limb,the natural cooling is more effective.
The coils can be easily removed by removing the lamination of the top yoke, for maintenance.
27
Shell type transformer
It has a double magnetic circuit. The core has three limbs. Both the winding are placed
on the central limb. The core encircles most part of the winding. The coils used are generally
multilayer disc type or sandwich coils, as mentioned earlier, each high voltage coil is in between
two low voltage coils and low voltage coils are nearest to top and bottom of yoke.
The core is laminated. While arrange the lamination of the core, the care is taken that all
the joints at alternate layer are staggered. This is done to avoid narrow air gap at the joint, Right
through cross section of the core. Such joints are called over lapped or imbricated joints.
Generally for very high voltage transformer, the shell type construction is preferred.
This has distributed magnetic circuit. The number of independent magnetic circuits are
more than 2. Its core construction is like spokes of a wheel. Otherwise it is symmetrical to that of
shell type.
The transformer are generally kept in tightly fitted sheet metal tanks. The tanks are
constructed of specified high quality steel plate cut, formed and welded into rigid structures. All
the joints are painted with a solution of light blue chalk which turns dark in the presence of oil,
disclosing even the minutest leaks. The tanks are filled with special insulating oil. i) keeps the
coil cool by circulation and ii) provides the transformer an additional insulation .The oil should
be absolutely free from alkalies, sulphur and specially from moisture. Presence of very small
moisture lowers the dielectric strength of oil, affecting its performance badly. Hence the tanks
are sealed air tight to avoid the contact of oil with atmospheric air and moisture. In large
transformer, the chamber called breathers are provided. The breathers prevent the atmospheric
moisture to pass on to the oil .the breathers contain the silica gel crystal which immediately
absorb the atmospheric moisture. Due to long and continuous use, the sludge formed in the oil
which can contaminate the oil. Hence to keep such sludge separate from the oil in main tank, an
air tight metal drum is provided, which is placed on the top of tank. This is called conservator.
28
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Output=V2 I2Cosϕ
29
𝑉2 𝐼2 cos 𝜙2
𝜂=𝑉 𝐼 2
2 2 cos 𝜙2 +𝑃𝑖 +𝐼2 𝑅02
For maximum value of efficiency for given Cosϕ2(p.f) the denominator must have the
least value. The condition for maximum efficiency is obtained by differentiating the denominator
and equating it to zero.
𝑑
(𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑜𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑎𝑡𝑜𝑟) = 0
𝑑𝐼2
𝑑 𝑃𝑖
(𝑉2 cos 𝜙2 + + 𝐼2 𝑅02 ) = 0
𝑑𝐼2 𝐼2
𝑃𝑖
0- + 𝑅02 = 0------------------------ 2
𝐼22
Iron loss=copper loss i.e., constant loss= Variable loss
Hence efficiency of a transformer will be maximum when copper losses are equal to iron losses.
From equation 2 the load current corresponding to maximum efficiency is given by,
𝑃𝑖
𝐼2 = √
𝑅02
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
i) On no load
Assume an ideal transformer i.e. one in which there were no core losses and copper losses. But
practical conditions require that certain modifications be made in the foregoing theory. When an
actual transformer is put on load, there is iron loss in the core and copper loss in the windings
(both primary and secondary) and these losses are not entirely negligible.
Even when the transformer is on no-load, the primary input current is not wholly reactive. The
primary input current under no-load conditions has to supply (i) iron losses in the core i.e.
hysteresis loss and eddy current loss and (ii) a very small amount of copper loss in primary (there
being no Cu loss in secondary as it is open). Hence, the no-load primary input current I0 is not at
90° behind V1 but lags it by an angle ∅0< 90°. No-load input power
W0 = V1I0cos ∅0
30
Where,
Cos ɸ0 is primary power factor under no-load conditions.
As seen from Fig., primary current I0 has two components
i) One in phase with V1. This is known as active or working or iron loss component
Iwbecause it mainly supplies the iron loss plus small quantity of primary Cu loss
Iw= I0 Cos ∅0
ii) The other component is in quadrature with V1 and is known as magnetizing component
Iμ because its function is to sustain the alternating flux in the core. It is wattles
Iµ = I0 sin ∅0
i) The no-load primary current I0 is very small as compared to the full-load primary
current. It is about 1 per cent of the full-load current.
ii) Owing to the fact that the permeability of the core varies with the instantaneous value of
the exciting current, the wave of the exciting or magnetising current is not truly
sinusoidal. As such it should not be represented by a vector because only sinusoidally
varying quantities are represented by rotating vectors. But, in practice, it makes no
appreciable difference.
iii) As I0 is very small, the no-load primary Cu loss is negligibly small which means that no-
load primary input is practically equal to the iron loss in the transformer.
iv) As it is principally the core-loss which is responsible for shift in the current vector, angle
ɸ0 is known as hysteresis angle of advance.
Transformers on Load
When the secondary is loaded, the secondary current I2 is set up. The magnitude and
phase of I2 with respect to V2 is determined by the characteristics of the load. Current I2 is in
phase with V2 if load is non-inductive, it lags if load is inductive and it leads if load is capacitive.
The secondary current sets up its own m.m.f. (=N2I2) and hence its own flux Φ2 which is
in opposition to the main primary flux Φ which is due to I0. The secondary ampere-turns N2I2 are
known as demagnetising amp-turns. The opposing secondary flux Φ2 weakens the primary flux
Φ momentarily, hence primary back e.m.f. E1 tends to be reduced. For a moment V1 gains the
upper hand over E1 and hence causes more current to flow in primary.
31
Let the additional primary current be I2′. It is known as load component of primary
current. This current is anti phase with I2′. The additional primary m.m.f. N1I2 sets up its own
flux Φ2′ which is in opposition to Φ2 (but is in the same direction as Φ) and is equal to it in
magnitude. Hence, the two cancel each other out. So, we find that the magnetic effects of
secondary current I2 are immediately neutralized by the additional primary current I2′ which is
brought into existence exactly at the same instant as I2.
Hence, whatever the load conditions, the net flux passing through the core is approximately the
same as at no-load. An important deduction is that due to the constancy of core flux at all loads,
the core loss is also practically the same under all load conditions
N2I1 = N1I2
I2= N2I1/ N1
= KI2
Hence, when transformer is on load, the primary winding has two currents in it; one is I0 and the
other is I2′ which is anti-phase with I2 and K times in magnitude. The total primary current is the
vector sum of I0 and I2′.
32
The vector diagrams for a load transformer when load is non-inductive and when it is
inductive (a similar diagram could be drawn for capacitive load). Voltage transformation ratio of
unity is assumed so that primary vectors are equal to the secondary vectors. With reference to
Fig. (a), I2 is secondary current in phase with E2 (strictly speaking it should be V2). It causes
primary current I2′ which is anti-phase with it and equal to it in magnitude (K = 1). Total primary
current I1 is the vector sum of I0 and I2′ and lags behind V1 by an angle ∅1.
Fig. (b) vectors are drawn for an inductive load. Here I2 lags E2 (actually V2) by ∅2.
Current I2′ is again anti phase with I2 and equal to it in magnitude. As before, I1is the vector sum
of I2′and I0 and lags behind V1 by ∅1.
It will be observed that ɸ1 is slightly greater than φ2. But if we neglect I0 as compared to I2′ as in
Fig. (c), then ∅1 = ∅2. Moreover, under this assumption
N1I2′ = N2I1 = N1I2
It shows that under full-load conditions, the ratio of primary and secondary currents is constant.
This important relationship is made the basis of current transformer–a transformer which is used
with a low-range ammeter for measuring currents in circuits where the direct connection of the
ammeter is impracticable.
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
This test is conducted simultaneously on two identical transformers and provides data for
finding the efficiency, regulation and temperature rise. The main advantage of this test is that the
transformers are tested under full-load conditions without much expenditure of power. The
power required to conduct this test is equal to the losses of the two transformers. It may be noted
that two identical transformers are needed to carry out this test.
Circuit:
Figure shows the connections for back-to-back test on two identical transformers T1 and
T2. The primaries of the two transformers are connected in parallel across the rated voltage
33
V1while the two secondary’s are connected in phase opposition. Therefore, there will be no
circulating current in the loop formed by the secondary’s because their induced e.m.f.s are equal
and in opposition. There is an auxiliary low-voltage transformer which can be adjusted to give
avariable voltage and hence current in the secondary loop circuit. A wattmeter W1, an ammeter
A1 and voltmeter V1 are connected to the input side. A wattmeter W2 and ammeter A2 are
connected in the secondary circuit.
Operation
(i) The secondary’s of the transformers are in phase opposition. With switch S1closed and switch
S2 open (i.e., regulating transformer not in the circuit),there will be no circulating current (I2 = 0)
in the secondary loop circuit. Itis because the induced e.m.f.s in the secondary’s are equal and
inopposition. This situation is just like an open-circuit test. Therefore, the current drawn from the
supply is 2 I0 where I0 is the no-load current of each transformer. The reading of wattmeter W1
will be equal to the core losses of the two transformers.
Now switch S2 is also closed and output voltage of the regulating transformer is adjusted
till full-load current I2 flows in the secondary loop circuit. The full-load secondary current will
cause full-load current I1 (= KI2) in the primary circuit. The primary current I1 circulates in the
primary winding only and will not pass through W1. Note that full-load currents are flowing
through the primary and secondary windings. Therefore, reading of wattmeter W2 will be equal
to the full-load copper losses of the two transformers.
(a) The wattmeter W1 gives the core losses of the two transformers while wattmeter W2 gives the
full-load copper losses (or at any other load current I2) of the two transformers. Therefore, power
required to conduct this test is equal to the total losses of the two transformers.
(b) Although transformers are not supplying any load, yet full iron loss and full-load copper
losses are occurring in them.
34
(c) There are two voltage sources (supply voltage and regulating transformer) and there is no
Interference between them. The supply voltage gives only 2I0 while regulating transformer
supplies I2 and henceI1 (= K I2).
Advantages
PROBLEMS
1) A 3 step down transformer is connected to 6.6 KV mains and takes 10 amps. calculate
the secondary line voltage and line current for the i) ∆⁄∆ ii) 𝒀⁄𝒀 iii) ∆⁄𝒀iv) 𝒀⁄∆
connection the ratio of turns per phase is 12 and neglect no load losses.(May 2012)
Solution
∆−∆
Y–Y
6600
Primary phase voltage = √3
= 3810.6 V
Primary Phase current =10 A
6600 1
Secondary Line voltage =√3 ∗ ×
√3 12
= 550 v
SecondaryLine current =10 × 12 =120 A
∆−𝒀
Primary Phase voltage =6600 v
10
Primaryphase current = √3
A
1
Secondary line voltage =√3 × 6600 × 12 = 952.6 𝑉
10
Secondary line current = √3
× 12 =69.3 A
Y -
6600
Primary phase voltage = √3
= 3810.6 V
35
Primary phase current =10 A
6600 1
Secondary line voltage = × 12 = 317.5 𝑉
√3
Secondary line current =√3 × 10 × 12 = 208 𝐴
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2) Calculate the efficiency at half, full load of a 100 KVA transformer for p.f of unity and
0.8. The copper loss is 1000 w at full load and iron loss is 1000 w, KVA =1000 W(May -
2012),NOV-DEC 2015
36
450
= 40 ×√
850
=29.1 KVA
𝐾𝑉𝐴𝑎𝑡η max 𝑐𝑜𝑠∅
%η max=
𝐾𝑉𝐴𝑎𝑡η max 𝑐𝑜𝑠∅+𝑃𝑖+𝑃𝑖
29.1×103 ×0.8
=
29.1×103 ×0.8+900
= 96.26
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4) The following data where obtained on a 20 KVA , 50 hz , 2000/200 v distribution
transformer
37
Equivalent circuit referred to secondary (L.V) side is
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5) a 20 KVA , 2500/500 V , single phase transformer has the following parameter
Solution:
𝑉2
Rating = 20 KVA, V1 =2500V; V2 =500V, K=𝑉1 =0.2
6) A transformer has its maximum efficiency of 0.98 at 15 KVA , at unity p.f .during the
day it is loaded as follows ,
38
For 12 hours: 2 k.w at 0.5 p.f lag
For 6 hours:12 k.w at 0.8 p.f lag
For 6 hours: 18 k.w at 0.9 p.f lag
For 2 hours: no load efficiency Find All day efficiency?(Dec 2010)
Solution
𝜂𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 0.98 𝑎𝑡 15 𝑘𝑉𝐴 , cos ∅ = 1
At 𝜂𝑚𝑎𝑥 copper loss are equal to iorn losses
as𝑃𝑖 = 𝑃𝑐𝑢
𝐾𝑉𝐴∗cos ∅
%𝜂𝑚𝑎𝑥 = ×100
𝑘𝑣𝑎𝑐𝑜𝑠∅+2𝑃𝑖
(15∗103 ×1)
0.98 =
( 15∗103 ∗1)+2𝑃𝑖
𝑃𝑖 = 153.0612 𝑤
Energy output in a day from given load = 12 × 2 +6 ×12 +6 ×18 =204 kwh
Iron losses are constant for the entire day, so total energy spend due to Iron loss for 24 hours
is
𝑃𝑖 = 153.0612 × 24 = 3673.4688 𝑤ℎ
= (0.266)2 ∗ 153.0612
=10.8543 w
39
Energy spent=153.0612 × 6 ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠
=918.3672 wh
v) Total energy spend =Energy spent due to iron loss +energy spend due to copper loss
=6355.1004 wh
𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑝𝑢𝑡𝑓𝑜𝑟 24 ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠
All days η=
𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑝𝑢𝑡+𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑛𝑑
204000
= ×100
204000+6355.1004
% η all= 96.978
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
7) A 100 KVA,6600 v/ 330 v 50hz single phase transformer took 10 A and 436 w at 100 v
in a short circuit test , the figures referring to the high voltage side. Calculate the
voltage to be applied to the high voltage side on full load at power factor 0.8 lagging
when the secondary terminal voltage is 330 v.
Formula used: 𝑋1𝑒 =√Z1e 2 − R1e 2 , 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑝 = 𝐼1(F.L) (𝑅1𝑒 cos + 𝑋1𝑒 sin ∅ )
Solution
Rating =100 KVA, 6600V /330 V , 50 Hz ,cos =0.8, 𝑉𝑆𝐶 =100V,
𝐼𝑆𝐶 =10 A ,𝑊𝑆𝐶 =436 W onHV side
436 436
𝑅1𝑒 = = 4.36 Ω
𝐼𝑠𝑐 2 100
𝑉 100
𝑍1𝑒 = 𝐼𝑠𝑐 = 10 =10Ω
𝑠𝑐
40
𝑋1𝑒 =√Z1e 2 − R1e 2
= 8.99 Ω
𝑉𝐴 100∗103
𝐼1 (F.L) = = =15.15 A
𝑉1 6600
𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑝 = 𝐼1 (F.L) (𝑅1𝑒 cos + 𝑋1𝑒 sin ∅ )
= 15.15 (4.36 × 0.8 + 9 × 0.6)
= 134.66 𝑉
𝑇𝑜𝑚𝑎𝑖𝑛𝑉2 = 330 𝑉𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑝𝑟𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑦𝑚𝑢𝑠𝑡𝑏𝑒𝑠𝑢𝑝𝑝𝑙𝑦𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑝
V1 =6600+drop =6600+134.66
V1= 6734.66 V
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8) Obtain the equivalent circuit of a 200/400 v, 50 hz , 1-phase transformer from the
following test data :
O.C test : 200 v ,0.7 A ,70 W –on L.V side
S.C. test : 15v ,10 A ,85 W –on H.V side
Calculate the secondary voltage when delivering 5 KW at 0.8 p.f lagging, the primary
voltage being 200 V.(May 2013)
Given:
O.C test : 200 v ,0.7 A ,70 W –on L.V side
S.C. test : 15v ,10 A ,85 W –on H.V side
10 = 200×0.7×COS ∅0
COS ∅0 =0.5
∅0 =cos −1 0.5 =60
Sin ∅0 =0.8660
𝐼𝑊 =𝐼0 COS∅0
= 0.7 × 0.5 = 0.35 𝐴
Magnetizing reactance
𝑉 200
𝑋0 =𝐼 1 = = 329.92 Ω
𝜇 0.6062
=√1.52 − (0.85)2
𝑋02=1.235 Ω
𝐺𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝐾𝑊=5
5
Convert KW to KVA =0.8= 6.25 VA
𝑉𝐴 6.25×103
𝐼2 = = =15.625A
𝑣2 400
𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑎𝑟𝑦𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑙𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑛𝑔 5 Kw at 0.8 p.f
Where Cos∅2 =0.8,therefore Sin∅2 =0.6
=𝐼2 (𝑅02 Cos∅2 +𝑋02Sin∅2 )
= 15.625(0.85 ∗ 0.8 + 1.235 ∗ 0.6)
𝐷𝑟𝑜𝑝𝑎𝑐𝑟𝑜𝑠𝑠𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 = 22.2 𝑉
Secondary voltage =400-22.2=377.82V
Solution
At full load condition and upf
𝑃𝑜𝑢𝑡
ηF.L = 𝑋100
𝑃𝑜𝑢𝑡 + 𝑃𝑐𝑢 + 𝑃𝑖
500 𝑋1000
0.95=
500 𝑋 1000 + 𝑃𝑐𝑢 +𝑃𝑖
𝑃𝑐𝑢 + 𝑃𝑖 = 26315.79---------------------------------(1)
𝑛𝑃𝑜𝑢𝑡
ηF.L = 𝑋100
𝑛𝑃𝑜𝑢𝑡 + 𝑛2 𝑃𝑐𝑢 + 𝑃𝑖
0.6𝑋500𝑋1000
0.95 = 𝑋100
0.6𝑋500𝑋1000 + 0.62 𝑃𝑐𝑢 + 𝑃𝑖
0.62 𝑃𝑐𝑢 + 𝑃𝑖 = 15789.47----------------------------(2)
Solution: k =1/ 10; The given Voltage and current values are line values.
43
∆−∆
∆−𝒀
Primary Phase voltage =11000 v
10
Primary phase current = = 5.733A
√3
1
Secondary line voltage =√3 × 11000 × 8 = 2381.5 𝑉
10
Secondary line current = × 8 = 45.86 A
√3
Y -
11000
Primaryphase voltage = √3
= 6351 V
Primary phase current =10 A
11000 1
Secondary line voltage = ×8 = 793.9 𝑉
√3
Secondary line current =√3 × 10 × 8 = 138.56 𝐴
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11) A single phase transformer has 180 turns and 90 turns respectively in its secondary and
primary windings. The respective resistances are 0.233 and 0.067. Calculate the
equivalent resistance of
1. The primary in terms of the secondary winding.
2. The secondary in terms of the primary winding, and
3. The total resistance of the transformer in terms of the primary. (May 2014)
Solution
N2= 180, N0031 = 90, R2 = 0.233 Ω and R1= 0.067 Ω; K = N2/N1= 2
As secondary turns are more, secondary winding side is high voltage. Hence secondary
the resistance values are higher
1. R1’ = K2 R1 = 22 × 0.067 = 0.268 Ω
2. R2’ = R2/K2 = 0.233/22 = 0.05825 Ω ( Referred to Secondary means R2e = R2 + R1ʹ)
3. R1e = R1 + R2’ =0.067 + 0.05825 = 0.12525Ω.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12) The parameters of approximate equivalent circuit of a 4 KVA, 200/400V, 50 Hz, single
phase transformer are Rp = 0.15 Ω, Xp = 0.37 Ω, R0 = 600 Ω, Xm = 300 Ω. When a rated
44
voltage of 200V is applied to the primary, a current of 10A at lagging power factor of
0.8 flows in the secondary winding. Cal
1. The current in the primary, Ip
2. The terminal voltage at the secondary side. (May–2014, 2017 (Part – C Question)
Given: Rp = R01 = 0.15Ω ;Xp= X01 = 0.37Ω; R0 = 600 Ω; Xm = X0 = 300 Ω
Formula used: I2 R02cos∅ + I2 X02sin∅
Solution:
𝑉1 200
Iµ = 𝑋0 = = 0.666 A
300
𝑉1 200
Iw = 𝑅0 = = 0.333 𝐴
600
θ = 26.6 o
45
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
13) What is meant by inrush current in transformer? Specify the nature of inrush currents
and its problem during transformer charging.(Apr-May 2015)(6 Marks)
When transformer is first turned on, large current flows that exceed the steady-state current
value. This current is called inrush current.
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
14) Specify the condition for parallel operation of transformer. Also explain the effect of
load sharing due to impedance variation between transformer during parallel
operation.(Apr-May 2015)(6 Marks)
Effect of load sharing due to impedance variation between transformers during parallel
operation:
If the two transformers connected in parallel with similar per-unit impedances they will
mostly share the load in the ratio of their KVA ratings. Here load is mostly equal because it is
possible to have two transformers with equal per unit impedances but different X/R ratios. In this
case the line current will be less than the sum of the transformer currents and the combined
capacity will be reduced accordingly.
X/R ratio:
A difference in the ratio of the reactance value to resistance value of the per unit
impedance result in a different phase angle of the current carried by the two paralleled
transformers; one transformer will be working with a higher power factor and the other with a
lower power factor than that of the combined output. Hence the real power will not be
proportionally shared by the transformers.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
15) A 500 KVA transformer has a core loss of 2200 watts and a full load copper loss of 7500
watts. If the power factor of the load is 0.90 lagging. Calculate the full load efficiency
and the KVA Load at which maximum efficiency occurs.(Apr-May 2015)
Given data:
KVA: 500 KVA; Core Loss (Pi): 2200 watts; Copper Loss (Pc):7500 watts; P.F: 0.9 (Lag)
Find:
Solutions:
47
KVA × P. F
ηFull load =
(KVA × P. F) + Pi + Pcu
𝑐𝑜𝑟𝑒 𝐿𝑜𝑠𝑠(𝑷𝒊 )
= 𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝐾𝑉𝐴 × √
𝐶𝑜𝑝𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝐿𝑜𝑠𝑠(𝑷𝒄𝒖 )
2200
= 500 × √7500
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
16) A 100 KVA, 3300V/240V.50 Hz, single phase transformer has 990 turns on the primary.
Calculate the number of turns on secondary and the approximate value of primary and
secondary full load currents?( May-June 2015)(10 marks)
Given Data:
Solutions:
𝑉1 𝑁1
= (𝐼𝑑𝑒𝑎𝑙)
𝑉2 𝑁2
3300 990
=
240 𝑁2
𝑁2 = 72 𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑛𝑠
𝐾𝑉𝐴 100×103
I1= = = 30.3 𝐴
𝑉1 3300
𝐾𝑉𝐴 100×103
I2= = = 416.6 𝐴
𝑉1 240
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
17. Draw the equivalent circuit of a single phase 1100/220V transformer on which the
following results were obtained.
(i) 1100V, 0.5A, 55W on primary side, secondary being open circuited
(ii) 10V, 80A, 400W on LV side, high voltage side being sort circuited
48
Calculate the voltage regulation and efficiency for the above transformer when supplying
100A at 0.8 pf lagging. (May 2017)
Given:
(i)1100V, 0.5A, 55W
(ii) 10V, 80A, 400W
𝐼2 (𝐹𝐿)(R2e cos∅ + X2e sin ∅)
Formula used: Regulation (%𝑅) = ×100
𝑉2
Solution:
From short circuit test Vsc = 10V ,Isc = 80 A, Wsc = 400 w
𝑽𝒔𝒄 10 𝑾𝒔𝒄 400
Z2e = = 80 = 0.125 w R2e = = = 0.0625 Ω
𝑰𝒔𝒄 𝑰𝟐 𝒔𝒄 802
2 2 𝑛 𝑉 𝐼 𝑐𝑜𝑠ɸ
2
% efficiency = 𝑛 𝑉 𝐼 𝑐𝑜𝑠ɸ +𝑃 + 𝑛2 𝑃𝑐𝑢
× 100
2 2 2 𝑖
200×100 ×0.8
= × 100
200×100 ×0.8+55+400
Efficiency= 97.48 %
18. The EMF per turn of a single phase 6.6KV/440V, 50HZ transformer is approximately
10V.calculate the number of turns in the HV and LV windings and the net cross sectional
area of the core for a maximum flux density of 1.6T.(May-2018)
Solution:
𝑒𝑚𝑓
We know that𝐸1 = 𝑁1 ×
𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑛
6.6 × 10−3 = 𝑁1 × 10
6.6 × 10−3
𝑁1 = = 600 𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑛𝑠
10
49
𝑒𝑚𝑓
We know that𝐸2 = 𝑁2 ×
𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑛
440
= 𝑁2 = 44 𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑛𝑠
10
𝜑𝑚 = 𝐵𝑚 × 𝑎
𝐸1 = 4.44𝑓𝜑𝑚 𝑁1
𝜑𝑚 = 0.0450
𝐵𝑚 × 𝑎 = 0.0450
0.0450
𝑎= = 0.0281 𝑚2
1.6
19.A 11000/230V, 150KVA, 1-hase, 50 HZ transformer has core loss of 1.4 kw and F.L.
Copper loss of 1.6 KW. Determine (i) The KVA load for maximum efficiency and the value
of maximum efficiency at unity p.f.(ii) The efficiency at 0.8 pf leading.(May-2018)
Given: 11000/230V, 150KVA, 1-hase, 50 HZ, core loss of 1.4 kw, Copper loss of 1.6 KW
𝐼𝑟𝑜𝑛 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠 𝑥×𝑉𝐴 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔×𝑝𝑓
Formula used: 𝐹. 𝐿. 𝐾𝑉𝐴 × √𝐹.𝐿.𝐶𝑢 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠, 𝜂 = 𝑥×𝑉𝐴 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔×𝑝𝑓+𝑥 2 𝑃 × 100
𝑐
Solution:
𝐼𝑟𝑜𝑛 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠
𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝐾𝑉𝐴 𝑐𝑜𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑝𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑡𝑜 max 𝑒𝑓𝑓𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑦 𝑖𝑠 = 𝐹. 𝐿. 𝐾𝑉𝐴 × √
𝐹. 𝐿. 𝐶𝑢 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠
1.6
= 250 × √ = 160𝐾𝑉𝐴
1.4
At maximum efficiency
Cu loss = Iron Loss
∴ 𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠 = 1.4 + 1.4 = 2.8𝐾𝑊
Out put power = 160 × 1 = 160KW
160
(𝑖) ∴ 𝜂 = × 100 = 98.2%
160 + 2.8
𝑥 × 𝑉𝐴 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔 × 𝑝𝑓
(𝑖𝑖) 𝜂 = × 100
𝑥 × 𝑉𝐴 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔 × 𝑝𝑓 + 𝑥 2 𝑃𝑐
1 × 160 × 103 × 0.8
= × 100
1 × 160 × 103 × 0.8 + 1 × 1.4 × 103
128000
= × 100
128000 + 3000
128000
= × 100
131000
50
𝜂 = 97.70%
0.02
𝑅01 = 2.8 + = 4.8Ω
0.12
𝑋2
𝑋01 = 𝑋1 +
𝑘2
0.6
= 4.2 + = 64.2Ω
0.12
(𝑖)𝑅02 = 𝑟2 + 𝑟1 𝑘 2
21.A75 KVA transformer has 500 turns primary and 100 turns secondary .the primary and
secondary resistances are 0.4Ω and 0.02Ωrespectively and the corresponding leakage
reactance are 1.5Ω and 0.045Ω respectively. The supply voltage is 2200V.Calculate a)
equivalent impedance referred to the primary circuit and b) the voltage regulation and
secondary terminal voltage for full load at power factor of i) 0.8 lagging and ii) 0.8 leading.
51
Given:
𝑅1 = 0.4, 𝑅2 = 0.02
𝑋1 = 1.5, 𝑋2 = 0.045
𝑉 = 2200𝑉
Formula used:
𝑍01 = 𝑅01 + 𝑗𝑋01
= 𝐼2 (𝑅02 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛷 − 𝑋02 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛷)
Solution:
𝑁2 100
𝐾= = = 0.2
𝑁1 500
𝑅1 = 0.4, 𝑅2 = 0.02
𝑋1 = 1.5, 𝑋2 = 0.045
𝑉 = 2200𝑉
𝑅2
𝑅01 = 𝑅1 + 2
𝐾
0.02
= 0.4 + = 0.9Ω
(0.2)2
𝑋2
𝑋01 = 𝑋1 + 2
𝐾
0.045
= 1.5 + = 2.625
(0.2)2
𝑍01 = 𝑅01 + 𝑗𝑋01
𝑍01 = 0.9 + 𝑗2.625
= 2.775∠71.05°
𝑍02 = 𝐾 𝑍01 = (0.2)2 × (0.9 + 𝑗2.625)
2
= 0.036 + 𝑗0.105
= 0.036
𝑁𝑂 𝐿𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 = 𝐾𝑉1
= (0.2) × 2200
𝑉 = 440𝑉
𝐾𝑉𝐴 75
𝐼2 = = = 170.45𝐴
𝑉 440
Full load voltage drop ref to secondary
= 𝐼2 (𝑅02 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛷 − 𝑋02 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛷)
= 170.45(0.036 × 0.8 − 0.105 × 0.6)
= 170.45(0.0288 − 0.063)
= 170.45(−0.0342)
= −5.83
75
% 𝑅𝑒𝑔 = −5.83 ×
440
= −0.993
Sec terminal voltage at no load
𝐿𝑒𝑎𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑝. 𝑓 = 440 − (−5.833)
= 445.83𝑉
𝐿𝑔𝑔𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑝. 𝑓 = 440 + (−5.833)
= 434.17𝑉
52
UNIT -3
PART-A
1. In a linear system prove that field energy and co-energy are equal.[May/June-2010]
In the above figure, if the response is linear then the co-energy becomes equal to that of the
field energy.
Therefore W = Wf= ½ i(λ) = ½ i (Li)
Wf’ = Wf= ½ Li2
For a linear relation Wf’=Wf=½ L(X) i2
2. Draw the power flow diagram for motor and generator operation.[Nov/Dec-2010, 2012 & 2013]
Motor:
A B Iron andC
C Cu loss Driving Power friction loss
Motor Motor
Ele.I/PMech.O/P in Armature
Input Output
Generator: A B C
Iron and
Mech.Power
Input = output friction loss Electric
Cu loss Power Electric Power
developed in output= VI
MechI/PEle. of
O/Pdriving
armature
engine
EbIa watts
3. Write the expression for the stored energy in the magnetic field.[May/June-2010 &Nov-Dec 2012]
λ2 ɸ
∆Wf=∫λ i (λ) dλ (or) ∆Wf= ∫ɸ 2 ℱ(λ) dɸ
1 1
4. In a magnetic circuit with a small air gap, in which part the maximum energy is stored and
why?[Nov/Dec 2010]
Energy is stored in air gap. This occur due to the following.
In a magnetic material in case of iron core (or) steel core the saturation and
ageing effects from hindrance to storage.
In airgap reluctance, as well as permeability are constant, the energy storage
takes place linearly without any complexity.
5. What are the advantages of analyzing the energy conversion devices by field energy concept? Or
Write the Advantages of field energy method.[Nov/Dec-2011]
It is applicable to all the types of devices such as translator, rotational, vibratory, linear etc.
Both the steady state as well as transient behaviour of the devices can be analyzed.
The approach forms the basis of generalized theory of electrical machines.
2
The operation of all the electromechanical devices can be studied with great detail giving
more physical insight.
The various effect such as saturation, communication can be easily studied by introducing
conventional approach at any stage.
6. Draw the general block diagram of electromechanical energy conversion device.[Dec-2011& 2013]
The electrical energy is converted into mechanical energy for motor and mechanical energy is
converted to electrical energy for generator.
The electromechanical energy conversion takes palace via the medium of a magnetic or
electric field is called electromechanical energy conversion system.
9. Write the reason for magnetic field as a coupling medium rather than electric field?[May/June-
2007,2015](Nov/Dec-2013)
When compared to electric field, energy can easily stored and retrieved from a magnetic
system with reduced losses comparatively.
The energy storing capacity of the magnetic field is much higher than (about 25,600 times)
than that of the electric field.
10. Write the application of singly and doubly fed magnetic systems.[Nov/Dec-2006& May- 2013]
Co energy is an energy used for a linear system computation keeping current as constant. It
will not be applied to the non -linear systems Or When armature is held open then almost
entire mmf is required to drive the flux through air gap and hence magnetic saturation may not
occur. – The energy required for energy conversion (Elect - Mech and Mech – Elect).
The energy drawn by virtue of change in the distance moved by the rotor in electrical
machines in field configurations are known as field energy.- The conversion of
energy(Elect - Mech and Mech – Elect) is called field energy.
14. Draw the graphical relation between field energy and coenergy. [Nov/Dec-2009, 2003]
18. What are the requirements of the excitation systems?[April/May 2012],[NOV-DEC 2015]
19. Enumerate the advantages of using short pitched winding in a synchronous machine. [ Dec -
2013]
a) Harmonics are reduced in induced voltage.
b) Saving of copper
c) End connections are shorter.
20. Write the equation which relates rotor speeds in electrical and mechanical radians per
second.(MAY/JUNE 2015)
4
𝓌e = 𝓌m (P/2)
Where, 𝓌e – Speed is electrical radians per sec.
𝓌m- Speed in mechanical radians per sec.
P – No. of poles.
dWm = dWe+dWf+dWloss
24. What is current excited system? Nov/Dec 2010
This is the expression for system in which i is independent variable. This means input current
constant such a system is current excited system
25. How the direction of mechanical force or torque developed in any physical system?
April/May 2009
a) decrease the magnetic stored energy at constant λ
b) increase the stored energy and co-energy at constant i
c) decrease the reluctance
d) increase the inductance.
26. What are the three basic type of rotating electrical Machine? (May-2011, Dec 2013)
i)DC Machines
ii)Poly phase synchronous machines
iii) Poly phase Induction machines
Any further increase in flux density (B) will have no effect on the value of magnetic field strength
(H), and the point on the graph where the flux density reaches its limit is called Magnetic
Saturation also known as Saturation of the Core.
5
29. What is meant by distributed winding? Dec - 2016
If ‘x’ conductor per phase are distributed amongst the 3 slots per phase available under pole, the
winding is called distributed winding.
In synchronous machine, the rotor and flux at stator rotate in Ns speed whereas in induction machine
the stator flux alone moves at this speed.
Ns = 120f/p
32. Define the term pole pitch and coil pitch. May 2017
Pole Pitch – is the centre to centre distance between any two consecutive poles in a rotating machine,
measured in terms of slots per pole.
33. Predominant energy storage occurs in the air gap of an electromechanical energy conversion
device.is this statement correct–true (Dec-2017)
In airgap reluctance, as well as permeability are constant, the energy storage takes place linearly
without any complexity.
34. Why the relation between current and coil flux linkages of electromechanical energy conversion
devices are linear (May 2018)
When alternator is held open then almost entire MMF is required to device the flux through air gap
and hence magnetic saturation may not occur. so the relationship between current and coil flux
linkages of electromechanical energy conversion devices are linear.
35. What are the causes for irrecoverable energy loss when the flux in the magnatic circuit undergoes
a cycle (May 2018)
When a magnetic circuit undergoes a cycle 𝜑1 → 𝜑2 → 𝜑1 ,it undergoes a cycle of magnetization
and demagnetization. The hysteresis and eddy current effects are dominant under such condition.
6
Part – B
1. Explain the concept of singly-excited machines and Derive an expression for the magnetic
Energy stored in a singly excited electromagnetic relay.[ Nov/Dec-2010] [May 2016]
Discuss in detail the production of mechanical force for an attracted armature relay excited
by an electric source (Dec 2017)
Or
Consider an attracted armature relay is excited by an electric source. Explain about the
mechanical force developed and the mechanical energy output with necessary equations for
linear and nonlinear cases.(May 2018)
Self-excited machines are used to produce magnetic field. E.g: electromagnetic relay, Reluctance
Motor, Toroid coil etc.,
The attractive type armature relay is shown below,
It includes electrical input energy, mechanical stored field energy and mechanical force.
The following assumptions are made while performing the analysis of single excited magnetic
system.
The resistance of the exciting coil is assumed to be present in lumped form, outside the coil.
This coil is lossless and ideal.
The leakage flux does not take part in energy conversion process (80H) is neglected as
practically it is small.
Hence all the flux is confined to the ironcore and links all the Nturns of coil.
λ = NΦ
Where,
N - No: of turns of the coil
Φ - Total flux
Leakage inductance is negligible
There is energy loss in the magnetic core
The reluctance of the iron path is neglected.
Electrical Energy Input:
Due to the flux linkages λ, the reaction emf exists, whose direction is so as to oppose the cause
producing it.
dλ
Induced emf e=
dt
Applying KVL to the coil circuit
V=ir+e
dλ
V=ir+
dt
7
Multiplying on both sides by ‘i’, we get
dλ
Vi = i2r + i
dt
Vidt = i2rdt + idλ
Vidt – i2rdt = idλ
(V – ir)idt = idλ
eidt = idλ [since e=V-ir]
Now the input electrical energy to the lossless coil is given by,
dWe = eidt = idλ
dWe =id (Nɸ)
dWe = Ni dɸ
Where,
Ni = mmf of the coil
Thus the magnetic system extracts the electrical energy from the supply.
The entire electric energy input gets stored in the magnetic field
i.e., dWe = dWf [since dWm = 0]
The relationship i-λ is basically non-linear for a magnetic circuit, similar to the B-H
relationship.
From the Eqn-(1), the energy absorbed for a finite change in flux linkages can be obtained.
λ ɸ
∆Wf = ∫λ 2 i(λ)dλ = ∫ɸ 2 Nidɸ
1 1
λ ɸ
Wf = ∫0 i(λ) dλ = ∫0 Nidɸ
I – λ relationship is similar to the magnetization curve for a magnetic material for various
values of x.
8
Mechanical Force:
Magnetic field produces a mechanical force Ff.
Let armature move at a distance dx in positive direction (i.e. direction of force).
Therefore the mechanical work done by the magnetic field is given by,
dWm = Ffdx
As per the energy balance equation,
dWm = Electrical energy – Change in stored energy
Ff dx = idλ - dWf
------- (2)
Case 1: The independent variables are (i, x)
From (2),(3),(4),
∂λ ∂λ ∂Wf ∂Wf
Ff dx = i ∂i di + i ∂x dx - di − dx
∂i ∂x
∂λ ∂Wf ∂λ ∂Wf
Ff dx = i[∂x – ] dx + [i ∂i − ] di
∂x ∂i
There is no term of ‘di’ on left side of the equation. It should be zero on the right hand side.
∂λ ∂Wf
i ∂i − =0
∂i
Therefore 𝜕𝜆 𝜕Wf
Ff = 𝑖 𝜕𝑥 (i, x) - (i, x)
𝜕𝑥
This is the expression for the mechanical force developed by the magnetic coupling field.
𝑊𝑓1 =i𝜆-Wf
𝑊𝑓1 (i, x)= i(i,x)-Wf(i,x)
Where, (i,x) are independent variables.
𝑊𝑓1 (i, x)
Ff =
∂x
9
This is the expression for system in which ‘I’ is independent variable This means input current
constant. Such a system is called current excited system.
∂w ∂wf
Ff dx=- ∂λf dx + [i − ] dλ
∂λ
There are no terms of dλ on the left hand side of the, the corresponding term on the right hand
side must be zero.
∂wf (⅄,𝑥)
i- =0
∂λ
∂wf (λ, x)
i= ∂λ
− ∂wf (λ, x)
Ff= ∂X
This is the expression for system in which ‘λ’ is independent variable, i.e. flux producing voltage is
constant. Such a system is voltage controlled system
---------------------------------------------&&&&--------------------------------------------------
2. Explain with neat diagram and sufficient expressions, the multiply excited magnetic field
systems and derive the expression for energy and force equation. [Dec-2012, 2015 & May- 2010,
2013,2015, 2016]
Singly excited devices are generally employed for motion through a limited distance or rotation
through a prescribed angle.
Electro-mechanical transducers have the special requirement of producing an electrical signal
proportional to forces or velocities or producing force proportional to electrical signal (current
or voltage).
Such transducers require two excitations one excitation establishes a magnetic field of
specified strength while the other excitation produces the desired signal (electrical or
mechanical).
Also continuous energy conversion devices motors and generators require multiple excitation.
Figure shows a magnetic field system with two electrical excitations one on stator and the
other on rotor.
The system can be described in either of the two sets of three independent variables
(1, 2, θ) or ( i1, i2, θ).
For continuous energy conversion devices like alternators, synchronous motors etc., multiply
excited magnetic systems are used.
This system has two independent sources of excitations. One source is connected to coil on
stator while other is connected to coil on rotor.
10
Let i1 = Current due to source 1
i2 = Current due to source 2
λ1= Flux linkages due to i1
λ2= Flux linkages due to i2
θ = Angular displacement of rotor
Tf = Torque developed
Due to two sources, there are two sets of three independent variables i.e. (λ1, λ2, θ) or (i1, i2, θ).
Case 1: Independent variables λ1, λ2, θ i.e. λ1, λ2 are constants
From the earlier analysis it is known,
-∂Wf(λ1,λ2,θ)
Tf = …currents variables (1)
While the field energy is, ∂θ
λ1 λ2
Wf(λ1,λ2,θ) =∫0 𝑖1 𝑑λ1 + ∫0 𝑖2 𝑑λ2 ------------------------- (2)
Solve (3) and (4) to express i1 and i2interms of λ1 and λ2 as λ1 and λ2 are independent variables.
Multiply (3) by L12 and (4) L11,
L12 λ1 = L11L12 i1 + L122 i2
and L11 λ2 = L11L12 i1 + L11 L22 i2
Subtracting these two equations we get,
L12 λ1 - L11 λ2 = [L122-L1lL22] i2
i2 = [L12 / L122 – L11L22] λ1 - [L11 / L122 – L11L22] λ2
… (5)
i2 = β12λ1 + β22λ2
- L12
β21 =
L11 L22 – L122
Using in equation (2),
λ1 λ2
Wf (λ1,λ2,θ) = ∫ [β11λ1 + β12 λ2] dλ1 + ∫ [β12λ1 + β22 λ2] dλ2
0 0
Integrating the terms we get,
0 0
i1 i2
W’f(i1, i2, θ) = ∫ [L11i1 + L12 i2] di1 + ∫ [L12i1 + L12 i2] di2
0 0
12
∂ 1 1
F= [ L11 i12 + L12 i1 i2 + L22 i22 ]
∂θ 2 2
The armature winding used for three phase alternators is distributed in nature.
The efforts are made to place the coils in all the slots available per pole per phase. Such coils
are then interconnected such that the magnetic field produced by armature after carrying
current has same number of poles as that of the field winding.
let us obtain the mmf space distribution of the current carrying armature by superimposing
the mmf space waves of individual coils.
Consider single multi turn coil, carrying N turns and is a full pitch coil. it carries a current i
such that the total ampere turns produced by the coins(Ni).
The direction of current i and hence direction of flux lines around a anda’can be obtained by
using right hand thumb rule.
The stator is wound for two poles same as the number of poles for which field winding is
wound.
Due to the flux lines produced by the coil, the north and south poles are induced on the stator
periphery. The magnetic axis of the stator coil is form N pole to S pole.
13
MMF which changes at any slot=Ni
The direction depends on the current direction .The rectangular mmf space can be resolved
into its Fourier series which includes its fundamental component and a series of odd
harmonics. The fundamental component of mmf wave is given by,
Fa1=(4/π)Ni/2 cosθ=F1Pcosθ
Where
θ=electrical angle measured from stator magnetic axis
The distributed winding for phase a, occupying all 5 slots per Pole per phase
Let Nc=turns in a coil=conductor\layer
Ic =conductor current
Total slot mmf=2 ×(mmf/layers)
=2Ncic
As the number of slots are odd, half of ampere conductors of middle slot of a and a’
constitute s-pole and remaining half contribute N pole. The m.m.f wave has shown a step
jump at the slot equal to 2NiIc.The developed diagram of the stator and m.m.f wave.
Total ampere-conductors produced by conductors of group ‘a’ are corresponding to 5 slots,
each slot producing 2Ncic.Hence total ampere-conductors are 10Ncic.
Half of it are used to set the flux from rotor to stator and half for setting flux from stator to
rotor. So +5Ncic used to set flux form rotor to stator while -5Ncic used to set flux from stator
to rotor.
14
But these 5Ncic ampere-conductors are also available in step form at the respective slots to
obtain peak of the fundamental component of mmf wave, assume that the winding is
concentrated.
Let
Tph=series turns per parallel path of a phase
A=Number of parallel paths
AT/parallel path=Tph(series)×ic
AT\phase=A[Tph(series)×ic]
A×ic=ia=Total phase current
AT\Phase=Tph(series)×ia
AT/Pole/Phase=Tph(series)×ia/P
4 𝑇𝑝ℎ
Fa1 = F1pcosθ= 𝐾𝑑 𝑖𝑎 cosθ
𝜋 𝑝
\
--------------------------------------------&&&&-------------------------------------------------------------
4. Prove that a three phase set of currents, each of equal magnitude designed and differing in
space by 120o applied to a three phase winding spaced 120o electrical degrees apart around the
surface of the machine will produce a rotating magnetic field of constant magnitude. (Nov/Dec-
2010, 2016)
By practices as well as by research works it has been observed that the magnitude field
produced when a balanced three phase supply with 120o electrical phase angle separation is given to
a balance 3𝜙
Winding the phases distributed in space so that relative space difference is 2𝜋/3 (real-elect) causes a
resultant mmf to rotate in the air gap between stator and rotor at a synchronous speed of
120𝑓
Ns= (𝑟𝑝𝑚)
𝑝
But to justify this concept analytically is very important from both design and analysis points
of views.
Supply allows the following balanced currents to flow through the windings as
𝑖𝑎 = 𝐼𝑚 cos 𝑤𝑡 : 𝑖𝑏 = 𝐼𝑚 cos(𝑤𝑡 − 120) : 𝑖𝑐 = 𝐼𝑚 cos(𝑤𝑡 − 240)
15
By the principle of nutral inductance three currents develop a magnetic field which are also
separated by 120o with respect to the magnetic axes.
These develop mmf’s that can be expressed as follows,
𝐹𝑎 = 𝐹𝑚 cos 𝑤𝑡 cos 𝜃
𝐹𝑏 = 𝐹𝑚 cos(𝑤𝑡 − 120) cos(𝜃 − 120)
𝐹𝑐 = 𝐹𝑚 cos(𝑤𝑡 − 240) cos(𝜃 − 240)
Where 𝜃 is the angle from the reference axis or that the axis of phase ‘a’ shown in figure.
The resulting mmf is given by
F=𝐹𝑎 + 𝐹𝑏 + 𝐹𝑐
F(𝜃, 𝑡) =𝐹𝑚 cos 𝑤𝑡 + cos 𝜃 + 𝐹𝑚 cos(𝑤𝑡 − 120) cos(𝜃 − 120) + 𝐹𝑚 cos(𝑤𝑡 − 240) cos(𝜃 − 240)
By trigonometric relations,
3 1
F(𝜃, 𝑡) =2 𝐹𝑚 cos(𝜃 − 𝑤𝑡) + 2 𝐹𝑚 cos(𝜃 + 𝑤𝑡) + cos(𝜃 + 𝑤𝑡 − 240) + cos(𝜃 + 𝑤𝑡 − 480)-----(A)
Algebraic sum of three vectors with a progressive phase difference of 120o equals to zero
3
F(𝜃, 𝑡) = 𝐹 cos(𝜃 − 𝑤𝑡)----------------------(B)
2 𝑚
The equation (B) gives a quality which is distributed both in space and time. It is standard
form representation of traveling wave where phase angle changes linearly with time as α wt.
Hence the resultant mmf represented by equation (B) rotates at a constant speed of w red/sec.
16
In a.c. machines both stator and rotor carry currents and produce their own magnetic fields.
These fields are shown in the Fig.
1.The machine is round rotor machine having cylindrical rotor. Thus air gap is uniform.
2.The m.m.f. waves produced by stator and rotor are sinusoidal. This is practically achieved using
distributed winding.
3.The tangential component of the magnetic field in the air gap is negligible compared to the radial
component. The mutual flux goes straight across the gap. The radial length ‘g’ of the gap is very
small compared to the radius of stator and rotor. Hence flux density does not vary along the radial
path of airgap.
Hence the field intensity H along the air gap is constant. The m.m.f. across the air gap is,
4.Most of the flux produced by stator and rotor windings crosses the air gap and links with both the
windings. This entire flux is mutual flux. The flux linking with the respective windings is leakage
fluxbut this does not affect the torque and only affects the voltages. Mutual flux is important
from torque point of view.
5.The reluctance of the iron path is negligibly small.
6.The sinusoidal m.m.f. space wave produces sinusoidal flux density (B) wave in phase with it.
17
To find the resultant of F1 and F2, these can be represented in the phasor form as shown in
the fig. The angle between 𝐹̅1 and 𝐹̅𝑟 is 𝛾 while the angle between 𝐹̅̅̅2 and 𝐹̅𝑟 is 𝛿
The entire resultant m.m.f. is required to cross the flux across the air gap as reluctance of iron
path is neglected.
∴ 𝐹air gap = 𝐹𝑟 = 𝐻𝑟 𝑔
The co-energy density of the co-energy stored in the air gap at a point is given by (1/2)𝜇0 𝐻 2 .
The average value of co-energy density over the volume of air gap is 𝜇0 /2 times the average
value of 𝐻 2 .
1
Average value of co-energy density=2 𝜇0 (𝐴𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒𝑜𝑓𝐻 2 -----------------4
𝑃 𝜇0 𝜋𝐷𝑙
𝑇 = −2 𝐹1 𝐹2 sin 𝛼 ------------------------------ 11
2𝑔
The negative sign indicates that the torque acts in the direction so as to reduce 𝛼i.e. so as to
align the two fields. Thus equal and opposite torques are excited on the stator and rotor.
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. The doubly excited coil has self inductances of (2+cos2𝛉) and the mutual inductances be cos𝛉
where 𝛉 is the angle between arcs of the coils. The coils are connected in series and carry a
current of i=√𝟐𝐈𝐬𝐢𝐧𝛚𝐭. Derive an expression for the average torque as function of angle ‘q’.
Soln:
L11 = L22 = 2 + cos2θ: L12 = Cosθ :i=√2 Isinωt
The co-energy can be expressed as,
1 1
w′f = L11 i21 + L12 i1 i2 + L22 i22
2 2
1
=2 2 + cos2θ 1 + cosθi1 i2 + 12 (2 + cos2θ)i22
( )i 2
i = i2 = i
w ′ f = [(2 + cos2θ) + cosθ]i2 [ 1 ]
series ckt
∂w′ f ∂
Torque Tf= =∂θ [(2 + cos2θ) + cosθ](√2Isinωt)2
∂θ
2 2 ∂ ∂
=2I sin ωt [∂θ cos2θ + ∂θ cosθ]
sin 2θ
=2I2 sin2 ωt [− − sin θ]
2
Tf=-I2 sin2 ωt[sin 2θ + 2 sin θ]
∴ The average of the torque development is
T
1
Tav = ∫ Tf dt
T
0
1 2 T
=- I (sin 2θ + 2 sin θ) ∫0 sin2 ωt dt
T
1 2 T 1−cos 2ωt
=-T I (sin 2θ + 2 sin θ) [∫0 dt]
2
1 sin2 ωt
=-T I2 (sin 2θ + 2 sin θ)1/2 [t − ]
2
I2 1
Tav = − [sin 2θ + 2 sin θ] [T]
2 T
2
I
∴ Tav = − [sin 2θ + 2 sin θ]
2
----------------------------------------&--------------------&--------------------------------------------
19
𝟏 𝟏
7. Two coupled coils have self and mutual inductances of 𝐋𝟏𝟏 = 𝟐 + 𝟐𝐱;𝐋𝟐𝟐 = 𝟏 + 𝟐𝐱 ; 𝐋𝟏𝟐 =
𝟏
𝐋𝟐𝟏 = .Over certain range of linear displacement X the first coil is excited by a constant current of
𝟐𝐱
20A and the second by a constant current of -10A. Find
Hence verify that energy supplied by the sources is equal to increase in field energy plus the
mechanical. [Apr/May-2010.Nov/Dec-2012]
Soln:
1 1 1
L11 = 2 + 2x;L22 = 1 + 2x ; L12 = L21 =2x
i1 = 20A , i2 = −10A
x
1. Mechanical workdone:∫x 2 Ff dx
1
dωf
Ff =
dx
1 1
𝛚𝐟 (i1 , i2 , x) = L11 i12 + L12 i1 i2 + L22 i22
2 2
1 1 1 1 1
=2 (2 + 2x) (20)2 + 2x (20)(−10) + 2 (1 + 2x) (−10)2
4x+1 100 2x+1
= (400)- + 50 ( )
4x x 2x
25
ωf = 450 +
x
25
dωf d(450 + x ) 25
Ff = = =−
dx dx x2
1
Mechanical work done (∆wm)=∫0.5 Ff dx
1 25 25 25 25
=∫0.5 − x2 dx = x
= [+ 1
+ (− 0.5)] = −25J
∆𝐰𝐦=-25J
ii. Energy supplied by source 1
λ (x2 =1)
(we1 ) = ∫λ 2 i1 dλ1
1(x1 =0.5)
λ1 = L11 i1 + L12 i2
1 1
=(2 + 2x) (20) + 2x (−10)
5 5
λ1 = 40 + x λ1 = 40 + x
1 1
we1 = ∫0.5 d λ1 (20) = [[i1 λ1 ]]0.5 at x=1
=20[λ2 at x2 − λ1 at x1 ] λ1 = 40 + 5 = 45
=20[45 − 50]we1 = −100J at X=0.5
5
𝐰𝐞𝟏 = −𝟏𝟎𝟎𝐉 λ1 = 40 +
0.5
=40+10=50
20
λ2 at x2
λ2 atx2 ⇨x=1
we2 = ∫ i2 dλ2 = [[i2 λ2 ]]λ
1 at x1 ⇨x=0.5
λ1 at x1
=450+25
1
−(450+50)
Ans:
i) Mechanicalwork done (∆wn) =-25J
ii)Energy supplied by source 1 (we1 ) =-100J
Energy supplied by source 2 (we2 ) =50J
iii) Change in field energy ∆wf =-25J
iv) we1 +we2 =∆wf + ∆wn
-100+50=-25+(-25)
-50J=-50J
Hence =∆wf + ∆wn=∆we verified
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8. Discuss the flow of energy in electromechanical device in detail. [April - 2010] (May 2017)
Electrical mechanical energy conversion is a reversible process. If the armature is allowed to moved on
positive x direction under the influence of Ff
Electrical energy is converted to mechanical from via the coupling field.
If instead the armature is moved in the negative x direction under the influence of external force,
mechanical energy is converted to electrical from the coupling field.
This conversion process is not restricted to translating devices as illustrated but is equally applicable to
rotary devices.
21
Electrical and mechanical losses causes irreversible flow of energy out of a practical conversion device.
The flow of energy in electromechanical conversion in either direction along with irrecoverable energy
losses is shown in figure.
Motor
Generator
-------------------------------------&&&&&------------------------------------------
9. Derive an expression for mechanical force terms of field energy.(Apr-May 2015), Dec - 2016
To realize the electro-mechanical energy conversion via electric field, we consider a model
analogues to a condenser.
The condenser model is shown in figure is considered to possess two parallel plates one of
which is fixed and other is a movable one.
The model is fed from a constant current source. The leakage current of the condenser is
visualized as a conductance from exterior portion of the circuit.
The movable plate is capable of moving in the horizontal direction as indicate by the variable
Xo.
For a given displacement ‘x’ the movable plate is considered to be fixed, a charging current
‘I’ flows into the condenser building a voltage ‘V’ between the fixed &movable plate.
22
Hence some electrical energy is expected to be fed into the system resulting in a rise in
potential.
This is expressed as,
dEe=dWe× time
dq
dWe=V dt × time.
Now the voltage ‘V’ is constant while the charge increases from o to q hence,
q
Wf = ∫o Vdq
q
C=v = capacitance
qq 1 q2
Wf = ∫0 c dq = 2 c
1
∴ Wf = vq
2
The capacitance of the parallel plate capacitor with a distance of (Xo-X) b/w the plates is given by
A
C=εo (X when A-Cross-sectional area of plate in m2
0 −X)
εo -permittivity of free space=8.8524×10-12 F/M
Thus Wf is function of two independent variables q and x.
1 q2
Wf (q,x)=2 c(x)
From this eqn electric field energy can be changed
i) Electrically by changing the charge’q’.
ii)Mechanically by changing the distance ‘X’ with moving plate
Wf (v,x)=1/2 c(X) V2=1/2 vq
1 D2
=2 ε
o
1
=2 εo E 2
Where,
D=εo E =Electric flux density in c/ m2
E=Electric field intensity or potential gradient in v/m.
Mechanical energy output=Electrical energy i/p – Increase or change in field energy
∴ Ff dx = Vdq − dWf
-------------------------------------&-------------------------------&--------------------------
10. The relay shown in fig. is made from infinitely permeable magnetic material with a
movable plunger also of infinitely permeable material. The height of the plunger is much
23
greater than the air gap length (h>g).cal. the magnetic energy stored as a function of plunger
position (oxx) for N=1000 turns. G=2.0mm, d=0.5m, l=0.1m and I=10A. [Nov/Dec-2010]
Given: N=1000 turns. G=2.0mm, d=0.5m, l=0.1m and I=10A
Formula used:
1
Wfrd = L(x)i2
2
μ0 N2 Agap
L(x) =
2g
Solution:
1
Wfrd = L(x)i2
2
μ0 N2 Agap
L(x) =
2g
Agap=l (d-x)
=ld (1-x/d)
μ0 N2 ld(1−x/d)
L(x)= 2g
2 x
1 μ0 N ld(1−d) 2
Wfrd = (i )
2 2g
1
×10002 ×4π×10−7 ×0.1×0.5×102 x
=2 (l − d)
2×(0.002)
0.0314 x
Wfrd = = 7.85(1 − )
2 × 0.002 d
x
∴ Wfrd = 7.85(1 − )
d
----------------------------------------------&---------------------------------------&---------------------
11. Two windings one mounted on the stator and the other mounted on a rotor have self and
mutual inductances of L11=4.5H,L12=2.5h and L12=2.8𝐜𝐨𝐬 𝛉H, where ‘’ is the angle
b/w the axes of the windings. The resistances of the windings may be neglected. Winding
2 is short circuited and the current in winding 1 as a function of time is i=10𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝐰𝐭 𝐀.
Derive an expression for the numerical value of the instantaneous torque on the rotor in
N.m in terms of the angle . [Nov/Dec-2010, 2015]
24
Given: L11=4.5H,L12=2.5h and L12=2.8cos θ, i=10sin wt
∂w′f i2 dL11 (θ) dL22 (θ) dL12 (θ)
Formula used: Tf = ;=1 + i22 + i1 , i2
∂θ 2 dθ dθ dθ
Soln:
∂w′f
Tf =
∂θ
i21 dL11 (θ) dL22 (θ) dL12 (θ)
= + i22 + i1 , i2
2 dθ dθ dθ
102 d(4.5) 2 d(25) dL12 (θ)
= 2 dt
+ 10 dt
+i1 , i2 dθ
10×10
=0+0+ (-2.8sin θ)
2
100
= 2
(−2.8sin θ)
Tf = −140 sin θ N. m
----------------------------------------&--------------------------&------------------------
12.The magnetic flux density on the surface of an iron face is 1.6T which is a typical saturation
level value for ferromagnetic material. Find the force density on the iron face. (May/June-
2011)
Soln:
Let the area of iron face=A in m2
Consider the field energy in the volume contained b/w two forces with normal distance ‘X’
1 β2 Ax 1
Wf (B, x) = 2 Wf = 2 sϕ2 (ϕ, x)
μ0
Mechanical force due to
W (B,x)
The field is Ff=−d fdx =
1 x
= ( ) . B2 A2
2 μ0 A
1 β2 Ax
=− 2 μ0
(- ive sign indicates that the force acts in a direction so as to reduce X.)
1 β2
∴ Force/unit area=|Ff | = 2 μ
0
1 (1.6)2
=2 4π×10−7
2.037
|Ff | =× 106 N/m2
2
|Ff | = 1.0186 × 106 N/m2
−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−
13. The doubly-excited magnetic field has coil self-and mutual- inductances of L11=L22=2H and
L12=L21= Cos2, Where is the angle between the axes of the coils.
i) The coils are connected in parallel to a voltage source V=VmSinwt. Derive an expression for
the instantaneous torque as a function of the angular position . Find the time-average torque.
Evaluate for =30o,𝐕=100sin314t.
ii) If coli 2 is shorted while coil 1 carries a current i1=ImSinwt,derive expression for the
instantaneous and time-average torques. Compute =45o and i1=√𝟐 𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝟑𝟏𝟒𝐭.[Nov/Dec-2013]
Given: L11=L22=2H and L12=L21= Cos2, V=VmSinwt
25
Soln:
1 1
w ′ f(i1 , i2 , θ) = L11 i21 + L12 i1 i2 + L22 i22
2 2
1 1
=2 (2i12 ) + Cosθ i1 i2 + 2 (2i22 )
di1 di2
e1 = 2 + cos 2θ
dt dt
di1 di2
e2 = cos 2θ +2
dt dt
di1 di2
0=cos 2θ +2 [coil 2 shorted e2 = 0V]
dt dt
di2 1 di1
= − 2 cos 2θ .
dt dt
Integrating on both sides
1
i2 = − cos 2θ i1 [but i1 = Im sin wt]
2
1
i2 = − Im cos 2θ sin wt.
2
Sub i1 & i2 values in Tfequ. We get,
1
Tf=− sin 2θ ( Im sin wt)( − 2 Im cos 2θ sin wt)
Tf=Im2sin 2θ cos 2θ sin2 wt [Instantaneous torque]
1 1 T
∴ T(av) = 2 Im2sin 2θ cos 2θ [T ∫0 sin2 wt dt = 1/2]
di1 di2
2 + cos 2θ =100 sin 314 V
dt dt
di1 di2
cos 2θ +2 =100 sin 314 V
dt dt
di1 di2
2 + cos 2θ =100 sin 314 t--------------------- 1
dt dt
26
di1 di2
cos 2θ +2 =100 sin 314 t--------------------- 2
dt dt
Solving the equation 1 & 2
di1
= 28.35 sin314t
dt
di2
= 50sin314t
dt
Integrating on both sides we get
i1 = −0.09 cos 314t
i2 = −0.159 cos314t
Subi1 &i2 value in Tfeqn,
Tf=− sin 2θ(−0.09 cos314t)(−0.159 cos314t)
= - 0.02862 sin2 cos2 314t
= - 0.02862 (0.866) cos2 314t (=30o sin2=60o=0.866)
Tf= - 0.02475 cos2 314t
1 T
Tf(av)= - 0.02475 (1/2) ButT ∫o cos 2 314t =1/2
∴ Tf (av) = −0.0124Nm
------------------------------------------&-------------------------------------&----------------------------------
14.The electromagnetic relay shown in figure. Coil is excited by an excitation i, V=√𝟐 V sin wt.
If the iron parts of the coil has a constant reluctance and the armature is held at a distance of
‘X’ meters from the coil then derive an expression for the force on the armature.(May 2018)
Soln:
∂Wf (ϕ,x)
The mechanical force Ff=−
dx
1 ∂(x)
=− 2 ϕ 2 ∂x
∂(x)
From equation1 =0+b=b
∂x
1
Ff=− 2 ϕ2 b
di
V=iR + Ldt (from diagram)
V=I R+ji×L
|V|
the rms value of ‘I’ can be |I| = √R2
+w2 L2
wL
∠I= tan−1 ( R )
The instantaneous value of current can be expressed
wL
i=√R2√2V
+w2 L2
sin ((wt − tan−1 ( R ))
27
Nϕ N Ni N2
self inductanceL= = i. =
i s s
N2
l=
s
Ni N√2V wL
ϕ= s = √R2+w2L2 sin ((wt − tan−1 ( R ))
N√2V w N2
ϕ=√R2+w2L2 sin ((wt − tan−1 ( R . s ))
N√2V N2
= sin ((wt − tan−1 (w. RS))
2 2
√R2 S2 +S2 w2 (N )
S
N√2V wN2
Φ=√R2S2+w2N4 sin ((wt − tan−1 ( RS ))
1
∴ Ff = − 2 ϕ2 b
2
1 2 N√2V −1 wN
2
=− ϕ b[√R2S2+w2N4 sin [wt − tan ( RS )]]
2
1
− b2N2 V2 wN2
= 2
sin2 (wt − tan−1 ( ))
R2 S2 +w2 N4 RS
1 T
Time average force isFf(av) =T ∫o Ff(t) dt
2
1−cos 2[wt−tan −1 (wN )]
1 T N2 V2 b RS
= − T ∫o R2 S2 +w2 N4 [ 2
] dt
wN2
T
1 N2 V2 b sin2(wt−tan−1 ( )
RS
=− T R2S2+w2N4 [t − 2
]
o
wN2
T
N2 V2 b 1 sin2(wt−tan−1 ( )
RS
=− 2(R2S2+w2N4).T [t − 2
]
o
1 bN2 V 2 wT = 2π
∴ Tf (av) = − . 2 2 [ ]
2 R S +w N 2 4 T = 2π/w
T
wN2
1 sin2(wt−tan−1 ( )
RS
= [− ] λ=0
T 2
o
----------------------------&-------------------------------&--------------------
15. Find an expression for the force per unit area between the plates of a parallel plate
condenser in terms of the electric field intensity. Use both the energy and co-energy methods.
Find the value of the force per unit area when E=3×106V/m,the breakdown strength of air.
[May/June-2013]
28
1 q2 1 q2 (x0 − x)
wf (q, x) = =
2 ε 2 Aεo
− ∂wf (q, x) 1 ε2
Ff = =
∂x 2 Aεo
Q=DA=εo EA
1 F 1
Ff = 2 εo E 2 Aor Af = 2 εo E 2
1
=2 × (3 × 106 )2 × 8.85 × 10−12
=39.8 N/m2
∴The co energy is
Aεo
w ′ f (V, x) = 1/2 CV 2 = 1/2V 2 (x
0 −x)
′
∂w f (V, x) Aεo
Ff = = 1/2V 2
∂x (x0 − x)2
But V=E(x0 − x)
1 F 1
Ff = 2 εo E 2 Aor Af = 2 εo E 2
----------------------------------------------------&----------------------------------&-----------------------------
16. The doubly-excited magnetic field has coil self-and mutual- inductances of L11=L22=2H
andL12=L21= Cos, Where is the angle between the axes of the coils.
i) The coils are connected in parallel to a voltage source V=Vmsinwt. Derive an expression for
the instantaneous torque as a function of the angular position . Find the time-average torque.
Evaluate for =30o, 𝑽=100sin314t. [Nov/Dec-2013]
∂w ′ f (i1 , i2 , 0)
Tf =
∂θ
1 1
w ′ f(i1 , i2 , θ) = L11 i21 + L12 i1 i2 + L22 i22
2 2
1 1
= 2 i21 + cos θ i1 i2 + 2 i22
2 2
di1 di2
Vm sin wt = 2 + cos θ ----------------------------------------------------- 1
dt dt
di1 di2
Vm sin wt = cos θ dt
+2 dt
---------------------------------------------2
Solving 1& 2
29
di1 di2 Vm cos wt
= =
dt dt (2 + cos θ)
Integrating
Vm sin wt
i1 = i2 =
ω(2 + cos θ)
Sub Tf
2
Vm sin θ
Tf = − sin2 wt
(2 + cos θ)2 ω2
V2m sin θ
Tf (av)=− (2+cos θ)2 ω2
Given=30o,V=100sin314t
=−0.003086 Nm
---------------------------------------&----------------------------&------------------------------
17.Derive an expression for co-energy density of an electromechanical energy conversion
derive. (Nov/Dec-2013)
Consider that the armature is held fixed at position ‘x’.
As armature is not moving, the mechanical work done is zero.
According to energy balance equation,
Input from supply = Mechanical output + Stored energy + loss
The entire electric energy input gets stored in the magnetic field
i.e., dWe = dWf [since dWm = 0]
The relationship i-λ is basically non-linear for a magnetic circuit, similar to the B-H
relationship.
From the Eqn-(1), the energy absorbed for a finite change in flux linkages can be obtained.
λ ɸ
∆Wf = ∫λ 2 i(λ)dλ = ∫ɸ 2 f(ϕ)dɸ
1 1
Where i(λ) is a function of λ and f(ϕ) is a function of ϕ
If the initial flux and flux linkages are zero,
i.e. ϕ1= λ1 = 0, then the energy stored in the magnetic field to establish the flux ϕ is given by,
λ ɸ
Wf= ∫0 iλ dλ = ∫0 f(ϕ)dɸ
This is the energy stored in the magnetic field when the flux ϕ is established in it.
In our analysis it is assumed that these losses are separated out and supplied by the
electric source used. Hence the coil is ideal lossless coil. Such a magnetic system is called
conversation system.
i – λ relationship: The i – λ is similar to the magnetization curve for a magnetic material for
various values of x, the relationship is shown in the fig
Practically λ may vary according to I or I may vary according to λ. So mathematically
this relationship is expressed as,
30
i=i(λ,x) λ=Independent variable
λ =λ(i,x) i=Independent variable
Depending upon the independent variable the stored field energy is also the function
of i,x or λ,x.
Wf=Wf(λ,x) or Wf(i,x)
Concept of co-energy: When armature is held open then almost entire m.m.f. is required to derive
the flux through air gap and magnetic saturation may not occur.
So i,x or F-ϕ relationship is linear in nature as shown in the Fig
As per the equation
λ
Wf=∫0 i(λ)dλ = Area OABO = Field energy
λ
While Area OACO=∫0 λdi
This area OACO is complementary area of the i-𝜆 rectangle and is defined as co-energy
denoted as 𝑤𝑓′ .
λ
𝑤𝑓′ = ∫0 λdi = Area OACO=co-energy
For linear relationship between i and λ without magnetic saturation,
Area OABO=Area OACO
i.eWf= 𝑤𝑓′
∴ eWf+ 𝑤𝑓′ = Area OABO = Area OACO = iλ
1 1 1
Wf=2 iλ = 2 Fϕ = 2 𝑆𝜙 2
𝐹
Where S=𝜙 =Reluctance of magnetic circuit
The self inductance L of the coil is defined as magnetic flux linkages per ampere.
λ
∴𝐿=
𝑖
1 𝜆2 1
∴Wf= 2 = 2 Li2 joules
𝐿
The co-energy can be expressed for linear case as,
1 1 1
𝑤𝑓′ = iλ = Fϕ = = 𝑃𝐹 2 joules
2 2 2
𝜙
Where p= 𝐹 =Permeance of magnetic circuit
31
From equation it can be observed that field energy Wf is function of two independent
variables 𝜆 and x.
1 𝜆2
Wf(λ, x) =2 𝐿(𝑋)
where L(x)=inductance as a function of x
From equation it can be observed that co-energy 𝑤𝑓′ is function of two independent variables
I and x.
1
∴ 𝑤𝑓′ = 𝐿(𝑋)𝑖 2
2
The equations and are general expressions for energy and co-energy.
Magnetic stored energy density: The magnetic energy density is the magnetic stored energy
per unit volume. It is denoted as Wf
𝑊𝑓 𝑊𝑓
∴ 𝑊𝑓 = =
𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 (𝐿𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑖𝑟𝑐𝑢𝑖𝑡)(𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑛𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑜 𝑓𝑙𝑢𝑥)
𝑊 1 iλ 1 fϕ
= 𝐼𝐴𝑓 = 2 𝐼𝐴 = 2 𝐼𝐴
1𝐹ϕ
∴ 𝑊𝑓 = 2 𝐼 𝐴
𝑓
Now =Magnetic field intensity =H in AT/m
𝐼
ϕ
While =Magnetic flux density =B in Wb/m2 or tesla
𝐴
1
𝑊𝑓 = 2 𝐵𝐻 𝐽/𝑚3 Stored field energy density
For a magnetic circuit, B=𝜇𝐻
Where 𝜇 = 𝜇 𝑜 𝜇𝑟
1 𝐵2 1
∴ 𝑊𝑓 = = 𝜇𝐻 2
2 𝜇 2
Similarly the co-energy density can be written as,
′
1 2
1 𝐵2
∴ 𝑤𝑓 = 𝑊𝑓 = 𝜇𝐻 =
2 2 𝜇
------------------------------------&--------------------------&---------------------------------------------
18. A double excited system has L11 = (4+cos 2) × 10-3 H, L12 = 0.15 cos H, L22 = (20+5 cos2)
H. Find the torque developed if i1 = 1 A, i2 = 0.02 A.
Given: L11 = (4+cos 2) × 10-3 H, L12 = 0.15 cos H, L22 = (20+5 cos2), i1 = 1 A, i2 = 0.02 A.
Formula used:
1 1
w ′ f(i1 , i2 , θ) = L11 i21 + L12 i1 i2 + L22 i22
2 2
Solution:
1 1
w ′ f(i1 , i2 , θ) = L11 i21 + L12 i1 i2 + L22 i22
2 2
1 2 1
w ′ f(i1 , i2 , θ) = (4 + cos 2) × 10−3 i1 + (0.15 cos)i1 i2 + (20 + 5 cos2) i22
2 2
′
∂w f (i1 , i2 , 0)
Tf =
∂θ
=-sin2 × 10-3 i12 - 0.15sini1i2 - 5 sin2i22
= -10-3sin2 - 3 × 10-3 sin
The negative sign indicates that the torque is restoring in nature. i.e. it opposes the displacement .
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
32
19.Two coupled coils have self and mutual inductance of 𝑳𝟏𝟏 = 𝟑 + 𝟎. 𝟓𝒙; 𝑳𝟐𝟐 = 𝟐 +
𝟎. 𝟓𝒙; 𝑳𝟏𝟐 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝒙 over a certain rang of linear displacement x. The first coil is excited by a
constant current of 15A and the second by a constant current of -8A. Determine (i) Mechanical
work down if x changes from 0.6m to1m (ii) Energy supplied by each electrical source.(May
2018)
Given: L11 = 3 + 0.5x; L22 = 2 + 0.5x; L12 = 0.3x , A=15A
Formula used:
1 1
𝑊𝑓′ = 𝐿11 𝑖12 + 𝐿22 𝑖22 + 𝐿12 𝑖1 𝑖2
2 2
Solution:
1 1
= × 3 + 0.5𝑥 × 152 + 2 + 0.5𝑥 × (−8)2 + 0.3𝑥 × 15 × (−8)
2 2
= 401.5 + 36.25𝑥
Mechanical workdown=172.2J
1
Energy supplied by source1𝑊𝑒1 = ∫0.6 𝑖1 𝑑𝜆1
𝜆1 = 𝐿11 𝑖1 + 𝐿12 𝑖2
𝜆1 = 45 + 5.1𝑥
𝑊𝑒1 = 30.6𝐽
1
Energy supplied by source2 𝑊𝑒2 = ∫0.6 𝑖2 𝑑𝜆2
𝜆2 = 𝐿22 𝑖2 + 𝐿12 𝑖1
𝜆2 = −16 + 0.5𝑥
𝑊𝑒2 = −1.6𝐽
33
UNIT 4
PART-A
1. Write down the emf equation for D.C generator.(Nov-Dec 2013, 2016)
Eg = (P ∅ZN/ 60A) V
Where P = number of poles, ∅ = flux per pole
Z= Total number of conductors
A= number of parallel paths
N= speed in rpm
2. Define the term armature reaction in dc machines.(Dec - 2012, May-2013, 2017)
The interaction between the flux set up by the current carrying armature conductors with
the main field flux is defined as armature reaction.
8. Define commutator?(June2012)
The commutator is a device which converts alternating induced emf in a generator to dc. In
case of motor it produces unidirectional torque.
9. Define commutation?(June- 2012)(Dec- 2014)
The process by which current in the short circuited coil is reversed while it crosses the MNA is
called commutation. The time during which the coil remains short circuited is known as commutation
period.The period is 0.0005 to 0.002S.
2
10. State the causes of failure to excite self excited generated?(Dec-2010) May 2017
1.Absence of residual magnetism due to ageing
2. The field winding may not be properly connected with armature
3. Under no load condition, the shunt field resistance should be greater than the critical field
resistance.
4. Under load condition, the shunt field resistance should be less than the critical field
resistance.
23. An 8-pole,wave-connected armature has 600 conductors and is driven at 625 rev/min. If the flux
per pole is 20m Wb, determine the generate e.m.f. (Nov/Dec 2013)
4
26. Why the armature core in the D.C machine is constructed with laminated steel sheets instead of
solid steel sheets? (May-2018)
To minimize the cost of construction the machine and keep eddy current loss as low as possible.
Part – B
1.It serves the purpose of outermost cover of the dc machine. So that insulating materials get
protected from harmful atmospheric elements like moisture dust and various gases like SO2
2.It provider mechanical support to the poles.
2. Poles:
5
1.Poles core basically carrier a field winding which is necessary to produce the flux.
2.it directs the flux produced through air gap to armature core, to the next pole.
3. Field windings:
To carry current due to which pole core, on which the field winding is placed, behaves as an
electromagnet, producing necessary flux.
As it helps in producing the magnetic field it is called field windings.
4. Armature:
5. Commutator:
7. Bearings:
Ball bearings are usually used as they are more reliable. For heavy duty machines, roller bearings
are preferred.
6
Generator Principle
An electric generator is a machine that converts mechanical energy in to electrical energy. An electric
generator is based on the principle that whenever flux is cut by a conductor, an e.m.f. is induced which
will cause a current to flow if the conductor circuit is closed. The direction of induced e.m.f. (and hence
current) is given by Fleming’s right hand rule. Therefore, the essential components of a generator are:
(i) When the loop is in position no. 1 [See Fig. 1.1], the generated e.m.f. iszero because the coil sides
(AB and CD) are cutting no flux but are moving parallel to it.
(ii) When the loop is in position no. 2, the coil sides are moving at an angle to the flux and, therefore, a
low e.m.f. is generated as indicated by point2 in Fig. (1.2).
(iii) When the loop is in position no. 3, the coil sides (AB and CD) are at right angle to the flux and are,
therefore, cutting the flux at a maximum rate. Hence at this instant, the generated e.m.f. is
maximum as indicated by point 3 in Fig. (1.2).
(iv) At position 4, the generated e.m.f. is less because the coil sides are cutting the flux at an angle.
(v) At position 5, no magnetic lines are cut and hence induced e.m.f. is zero as indicated by point 5 in Fig.
(1.2).
(vi) At position 6, the coil sides move under a pole of opposite polarity and hence the direction of
generated e.m.f. is reversed.The maximum e.m.f.in this direction (i.e., reverse direction, See Fig.
1.2) will be when the loop is at position 7 and zero when at position 1. This cycle repeats with
each revolution of the coil.
Note that e.m.f. generated in the loop is alternating one. It is because any coilside, say AB has e.m.f. in
one direction when under the influence of N-pole and in the other direction when under the influence of
S-pole. If a load is connected across the ends of the loop, then alternating current will flow through the
7
load. The alternating voltage generated in the loop can be converted into direct voltage by a device called
commutator. We then have the d.c. generator. In fact,a commutator is a mechanical rectifier
------------------------------------------------&&&&--------------------------------------------------------------
Shunt generator:
8
When the field winding is connected in parallel with the armature and the combination across the
load is called shunt generator.
Voltage and current relation:
Ia=IL+Ish
Now voltage across load is Vt which is same across field winding as both in parallel with each other
𝑉
Ish=𝑅 𝑡
𝑠ℎ
While induced emf,
E=Vt+Ia+Ra+Vbrush
ϕpnz
Where, E=
60A
Series generator:
When the field winding is connected in series with the armature winding while supplying the load
is called series generator
Voltage and current relation:
Ia=Isc=IL
Now in addition to drop IaRa, induced emf has to supply voltage drop across series field winding
too
E=Vt+IaRa+IaRsc+Vbrush
E= Vt+Ia(Ra+Rsc)+Vbrush
𝜙𝑝𝑛𝑧
Where E=
60𝐴
Compound generator:
1.Long shunt compound generator
2.Short shunt compound generator
9
Ia= IL +Ish
Voltage across shunt field winding is Vt
𝑉𝑡
Ish=
𝑅𝑠ℎ
Voltage equation is
E=Vt+IaRa+RaRsc+Vbrush
Short shunt compound generator:
10
3. Derive the expression for generated voltage in DC machines [Dec-2011, 2013][May – 2015, 2016]
-------------------------------------------------------------&&&&&------------------------------------------------
4. Explain the process of commutator in dc generator. (May - 2006, 2010) Dec - 2016
The induced emf in the conductor is always sinusoidal and commutator converts this sinusoidal emf to
unidirectional emf.
Commutator is divided into number of copper segments insulated from each other. So in its
simplest form it is a ring with halves separated by insulation
11
Such a ring is called split ring. The brushes P and Q are stationary and presented on the surface of
split ring. Split ring is mounted on the shaft and rotates as armature rotates.
Consider a single turn generator with conductors (1) and (2). The armature conductors are
connected to the two segments of split ring. The external resistance R is connected across brushes P and
Q. Under instant 1, the current flowing through resistance R is flowing from left to right as shown in
figure.
This is by assuming the direction of current through conductor (1) downwards which is under N
pole and through conductor (2) upwards which is under S pole, at the instant considered. At this instant
brush P behaves positive and Q as negative.
After a next half revolution, we have seen that direction of emf in the individual conductors
reverses.
Hence conductor (1) now will carry a current which will be upwards and due to half revolution it
will be under S pole. Similarly conductor (2) individually will carry a current downwards now, and will
be under N pole as shown in figure.
Now split ring i.e. commutator is mounted on shaft and rotates with armature so when conductors
will reverse their position, the split ring sections will also reverses their positions.
But brushes P and Q are stationary and tapping the current from the commutator segments which are in
contact with them.
Hence under instant 2, segment B will be in contact with brush P and segment A will be in contact
with brush Q. Due to this current through resistance R maintains its direction from left to right as shown.
Brush P remains positive and Q as negative.
The wave form of current in the Individual conductor and currents in external resistance R. So one
brush remains always positive and other always negative and the load current is unidirectional.
-----------------------------------------------&&&&-------------------------------------------------------------------
5. Describe the effects of armature reaction on the operation of dc machines. Also remedies
employed for decreasing the effect of armature reaction. (Dec- 2009) (May 2016)
12
Effects of armature reaction:
1.The armature reaction always results in reduction of generated emf due to decrease in value of
flux per pole.
2.Due to distortion in main field flux the maximum density at load increases above no load. Thus
iron losses are observed to be more on load than on no load.
3.Due to armature reaction the maximum value of gap density increases.
4.Thus flux density in the interpoles axis is not zero but having same value.
5.Thus there will be an induced emf in the coil undergoing commutation which will try to
maintain the current in original direction.
6.This will make commutation difficult and will cause delayed commutation.
Reduction of effects armature reaction:
1.Armature reaction neutralized by compensating windings.
2.Increasing length of air gap, increase the path of cross magnetizing field.
3.By use of interpoles this induce mmf
-----------------------------------------------------------------&&&&------------------------------------------------
The axis along there is no emf induced in the armature conductors is called magnetic neutral axis
it can be seen that magnetic neutral axis and geometric neutral axis coincides with each other.
The brushes are always kept along MNA.
Now we will consider that the field coils are unexcited whereas the armature conductors are
carrying current.
The direction of the armature conductors can be found by applying Fleming’s right hand rule
The direction of the flux produced by current carrying conductors is vertically downward in the
armature core. This flux is symmetrically about a brush axis.
13
The vector of a represents the armature direction both in magnitude. This mmf depends on the
magnitude of the armature current.
Now the flux through the armature is not uniform and symmetrical. The flux gets distorted due to
interaction of two fluxes; the resultant flux distribution is changed.
The flux is crowded or concentrated at the traveling pole tips but weekend out at the leading pole
tips.
The new position of MNA is to the resultant mmf vector of R
The conductors on the left of new position of MNA carry current downward and those to the right
carry upwards.
The compound of d is in direct opposition with field mmf vector off. Hence this component is
called demagnetizing component.
-------------------------------------------------------------&&&&---------------------------------------------------------
OC characteristics:
The rheostat as a potential divider is used to control the field current and the flux. It is varied from
zero and is measured on ammeter connected.
14
As if is varied, then ϕ changes and hence induced emf. Eo also varies. It is measured on voltmeter
connected across armature.
No load is connected to machine hence characteristics are also called no load characteristics.
As if increases, flux ϕ increases and Eo increases. After point A, saturation across when ϕ
becomes constant and hence Eo saturates.
External characteristics:
E=Vt+IaRa neglecting other drops. So as load current Ic increases, Ia increases. Thus the drop
IaRa increases and terminal voltage
Vt=E- IaRa decreases.
But the value of armature resistance is very small, the drop in terminal voltage as Ic changes from
no load to full load is very small.
Hence dc shunt generator is called constant voltage generator.
-----------------------------------------------------&&&&&---------------------------------------------------------
Internal Characteristics:
The effect of flux produced by armature on the main flux produced by through field winding is
called an armature reaction.
15
External Characteristics:
DC compound generator:
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
9)Explain interpoles?
Interpoles are used to neutralize reactance voltage induced in the coil undergoing commutation by using
small poles fixed to the yoke and placed in between the main poles along geometrical neutral axis.These
poles are called interpoles.
The interpoles have a few turns of large wire and are connected in series with the armature.
Interpoles are wound and placed so that each interpole has the same magnetic polarity as the main pole
ahead of it, in the direction of rotation.The field generated by the interpoles produces the same effect as
the compensating winding. This field, in effect, cancels the armature reaction for all values of load current
by causing a shift in the neutral plane opposite to the shift caused by armature reaction. The amount of
shift caused by the interpoles will equal the shift caused by armature reaction since both shifts are a result
of armature current.
The emf induced in the interpoles is called commutating or reversing emf which
will
neutralize reactance voltage and making sparkles commutation.
16
The other advantage of interpoles is neutralizing cross magnetizing effects of armature
reaction.OFf-mmf due to main pole,OFc cross magnetizing mmf,OFimmf due to interpole it is opposition
to the OFc.
10)Explain in detail about commutation and list various Methods to improve commutation in
details with a neat sketch.(Dec-2017)
Resistance Commutation
In this method of commutation we use high electrical resistance brushes for getting spark less
commutation. This can be obtained by replacing low resistance copper brushes with high resistance
carbon brushes.
We can clearly see from the picture that the current IC from the coil C may reach to the brush in
two ways in the commutation period. One path is direct through the commutator segment b and to the
brush and the 2nd path is first through the short-circuit coil B and then through the commutator segment to
the brush. When the brush resistance is low, then the current IC from coil C will follow the shortest path,
i.e. the 1st path as its electrical resistance is comparatively low because it is shorter than the 2nd path.
Theadvantages of carbon brushes are that (i) they are to some degree self-lubricating and polish
the commutator and (ii) should sparking occur, they would damage the commutator less than when Cu
brushes are used.
When high resistance brushes are used, then as the brush moves towards the commutator
segments, the contact area of the brush and the segment b decreases and contact area with the segment
increases. Now, as the electrical resistance is inversely proportional to the contact area of then resistance
Rb will increase and Ra will decrease as the brush moves. Then the current will prefer the 2nd path to
reach to the brush. Thus by this method of improving commutation, the quick reversal of current will
occur in the desired direction.
E.M.F. Commutation
The main reason of the delay of the current reversing time in the short circuit coil during commutation
period is the inductive property of the coil. In this type of commutation, the reactance voltage produced
by the coil due to its inductive property, is neutralized by producing a reversing emf in the short circuit
coil during commutation period.
Reactance voltage: The voltage rise in the short circuit coil due to inductive property of the coil,
which opposes the current reversal in it during the commutation period, is called the reactance
voltage.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
17
11. Draw and explain the load characteristics of differentially and cumulative compound DC
generators? (May-June 2015), (NOV-DEC 2015)
In a compound generator, the shunt field predominates and is much stronger of the two. When the
series field m.m.f. aids the shunt field m.m.f., the generator is said to be ‘cumulatively compounded’
When the series field m.m.f. opposes the shunt field m.m.f., generator is said to be ‘differentially
compounded’
Depending on the relative additional aiding m.m.f., produced by the series field there are three
types of load characteristics possible for the cumulative compound generator.
When the differential compound generator is without load it builds up and self-excites its shunt field in
much the same manner as the shunt generator. However, when a load is applied, the generated voltage
Eg is now reduced by the reduction in the main field flux created by the opposing m.m.f. of the series
field. This reduction in Eg occurs in addition to the armature and series circuit voltage drop, the armature
reaction, and the reduction in field current produced by reduction of the armature voltage. The result is a
sharp drop in the terminal voltage with load as shown in Fig.and the field is below saturation and rapidly
unbinds.
The differential compound generator is used as a constant-current generator for the same constant-
current applications as the series generator.
The O.C.C. for a d.c. generator is determined as follows. The field winding of the d.c. generator
(series or shunt) is disconnected from the machine and is separately excited from an external d.c. source
as shown in Fig. (ii). The generator is run at fixed speed (i.e., normal speed). The field current (If) is
increased from zero in steps and the corresponding values of generated e.m.f. (E0) read off on a voltmeter
connected across the armature terminals. On plotting the relation between E0 and If, we get the open
circuit characteristic as shown inFig. (i).
19
2. Internal or Total characteristic (E/Ia)
This curve shows the relation between the generated e.m.f. on load (E) and the armature current
(Ia). The e.m.f. E is less than E0 due to the demagnetizing effect of armature reaction. Therefore, this
curve will lie below the open circuit characteristic (O.C.C.). The internal characteristic is of interest
chiefly to the designer. It cannot be obtained directly by experiment. It is because a voltmeter cannot read
the e.m.f. generated on load due to the voltage drop in armature resistance. The internal characteristic can
be obtained from external characteristic if winding resistances are known because armature reaction effect
is included in both characteristics.
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. A DC machine has ‘p’ no of poles with curved poles facing having ‘Z’ no of conductors around
the rotor armature of radius ‘r’ and the flux/pole is given as, ϕ. The rotor rotates at a speed of ‘n’
rpm. Obtain the induced emf of the DC machine assuming a no of parallel paths(Nov/Dec-2010)
20
Let N be the speed of rotation in revolutions per minute (rpm)
Consider one conductor on the periphery of the armature. As this conductor makes one
complete revolution. It cuts P𝜙Weber’s. As the speed is N rpm. The time taken for one revolution is 60/N
secs.
Since the emf induced in conductor=Rate of change of flux cut
𝑑𝜑 𝑝𝜑
e∝ = 60/𝑁
𝑑𝑡
𝑁.𝑃.𝜑
e= 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑠.
60
Since there are Z/A conductors in series in each parallel path the emf induced.
𝑁.𝑃.𝜑 𝑍 𝜑𝑍𝑁 𝑃
𝐸𝑔 = (𝐴 ) = 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑠.
60 60 𝐴
The armature conductors are generally connected into two different ways. Its lap winding
and wave winding. For lap wound armatures, the no of parallel paths is equal to the no of poles (A=p). In
wave wound machine A=2 always.
----------------------------------------------------&&&&&&-------------------------------------------------------------
2. A 12 pole Dc generator has a simplex wave wound armature containing 144 coils of 10 turns
each. The resistance of each turn is 0.011. Its flux per pole is 0.05 wb and it is running at a speed
of 200rpm. Obtain the induced armature voltage and the effective armature resistance. [May/June-
2010]
Given: P=12, A=2, N=200rpm, Φ=0.05wb
𝑝𝜑𝑍𝑁
Formula used: 𝐸𝑔 = 60
Soln:
Total no of conductors, Z=144× 10 × 2 = 2880
P=12, A=2, N=200rpm, Φ=0.05wb
Induced armature voltage
𝑝𝜑𝑍𝑁
𝐸𝑔 =
60
12×0.05×2880×200
= 60×2
𝐸𝑔 = 2880 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑠
2880×0.011
Effective armature resistance= 31.68 = 3.1658
10
----------------------------------------------------&&&&&------------------------------------------------------------
3. A 4 pole lap-wound dc machine has 728 armature conductors. Its field wdg is excited from a dc
source to create an air gap flux of 32 m wb/pole. The machine (generator) is run from a prime
mover (diesel engine) at 1600 rpm. It supplies a current of 100A to an electric load.
i) Cal.the electromagnetic power developed.
ii)What is the mechanical power that is fed from the prime-mover to the generator?
iii) What is the torque provided by the prime mover? [April/May -2011]
Given: Z=728, ∅ = 32,N=1600,I=100A
21
∅𝑁𝑍 𝑝 𝑝
Formula used: 𝐸𝑎 = (𝐴), T=𝑤𝑚 𝑤𝑚 , Electromagnetic power developed= 𝐸𝑎 𝐼𝑎
60 𝑚
Soln:
∅𝑁𝑍 𝑝
i)𝐸𝑎 = ( )
60 𝐴
32×10−3 ×1600×728
= (4/4)
60
𝐸𝑎 = 621.2𝑉
Electromagnetic power developed= 𝐸𝑎 𝐼𝑎
=621.2× 100
𝑃𝑒 = 62.12𝑘𝑤
ii)Mechanical power provided by primemover(Pm)=electromagnetic power developed
Pm= 62.12𝑘𝑤
iii)But Pm=TWm
𝑝 2𝜋𝑁 2𝜋×1600
Prime mover torque T= 𝑚 𝑤𝑚 = =
𝑤𝑚 60 60
62.12×103
= 167.55
T=370.75Nm
----------------------------------------------------------&&&&-----------------------------------------------------
4. A 4 pole DC shunt generator with Lap connected armature supplies 5 KW at 230 V. The
armature and field copper losses are 360 W and 200 W respectively. Calculate the armature
current and generated EMF (May-June 2015)
Given Data:
No Of Pole: 4; Generator Capacity:5 Kw;V-230V;Armature Cu Loss:360W;Field Cu Loss :200 W;
Find:
i)Armature Current(Ia)
ii) Generated Emf (Eg)
Solution:
i) To Find Armature Current (Ia):
Input =output + losses
𝐸𝑔 × 𝐼𝑎 = 5000 + 560 = 5600𝑊
𝐸𝑔 = 𝑉 + 𝐼𝑎 𝑅𝑎
Hence
(𝑉 + 𝐼𝑎 𝑅𝑎 ) × 𝐼𝑎 = 5560 𝑊
𝑉𝐼𝑎 × 𝐼𝑎2 𝑅𝑎 = 5560𝑊
𝑉𝐼𝑎 = 5560 − (360)=5200W
𝟓𝟐𝟎𝟎
𝑰𝒂 = = 𝟐𝟏. 𝟕𝟒 𝑾
𝟐𝟑𝟎
ii) To Find Generated Emf (Eg)
𝐼𝑎2 𝑅𝑎 = 360𝑊
360
𝑅𝑎 =
(21.742 )
22
𝐸𝑔 = 𝑉 + 𝐼𝑎 𝑅𝑎 = 230 + 16.559
𝑬𝒈 = 𝟐𝟒𝟔. 𝟓𝟔𝑽
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. In a 400 V, Dc compound Generator, The resistance of the armature,series and shunt windings
are 0.10 ohm,0.05 ohm and 100 ohm respectively.The machines supplies power to 20 Nos.resistive
heaters each rated 500 watts,400 Volts. Calculate the induced Emf and armature currents when
the generator is connected in i) Short Shunt ii) Long Shunt. Allows brush contact drop of 2 volts
per brush.(May-June 2015)
Given Data:
V-400 V;Ra-0.10 ohm ;Rse -0.05 ohm ;Rsh=100 ohm respectively ; machines supplies 20 heaters each
rated 500 W,500 V
Find:
Induced EMF When
i) Short Shunt ii) Long Shunt
Solutions:
i) Short Shunt:
500 𝑤 × 20(𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑠)
𝐼𝐿 = = 25 𝐴
400 𝑉
𝐼𝑎 = 𝐼𝐿 + 𝐼𝑆ℎ
𝑉 400
𝐼𝑆ℎ = = =4𝐴
𝑅𝑆ℎ 100
𝐼𝑎 = 25 + 4𝐼𝑎 = 29 𝐴
Induced Emf 𝐸𝑔 = 𝑉 + 𝐼𝑎 (𝑅𝑎 + 𝑅𝑠𝑒 )
𝐸𝑔 = 400 + 29(0.10 + 0.05)
𝑬𝒈 = 𝟒𝟎𝟒. 𝟑𝟓 𝑽
ii) Long Shunt:
𝐸𝑔 = 𝑉 + 𝐼𝑎 𝑅𝑎 + 𝐼𝑆𝑒 𝑅𝑆𝑒
∴ 𝐼𝑆𝑒 = 𝐼𝐿
𝐸𝑔 = 400 + [29 × 0.10] + [25 × 0.05] = 400 + 29 + 1.25
𝑬𝒈 = 𝟒𝟎𝟒. 𝟏𝟓 𝑽
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. A long shunt compound generator has a shunt field wing of 1000 turns per pole and series field
winding of 4 turns per pole and a resistance of 0.05 ohm. In order to obtain the speed voltage both
at load and full load for operating as shunt generator. It is necessary to increase the field current
by 0.2A.the full load armature current of the compound generator is 80A.Calculate thee diverter
resistance connected in parallel of series field to obtain flat compound operations?(NOV-DEC
2015)
Soluation:
23
Addional ampere-turns required to maintain rated voltage at full load operation as a D.C shunt
generator= No of turns on shunt field winding×additional shunt field current.
= 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎 × 𝟎. 𝟐 = 𝟐𝟎𝟎𝑨𝑻
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
7. Two shunt generators are connected in parallel to supply a load of 5000A each machine has
armature resistance 0f 0.03 ohm and field resistance of 60 ohm.EMF on one machine is 600V and
in other machine is 640V.what power does each machine supply? (NOV-DEC 2015)
Given data :
Eg1=600 V;Eg2=640 V;Ra=0.03 ohm;Rsh=60 ohm;I=5000 A;
Find: Power of each machine?
Solutions:
Generator 1:
𝑉
𝐼𝑠ℎ1 =
𝐴
60
𝑉 = 𝐸𝑔1 − 𝐼𝑎1 𝑅𝑎1
𝑉
𝑉 = 600 − [𝐼1 + ] × 0.03 … … … … … … … … . . (1)
60
Generator 2:
𝑉
𝐼𝑠ℎ1 = 𝐴
60
24
𝑉
𝑉 = 640 − [𝐼2 + ] × 0.03 … … … … … … … … … … . (2)
60
Equating Equation (1) and (2)
𝑉 𝑉
𝑉 = 600 − [𝐼1 + ] × 0.03 = 640 − [𝐼2 + ] × 0.03
60 60
0.03(𝐼2 − 𝐼1 ) = 40
𝐼2 − 𝐼1 = 1333.3 𝐴 … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … (3)
𝐼2 + 𝐼1 = 5000𝐴 … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … . . (4)
2𝐼2 = 6333.3𝐴
𝐼2 = 3166.65𝐴
𝐼1 = 1833.35𝐴
Now substituting the value of 𝐼1 in equation (1) we get
𝑉 = 504.7𝑉
1 𝑉𝐼
Output of Generator 1:𝑃1 = 1000 𝐾𝑊
504.7 × 3166.65
𝑃1 = = 1598.2𝑘𝑤
1000
2 𝑉𝐼
Output of Generator 2:𝑃2 = 1000 𝐾𝑊
504.7 × 3166.65
𝑃2 = = 1598.2 𝐾𝑊
1000
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8. A 4 pole dc motor is lap-wound with 400 conductors. The pole-shoe is 20cm long and the
average flux density over one pole-pitch is 0.4T, the armature diameter being 30cm. Find the
torque and gross-mechanical power developed when the motor is drawing 25A and running at
1500 rpm.(May 2016)
𝜋
Flux / pole (∅) = × 30 × 10-2 × 20× 10-2 ×0.4 = 0.0188 wb
4
ɸ𝑁𝑍 𝑝
Induced emf 𝐸𝑔 = (𝐴) = 188 V
60
188 ×25
Gross mechanical power developed = EaIa = = 4.7 kw
1000
4.7 ×1000
Torque developed = 2𝜋 ×1500/60 = 29.9 Nm
9.A separately excited generator when running at 1000 r.p.m. supplied 200A at 125V. What will be
the load current when the speed drops to 800r.p.m. if 𝑰𝒇 is unchanged? Given that armature
resistance=𝟎. 𝟎𝟒Ω and brush drop=𝟐𝑽.Derive the necessary equations.(Dec-2017)
Soluation:
125
Load resistnce𝑅 = = 0.625Ω
200
𝐸𝑔1 = 125 + 200 × 0.04 + 2
= 135𝑉
𝑁1 = 1000 𝑟𝑝𝑚
800
𝐴𝑡 1000 𝑟𝑝𝑚 𝐸𝑔2 = 135 × = 108𝑉
1000
25
If I is new load current, terminal Voltage V is given by,
𝑉 = 108 − 0.04𝐼 − 2
= 106 − 0.04𝐼
𝑉 (106 − 0.04𝐼)
∴𝐼= =
𝑅 0.635
𝐼 = 159.4𝐴
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10. A four pole lap wound shunt generator supplies 60 lamps of 100 W, 240V, each; the field and
armature resistances are 55 Ω and 0.18 Ω respectively. If the brush drop is 1V for each brush find
(i) Armature current (ii) Current per path (iii) Generated emf (iv) Power output of DC machine.
(May 2017)
Solution:
11.Two 500V DC shunt generators rated at 100kW and 200kW respectively are operating in
parallel. Both of them have linearly drooping external characteristics. Voltage regulation of the first
generator is 4% and second is 6%. Determine the common bus voltage and current shared by each
of the generators when their parallel combination is to supply a current of 300A.(May-2018)
Given:V=500V,P1,P2=100,200kW,drop=4%,5%,I=300A
Solution:
100Kw generator
4
𝑓𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑝 = 500 ×
100
100 × 103
𝑓𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 = = 200𝐴
500
26
20 1 𝑉
𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑝 𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑒 = = ( )
200 10 𝐴
200Kw generator
6
𝑓𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑝 = 500 ×
100
200 × 103
𝑓𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 = = 400𝐴
500
30 3 𝑉
𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑝 𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑒 = = ( )
400 40 𝐴
If 𝐼1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐼2 𝑎𝑟𝑒 𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑠 𝑠𝑢𝑝𝑝𝑙𝑖𝑒𝑑 𝑏𝑦 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑡𝑤𝑜 𝑔𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑉 𝑖𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑏𝑢𝑠 𝑏𝑎𝑟 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒, 𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑛
1
𝑉 = 500 − 𝐼1 𝑓𝑖𝑟𝑠𝑡 𝑔𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑜𝑟
10
3
𝑉 = 500 − 𝐼 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑 𝑔𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑜𝑟
40 2
𝐼1 3𝐼2
=
10 40
40𝐼1 = 30𝐼2
40𝐼1 − 30𝐼2 = 0 … … … … … … . . (1)
𝐼1 + 𝐼2 = 300 … … … … … … … (2)
Solving above equation 𝐼1 = 128.57𝐴, 𝐼2 = 171.42𝐴
𝐼1
∴ 𝑉 = 500 −
10
128.57
= 500 −
10
= 500 − 12.857
𝑉 = 487.143𝑉
12.A 4-pole, 50KW, 250V, wave wound shunt generator has 400armature conductors. Brushes are
given a lead of 4 commentator segments. Calculate the demagnetization ampere-turns per pole if
shunt field resistance is 50 ohm. Also calculate extra shunt field turns per pole to neutralize the
demagnetization.(May-2018)
Given: 4-pole, 50KW, 250V,Z=400, 𝑅𝑠ℎ ,
Solution:
500 × 103
𝐿𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑠𝑢𝑝𝑝𝑙𝑖𝑒𝑑 𝐼𝐿 = = 200𝐴
250
𝑉 250
𝑆ℎ𝑢𝑛𝑡 𝑓𝑖𝑒𝑙𝑑 𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝐼𝑠ℎ = = = 5𝐴
𝑅𝑠ℎ 50
Armature current𝐼𝑎 = 𝐼𝐿 + 𝐼𝑠ℎ
= 200 + 5 = 205𝐴
205
𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑖𝑛 𝑒𝑎𝑐ℎ 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟 𝐼 =
2
𝑍
𝑁𝑜 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑚𝑢𝑡𝑎𝑡𝑜𝑟 𝑠𝑒𝑔𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡 = 𝐴 = 2 𝑤𝑎𝑣𝑒 𝑤𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑔
𝐴
400
𝑁𝑜 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑒𝑔𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡 = = 200
2
4 36
∴𝜃= × 360 = 𝑑𝑒𝑔𝑟𝑒𝑒𝑠
200 5
𝐴𝑇𝑑 𝜃𝑚
= 𝑍𝐼.
𝑝𝑜𝑙𝑒 360
27
205 36
= 400 ( )× = 820𝐴𝑇
2 5 × 360
𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑛𝑠 𝐴𝑇𝑑 820
𝐸𝑥𝑡𝑟𝑎 𝑠ℎ𝑢𝑛𝑡 = = = 164
𝑝𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝐼𝑠ℎ 5
28
UNIT 5
PART-A
1. List the different methods of speed control in DC motor.[April May-2010]
Field method
Armature control
Voltage control
2. What is the precaution to be taken during starting of a DC series motor? Why? [Nov/Dec-
2010]
DC series motor should always be started with some load on the shaft. In this motor, the ɸ is
directly proportional to the armature current. i.e., ɸ α Ia. Under no load conditions, the armature
current is very low and flux also is less, if the flux is less speed will be very high [Nα1/ ɸ].
3. Explain why Swinburne’s test cannot be performed in DC series motor.[Nov/Dec-2011]
In the Swinburne’s method of testing, the motor is not loaded directly but the losses and
efficiency at different loads can be estimated. Since series DC motors cannot be started without
loads, this no-load test (Swinburne’s Test) cannot be performed on DC. series motors.
4. How will you change the direction of rotation of a DC motor? (May-2018)
Either the direction of the main field or the direction of current through the armature
conductors is to be reserved.
5. What is critical speed?(April –2010)
The critical field resistance at that resistance of the field circuit at a given speed at which
generator just excites and starts voltage buildings while beyond this value the critical speed.
6. List the merits and demerits of Swinburne’s test. (Nov/Dec-2013)
Merits:-
1. This method is convenient and economical.
2. Since constant losses are known, the efficiency can be estimated at any load.
Demerits:-
1. It is difficult to know whether there will be satisfactory commutation at full load.
2. Due to armature reaction at full load there will be distortion in flux which will increase
the iron loss.
7. Enumerate the factors on which the speed of a DC motor depends.
N = K (V-IaRa)
Ф
Where
N-Speed of the motor in rpm, K-Constant
Speed of DC motor depends on three factors.
Flux in the air gap (Ф)
Resistance of the armature circuit(Ra) and Voltage applied to the armature(v)
8. What is the function of a no-voltage release coil provided in a DC motor starter? [May-2011]
The NVR coil produce enough magnetic force of attraction and retain the starter handle in
the ON position against spring force.
2
When the supply voltage fails or becomes lower than a prescribed value the electromagnet may
not have enough force and the handle will come back to OFF position due to spring force
automatically.
9. Draw the speed –torque characteristics of a series and shunt motor. (May 2016)
N N
Constant speed line
No
T T
10. What are the different types of starters? or List various method of starting DC motor. Dec-
2016
Two point starters – Series motor
Three point starter – Shunt motor
Four point starter–
11. State the advantage and disadvantage of Swinburne’s and Hopkinson’s test.[Nov/Dec-2009]
16. Why DC series motor is not suitable for belt driven loads?[May/ June-2012]
Series motors acquire very high speed at no load or at very light load. That is why they
should not be used for belt driven loads.
17. State the methods of speed control in DC series motor?[Nov/ Dec-2012]
1. Variable resistance in series with motor
2. Flux control method
3. Field diverter
4. Armature diverter
5. Tapped field control.
18. What is the relation between speed, back emf and flux?
Nα Eb / ∅
Speed of the motor is directly proportional to back emf Eb and inversely proportional to the
flux ∅.
19. Specify the technique used to control the speed of DC shunt motor for below and above the
rated speed? (APR/MAY 2015)
By varying the field current as well as armature voltage, the speed of a DC motor can be
controlled. The speed of a DC motor can be controlled below the rated speed by armature control
method.
The speed of a DC motor can be controlled above the rated speed by field control method,
because the flux per pole can be decreased to any value by decreasing the field current.
20. Why series motor is suited for traction applications? (APR/MAY 2015)(Nov-Dec 2015)
Torque is directionally proportional to flux and armature current, particularly in DC series
motor torque is directly proportional to flux and square of armature current, so starting torque is
high. Hence DC series motor is used in traction purpose.
4
middle finger representing the direction of current flow, the thumb will be pointing in the direction
of force on the wire. Also known as Fleming's rule.
6
Figure 2.Ta/Ia characteristic
(ii) N/Ia Characteristic.
The speed N of a. DC. motor is given by;
𝐸𝑏
𝑁∝ ∅
The flux ∅ and back e.m.f. Eb in a shunt motor are almost constant under normal conditions.
Therefore, speed of a shunt motor will remain constant as the armature current varies (dotted line AB in
Fig.3). When load is increased, Eb (= V-IaRa) and ∅ decrease due to the armature resistance drop and
armature reaction respectively. However, Eb decreases slightly more than ∅ so that the speed of the motor
decreases lightly with load (line AC).
The curve is obtained by plotting the values of N and Ta for various armature currents (See Fig.4).
It may be seen that speed falls somewhat as the load torque increases.
7
Fig. (5) shows the connections of a series motor. Note that current passing through the field
winding is the same as that in the armature. If the mechanical load on the motor increases, the armature
current also increases. Hence, the flux in a series motor increases with the increase in armature current and
vice-versa.
8
Fig. 7.N/Ia Characteristic
Thus, up to magnetic saturation, the N/Ia curve follows the hyperbolic path as shown in Fig. (7). After
saturation, the flux becomes constant and so does the speed.
N/Ta Characteristic.
The N/Ta characteristic of a series motor is shown inFig. (8). It is clear that series motor develops
high torque at low speed and vice-versa. It is because an increase in torque requires an increase in armature
current, which is also the field current. The result is that flux is strengthened and hence the speed drops
(N 1/). Reverse happens should the torque be low.
3) Compound Motors
A compound motor has both series field and shunt field. The shunt field is always stronger than the
series field. Compound motors are of two types i) Cumulative-compound motors in which series field aids
the shunt field.(ii) Differential-compound motors in which series field opposes the shunt field.
Differential compound motors are rarely used due to their poor torque characteristics at heavy loads.
(i)Ta/Ia Characteristic.
As the load increases, the series field increases but shunt field strength remains constant.
Consequently, total flux is increased and hence the armature torque (Ta Ia).It may be noted that
torque of a cumulative-compound motor is greater than that of shunt motor for a given armature current
due to series field [Fig. 10].
9
Figure 10.Ta/Ia Characteristic
(ii) N/Ia Characteristic.
As explained above, as the lead increases, the flux per pole also increases. Consequently, the speed
(N 1/) of the motor tails I load increases (Fig.11). It may be noted that as the load is added, the
increased amount of flux causes the speed to decrease more than does the speed of a shunt motor. Thus the
speed regulation of a cumulative compound motor is poorer than that of a shunt motor.
Fig. (12) shows N/Ta characteristic of a cumulative compound motor. For a given armature current,
the torque of a cumulative compound motor is more than that of a shunt motor but less than that of a series
motor.
--------------------------------------------------&&&&&&-------------------------------------
10
2. Explain the types of DC motor and write the voltage equation for the same.
The DC motors are classified depending upon the way of connecting the field winding with
the armature winding. The figure 1 shows the various types of DC motors.
DC motor
Let Rsh be the resistance of shunt field winding, Ra is the resistance of armature winding.
The value of Ra is very small while Rsh is large.
Hence shunt field winding has more number of turns with less cross-sectional area.
Voltage Equation:
The voltage across the armature and field winding is equal to the supply voltage. It is given by,
V = Eb + Ia Ra + Vbrush
Where,
Vbrush is generally neglected.
DC SERIES MOTOR:
DC COMPOUND MOTOR:
The compound motor consists of part of the field winding connected in series and part of
the field winding connected in parallel with armature.
---------------------------------&&&&&----------------------------------------------------
All the DC. motors are basically self - starting motors. Whenever the armature and the field winding
of a DC motor receives supply, motoring action takes place. So starter is not required to start a DC
motor but it enables us to start the motor in a desired, safe way.
When a DC motor is directly switched on, at the time of starting, the motor back emf is zero. Due to
this, the armature current is very high (25 times the rated current). Due to the very high current, the
motor gets damaged. To avoid this, a resistance is introduced in series with the armature (for the
duration of starting period only), which limits the starting current to a safe value. The starting
resistance is gradually cut as the motor gains speed and develops the back emf, which then regulates
the speed of the motor.
3 point and 4 point starter are used for DC. Shunt motor. In case of series motor, field and armature
are in series and hence starting resistance is inserted in series with the field and armature. Such a
starter used to limit the starting current in case of DC series motor is called two point starter.
The basic construction of two point starter is similar to that of three point starter except the fact
that it has only two terminals namely Line (L) and Field (F). The F terminal is one end of the series
combination of field and the armature winding. The starter is shown in fig.
13
The handle of the starter is in OFF position. When it is moved to ON, motor gets the supply
(Similar to 3 point starter) and the entire starting resistance is in series with the armature and field.
It limits the starting current.
The current through no volt coil energizes it and when handle reaches to RUN position, the no volt
coil holds the handle by attracting the soft iron piece on the handle. Hence no volt coil is also called
hold on coil.
The main problem in case of DC series motor is its over speeding action when the load is less. This
can be prevented using two point starter. The no volt coil is designed in such a way that it hold the
handle in RUN position only when it carries sufficient current, for which motor can run safely. If
there is loss of load then current drawn by the motor decreases, due to this no volt coil looses its
required magnetism and release the handle.
Under spring force, handle comes back to OFF position, protecting the motor from over speeding.
Similarly if there is any supply problem such that voltage decreases suddenly then also no volt coil
releases the handle and protects the motor from difficult supply conditions.
The over load condition can be prevented using overload release. When motor draws excessively
high current due to overload, then current through overload magnet increases. This energizes the
magnet upto such an extent that it attracts the lever below it.
When lever is lifted upwards, the triangular piece attached to it touches the two point, which are the
two ends of no volt coil. Thus no volt coil gets shorted, loosing its magnetism and releasing the
handle back to OFF position. This protects the motor from overloading conditions.
The Starter is basically a variable resistance, divided into number of sections. The contact points of
these sections are called studs and brought out separately shown as OFF, 1, 2 … up to RUN. There
are three main points of this starter:
14
1. `L` -- line terminal to be connected to positive of supply.
2. `A` -- To be connected to the armature winding.
3. `F` -- To be connected to the field winding.
Point `L`is further connected to an electromagnet called Over Load Release (OLR). The second
end of `OLR` is connected to a point where handle of the starter is pivoted. This handle is free to
move from its other side against the force of the spring. This spring brings back the handle to the
OFF position under the influence of its own force.
Another parallel path is derived from the stud `1`, given to another electromagnet called the No
Volt Coil (NVC). The NVC is further connected to the terminal `F`. The starting resistance is
entirely series with the armature. The OLR and NVC are the protecting devices of the starter.
Operation:
Initially the handle is in the OFF position. The DC supply to the motor is switched on. Then handle
is slowly moved against the spring force to make a contact with stud no.1. At this point, field
winding gets supply through the parallel path provided to starting resistance, through NVC. While
entire starting resistance comes in series with the armature and armature current which is high at
start, gets limited.
As the handle is moved further, it goes on making contact with the studs 2, 3, 4 etc., cutting out the
starting resistance gradually from the armature circuit. Finally when the starter handle is in `RUN`
position, the entire starting resistance gets removed from the armature circuit and motor starts
operating with normal speed. The handle is moved manually.
No Volt Coil:
The NVC consists of thin wire of many turns and is connected in series with the field winding of
the motor. This coil is magnetized when the current flows through the shunt field winding. Its
function is to attract the handle of the starter and keep it in the ON position. It releases the handle
and goes to the OFF position by the spring tension due to the failure of supply and this way
disconnects the motor from the supply.
15
Overload Release Coil:
Its function is to demagnetize the NVC in the case of fault or overload of the machine. It consists of
few turns of thick wire and is connected in series to the armature. This coil will only be sufficiently
magnetized when excessive current flows through the armature due to overload or some fault.
Now the coil attracts the tripping plunger which short circuited the terminal of the NVC. Then the
NVC will be demagnetized and release the starting handle which will come to the OFF position at
once due to the spring tension. Thus the motor stops.
Disadvantages:
In this starter, the NVC and the field winding are in series. So while Controlling the speed of the
motor above rated, field current is reduced by adding the extra resistance in series with the field
winding. Due to this, the current through NVC also reduces. Due to this, magnetism produced by
NVC also reduces.
This may release the handle from its RUN position switching off the motor. To avoid the
dependency of NVC and the field winding, Four Point starter is used, in which NVC and the field
winding are connected in parallel.
The basic difference between three point and four point starter is the connection of NVC. In three
point, NVC is in series with the field winding while in four point starter NVC is connected
independently across the supply through the fourth terminal called ‘N’ in addition to the ‘L’, ‘F’
and ‘A’.
Hence any change in the field current does not affect the performance of the NVC. Thus it is
ensured that NVC always produce a force which is enough to hold the handle in ‘RUN’ position,
against force of the spring, under all the operating conditions. Such a current is adjusted through
16
NVC with the help of fixed resistance R connected in series with the NVC using fourth point ‘N’ as
shown.
Disadvantage:
The only limitation of the four point starter is, it does not provide high speed protection to the
motor. If under running condition, field gets opened, the field current reduces to zero. But there is
some residual flux present and Nα1/φ the motor tries to run with dangerously high speed. This is
called high speeding action.
In three point starter as NVC is in series with the field, under such field failure, NVC releases
handle to the OFF position. But in four point starter NVC is connected directly across the supply
and its current is maintained irrespective of the current through the field winding.
Hence it always maintains handle in the RUN position, as long as supply is there. And thus it does
not protect the motor from field failure conditions which result into the high speeding of the motor.
------------------------------------------------------------------&&&&-----------------------------------------------
4. Explain in details the various methods of speed control in DC motor [May/June-2012, 2017,dec-
2017]
Speed Control of DC Motors:
The speed of a motor is given by the where Ra= Armature Circuit Resistance.
It is obvious that the speed can be controlled by varying
i. Flux/pole, Φ (Flux Control)
ii. Resistance Ra of armature circuit (Rheostatic Control) and
iii. Applied voltage V (Voltage Control).
This method is used when speeds below the no-load speed are required.
As the supply voltage is normally constant, the voltage across the armature is varied by inserting a
variable rheostat in series with the armature circuit.
17
As controller resistance is increased, voltage across the armature is decreased, thereby decreasing
the armature speed.
For a load constant torque, speed is approximately proportional to the voltage across the armature.
From the speed/armature current characteristic, it is seen that greater the resistance in the armature
circuit, greater is the fall in the speed.
In this method, the shunt field of the motor is connected permanently to a fixed exciting voltage,
but the armature is supplied with different voltages by connecting it across one of the several
different voltages by means of suitable switchgear.
The armature speed will be approximately proportional to these different voltages. The intermediate
speeds can be obtained by adjusting the shunt field regulator.
(b) Ward-Leonard System:
This system is used where an unusually wide and very sensitive speed control is required as for
colliery winders, electric excavators, elevators and the main drives in steel mills and blooming and
paper mills. M1 is the main motor whose speed control is required.
The field of this motor is permanently connected across the DC supply lines.
By applying a variable voltage across its armature, any desired speed can be obtained. This variable
voltage is supplied by a motor-generator set which consists of either a DC or an ac motor
M2directly coupled to generator G.
The motor M2 runs at an approximately constant speed. The output voltage of G is directly fed to
the main motorM1.
18
The voltage of the generator can be varied from zero up to its maximum value by means of its field
regulator.
By reversing the direction of the field current of G by means of the reversing switch RS, generated
voltage can be reversed and hence the direction of rotation of M1.
It should be remembered that motor generator set always runs in the same direction.
Speed Control of Series Motors:
Flux Control Method:
Variations in the flux of a series motor can be brought about in any one of the following ways:
(a) Field Diverters:
The series winding are shunted by a variable resistance known as field diverter.
Any desired amount of current can be passed through the diverter by adjusting its resistance.
Hence the flux can be decreased and consequently, the speed of the motor increased.
This method used for fan motors, several speeds can be obtained by regrouping the field coils.
It is seen that for a4-pole motor, three speeds can be obtained easily.
By increasing the resistance in series with the armature the voltage applied across the armature
terminals can be decreased.
With reduced voltage across the armature, the speed is reduced.
However, it will be noted that since full motor current passes through this resistance, there is a
considerable loss of power in it.
---------------------------------------------------------------------&&&&-------------------------------------------
5. Derive the Torque and Speed Equations of the DC Motor.
Torque is turning or twisting moment of a force about an axis. It is measured by the product of
the force and the radius at which this force acts.
Consider a pulley of radius r metre acted upon by a circumferential force of F newton which
causes it to rotate at speed N rpm.
TorqueT = F × 𝑟 Newton − meter(Nm)
Work done by this force in one revolution = Force × distance
= 𝐹 × 2𝜋𝑟 Joules
And
Work done
P = Power developed =
Time
2πr
=F×
Time for one revolution
2𝜋𝑟 2𝜋𝑁
=𝐹× = 𝐹 ×𝑟( )
60𝑁 60
P= T×ω
20
Where T=Torque in Nm
2πN 2πNT
𝜔 = Angular speed in rad/ sec = watts
60 60
21
through resistance R.
This causes the energy possessed by the rotating armature to be dissipated quickly as heat in the
resistance. As a result, the motor is brought to standstill quickly.
It shows dynamic braking of a shunt motor. The braking torque can be controlled by varying the
resistance R. If the value of R is decreased as the motor speed decreases, the braking torque may be
maintained at a high value.
At a low value of speed, the braking torque becomes small and the final stopping of the motor is
due to friction.
2. Plugging:
In this method, connections to the armature are reversed so that motor tends to rotate in the
opposite direction, thus providing the necessary braking effect.
When the motor comes to rest, the supply must be cut off otherwise the motor will start rotating in
the opposite direction.
Armature connections are reversed while the connections of the field winding are kept the same.
As a result the current in the armature reverses. During the normal running of the motor, the back
e.m.f., Eb opposes the applied voltage V.
However, when armature connections are reversed, back e.m.f. Eb and V are in the same direction
around the circuit.
Therefore, a voltage equal to V + Eb is impressed across the armature circuit. Since Eb ~ V, the
impressed voltage is approximately 2V.
22
In order to limit the current to safe value, a variable resistance R is inserted in the circuit at the time
of changing armature connections.
Thus braking torque decreases as the motor slows down. Note that there is some braking torque (TB = k5)
even when the motor speed is zero.
3. Regenerative braking
The motor is run as a generator. As a result, the kinetic energy of the motor is converted into
electrical energy and returned to the supply.
In one method, field winding is disconnected from the supply and field current is increased by
exciting it from another source.
As a result, induced e.m.f. E exceeds the supply voltage V and the machine feeds energy into the
supply.
Thus braking torque is provided up to the speed at which induced e.m.f. and supply voltage are
equal.
As the machine slows down, it is not possible to maintain induced e.m.f. at a higher value than the
supply voltage.
Therefore, this method is possible only for a limited range of speed.
In a second method, the field excitation does not change but the load causes the motor to run above
the normal speed .
As a result, the induced e.m.f. E becomes greater than the supply voltage V.
The direction of armature current I, therefore, reverses but the direction of shunt field current If
remains unaltered.
Hence the torque is reversed and the speed falls until E becomes less than V.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
23
7. Explain testing of DC machine?
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
24
8. Explain in detail about the working Principle of DC motor?
Basically, there is no constructional difference between a DC. motor and a DC. generator. The
same DC. machine can be run as a generator or motor.
DC shunt motor
1. For driving constant speed line shafting.
2. Lathe
3. Centrifugal pumps
25
4. Machine tools
5. Blowers and fans
6. Reciprocating pumps
DC series motor
1. Electric locomotives
2. Rapid transit systems
3. Trolley cars
4. Cranes and hoists
5. Conveyors
DC compound motor
1. Elevators.
2. Heavy planers
3. Rolling mills
4. Air compressor
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10. Swinburne’s Method for Determining Efficiency. Dec – 2016
With the help of neat circuit diagram, explain Swinburne’s test and derive the relations for
efficiency (Both for generator and Motor). May 2017
In this method, the DC. machine (generator or motor) is run as a motor at no load and losses of the
machine are determined. Once the losses of the machine are known, its efficiency at any desired load can
be determined in advance. It may be noted that this method is applicable to those machines in which flux is
practically constant at all loads e.g., shunt and compound machines. Let us see how the efficiency of a DC.
shunt machine (generator or motor) is determined bythis method.
Determination of hot resistances of windings
The armature resistance and shunt field resistance are measured using a battery, voltmeter and
ammeter. Since these resistances are measured when the machine is cold, they must be converted to values
corresponding to the temperature atwhich the machine would work on full-load. Generally, these values
are measured for a temperature rise of 40°C above the room temperature. Let the hot resistances of
armature and shunt field be Ra and Rsh respectively
26
Let V = Supply voltage
I0 = No-load current read by ammeter A1
Ish = Shunt-field current read by ammeter A2
No-load armature current, Ia0 = I0– Ish
No-load input power to motor = V I0
No-load power input to armature = V Ia0 = V(I0– Ish)
Since the output of the motor is zero, the no-load input power to the armature supplies (a) iron
losses in the core (b) friction loss (c) windage loss (d) armature Cu loss [Ia02Raor (I0– Ish )2Ra] .
Constant losses, WC = Input to motor – Armature Cu loss
WC = V I0–(I0 – Ish)2 Ra
Since constant losses are known, the efficiency of the machine at any other load can be determined.
Suppose it is desired to determine the efficiency of the machine at load current I. Then,
Armature current, Ia = I – Ish ... if the machine is motoring
= I + Ish ... if the machine is generating
Efficiency when running as a motor
Input power to motor = VI
Armature Cu loss = Ia2Ra= (I – Ish )2Ra
Constant losses = WC
Total losses = (I – Ish )2Ra+ WC
Input – Losses VI –(I – Ish )2 Ra + WC
Motor efficiency,ηm= =
Input VI
Efficiency when running as a generator
Output of generator = VI
Armature Cu loss =Ia2Ra= (I + Ish )2Ra
Constant losses = WC
Total losses = (I + Ish )2Ra + WC
Output VI
Generator efficiency, ηg = = VI+(I + Ish )2 Ra + WC
Output+Losses
Advantages of Swinburne’s test
(i) The power required to carry out the test is small because it is a no-load test. Therefore, this
method is quite economical.
The efficiency can be determined at any load because constant losses are known.
This test is very convenient.
Disadvantages of Swinburne’s test
1. It does not take into account the stray load losses that occur when the machine is loaded.
2. This test does not enable us to check the performance of the machine on full-load. For example,
it does not indicate whether commutation on full load is satisfactory and whether the
temperature rise is within the specified limits.
3. This test does not give quite accurate efficiency of the machine. It is because iron losses under
actual load are greater than those measured. This is mainly due to armature reaction distorting
the field.
-----------------------------------------------------------&&&&&-------------------------------------------
27
11. Regenerative or Hopkinson’s-Test (May 2016)
This method of determining the efficiency of a DC machine saves power and gives more accurate
results. In order to carry out this test, we require two identical DC machines and a source of electrical
power.
Principle
Two identical DC shunt machines are mechanically coupled and connected in parallel across the
DC supply. By adjusting the field excitations of the machines, one is run as a motor and the other as a
generator. The electric power from the generator and electrical power from the DC supply are fed to the
motor. The electric power given to the motor is mostly converted into mechanical power, the rest going to
the various motor losses. This mechanical power is given to the generator. The electrical power of the
generator is given to the motor except that which is wasted as generator losses. Thus the electrical power
taken from the DC supply is the sum of motor and generator losses and this can be measured directly by a
voltmeter and an ammeter. Since the power input from the DC supply is equal to the power required to
supply the losses of the two machines, this test can be carried out with a small amount of power. By
adjusting the field strengths of the machines, any load can be put on the machines. Therefore, we can
measure the total loss of the machines at any load. Since the machines can be tested under full-load
conditions (of course at the expense of power equal I losses in the two machines), the temperatures rise and
commutation qualities of the machines can be observed.
Circuit
The essential connections for Hopkinson’s test. Two identical DC shunt machines are mechanically
coupled and are connected in parallel across the DC supply. By adjusting the field strengths of the two
machines, the machine M is made to run as a motor and machine G as a generator. The motor M draws
current I1 from the generator G and current I2 from the DC supply so that input current to motor M is (I1 +
I2). Power taken from the DC supply is VI2and is equal to the total motor and generator losses. The field
current of motor M is I4 and that of generator G is I3.
Calculations
If V be the supply voltage, then,
Motor input = V(I1 + I2)
Generator output = VI1
28
We shall find the efficiencies of the machines considering two cases viz. assuming that both
machines have the same efficiency h (ii) assuming iron, friction and windage losses are the same in both
machines.
(i) Assuming that both machines have the same efficiency η
Motor output = ɳ × motor input = ɳ V(I1 + I2) = Generator input
Generator output = η × generator input = η × η V(I1 + I2) = η 2 V(I1 + I2)
But generator output is VI1
η 2V(I1 + I2) = VI1
𝐼1
𝜂 = √𝐼
1 +𝐼2
This expression gives the value of efficiency sufficiently accurate for a rough test. However, if
accuracy is required, the efficiencies of the two machines should be calculated separately as below.
(ii) Assuming that iron, friction and windage losses are same in both machines.
It is not to assume that the two machines have the same efficiency. I because armature and field in
the two machines are not the same. However, iron, friction and windage losses in the two machines will be
the same because the machines are identical. On this assumption, we can find the of each machine as
under:
Let Ra = armature resistance of each machine
I3 = field current of generator G
I4 = field current of motor M
Armature Cu loss in generator = (I1 + I3)2Ra
Armature Cu loss in motor = (I1 + I2 - I4)2Ra
Shunt Cu loss in generator = V I3
Shunt Cu loss in motor = V I4
Power drawn from the DC supply is VI2 and is equal to the total losses of the motor and generator
VI2 = Total losses of motor and generator
If we subtract armature and shunt Cu losses of the two machines from VI2, we get iron, friction
windage losses of the two machines.
Iron, friction and windage losses of two machines (M and G)
= 𝑉𝐼2 − [(𝐼1 + 𝐼3 )2 𝑅𝑎 + (𝐼1 + 𝐼2 − 𝐼4 )2 𝑅𝑎 + 𝑉𝐼3 + 𝑉𝐼4 ] = 𝑊(𝑆𝑎𝑦)
Iron, friction and windage losses of each machine = W/2
For generator
𝒐𝒖𝒕 𝒑𝒖𝒕 𝒐𝒇 𝒈𝒆𝒏𝒆𝒓𝒂𝒕𝒐𝒓 = 𝑉𝐼1
W
𝑻𝒐𝒕𝒂𝒍 𝒍𝒐𝒔𝒔𝒆𝒔 = + (I1 + I3 )2 𝑅𝑎 + 𝑉𝐼3 = 𝑊𝑔
2
𝑉𝐼1
𝑮𝒆𝒏𝒆𝒓𝒂𝒕𝒐𝒓 𝒆𝒇𝒇𝒊𝒄𝒊𝒆𝒏𝒄𝒚 = 𝜼𝒈 =
𝑉𝐼1 + 𝑊𝑔
For motor
𝒊𝒏𝒑𝒖𝒕 𝒕𝒐 𝒎𝒐𝒕𝒐𝒓 = 𝑽(𝐼1 + 𝐼2 )
W
𝑻𝒐𝒕𝒂𝒍 𝒍𝒐𝒔𝒔𝒆𝒔 = (𝐼1 + 𝐼2 − 𝐼4 )2 𝑅𝑎 + 𝑉𝐼4 + = Wm
2
Input − LOsses 𝑽(𝐼1 + 𝐼2 ) − 𝑊𝑚
𝑀𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟 𝑒𝑓𝑓𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑦 ηm = =
Input 𝑽(𝐼1 + 𝐼2 )
29
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12. Explain in detail the construction and working operation of retardation test on DC
motor?(Nov-Dec 2015)
This method is generally employed to shunt generators and shunt motors. From this method we can get
stray losses. Thus if armature and shunt copper losses at any given load current are known then efficiency
of a machine can be easily estimated.
The connections required for conducting this test are shown in the Fig. 1.
The machine whose test is to be taken is run at a speed which is slightly above its normal speed. The
supply to the motor is cut off while the field is kept excited. The armature consequently slows down and its
kinetic energy is used in supplying the rotational or stray losses which includes iron, friction and winding
loss.
If I is the amount of inertia of the armature and ωis the angular velocity.
Kinetic energy of armature = 0.5 Iω2
... Rotational losses, W = Rate of change of kinetic energy
30
Fig. 2
At any point C corresponding to normal speed, a tangent AB is drawn. Then
𝑑𝑁 𝑂𝐴(𝑖𝑛 𝑟𝑝𝑚)
=
𝑑𝑡 𝑂𝐵(𝑖𝑛 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑡𝑠)
The value obtained from above can be substituted in the expression for W which can give the
rotational looses.
Determination of moment of inertia (I)
Method (a) Using Flywheel
The armature supply is cut off and time required for definite change in speed is noted to draw the
corresponding curve as we have drawn in previous case. This curve is drawn considering only armature of
the machine. Now a flywheel with known moment of the inertia say is I1 keyed onto the shaft and the
same curve is drawn again. The slowing down time will be extended as combined moment of inertia of the
two is increased.
For any given speed (dN/dt1) and (dN/dt2) are determined same as previous case. It can be seen that
the losses in both the cases are almost same as addition of flywheel will not make much difference to the
losses.
In the first case where flywheel is not there then,
2𝜋 2 𝑑𝑁
𝑊 = ( ) 𝐼𝑁
60 𝑑𝑡1
Adding the flywheel to the motor armature in second case we get,
2𝜋 2 𝑑𝑁
𝑊 = ( ) (𝐼 + 𝐼1 )𝑁
60 𝑑𝑡1
𝑑𝑁 𝑑𝑁
𝐼𝑁 = (𝐼 + 𝐼1 )𝑁
𝑑𝑡1 𝑑𝑡2
𝑑𝑁
(𝐼 + 𝐼1 ) 𝑑𝑡1
= 𝑑𝑁
𝐼
𝑑𝑡2
𝑑𝑁
(𝐼 + 𝐼1 )
𝑑𝑡2
𝐼= 𝑑𝑁
𝑑𝑡1
𝑑𝑁
𝑑𝑡2 𝑑𝑡1
𝐼 = 𝐼1 × 𝑑𝑁 𝑑𝑁 = 𝐼1 ×
− 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡2 − 𝑑𝑡1
𝑑𝑡1 2
𝑡1
𝐼 = 𝐼1 ×
𝑡2 − 𝑡1
31
Method (b) Without using Flywheel
In this method time is noted for the machine to slow down by say 5 % considering the armature alone.
The a retarding torque either mechanical or electrical is applied. Preferably electrical retarding torque is
applied and time required to slow down by 5% is noted again. The method by which electrical torque can
be provided is shown in the Fig. 1 in which the switch S after disconnecting from the supply is thrown to
terminals 1'2'. The machine then gets connected to a non-inductive load resistance RL. The power drawn by
this resistance will acts as a retarding torque on the armature which will make it slow more quickly.
The additional loss in the resistance will be equal to product of ammeter reading and the average
reading of the voltmeter (for a fall of 5% of voltmeter reading, the time is noted.) The ammeter reading is
also changing so its average reading is taken. Thus the additional losses is Ia2 (Ra + R). Let t1 be the time
when armature is considered alone and t2 be the time when armature is connected across a load resistance,
V be average voltage across R and Ia be the average current and W' is additional retarding electrical torque
supplied by motor.
2𝜋 2 𝑑𝑁
𝑊 = ( ) 𝐼𝑁
60 𝑑𝑡1
2
2𝜋 𝑑𝑁
𝑊 + 𝑊 ′ = ( ) 𝐼𝑁
60 𝑑𝑡2
If dN i.e. change in speed is same in two cases then
1
𝑊 + 𝑊′ 𝑑𝑡2 𝑑𝑡1 𝑡1
= 1 = =
𝑊 𝑑𝑡2 𝑡2
𝑑𝑡1
(𝑊 + 𝑊 ′ )𝑡2 = 𝑊𝑡1
𝑊(𝑡1 − 𝑡2 ) = 𝑊 ′ 𝑡2
𝑡2
𝑊 = 𝑊′
𝑡1 − 𝑡2
Here dN/dt1 is rate of change in speed without extra load whereas dN/dt2 is rate change in speed with
extra electrical load which provides retarding torque.
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
13. Derive in detail the condition for maximum efficiency of DC Machines?(Nov-Dec 2015)
For a DC. machine, its overall efficiency is given by,
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑝𝑢𝑡
%𝜂 = × 100
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑖𝑛𝑝𝑢𝑡
Let Pout = total output of a machine
Pin = total input of a machine
Pcu = variable losses
Pi = constant losses
then Pin = Pout + Pcu + Pi
𝑃𝑜𝑢𝑡 𝑃𝑜𝑢𝑡
%𝜂 = × 100 = × 100
𝑃𝑖𝑛 𝑃𝑜𝑢𝑡 + 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠𝑒𝑠
𝑃𝑜𝑢𝑡
%𝜂 = × 100
𝑃𝑖𝑛 + 𝑃𝑐𝑢 + 𝑃𝑖
Condition for Maximum Efficiency
In case of a DC. generator the output is given by,
Pout = VI
32
Pcu = variable losses = I2 Ra = I2 Ra
Ia = I .................. neglecting shunt field current
𝑉𝐼 1
∴ %𝜂 = 2
× 100 = 𝐼𝑅 𝑃
× 100
𝑉𝐼 + 𝐼 𝑅𝑎 + 𝑃𝑖 1 + ( 𝑎 + 𝑖)
𝑉 𝑉𝐼
The efficiency is maximum, when the denominator is minimum. According to maxima-minima
theorem,
𝑑 𝐼𝑅𝑎 𝑃𝑖
[1 + ( + )] = 0
𝑑𝑡 𝑉 𝑉𝐼
𝐼𝑅𝑎 𝑃𝑖
+ 2=0
𝑉 𝑉𝐼
𝐼𝑎2 𝑅𝑎 − 𝑃𝑖 = 0
𝐼𝑎2 𝑅𝑎 = 𝑃𝑖 = 𝑃𝑐𝑢
Thus for the maximum efficiency, the condition is,
Variable losses = Constant losses
Current at Maximum Efficiency
From the condition of maximum efficiency, the current through the DC. machine at the time of of
maximum efficiency can be obtained.
For shunt machines : The Ish is constant and the loss VIsh is treated to be the part of constant losses.
The variable losses are Ia2 Ra.
At maximum efficiency,
Ia2 Ra = Pi = (Stray + shunt field losses)
𝑃𝑖 𝐶𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠𝑒𝑠
𝐼𝑎 = √ =√
𝑅𝑎 𝐴𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
This is the armature current at maximum efficiency. Neglecting Ish, Ia = IL is the line current of the
machine.
For series machines : The current through series field is same as armature current which is same as line
current. Hence the constant losses are only mechanical losses while the variable losses are the copper
losses in armature as well as series field winding due to the armature current.
At maximum efficiency,
Ia2 ( Ra + Rse) = Pi = Mechanical losses
𝑃𝑖
𝐼𝑎 = √
𝑅𝑎 + 𝑅𝑠𝑒
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
14. Draw the circuit model of DC machine?
The parallel path of DC machine armature is symmetrical and each has an induced emf Ea and
resistance Rp. The armature can be represented by the circuit model with voltage Ea and series
resistance. Ra=Rp/A. The armature resistance is quite small so as to limit the copper loss in acceptable
value. The field coil placed 90 °the brush axis as per the actual arrangement in the machine. The
voltage drop at brush commutator contact is fixed, independent of armature current as the conduction
process is mainly through numerous short arcs. However this voltage being small is modeled as linear
resistance and lumped with Ra
33
Generating mode:
If the machine operates in generating mode when Ia is in the direction of induced emf Ea. For
the armature circuit
V=Ea-IaRa; Ea>V
Motoring mode:
V(terminal voltage)=Ea +IaRa; V>Ea
The electrical power converted to mechanical form is
Pelec(in)/net –EaIa=Pmech(out)/gross
The electrical power input is Pi=Via
VIa-EaIa=Ia2Ra=armature copper loss
Pmech(out)/net =shaft power =Pmech(out)/gross - rotational loss
Torque T of electromagnetic origin is the direction of rotation of armature. i.e mechanical power is putout
and is absorbed by the load.
The conductor emf and current are also in the opposite direction for motoring mode.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
34
Problem
15. A 250V DC shunt motor has Rf=150 and Ra=0.6. The motor operates on no-load with a full
field flux at its base speed of 100rpm with Ia=5A.If the machine drives a load requiring a torque of
100Nm, cal. Armature current and speed of motor. If the motor is required to develop 10 KW at
1200rpm what is the required value of the external series resistance in the field circuit? Assume
linear magnetization saturation and armature reaction. (May-2011)
Given: Rf=150, Ra=0.6, V=250V, Ia0=5A
Ebo Iao
Formula used: Ebo = V − Iao R a , Tao = 2πNo ,
60
Soln:
Rf=150, Ra=0.6, V=250V, Ia0=5A
V 250
Ish = R = 150 = 1.667
f
247×5
= 2π×1000
60
Tao = 11.793Nm
Now T∝ ∅Ia
T ∝ Ia (∅ constant for shunt motor)
Tao I
= Iao 𝐰𝐡𝐞𝐫𝐞Ta1 → New torque = 100Nm
Ta1 a1
𝟏𝟏.𝟕𝟗𝟑 5
=I
𝟏𝟎𝟎 a1
N∝ Eb
𝐍𝟎 E
= Eb0
𝐍𝟏 b1
𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎 247
= 224.56
𝐍𝟏
N1 = 909.16 rpm.
Now motor is required to develop 12 kw at 1200rpm with an external resistance Rx in the field circuit.
N2 = 1200 rpm
Power developed by the motor is
35
Pm = 12 kw.
Pm = Eb2 Ia2 = power developed
12 × 103 = [V − Ia2 R a ]Ia2
2 (0.6)]
12 × 103 = [250Ia2 − Ia2
2 (0.6)
250Ia2 − Ia2 − 12 × 103 = 0
2
0.6Ia2 − 250Ia2 + 12 × 103 = 0
Ia2 = 55.35A (Neglect higher value)
Eb
𝑁∝
∅
Eb
𝑁∝
Ish
N1 Eb1 Ish2
= × I = Ish1
N2 Eb2 Ish1 sh
909.16 224.56 Ish2
= × E = V − Ia2 R a = 216.79
1200 216.79 1.67 b2
Ish2 = 1.219A
V
But Ish2 =
R sh + R x
250
1.219 =
150 + R x
R x = 55.05Ω
-------------------------------------------------------------&&&&&-----------------------------------------------------
16. A220V,7.5Kw series motor is mechanically coupled to a fan. When running at 400 rpm
the motor draws 30A from the mains(220V).The torque required by the fan is proportional
to the square of speed Ra=0.6𝜴,Rse=0.4Ω. Neglect armature and rotational loss. Also assume
the magnetization characteristics of the motor to be linear
i)Determine the power delivered to the fan and torque developed by the motor.
ii)Cal. The external resistance to be added in series to the armature circuit to reduce
the fan speed to 200 rpm.(April/May-2011)
Given: 220V,7.5Kw,N=400,I=30A, Ra=0.6𝛺,Rse=0.4Ω
Formula used:
Pdev = P(no rotational loss)
P=Ea Ia
Tdev = K ′a K f Ise Ia = K ′a K f Ia2 Isc = Ia for linear 36dentical36ion.
Tfin = K fn2
Tdev = Tfin = T &Ia ∝ n
Solution:
36
Operation at 400 rpm (R ext = 0)
Ea = 220 − (0.6 + 0.4) × 30
Ea = 190V
P = 190 × 30
P=5.7Kw
2πNT
Tw = Ea Ia or P = 60
P × 60
T=
2πN
5.7 × 103
T= = 136 Nm
2π × 400
ii)Operation at 200rpm (R ext =? )
200 2
T = 136 × ( ) = 34 Nm
400
200
Ia = 30 × = 15A
400
2πNT
P= = Ea Ia
60
2π × 200
34 ( ) = [220 − (0.6 + 0.4 + R ext )]15
60
R ext = 10.5Ω
2π × 200
P = TW = 34 ( )
60
P=0.721Kw
----------------------------------------------------------------&&&&&---------------------------------------------------
17. A series motor of resistance 1 Ω between terminals runs at 800rpm at 200V with a current of
15A. Find the speed at which it will run when connected in series with a 5Ω resistance and taking the
same current at the same supply voltage.(Nov/Dec-2010)
Soln.
N2 E I a1
= Ea2 × I N1 = 800rpm
N1 a1 a2
N2 110 15
= 185 × 15 = 476 rpm Ea2= V − Ia2 R a = 200 − 15 × 6 = 110 (5 Ω connected in series)
800
37
18. Two shunt generator running in parallel supply a total load of 300A. The generators have
armature resistances 0.5 and 0.03, field resistance 20 and 25 and induced emf’s 400 and 380V
respectively. Determine of o/p of each generator in Kw Make a comment on load
sharing?(May2005).
Given:
I=300, armature resistances 0.5 and 0.03, field resistance 20 and 25, induced emf’s 400 and 380V
Formula used:
Eg1 = V + Ia1 R a1
Eg2 = V + Ia2 R a2
Solution:
I1 + I2 = 300: I2 = 300 − I1
V V
Ish1 = =
R sh1 30
V V
Ish2 = =
R sh2 25
V V V
Ia1 = I1 + ∶ Ia2 = I2 + = (300 − I1 ) +
30 25 25
For each generator, Eg = V + Ia R a
Eg1 = V + Ia1 R a1
Eg2 = V + Ia2 R a2
V
400 = V + [I1 + ] (0.5) − − − − − − − − − − − − − − − − − − − − − 1
30
V
380 = V + [I2 + ] (0.03) − − − − − − − − − − − − − − − − − − − 2
25
0.5V
400 = 0.5I1 + +V
30
0.5V
0.5I1 = 400 − − V = 400 − 1.0616V − − − − − 3
30
V 0.03V
380 = V + [I2 + ] (0.03) = V + 0.03I2 +
25 25
380 = 1.0012V + 0.03(300 − I1 ) = 1.0012V + 9 − 0.03I1
0.03I1 = −371 + 1.0012V
0.3I1 = −1.0012V − 371 − − − − − − − − − − − − − −4
Sub 3 and 4
I1 = 43.911A
V=371.871V
I2 = 256.089A
VI1 = 16.3292kw, VI2 = 95.232kw
----------------------------------------------------------------&&&&&-----------------------------------------------
38
19. A 4 pole lap connected DC machine has 540 armature conductors. If the flux per pole is 0.03 wb
and runs at 1500 rpm, determine the emf generated. If this machine is driven as a shunt generator
with the same flux and speed, calculate the terminal voltage when it 39 identical load resistance of
40Ω, Given armature resistance is 2Ω and shunt field circuit resistance of 450Ω, Also field the load
current?(May/June2007)
Given: P=4, lap i.e A=P, Z=540
Φ=0.03wb, N=1500rpm, Ra=2Ω,Rsh=450Ω
ΦPNZ
Formula used: Eg= , Vt=Eg − Ia R a , Ia = IL + Ish
60A
Solution:
Vt=Eg − Ia R a ----------------------1
V V
IL = R t = 40t -------------------------2
L
V V
Ish = R t = 450
t
---------------------3
sh
V V
Ia = IL + Ish = 40t +450
t
Ia = 0.027222 Vt ------------------4
Substituting in equation 1
Vt = Eg − 0.027222Vt × R a
(𝟏 + 0.027222 × 2)Vt = 405
Vt = 384.088V
Vt 384.088
IL = =
40 40
IL = 9.6022A
---------------------------------------------------------------&&&&-------------------------------------------
20. Two DC generator are connected in parallel to supply a load of 1500A.one generator has an
armature resistance of 0.5 and an emf of 400V while the other has an armature resistance of
0.04and an emf of 440V. The resistance of shunt field are 100 and 80respectively. Calculate the
currents supplied by the individual generator and the terminal voltage. (Nov/Dec-2008)
Solution:
39
I=I1 + I2 = 1500 -------------------------- 1
I2 = 1500 − I1
Vt V
Ish1 = 100 ; Ish2 = 80t
Vt
Ia1 = I1 + Ish1 = I1 +
100
Vt Vt
Ia2 = I2 + Ish2 = I2 + = 1500 − I1 +
80 80
For each machine, E=V+Ia R a
E1=Vt + Ia1 R a
E2 =Vt + Ia2 R a
t V
400=Vt + (I1 + 100 ) × 0.5
V
440= Vt + (1500 − I1 + 80t ) × 0.04
40
21. A 12 pole DC generator has a simple wave wound armature containing 144 coils of 10 turns
each. The resistance of each turn is 0.011.Its flux per pole is 0.05wb and it is running at a speed of
200rpm calculate the individual armature voltage and the effective armature resistance. Nov/Dec-
2010.
Given:
P=12,144 coils, wave i.e A=2, 10 turns/coil
Resistance of each turn=0.011,∅=0.05wb.
𝜙𝑃𝑁𝑍
Formula used: 𝐸𝑔 = 60𝐴
Solution:
P=12,144 coils, wave i.e A=2, 10 turns/coil
Resistance of each turn=0.011,∅=0.05wb.
Total turns=144× 10=1440
Z=total conductors=1440×2=2880
𝜙𝑃𝑁𝑍 0.05 × 12 × 200 × 2880
𝐸𝑔 = = = 2880𝑉
60𝐴 60 × 2
For A=2 parallel plates, there are 2880/2=1440 conductors per parallel path
i.e 720 turns per parallel path
Resistance/parallel path=720× 0.011=7.92
Such two paths in parallel, hence Ra=7.92/17.92
Ra=3.96
--------------------------------------------------------&&&&---------------------------------------------------------
22. A 100Kw DC shunt generator driven by a belt from an engine runs at 750 rpm and is connected
to 230v DC mains. When the belt breaks, it continues to run as a motor drawing 9 kw from the
mains. At what speed would it run? Given: Armature resistance = 0.018 and field resistance =
115[Nov/Dec-2013].
Given: Pout=100Kw=100× 103 Watts
N1 = 750 rpm,V=230V
V
Formula used: Ish = R , Ia = IL + Ish , Eg = V + Ia R a
sh
When DC machine runs as generator
Pout=100Kw=100× 103 Watts
N1 = 750 rpm,V=230V
pout 100×1000
Load current IL = = =434.78A
V 230
V 230
Ish = R = 115 = 2A
sh
Ia = IL + Ish
=434.78+2=436.78A
Eg = V + Ia R a
41
=230+(436.78× 0.018)
=237.86V
When DC machines runs as motor
Pout=9Kw=9× 103 W
N2 =?
pout 9×103
Load current IL = = =39.13A
V 230
V 230
Ish = R = 115 = 2A
sh
Ia = IL − Ish
=39.13-2=37.13A
Eb = V − Ia R a
=230+(436.78× 0.018)
=229.33V
N∝ E (For shunt motor)
N2 E 2 N
= Eb =750 = 229.33/237.86 =723.10 r.p.m
N1 g
N2 =723.10 r.p.m
------------------------------------------------------&&&&------------------------------------------------------
23. A 400 Volts DC shunt motor has a no load speed of 1450 RPM, the line current being 9 amperes.
At full loaded conditions, the line current is 75 A. If the shunt field resistance is 200 ohms and
armature resistance is 0.5 ohm. Calculate the full load speed.(May-June 2015)
Given data:
V=400 V ; N=1450 Rpm; Il=9 A; Il=75 A(At full load );Rsh=200 ohm; Ra=0.5 ohm
Solutions:
𝐼𝑎 = 𝐼𝐿 − 𝐼𝑆ℎ
𝐼𝑎 = 7 𝐴
𝑉 − 𝐼𝑎 𝑅𝑎 = 𝐾. 𝑁1
400-3.5=K.1450
K=0.27344
At full Load:
𝐼𝑎 = 75 − 2 = 73 𝐴
𝑉 − 𝐼𝑎 𝑅𝑎 = 𝐾. 𝑁2
400 − (73 × 0.5) = 𝑁2 (0.27344)
𝑵𝟐 = 𝟏𝟑𝟐𝟗 𝑹𝒑𝒎.
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24. A 230 V DC shunt motor on no-load runs at a speed of 1200 RPM and draws a current of 4.5
Amperes. The armature and shunt Field resistance are 0.3 ohm and 230 ohm respectively. Calculate
the back EMF induced and speed, When loaded and drawing a current of 36 A.(May-June 2015)
Given data:
V=230 V ; N=1200 Rpm; Il=4.5 A; Rsh=230 ohm; Ra=0.3 ohm
Find:
42
i. Back EMF
ii. Speed
Solutions:
𝐼𝑎 = 𝐼𝐿 − 𝐼𝑆ℎ
𝐼𝑎 = 3.5𝐴
𝑉 − 𝐼𝑎 𝑅𝑎 = 𝐾. 𝑁
230 − 1.05 = 𝐾. 1200
𝑲 = 𝟎. 𝟏𝟗𝟎𝟕
In Load:
𝐼𝑎 = 36 𝐴
𝑉 − 𝐼𝑎 𝑅𝑎 = 𝐾. 𝑁
230 − 10.8 = 0.1907𝑁
230 − 10.8
𝑁=
0.1907
𝑵 = 𝟏𝟏𝟒𝟗. 𝟒 𝑹𝒑𝒎.
Eb = V − Ia R a
Eb = 230 − (10.8)
𝑬𝒃 = 𝟐𝟏𝟗. 𝟗𝟐 𝑽.
25. The no – load test of a 44.76 Kw, 220V, DC. shunt motor gave the following figure:
Input current = 13.25A, field current = 2.55A, Resistance of the armature at 75 oC = 0.032Ω and
brush drop = 2V. Estimate the full load current and efficiency. (May 2016)
No load condition:
If Ia is the full load armature current, the full load motor input current is (Ia + 2.55)A.
Ia = 223.5A
Line current I = Ia + Ish = 223.5+ 2.55 = 226A
Full load input power = 226 × 220 = 49720 W
Full load efficiency = 44.760 × 103/ 49720
= 90%
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26. Ina Hopkinson’s testonapairof500V,100kW shunt generator. The following data was obtained:
Auxiliarysupply30Aat500V;Generator output current200A;Fieldcurrent3.5Aand 1.8 A; ra = 0.075
Ω for each machine; voltage drop at brushes = 2 V/machine; calculate the efficiency of the machine
as a generator. Dec - 2016
Solution
Motor armature copper loss = 𝐼𝑎2 𝑅𝑎 + 𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠 𝑑𝑢𝑒 𝑡𝑜 𝑏𝑟𝑢𝑠ℎ 𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑝
= (230)2 × 0.075 + 230 × 2 = 4428 W
2
Motor field copper loss = 𝐼𝑠ℎ 𝑅𝑠ℎ = 𝑉 𝐼𝑠ℎ =500 × 1.8 = 900 W
Generator armature copper loss = (200)2× 0.075 + 200 × 2 = 3400 W
Generator field copper loss = 500 × 3.5 = 1750 W.
Total copper loss for 2 machines = 4428 + 900 + 3400 + 1750 = 10478 W
Power drawn = 500 × 30 = 15000 W
Therefore stray loss for the two machines = 15000 – 10478 = 4522 W
4522
Stray loss / machine = = 2261 W
2
Therefore total losses in generator = 3400 + 1750 + 2261 = 7411 W
Generator output = 500 X 200 = 100000 W
100000
Therefore ɳgenerator = = 93.09 %
100000+7411
44
27.A440VD.C.shunt motor takes 4A at no load. Its armature and field resistance are 0.4 ohms and
220ohms respectively .Estimate the KW output and efficiency when the motor takes 60A on full
load(May-2018)
Given: V=440V,I=4A, 𝑅𝑎 = 0.4&220,I
To find: KW output
𝑉 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑝𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟
Formula used: 𝐼𝑠ℎ = 𝑅 , 𝜂𝑚𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟 = 𝐼𝑛𝑝𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟
𝑠ℎ
Solution:
No load input power = V𝐼0
= 440 × 4 = 1760W
𝑉 440
𝐼𝑠ℎ = = = 2𝐴
𝑅𝑠ℎ 220
No load armature current 𝐼𝑎0 = 𝐼0 − 𝐼𝑠ℎ
= 4 − 2 = 2A
2
No load armature CU losses = 𝐼𝑎0 𝑅𝑎 = 22 × 0.4 = 1.6𝑊
𝐶𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠𝑒𝑠 = 𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑖𝑛𝑝𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 − No load armature CU losses
= 1760 − 1.6 = 1758.4𝑊
Efficiency when machine working as a motor
𝐿𝑖𝑛𝑒 𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝐼𝑙 = 60𝐴
Armature current 𝐼𝑎 = 𝐼𝑙 − 𝐼𝑠ℎ
= 60 − 2 = 58𝐴
Armature CU losses = 𝐼𝑎2 𝑅𝑎 = (58)2 × 0.4 = 1345.6𝑊
Total losses = Armature CU losses + Constant loss
= 1345.6 + 1758.4 = 3104W
𝐼𝑛𝑝𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 = 𝑉𝐼𝐿
= 440 × 60 = 26400𝑊
𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑝𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 = 𝐼𝑛𝑝𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 − 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠𝑒𝑠
= 26400 − 3104 = 23296𝑊
𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑝𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 23296
𝜂𝑚𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑟 = = × 100 = 88.24%
𝐼𝑛𝑝𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 26400
Efficiency when machine working as a generator
𝐼𝑛𝑝𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 = 𝑉𝐼𝐿 = 26400𝑊
Armature current 𝐼𝑎 = 𝐼𝑙 + 𝐼𝑠ℎ
= 60 + 2 = 62𝐴
Armature CU losses = 𝐼𝑎2 𝑅𝑎 = (62)2 × 0.4 = 1537.6𝑊
Total losses = Armature CU losses + Constant loss
= 1537.6 + 1758.4 = 3296W
𝐼𝑛𝑝𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 = 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑝𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 + 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠𝑒𝑠
= 26400 + 3296
= 29696
𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑝𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 26400
𝜂𝑔𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑜𝑟 = = × 100 = 88.90%
𝐼𝑛𝑝𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 29696
28.Determine developed torque and shaft torque of 220V, 4pole series motor with 800 conductors
wave-connected supplying a load of 8.2 kW by taking 45A from the mains. The flux per pole is
25mwb and its armature circuit resistance is 0.6Ω(May-2018)
Given:V=220v,Z=800,P=8.2KW, 𝛷 = 25mwb, 𝑅𝑎 = 0.6
𝑃 𝛷𝑍𝑁 𝑃 𝑜𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑢𝑡 𝑖𝑛 𝑊𝑎𝑡𝑡𝑠
Formula used: 𝑇𝑎 = 0.159𝛷𝑍𝐼𝑎 (𝐴) , 𝐸𝑏 = 60 (𝐴) , 𝑇𝑠ℎ = 2𝜋𝑁
60
45
Solution:
𝑃
𝐴𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒 𝑇𝑜𝑟𝑞𝑢𝑒 𝑇𝑎 = 0.159𝛷𝑍𝐼𝑎 ( )
𝐴
4
= 0.159 × 25 × 10−3 × 800 × 45 ( ) = 286.2 𝑁𝑀
2
𝐸𝑏 = 𝑉 − 𝐼𝑎 𝑅𝑎 = 220 − 45 × 0.6 = 193𝑉
𝛷𝑍𝑁 𝑃
𝐸𝑏 = ( )
60 𝐴
25 × 10−3 × 800 × 𝑁 4
𝐸𝑏 = ( )
60 2
11580 = 40𝑁
11580
𝑁= = 289.5 𝑟𝑝𝑚
40
𝑜𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑢𝑡 𝑖𝑛 𝑊𝑎𝑡𝑡𝑠
∴ 𝑇𝑠ℎ = 2𝜋𝑁
60
8.2 × 10−3
2𝜋×289.5 = 270.618𝑁𝑀
60
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PART – C – Question (May 2017)
1. A shunt motor runs at 600 rpm from 250V supply and takes a line current of 50A. Its
armature and field resistances are 0.4 and 125 respectively. Neglecting the effects of armature
reaction and allowing 2V brush drop. Calculate (i) The no – load speed if the no-load line
current is 5A (ii) The percentage reduction in flux per pole in order that the speed may be 800
rpm when the armature current is 40A.
Given data: N2 = 600 rpm, V= 250V, IL= 50A, Ra = 0.4 Ω
Rsh = 125 Ω, brush drop = 2V
𝑉
Formula used: 𝐼𝑆ℎ = 𝑅 ,Iao = Io – Ish, Eb1 = V - Ia0Ra, Ia = IL -Ish
𝑆ℎ
Solution:
𝑉
Shunt field current 𝐼𝑆ℎ = 𝑅 = 250/125 = 2A
𝑆ℎ
No – load armature current Iao = Io – Ish= 5 - 2 = 3A
Back emf at no-load Eb1 = V - Ia0Ra= 250 - 3× 0.4 = 248.8V
Armature current Ia = IL -Ish = 50-2 = 48A
Back emf at full load Eb2 = V - IaRa= 250 – 48 ×0.4 = 230.8V
Here, flux is constant, then speed equation becomes
𝑁1 𝐸𝑏1
= 𝐸𝑏2
𝑁2
𝑁1 248.8
= 230.8
600
N1 = 646.8 rpm
46
800 234 ɸ1
= ×
646.8 248.8 ∅ ɸ2
∅2 = 0.76 ∅1
47