LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

Part of the Most Awesome and Consistently Successful Study Material and Test Series Module, spanning across
both Physical and Online Programs in the entire Country. While most of the world fumbled and faltered, 2020
has been another inspiring Success story both for us and those who chose to trust us. As a result LE was able to
engineer Clean-Sweep-Landslide figures of a handsome 35 Selections under 100 ranks, and a whopping 180
selections under 500 ranks in CLAT 2020. With AILET being no different, a total of 30 LEtians found their way
into NLUD in 2020. Read on!

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2021

MOCK CLAT #42

Candidate Name : _________________

Duration : 120 Minutes
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Centre Name : __________
Date of Exam : _________________

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. No clarification on the question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.
2. There are 150multiple choice objective type questions.
3. Each question carries ONE mark. Total marks are 150.
4. There is a negative marking of 0.25 marks for every incorrect answer.
5. Candidates have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided, with a
BALL PEN (BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.
Example: For the question, "Where is the TajMahal located?", the correct answer is (b).
The candidate has to darken the corresponding circle as indicated below :
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods

6. Answering the questions by any method other than the method indicated above shall be considered
incorrect and no marks will be awarded for the same.
7. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong.
8. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required and in
the spaces provided for.
9. After the Test is over, the candidate has to return the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator. The
candidate should take the Test Paper along with them.
10. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall result in the cancellation of his/her candidature.
11. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, may have to face criminal
prosecution.
12. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, pagers or calculators are strictly not permitted inside the Test
Centre/Hall.
13. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the Test is over.
 SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (Q.1-Q.30): Read the passages carefully and answer the questions.

Passage (Q.1-Q.5): Music is coeval with the human race. In all probability it precedes spoken language.
For music is primarily the expression of emotion; articulate language is the expression of definite thought.
And in the process of evolution emotion precedes thought. The beginnings of music are to be found in
Nature herself. The howling of the winds, the humming of insects, the cries of animals, the songs of birds
must all be considered as elemental music, inasmuch as they contain the two fundamental elements
thereof: ‘rhythm’ and ‘tone.’
Rhythm is the more or less regular division of time by beats or strokes. The heart beats in a regular
rhythm; there is the rhythm of the raindrops; man walks with a rhythmic stride; the waves beat upon the
shore in a solemn and impressive rhythm; the drumming of the partridge; the chirping of the crickets; the
tapping of the woodpecker; the muttering of distant thunder, etc.—all these are rhythms, more or less
regular divisions of time, marked off by beats or accents.
Now ‘tone’ is merely a noise which persists at a certain pitch. When we cry out in fear we usually produce
a noise, but should we be careful to maintain a steady and equal emission of breath we should produce a
tone. In other words, a ‘noise’ is produced by a rapid and irregular change in the rate of vibration of
the sounding body, whereas a ‘tone’ is produced by the steady maintenance of a certain rate of vibration
for a long enough time for the ear to appreciate its definiteness. That this time need not be very long is
proved by the ease with which we grasp as tones certain very short notes used in music; grace notes, for
instance. Many noises, in fact, analysis appear to be collections of heterogeneous tonal fragments which
succeed each other with such rapidity and eccentricity as to preclude the recognition of their tonal
elements, as such.
Such animal cries as the roaring of lions, the baying of wolves, the screeching of parrots, or the barking
of dogs must be classed as mere noises. While they are frequently of rhythmic interest, they contain too
little of the tonal element to be regarded musically. On the other hand, the humming of certain insects,
which produces a definite tone, the whistling and singing of many birds, the musical cries of certain
monkeys as related in Darwin, and even on occasion the crying of the wind, must all be regarded as
‘natural music.’
[ Excerpts from The Art of Music Vol. 1 by Leland Hall]

1. The main theme of the passage revolves around:

(a) The significance of music to the human race and the natural aspect of it.
(b) The comparison between man-made and nature made harmonies.
(c) Discussion on the evolution of music throughout human civilizations.
(d) The author’s opinion on how music should be created.

2. Which of the following is true to the passage?

(a) Any noise can be turned into a tone by regulating its pitch and vibration.
(b) the elongated notes in music are called grace notes.
(c) Shorter vibrations can be recognized by the ear more efficiently.
(d) All of the above

3. Which of the following factors are needed to call the sounds produced in nature as ‘natural music’?
(a) An unsteady vibration
(b) A steady tonal quality
(c) An accumulation of higher pitches
(d) An accumulation of lower pitches

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4. The heart beats in a regular rhythm; there is the rhythm of the raindrops; man walks with a rhythmic
stride; the waves beat upon the shore in a solemn and impressive rhythm; the drumming of the partridge;
the chirping of the crickets; the tapping of the woodpecker; the muttering of distant thunder, etc.
Which of the following literary device has been used in the italicized sentence?
(a) Personification
(b) Allusion
(c) Imagery
(d) Foreshadowing

5. Many noises, in fact, analysis appear to be collections of heterogeneous tonal fragments which succeed
each other with such rapidity and eccentricity as to preclude the recognition of their tonal elements, as
such.
Choose the correct option with the missing preposition in the underlined sentence above.
(a) upon
(b) for
(c) from
(d) onto

Passage (Q.6-Q.10): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
To give an account of one's reading is in some sort to give an account of one's life; and I hope that I shall
not offend those who follow me in these papers, if I cannot help speaking of myself in speaking of the
authors I must call my masters: my masters not because they taught me this or that directly, but because
I had such delight in them that I could not fail to teach myself from them whatever I was capable of
learning. I do not know whether I have been what people call a great reader; I cannot claim even to have
been a very wise reader; but I have always been conscious of a high purpose to read much more, and
more discreetly, than I have ever really done, and probably it is from the vantage-ground of this good
intention that I shall sometimes be found writing here rather than from the facts of the case.
But I am pretty sure that I began right, and that if I had always kept the lofty level which I struck at the
outset I should have the right to use authority in these reminiscences without a bad conscience. I shall try
not to use authority, however, and I do not expect to speak here of all my reading, whether it has been
much or little, but only of those books, or of those authors that I have felt a genuine passion for. I have
known such passions at every period of my life, but it is mainly of the loves of my youth that I shall write,
and I shall write all the more frankly because my own youth now seems to me rather more alien than that
of any other person.
I think that I came of a reading race, which has always loved literature in a way, and in spite of varying
fortunes and many changes. From a letter of my great-grandmother's written to a stubborn daughter upon
some unfilial behavior, like running away to be married, I suspect that she was fond of the high-colored
fiction of her day, for she tells the wilful child that she has "planted a dagger in her mother's heart," and I
should not be surprised if it were from this fine-languaged lady that my grandfather derived his taste for
poetry rather than from his father, who was of a worldly wiser mind.
[Excerpts from My Literary Passions, by William Dean Howells]

6. Which of the following is the main writing style of the author?

(a) Narrative
(b) Descriptive
(c) Expository
(d) Persuasive

7. The author believes that:

(a) he is aligned with his younger self.
(b) he had absolutely no passion for the literary works of some selected authors.
(c) His grandmother’s taste in poetry was the contribution of her husband.
(d) The account of one’s life lies within the account of the things they have read.
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8. ‘I shall try not to use authority, however, and I do not expect to speak here of all my reading, whether it
has been much or little, but only of those books, or of those authors that I have felt a genuine passion
for.’
Which of the following literary device has been used in the above sentence?
(a) Irony
(b) Humor
(c) Satire
(d) Foreshadowing

9. But I am pretty sure that I began right, and that if I had always kept the lofty level which I struck at the
outset I should have the right to use authority in these reminiscences without bad conscience.
Spot the error in the underlined sentence above.
(a) Error in verb
(b) Error in noun
(c) Error in article
(d) Error in conjunction

10. Which of the following is the meaning of the word ‘unfilial’ as has been used in the context of the
passage?
(a) lasting or existing for a long or apparently infinite time; enduring or continually recurring.
(b) flowing throughout the year.
(c) responsible
(d) not having or showing the qualities associated with a son or daughter.

Passage (Q.11-Q.15): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
"The silent workings, and still more the explosions, of human passion which bring to light the darker
elements of man's nature present to the philosophical observer considerations of intrinsic interest; while
to the jurist, the study of human nature and human character with its infinite varieties, especially as
affecting the connection between motive and action, between irregular desire or evil disposition and
crime itself, is equally indispensable and difficult."—Wills on Circumstantial Evidence.
I REMEMBER my father telling me that sitting up late one night talking with Tennyson, the latter
remarked that he had not kept such late hours since a recent visit of Jowett. On that occasion the poet
and the philosopher had talked together well into the small hours of the morning. My father asked
Tennyson what was the subject of conversation that had so engrossed them. "Murders," replied
Tennyson. It would have been interesting to have heard Tennyson and Jowett discussing such a theme.
The fact is a tribute to the interest that crime has for many men of intellect and imagination. Indeed, how
could it be otherwise? Rob history and fiction of crime, how tame and colourless would be the
residue! We who are living and enduring in the presence of one of the greatest crimes on record, must
realise that trying as this period of the world's history is to those who are passing through it, in the hands
of some great historian it may make very good reading for posterity. Perhaps we may find some little
consolation in this fact, like the unhappy victims of famous freebooters such as Jack Sheppard or Charley
Peace.
But do not let us flatter ourselves. Do not let us, in all the pomp and circumstance of stately history,
blind ourselves to the fact that the crimes of Frederick, or Napoleon, or their successors, are in essence
no different from those of Sheppard or Peace. We must not imagine that the bad man who happens to
offend against those particular laws which constitute the criminal code belongs to a peculiar or atavistic
type, that he is a man set apart from the rest of his fellow-men by mental or physical peculiarities. That
comforting theory of Lombroso school has been exploded, and the ordinary inmates of our prisons shown
to be only in a very slight degree below average in mental and physical fitness of the normal man, a
difference easily explained by environment and conditions in which the ordinary criminal is bred.
[Excerpts from A Book of Remarkable Criminals, by H.B. Irving]

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11. The literary style used by the author is:
(a) Narrative
(b) descriptive
(c) Expository
(d) Persuasive

12. Which of the following is untrue according to the passage?

(a) Tennyson was a person who didn’t like staying awake late at nights.
(b) Charley Peace was a famous philosopher and poet.
(c) Criminals are not always very much different in physiological or psychological aspect than the rest of
us.
(d) The aspect of committing a crime should not discriminate between a pirate or a king.

13. Why did the author say that, ‘It would have been interesting to have heard Tennyson and Jowett
discussing such a theme.’?
(a) Because Tennyson was an introvert and didn’t like to talk much.
(b) Because the author assumed that a poet and a philosopher’s sophistication wouldn’t allow them to be
interested about crimes.
(c) Because the author was offended that his father was not invited in that conversation.
(d) because the author didn’t find them intellectual enough to talk about crimes.

14. We who are living and enduring in the presence of one of the greatest crimes on record, must realise that
trying as this period of the world's history is to those who are passing through it, in the hands of some
great historian it may make very good reading for posterity.
Which of the following literary device has been used in the italicized sentence above?
(a) Allegory
(b) Irony
(c) Humor
(d) Satire

15. That comforting theory of the Lombroso school has been exploded, and the ordinary inmates of our
prisons shown to be only in a very slight degree below the average in mental and physical fitness of the
normal man, a difference easily explained by the environment and conditions in which the ordinary
criminal is bred.
Spot the error in the underlined sentence above.
(a) Error in preposition
(b) Error in verb
(c) Error in adverb
(d) Error in articles.

Passage (Q.16-Q.20): As it is usual for great persons, whose lives have been remarkable, and whose
actions deserve recording to posterity, to insist much upon their originals, give full accounts of their
families, and the histories of their ancestors, so, that I may be methodical, I shall do the same, though I
can look but a very little way into my pedigree, as you will see presently.
If I may believe the woman whom I was taught to call mother, I was a little boy, of about two years old,
very well dressed, had a nursery-maid to attend me, who took me out on a fine summer's evening into
the fields towards Islington, as she pretended, to give the child some air; a little girl being with her, of
twelve or fourteen years old, that lived in the neighbourhood. The maid, whether by appointment or
otherwise, meets with a fellow, her sweetheart, as I suppose; he carries her into a public-house, to give
her a pot and a cake; and while they were toying in the house the girl plays about, with me in her hand, in
the garden and at the door, sometimes in sight, sometimes out of sight, thinking no harm.

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 At this juncture comes by one of those sort of people who, it seems, made it their business to spirit away
little children. This was a hellish trade in those days, and chiefly practised where they found little children
very well dressed, or for bigger children, to sell them to the plantations.
The woman, pretending to take me up in her arms and kiss me, and play with me, draws the girl a good
way from the house, till at last she makes a fine story to the girl, and bids her go back to the maid, and
tell her where she was with the child; that a gentlewoman had taken a fancy to the child, and was kissing
of it, but she should not be frighted, or to that purpose; for they were but just there; and so, while the girl
went, she carries me quite away.
From this time, it seems, I was disposed of to a beggar woman that wanted a pretty little child to set out
her case; and after that, to a gipsy, under whose government I continued till I was about six years old.
And this woman, though I was continually dragged about with her from one part of the country to another,
yet never let me want for anything; and I called her mother; though she told me at last she was not my
mother, but that she bought me for twelve shillings of another woman, who told her how she came by me,
and told her that my name was Bob Singleton, not Robert, but plain Bob; for it seems they never knew by
what name I was christened.
[Excerpts from: The Life, Adventures and Piracies of Captain Singleton by Daniel Defoe]

16. The author believes that:

(a) He is a great person with a remarkable life.
(b) the woman he called mother wasn’t his real mother.
(c) Child trafficking was a major criminal activity back during the childhood days of the author.
(d) all of the above.

17. Which of the following statement/s is/are true according to the passage?
Statement 1: The author was disposed to a beggar woman with whom he spent six years of his life.
Statement 2: The author was sold for twelve dollars to a different woman when he was a child.
(a) Statement 1
(b) statement 2
(c) neither statement 1 nor 2
(d) both

18. Which of the following literary styles has been used by the author in the passage?
(a) Narrative
(b) descriptive
(c) expository
(d) persuasive

19. Which of the following is the meaning of the phrase ‘spirit away’ as has been used in the context of the
passage?
(a) To take, sneak, or carry someone or something away in a mysterious, secretive, or furtive manner.
(b) Cutting of all communication to someone without explanation.
(c) cease to exist or be in use
(d) leave, especially in order to start a journey

20. This was a hell trade in those days, and chiefly practised where they found little children very well
dressed, or for bigger children, to sell them to the plantations.
Which of the following error is present in the underlined sentence above?
(a) error in adjective
(b) error in punctuation
(c) error in noun
(d) error in verb

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 Passage (Q.21-Q.25): The day had been very hot under the tall trees which everywhere embower and
stifle Saratoga, for they shut out the air as well as the sun; and after tea (they still have an early dinner at
all the hotels in Saratoga, and tea is the last meal of the day) I strolled over to the pretty Congress Park,
in the hope of getting a breath of coolness there. Mrs. March preferred to take the chances on the
verandah of our pleasant little hotel, where I left her with the other ladies, forty fanning like one, as they
rocked to and fro under the roof lifted to the third storey by those lofty shafts peculiar to the Saratoga
architecture. As far as coolness was concerned, I thought she was wise after I reached the park, for I
found none of it there. I tried first a chair in the arabesque pavilion (I call it arabesque in despair; it might
very well be Swiss; it is charming, at all events), and studied to deceive myself with the fresh-looking
ebullition of the spring in the vast glass bowls your goblets are served from (people say it is pumped,
and artificially aërated); but after a few moments this would not do, and I went out to a bench, of the rows
beside the gravelled walks. It was no better there; but I fancied it would be better on the little isle in the
little lake, where the fountain was flinging a sheaf of spray into the dull air. This looked even cooler than
bubbling spring in glass vases, and it sounded vastly cooler. There would be mosquitoes there, of
course, I admitted in the debate I had with myself before I decided to make experiment of the place, and
the event proved me right. There were certainly some mosquitoes in the Grecian temple (if it is not a
Turkish kiosk; perhaps we had better compromise, and call it a Grecian kiosk), which you reach by a foot-
bridge from the mainland, and there was a damp in the air which might pass for coolness. There were
three or four people standing vaguely about in the kiosk; but my idle mind fixed itself upon a young
French-Canadian mother of low degree, who sat, with her small boy, on the verge of the pavement near
the water. She scolded him in their parlance for having got himself so dirty, and then she smacked his
poor, filthy little hands, with a frown of superior virtue, though I did not find her so very much cleaner
herself.
[ Excerpts from An open-eyed Conspiracy, by W.D.Howells]

21. Which of the following options can be replaced by the word ‘ebullition’ as has been used in the context of
the passage?
(a) a sudden outburst
(b) the act or process of boiling up
(c) a rushing forth of water, lava etc.
(d) In a state of agitation

22. Why did the author think that Mrs. March was wise?
(a) because she advised him to go to the park instead of staying at the hotel.
(b) because she had her tea earlier in the afternoon so that she can take care of her health.
(c) because she avoided being surrounded with people and spent alone time.
(d) because she decided not to go to the park and stayed at the hotel.

23. Which of the following is untrue?

(a) The author found the benches in the park to be very comfortable.
(b) Mrs. March was of French-Canadian descent.
(c) The author’s attention was caught by the mother and the child because they were showing great
display of affection towards each other.
(d) All of the above.

24. Which of the following can be identified as very typical of Saratoga according to the passage?
(a) The hot and uncomfortable climate.
(b) The early dinner and serving tea as the last meal.
(c) The abundance of trees and parks near the hotel.
(d) None of the above.

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25. This looked even cooler than bubbling spring in glass vases, and it sounded vastly cooler. Choose the
option with the correct order and combination of missing articles in the italicized sentence above?
(a) the, a
(b) a, the, the
(c) the, the
(d) a

Passage (Q.26-Q.30): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
No drop-curtain, at any theatre I have seen, was ever so richly imagined, with misty tops and shadowy
clefts and frowning cliffs and gloomy valleys and long, plunging cataracts, as the actual landscape of
Madeira, when we drew nearer and nearer to it, at the close of a tearful afternoon of mid-January. The
scenery of drop-curtains is often very boldly beautiful, but here Nature, if she had taken a hint from art,
had certainly bettered her instruction. During the waits between acts at the theatre, while studying the
magnificent painting beyond the trouble of the orchestra, I have been most impressed by the splendid
variety which the artist had got into his picture, where the spacious frame lent itself to his passion for
saying everything; but I remembered his thronging fancies as meagre and scanty in the presence of the
stupendous reality before me. I have, for instance, not even mentioned the sea, which swept smoother
and smoother in toward the feet of those precipices and grew more and more trans-lucently purple and
yellow and green, while half a score of cascades shot straight down their fronts in shafts of snowy foam,
and over their pachydermatous shoulders streamed and hung long reaches of gray vines or mosses. To
the view from the sea the island is all, with its changing capes and promontories and bays and inlets, one
immeasurable mountain; and on the afternoon of our approach it was bestridden by a steadfast rainbow,
of which we could only see one leg indeed, but that very stout and athletic.
There were breadths of dark woodland aloft on this mountain, and terraced vineyards lower down; and on
the shelving plateaus yet farther from the heights that lost themselves in the clouds there were scattered
white cottages; on little levels close to the sea there were set white villas. These, as the ship coquetted
with the vagaries of the shore, thickened more and more, until after rounding a prodigious headland we
found ourselves in face of the charming little city of Funchal: long horizontal lines of red roofs, ivory and
pink and salmon walls, evenly fenestrated, with an ancient fortress giving the modern look of things a
proper mediaeval touch Large hotels, with the air of palaces, crowned the upland vantages; there were
bell-towers of churches, and in one place there was a wide splotch of vivid color from the red of the
densely flowering creeper on the side of some favored house. There was an acceptable expanse of
warm brown near the quay from the withered but unfailing leaves of a sycamore-shaded promenade, and
in the fine roadstead where we anchored there lay other steamers and a lead-colored Portuguese war-
ship.
[Excerpts from Roman Holidays and Others, by W.D. Howells]

26. Which of the following literary style has been used in the passage?
(a) Narrative
(b) Descriptive
(c) Expository
(d) Persuasive

27. Which of the following is the antonym of the word ‘pachydermatous’?

(a) Callous
(b) merciless
(c) thick-skinned
(d) tender

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28. Which of the following is false according to the passage?
(a) There were no other boats where the boat of the author was anchored.
(b) The author liked the drop curtains of theaters more than Madeira’s scenic beauty.
(c) Funchal is a big city full of big architectures.
(d) All of the above.

29. When did the author reach Madeira?

(a) Autumn
(b) Winter
(c) Summer
(d) Monsoon

30. 'The scenery of drop-curtains is often very boldly beautiful, but here Nature, if she had taken a hint from
art, had certainly bettered her instruction.'
Which of the following literary device has been used in the sentence above?
(a) Imagery
(b) Allegory
(c) Personification
(d) Anachronism

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 SECTION-B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS

Directions (Q.31–Q.66): Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Passage (Q.31-Q.35): Navalny ‘poisoning’ case: German Chancellor Angela Merkel called Russian
Alexei Navalny’s poisoning an ‘attempted murder’. “There are very serious questions now that only the
Russian government can answer, and must answer,” Merkel was quoted as saying by AP.
The test report by a German military lab claims that Navalny was poisoned with the Soviet-era nerve
agent Novichok. British authorities identified Novichok as the poison used on former spy Sergei Skripal
and his daughter in England. The Russian government, however, rejected these claims and stated that
Germany hasn’t formally provided any information about its findings in the case. Navalny is comatose in
intensive care in Berlin’s Charité hospital.
Russian government spokesperson Dmitry Peskovhat was quoted as saying by AP that Russian
authorities are ‘ready and interested in full cooperation and exchange of information’ with Germany but
added that Berlin still hasn’t provided any official response to formal requests from the Russian
prosecutor general’s office and doctors who treated Navalny.
Navalny’s alleged case of poisoning has led to worsening of Russia’s relations with the West, with
Germany leading the charge of accusations against the Russian government. German Chancellor’s
spokesperson Steffen Seibert said: “It is a dismaying event that Alexei Navalny was the victim of an
attack with a chemical nerve agent in Russia…The German government condemns this attack in the
strongest terms.”
German Foreign Minister Heiko Maas said the Russian ambassador was summoned to his ministry and
told in “unmistakable” terms of Germany’s call for the Navalny case to be investigated “in full and with full
transparency.” “We now know that there was an attack with a chemical nerve agent,” Mass said. “That
makes it even more urgent to determine who was responsible in Russia and to hold them to account.”

31. Which pact was signed between the Soviet Union and the seven other countries in the central and
eastern Europe in 1955?
(a) Roman Pact
(b) Warsaw Pact
(c) German Pact
(d) World war Pact

32. Which of the following key points is not correct regarding the issue discussed above?
(a) Alexei Navalny is Russia’s opposition leader and anti-corruption campaigner.
(b) Nerve agents act by blocking messages from the nerves to the muscles.
(c) Germany has threatened sanctions against Russia which, in turn, has accused Germany of delaying
the investigation on the matter.
(d) EA-3148 was added to the Chemical Weapons Convention’s list of controlled substances to poison
Navalny.

33. Which of the following is the aim of Chemical Weapons Convention?

(a) It bans chemical weapon for third world nations.
(b) It puts a certain limit on usage of hazardous chemical.
(c) It bans chemical weapons and requires their destruction within a specified period of time.
(d) All of the above.

34. Which of the following are not included in Chemical Weapons Convention prohibits?
(a) Use of chemical weapon for mega industries.
(b) The direct or indirect transfer of chemical weapons.
(c) Chemical weapons use or military preparation for use.
(d) Assisting, encouraging, or inducing other states to engage in CWC-prohibited activity.

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35. Who was conferred with highest national award of Kyrgyzstan titled Manas Order of the First Degree in
Bishkek (capital of Kyrgyzstan)?
(a) India Prime Minister Narendra Modi
(b) Chinese President Xi Jinping
(c) USA president Joe Biden
(d) Russian President Vladimir Putin

Passage (Q.36-Q.41): Tensions are rising in Western Sahara, a large strip of desert stretching along the
Atlantic coast north of Mauritania. Formerly a [1] colony, the area has been claimed for the past half-
century by both Morocco and the independence-seeking [2] Front, which each control part of it for now.
In November, the [2] ditched a 30-year cease-fire with Morocco and has since claimed daily attacks on
Moroccan military personnel.
The Moroccan army hasn’t confirmed or denied any attacks. Even so, Moroccan soldiers have extended
a section of walls along the border with Algeria, which backs the [2], to make it harder for the group’s
fighters to cross over from there. In early March, the International Crisis Group, an independent
organization committed to preventing and resolving deadly conflicts, urged the United Nations to appoint
an envoy to mediate a de-escalation, saying the situation was volatile and could rapidly worsen.
They’ve been building for a while. The cease-fire that ended the [2]’s 16-year insurgency included the
promise of a UN-organized referendum with the option of independence, but it still hasn’t happened.
Meanwhile, Morocco, which controls 80% of Western Sahara, has been reinforcing its claim to the
territory, spending heavily to promote it as an international trade hub, including through the development
of a major port in [3].
The leaders of the Sahrawi Arab Democratic Republic are based in Algeria. More refugees of the conflict
live in camps in southwestern Algeria than in the 20% of Western Sahara controlled by the [2]. For years,
Morocco has accused Algeria of supplying the [2] with weapons, ammunition and military training, a
charge it has never either confirmed nor denied.

36. Which of the following has been redacted by [1]?

(a) Spanish
(b) French
(c) British
(d) Portugese

37. Which of the following has been redacted by [2]?

(a) Polisario
(b) Saharwi
(c) El-Ouali
(d) Afrikanas

38. The Western Sahara conflict has resulted in several Human Rights abuses.
I. Aerial bombardments with napalm and white phosphorus of the Sahrawi refugee camps.
II. Exodus of Sahrawi civilians from the country.
III. Expulsion of tens of thousands of Moroccan expatriate civilians by the Algerian government in
reaction to the Green March.
IV. Blocking of foreign media access to the region has made it difficult to receive accurate and consistent
reporting from inside the disputed territory.
Justify the statement by choosing the appropriate option:
(a) Only IV
(b) I, II and III
(c) I and IV
(d) All of the above

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39. Morocco has become the _______ Arab country to sign the Abraham Accord with Israel in 2020/
(a) Second
(b) Third
(c) Fourth
(d) Fifth

40. Morocco is situated near which of the following sea?

(a) Red Sea
(b) Levantine Sea
(c) Caspian Sea
(d) Mediterranean Sea

41. Which of the following has been redacted by [3]?

(a) Agadir
(b) Dakhla
(c) Nador
(d) Casablanca

Passage (Q.42-Q.48): Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced in her budget earlier that India
will launch its National Hydrogen Energy Mission (NHEM) in 2021-22. This follows Prime Minister
Narendra Modi highlighting in November at the Global Renewable Energy Investment Meeting and Expo
(RE-Invest) the importance of niche renewable technologies like hydrogen in the renewable energy (RE)
mix.

Considering India’s 175 GW target of RE capacity by 2022 and [1] GW by 2030, it is imperative that our
energy grid involves other green technologies on a medium-to-long term basis. This will help India lower
its emission intensity by [2] from the 2005 levels by 2030, another Nationally Determined Contributions
(NDC) target.

Today, climate concerns and increasing focus on zero-carbon RE globally have made hydrogen-based
energy sources more relevant than ever. Stricter carbon abatement regulations have also pushed
hydrogen producers to move away from conventional fossil fuels to sources, like wind, solar, biomass,
hydro-electric power, and so on. In this global context, it is crucial for India to get ahead in the race of
new and upcoming green technologies and become self-reliant. Being an early adopter of hydrogen
energy technology will pay off in the long-term, given hydrogen’s cross-sectoral sustainability.

42. Hydrogen can be stored physically as in

(a) Gas
(b) Liquid
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b

43. National Hydrogen mission focuses on

(a) Generation of hydrogen from green power resources.
(b) Linking India’s growing renewable capacity with the hydrogen economy.
(c) Reduction of import dependency on fossil fuels.
(d) All of the above

44. The usage of hydrogen will help India in achieving its emission goals under
(a) Kyoto protocol
(b) Paris agreement
(c) Stockholm convention
(d) Brundtland commission

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45. India launches Hydrogen task force with which of the following country?
(a) France
(b) Japan
(c) Australia
(d) USA

46. Methane is the simplest hydrocarbon, consisting of

(a) one carbon atom and three hydrogen atoms
(b) one carbon atom and two hydrogen atoms
(c) one carbon atom and four hydrogen atoms
(d) Two carbon atom and three hydrogen atoms

47. Which of the following has been redacted by [1]?

(a) 250 GW
(b) 300 GW
(c) 450 GW
(d) 500 GW

48. Which of the following has been redacted by [2]?

(a) 28 – 30%
(b) 33 – 35%
(c) 38 – 40%
(d) 36 – 38%

Passage (Q.49-Q.55): Chandrayaan-2 mission is a highly complex mission, which represents a

significant technological leap compared to the previous missions of ISRO. It comprised an Orbiter,
Lander and Rover to explore the unexplored South Pole of the Moon. The mission is designed to expand
the lunar scientific knowledge through detailed study of topography, seismography, mineral identification
and distribution, surface chemical composition, thermo-physical characteristics of top soil and
composition of the tenuous lunar atmosphere, leading to a new understanding of the origin and evolution
of the Moon.

After the injection of Chandrayaan-2, a series of maneuvers were carried out to raise its orbit and on
August 14, 2019, following Trans Lunar Insertion (TLI) maneuver, the spacecraft escaped from orbiting
the earth and followed a path that took it to the vicinity of the Moon. On August 20, 2019, Chandrayaan-2
was successfully inserted into lunar orbit. While orbiting the moon in a 100 km lunar polar orbit, on
September 02, 2019, Vikram Lander was separated from the Orbiter in preparation for landing.
Subsequently, two de-orbit maneuvers were performed on Vikram Lander so as to change its orbit and
begin circling the moon in a 100 km x 35 km orbit. Vikram Lander descent was as planned and normal
performance was observed up to an altitude of [1] km. Subsequently communication from lander to the
ground stations was lost.

The Orbiter placed in its intended orbit around the Moon will enrich our understanding of the moon’s
evolution and mapping of the minerals and water molecules in Polar regions, using its eight state-of-the-
art scientific instruments. The Orbiter camera is the highest resolution camera (0.3 m) in any lunar
mission so far and will provide high resolution images which will be immensely useful to the global
scientific community. The precise launch and mission management has ensured a long life of almost
seven years instead of the planned one year.

49. India is working on a joint lunar polar exploration (LUPEX) mission with which of the following country?
(a) France (b) Japan (c) Germany (d) Russia

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50. Which of the following is the objective of the mission Chandrayaan 2?
(a) To identify or to find out the minerals and indicators of hydroxyl and water molecules.
(b) To study the surface of the moon.
(c) To study the density of the electrons in the Moon’s ionosphere that is the uppermost part of the
atmosphere that is ionised by radiation.
(d) All of the above

51. Which of the following claims about Chandrayaan is not correct?

(a) 1st space mission to conduct a soft landing on the Moon’s south polar region.
(b) 1st Indian expedition to attempt a soft landing on the lunar surface with home-grown technology.
(c) 1st Indian mission to explore the lunar terrain with home-grown technology.
(d) 1th country ever to soft land on the lunar surface.

52. Which of the following key points is not correct about the operation JUICE?
I. Indian Navy has launched the 'Operation Juice' to assist the population of Madagascar affected by
Cyclone Diane.
II. The JUICE Mission will study three Galilean Moon of Jupiter. They are Europa, Ganymede and
Callisto.
III. It will reach Jupiter in October 2029.
(a) Only I is correct
(b) Both I and III is correct
(c) Only II is correct
(d) All are correct

53. Which of the following can be replaced by [1]?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

54. Which of the following is India a signatory of?

1. SKAO
2. Artemis Mission
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

55. ______ Indian astronauts have recently concluded their training in ________ for Gaganyaan mission.
(a) Two, France
(b) Four, Russia
(c) Two, Russia
(d) Four, France

Passage (Q.56-Q.61): At the Leaders’ Summit on Climate on 22 April 2021, Prime Minister Narendra
Modi and President Joseph Biden agreed to launch a high-level India-US Partnership which envisages
bilateral cooperation on strong actions in the current decade to meet the goals of the Paris Agreement.
Governments of the Republic of India and the United States of America issued the following statement:

"India and the United States are launching the "India-US Climate and Clean Energy Agenda 2030
Partnership.” Led by Prime Minister Modi and President Biden, the Partnership will represent one of the
core venues for India-US collaboration and focus on driving urgent progress in this critical decade for
climate action. Both India and the United States have set ambitious 2030 targets for climate action and

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 clean energy. In its new nationally determined contribution, the United States has set an economy-wide
target of reducing its net greenhouse gas emissions by [1] percent below 2005 levels in 2030. As part of
its climate mitigation efforts, India has set a target of installing [x] GW of renewable energy by 2030.
Through the Partnership, India and the United States are firmly committed to working together in
achieving their ambitious climate and clean energy targets and to strengthening bilateral collaboration
across climate and clean energy.

The Partnership will proceed along two main tracks: the Strategic Clean Energy Partnership and the
Climate Action and Finance Mobilization Dialogue, which will build on and subsume a range of existing
processes. Through this collaboration, India and the United States aim to demonstrate how the world can
align swift climate action with inclusive and resilient economic development, taking into account national
circumstances and sustainable development priorities".

56. What is the name of the first international agreement on climate change?
(a) Paris Agreement
(b) Kyoto Protocol
(c) Stockholm convention
(d) the UNFCCC

57. Which of the following is not related to Climate Finance?

(a) Climate finance refers to local, national or transnational financing—drawn from public, private and
alternative sources of financing.
(b) It seeks to support mitigation and adaptation actions that will address Economic Slowdown and
Depression.
(c) It is in accordance with the principle of “common but differentiated responsibility and respective
capabilities”.
(d) All of the above.

58. Which country among the following emit least Green House Gases in the world?
(a) China
(b) USA
(c) India
(d) France

59. Which of the following factor does contribute in Climate change?

(a) Continental drift
(b) Greenhouse gases
(c) Altitude
(d) All of the above

60. What is India's rank in Global Climate Risk Index of 2021?

(a) 12
(b) 10
(c) 7
(d) 6

61. Which of the following has been redacted by [1]?

(a) 32 - 35
(b) 40 - 42
(c) 50 - 52
(d) 58 - 60

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 Passage (Q.62-Q.66): One more wetland in India has been added to the list of recognised sites of
international importance under the treaty of Ramsar Convention, taking the number of such wetlands in
the country to 42, the highest in South Asia. The latest site to be added to the list is a high-altitude
wetland complex of two connected lakes, Startsapuk Tso and Tso Kar, in [1].

In a tweet, Union Environment Prakash Javadekar said, "Happy to share that high-altitude wetland
complex in Changthang region of [1] is recognised as wetland of international importance. The complex
is a notable example of two connected lakes, the freshwater Startsapuk Tso and the hypersaline Tso Kar.
Now, India has 42 Ramsar sites."

Last month, two wetlands -- the Lonar lake in Maharashtra and Sur Sarovar, also known as Keetham
lake, in Agra -- were added to the list.
Before that, Kabartal in Bihar's Begusarai district was recognised as a wetland of international
importance under the Ramsar Convention. It was the first such site in the state to figure in the list,
according to the Union Environment Ministry.

62. Which of the following will replace [1] in the above passage?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Ladakh
(d) Manipur

63. Which of the following is not true regarding the Ramsar Convention?
(a) It is one of the oldest inter-governmental accord for preserving the ecological character of wetlands.
(b) The Convention was signed in the year 1978
(c) 2nd February is celebrated as World Wetlands Day.
(d) The United Kingdom has the world’s largest number of Ramsar sites i.e., 175.

64. Which of the following was recognised as the first Ramsar Site in India?
(a) Chilika Lake
(b) Renuka Wetland
(c) Sarsai Wetland
(d) Loonar Lake

65. Consider the following Statements:

I. Montreux Record under the Ramsar Convention is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands
of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or
are likely to occur.
II. Currently, two wetlands of India are in Montreux record: Keoladeo National Park
(Rajasthan) and Loktak Lake (Manipur).
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

66. The newly added Ramsar sites in India will help in achieving which of the following India’s ambitious
Mission?
(a) Nal se Jal
(b) Jal Shakti Abhiyan
(c) Jal Jeevan
(d) Jal Kalyan

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 SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING

Directions (Q.67 – Q.104): Read the comprehensions carefully and answer the questions based on it.

Passage (Q.67-Q.70): The 5-judge bench of the Calcutta High Court on Tuesday continued its hearing in
the Narada case. Sol-Gen. appearing for the CBI argued that a Court proceeding must not only be free of
any Judicial-bias but must also reflect as being such to the common man. "Principle of 'Justice must
seem to be done' is engrained in Jurisprudence of many countries, including ours. This is more so in
criminal proceedings, which are in rem and affect fabric of the society in large," he argued. The
proceedings included the factual matrix being discussed followed by an account of protests being led in
front of the court complex by radicals.
The effect of terror engineered outside CBI office and Court had an effect not only on investigating
agency but also on administration of justice," he submitted. He stated that mobocracy has not been
disputed as this is admitted that members of legislative assembly were protesting there. He insisted that
these events are reasonably likely to leave an impression on the minds of the common man that the
Justice system was stifled with.
“In our country, there is a concept of open Courts. In our democracy, peaceful assembly and protests are
allowed against executive action. So how does it create an impression in common man that such a
protest will influence the judiciary?" the judge asked. "It is not about what the Judge felt, he may not have
known that people have gathered outside. But it is about what a reasonably informed common man
would feel”
Source: https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/calcutta-high-court-cbi-narada-case-hearing-175023

67. A minister of local renown in Safdarjung area of Delhi is arrested over embezzlement of funds from the
central reconstruction project. On the day of his hearing, his followers gather around his house, where
they intend to silently protest against his arrest. However, as the hearing scheduled is delayed by 10
minutes, they become irritated upon waiting and thus, fisticuffs start being noticed between them and
local vendors near his house. Could this violence be construed as being influential on the decision of the
court?
(a) The hearings are being conducted virtually; therefore, no question of the decision being ‘influenced’
by the protestors arises.
(b) The protestors went with a peaceful intent; therefore, no common man would have thought the
decision to be influenced by the protestors. Silent protests cannot be equated with heated protests.
(c) The intent of the protestors being peaceful, the subsequent fisticuffs after a mere 10 minute delay
could easily be construed as bearing influence on the decision.
(d) The protestors got into fisticuffs with the vendors outside his house, and near the court complex, in
which case, influence could have been noted.

68. A matter is listed for hearing in the Delhi HC wherein a three judge bench is formed consisting of Justice
X, Y & Z. The parties in question, A and B, appear before the court in furtherance of seeking redressal of
a tenancy dispute between the two, wherein A is the landlord and B is the tenant in the said dispute, it is
apparent that B would win, however, in a desperate bid to win, A files for the same.
As it turns out, A is shocked that X, his sister in law, is actually one of the judges hearing the matter.
Upon learning this, A relaxes and becomes assured that the matter is bound to be decided in his favour,
however, the matter is decided in B’s favour, reinstating him as the tenant, with the ratio of 2:1. Is this a
case of the judiciary being bias-free?
(a) The matter was adjudicated in the favour of B, and therefore, no apparent bias can be made out.
(b) Notwithstanding the ratio, the matter was riddled with bias.
(c) There could have been no possibility of ratio being biased as B would anyway have won, since X
could not have influenced Y and Z to vote in his favour.
(d) Nemo judex in sua causa should be upheld, and the matter should be relisted.

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69. The Enforcement Directorate has been tasked with investigating the matter of Chinmay Moghul, an
economic offender who absconded from India after defrauding the Indian Bank of Saparghat. Being the
promoter of a billion-dollar company, he was well-known by the Indian masses, as a result of which, when
he was being questioned at the HQ of the ED, hundreds of people gathered around the ED to protest
against the investigative actions of the ED. When the matter reached the courts, people from across the
country, who were employed by his company, went on a strike in front of the ED. Could the decision of
the judiciary be influenced by such actions of the employees?
(a) The strike that took place outside ED cannot be termed to be influential on the courts as they did not
have any nexus with the courts. The protesters were unhappy.
(b) The strikes that were taking place would act as influential factors upon the bearing of the decision of
the courts.
(c) The strikes were happening so far away from the courts, that they could not have been influential on
the court proceedings.
(d) The ED acts as an investigating authority, therefore, the procedure for the judiciary to follow does not
get affected.

70. Upon committing robbery, Dhaniya and his accomplices are caught and are kept in police custody before
being presented before the magistrate. When his family gets to know about this, four of them storm into
the nearest police station and refuse to leave until Dhaniya is acquitted honorably. Could such disruption
in the police functions of the investigating authority be termed as bearing influential upon the proceeding
before the investigating authority?
(a) The police are more than capable of dealing with 4 unarmed civilians; this would not end up
influencing the magistrate.
(b) The fabric of criminal law terms such factors as being influential since it affects the society in rem.
(c) The family members have a reasonable right to protests however; this shouldn’t bother the
investigating authority.
(d) The police cannot proceed with their policing functions if the civilians act in a haphazard manner and
threaten to disrupt their working.

Passage (Q.71-Q.74): The Allahabad HC held that irrational, indiscriminate arrests are a gross violation
of human rights, accepting an anticipatory bail plea in a corruption case. The courts have repeatedly held
that arrest should be the last option for the police and it should be restricted cases where arresting the
accused is either imperative or where custodial interrogation is required.
There was an allegation against him that he was taking money from passing trucks, an FIR was lodged
against him under Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988. Counsel for the applicant submitted that there is
no forensic report and probe into the matter is still underway and he has definite apprehensions that he
may be arrested by the.
“After the lodging of an FIR, the arrest can be made by the police at will. There is no definite period fixed
for the police to arrest an accused against whom an FIR has been lodged. Irrational and indiscriminate
arrests are gross violations of human rights,” the court observed. “In the event of arrest, the applicant
shall be released on anticipatory bail till cognizance is taken by the court on the police report, under
section 173 CrPC before the competent court.
The HC said that he shall make himself available for interrogation by the police officer when required. He
shall not, directly or indirectly, make any inducement, threat or promise to any person acquainted with the
facts of the case to dissuade from disclosing such facts to the court or to any police officer. The court said
the applicant shall not leave India without the previous permission of the court and if he has a passport.
Source: https://thewire.in/law/irrational-indiscriminate-arrests-are-gross-violation-of-human-rights-
allahabad-hc

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71. Amit is a construction worker involved in contracted employment at a construction site. There he works
with 30 other such workers, out of which he does not get along with Ranjit, often getting in fisticuffs with
him. One morning, while on his way to work, he is called by his foreman to come quickly as there has
been an accident. When he reaches there, he sees that the police is present there, talking to the
foreman. He is told by another worker that Ranjit has been killed and has been found dead behind the
site itself. The police start questioning Amit regarding the same, and arrest him for further questioning in
the station. Is the police correct in doing so?
(a) The police are correct in arresting him, as they can question him for being linked to the murder as he
did not have good relations with Ranjit and is a prime suspect.
(b) The police are incorrect in doing so, as there was no reason to arrest him.
(c) The police are correct in arresting him as they have reason enough to suspect them.
(d) There is no evidence on record to show that Amit should be termed as a suspect to be taken into
custodial interrogation, hence, the police are incorrect in arresting him.

72. Raman is an Indian journalist who is known for his coverage of wartime nations and human rights issues.
When India is at the brink of waging war with Bangladesh, an emergency is declared with complete
national lockdown except for army and medical personnel, he quickly flies out to the border, and tries to
jump the frontlines to get a better view of what is happening. Amid all the commotion, he gets trapped in
a pit and is then rescued by the army personnel stationed nearby. Upon being rescued, he is arrested by
the police force stationed near the army camp and is straight away locked up until he can be presented
before the jurisdictional courts. Could he challenge the action of the police as being discriminate and
irrational?
(a) He cannot challenge the action of police as he was in a very sensitive area without proper cause or
legal means.
(b) He cannot challenge the action of the police as they were right in taking such quick action.
(c) He cannot challenge the action of the police as they were acting in furtherance of the orders given to
them.
(d) He cannot challenge the action of the police as the border was a very sensitive area and he could
have been a spy or an enemy solider.

73. Surabjo is one of the prime accused in a case of sedition and has been suspected of inciting rebellion in
the minds of impressionable youth to riot against the Central Government, although no evidence of the
same is found. However, he absconds from police custody a night before his appearance before the Trial
Court. Two years later, a group of politically driven individuals aligning with the Central Government, find
him near a fruit vendor’s shop and bring him straight to the police officials. The police arrests him at once
and produces him before the magistrate where he pleads that he has been wrongfully arrested. Can his
action sustain?
(a) His action will not sustain as he is rightly accused of inciting sedition in the youth.
(b) His action will sustain as he has been arrested irrationally.
(c) His action will not sustain as the police is rightly exercising their discretion in arresting him.
(d) His action will sustain as a lot of time has passed since his last arrest, and the police lack evidence.

74. Ajmal Wasabi is a Jharkiswani terrorist, a nation that India troubles with for a couple of years. Owing to
the troubles his group of militants have caused in the northern region of India, the government releases a
press release with his name as being affiliated to a dangerous terrorist group called ‘Wingbuts of
Jharkiswan” and announces immediate arrest and detention for him, and a prize money of 24 lakhs for
any person having information about him. This creates uproar in the news channels and they run to
broadcast the press release. One news channel, DNTV Ahsas, runs the press release but fails to mention
the full name of the terrorist and only mentions the first name of the terrorist. When Subedaar Khan, a
constable of impeccable record, comes to know of this, he goes on a lookout for him. After a week long
search, he finally decides to return to his station when he finally hears someone calling out the name
‘Ajmal’ after someone running with a bag full of explosives. Subedaar rushes after him and catches him

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 by tackling him into the ground and arrests him. Upon subsequent questioning, he gets to know that this
is not the terrorist they were looking for, but is only a local goon. Could Ajmal allege the actions of
Subedaar as being a gross violation of human rights?
(a) Subedaar was acting irrationally by arresting the first person he saw by the name of Ajmal. His
actions are a gross violation of human rights.
(b) Subedaar was rightly under the impression that the person is a terrorist. His actions were not
irrational or discriminate and, as a result, not in violation of human rights.
(c) Subedaar is right in arresting him, even if Ajmal was not a terrorist, he still arrested a goon.
(d) Subedaar was correct in arresting him as he was only carrying out his public duty towards the society
at large.

Passage (Q.75-Q.78): The legal basis for challenging internet shutdowns in India is solid but does not
result in relief for the citizens despite several rounds of litigation. In a landmark case last January, the
Supreme Court recognised that the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression under Article
19(1)(a) of the Constitution, and the right to carry on any trade or business under 19(1)(g), using the
medium of internet is fully protected. However, reasonable restrictions on fundamental rights continue to
operate.
Although the court held that suspending internet services indefinitely is impermissible, this was not
applied to the shutdown in Kashmir that had been continuing for more than five months at that time. The
only relief granted was a direction given to the state to review all orders suspending internet services
forthwith.
The Court did recognise that the ban constituted an indefinite ban on the internet. In view of the
fundamental nature of the rights at stake, the Court has also emphasised the requirement of
transparency, mandating that shutdown orders be published. Nonetheless, most of the orders are not
published nor is the public informed of any imminent shutdown. Most districts in Kashmir continue to have
merely 2G access since March 2020, further complicating lives during the pandemic.
The government’s 2017 rules concerning “Temporary Suspension of Telecom Services” provide for a
review of shutdown orders every 15 days. But the review committee is staffed entirely by officers of the
executive and continues to extend orders every fortnight.
[Extracted with revisions from ‘Internet shutdowns don’t just hinder some apps – they undermine the very
idea of democracy’ published by Internet shutdowns don’t just hinder some apps – they undermine the
very idea of democracy’ Eben Moglen on 2 Feb 2021
https://scroll.in/article/985688/internet-shutdowns-dont-just-hinder-some-apps-they-undermine-the-very-
idea-of-democracy]

75. Lumbini was a small town on the outskirts of Maharashtra. The town had become notorious due to
frequent bouts of communal violence that broke out amongst the people. The source of this
communalization was the construction of a church on a site that was previously a mosque. Since the
decision of the Court was pending on this front, the local government ordered a complete ban on internet
till the Court gave its news to prevent the spread of fake news. It has been 2 years and the decision is
still pending. Is the order of the local government a constitutional exercise of power?
(a) Yes, because it is a reasonable restriction on the fundamental right to use the internet.
(b) No, because it is not a reasonable restriction on the fundamental right to use the internet.
(c) Yes, because internet is not being banned indefinitely but only till the Court delivers a verdict.
(d) No, because in effect the internet is being shut down indefinitely in Lumbini as the decision of the
Court remains uncertain.

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76. Brijwasi is a local artisan. He recently started selling his arts and crafts online. The business was going
well and now a majority of his sales happen online only. Due to a fault in the network lines, the local
municipality ordered the re-laying of cable lines. This disrupted internet in the area for two weeks. In this
time, Brijwasi lost business worth Rs. 25,000. Can he sue for a violation of fundamental rights?
(a) Yes, because internet access is a fundamental right
(b) Yes, because the right to carry on any trade or business under Article 19(1)(g), using the medium of
internet is fully protected
(c) No, because the ban on internet is a reasonable restriction on fundamental rights
(d) None of the above

77. Due to an imminent threat of a terrorist attack, the government was supposed to take immediate
measures in national interest. This included a temporary shutdown of internet services to try and disable
the network of the alleged terrorist. However, the length of this ban couldn’t be predicted till the crisis was
averted. The government was so busy trying to manage the situation that internet was shutdown
suddenly without any notice. Can citizens appeal against this decision?
(a) Yes, because it is a violation of the government’s duty to be transparent;
(b) Yes, because shutdown orders must mandatorily be published;
(c) No, because it is a reasonable restriction on fundamental rights;
(d) No, because the inability to publish the notice was due to an imminent security threat that affected
national interest.

78. In an alternate situation, in the previous question the government announced the ban within 2 hours of
declaring it via loudspeakers. They asked the people to stay inside their homes as there was a terrorist
threat. However, due to a paucity of time, the notice could not be published on paper even though it was
announced through loudspeakers in all public places. Can the citizens still protest against this decision?
(a) Yes, because the court has emphasised the requirement of transparency in announcing internet
bans;
(b) Yes, because the ban was announced on loudspeakers in public places;
(c) No, because the inability to publish the notice was due to an imminent security threat that affected
national interest;
(d) None of the above.

Passage (Q.79-Q.82): In a short judgment regarding the petitions filed earlier in the year against the
Shaheen Bagh protests, the Supreme Court has held that “public ways and public spaces cannot be
occupied in such a manner and that too indefinitely.” While acknowledging the right to dissent, the court
stated that “demonstrations expressing dissent have to be in designated places alone.”
Noting the inconvenience caused to commuters by the protesters at Shaheen Bagh, the judges go on to
say that “We have, thus, no hesitation in concluding that such kind of occupation of public ways, whether
at the site in question or anywhere else for protests is not acceptable and the administration ought to take
action to keep the areas clear of encroachments or obstructions.”
This all-encompassing ban on protests in public spaces except designated areas doesn’t just go against
the court’s own judgments from the past, it also runs contrary to international law.
A UN Special Rapporteurs’ report on the right to freedom of peaceful assembly notes that while
restrictions to the right of peaceful assembly can be made in the interest of national security or public
order, these must be lawful, necessary and proportionate to the aim pursued. It also notes that these
restrictions are to be the exception, not the norm, and, very importantly, that they “must not impair the
essence of the right.”
Completely blocking a road for an extended period of time may eventually become an unacceptable
impediment to freedom of movement, but this cannot be grounds to prevent any such protest right at the
start.
[Extracted from 'What Does SC’s Shaheen Bagh Verdict Mean for Our Right to Protest?' by Vakasha
Sachdev, published 13 Feb 2021 in thequint

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 https://www.thequint.com/news/law/supreme-court-shaheen-bagh-judgment-impact-right-to-protest-
violation-of-sc-judgment-international-law-experts#read-more]

79. A large mass of protestors gathered on the road in front of the Parliament. The crowd were protesting
against the inefficiency and inability of the government to take sufficient action to prevent crimes against
women and hold the perpetrators accountable. In a period of just 3 days, the crowd covered the entire
road as the numbers of protestors increased by thousands with each passing day. The crowd says that
they have a fundamental right to protest on the road in front of the parliament. Is this true?
(a) Yes, because it is a designated place of expressing dissent against the government;
(b) Yes, because the road has not yet been blocked for an “indefinite period to cause an impediment to
freedom of movement;”
(c) No, because the road in front of the Parliament constitutes “public ways;”
(d) No, because the government ought to take action to keep the areas clear of encroachments or
obstructions.

80. As the protest on the road in front of the Parliament grew larger, the government ordered the police to
control the crowd. The police asked the crowd to move however they did not budge. Eventually, the
administration had to order a lathi charge to clear the road and restore movement of cars. Is the action of
the administration valid?
(a) Yes, because it is empowered to take action to keep designated protest places clear of
encroachments or obstructions;
(b) Yes, because the administration is empowered to take action to keep public ways clear of
encroachments or obstructions;
(c) No, because the government cannot take arbitrary or coercive actions to keep the areas clear of
encroachments or obstructions;
(d) No, because “demonstrations expressing dissent have to be in designated places alone”.

81. The chief minister of Janakpur had announced a new policy of taxation wherein the middle classes would
have to pay for the upkeep and concessions of the poorer classes. The people of Janakpur decided to
protest this action as arbitrary and unfair onto the pockets of the hardworking middle classes. The protest
was organised in Lal Park, which was a popular protest site. Lal Park was opposite to the Chief Minister’s
house. Can the Chief Minister ask the protestors to vacate the land as his right to enjoy freedom of
movement around his house is being violated?
(a) No, because the chief minister’s freedom of movement is not actually being violated;
(b) No, because completely blocking a road for an extended period of time may eventually become an
unacceptable impediment to freedom of movement;
(c) No, because Lal Park is a designated protest site;
(d) No, because Lal Park constitutes a “public way” and the freedom of movement of the chief minister is
being hampered.

82. People decided to protest against the hike in prices of petrol and diesel. The protestors contended that
they could not afford such a hike in prices especially because COVID-19 related lockdown which affected
their economic capacity. The protestors continued to gather on the designated site and the government
was concerned that it may lead to people contracting COVID-19 because they were in close proximity. In
order to disperse the crowd in the interest of public health, the government ordered tear gas, lathi charge
and firing of rubber bullets. Is the governmental action valid?
(a) Yes, because it is lawful and necessary
(b) Yes, because it is in the interest of protecting public health which is a part of the exception of “public
order”
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above

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 Passage (Q.83-Q.88): The Madras HC dismissed an anticipatory bail plea by former State Minister in a
case of rape on false pretext of marriage, cheating and forced miscarriages. HC held that it is not
desirable to grant the former Minister anticipatory bail since the investigation was at the preliminary stage
given his influential status.
“ There is reasonable apprehension that the petitioner may tamper with the evidence/witnesses as the
investigation is in a preliminary stage. There is also a possibility that the petitioner may flee from justice
using his influence and money power, if anticipatory bail is granted at this stage
“ When the investigation is in a preliminary stage, courts should act with circumspection while deciding for
anticipatory bail. There will also be public outcry if the petitioner is released on anticipatory bail when the
investigation is in the beginning stage,"..
HC opined that it may have considered the anticipatory bail if the petitioner was only charged with the
relatively minor offences. However, he was accused of the more grave offences of rape and causing
forced miscarriage.
" If the accused is equipped with an order of anticipatory bail even before interrogation, it would greatly
harm the investigation and would impede the prospects of unearthing all the ramifications involved in the
alleged commission of the offences and public interest may also suffer as a consequence." the Court
reasoned.
The truth will have to be unearthed only after the investigation and trial, the Court further emphasised,
before ultimately concluding that the balance is tilted against the petitioner when it comes to the grant of
anticipatory bail.
Source: https://www.barandbench.com/news/litigation/madras-high-court-dismisses-anticipatory-bail-
former-tn-minister-m-manikandan

83. Javali Babu is a suspect in a murder case with allegations of having murdered 3 innocent people looming
large over his head. The FIR also includes charges for dacoity and criminal trespass as well. Javali is a
very well known and feared bandit of Sambalpur and infamy precedes him. His gang is also well known
for escaping with crimes and evading justice. Considering this, the HC of Odisha denies him anticipatory
bail suggesting that he has a past track record of evading the noose and shall do so again if given the
chance. Can the courts take away his right to file for anticipatory bail?
(a) The courts are wrong as every individual has a right to file for anticipatory bail.
(b) The courts are correct in considering his history of run-ins with the police and courts.
(c) The courts are incorrect as he is only a suspect and not an accused.
(d) The courts are correct as he is a heinous criminal and should be denied bail on the same account.

84. Kheda Ram is the minister for Health and Sanitation in the cabinet of the current PM. He is a very
influential person in the country and has held various prestigious union and state government portfolios
before as well. One morning, on his way to a press conference, due to a traffic jam, he is captured by the
media urinating in the open, for which the laws entail a 10,000 rupees fine and 3 month incarceration
simultaneously. When this is brought to the notice of the police they hesitated to arrest him on account of
him being a very influential person. However, the matter finally reaches the magistrate, along with Kheda
Rams anticipatory bail application. The courts deny him bail on account of being an influential person
who could evade the courts. Have the courts treated him fairly?
(a) The courts have not treated him fairly as his is a minor offence.
(b) The courts have rightly considered his influence as being an important factor in the hearing.
(c) Kheda Ram has been publicly seen as urinating unlawfully, he should be denied bail.
(d) None of the above.

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85. In the above set of facts, when Kheda Ram is informed of his bail being rejected, he has to attend court
hearings on the day of the Union Budget being announced, as a result of which he misses vital
information pertaining to his portfolio. Enraged, he addresses the courts and the police as donkeys and
chaukidaars in the press conference which leads to the counts of contempt of court being initiated
against him. Would these offences warrant a bail application once again being denied by the courts?
(a) The courts have once again erred in reasoning.
(b) The courts have rightly disallowed his bail application.
(c) The courts have rightly taken cognizance of his malfeasance and have rightly held him in contempt of
the court.
(d) None of the above.

86. The government of India declares the possession and consumption of beef as being illegal and
punishable with imprisonment of up to 12 years on account of being insensitive towards the religious
beliefs of one of the most prominent religious sects in the country. However, before being declared
illegal, beef was being rampantly sold and eaten in India as a delicacy, as a result of which, well known
personalities like ministers, celebrities, etc. all used to eat it. One such person was Dahiya Rasam, an
MP minister, who could not dispose of the meat in time, and was brought in for questioning by the police.
Seeing the current state of affairs, people were being beaten up in streets and were lynched for the
possession of the meet, the minister got scared out of wits and filed for an anticipatory bail fearing arrest.
Can the courts allow his action?
(a) The minister is guilty of a heinous crime herein and should not be allowed to evade judicial action by
way of anticipatory bail.
(b) The minister herein did not aim to possess the meat upon being declared illegal, and thus, rightly
fears arrest.
(c) The minister should be allowed anticipatory bail on account of the state of affairs in the country.
(d) The state of affairs is not conducive for the minister to be allowed bail, upon receiving which, he could
be publicly lynched

87. Jeevandev is a very well known actor whose movies are very well liked all across the world and have
received critical acclaim internationally. This leads to him being approached by a very big director, Peven
Pielburger, who has been nominated for an Oscar 7 times and received 2. During the shooting, amid an
action scene, Jeevandev has to fight with 4 extras in order to get into the car and escape. The best action
directors were directing this scene when a mishap took place. The latex knife which he was supposed to
use was switched out for an actual knife by a miscreant who deliberately anted Jeevandev to be
convicted for murder. Jeevandev gets very scared due to this and goes to his lake house for hiding.
However, someone brings this to the notice of the police and they set out in search of him. Should he
apply for an anticipatory bail, would he be granted the same?
(a) Jeevandev is an influential person, his followers could create unrest in the country and hamper the
ourse of justice, hence, he shouldn’t be granted the bail.
(b) Jeevandev should be granted the bail as he did not intend to murder the extra and has been framed
falsely.
(c) Jeevandev shouldn’t be granted bail as the investigation has not even started yet and the matter is at
a very preliminary stage.
(d) There are no facts on record to show that Jeevandev intended to order anyone, therefore, he should
eb allowed the bail.

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88. During the course of investigation, the police find out that the knife which was seized at the crime scene
was taken from Jeevandev’s home and had his initials engraved on it, which he later attested to. This
leads to a warrant being issued in his name for arrest, as against which, he files for anticipatory bail.
Could his action succeed?
(a) As has been established earlier, the influence that Jeevandev carries is enough to create unrest in
the whole country, to avoid which, the courts should allow his bail.
(b) Jeevandev is being implicated in this conspiracy and should be allowed respite y way of bail.
(c) The matter herein is still in preliminary stages and therefore, a bail application being granted could
hamper the course of investigation.
(d) Jeevandev could use his reputation to evade justice and therefore, should not be allowed bail.

Passage (Q.89-Q.94): The Union Government has amended the Cable Television Network Rules, 1994,
in order to set up a three-tier mechanism for redressal of grievance relating to content broadcasted by
Television channels in contravention of Programme Code or Advertising Code. They have come into
force with their notification in the Official Gazette today. Similar to the complaint redressal structure under
the social media rules framed under the IT Act, the present rule for regulation of broadcast content
provide for: - A self-regulation by broadcasters; Self-regulation by the self-regulating bodies of the
broadcasters; and lastly, - Oversight mechanism by the Central Government.
So, any person aggrieved by the content of a programme of a channel may file his complaint in writing to
the broadcaster who will issue an acknowledgement to the complainant, within 24 hours and dispose of
the complaint within 15 days.
In case the grievance is not resolved, s/he may appeal to the self-regulating body of which such
broadcaster is a member, within fifteen days therefrom. Every such self-regulating body shall be
constituted by a minimum of 40 broadcasters, and will have to register itself with the Central Government
within a period of 30 days.
Where the complainant is not satisfied with the decision or where the broadcaster fails to comply with the
guidance/advisory of the self-regulating body, s/he may prefer an appeal to the oversight Mechanism,
within 15 days.
This body will inter alia, be empowered to take action for non-compliance of its orders or directions and
that of the self-regulating body.
Source: https://www.livelaw.in/news-updates/centre-amends-cable-tv-rules-complaints-redressal-
mechanism-175870

89. Dharamkosh United is a group of channels dedicated to showing scriptures in a cinematic form all day
long on their channels. Due to this very reason, as there is no programme diversity on their channel, their
TRP falls below average and they start making losses. Due to this, they are approached by Chaalubagh
Industries group who specialises in advertisements and marketing. They propose to run such exciting
advertisements on their channels that their ratings would go through the roof. On hearing this, the board
of directors of Dharamkosh unanimously agrees to give Chaalubagh all their ad slots. However, in
between the scriptures being shown on the TV, Chaalubagh runs A-rated movie promos, B-class
advertisements and other offensive material which, even though leads to a huge spike in their ratings,
causes unrest among Dharamkosh’s prominent followers. You are to advise them on the action they can
take against Dharamkosh and/or Chaalubagh.
(a) The complaint lies against the Chaalubagh Group only as they are the ones who duped Dharamkosh
into believing that they will ‘magically’ raise their ratings.
(b) The complaint here lies against both Chaalubagh Group and Dharamkosh United as they were both
equally responsible in running the ads.
(c) The complaint here lies only against the Dharamkosh Group as they approved the ads to be run on
their channels.
(d) The consumers herein can file an appeal against both the parties since the gravity of the crime is
severe herein.

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90. In similar vein, upon receiving the complaint on 10 am Friday, Dhramakosh united issues an
acknowledgement on Monday as they remain closed on Saturdays and Sundays since people do not
watch ‘bhakti serials’ on weekends, and this move of theirs is to cut the losses that they had been
making. Is Dharamkosh United in the right here?
(a) Dharamkosh is right by issuing a fast acknowledgement as soon as possible as this is required by the
law to be done by them.
(b) Dharamkosh United is absolutely correct since they have to manage their losses as well and in rider
to do that they have to size down their operations.
(c) Dharamkosh is a prudent group and has acted in an orderly manner here y issuing a fast
acknowledgement for the complaint that was registered.
(d) None of the above.

91. In the acknowledgement that the Dharamkosh group issues, they clarify their stance as being one of
mitigating their losses, which led to them contracting with the ad agency, which has now become ‘vital’ for
their ratings and profits, in the absence of which, they cannot survive. This leads to a nationwide uproar
as devout followers of the channel are now left unsatisfied and would like to approach a higher authority.
Can they do so?
(a) Dharamkosh has violated the laws in place and its viewers have appellate remedy by way of filing an
SLP in the Supreme Court.
(b) An appeal lies against the group by way of a writ to the High Court of the concerned place.
(c) An appeal lies to the Central Government.
(d) An appeal herein shall lie to the body of broadcasters.

92. The viewers of Dharamkosh decided to take their complaints to the self-regulating body of the
broadcasters, which is responsible for level II resolution of complaints, as they were not satisfied by the
behavior of the broadcaster itself. Upon hearing their pleas, the body decides to criminally penalize
Dharamkosh group and grants a permanent stay on the objectionable content being displayed on their
channels. However, when the broadcaster receives this instruction, he does not comply and further
alleges that the body answering him is not a registered one. Is Dharamkosh right in doing so?
(a) Dharamkosh is right in doing so as an unregistered body does not have the power to adjudicate
claims of the masses by appeal.
(b) Dharamkosh has gravely erred here as the body was merely following principles of equitable justice.
(c) Dharamkosh is a highly capitalistic entity and has acted in a severely erroneous manner thereby
neglecting the demands of its demographics.
(d) Dharamkosh has rightly contested the order as being of authority.

93. The popular social networking website known as Finstagram has a feature known as FGTV wherein
people make videos, save them on the network for the people to view at large and earn by getting
viewers. This mode of broadcasting to the people at large has become very famous and millions of
people use the FGTV feature to get famous and rich. One such user is the handle of @HarveerFernando
a popular photographer who is known for his archaic yet modern style of photography and he regularly
uploads and streams his shoots on FGTV. One such shoot was of the calendar that he was making in
partnership with a Beer-Mogul Named Bijoy Walia, who was a renowned name in the same industry. This
shoot was being viewed live by 200 million people across all ages and had garnered more than 1 million
rupees. One of the viewers was Ratan Debi, a mother of three children who objected to the obscenities
being shown in the form of models. Could she appeal to Finstagram for removing the content that
troubles her?
(a) Yes, as Finstagram is a very well-known broadcasting network.
(b) No, as Finstagram does not qualify as a broadcasting network here.
(c) Yes, as Finstagram is a very well circulated broadcasting network with a reach of millions across the
globe.
(d) None of the above.

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94. In the above question, when Ratna Debi had appealed to the Finstagram Network for removing such
objectionable material but Finstagram had failed to comply with her appeals which led to her appealing to
the Self-regulating body. However, to her dismay she could not find any such body and therefore, had to
directly appeal to the Union Government of India. Will her pleas be heard?
(a) No, as she failed to observe due process of law and jumped the gun by directly appealing to the
central government.
(b) No, as there exists no level-2 appellate mechanism, and she should drop the matter.
(c) No, as Finstagram does not come under the ambit of the laws mentioned above.
(d) No, as she should apply to the central government of the home country of Finstagram.

Passage (Q.95-Q.100): Last month, an interim order was issued by the High Court of Delhi directing
Google and Indian Kanoon to remove access to a judgment from their portals. The High Court had
applied the Right to Be Forgotten ("RTBF") principles. At present, the data protection regime in India
does not contain the RTBF principles but there is a compelling argument that this right must be read as
part of Article 21 of the Constitution of India. Such an interpretation is a result of the law laid down in
Justice (Retd.) K.S. Puttaswamy and Anr. vs Union of India and Ors (2017) case which confirmed the
right to privacy to be part and parcel of the fundamental right to life and personal liberty enshrined in the
Constitution. Specifically, the concurring judgment authored by the Hon'ble Mr Justice SK Kaul talks
about the "right of an individual to exercise control over his personal data and to be able to control his/her
own life would also encompass his right to control his existence on the internet."
The High Court judgment further records that "the existence of such a right does not imply that a criminal
can obliterate his past, but that there are variant degrees of mistakes, small and big, and it cannot be
said that a person should be profiled to the nth extent for all and sundry to Know”
In some cases, the Supreme Court has held that anonymity can help protect victims of sexual offence
from social ostracism. In Sri Vasunathan v The Registrar General (2017), the Karnataka High Court
recognized RTBF principles in sensitive cases involving women in general as well highly sensitive cases
involving rape or affecting the modesty of the person.

95. Which of the following is incorrect in light of the above-mentioned facts in the passage?
(a) The data protection regime in India does not consider the right to be forgotten as a fundamental right.
(b) The K.S. Puttaswamy Case states that the Right to be Forgotten should be a part of fundamental
rights enshrined in the Constitution.
(c) The Right privacy means that an individual has the right to regulate his existence on the internet.
(d) The Delhi High Court Judgement states that both the victims and the criminal have the right to be
forgotten.

96. The Parliament passed the “Information and Data Act” that provided for the right to be forgotten,
however, it stated that a person’s data regarding a matter cannot be erased from the public domain only
if that affects the general interest of the public. Ajay Kapoor is a well-known actor in Bollywood, with
several successful films in his name. The tabloids recently posted that Ajay would be getting a divorce
from his wife. The media started publishing details about his divorce case. One of the articles published
that the divorce stemmed from a huge fight that the couple had during their last vacation. All search
engines were flooded with articles on the famous fight. Ajay files a case to take down the articles
publishing such personal details on his account.
(a) He has a successful right to be forgotten request in relation to publications about the divorce case
details because it does not affect the public interest.
(b) He does not have a successful right to be forgotten request because he is a public figure and his
actions influence the public.
(c) He does not have a successful right to be forgotten request because his fans have a right to be
informed.
(d) He has a successful right to be forgotten request in relation to publications about the divorce case
because it affects its personal life.

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97. In light of the above-mentioned facts, a video was also released by a news website in which Ajay Kapoor
could be seen hitting his wife with a vase during a fight. Ajay Kapoor moves the Court to remove the
video from the internet under the Information and Data Act under the claim that it tarnishes his public
image.
(a) He has a successful right to be forgotten request in relation to publication of the video because it
does not affect the public interest.
(b) He does not have a successful right to be forgotten request because he is a public figure and his
actions influence the public and thus, the public interest.
(c) He does not have a successful right to be forgotten request because his fans have a right to be
informed.
(d) He has a successful right to be forgotten request in relation to publication of the video case because it
affects its personal life.

98. Vikram Singh is the manager of a successful Indian Asset Reconstruction Company. He started the
business 15 years ago and is a known figure among the Indian financial investment industry. Recently he
got named in one of the most famous corporate scams. Later, he got acquitted by the Court since the
charges against him could not be proved. However, whenever someone searched his name in any
search engine, the first posts to come up would be the old articles stating his involvement in the scam.
This affected his reputation and ultimately shadowed the business of his company as well. He moved the
Court to order the websites to remove the old articles under the Information and Data Act.
(a) He has a successful right to be forgotten request in relation to the deletion of the old articles because
it does not concern the public interest anymore.
(b) He does not have a successful right to be forgotten request because people should be aware of his
actions so as to make informed decision while dealing with his company.
(c) He does not have a successful right to be forgotten request because he was involved in the scam
(d) He has a successful right to be forgotten request in relation to the deletion of the old articles because
he has already been acquitted by the Court.

99. Abby Sheldon is a registered nurse and is currently working for a drug rehabilitation charity program. She
never published anywhere that she was a member of the Church of Scientology or that she was a
member of any other religious group. One day, Abby was contacted by Rita who falsely presented herself
and claimed to be enquiring about the services of the drug rehabilitation charity on behalf of a member of
her family but was actually inquisitive about the links the charity had with the Church of Scientology and
whether some of the employees of the charity were practising scientologists. Upon confirming her doubts,
Rita published several blogs bashing her for practicing scientology and condemned Abby and the charity
she was working for as immoral and unethical. Anyone who carried out a search on Google for Abby’s
name or for any of the organisations she was associated with was bound to find the negative posts by
Rita as they appear very high on Google search results. Abby moves the Court to order the websites to
remove the blogs under the Information and Data Act.
(a) Abby does not have a successful right to be forgotten request because people should be aware of her
religious beliefs so as to make informed decision while dealing with her drug programme.
(b) Abby does not have a successful right to be forgotten request because she is a member of a
criticised religious group.
(c) She has a successful right to be forgotten request in relation to the deletion of the blogs because
there is no relation between her religion and her work.
(d) Abby has a successful right to be forgotten request in relation to the deletion of the blogs because it
deters the people from getting enrolled in the drug rehabilitation programme which thereby affects the
public interest.
.

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100. In the aforementioned question, had it been a known fact that followers of scientology often use shock
therapy as a form of punishment to the people who stray from their rules, would Abby have a successful
right to be forgotten request?
(a) Yes, because the blogs deter the people from getting enrolled in the drug rehabilitation programme
which thereby affects the public interest
(b) No, because she may inflict pain on people.
(c) Yes, because the shock-therapy forms a part of her religion and there is no relation between her
religion and her work.
(d) No, because people should be aware of her religious beliefs that including the rituals of shock therapy
so as to make informed decision while dealing with her drug programme.

Passage (Q.101-Q.104): The Bombay High Court recently sought the response of the Maharashtra
government on a plea seeking a declaration that "Ludo is a game of chance and not a game of skill". It
was submitted that a possibility of a 3-year-old winning the game could not be discounted and, hence,
Ludo cannot be considered a game of mere skill but is a game of chance. The entire game is completely
an uncertain future event and the occurrence or non-occurrence of a particular result is absolutely based
on luck, or in other words based on 'chance'. It was also contended that players could play by betting
money in the game. The term ‘Gambling’ is understood as the ‘act of wagering or betting for money’s
worth’. Section 12 of the Public Gambling Act provides that “game of mere skill” does not fall under the
ambit of gambling.
The five characteristics of gambling are: the exchange of money or something of value; a future event
that determines the result of this exchange and the outcome of this event is unknown at the time that a
bet is made; chance at least partly determines the outcome of the exchange; losses can be avoided by
simply not taking part; winner gains at the expenses of the losers. Skill can include any of the following:
A learned or developed ability; Strategy, or tactic; Physical coordination or strength; Technical expertise;
Knowledge and means of accomplishing a task.

101. Dobble is a game that recently gained popularity across the globe. The game includes two opposing
teams where one team would have to throw a metal ball weighing around 10 kilograms across the other
side of the playing field while the opposing team defends and stops the team from doing so. The decision
as to which team goes first is done by a simple toss of a coin. Nine out of ten times, the team that goes
first wins the game because the team to defend first is usually tired during the second innings to
successfully throw the ball to the other side while also dealing with the other team. With the rising
popularity of this game, more and more people started betting on their teams. Alok moves the Court
seeking a ban on this game on the pretext that this game encourages gambling as the result of the game
is dependent on the toss.
(a) Alok’s claim would sustain because the fact that the team to go first is usually the one to win the
game shows that Dobble is a game of chance based on a toss.
(b) Alok’s claim would not sustain because the game ultimately depends on the skills of the players.
(c) Alok’s claim would sustain because the game is completely based on luck or chance.
(d) Alok’s claim would not sustain because the game the result is ultimately unknown while the bet is
made.

102. Guess Chess is a newly launched gaming app by Gaming.inc. In the game, the players need to pay Rs.
100/- to play one round in the game. In this game, the moves from both the sides would be controlled by
the in-built administrator. The app is so developed that the administrator would only make the best
possible move from both the sides. The players would have to guess the next possible move of the
administrator. In each round, 10 players would be competing against each other and the player to get 25
right guesses first wins the game and receives cash prize of Rs. 250/-. After 3 months into the launch of
the app, it was challenged in the Court for allowing ‘gambling’ on the platform.
(a) The claim against the app would not sustain as the players have to necessarily use their skills to
guess the next best possible move.

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 (b) The claim against the app would sustain because it is a complete game of chance.
(c) The claim against the app would not sustain because 10 players are competing in the rounds to test
their skills which does not amount to gambling.
(d) The claim against the app would sustain because the players need to pay Rs.100 to play the game.

103. Ludo Supreme is a gaming app that allows player to play ludo on the platform while also rewarding the
players with bonus tokens for every win. The app needs the players to a do a one-time payment of a
nominal sum of Rs. 150 to create an account. Thereafter, the players have unlimited access to play the
game and win prizes. Mr. Batra challenged the App, seeking a ban on the App for promoting gambling.
(a) The App does not promote gambling as there is no question of money being gambled on a game of
chance like this.
(b) Ludo is a game of chance and since the players have to pay the money to play the game, it amounts
to gambling.
(c) The App does not promote gambling as the players have to make a one-time payment only.
(d) Since in such apps, the administrator makes the next moves, paying money to win, the game
amounts to gambling.

104. Club Maestro is a Horse-riding club. The club hosts a grand horse race event annually in which the
horses from several clubs participate to show their valour. The event is attended by noted personalities
who often bet huge sums of money on these horses. Many win stacks of cash while many lose every
penny that they entered the club with. Does this betting amount to gambling?
(a) Yes, because people bet money on the outcome of the race which is completely a game of chance.
(b) No, because the people are betting on the horses that they are sure would win.
(c) Yes, because people lose huge sums of money when the outcome of the race is not in their favour.
(d) No, because horse race is a game of skill and depends on various other factors other than chance.

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 SECTION - D: LOGICAL REASONING

Directions (Q.105): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the
statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. Mark answer if-
(a) Only conclusion I follows.
(b) Only conclusion II follows.
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(d) Both conclusions I and II follow.

105. Statements: N > L ≤ Z ; P > L ; Q ≥ Z

Conclusions: I. Q ≥ L II. Z ≥ N

Directions(Q.106 and Q.107): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are
sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
(a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question .
(c) if the data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(d) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

106. Is M the mother of L?

(a) T is the mother of M. M is married to J. K is the son of J. F is the sister of K. L is the sister of F.
(b) K is the grand son of T. K is the brother of F. F is the sister of L. L is the daughter of J. J is the son-in-
law of T.

107. How is the word 'plant' written in a certain code language?

(a) In that code language 'buy a new plant today’ is written as '4 $ % 7 2' and "not the plant she said' is
written as ‘@ # 5 $ g’.
(b) In that code language 'plant is always good' is written as '> 6 3 $' and 'is good buy always' is written
as ‘3 >2 6'.

Directions(Q.108): What value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following number
series?

108. 12, 44, 108, 236, 492, ?

(a) 1004 (b) 988 (c) 1236 (d) 1056

Directions(Q.109-Q.110): In each of the following questions, statements are given followed by

conclusions. You have to consider the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and decide which of the following conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding the commonly known facts. Select the
conclusion/s that logically follow/s the given statements.

109. Statements: All tigers are stags.

Some stags are rabbits.
All rabbits are trees.
Some trees are plants.
Conclusion:
I. Some plants are tigers.
II. Some trees are tigers.
III. Some trees are stags.
IV. All trees are rabbits.

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 (a) None follows. (b) Only II follows.
(c) Only III follows. (d) Both II and III follow.

110. Statements: Some cassettes are tapes.

Some tapes are disks.
All players are disks.
All disks are computers.
Conclusion:
I. Some players are tapes.
II. Some tapes are computers.
III. Some players are computers.
IV. Some disks are cassettes.
(a) None follows. (b) Only II follows.
(c) Only III follows. (d) Both II and III follow.

111. In a certain code CARTOON is written as OPPUSBD, then in same code TEACHER is written as.
(a) HWUADBB (b) SFIDBFU (c) SFIABFU (d) HWUABEE

Passage (Q.112-Q.118): To understand the current wave of asylum-seekers from the Northern Triangle,
it is essential to study these migrants’ motives for leaving their home countries of El Salvador,
Guatemala, and Honduras. The common perception that these are economic migrants seeking better
work opportunities has existed since at least the 1980s and continues till date. The reality is that the
majority of asylum-seekers arriving from Central America are fleeing “peacetime” violence that makes
nonsense of the words war and peace. These migrants are not migrating north for economic gain, but
rather fleeing from violence in their homelands.

These outstanding levels of peacetime violence fall far outside the parameters of persecution imagined
by the United Nations in 1951 when it conceived of what would become modern asylum law. Far from the
government-orchestrated persecution for which modern asylum was designed, the majority of asylum-
seekers arriving from the Northern Triangle countries are fleeing violence perpetrated by non-state
actors—specifically, by gangs and drug trafficking organizations. Because they are not often persecuted
on the basis of race, religion, nationality, or political opinion, asylum-seekers frequently claim asylum as
members of a PSG, the most nebulous of the categories protected by US asylum law.

Because the US funded and trained right-wing forces in these conflicts, persisting political and ideological
biases in immigration courts reduced the number of Central American asylum-seekers deemed deserving
of such an entitlement. Yet the role of the US in these conflicts—which included funding regimes known
to be committing genocide against their populations and training death squads on American soil—cannot
be overstated. As the brief overviews illustrate, the US played such a fundamental role in the root causes
of contemporary migration from the Northern Triangle that asylum-seekers from these countries would be
more properly grouped with beneficiaries of various legislations than with individual cases processed via
the regular asylum process.

112. Which of the following is most supported by the author’s argument?

(a) The U.S. only receives migrants from the Northern Triangle, namely from the countries of El
Salvador, Guatemala, and Honduras; all of them belonging to the Central American region.
(b) The U.S. is directly responsible for people migrating from the Northern Triangle and does little to
accommodate more migrants in their country due to their faulty asylum-law.
(c) No migrants from the Central American region or the Northern Triangle region have ever moved north
for economic opportunities. This has been a misconception since a long time.
(d) There is a fair share of migrants, who are running away from non-state sanctioned violence from the
countries of the Northern Triangle of the Central American region.

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113. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
(a) The migrants from northern triangle only migrate to the U.S.
(b) U.S. asylum law is the most inclusive law
(c) The PSG is the most ambiguous category of the U.S. asylum law
(d) All of the above

114. The author puts blame on the USA for the condition of North Triangle. Which of the following is the main
reason that the author has given to justify the blame on US?
(a) The US has a backdated and faulty asylum-law which has endangered the lives of many migrants
from the Northern Triangle region.
(b) The presence of US has influenced the judiciary present in the Northern Triangle region which has
led to exploitation of people.
(c) United States has succoured a specific ideology in the region, which has led to a one-sided
domination of the same ideology.
(d) None of the above

115. The statement “The modern asylum law needs an upgrade” is -

(a) Probably True (b) Definitely True (c) Probably False (d) Definitely False

116. The author’s statement that “These migrants are not migrating north for economic gain, but rather fleeing
from violence in their homelands”:
(a) Forms premise of the above passage
(b) Forms conclusion of the above passage
(c) Forms assumption of the author to the above passage
(d) None of the above

117. The author says “These outstanding levels of peacetime violence fall far outside the parameters of
persecution imagined by the United Nations in 1951 when it conceived of what would become modern
asylum law.” Which of the following is the hidden assumption by the author in this line?
1. There has been a huge amount of violence that has happened in the Northern Triangle region.
2. The quantification of violence was never thought of when the asylum-laws were being made.
3. The framed asylum-laws are not enough in the case of North Triangle region violence.
Choose the correct code.
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 3 (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

118. Consider the following and decide which of them is incorrect?

(a) As per the author, people think that majority of migration to US happens due to people looking for
better economic and life opportunities.
(b) In the last line of the passage, the author implies that the various legislations of US are very strong
and can support the migrants from Northern Triangle.
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B

Passage (Q.119-Q.125): Punishment creates social order by utilizing control over society’s members. In
the United States, most criminal cases are misdemeanors (minor offences), and thus, making
punishment a light sentence: usually in a form of a fine, or community service. Despite the punishment
itself being light (in terms of severity) and a form of deterrence, the state employs it as a form of control
over these individuals. For example, misdemeanors can be converted into a felony if the prosecutor has
enough aggravating factor[s] to use against you. More specifically, the members that tend to be excluded
from participation in society are the marginalized populations: immigrants, people of colour, and minority
groups and it is these marginalized groups that receive continuous harassment, and surveillance from
police.

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 The criminal justice system uses misdemeanor charges or labels, to demonstrate your proneness to
criminality in order to control aspects of your life to reduce your likelihood of committing a crime. Let’s
consider controlling areas. They control where you can and cannot frequent, people you are ordered to
abstain from socializing with, and whether you must attend a program for drugs, anger, or alcohol. After
entering the criminal justice system, the state further controls the offenders by subjecting them to the
humiliation of procedural hassle and performance evaluation.

Procedural hassle contributes to the state’s control of social order, because this forces the offenders and
compels them to obey the courts requirements and orders. This forces offenders to sacrifice work, social,
and family obligations to attend to the demands of the court. The state uses probation to govern and
monitor youths’ lives to deter (further) criminal behaviour, however, in reality probation officers they
explained, expected failure from them, and that having public meetings in community centres only further
isolated them from society, and marked them as the “troubled kids” to avoid.

119. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) The state tries to control only the marginalized groups of society, for example the immigrants, people
of colour, and minority groups
(b) The criminal justice system needs a legal amendment
(c) Once caught, the offenders are caught in a cycle of isolation from society in various ways
(d) Both (b) & (c)

120. Which of the following necessarily follows from the author’s argument?
(a) Misdemeanors must be eradicated from the criminal justice system
(b) Parole Officers must be removed from the criminal justice system
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

121. Which of the following, if true, weakens the author’s claim?

(a) Most marginalized groups have low resources which forces them to resort to crime for survival.
(b) A recent report has indicated that there has been a rise in prosecution of black persons in USA.
(c) It has been shown that a focus on rehabilitation rather than punishment of offenders has shown lots
of betterment in the society.
(d) The rate of habitual offenders is high in the U.S.

122. What could be an apt heading for the passage?

(a) Do not commit misdemeanors
(b) Judiciary in the U.S.
(c) Punishment in the Criminal justice system in the U.S
(d) Woes of marginalized groups

123. The statement “Probation officers affect a positive change in people’s lives” is:
(a) Probably True (b) Definitely True (c) Probably False (d) Definitely False

124. In the above passage, the author uses __________ to strengthen his argument.
(a) Metaphors (b) Analogies (c) Sarcasm (d) Examples

125. From the above passage, which of the following can be said to have been indicated by the author?
1. US has misused its powers to control the marginalised sections of the society.
2. The present system of prosecution actually creates more problems rather than solving them.
3. A person who enters the criminal justice system has to go through innumerable restrictions, which
may isolates him from a social life.
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3 (c) Only 3 and 1 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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126. The following statement is followed by three possible courses of action. Choose the option that is the
most suitable course of action.
The central government’s Enforcement Directorate (ED), which arrested three persons for allegedly
printing fake notes, suspects that the gang was involved in this illegal activity for quite some time.
A. The Reserve Bank of India should conduct training for the ED personnel to improve their skills in
detecting fake notes.
B. The state police should plan to take the arrested into their custody to get more information about their
activities.
C. The ED should try to ascertain whether the gang had released similar fake notes for circulation in the
past.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) A and B

127. According to a survey conducted in 2020, before the Covid pandemic, more females than males are now
enrolling for college education. But a recent study (after the nationwide Corona lockdown) conducted by
the HRD Ministry shows that the number of females employed in managerial positions requiring at least
postgraduate degree has gone down over the years. The apparent disconnect in the survey and the
findings of the study has puzzled the policy makers in New Delhi. Which one of the following are the
policy makers assuming?
1. All the females enrolling for college education actually complete the course they have enrolled for
2. Women with postgraduate degrees work mostly in managerial positions.
3. All the women who acquire college education opt to have a career.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3

128. Florence Nightingale: Teenage pregnancy is a stressful experience, it would be sensible for a pregnant
unmarried teenage girl to seek advice from a responsible adult. Parental Involvement laws would make
notification of pregnancy and consent for abortion from one or both parents mandatory.
Clara Barton: Obtaining parental consent necessarily imposes a delay in the abortion process, which
increases the likelihood of complications: generally speaking, the earlier in pregnancy an abortion takes
place, the safer it is. Necessary safeguards such as judicial waivers introduce even more delays - at least
22 days in the US.
Which of the following best depicts the way in which Clara responds to Florence's argument?
(a) She opposes Florence's idea by suggesting some complications.
(b) She defends the practice by citing evidence to show the time delay.
(c) She justifies her opposition to the idea on the premise that delay due to consent may endanger
mother's health.
(d) She agrees to Florence's idea but introduces evidence to show that it is harmful for the pregnant
teenager.

129. In the following question, four premises lead to a conclusion. Three premises and the conclusion, derived
from four, are given. From among the given alternatives, identify the missing premise.
1st Premise: If an art is good, then the artist is good.
2nd Premise: If the artist is good, he is content with life and its challenges.
3rd Premise: ?
4th Premise: But the artist Lenin is not happy.
Conclusion: Therefore, Lenin's art may not be good.
(a) If Lenin is happy, he is a good artist.
(b) If the artist is good, then his art is good.
(c) If an artist is happy, he is content with life and its challenges.
(d) If an artist is content with life and its challenges, he is happy.

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130. As Shawn walked along the road, the sun at its zenith made him perspire profusely.
Conclusions:
1. It was noon.
2. It was summer season.
3. Shawn, by nature, perspired a lot.
(a) Only conclusion 1 follows (b) Only conclusion 1 and 2 follows
(c) Only conclusion 3 follows (d) None of the above.

131. Satement: Voting must be made mandatory.

i. Yes: Results will be more representative of the choice of the people
ii No: Compulsion is no fun
iii Yes: Leaders will govern better.
iv Yes: India is a democracy
STRONG ARGUMENTS must be both important and directly related to the question.
WEAK ARGUMENT may not be directly related or may be related to trivial aspects of the question, and
may be of minor importance.
The question is followed by four arguments. You have to classify them into strong and weak arguments.
(a) i and ii are strong (b) i and iii are strong
(c) only iv is strong (d) only i is strong

Passage (Q.132-Q.135): When films like Girl Interrupted (1999) and A Beautiful Mind (2001) were
released to the public, people began focusing their attention on mental illness and its depiction in cinema.
The representation of mental disorders in contemporary films has been scrutinized by critics for years—
especially those films that deal with schizophrenic individuals. Often media analysts argue these
characters are portrayed as overly hysterical, unpredictable, and dangerous. They believe that the
general public's limited and skewed knowledge of mental illness is fortified by the misrepresentations and
exaggeration of the media. Those who suffer from schizophrenia reported that they feel rejected by
society because of the negative representations of mental illness in movies.

Filmmakers tend to focus on violence, traumatic events, and hallucinations when depicting and shaping
characters with schizophrenia. Some critics argue that films overdramatize these elements and doing so
dehumanizes people with schizophrenia. For instance, the negative portrayals, were categorized into
stereotypes: homicidal maniac, rebellious free spirit, enlightened member of society, female patient as
seductress, narcissistic parasite, and a zoo specimen. Many of these misconceptions are conceived and
explored in the entertainment industry—more specifically in films. A significant amount of research has
been done on studying negative stereotypes in movies.

Although violence and gifted individuals could be realistic portrayals of schizophrenia, they are often
exaggerated in films. Movies are designed to entertain and engage an audience— directors in the past
have used filmic devices to show deformed perceptions of space from the perspective of schizophrenic
characters, and dismal lighting to set a dark and sinister tone. Schizophrenic characters are also called
"crazy,""loony," and "deranged". Researchers have concluded that these wrongly portrayed or
exaggerated symptoms of schizophrenia in films can negatively affect the public's view of the disease.
This perception does not waiver over time, and it may not change even after viewing more positive
depictions of the disease.

132. Which of the following is most supported by the author’s argument?

(a) Schizophrenia is not a real disease
(b) Only some films portray schizophrenia in the correct sense
(c) Schizophrenic patients are unaffected by their depiction in films
(d) Schizophrenia as a disease is generally exaggerated in cinema

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133. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
(a) Rest of the mental diseases are shown accurately in films
(b) The films on schizophrenia do bring some positive change in the society
(c) The awareness for schizophrenia has increased over time
(d) Schizophrenic patients are not as violent as they are shown to be in films

134. Which of the following, if true, would seriously undermine the author’s main argument?
(a) The people that have schizophrenia are completely unmoved with wrongful portrayal of their disease
(b) Upon getting triggered, some schizophrenic patients may turn as violent as they are portrayed to be
in films
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

135. The statement “The perception of schizophrenia, if drawn only from films, is inaccurate” is:
(a) Probably True (b) Definitely True (c) Probably False (d) Definitely False

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 SECTION - E :QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES

Direction (Q.136-Q.140): T-Nation, a T-Shirt manufacturing company has unleashed 5-5-5 strategy, five
brands (Ultimate, Supreme, Smash, Paramount, Astute), five sizes (S, M. L, XL, XXL), and five Stores
(SI, S2, S3, S4, S5) to capture New Delhi market. Number of T-Shirts in each of the store is given in the
stacked bar chart below.

57 122
84 utimate
128 55 48 65 supreme
smash
30
111 108
85 137 paramount
79
astute
30 60
69
105
116 50
101
111 91 80
48 30
store 1 store 2 store 3 store 4 store 5

Note: Visibility of a brand in a store is given by number of T-shirts of the brand in the store by total
number of T-shirts in the store. Visibility across the stores is measured by sum of the scores of visibility of
a brand in a store.

136. Which brand of T-shirts has more visibility across the stores?
(a) Astute (b) Supreme (c) Paramount (d) Smash

137. Which brand has lowest visibility score in any of the stores?
(a) Astute (b) Smash (c) Paramount (d) Ultimate

138. Suppose, size M constitutes 22% of all the T-shirts owned by T-nation. It is also given that 'size M T-
shirts' in stores 1, 2 and 5 are 10% of the total T-shirts in these stores. Then, the total number of T-shirts
of size M in store 4 cannot be less than
(a) 23 (b) 28 (c) 32 (d) 44

139. What is the approximate share of Supreme brand in all stores together?
(a) 19 (b) 22 (c) 18 (d) 20

140. Approximately, by what percentage are Smash T-shirts greater than Ultimate T-shirts in all the stores
together'?
(a) 79 (b) 50 (c) 35 (d) 23

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 Direction (Q.141-Q.145): Study the following pie-chart and table carefully and answer the questions that
follow:
Some values are missing. Answer the questions on the basis of given table and information in question.
Speed of stream is same for both upstream and downstream distance on respective days

Day Speed of Stream (in km/hr)

Monday 3
Tuesday -
Wednesday 2
Thursday 2.5
Friday 3

141. Time taken to cover the upstream distance on Friday is same as time taken to cover the downstream
distance on Thursday. Total speed of still water on Thursday and Friday is 10 km/hr. Find the ratio of
speed of still water on Thursday and Friday.
(a) 6 : 13 (b) 4 : 11 (c) 7 : 13 (d) 4:15

142. On Monday, the boat takes a total of 4 hrs 30 minutes to cover both upstream and downstream distance.
Ratio of speed of boat in still water in going upstream to downstream is 4 : 5. Find the speed of boat in
still water while going downstream.
(a) 13 km/hr (b) 15 km/hr (c) 9 km/hr (d) 10km/hr

143. On Tuesday, Ratio of speed of boat in still water in going upstream to downstream is 3 : 8. Also
difference in speed of boat in still water in going upstream and downstream is 5 km/hr. If the total time
taken by boat to cover upstream and downstream distance is 14 hours on Tuesday, find the speed of
stream.
(a) 2 km/hr (b) 1 km/hr (c) 3 km/hr (d) 2.5 km/hr

144. On Wednesday, Ratio of speed of boat in still water in going upstream to downstream is 4 : 5. The
difference between time to cover upstream distance and downstream distance is 5 hours, find the total
time taken to cover upstream distance and downstream distance.
(a) 5 hours (b) 4 hours (c) 7 hours (d) 8 hours

145. Time taken to cover the upstream distance on Thursday is 12 hours more than time taken to cover the
downstream distance on Friday. Total speed of still water on Thursday and Friday is 11 km/hr. Find the
ratio of speed of still water on Thursday and Friday.
(a) 6 : 7 (b) 4 : 5 (c) 7 : 9 (d) 5:6

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 Direction (Q.146-Q.150): The following table shows the number of days for which 4 individuals A, B, C
and D worked on 5 different projects numbered 1 to 5. It also shows the part of respective project that
could not be completed by individuals in time.
Some values are missing which are denoted by symbol (-). With the help of information in questions and
table below answer the questions that follow.

No. of days for Which individuals worked on

Project Part of project uncompleted after
different projects
No. all worked
A B C D
1 6 6 2 3 1/3
2 - 3 4 -
3 - - - - -
4 5 3 2 - 1/6
5 2 2 3 5 1/12
rd
146. A and B started working on Project 1. They completed 1/3 of work after which they left and C joined the
project. C can complete the whole project in 12 days. After C worked for his assigned number of days, D
joined the project and worked for his assigned number of days. Find the number of days in which D can
complete the whole Project 1?
(a) 15 days (b) 20 days (c) 18 days (d) 25 days

147. A who can complete project 2 in 20 days, worked for 6 days. The ratio of number of days in which B and
C can complete Project 2 alone is 5 : 8. D could not come to work for project 2. Find the number of days
in which B and C can complete 13/30 of project 2 together, given that if D who can complete work in 12
days had also joined the project for 4 days, the project would have been completed.
(a) 3 days (b) 6 days (c) 5 days (d) 4 days

148. Project 3 was to be completed in 6 days. To complete project in time, all A, B, C and D decided to work in
pairs in alternate days. A and C on 1st day, B and D on 2nd day, A and C on 3rd, and so on. But they could
not complete project in time. What percent of project 3 remain uncompleted if A, B, C and D can
complete whole project 3 in 12, 18, 20 and 15 days respectively?
(a) 23 1/3% (b) 21 2/5% (c) 25 1/4% (d) 24 2/3%

149. B and C can complete the whole project 4 in 6 days working together. A is 20% more efficient than C and
40% less efficient that B. How many days did D work on project 4 if D can complete whole project 4 in 18
days?
(a) 5 days (b) 4 days (c) 2 days (d) 1 day

150. A, E and D worked on project numbered 5. B and C alone can complete whole project numbered 5 in 20
and 30 days respectively. E who is 3/2 times efficient than B and C together replaces both of them and
worked for same number of days for which B and C had to work. A completed 1/12th of the work. Find in
how many days all A, B, C, and D can complete the project 5 together.
(a) 3 days (b) 6 days (c) 8 days (d) 11 days

USE FOR ROUGH WORK

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 LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES
Part of the Most Awesome and Consistently Successful Study Material and Test Series Module, spanning across
both Physical and Online Programs in the entire Country. While most of the world fumbled and faltered, 2020 has
been another inspiring Success story both for us and those who chose to trust us. As a result LE was able to engineer
Clean-Sweep-Landslide figures of a handsome 35 Selections under 100 ranks, and a whopping 180 selections under
500 ranks in CLAT 2020. With AILET being no different, a total of 30 LEtians found their way into NLUD in 2020.
Read on!

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2021

MOCK CLAT #42

ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS

SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE musically. On the other hand, the humming of
certain insects, which produces a definite tone, the
1. (a) option a) is the correct answer as the majority of the whistling and singing of many birds, the musical
passage discusses the significance of music to the cries of certain monkeys as related in Darwin, and
human race and the natural aspect of it. even on occasion the crying of the wind, must all be
Option b) is no the correct answer as the passage regarded as ‘natural music
didn’t mention anything regarding this topic. Option c) is not correct as the passage didn’t
Option c) is no the correct answer as the passage mention anything regarding this.
didn’t mention anything regarding this topic. Option d) is not correct as the passage didn’t
Option d) is no the correct answer as the passage mention anything regarding this.
didn’t mention anything regarding this topic. Hence, the correct option is b).
Hence, the correct answer is option a) 4. (c) Option a) is not the correct answer. In writing,
2. (a) the correct option is a). the passage states that, figurative language—using words to convey a
Now ‘tone’ is merely a noise which persists at a different meaning outside the literal one—helps
certain pitch. When we cry out in fear we usually writers express themselves in more creative
produce a noise, but should we be careful to ways. One popular type of figurative language is
maintain a steady and equal emission of breath we personification: assigning human attributes to a
should produce a tone.’ non-human entity or inanimate object in an effort
Option b) is not correct. The passage states that, to express a point or idea in a more colorful,
That this time need not be very long is proved by imaginative way.
the ease with which we grasp as tones certain very Option b) is not the correct answer. An allusion is a
short notes used in music; grace notes, for popular literary device used to develop
instance. characters, frame storylines, and help create
Option c) is not correct as the passage states that, associations to well-known works. Allusions can
‘In other words, a ‘noise’ is produced by a rapid and reference anything from Victorian fairy tales and
irregular change in the rate of vibration of popular culture to the Bible and the Bard. Take
the sounding body, whereas a ‘tone’ is produced by the popular expression “Bah humbug”—an
the steady maintenance of a certain rate of vibration allusion that references Charles Dickens’
for a long enough time for the ear to appreciate its novella A Christmas Carol. The phrase, which is
definiteness.’ often used to express dissatisfaction, is associated
Option d) is irrelevant. with the tale’s curmudgeonly character, Ebenezer
Hence the correct answer is option a). Scrooge.
3. (b) option a) is not the correct answer as the passage Option c) is the correct answer. If you’ve practiced
mentions otherwise. or studied creative writing, chances are you’ve
Option b) is correct as the passage states that, encountered the expression “paint a picture with
Such animal cries as the roaring of lions, the baying words.” In poetry and literature, this is known as
of wolves, the screeching of parrots, or the barking imagery: the use of figurative language to evoke a
of dogs must be classed as mere noises. While sensory experience in the reader. When a poet
they are frequently of rhythmic interest, they contain uses descriptive language well, they play to the
too little of the tonal element to be regarded reader’s senses, providing them with sights,
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 tastes, smells, sounds, internal and external expect to speak here of all my reading, whether it
feelings, and even deep emotion. The sensory has been much or little, but only of those books, or
details in imagery bring works to life. of those authors that I have felt a genuine passion
Option d) is not the correct answer. At its core, for. I have known such passions at every period of
storytelling has one ambition: to capture and my life,..’
sustain your reader’s attention and keep them Option c) is not correct as the author states that,
reading your story. Foreshadowing, or slyly ‘and I should not be surprised if it were from this
indicating a future event, is one technique a writer fine-languaged lady that my grandfather derived his
can use to create and build suspense. taste for poetry rather than from his father, who was
Hence the correct answer is c). of a worldly wiser mind. ‘
5. (a) option a) is the correct answer. The correct Option d) is correct as the author states that, ‘To
sentence should be; Many noises, in fact, upon give an account of one's reading is in some sort to
analysis appear to be collections of heterogeneous give an account of one's life;’
tonal fragments which succeed each other with 8. (d) option a) is not the correct answer. Irony: it’s clear
such rapidity and eccentricity as to preclude the as mud. Theorists quibble about the margins of
recognition of their tonal elements, as such. what constitutes irony, but situational irony is all
Options b) c) and d) are incorrect. around us—from humorous news headlines to the
6. (a) option a) is the correct answer. Narrative writing is shock twists in a book or TV show. This type of
used in almost every longer piece of writing, irony is all about the gap between our
whether fiction or nonfiction. When an author writes expectations and reality, and it can make a
in a narrative style, they are not just trying to impart memorable and powerful impression when we
information, they are trying to construct and encounter it.
communicate a story, complete with characters, option b) is not the correct answer. Humor brings
conflict, and settings. people together and has the power to transform
Option b) is not the correct answer. Descriptive how we think about the world. Of course, not
writing is often found in fiction, though it can make everyone is adept at being funny—particularly in
an appearance in nonfiction as well (for their writing. Making people laugh takes some
example, memoirs, first-hand accounts of events, or skill and finesse, and, because so much relies on
travel guides). When an author writes in a instinct, is harder to teach than other techniques.
descriptive style, they are painting a picture in However, all writers can benefit from learning
words of a person, place, or thing for their more about how humor functions in writing.
audience. The author might employ metaphor or option c) is not the correct answer. Satire is so
other literary devices in order to describe the prevalent in pop culture that most of us are
author’s impressions via their five senses (what already very familiar with it, even if we don’t
they hear, see, smell, taste, or touch). But the always realize it. Satire is an often-humorous way
author is not trying to convince the audience of of poking fun at the powers that be. Sometimes, it
anything or explain the scene – merely describe is created with the goal to drive social change.
things as they are. Satire can be part of any work of culture, art, or
Option c) is not the correct answer. Expository entertainment—it has a long history, and it is as
writing is one of the most common types of writing. relevant today as it was in ancient Rome.
When an author writes in an expository style, all option d) is the correct answer. At its core,
they are trying to do is explain a concept, imparting storytelling has one ambition: to capture and
information from themselves to a wider audience. sustain your reader’s attention and keep them
Expository writing does not include the author’s reading your story. Foreshadowing, or slyly
opinions, but focuses on accepted facts about a indicating a future event, is one technique a writer
topic, including statistics or other evidence. can use to create and build suspense.
Option d) is not the correct answer. Persuasive 9. (c) Option a) is not the right answer as there’s no error
writing is the main style of writing you will use in in verb.
academic papers. When an author writes in a Option b) is not the right answer as there’s no error
persuasive style, they are trying to convince the in noun.
audience of a position or belief. Persuasive writing Option c) is the right answer as there’s error in
contains the author’s opinions and biases, as well article. The right sentence should be: But I am
as justifications and reasons given by the author as pretty sure that I began right, and that if I had
evidence of the correctness of their position. Any always kept the lofty level which I struck at the
“argumentative” essay you write in school should be outset I should have the right to use authority in
in the persuasive style of writing. these reminiscences without a bad conscience.
Hence, the correct answer is option a). Option d) is not the right answer as there’s no error
7. (d) option a) is not correct as the author states that, I in conjunction.
have known such passions at every period of my Hence, the correct answer is option c).
life, but it is mainly of the loves of my youth that I 10. (d) options a) and b) are the definition of the word
shall write, and I shall write all the more frankly perennial. So these are the wrong answers.
because my own youth now seems to me rather Option c) is the antonym of the word unfilial.
more alien than that of any other person. Option d) Is the right answer as it is the correct
Option b) is not correct as the author states that, ‘I meaning of the word unfilial.
shall try not to use authority, however, and I do not

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11. (a) option a) is the correct answer. Narrative writing is 13. (b) option a) is not true. The passage didn’t mention
used in almost every longer piece of writing, anything like that.
whether fiction or nonfiction. When an author writes Option b) is the correct answer. The passage
in a narrative style, they are not just trying to impart clearly mentions that, ‘My father asked Tennyson
information, they are trying to construct and what was the subject of conversation that had so
communicate a story, complete with characters, engrossed them. "Murders," replied Tennyson. It
conflict, and settings. would have been interesting to have heard
Option b) is not the correct answer. Descriptive Tennyson and Jowett discussing such a theme. The
writing is often found in fiction, though it can make fact is a tribute to the interest that crime has for
an appearance in nonfiction as well (for many men of intellect and imagination. Indeed, how
example, memoirs, first-hand accounts of events, or could it be otherwise? Rob history and fiction of
travel guides). When an author writes in a crime, how tame and colourless would be the
descriptive style, they are painting a picture in residue!’
words of a person, place, or thing for their Option c) isn’t the right answer as the passage
audience. The author might employ metaphor or didn’t mention anything regarding this.
other literary devices in order to describe the Option d) is no true as the passage mentions
author’s impressions via their five senses (what otherwise.
they hear, see, smell, taste, or touch). But the Hence, the correct option is b)
author is not trying to convince the audience of 14. (c) option a) is not the correct answer. Allegory is a
anything or explain the scene – merely describe literary device used to express large, complex
things as they are. ideas in an approachable manner. Allegory allows
Option c) is not the correct answer. Expository writers to create some distance between
writing is one of the most common types of writing. themselves and the issues they are discussing,
When an author writes in an expository style, all especially when those issues are strong critiques
they are trying to do is explain a concept, imparting of political or societal realities.
information from themselves to a wider audience. Option b) is not the correct answer. Irony is an
Expository writing does not include the author’s oft-misunderstood literary device that hinges on
opinions, but focuses on accepted facts about a opposites: what things are on the surface, and
topic, including statistics or other evidence. what they end up actually being. Many learn
Option d) is not the correct answer. Persuasive about dramatic irony through works of theater like
writing is the main style of writing you will use in Shakespeare’s Romeo and Juliet or
academic papers. When an author writes in a Sophocles’s Oedipus Rex. When deployed with
persuasive style, they are trying to convince the skill, irony is a powerful tool that adds depth and
audience of a position or belief. Persuasive writing substance to a piece of writing.
contains the author’s opinions and biases, as well Option c) is the correct answer. If we notice the
as justifications and reasons given by the author as underlying tone of the author in the sentence and
evidence of the correctness of their position. Any the sentence following it, we can clearly
“argumentative” essay you write in school should be understand the implicit wit of the author as he
in the persuasive style of writing. presents the idea of how an event affects people,
Hence, the correct answer is option a). changes with time and the way of narrating it to
12. (b) option a) is not the correct answer. It is true the future generation. Humor brings people
according to the passage as it states that, ‘I together and has the power to transform how we
REMEMBER my father telling me that sitting up late think about the world. Of course, not everyone is
one night talking with Tennyson, the latter remarked adept at being funny—particularly in their writing.
that he had not kept such late hours since a recent Making people laugh takes some skill and
visit of Jowett.’ finesse, and, because so much relies on instinct,
Option b) is correct as it is untrue according to the is harder to teach than other techniques.
passage as it states that, ‘Perhaps we may find However, all writers can benefit from learning
some little consolation in this fact, like the unhappy more about how humor functions in writing.
victims of famous freebooters such as Jack Option d) is the correct answer. Satire is so
Sheppard or Charley Peace.’ prevalent in pop culture that most of us are
Option c) is incorrect as it is true to the passage. It already very familiar with it, even if we don’t
states that, ‘We must not imagine that the bad man always realize it. Satire is an often-humorous way
who happens to offend against those particular laws of poking fun at the powers that be. Sometimes, it
which constitute the criminal code belongs to a is created with the goal to drive social change.
peculiar or atavistic type, that he is a man set apart Satire can be part of any work of culture, art, or
from the rest of his fellow-men by mental or entertainment—it has a long history, and it is as
physical peculiarities.’ relevant today as it was in ancient Rome.
Option d) is not correct. It is true to the passage as 15. (d) options a) b) and c)are not the correct answer as
it states that, ‘ Do not let us, in all the pomp and there are no errors in prepositions, verbs and
circumstance of stately history, blind ourselves to adverbs in the sentence mentioned above.
the fact that the crimes of Frederick, or Napoleon, Option d) is the right answer as the definite article
or their successors, are in essence no different from ‘the’ is missing in three places in the sentence
those of Sheppard or Peace.’ above. The correct sentence should be: That
Hence, the correct option is b). comforting theory of the Lombroso school has been

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 exploded, and the ordinary inmates of our prisons Expository writing does not include the author’s
shown to be only in a very slight degree below the opinions, but focuses on accepted facts about a
average in mental and physical fitness of the topic, including statistics or other evidence.
normal man, a difference easily explained by the Option d) is not the correct answer. Persuasive
environment and conditions in which the ordinary writing is the main style of writing you will use in
criminal is bred. academic papers. When an author writes in a
16. (d) option a) is correct as the passage stated that, ‘As it persuasive style, they are trying to convince the
is usual for great persons, whose lives have been audience of a position or belief. Persuasive writing
remarkable, and whose actions deserve recording contains the author’s opinions and biases, as well
to posterity, to insist much upon their originals, give as justifications and reasons given by the author as
full accounts of their families, and the histories of evidence of the correctness of their position. Any
their ancestors, so, that I may be methodical, I shall “argumentative” essay you write in school should be
do the same, though I can look but a very little way in the persuasive style of writing.
into my pedigree, as you will see presently.’ Hence, the correct answer is option a).
Option b) is correct as the passage states that, ‘And 19. (a) option a) is the correct answer. The meaning of the
this woman, though I was continually dragged about phrase spirit away means To take, sneak, or carry
with her from one part of the country to another, yet someone or something away in a mysterious,
never let me want for anything; and I called her secretive, or furtive manner.
mother; though she told me at last she was not my Option b) means ghosting.
mother, but that she bought me for twelve shillings Option c) means disappear
of another woman,..’ Option d) means depart.
Option c) is true as the passage states that, ‘At this Hence, the correct answer is option a).
juncture comes by one of those sort of people who, 20. (a) option a) is the correct answer. The right sentence
it seems, made it their business to spirit away little should be: This was a hellish trade in those days,
children. This was a hellish trade in those days, and and chiefly practised where they found little children
chiefly practised where they found little children very well dressed, or for bigger children, to sell
very well dressed, or for bigger children, to sell them to the plantations.
them to the plantations.’ Options b), c) and d) are incorrect as there are no
Hence, option d) is right answer. errors in the sentence regarding punctuation, noun
17. (c) statement 1 is false as the passage states that, and verb.
From this time, it seems, I was disposed of to a 21. (a) option a) is the correct answer as it perfectly fits into
beggar woman that wanted a pretty little child to set the context of the passage.
out her case; and after that, to a gipsy, under Option b) is not the correct answer as it doesn’t fit
whose government I continued till I was about six into the context of the passage.
years old. Option c) is not the correct answer as it doesn’t fit
Statement 2 is false as from the passage we get to into the context of the passage.
know that the author was sold for twelve shillings Option d) is not the correct answer as it doesn’t fit
and not dollars. into the context of the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option c). Hence, the correct option is a).
18. (a) option a) is the correct answer. Narrative writing is 22. (d) Option a) is not correct as the passage didn’t
used in almost every longer piece of writing, mention anything like that.
whether fiction or nonfiction. When an author writes Option b) is not the right answer as the passage
in a narrative style, they are not just trying to impart states that, ‘and after tea (they still have an early
information, they are trying to construct and dinner at all the hotels in Saratoga, and tea is the
communicate a story, complete with characters, last meal of the day)’.
conflict, and settings. Option c) is not the correct answer as the passage
Option b) is not the correct answer. Descriptive mentions that, ‘Mrs. March preferred to take the
writing is often found in fiction, though it can make chances on the verandah of our pleasant little hotel,
an appearance in nonfiction as well (for where I left her with the other ladies, forty fanning
example, memoirs, first-hand accounts of events, or like one, as they..’
travel guides). When an author writes in a Option d) is the right answer as the passage
descriptive style, they are painting a picture in mentions that, ‘Mrs. March preferred to take the
words of a person, place, or thing for their chances on the verandah of our pleasant little hotel,
audience. The author might employ metaphor or where I left her with the other ladies, forty fanning
other literary devices in order to describe the like one, as they rocked to and fro under the roof
author’s impressions via their five senses (what lifted to the third story by those lofty shafts peculiar
they hear, see, smell, taste, or touch). But the to the Saratoga architecture. As far as coolness
author is not trying to convince the audience of was concerned, I thought she was wise after I
anything or explain the scene – merely describe reached the park, for I found none of it there.’
things as they are 23. (d) option a) is the untrue as the passage states that,
Option c) is not the correct answer. Expository ‘..but after a few moments this would not do, and I
writing is one of the most common types of writing. went out to a bench, of the rows beside the
When an author writes in an expository style, all gravelled walks. It was no better there;’
they are trying to do is explain a concept, imparting Option b) is the untrue as the passage states that,
information from themselves to a wider audience. ‘..but my idle mind fixed itself upon a young French-

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 Canadian mother of low degree, who sat, with her evidence of the correctness of their position. Any
small boy..’ “argumentative” essay you write in school should be
Option c) is untrue as the passage states that, ‘She in the persuasive style of writing.
scolded him in their parlance for having got himself Hence, the correct answer is option b).
so dirty, and then she smacked his poor, filthy little 27. (d) options a), b) and c) are not the correct answers as
hands, with a frown of superior virtue, though I did they are all synonyms of the word pachydermatous.
not find her so very much cleaner herself.’ Option d) is the correct answer as it is the antonym
Hence, option d) is the correct answer. of the word pachydermatous.
24. (b) Option a) is not the correct answer as the passage 28. (d) option a) is false as the passage states that, ‘and in
didn’t mention it. the fine roadstead where we anchored there lay
Option b) is the correct answer as the passage other steamers and a lead-colored Portuguese war-
mentions it as, ‘The day had been very hot under ship.’
the tall trees which everywhere embower and stifle Option b) is false as the passage states that, ‘No
Saratoga, for they shut out the air as well as the drop-curtain, at any theatre I have seen, was ever
sun; and after tea (they still have an early dinner at so richly imagined, with misty tops and shadowy
all the hotels in Saratoga, and tea is the last meal of clefts and frowning cliffs and gloomy valleys and
the day)..’ long, plunging cataracts, as the actual landscape of
Option c) is not correct as it is not mentioned Madeira,’
anywhere in the passage. Option c) is false as the passage states that, ‘until
Option d) is irrelevant. after rounding a prodigious headland we found
Hence the correct option is b). ourselves in face of the charming little city of
25. (c) option a) is not the correct answer. Funchal’.
Option b) is not the correct answer. Hence the correct option is d).
Option c) is the correct answer. The sentence 29. (b) option a) is not correct as the passage mention
should be: This looked even cooler than the otherwise.
bubbling spring in the glass vases, and it sounded Option b) is the correct answer as the passage
vastly cooler. mentions that the author arrived in Madeira in the
Option d) is wrong. mid-January.
Hence the correct option is c). Option c) and d) are not the correct answer as the
26. (b) option a) is not the correct answer. Narrative writing passage mentions otherwise.
is used in almost every longer piece of writing, Hence, the correct answer is option b).
whether fiction or nonfiction. When an author writes 30. (c) option a) is not the correct answer. Imagery: the
in a narrative style, they are not just trying to impart use of figurative language to evoke a sensory
information, they are trying to construct and experience in the reader. When a poet uses
communicate a story, complete with characters, descriptive language well, they play to the reader’s
conflict, and settings. senses, providing them with sights, tastes, smells,
Option b) is the correct answer. Descriptive writing sounds, internal and external feelings, and even
is often found in fiction, though it can make an deep emotion. The sensory details in imagery bring
appearance in nonfiction as well (for example, works to life
memoirs, first-hand accounts of events, or travel Option b) is not the correct answer. Allegory is a
guides). When an author writes in a descriptive literary device used to express large, complex ideas
style, they are painting a picture in words of a in an approachable manner. Allegory allows writers
person, place, or thing for their audience. The to create some distance between themselves and
author might employ metaphor or other literary the issues they are discussing, especially when
devices in order to describe the author’s those issues are strong critiques of political or
impressions via their five senses (what they hear, societal realities.
see, smell, taste, or touch). But the author is not Option c) is the correct answer.In writing, figurative
trying to convince the audience of anything or language—using words to convey a different
explain the scene – merely describe things as they meaning outside the literal one—helps writers
are. express themselves in more creative ways. One
Option c) is not the correct answer. Expository popular type of figurative language is
writing is one of the most common types of writing. personification: assigning human attributes to a
When an author writes in an expository style, all non-human entity or inanimate object in an effort to
they are trying to do is explain a concept, imparting express a point or idea in a more colorful,
information from themselves to a wider audience. imaginative way.
Expository writing does not include the author’s Option d) is not the correct answer.Imagine reading
opinions, but focuses on accepted facts about a a story about a caveman who microwaves his
topic, including statistics or other evidence. dinner, or watching a film adaptation of a Jane
Option d) is not the correct answer. Persuasive Austen novel in which the characters text each
writing is the main style of writing you will use in other instead of writing letters. These
academic papers. When an author writes in a circumstances are examples of anachronisms, or
persuasive style, they are trying to convince the an error in chronology—the kind that makes
audience of a position or belief. Persuasive writing audiences raise their eyebrows or do a double-take.
contains the author’s opinions and biases, as well Sometimes anachronisms are true blunders; other
as justifications and reasons given by the author as

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 times, they’re used intentionally to add humor or to claiming the Western Sahara, which had been
comment on a specific time period in history. controlled by Spain, and Mauritania.
Hence, the correct answer is option c). 38. (b)) The Western Sahara conflict has resulted in severe
human rights abuses, most notably the aerial
SECTION - B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS bombardments with napalm and white phosphorus
of the Sahrawi refugee camps, the exodus of tens
31. (b) The Warsaw Treaty Organization (WTO), officially of thousands of Sahrawi civilians from the country,
the Treaty of Friendship, Cooperation and Mutual and the forced expropriation and expulsion of tens
Assistance, commonly known as the Warsaw Pact of thousands of Moroccan expatriate civilians by the
(WP),was a collective defence treaty signed in Algerian government in reaction to the Green
Warsaw, Poland between the Soviet Union and March. The conflict has witnessed numerous
seven other Eastern Bloc socialist republics of violations of human rights and serious breaches of
Central and Eastern Europe in May 1955, during the Geneva convention on the part of all involved
the Cold War. parties; the Polisario Front, the Moroccan
32. (d) German government revealed that tests carried out government and the Algerian government among
by the military found "unequivocal proof of a them.
chemical nerve warfare agent of the Novichok 39. (c) Recently, Morocco and Israel have agreed to
group". The Kremlin denied any involvement and normalise relations in a deal brokered by the USA.
rejected the Novichok finding. The EU then It makes Morocco the fourth Arab country, after the
imposed sanctions on six top Russian officials and UAE, Bahrain (Abraham Accords) and Sudan, to
a Russian chemical weapons research centre, set aside hostilities with Israel in the past four
accusing them of direct involvement in the months.
poisoning. Russia retaliated with tit-for-tat 40. (d) Morocco borders Algeria to the east and southeast,
sanctions. Novichok was added to the Chemical Western Sahara to the south, the Atlantic Ocean to
Weapons Convention’s list of controlled substances the west, and the Mediterranean Sea to the north. It
last year. is the only African country with coastal exposure to
33. (c) both the Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean
 It is a multilateral treaty banning chemical Sea.
weapons and requiring their destruction within 41. (b) Dakhla is a city in the disputed territory of Western
the stipulated time. Sahara, currently occupied by Morocco. It is the
 Negotiations for the CWC began in 1980 at the capital of the claimed Moroccan administrative
United Nations Conference on Disarmament. region Dakhla-Oued Ed-Dahab. The port is being
 The convention was drafted in September 1992 constructed here.
and opened for signature in January 1993. It 42. (c) Hydrogen can be stored physically as either a gas
became effective from April 1997. or a liquid. Storage of hydrogen as a gas typically
34. (a) Following are the prohibits included in CWC: - requires high-pressure tanks (350–700 bar [5,000–
 Developing, producing, acquiring, stockpiling, 10,000 psi] tank pressure). ... Hydrogen can also be
or retaining chemical weapons. stored on the surfaces of solids (by adsorption) or
 The direct or indirect transfer of chemical within solids (by absorption).
weapons. 43. (d) The Union Budget for 2021-22 has announced a
 Chemical weapons use or military preparation National Hydrogen Energy Mission (NHM) that will
for use. draw up a road map for using hydrogen as an
 Assisting, encouraging, or inducing other states energy source. The initiative has the potential of
to engage in CWC-prohibited activity. transforming transportation.
 The use of riot control agents “as a method of NHM initiative will capitalise on one of the most
warfare.” abundant elements on earth (Hydrogen) for a
35. (b) Chinese President Xi Jinping was conferred with cleaner alternative fuel option.
highest national award of Kyrgyzstan titled Manas 44. (b) The usage of hydrogen will not only help India in
Order of the First Degree in Bishkek (capital of achieving its emission goals under the Paris
Kyrgyzstan). Kyrgyzstan is hosting 19th Shanghai Agreement, but will also reduce import dependency
Cooperation Organisation (SCO) summit starting 14 on fossil fuels. India's ambitious goal of 175 GW by
June 2019. Key Highlights Sooronbay Jeenbekov, 2022 got an impetus in the 2021-22 budget which
President of Kyrgyzstan awarded the country’s allocated Rs. 1500 crore for renewable energy
highest national prize to the Chinese counterpart. development and NHM.
36. (a) Western Sahara is a desert region, a former 45. (d) According to US India Strategic Partnership Forum
Spanish colony and was annexed by Morocco in (USISPF), India and United States has launched a
1975.Since then, it has been the subject of a long- hydrogen task force under “Strategic Clean Energy
running territorial dispute between Morocco and its Partnership (SCEP)” which will boost India’s energy
indigenous Saharawi people, led by the pro- security efforts. This task force was launched by
independence [2] Front. United States Department of Energy, Union Ministry
37. (a) The Polisario Front, Frente Polisario, FRELISARIO of New and
or simply POLISARIO, from the Spanish Renewable Energy (MNRE) and USISPF.
abbreviation of Frente Popular de Liberación de 46. (c) Methane is gas that is found in small quantities in
Saguía el Hamra y Río de Oro, is a rebel national Earth's atmosphere. Methane is the simplest
liberation movement by the Sahrawi people hydrocarbon, consisting of one carbon atom and

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 four hydrogen atoms (CH4). Methane is a powerful Gaganyaan mission is aimed at sending astronauts
greenhouse gas. It is flammable, and is used as a to space in an orbital spacecraft.
fuel worldwide. 56. (d) The UNFCCC entered into force on 21 March 1994.
47. (c) India has targeted to produce 450 GW of renewable Today, it has near-universal membership. The 197
energy by 2030. It is one of India’s NDCs. countries that have ratified the Convention are
48. (b) One of India’s NDC is to reduce the emission called Parties to the Convention. Preventing
intensity by 33-35% from 2005 levels by 2030. “dangerous” human interference with the climate
49. (b) India and Japan are working together on a joint system is the ultimate aim of the UNFCCC.
lunar polar exploration (LUPEX) mission that aims 57. (b) Climate finance is “finance that aims at reducing
to send a lander and rover to the Moon’s the South emissions, and enhancing sinks of greenhouse
Pole. The LUPEX is a robotic lunar mission concept gases and aims at reducing vulnerability of, and
by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) maintaining and increasing the resilience of, human
and Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA). and ecological systems to negative climate change
It would send a lunar rover and lander to explore impacts”. It seeks to support mitigation and
the South Pole region of the Moon in 2024. adaptation actions that will address climate change
50. (d) Goals and objectives of the mission: not economic slowdown and depression.
 The primary objective of Chandrayaan 2 is to 58. (d) CO2—also known as greenhouse gases—has
demonstrate the ability to soft-land on the lunar become a major concern as climate change
surface and operate a robotic rover on the becomes a bigger issue. China is the world's largest
surface. contributing country to CO2 emissions followed by
 Scientific goals include studies of lunar USA and India—a trend that has steadily risen over
topography, mineralogy, elemental abundance, the years—now producing 10.06 billion metric tons
the lunar exosphere, and signatures of of CO2. Among the following France emit least
hydroxyl and water ice. GHG.
Other objectives of the mission: 59. (c)
 To identify or to find out the minerals and  Elevation or Altitude effect climate. Normally,
indicators of hydroxyl and water molecules. climatic conditions become colder as altitude
 To study the surface of the moon. increases. ...
 To study the density of the electrons in the  Prevailing global wind patterns. ...
Moon’s ionosphere that is the uppermost part  Topography. ...
of the atmosphere that is ionised by radiation.  Effects of Geography. ...
 The Orbiter will observe the lunar surface and  Surface of the Earth. ...
relay communication between Earth and  Climate change over time.
Chandrayaan 2’s Lander. 60. (c) India Ranks 7th in Global Climate Risk Index 2021
51. (d) 4th country ever to soft land on the lunar surface. of German watch. India has been placed among the
The United States, the Soviet Union and China are top 10 most affected countries by climate change,
the three nations which have successfully landed in the Global Climate Risk Index 2021 published by
their spacecraft on the moon. And, the US is the the Bonn-based environmental think tank German
only country to have ever put people on the moon. watch.
Russia (the USSR), Japan, China, the European 61. (c) The US has pledged to reduce 50-52 % emission
Space Agency (ESA), and India have all made by 2030.
visits to the moon via probes. Explanation: (Q.62-Q.66)
52. (a) The spacecraft is to be launched in June 2022. It Ramsar Convention
will reach Jupiter in October 2029. It will reach  It was signed in 1971 in the Iranian city of
Jupiter after five gravity assists. Gravity Assists is Ramsar and is one of the oldest inter-
the use of the gravity of other planet or governmental accord for preserving the
astronomical object to increase speed of a ecological character of wetlands.
spacecraft or to alter its path. This is done to save  It is also known as the Convention on
the propellant and reduce expenses. Indian Navy Wetlands.
has launched the 'Operation Vanila' to assist the  Its aim is to develop and maintain an
population of Madagascar affected by Cyclone international network of wetlands which are
Diane. important for the conservation of global
53. (b) Vikram lander descent was as planned and normal biological diversity and for sustaining human
performance was observed up to an altitude of 2.1 life through the maintenance of their ecosystem
km. Subsequently, communication from the lander components, processes and benefits.
to ground stations was lost,” said a visibly  Wetlands declared as Ramsar sites are
distraught ISRO Chairman K Sivan, shortly after. protected under strict guidelines of the
54. (a) India is a signatory of the Square Kilometer Array convention
Observatory or SKAO, but it is not yet a member of Montreux Record
the Artemis Mission.  Montreux Record under the Ramsar
55. (b) Four Indian officers, who were selected to become Convention is a register of wetland sites on
astronauts to crew Gaganyaan into orbit, have the List of Wetlands of International
completed their one-year training course in Russia's Importance where changes in ecological
Zvyozdny gorodok city near Moscow. The character have occurred, are occurring, or are
likely to occur as a result of technological
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 developments, pollution or other human the functioning of the magistrate courts, or the
interference. investigating authority would be harmed.
 It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List. 71. (d) Option d is correct. The police have jumped the gun
 Currently, two wetlands of India are in in arresting Amit. As the paragraph suggests,
Montreux record: Keoladeo National Park arrests should be the last resort of the police in their
(Rajasthan) and Loktak Lake (Manipur). investigations unless the conditions specified come
 Chilika lake (Odisha) was placed in the record into play. Option a suggests that the police are
but was later removed from it. correct in arresting him on suspicions of having
This addition will help in achieving India’s ambition killed Ranjit; however there is no evidence to
mission ‘Nal se Jal’ which aims to provide piped suggest so. Option c also fails to appreciate that
water connection to every household by 2024. there seems to be no evidence to support their
Chilika Lake (Orissa) and Keoladeo National Park actions. Option b is correct but option d is the better
(Rajasthan) were recognized as the first Ramsar answer by virtue of its explanatory nature.
Sites of India. 72. (a) Option a is correct. Option b does not explain the
62. (c) is the correct answer. reason for the challenge not being able to sustain.
63. (b) is the correct answer. Option c considers the orders given to the police,
64. (a) is the correct answer. which cannot be substantiated by the facts. Option
65. (c) is the correct answer. d talks about the possibility of him being a spy,
66. (a) is the correct answer. which cannot also be corroborated by the facts
above. Hence, option a is the most plausible
SECTION – C : LEGAL REASONING answer.
73. (c) Option c is correct. The police is right in exercising
67. (c) Option c is correct. The protestors, albeit having their discretion in arresting him as he had
gone with a peaceful intent, started fighting previously absconded from their reach even before
amongst themselves and with vendors nearby after trial. Option a only considers the allegations
a mere 10 minute delay, this could be construed as against him, thus being an incomplete answer.
being influential on the regardless of the nexus Option b is incorrect as it only mentions the action
between his house and the complex. Riots taking being irrational, hereby being wrong by virtue of
place over the hearing of a person can lack of reasoning. Option d is incorrect as time does
monumentally bear influence upon the judiciary, not facto in criminal cases and the lack of evidence
and thus, no common man would consider it to be cannot rule out genuine apprehensions of the
otherwise. Option 1 mentions the hearing being police.
conducted virtually, which hasn’t been mentioned in 74. (b) Option b is correct. Subedaar was not acting
the question, but in the paragraph. Option 2 only irrationally as he saw Ajmal carrying the explosives
talks about their intent but no their subsequent and arrested him under bona fide suspicions, hence
violent actions, and thus, is wrong. Option 4 option a is incorrect. Option c is incorrect as it fails
considers the nexus between the house and the to mentions the actions of Subedaar and the
courts as being significant while considering the reasoning thereto. Option d is incorrect as it
riots and their influence on the decision, which considers his public duty, which fails to answer the
cannot be substantiated according to the question above.
paragraph. 75. (d) The correct answer is option (d). The Court’s
68. (b) Option b is the correct answer. As one of the judges decision is still pending and it can be inferred that
was a relative of A, the ratio thereto does not the ban is indefinite. The ban is a reasonable
matter; the bias becomes apparent as soon as it restriction on the fundamental rights however the
becomes apparent that a common man would be fact that it has been going on for 2 years is what
influenced by such conditions. Option 4 defines the makes it unconstitutional. Hence for the said reason
legal maxim of ‘no person shall be a judge in his it can be said, option a, b, c is incorrect.
own case’ however, as such maxim and the 76. (d) The correct answer is option (d). Disruption of
process of relisting has not been defined above, it internet service due to a re-laying of network lines is
does not serve as the correct answer. Option 1 not a restriction on fundamental rights. It is not a
considers the ratio and its consequences, however, ban so option (c) is incorrect. It is merely a
as option 4 suggests, the influence does not temporary disruption in larger public interest.
depend on the consequence. Similarly, option 3 is 77. (b) The correct answer is option (b). The passage
incorrect in the same vein. clearly emphasised the requirement of
69. (b) Option b is the correct answer. Even though the transparency, mandating that shutdown orders be
ED, here, acts as a, investigating authority, the published. Thus option c and d are incorrect. Option
paragraph clearly mentions that the judiciary also (a) is incorrect because it is incomplete and only
has to take into account the factors affecting the mentions transparency. The key point of the answer
investigating authorities while considering influential is that internet shutdown orders must be published
factors to eradicate bias, as such bias does not act mandatorily without restrictions, even if the ban
independent of judicial or investigating authorities. itself is a reasonable restriction.
70. (a) Option a is the correct answer. The police is more 78. (d) The correct answer is option (d). It is irrelevant that
than capable of dealing with 4 unarmed civilians by the government announced the ban on
way of their powers, they wouldn’t be affected by loudspeakers in public places. The primary
Dhaniya’s family members to such an extent where requirement mandated by the court is that internet

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 shutdowns must be published which was not done contempt of court is not a criminal offence, triable
in this case. Hence options a, b, c are incorrect. by the court, therefore no bail mechanism is present
79. (c) The correct answer is option (c). The crowd may therein. As a result, option d is correct.
have a fundamental right to protest however the 86. (b) Option b is correct. As the minister did not aim to
same cannot be exercised to occupy public ways. possess the meat upon it being declared as illegal
Even if the occupation has not been for a for possession and consumption, the alleged
considerable period of time yet, the passage clearly offence herein was not committed with a heinous
mentions that “such kind of occupation of public intent, as a result option a is incorrect. Option c
ways, whether at the site in question or anywhere considers the state of affairs as being significant in
else for protests is not acceptable”. Hence option a considering his bail applications, which cannot be
and b are incorrect. Option d is narrow in scope for reasoned for. Option d is incorrect since the
it only partly mentions about the principle focusing response of the public is not on account of his
only on encroachment and obstructions but does influence but due to the public sentiment.
not mentions about the public ways, hence 87. (c) Option c is correct. Even though there was no
incorrect. murderous intent possessed by Jeevandev, the fact
80. (b) The correct answer is option (b). As per the that the investigation has not even started yet is
passage “the administration ought to take action to reason enough to disallow his bail application, as a
keep the areas clear of encroachments or result option b is incorrect. As has already been
obstructions.” This power to take action, such as mentioned, not enough facts being on record
lathi charge in the present case is for public ways. cannot be a good enough reason to grant him the
Option (c) cannot be derived from the passage and bail, as a result of which, option d is incorrect.
option (d) is irrelevant to the question asked. Option Option a is incorrect because his influence creating
A is incorrect, for it is narrow in scope it only talks unrest in the country cannot be considered to be of
about prevention of designated protest places, consequence herein.
however, passage states protest be it at the site in 88. (c) Option c is correct. Option a again fails to
question or anywhere else for protest is not substantiate his influence as being used so
acceptable., hence incorrect. phenomenal that it could disrupt the functioning of
81. (c) The correct answer is option (c). The chief authorities in India. Option b is incorrect as him
minister’s freedom of movement is not actually being implicated has not been settled yet. Option d
being violated because the protest is not on a public is incorrect as there are no factors that can
way. Hence option A & D incorrect. The relevant substantiate his use of influence in an unlawful
answer is not freedom of movement itself but the manner.
fact that Lal Park is a designated protest site and 89. (c) Option c is correct. As the paragraph herein
the right to protest in such a place cannot be taken suggests, complaints with regards to broadcasting
away by the proposed action. Option B is irrelevant can only be brought against the broadcaster and
for it is not related to the facts. not any other parties, upon which, the broadcaster
82. (d) The correct answer is option (d). The action may be is to issue an acknowledgement of the same. As a
lawful, necessary and in the interest of public health result, option a and b are incorrect. Option d is
and public order. However, the action of the incorrect as it once again fails to reason that
government was by no means proportionate. As per Chaaluagh was just an ad-company while the
the passage, proportionality is also an essential broadcaster should be held liable for running the
criterion to be met in this regard. Therefore, the ads in the first place.
governmental action is not valid. Hence options a, 90. (d) Option d is correct. The paragraph requires the
b, c are incorrect. broadcaster to issue an acknowledgement of the
83. (b) Option b is correct. Option a considers his right to complaint within 24 hours of receiving such
anticipatory bail, which the courts can curb while complaint, and a clear deviation from the position of
being circumspect in select cases. Option c law, as stated in the paragraph is seen here. The
considers him being only a suspect and not an stance of Dharamkosh, as being closed on
accused which is of no relevance because weekends due to low ratings, cannot be satisfied as
anticipatory bail is filed for when apprehension of the law requires them to issue a timely
arrest is seen. Option d considers him being a acknowledgment of their complaints. As a result,
heinous criminal only, but fails to consider his options a, b and c fail to satisfy.
influence in the past. As a result, option b is the 91. (d) Option d is correct. The passage does not provide
most reasonable answer. for appeals to the High Court or the Supreme Court,
84. (a) Option a is correct. The paragraph above clearly as aresult of which options a and b are incorrect
states that the offences and their graveness should due t lack of reasoning. Option c considers an
be considered while allowing the bail application. As appeal being made to the central government which
a result, option b is incorrect. Option c is in similar is the remedy f last resort within the broadcasting
vein as him urinating in public does not constitute grievance redressal mechanism. As a result, option
as a very big offence. d is the correct appellate jurisdiction.
85. (d) Option d is correct. Option a is wrong as it does not 92. (a) Option a is correct. As the self-regulating body of
support the reasoning with any actual facts. Option the broadcasters is not a registered one.
b is incorrect because it again falls short of Dharamkosh was right, whilst refusing to comply
providing reasons for the actions of the court. with their directions, even though it was not in
Option c is incorrect as it fails to consider that furtherance of justice. Option b fails to reason on

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 this account. Option c is incorrect because taking down the old articles that stand irrelevant
Dharamkosh being a capitalistic entity is wrongly now would affect the general interest of the public.
reasoned for, moreover, the demands of its viewers Thus, option a is correct. Likewise, option b is
should have been made to a registered body. incorrect. Option c is incorrect because even
Option d is incorrect because Dharamkosh has not though he was involved in the scam, he has been
contested the order but has rather failed/refused to acquitted by the court and thus, previous charges
comply. against him should not shadow his present
93. (b) Option b is correct. As the passage clearly only business dealings. Option d is incorrect because it
mentions ‘cable-broadcasting network’ as it is a simply states that he has been acquitted by the
social media site used by its users. As a result of Court whereas option a gives a better reasoning.
which option a and c are incorrect and option d is 99. (c) Option c is the correct option because her religion is
invalid. no way affects her being involved in a job that helps
94. (c) Option c is correct. Ratna Debi did not jump the gun people come out of their drug addiction. Thus,
by directly appealing to the government as there taking down the blogs would not affect the general
existed no mechanism for such appeals in the first interest of the public. Thus, option a is incorrect.
place. As a result of which options a and d are Option b is a far-fetched answer since the
incorrect. Option c is incorrect as fails to correlate paragraph nowhere mentions that scientology is a
the absence of the mechanism and her dropping criticised religious group, and thus, option c is
the matter on that account. incorrect. Option d merely states how allowing the
95. (b) The passage only states that the K.S. Puttaswamy articles to stay would affect the general public
case states that the right to privacy to be part and interest which is not our concern here. It has to be
parcel of the fundamental right to life and personal proved that taking down the articles does not affect
liberty enshrined in the Constitution and it nowhere the public interest. Thus, option d is incorrect
mentions the right to be forgotten principle. The 100. (d) Option d is the right option because since the facts
judgement has been cited to show how right to bring the aspect of shock therapy which is an
privacy is interpreted. Thus, the correction answer extreme form of punishment, people need to be
is Option b. Option a is clearly stated in the aware of these things before they seek treatment
passage and thus, is the incorrect answer. Option c from her. It is a far-fetched possibility that Abby
is incorrect because it can also be inferred from the would actually harm the patients, thus, option b
first paragraph which states that the right to the stands incorrect. Option a merely states how
personal data would also mean the right to regulate allowing the articles to stay would affect the general
its existence on the internet. The last two paragraph public interest which is not our concern here. It has
suggest that the right to be forgotten may also apply to be proved that taking down the articles does not
to the criminals as it applies to the victims and thus, affect the public interest. Thus, option a is incorrect.
option d stands incorrect. Even though the work and religion of a person are
96. (a) Option a is the correct answer because since the two different aspects of a person’s life, in this case,
details of his divorce does not, in any way, concern since Abby particularly dealt with sensitive patients
the interest of the public, Ajay has a successful right with addiction problems, it is imperative for the
to be forgotten request. Even though option b people to know else later it might cause anxiety to
merely states the fact and thus, is incorrect. Option her patients.
c is incorrect because the passage nowhere 101. (b) The game ultimately depends on the strength, skills
mentions that the right of his fans to be informed and tactics of the players in throwing the ball and
would have overriding effect over Ajay’ RTBF. Even thus, cannot be called a game of chance. Thus,
though option d is factually correct, a right to be option b is the correct option. Even though the team
forgotten does not simply stem from a matter being that goes first usually wins does not mean that it
personal in nature, the applicant has to satisfy that makes the game a game of chance or luck. With
it does not affect the general interest of the public. more strength, skill and tactics the game could be
Thus, option d is also incorrect. won even by the team going second. The team to
97. (b) Option b is the correct option because in this case, go first merely has an advantage. Thus, options a
the public needs to be informed about the actions of and c are incorrect. Option d is incorrect because
the actor they follow and thus, taking the video the result of a game being unknown is not sufficient
down would influence the general interest of the to show that the betting made on it would amount to
public negatively it would keep them in shadow gambling.
regarding the true nature of the actor that they 102. (b) What constitutes a best move in chess is not
follow. Thus, option a is also incorrect. Option c is objective and varies from player to player. Thus,
incorrect because the passage nowhere mentions two excellent skilled chess players may have very
that the right of his fans to be informed would have distinct opinion of what a best next move may
overriding effect over Ajay’ RTBF, whether granted mean. Thus, a player having to guess the best next
or not. Even though option d is factually correct, a move of the in-built administrator is a complete
right to be forgotten does not simply stem from a game of chance. Further, the fact that the players
matter being personal in nature, the applicant has have to pay Rs. 100/- for each round and the
to satisfy that it does not affect the general interest winner wins Rs. 250/- while the rest lose their
of the public. Thus, option d is also incorrect. money suggest that this amounts to gambling.
98. (a) Since Vikram has already been acquitted of all the Thus, option b is correct. Likewise, option a is
charges made against him, it cannot be said that incorrect. Option c makes a statement not backed

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 by any legal or factual proposition from the passage
and thus, is incorrect. Option d is a mere fact and
does not answer the question regarding the
maintainability of the claim, and thus, is incorrect.
103. (a) The Rs. 100/- charges by the App is a one-time
payment to get registered on the App. The payment
has nothing to do with the matches that a player
T = Tiger, S = Stage, R = Rabbit, T-j = Tree, P =
plays or its outcome. Thus, option a is the correct
option. Option b is incorrect because even though Plant
110. (d)
Ludo is a game of chance, the players in this game
are making the payment to get registered and not to
win more money after winning the match. Thus,
option b is incorrect. Option c makes a statement
without adequately addressing the situation, and
thus, is incorrect. Even though the administrator
makes the next moves, there is no money being bet C = Cassettes, T = Tapes, D = Disks
for winning the match and the winners only get C-1 = Computers, P = Players
bonus tokens and not real money. Thus, option d is 111. (b) First reverse the word and then add +(a)
incorrect. 112. (d) Rationale: Option (A) cannot be sourced from the
104. (d) The horse race is a game of skill because it passage. The US receives immigrants from the
depends on various factors like the pedigree given Northern Triangle region, but to say that they get all
to the horse, the training received, health of the the immigrants that region is an extreme step.
horse, etc. Thus, option d is the correct answer. Options (B) cannot be said to be correct on the
Likewise, option a is incorrect. Option b merely basis of the information stated. The US’s role has
states the fact but fails to adequately address the been fundamental in the violence happening in this
situation. Option c also states the fact but does not part, but it is not a DIRECT role.
adequately address the situation, and thus, is Option (C) is wrong as though it is a misconception
incorrect. Just because people lose huge sums of to think that people from the Northern region are
money when the outcome of the game is not in their moving north for better economic opportunities only,
favour would not amount to gambling. The but to say no one has moved there for economic
necessary requirement is that the game should be a opportunities is wrong.
game of chance. Only Option (D) can be inferred from the
information provided above and supports the
SECTION - D : LOGICAL REASONING author’s findings. Refer to second half of first
paragraph.
105. (a) Conclusions: Therefore, the correct option is (D).
113. (c) Rationale: Option (A) cannot be inferred from the
I. QL : True
passage as to say that the people from Northern
II. Z  N : Not True
Triangle only go to the US is wrong and hasn’t been
106. (d) From statement I
implied anywhere in the passage.
J and M are parents of F, K and L.
Option (B) is wrong as the author mentions that the
It is not clear whether J or M is the mother of L.
US asylum law is faulty, thus, this has led to lots of
From statement II
non-inclusion in the US asylum laws. Also, the
J is the father of F, K and L.
asylum law is fixed by the UN not the US.
From both the statements
Only Option (C) is a major point mentioned by the
M is the wife of J as J is the son-in-law of T who is
author and is well founded in the passage as well.
the mother of M.
Refer to: Because they are not often persecuted on
Therefore, M is the mother of L.
the basis of race, religion, nationality, or political
107. (b) From statement I
opinion, asylum-seekers frequently claim asylum as
buy a new plant today → 4 $ % 7 2 not the plant
members of a PSG, THE MOST NUBULOUS of the
she
categories protected by US asylum law.
said →@ # 5 $9
Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.
The code for 'plant'  $
114. (c) Rationale: Option (A) is incorrect as the asylum-law
From statement II
has been fixed by the UN and not US. Also, it is not
plantis always good → > 6 3 $
the main reason for the state of affairs in the North
is good buy always → 3 > 2 6
Triangle region.
The code for 'plant' $ Option (B) - influenced the judiciary - is incorrect as
108. (a) 12 + 32 = 44 it is not the main reason.
44 + 64 = 108 Option (C) is the main reason. Refer to first
108 + 128 = 236 sentence of third paragraph. The US has sided with
236 + 256 = 492 the right-wing ideology which has influenced the
492+512 = 1004. asylum-courts to accommodate one specific
109. (c) ideology. Thus, option (B) is a repercussion of
option (C).
Hence, the answer is option (C).

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115. (b) Rationale: The author clearly points out how the weakens the author’s views that the State uses
modern asylum law does not provide for present punishment to control them.
situations as stated in the second paragraph and Option (B) actually strengthens the author’s points
therefore, the correct answer is Option (B). in a way that the rise in prosecution of black
116. (a) Rationale: Assumptions are implicit. Given persons (minorities) would indicate that the State is
statement is explicitly mentioned in the last using punishments to control them. It might also not
sentence of the first paragraph. Hence, it is not an have any effect on the author’s argument. However,
assumption. it certainly doesn’t weaken the author’s argument.
Premises are the facts or evidence that support or Option (C) actually strengthens the author’s points
lead to the conclusion. Therefore, the above that a focus on rehabilitation actually makes it better
statement forms premise of the passage which in the society.
leads to the conclusion. Hence, option (A) is the Option (D) is a pretty generalized statement and
correct answer. has no bearing on the author’s arguments.
117. (b) Rationale: The first thing that needs to be cleared is Therefore, the correct answer is Option (A).
that the question is asking about the hidden 122. (c) Rationale: A – Extraneous. The author has
assumption of what the author has indicated in this nowhere asked not to commit misdemeanours.
line. Statements 1 and 2 are very much clearly B – Too general. Judiciary is not the subject of the
established by the line written by the author. So, passage.
rather than saying that statements 1 and 2 are C- Correct. Only Option (C) manages to cover the
hidden assumption, it will be correct to say that the theme of the discussion and refer to the main point
author has explicitly mentioned statements 1 and 2. of contention mentioned by the author.
Statement 3 on the other hand, is a statement that D – Same as (b) Too general.
can be derived from the line and the context of the Thus, the answer is option (C).
passage. Thus, this is something that the author 123. (d) Rationale: The author in the last sentence of the
has not mentioned directly. last paragraph clearly provides for this view. It is
Thus, the answer is option (b) also a recurring theme in the passage.
118. (d) Rationale: It will be wrong to say that the author Therefore, the correct answer is Option (D).
would think that people think that majority migration 124. (d) The author uses examples to clarify his points. He
to US happens due to people looking for better gives the example of the controlling areas, court
economic and life opportunities. The author requirements etc.
mentions about the misconception that surrounds Thus, the answer is option (D).
the migration from the Northern Triangle region. He 125. (d) Statement 1 is a correct indication as the author
never mentions the same for the entire migration hints at this. The US has controlled many people
into US. Thus, statement 1 is wrong. through this law of punishment. This leads to a
Statement 2 is incorrect as the author does not logical indication that the State has misused its
imply that the US laws are strong. He merely powers to control the marginalised sections of the
implies that the present asylum-laws are weak and society.
the US laws are more suitable than the asylum- Statement 2 is a correct indication as the author
laws. says that in the last paragraph that many probation
Hence, option D will be correct. officers have created the so-called “troubled-kids”
119. (c) Rationale: Option (A) is untrue and cannot be problem in the society.
sourced from the passage. ‘ONLY’ is extreme. Statement 3 is correct as well. The author has
Option (B) may be the solution or outcome of the clearly mentioned this in the passage, refer to the
discussion stated above but is not a point either last paragraph
mentioned or proposed by the author. This point Thus, option (D) is correct.
cannot be inferred from the passage. 126. (c) The situation presented in A might be useful at a
Option (C) is correct as it can be found in the third later stage in the investigation since it adds to the
paragraph of the passage. police's skill in identifying fake notes. B is also not
Therefore, the correct Option is (C). the best course of action since it does not serve the
120. (d) Rationale: The author does not discuss the possible immediate purpose. C is the best course of action
solutions for the given problems or specify if the as the suspicion about the gangs previous
system would function without these bodies. involvement in the same offence will get clarified.
Option (A) is not correct as though the author 127. (c) Assumption Q. All the above three assumptions are
criticises the way how the judicial system handles valid. All three are the reasons that the policy
misdemeanors, he certainly doesn’t say that the makers are puzzled. Even if one of these
whole concept of misdemeanors must be erased assumptions is dropped, then there is no element
off. left to be puzzled.
Option (B) is incorrect as the author mentions Hence, C
nothing of this sort. 128. (c) Option (a) is incomplete and vague. Option (b) is
Therefore, the correct answer is Option (D). incorrect because it is unclear that which practice is
121. (a) Rationale: Option (A) actually weakens the author’s being defended by Clara. (d) is incorrect because
point, because it gives the impression that the Clara does not agree to Florence's argument, (c)
marginalized groups are in fact the ones who have expresses the response of Clara most
repeatedly committed crimes. They actually commit appropriately.
more crimes, there’s no bias against them. Thus, it Hence, C

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129. (d) Options A, B or C does not lead to the conclusion. SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Only option D explains the use of ‘but’. Lenin ought
to be happy, BUT, he is not. A good artist is content Hint (Q.136 – Q.140):
and happy, but Lenin is not such an artist. The first question itself requires us to calculate the
Hence, D visibility of all the brands across the stores. Hence,
130. (d) ‘The sun at its zenith’ is given and it indicates that it before we start solving the questions, we can look
was noon. So statement 1 is just a restatement and at the visibility for each brand across the stores.
not conclusion. Neither are 2 and 3. Visibility of Astute brand
Hence, the answer is D- None of them. 111 48 91 30 80
= + + + + ≈ 0.94
450 440 280 350 480
131. (d) ii and iv are not related to the main statement,
Visibility of Supreme brand
therefore you can clearly rule out options ‘b’ and ‘c’. 128 55 79 111 65
Note that the main issue here is ‘voting’ not = + + + + ≈ 1.13
450 440 280 350 480
‘compulsion’ or ‘fun’. Therefore ii is weak. Visibility of Paramount brand
69 116 50 101 105
Hence, D = + + + + ≈ 1.1
450 440 280 350 480
132. (d) Rationale: A – Contradicts the information given in
the passage. 85 137 30 60
B – ‘only some’ is incorrect. Visibility of Smash brand= + + + +
450 440 280 350
108
C – Refer to - Those who suffer from schizophrenia ≈ 1.06
480
reported that they feel rejected by society because
of the negative representations of mental illness in 57 84 30 48
movies. Visibility of ultimate brand= + + + +
450 440 280 350
122
Only Option (D) can be sourced from the passage ≈ 0.82
480
and deemed to be true. Refer to: Although violence 136. (b) Supreme.
and gifted individuals could be realistic portrayals of 137. (a) Astute in Store 4 has a visibility that is 30/350 < 0.1.
schizophrenia, they are often exaggerated in films. No other brand in any other store shows such low
The rest of the options have been discussed but are visibility
either incorrect or cannot be reasonably inferred 22
from the passage. 138. (a) Total number of T-Shirts of size M = x 2000 =
100
Thus, the correct answer is option (D) 440
133. (d) Rationale: A – Only schizophrenia is discussed in Total number of T-shirts of size M in Stores 1, 2,
the passage, not other mental illnesses. and
B – Refer to: Those who suffer from schizophrenia 5= 10% of 1370= 137
reported that they feel rejected by society because Remaining T-shirts of size M to be distributed
of the negative representations of mental illness in across
movies. Stores 3 and 4 = 440 - 137 = 303.
C – Comparison of ‘awareness’ now and earlier not To minimize the size M T-shirts in Store 4, we need
discussed in the passage. to maximize size M T-shirts in Store 3. The total
D – Correct. From the arguments laid down by the number of T-shirts in Store 3 are 280 and hence
author, only Option (D) seems to be fit in the this is the maximum number of T-shirts of size M,
assertions about schizophrenia and its portrayal in that could be in Store 3.
films. Refer to: Refer to: Although violence and Hence, the minimum possible number of T-shirts in
gifted individuals could be realistic portrayals of Store 4 = 303 - 280 = 23.
schizophrenia, they are often exaggerated in films. 139. (b) Share of Supreme brand in all stores together =
128+55+79+111+65
Hence, D × 100 ≈ 22%
2000
134. (d) Rationale: The author’s main argument is wrong 420−341
portrayal of schizophrenics in the movies. 140. (d) Required percentage = x 100 = 23.16%.
341
Option A (how schizophrenics feel about this wrong 141. (c) Distances upstream:
portrayal) is incorrect as the image of schizophrenic Monday = 18/100 * 150 = 27 km, Tuesday = 12/100
patients in the eyes of the public is the main crux of * 150 = 18 km. Wednesday = 39 km, Thursday = 45
the issue. km, Friday = 21 km
Option B (SOME patients MAY) is incorrect as it Similarly Distances downstream:
does not imply or permit films to portray ALL mental Monday = 27 km, Tuesday = 45 km. Wednesday =
health patients who have schizophrenia as typically 18 km, Thursday = 36 km, Friday = 54 km
aggressive. Further, this image has become Let speed of still water upstream on Friday = x, then
stereotypical and is taking away the seriousness downstream on Thursday = (10-x)
from the issue which is also a concern highlighted Now
by the author. 21/(x-3) = 36/[(10-x)+2.5)]
Thus, the correct answer is option (D). Solve, x = 6.5
135. (b) Rationale: From the Options given above, only So required ratio is 3.5 : 6.5 = 7 : 13
Option (B) seems the correct one which is also a 142. (b) speeds – 4x and 5x
recurring theme in the passage. So on Monday
27/(4x-3) + 27/(5x+3) = 9/2
Solve, x = 3
So downstream speed = 5x = 15 km/hr

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143. (b) 8x and 3x, Also 8x – 3x = 5 On 2nd day, work completed by B and D = 1/18 +
So x = 1, speeds are 8 and 3 km/hr 1/25 = 11/90
So for Tuesday 1st pair worked for 3 days, so work completed by
18/(3-b) + 45/(8+b) = 14 them = 2/15 * 3 = 2/5
Solve, b = 1 km/hr Similarly, by B and D = 11/90 * 3 = 11/30
144. (d) On Wednesday So part of project uncompleted= 1 – (2/5 + 11/30) =
39/(4x-2) – 18/(5x+2) = 10 7/30
Solve So % = 7/30 * 100 = 70/3%
Solve, x = 2 km/hr 149. (d) Efficiency — A : C = 120 : 100 = 6 : 5
So required distance : So days ratio = 5 : 6
39/(8-2) + 18/(10+2) = 8 hours Similarly, A : B = 60 : 100 = 3 : 5, so days 5 : 3
145. (d) Let speed of still water upstream on Thursday = x, B/A = 3/5, A/C = 5/6
then downstream on Friday = (11-x) So ratio of days for B : A : C is 3 : 5 : 6 …………(1)
Now Now — B and C can complete the whole project 4
45/(x-2.5) – 54/[(11-x)+3)] = 12 in 6 days working together, and ratio of no. of days
15/(x-2.5) – 18/(14-x) = 4 in which they can complete work alone is B and C
The time is integral value, so by putting values from (1) is 3 : 6 = 1 : 2
higher than 2.5, x can be found So
x=5 1/x + 1/2x = 1/6
So required ratio is 5 : 6 Solve, x = 9
rd
So B can complete work in 8 days, C in 18 days
146. (c) A and B complete 1/3 , C completed 1/12 * 2 = 1/6
and then A in 15 days
Completed work before D joined is 1/3 + 1/6 = 1/2,
Now, let D worked for ‘y’ days on project 4. So
so to be completed by D = 1 – 1/2 = 1/2 of work
1/15 *5 + 1/9 * 3 + 1/18 * 2 + 1/18 * y = 1 – 1/6
Now project uncompleted after D left = 1/3
Solve, y = 1 day
So D did = 1/2 – 1/3 = 1/6 of work
th 150. (b) B and C together can complete work in 12 days
He worked for 3 days, means he complete 1/6 of [1/20 + 1/30 = 5/60 — 12 days]
work in 3 days. so he can do complete project 1 in Efficiency E : (B+(c) = 3/2 : 1 = 3 : 2
6/1 * 3 = 18 days So, ratio of number days = 2 : 3
147. (d) Number of days in which B and C can complete 3 == 12
project 2 alone is 5x and 8x respectively. 1 == 4
Now if D also joined for 4 days, project would have So E can complete whole work in 2 == 8 days
been completed, means Now E worked for (2+3) = 5 days – total days for
6/20 + 3/5x + 4/8x + 4/12 = 1 which B and C worked.
11/10x = 11/30 So E completed 5/8 of work, A completed 1/12 of
x=3 work. 1/12 is uncompleted work. Let x is no. of days
So B can complete project in 5x = 15 days, and C in in which D can complete whole work. So
8x = 24 days. A’s work + E’s work + D’s work = 1 – uncompleted
So 13/30 work, B and C together – (1/15 + 1/24)*y work
= 13/30 1/12 + 5/8 + 5/x = 1 – 1/12
Solve, y = 4 days Solve, x = 24 = no. of days in which D can alone
148. (a) Project is to be completed in 6 days. They all complete project 5.
worked in pairs on alternate means all worked for 3 A completed 1/12th work in 2 days, so he can
days each. complete whole project in 2*12 = 24 days
So A = 24, B = 20, C = 30, D = 24
On 1st day, work completed by A and C = 1/12 + So together they can complete in – 1/24 + 1/20 +
1/20 = 2/15 1/30 + 1/24 = 1/6 —> 6 days

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Notes:

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Notes:

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