IvM 6 2023
IvM 6 2023
Intrinsic
Fairly valued: value = Hold
market price
Intrinsic Sell or
Overvalued: value <
market price Don’t buy
Valuation Models
• Price ratios
• Price-to-earnings ratio
Relative • Price-to-book-value ratio
Valuation • Price-to-sales ratio
Models
• Enterprise value multiples
• Enterprise value to EBITDA
Misconceptions about Valuation
◦ Source: Damodaran
DCF Valuation
The value of an asset is the present value of its expected cash flows
Dt
V0
FCFt
V0
t 1 (1 r ) t 1 (1 r )
t t
The Dividend Discount Model (DDM)
The value of a share of common stock is the present value of all future
dividends
D1 D2 D3 D
V0 ...
(1 r ) (1 r ) (1 r )
2 3
(1 r )
n
Dt
t 1 (1 r )
t
where:
V0 = value of common stock
Dt = dividend during time period t
r = required rate of return on stock
n = number of periods assumed to be infinite
Why dividends are used for valuation?
Investors receive cash returns only in the form of dividends
Constant Growth Dividend Model
(Gordon Model)
Cash dividends grow at some average rate g from one period to next forever.
D0 (1 g ) D0 (1 g ) 2 D0 (1 g ) n
V0 ...
(1 r ) (1 r ) 2
(1 r ) n
where:
V0 = value of stock
D0 = dividend payment in the current period
g = the constant growth rate of dividends
r = required rate of return on stock
n = the number of periods, which we assume to be infinite
Looks like a Geometric Progression
First Term is a and growth factor is m
Sum of GP series = a/(1-m)
First Term is D0 (1 g )
(1 r )
Growth factor is (1 g )
(1 r )
So what do we get?
Constant Growth Dividend Model
◦ It can be written as:
V0
D1 D0 (1 g )
V0
rg OR
rg
where:
V0 = value of stock
D1 = dividend payment in the year 1
g = the constant growth rate of dividends
r = required rate of return on stock j
It assumes that r > g
Constant Growth Example
Ramesh Engineering Ltd has just gave a dividend of Rs 2 per
share. The dividend is expected to grow at 6 percent per annum
infinitely. What should you pay for it if the risk free rate is 4%,
market risk premium is 8% and the beta of the stock is 1.25
Required rate is = 4 + (1.25x8) = 14%
2(1 0.06)
V0
0.14 0.06
=Rs 26.5
Two-stage Dividend Discount Model
The model is based upon two stages of growth
◦ an extraordinary growth phase that lasts n years and
◦ a stable growth phase that lasts forever afterwards.
D0( 1 g s ) Dn( 1 g c )
t
n 1
V0 [ * ]
( 1 r) ( 1 r)
t n
t 1 r-gc
or
D0( 1 g s )
t
n Pn
V0 [ ]
( 1 r) ( 1 r)
t n
t 1
Dn( 1 g c )
where Pn
r-g c
Example
Vertigo has just announced a dividend of Rs 2 per share. The dividends are
expected to grow at 20 percent for a period of 6 years initially. Thereafter the
growth will stabilize at 10 percent. Equity investors require a return of 15
percent.
What is the intrinsic value of the share.
First find the dividends for six years
Years 1 2 3 4 5 6
Dividends 2.400 2.880 3.456 4.147 4.977 5.972
Then find PV individually for each of them using 15%
2.4 2.88 3.456 4.147 4.977 5.972
+ + + + + =
(1.15)1 (1.15)2 (1.15)3 (1.15)4 (1.15)5 (1.15)6
= 2.09 + 2.18 + 2.27 + 2.37 + 2.47 +2.58 = 13.96
Or use PV of growing annuity formula:
𝐴 1+𝑔 𝑛 2.4 1+0.2 6
𝑃𝑉𝐺𝐴 = 1− = 1− = 13.96
𝑟−𝑔 1+𝑟 0.15−0.20 1+0.15
Then find the dividend in 7th year
= 5.972 (1.1) = 6.569
Then find the Terminal Value
6.569
= = 131.83
(0.15−0.10)
131.83
And then find PV of Terminal Value = = 56.80
(1.15)6
Lastly Add PVs of dividend in high growth years & PV of TV
= 13.96+56.80 = 70.76
2( 1 0.20 ) Dn( 1 0.10 )
t
6 1
V0 { * }
( 1 0.15 ) 0.15-0.10 ( 1 0.15 )
t 6
t 1
Answer: 70.76
Three-Stage Model
Assumes three distinct growth stages:
• First stage of growth
• Second stage of growth
• Stable-growth phase
Three-Stage Model
Assumes three distinct growth stages:
• First stage of growth
• Second stage of growth
• Stable-growth phase
3 stage example
IM Ltd currently pays a dividend of Rs 1.60 per year. The current required return
is 12%. If dividends will grow at 14% for next 2 years, 12% for the following 5
years and 10.2% thereafter. Estimate its value.
Dividends Growth PV
0 1.6
1 1.824 0.14 1.628571
2 2.07936 0.14 1.657653
3 2.328883 0.12 1.657653
4 2.608349 0.12 1.657653
5 2.921351 0.12 1.657653
6 3.271913 0.12 1.657653
7 3.664543 0.12 1.657653
8 4.038326 0.102 101.4852
Price 113.0597
Free Cash Flows
Free Cash Flow to the Firm (FCFF): What cash is available
before any financing considerations
Debtholders
Preference shareholders
FCFF is the cash flow available to the company’s suppliers of capital after all
operating expenses (including taxes) have been paid and necessary investments
in working capital (e.g., inventory) and fixed capital (e.g., equipment) have been
made.
FCFE is the cash flow available to the company’s equity shareholders after all
operating expenses, interest, and principal payments have been made and
necessary investments in working and fixed capital have been made
Free Cash Flows
Not freely available data like dividends, need to be calculated
Used when
◦ The company does not pay dividends
◦ Company pays dividends much different than its capacity to pay
Calculating FCFE from Net Profit
FCFE =NP + Dep - Cap Exp – WCInv + New Debt Issues - Principal Debt
Repayments
FCFE =NP - (Cap Exp – Dep) - WCInv + (New Debt Issues - Debt Repayments)
NP = Net Profit;
Dep = depreciation; it may include other non cash charges such as amortization
Cap Exp = Fixed Capital investments or Capital Expenditure;
WCInv = Non Cash Working Capital Investment (Current assets excluding cash – current liabilities)
Increase in WC is subtracted and decrease is added
Calculating FCFF From Net Profit
FCFF = NP + Int (1 – Tax rate) + Dep – Cap Exp – WCInv
FCFF = NP + Int (1 – Tax rate) – Net Cap Exp – WCInv
NP = Net Profit;
Dep = depreciation; it may include other non cash charges such as amortization
Cap Exp = Fixed Capital investments or Capital Expenditure;
WCInv = Non Cash Working Capital Investment (Current assets excluding cash – current liabilities)
Increase in WC is subtracted and decrease is added
Other formulas
FCFF from Cash Flow from Operations
FCFF = CFO + Int(1 – Tax rate) – Cap Exp
MV(Debt) MV(Equity)
WACC rd (1 Tax rate) r
MV(Equity) MV(Debt) MV(Equity) MV(Debt)
90.57 𝑚𝑖𝑙𝑙𝑖𝑜𝑛
Equity value per share = = Rs 31.23
2.9 𝑚𝑖𝑙𝑙𝑖𝑜𝑛
Two stage FCFF and FCFE
Using FCFF
Using FCFE
Forecasting FCFE
Forecast the components of FCFE:
Forecast Sales
Find NP using the historical average of Net Profit Margin adjusting
for current and expected economic environment
Capital needs can be forecasted based on historical relation between
increase in sales and increase in investments for net capital
expenditure and working capital
Forecasting FCFEs
When forecasting FCFE, analysts often make an assumption that the financing of
the company involves a target debt ratio.
A specified percentage of the sum of net capital expenditure and increase in
working capital is assumed to be financed based on a target debt ratio.
This assumption leads to a simplification of FCFE calculations.
Valuation using forecasted FCFE
1 2 3 4 5 6
Sales growth rate 20% 20% 20% 6% 6% 6%
Sales per share 25.00 30.00 36.00 43.20 45.792 48.5395 51.45189
Find EPS
1 2 3 4 5 6
NP Margin 10% 10% 10% 10% 10% 10%
EPS 3.00 3.60 4.32 4.5792 4.85395 5.145189
1 2 3 4 5 6
Sales per share 25 30 36 43.20 45.792 48.5395 51.45189
Change in Sales 5.00 6.00 7.20 2.592 2.7475 2.91237
1 2 3 4 5 6
Net Cap Exp per share 2.50 3.00 3.60 1.296 1.37376 1.456186
1 2 3 4 5 6
WCInv per share 1.00 1.20 1.44 0.5184 0.5495 0.582474
Find debt financing per share
1 2 3 4 5 6
Debt financing per
share 1.40 1.68 2.016 0.72576 0.7693 0.815464
Find FCFE per share
1 2 3 4 5 6
FCFE per share 0.90 1.08 1.296 3.49056 3.6999 3.92199
1 2 3 4 5 6
Growth rate of FCFE 20% 20% 169% 6% 6%
Beyond year 4 the growth rate can be taken as 6%
Find PV of FCFE
The stock value is the present value of the first four years’ FCFE plus the present
value of the terminal value of the FCFE from years 5 and beyond.
0.90 1.08 1.296 3.49056
+ + +
(1.124)1 (1.124)2 (1.124)3 (1.124)4
= .800712 + .854852 + .912654 + 2.1869
= 4.7551
3.69999
The terminal value is = = 57.8124 ;
(0.124−0.06)
57.81
PV of Terminal Value = 4 = 36.2206
(1.124)
PV= 4.7551+ 36.2206
= 40.9757 or 40.98
Three-Stage FCF Models
Current FCFF in millions $100
$320.4 1
Terminal value $3979
0.10 0.05 (1 0.10) 5
n
FCFFt FCFFn 1
1
Firm value +
t =1 1 WACC t WACC g (1 WACC)n
Enterprise Value/EBITDA
P/E ratio
𝐶𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑀𝑎𝑟𝑘𝑒𝑡 𝑃𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑒
𝑃𝐸 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜 =
𝐸𝑎𝑟𝑛𝑖𝑛𝑔𝑠 𝑃𝑒𝑟 𝑆ℎ𝑎𝑟𝑒
Leading PE (or forward P/E) uses next four quarters’ earnings per share
Trailing P/E (or current P/E) uses the most recent four quarters’ earnings per
share
Relative Valuation using P/E ratio
𝐶𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑀𝑎𝑟𝑘𝑒𝑡 𝑃𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑒
𝑃𝐸 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜 =
𝐸𝑎𝑟𝑛𝑖𝑛𝑔𝑠 𝑃𝑒𝑟 𝑆ℎ𝑎𝑟𝑒
◦ Cross Sectional:
◦ The mean or median value of the P/E for the company’s peer group of
companies within an industry.
◦ The mean or median value of the P/E for the company’s industry or sector.
◦ Time Series:
◦ An average past value of the P/E for the stock.
Example: Valuing a firm using P/E ratios (using peer group average)
Stocks which are under valued on a relative basis may still be overvalued
◦ It is just less overvalued than other securities in the market.
Stocks with lower PEGs are more attractive than stocks with higher PEGs, all
else equal.
Use the data in Exhibit to address the following: 1. Based on the P/S but referring to no other
information, assess GETI’s relative valuation. 2. State whether GETI is more closely comparable to SN
or to BCR. Justify your answer.
Solution to 1:
Because the P/S for GETI, 2.14, is the lowest of the three P/S multiples, if no other information is
referenced, GETI appears to be relatively undervalued.
Solution to 2:
On the basis of the information given, GETI appears to be more closely matched to SN than BCR.
BCR’s P/S is significantly higher than the P/S for GETI and SN.
The profit margin and revenue growth are key fundamentals in the P/S approach, and despite BCR’s
higher P/S, its profit margin and revenue growth rate are both lower than those of GETI and SN.
The big difference between GETI and SN is that GETI relies much more on debt as a funding source.
Because of this, the enterprise value-to-revenue ratio arguably provides a more appropriate valuation
measure than does P/S.
Enterprise Value/EBITDA
Enterprise Value = Market value of debt + market value of equity – cash
and short term investments
Enterprise value is often viewed as the cost of a takeover: In the event of a
buyout, the acquiring company assumes the acquired company’s debt but
also receives its cash.
Why are debt and cash considered when valuing a firm?
◦ If the firm is sold to a new owner, the buyer has to pay the equity value and
must also repay the firm's debts.
◦ The buyer gets to keep the cash available with the firm, which is why cash
needs to be deducted.
Advantages of EBITDA
The pre-interest expenses & pre-tax measure EBIT removes the impact of different tax rates &
financial leverage. EBITDA further removes the impact of choices regarding depreciation &
amortization.
Comparing the firm’s performance based on net earning leads to a bias due to differences in
accounting policies and capital structures.
This is because some firms may charge depreciation on an accelerated basis, which leads to high
depreciation costs in the initial years.
In addition, some firms have a high debt in their capital structure leading to high interest costs.
Such depreciation and interest costs ultimately depress the net earnings.
EBITDA discards such difficulties due to varying depreciation policies and debt-equity mix
EBITDA is usually positive
Because EBITDA is a flow to both debt and equity, defining an EBITDA multiple
by using a measure of total company value in the numerator, such as EV, is
appropriate.
Enterprise value is total company value: the market value of debt, common
equity, and preferred equity) minus the value of cash
Thus, EV/EBITDA is a valuation indicator for the overall company rather than
solely its common stock.
Analysts have offered the following rationales for using EV/EBITDA:
• EV/EBITDA is usually more appropriate than P/E alone for comparing companies with different
financial leverage (debt), because EBITDA is a pre-interest earnings figure, in contrast to EPS,
which is post interest.
• By adding back depreciation and amortization, EBITDA controls for differences in depreciation
and amortization among businesses, in contrast to net income, which is post depreciation and
post amortization.
For this reason, EV/EBITDA is frequently used in the valuation of capital-intensive businesses (for
example, cable companies and steel companies). Such businesses typically have substantial
depreciation and amortization expenses.
• EBITDA is frequently positive when EPS is negative.
Investors use EV/EBITDA measure of relative takeover attractiveness of a company within
industry.
Western Digital Corporation (NYSE: WDC) manufactures hard disk drives.
The company has 238 million shares outstanding.
Long term debt is 2,013 million.
Total of cash and cash equivalents is $4,060 million.
The company’s share price as of 1 July 2013 was $63.06.
The trailing 12 month (TTM) EBITDA is $3,565 million.
Cyclical manufacturing PE
Retailing P/S
Source: Investment Valuation by Damodaran