Micro mcqs

1. Owl eyes is a diagnostic feature of which virus

a) Filovirus
b) Adenovirus
c) HIV
d) Herpes virus
2. Biphasic infections are characteristic features of
a) Bunya virus
b) Filo virus
c) Flavi virus
d) Arena virus
3. Lujo is as virus of Zambian origin, is negative sense ssRNA and bisegmented and belongs to the
family arena virus with lassa fever
4. Active HBV replication is indicated by
a) HBV DNA
b) HbsAg
5. Canyons (virus attachment peptides in capsids depression) are found in which family
a) Reovirus
b) Picornavirus*
c) Calisivirus
d) Astrovirus
6. EBOV is
a) Filovirus*
b) Flavi virus
c) Arena virus
d) Bunya virus
7. LCMV congenital diseases occur
a) During primary maternal infection*
b) During secondary maternal infection
8. Lujo virus
a) ssRNA*
b) ssDNA
9. Herpes gradiatorum is caused by
a) HHV1*
b) HHV2
c) HHV3
d) HHV4
10. What specie of flavivirus is not transmitted by arthropods
a) HAV
b) HBV
c) HCV
d) HEV
11. Why can polio virus survive stomach Ph and harsh environmental conditions (stable capsid
proteins)
12. Adenovirus is a non-segmented dsDNA virus
13. Ebola viruses are characterized by the following except
a) Pleomorphic in nature
b) Have rna genome
c) Genome is segmented*
d) Enveloped virus
14. In EBOV disease, the first step is achieved through what proteins
a) VPs
b) SPs
c) NPs
d) GPs*
15. Structural protein in calisiviruses which is associated to nuclei acid
a) VP1
b) VP2
c) VP3
d) VP4
16. Centripetal rash in which both fresh and old papules are present is due to
a) HHV1
b) HHV2
c) HHV3
d) HHV4
17. Influenza virus is an enveloped virus and is icosahedral in shape
18. EBOV is an enveloped virus with a negative sense ssRNA
19. Mus musculus is a natural to which viral family
a) Filo virus
b) Bunya virus
c) Flavi virus
d) Arena virus
20. Which of these has the ability to survive up to 3 months in fresh water
a) Reo virus
b) Astrovirus
c) Adenovirus
d) Calisivirus
21. Aedes and cullex species are important in transmitting
a) Bunya virus
b) Flavi virus
c) togavirus
22. what is the attachment protein for RSV………G protein
23. Prevention of antiviral state is achieved by which protein
a) VP 24/35
b) VP40/25
c) VP24/40
d) VP24/30
24. Sand flies are vectors for which of the following
 a) Flavi virus
b) Filo virus
c) Bunya virus
d) Arena virus
25. Most predominant form of protein in calicivirus structure is
a) VP 1*
b) VP2
c) VP3
d) VP4
26. Most predominant form of flavivirus disease is caused by
a) Dengue virus
b) Yellow fever virus
c) Japenese encephalitis virus
d) Westnile virus
27. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus is an example of
a) Bunya virus
b) Flavi virus
c) Filo virus
d) Arena virus
28. Most active form of activated rotaviral VP4 protein is
a) VP8
b) VP9
c) VP5
d) VP4
29. Lassa fever is transmitted by rodents
30. The following secretory form of EBOV are responsible for avoiding adaptive immune detection
a) VPs
b) SPs
c) GPs
d) NPs
31. The following represents more existing subtypes of influenza that was responsible for well-
known outbreaks
a) H2N2
b) H1N7
c) H1N1
d) H3N2
32. Intracellular virus factories are a feature of
a) Rotavirus
b) Measles
c) Ebola
d) Marburg
33. Furin fragmentation of the capsid protein to render them ineffective is important in which viral
family
a) Flavi virus
b) Bunya virus
c) Filo virus
d) Arena virus
34. To be actively able to create functional proteins, poliovirus are first created as polyproteins
through the functioning of
a) VPS
b) VPF
c) VPG
35. Predominant serotype of rotavirus is determined by
a) VP4
b) VP2
c) VP7
d) VP6
36. Scaffolding functions and viral integrity is rendered by which of the following proteins
a) VP 24/35
b) VP40/25
c) VP24/40
d) VP24/30
37. The orthomyoxvirus that predominantly infects infants and animals like seals is
a) Type A
b) Type B
c) Type c
38. Recurrent infections in herpes labialis follow
a) Retrograde transport from nucleus
b) Retrograde transport from cytoplasm
c) Anterograde transport from nucleus
d) Anterograde transport from cytoplasm
39. The smallest form of hemorrhagic fever viruses is
a) Filo virus
b) Flavi virus
c) Arena virus
d) Bunya virus
40. The most virulent ebola virus is
a) ZEBOV*
b) REBOV
c) BEBOV
d) SEBOV
41. What is the most predominant way of rash production caused by the neurotropic herpes virus
a) B cell infection
b) T cell infection
c) Neutrophil infection
d) All are correct
42. Responsible for more than 12 episodes of infantile respiratory tract infections yearly. The
following is an example of the receptor that is required by the minor group of named virus
 a) DC-SIGN
b) ICAM-1
c) LDLP
43. Concerning bunga virus (trisegmented and –ve sense ssRNA also enveloped)
44. Pigs or dogs are the source of human infection by which parasite
a) Malaria
b) Cestodes
c) Schistosomes
d) Trematodes
45. Transmission of East African sleeping sickness
a) Aedes aegypti
b) Glosina morsitans
c) Glossina palpalis
d) Reduviid bud
46. Chagas disease is primarily caused by
a) Trypanosoma cruzi
b) Trypanosoma americanas
c) Trypanosoma chadasi
d) Trypanosoma rhodesiense
47. Causative agent of east African sleeping sickeness
a) Trypanosoma brucei brucei
b) Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
c) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
48. Each of the following statements concerning Giardia duodenalis is correct except:
a. G. lamblia has both a trophozoite and cyst stage in its life cycle
b. G. lamblia is transmitted by the fecal oral route from both human and animal sources
c. G. lamblia causes hemolytic anemia*
d. G. lamblia can be diagnosed by the string test
49. Each of the following statements concerning toxoplasma gondii is correct except
a) Only congenital infections are symptomatic
b) Opportunistic infections are usually fetal
c) It is usually a benign infection*
d) 1/3 of world population is seropositive
50. Transmission of west African sleeping sickness is
a) Aedes aegypti
b) Glossina palpalis*
c) Glossina morsitans
d) Reduviid bud
51. Which organism has a leaf falling movement
a) Giardia lamblia*
b) Entamoeba histolytica
c) Balantidium coli
52. Which insect causes Chaga’s disease
a) Aedes aegypti
b) Glossina palpalis
c) Glossina morsitans
d) Reduviid bud*
53. Parasite transmitted by mosquitoes except
a) Dengue
b) Typhoid*
c) Zika virus
d) Malaria
54. What mechanism of adhesion is achieved by an organism with four pairs and flagella
a) Sucking disc adhesion
b) Hooklets adhesion
c) Swarming adhesion
55. Which of the Cestod causes Hydrated cyst?
a) Taenia
b) Echinococcus
c) Schistosoma*
d) Tinea

56. A Patient came to the hospital with the following symptoms, Pneumonitis,
loss of appetite,nausea, vomiting, and vague abdominal pain.What will
be your diagnosis?
a) Ascariasis*
b) Giardiasisc
c) Ancyclostomiasis
57. Which Blood film used to identify the species of parasite?
a) Thick film*
b) Thin Film
c) Both
58. Protozoa has ……….classes.
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four*
59. Plasmodium Falciparum completes his lifecycle in………..hours.
a) 45-hour
b) 48-hour*
c) 40 hour
60. Pigs or dogs are the source of human infection by each of the following parasites except:
a. Echinococcus granulosus
b. Taenia solium
c. Ascaris lumbricoides*
d. Trichinella spiralis
61. A Diarrheal Stool sample came to the lab, you find spinning movement.
What will be your diagnosis?
 a) Giardiasis*
b) Ascariasis
c) Ancyclostomiasis
62. Plasmodium is a specie of
a) Ciliates
b) Cestodes
c) Sarcodina
d) Sporozoa*
63. Each of the following statements concerning hookworm infection is correct except:
a. Hookworm infection can cause pneumonia
b. Hookworm infection is acquired by humans when filariform larvae penetrate the skin
c. Hookworm infection is caused by Necator americanus
d. Hookworm infection can be diagnosed by finding the trophozoite in the stool*
64. Each of the parasite is transmitted by anthropods except
a) Schistosoma*
b) Trypanosoma
c) Loa loa
65. Causative agent for West African sleeping sickness
a) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense*
b) Trypanosoma brucei brucei
c) Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
66. Each of the following statements concerning malaria is correct except
a) The female anopheles mosquito is the vector
b) Early infection, sporozoites enter hepatocytes
c) Release of merozoites from red blood cells cause fever and chills
d) The principal site of gametocyte formation is the human gastrointestinal tract.*
67. In malaria, the form of plasmodia that is transmitted from mosquito to human is the:
a) Sporozoite*
b) Gametocyte
c) Merozoite
d) Hypnozoite
68. Incubation period of plasmodium falciparum is
a) 18-40 days
b) 8-11 days
c) 10-14 days*
69. Which of the following is intestinal parasite
a) Entamoeba histolytica*
b) Naegleria
c) Acanthamoeba
70. Each of the following statements concerning Trichomonas vaginalis is correct EXCEPT
a) T. vaginalis is transmitted sexually.
b) T. vaginalis can be diagnosed by visualizing the trophozoite.
c) T. vaginalis can be treated effectively with metronidazole.
d) T. vaginalis causes bloody diarrhea*
71. Steatorrhoea is a common feature in diseases caused by which organism
a) Balantidium coli
b) Entamoeba histolytica
c) Giardia lamblia*
72. Each of the following statements concerning kala-azar is correct except:
a) Kala-azar is caused by Leishmania donovani
b) kala-azar is transmitted by the bite of sandflies
c) Kala-azar occurs primarily in rural latin America*
d) Kala-azar can be diagnosed by finding amastigotes in bone marrow
73. Each of the following statements concerning Ascaris lumbricoides is correct except:
a) Ascaris lumbricoides is one of the largest nematode
b) Ascaris lumbricoides can cause pneumonia
c) Both dogs and cats are intermediate host of Ascaris lumbricoides*
d) A lumbricoides is transmitted by ingestion of eggs
74. Each of the following parasites is transmitted by mosquitoes except:
a. Leishmania donovani*
b. Wuchereria bancrofti
c. Plasmodium vivax
d. Plasmodium falciparum
75. Each of the following statements concerning sleeping sickness is correct except
a) Fever and severe headaches
b) Swollen lymph nodes and aching muscles and joints
c) Irritability and extreme fatigue
d) None is correct*