01-01-2023 Code-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone:011-47623456

MM: 720 WEEKLY TEST - 10 Time: 3 Hrs 20 Mins.

(KCTC02, KCTC03 & KRTC01)

Topics covered:
Physics : Waves
Chemistry : Hydrogen, The s-Block Elements, The p-Block Elements (Group 13 & 14)
Botany : Plant Growth & Development
Zoology : Chemical Coordination & Integration

Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.
(viii) Use of Calculator is not allowed.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer: of the resultant wave at x = 0 will be (symbols

SECTION - A have their usual meanings)
1. Speed of sound wave in a fluid is  
(1) (2)
(1) Directly proportional to square of bulk 2 4
modulus of medium  
(3) (4)
(2) Inversely proportional to square of density of 3 6
medium 3. A progressive wave of frequency 240 Hz, moves
(3) Directly proportional to square root of product with a velocity of 40 m/s in a medium. The phase
of bulk modulus and density of medium difference between two particles separated by a
distance 2 cm at any time t will be
(4) Inversely proportional to square root of
 6
density of medium (1) rad (2) rad
25 25
2. Two waves represented by equations
12  9
  (3) rad (4) rad
y1 = asin(t – kx) and y 2 = a sin  t − kx +  25 25
 2
respectively are superimposed. The initial phase

(1)
Weekly Test-10 (Code-A) Compact Medical -2023

4. If an open organ pipe of length L and another 10. A given length of a sonometer wire is in
closed organ pipe of same length produce x resonance with tuning fork. If length of wire is
beats/second when vibrated together, each in
reduced by 5%, the wire vibrating with the fork
their fundamental modes, then speed of sound is
(neglect end correction) produce 4 beats per second. The frequency of
the tuning fork will be
3Lx
(1) 2Lx (2) (1) 76 Hz (2) 95 Hz
2
5Lx (3) 56 Hz (4) 80 Hz
(3) 4Lx (4)
2 11. The equation of stationary wave is
5. The equation of a standing wave produced on a  x 
y = 10 cos   sin(100  t ) (where x is in cm
string fixed at both ends is  10 
y = 0.4 sin 0.314x cos 600t and t is in s). The wave is formed on a string of
(where x is in cm and t is in s) length 40 cm. An antinode will be located at (from
the following options)
The smallest possible length of the string for this
will be (1) x = 15 cm (2) x = 25 cm
(1) 20 cm (2) 40 cm (3) x = 20 cm (4) x = 12.5 cm
(3) 10 cm (4) 5 cm 12. A wave travelling along the x-axis is described by
6. Two strings A and B are fixed at both ends. the equation y(x, t) = 0.1sin(Px – Qt). If the
String A has twice the length, twice the diameter, wavelength and time period of wave are 0.06 m
twice the tension and twice the density than and 1 s, respectively, then value of P and Q in
string B. The overtone of A that will be in unison appropriate unit will be
with fundamental frequency of B is
100  100 
(1) 4th (2) 3rd (1) P = 2 , Q = (2) P = , Q = 2
3 3
(3) 1st (4) 2nd
50  50 
7. Two waves represent by the equations y1 = 2a (3) P = , Q = (4) P = ,Q = 
3 3
sin(t – kx) and y2 = 3a cos(t – kx) superposed
each other to give a resultant wave. Amplitude of 13. A plane progressive simple harmonic wave is
the resultant wave will be moving along positive x-direction with speed
(1) 5a (2) 29a v = 20 m/s. If amplitude of medium particles is
10 cm and time period of oscillation of medium
(3) 13 a (4) a particle is 2 s, then equation of the plane
8. The equation of a travelling wave on a string progressive wave may be (at t = 0, x = 0,
moving in positive x-direction is given by y = 5 cm)
y = Asin(t – kx). It is reflected from a rigid [x is in m and t is in s]
boundary at x = 0. The equation of reflected  x 
(1) y = 10  10 −2 sin  − t +  m
wave is yr =  20 3
(1) –Asin(t – kx) (2) –Asin(t + kx)  x 
(2) y = 10  10 −2 sin  − t + m
(3) Asin(t – kx) (4) Acos(t + kx)  20 6
9. The first overtone of an open organ pipe has   x t  
frequency f. The second overtone of a closed (3) y = 10  10 −2 sin  − + m
 10 2 3 
organ pipe of the same length will have
  x t  
frequency (neglect end corrections) (4) y = 10  10 −2 sin  + + m
 10 2 6
5f 3f
(1) (2) 14. A soldier fires a bullet towards a hill hears the
2 2
first echo after 4 s. He moves a distance 100 m
5f 3f towards the hill and fires a bullet and hears the
(3) (4)
4 4 echo after 3.5 s. The velocity of sound in air is
(2)
Compact Medical-2023 Weekly Test-10 (Code-A)

(1) 330 m/s (2) 300 m/s 4l 4l

(3)  = (4)  =
(3) 400 m/s (4) 360 m/s 6 9
15. In a closed organ pipe the frequency of 22. Two sound waves having ratio of respective
fundamental mode is 75 Hz. Which of the intensities 400 : 1, undergo interference. The
following frequencies can be produced by it? ratio of intensity at the maxima to minima is
(1) 150 Hz (2) 225 Hz 2
(1)  
21 21
(2)
(3) 200 Hz (4) 300 Hz  19  19
16. A tuning fork produces a wave of wavelength 100 401 401
cm in air at 27°C. The wavelength of the wave (3) (4)
produced by the fork in air at 127°C will be nearly 399 399

(1) 80 cm (2) 85 cm 23. The transverse displacement of the particles of a

(3) 125 cm (4) 115 cm string (clamped at its both ends) is given by
17. Velocity of sound in air is v. If density of air is  x 
y ( x, t ) = 0.04 sin   cos(100 t ) (where symbols
increased to four times, then the new velocity of  3 
sound in air will be (assume constant pressure)
have their usual meanings).
v v
(1) (2) All the particles on string between two
2 12
consecutive nodes vibrate with
3
(3) 12v (4) v (1) Same phase (2) Same amplitude
2
18. The length of a sonometer wire is 90 cm. If it is (3) Same frequency (4) Both (1) and (3)
divided into two segments having fundamental 24. A sonometer wire is vibrating in the second
frequencies in the ratio 1 : 2, then length of the overtone. In the wire there are
respective segments will be
(1) Two nodes and two antinodes
(1) 60 cm, 30 cm (2) 70 cm, 20 cm
(2) One node and two antinodes
(3) 50 cm, 40 cm (4) 45 cm, 45 cm
(3) Four nodes and three antinodes
19. Two tuning forks have frequencies 450 Hz and
(4) Three nodes and three antinodes
454 Hz respectively. On sounding these forks
together, the time interval between successive 25. A transverse wave represented by y = 0.02
maximum intensities will be sin(x + 30t), (where x and t are in metres and
seconds respectively) is travelling along a wire of
1 1 cross-sectional area 1 mm2 and density 8000
(1) s (2) s
2 4 kg/m3. Tension in string is
(3) 1 s (4) 2 s (1) 20 N (2) 7.2 N
20. For a particular tube, three harmonic are 300 Hz, (3) 30 N (4) 14.4 N
600 Hz and 750 Hz. The other possible 26. Two sound sources emitting sound each of
frequencies of oscillations in the tube are wavelength  are fixed at a given distance. A
(1) 100, 200 Hz (2) 150, 400 Hz listener moves with a velocity v0 from one source
towards another along the line joining the two
(3) 150, 450 Hz (4) 450, 800 Hz sources. The number of beats heard by him per
21. A stretched wire of length l, free at one end can second is
sustain stationary waves of wavelength , then v0 2v 0
(1) (2)
the value of  which is not possible is (symbols 2 
have their usual meaning)
v0 v0
(3) (4)
(1)  =
4l
(2)  =
4l  3
3 7 27. If f1 and f2 be the fundamental frequencies of
vibration of two parts of a stretched string

(3)
Weekly Test-10 (Code-A) Compact Medical -2023

separately after cutting under equal tension T. 34. An observer is moving with a speed 30 m/s
The fundamental frequency f of string before towards a stationary source of sound of
cutting under same tension T will be frequency 100 Hz. The apparent frequency heard
(f1 + f2 )2 by the observer will be (speed of sound 330 m/s)
(1) f1 + f2 (2)
f1f2 (1) 109 Hz (2) 112 Hz
f1f2 f1f2 (3) 91 Hz (4) 86 Hz
(3) (4)
f1 + f2 f1 – f2 35. A man standing between two large parallel cliffs
28. The displacement y (in cm) produced by a plane produces a sound. He hears the first echo after 6 s
progressive wave is given by and next echo 2 s later. If speed of sound is
10  x  330 m/s then the distance between the cliffs will be
y = sin  200 t –  (x is in cm and t is in
  17  (1) 561 m (2) 1000 m
second)
(3) 1400 m (4) 2310 m
The ratio of maximum particle velocity to the
wave velocity will be SECTION - B
10 20 36. A wire of linear density 8 × 10–3 kg/m and length
(1) (2)
17 17 2 m is stretched by a weight of 20 kg. The
10 5 fundamental frequency of vibration of the wire is
(3) (4)
34 34 (1) 6.29 Hz (2) 4 Hz
29. A violin string of length L is fixed at both ends. (3) 39.52 Hz (4) 0.98 Hz
Which one of these is not a wavelength of a 37. A stretched string of length 4 m vibrates in 6
standing wave on the string? loops. The distance between consecutive
L L antinodes is
(1) (2)
2 3 1
(1) m (2) 6 m
2L 3L 3
(3) (4)
3 2
2
30. A chord attached to rigid supports is vibrating into (3) 4 m (4) m
3
6 loops, when its tension is 36 N. The tension at
which it will vibrate in 4 loops is (frequency is 38. The speed of a wave in a certain medium is
same) 1080 m/s. If 1800 waves pass over a certain
point of the medium in 30 seconds, then
(1) 24 N (2) 36 N
wavelength of the wave is
(3) 64 N (4) 81 N
(1) 12 m (2) 16 m
31. Two uniform strings A and B formed of steel are
made to vibrate under the same tension. If the (3) 18 m (4) 22 m
first overtone of A is equal to the second overtone 39. Equation of a travelling wave on a string is given
of B and the radius of A is twice that of B. Then
  
the ratio of the length of the strings is (Both by y = 10 sin  4t – x  . If x and y are in
strings are fixed at both ends)  16 
centimetres, then velocity of wave is
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 3
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 5 (1) 32 cm s–1 in positive x-direction
32. If the length of a stretched string is shortened by (2) 64 cm s–1 in positive x-direction
40% and the tension is increased by 44% then (3) 32 cm s–1 in negative x-direction
the ratio of final and initial fundamental
(4) 64 cm s–1 in negative x-direction
frequencies is
40. A point source of sound is placed in a
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 2
non-absorbing medium. Two points A and B are
(3) 3 : 4 (4) 1 : 3
at the distance of 2 m and 3 m from the source.
33. Graph between square of frequency The ratio of intensity of sound at point A and B
(fundamental) and tension in wire is
respectively is
(1) Straight line (2) Parabola
(3) Ellipse (4) Hyperbola
(4)
Compact Medical-2023 Weekly Test-10 (Code-A)

2 4 (3) 205 Hz (4) 390 Hz

(1) (2)
3 9 46. In a resonance tube experiment the first
resonance is obtained for 10 cm of air column
3 9
(3) (4) and the second resonance is obtained for 32 cm.
2 4
The end correction for this apparatus is equal to
41. A progressive wave gets reflected at a boundary
(1) 0.5 cm (2) 1 cm
such that the ratio of amplitudes of the reflected
and incident wave is 1 : 2. Percentage of energy (3) 1.5 cm (4) 2 cm
transmitted is 47. An engine is moving on a circular path of radius
(1) 25% (2) 50% 200 m with a speed of 35 m/s. While moving the
(3) 75% (4) Zero engine blows a whistle of frequency 700 Hz.
Frequency observed by an observer standing
42. Fourty one forks are arranged such that each
stationary at the centre of circular path, will be
produces 5 beats per second when sounded with
its near fork. If frequency of first fork is half of the (1) More than 700 Hz (2) Less than 700 Hz
frequency of last fork, then the frequencies of the (3) Equal to 700 Hz (4) No sound is heard
first and last fork are respectively (in Hz)
48. A racing car moving towards a hill sounds its
(1) 200, 400 (2) 105, 210 horn. Driver of the car observes that the sound
(3) 240, 480 (4) 100, 200 reflected from the hill has a pitch one octave
43. A sonometer wire of length l vibrates in higher than the actual sound of the horn.
fundamental mode when excited by a tunning If sound is travelling with velocity V0 then the car
fork of frequency 416 Hz. If the length is doubled is moving with velocity
keeping other things same the string will
V0 V0
(1) Vibrate with a frequency of 208 Hz (1) (2)
2 8
(2) Vibrate with a frequency of 312 Hz
V0 V0
(3) Vibrate with a frequency of 416 Hz (3) (4)
3 4
(4) String will stop vibrating 49. A uniform string of length L and mass m is fixed
44. The elastic constant and density of sea water are at both ends under tension T, then it can vibrate
respectively 4.312 × 109 N/m2 and 2.2 × 103 with frequency given by
kg/m3. In a sonar experiment it was found that
3 T 1 T
the acoustic echo from the sea bed is heard after (1) f = (2) f =
2 mL 2L m
3 second. The depth of the sea is
(1) 4.2 km (2) 2.1 km 7 T 1 m
(3) f = (4) f =
(3) 1.4 km (4) 3.3 km 2 m 2 LT

45. A source of frequency f gives 5 beats/sec when 50. A stretched wire of length 114 cm is divided into
sounded with a source of frequency 200 Hz. The three segments whose frequencies are in the
second harmonic of source of frequency f gives ratio 1 : 3 : 4; the length of the segments must be
10 beats/sec when sounded with a source of in the ratio
frequency 420 Hz. The value of f is (1) 18 : 24 : 72 (2) 12 : 16 : 48
(1) 195 Hz (2) 410 Hz (3) 4 : 3 : 12 (4) 12 : 4 : 3

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A
51. (a) H2O2 + O3 → H2O + 2O2 Role of hydrogen peroxide in the above reactions
(b) PbS + H2O2 → PbSO4 + H2O is respectively

(5)
Weekly Test-10 (Code-A) Compact Medical -2023

(1) Oxidising in (a) and reducing in (b) (3) Rb (4) Li

(2) Reducing in (a) and oxidising in (b) 59. Which of the following cannot form stable
superoxide?
(3) Reducing in both (a) and (b)
(1) Na (2) K
(4) Oxidising in both (a) and (b)
(3) Rb (4) Cs
52. An alkali metal ‘X’ is considered as the strongest
60. In context with lithium, which one of the following
reducing agent. Halide of X is deliquescent and
statement is incorrect?
crystallises as a hydrate. The total number of
(1) It reacts directly with nitrogen of air
water of crystallisation associated with this halide
(2) LiCl is soluble in ethanol
is
(3) Lithium hydrogen carbonate is obtained in
(1) 1 (2) 2
solid form
(3) 3 (4) 8 (4) Its nitrate when heated gives its oxide
53. Which of the given compound is obtained by 61. Among alkaline earth metals, the minimum
Solvay’s process? density is of
(1) Sodium sulphate (1) Be (2) Mg
(2) Potassium carbonate (3) Ca (4) Ba
(3) Sodium carbonate 62. Thermally least stable carbonate among the
(4) Calcium sulphate following is
54. The product obtained by hydroformylation of (1) BeCO3 (2) MgCO3
propene is (3) CaCO3 (4) BaCO3
(1) CH2 = CH – CHO 63. The magnitude of enthalpy of formation of alkali
(2) CH3 – (CH2)2–CHO metal halides decreases in the order
(3) CH3 – CH2 – CH3 (1) Fluoride > chloride > bromide > iodide
(4) CH – CH – CH – CH (2) Iodide > bromide > chloride > fluoride
3 2 3
|
OH (3) Bromide > iodide > fluoride > chloride
55. Which of the following is arranged in order of (4) Fluoride > chloride > iodide > bromide
decreasing solubility in water?
(1) BaSO4 > SrSO4 > CaSO4 > MgSO4 > BeSO4 64.
(2) BeSO4 > CaSO4 > MgSO4 > SrSO4 > BaSO4
The chemical formula of A, B and C are
(3) BeSO4 > MgSO4 > CaSO4 > SrSO4 > BaSO4
(1) Ca(OH)2 (aq), NaOH, CaCO3
(4) CaSO4 > BaSO4 > BeSO4 > MgSO4 > SrSO4
56. Sodium nitrate upon thermal decomposition gives (2) NaOH, Ca(OH)2 (aq), CaCO3

(1) Na2O2 (2) NaNO2 (3) NaOH, CaO, CaCO3

(3) NaN3 (4) Na (4) CaO, Ca(OH)2 (aq), NaOH

57. Among the following, the most ionic compound is 65. Select the correct statement in the following.

(1) BeH2 (2) CaH2 (1) Water containing some NaOH is hard water

(3) SrH2 (4) BaH2 (2) Temporary hardness is due to soluble

sulphates, chlorides and nitrates of Ca and
58. Ionic mobility of which of the following alkali
Mg
metal ions is highest when aqueous solution of
their salts are put under an electric field? (3) Permanent hardness can remove by boiling
(1) Cs (2) Na of water

(6)
Compact Medical-2023 Weekly Test-10 (Code-A)

(4) Hardness of water is expressed as ppm 76. Which of the following on hydrolysis followed by
66. The least reactive form of hydrogen is condensation polymerisation yields straight chain
polymers?
(1) Molecular hydrogen
(1) MeSiCl3 (2) Me2SiCl2
(2) Nascent hydrogen
(3) Me3SiCl (4) Me4Si
(3) Atomic hydrogen
77. The correct structure of pyrosilicate among the
(4) All are equally reactive
following is
67. The amount of H2O2 present in one litre of H2O2
solution having volume strength 100 V is
(1) 30.3 g (2) 303.6 g
(1)
(3) 22.4 g (4) 224 g
68. Which of the following has maximum ionic
potential?
(1) Li+ (2) K+ (2)
(3) Rb+ (4) Cs+
69. The major component of Portland cement is
(1) CaO (2) SiO2
(3) Al2O3 (4) MgO
(3)
70. Which of the following group element can form
hydride?
(1) 6 (2) 7
(3) 8 (4) 9 (4)
71. Salt which does not contribute in hardness of
water is
78. The correct order of back-bonding in boron
(1) CaCl2 (2) CaCO3
trihalide is
(3) Ca(HCO3)2 (4) CaSO4
(1) Bl3 > BBr3 > BCl3
72. The correct statement among the following is
(2) BCl3 > BBr3 > BI3
(1) Sn2+ is a reducing agent
(3) BCl3 > BI3 > BBr3
(2) Pb2+ is a reducing agent
(4) BI3 < BCl3 < BBr3
(3) Pb4+ is a reducing agent
79. The number of 3c – 2e– bond(s) present in
4+
(4) Sn is a reducing agent diborane is
73. Minimum atomic radii among the following is of (1) 2 (2) 4
(1) Al (2) Ga (3) 1 (4) 3
(3) ln (4) Tl 80. Which is the correct order of ionic character?
74. Producer gas is a mixture of (1) PbF2 < PbI2 < PbBr2 < PbCl2
(1) CO + H2 (2) CO + N2 (2) PbF2 < PbCl2 < PbBr2 < PbI2
(3) CO2 + H2 (4) CO2 + N2 (3) PbF2 > PbCl2 > PbBr2 > PbI2
75. Hybridisation of Al in the complex formed by the (4) PbF2 > PbBr2 > PbCl2 > PbI2
hydrolysis of AlCl3 in acidified aqueous solution is
81. The pair of amphoteric oxide among the following
(1) sp2 (2) sp3 is
(3) dsp2 (4) sp3d2 (1) CO2 and SiO2 (2) SnO and PbO

(7)
Weekly Test-10 (Code-A) Compact Medical -2023

(3) CO and GeO (4) GeO2 and GeO (3) 87° (4) 120°
82. The incorrect statement among the following is 91. The product obtained in the given reaction is

(1) GeO2 is weakly acidic than SiO2 Al4 C3 + D2O →

(2) [SiF6]2–, [GeCl6]2–, [Sn(OH)6]2– exist where (1) C2D2 (2) CD4
the central atom is sp3d2 hybridized (3) C2D4 (4) C3D4
(3) SnO2 is amphoteric 92. Syn gas is a mixture of
(4) GeCl2 is more stable than GeCl4 (1) CO2 + H2O (2) CO + N2

83. In the borax-bead test for transition metal (3) CO2 + N2 (4) CO + H2

compounds, the unique colour of fused bead is 93. Carbon monoxide on reaction with H2 in the
presence of cobalt catalyst gives
due to the formation of
(1) HCHO (2) CH3OH
(1) Glass-like metal metaborate bead
(3) CH3COOH (4) CH4
(2) Opaque metal hexaborate bead 94. Identify the incorrect statement.
(3) Boron anhydride (1) Density of ice is less than that of water
(4) Glass-like metal orthoborate bead (2) In the gas phase, bond angle of H2O is
84. The method which is used to remove temporary 104.5°
hardness only is (3) At atmospheric pressure, ice crystallises in
(1) Ion exchange method the cubic form
(2) Clark’s method (4) In liquid phase, water molecules are
(3) Synthetic Resin method associated together by hydrogen bonds
(4) Calgon’s method 95. Which of the following salts is responsible for
85. The correct order of boiling point of the isotopes temporary hardness of water?
of hydrogen is (1) CaCl2 (2) Ca(NO3)2
(1) H > D > T (2) T > D > H (3) Ca(HCO3)2 (4) MgSO4
(3) H > T > D (4) T > H > D
96. The correct order of densities of alkali metals is
SECTION - B
(1) Cs > Rb > K > Li > Na
86. The metals of which of the following groups does
(2) Rb > Cs > Na > K > Li
not form hydride?
(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) Cs > Rb > K > Na > Li

(3) 5 (4) 10 (4) Cs > Rb > Na > K > Li

87. The magnitude of which of the following property 97. Identify the incorrect statement.
of H2O is more than that of D2O? (1) Both LiCl and MgCl2 are soluble in ethanol
(1) Density (2) Boiling point (2) Li is the strongest reducing agent among all
(3) Viscosity (4) Dielectric constant the alkali metals
88. Total number of hydrogen bonded water (3) LiCl crystallises as LiCl.H2O
molecule(s) associated in CuSO4.5H2O is (4) Lithium nitrate when heated gives lithium
(1) 1 (2) 2 oxide
(3) 3 (4) 4 98. Which of the following compounds is not found in
89. Strength of 15 V H2O2 solution in g/L is solid state?
(1) 28.5 g/L (2) 41.2 g/L (1) RbHCO3 (2) LiHCO3
(3) 32.1 g/L (4) 45.5 g/L (3) KHCO3 (4) NaHCO3
90. Dihedral angle of H2O2 in gas phase is 99. An alkali metal ion (M+), participates in the
(1) 90.2° (2) 111.5° oxidation of glucose to produce ATP. M is

(8)
Compact Medical-2023 Weekly Test-10 (Code-A)

(1) Na (2) K (1) Na, Cl2

(3) Rb (4) Cs (2) H2, Cl2
100. During the electrolysis of sodium chloride in (3) Na-amalgam, Cl2
Castner-Kellner cell, the product obtained at (4) H2, O2
cathode and anode respectively are

BOTANY
SECTION - A (1) Have dense cytoplasm
101. The tissues in a woody dicotyledonous plant that (2) Increase in size and number of vacuoles
are formed through redifferentiation are
(3) Contain large nucleus
(1) Interfascicular cambium, lenticels
(4) Have high respiration rate
(2) Secondary cortex, secondary phloem
108. Vernalisation
(3) Cork cambium, intrafascicular cambium
(1) Is seen in winter annuals only
(4) Secondary cortex, phellogen
(2) Is quantitatively or qualitatively dependent on
102. Find out the correctly matched pair w.r.t
exposure to low temperature
phytohormones and their composition.
(1) Kinetin – Adenine derivative (3) Promotes early reproductive development in
plants
(2) GA3 – Derivative of tryptophan
(4) Stimulus is perceived by leaves
(3) IAA – Derivative of carotenoids
109. In geometrical growth
(4) ABA – Derivative of methionine
(1) Every cell divides with all the daughter cells
103. Which of the following is not true for ethylene?
growing and dividing again
(1) Promotes lateral root growth and root hair
formation (2) Growth occurs at a constant rate

(2) Induces flowering in mango (3) Growth is mathematically represented as

L1 = L0 + rt
(3) Common source of ethylene is ethephon
(4) Lag phase, log phase and stationary phase
(4) Prevents abscission of flowers and fruits
are not observed
104. Choose the wrongly matched pair.
110. In cabbage and beet, just prior to the
(1) Ethylene – Gaseous plants hormone reproductive phase, internodes elongate causing
(2) Auxins – Inhibits abscission of young marked increase in stem height. This is due to
leaves which of the given plant hormone?
(3) Gibberellins – Promotes cell division (1) ABA (2) Ethylene
(4) Cytokinins – Delays leaf senescence (3) Gibberellin (4) Auxin
105. Cytokinin and auxin shows their synergistic effect 111. Which plant do not show any correlation between
on exposure to light duration and induction of
(1) Cell division flowering response?
(2) Apical dominance (1) Soyabean (2) Tobacco
(3) Internode elongation (3) Tomato (4) Wheat
(4) Promoting dormancy 112. In bean plant, during germination and seedling
106. Select the odd one w.r.t. developmental plasticity development
(1) Coriander (2) Cotton (1) Hypocotyl grows first and cotyledons comes
out of soil
(3) Larkspur (4) Buttercup
(2) Epicotyl grows first and cotyledons comes
107. Which of the following is not a feature of
out of soil
meristematic cells?

(9)
Weekly Test-10 (Code-A) Compact Medical -2023

(3) Epicotyl grows and cotyledons remain (1) ABA (2) GA3
underground (3) Cytokinin (4) IAA
(4) Hypocotyl grows first and cotyledons remain 121. Find the odd one out w.r.t synthetic auxins
underground
(1) IBA (2) 2, 4, 5-T
113. Effect of inhibitory substances causing seed
(3) NAA (4) 2, 4-D
dormancy can be removed by all, except
122. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. abscisic
(1) Subjecting seeds to chilling condition
acid?
(2) Application of gibberellic acid
(1) In most situations, it acts as an antagonistic
(3) Application of nitrates to gibberellins
(4) Application of phenolic acid (2) It promotes bud dormancy during the
114. Synthesis of hormone (A) in plants is stimulated seasons unfavourable for growth
by drought, waterlogging and other adverse (3) It helps in closing of stomata
environmental conditions. (4) It helps in sprouting of storage organs such
Here hormone (A) is as tubers
(1) Ethylene (2) Anti GA 123. Dormancy of seeds cannot be broken by
(3) Zeatin (4) NAA (1) Breaking of seed coat
115. In plants, ethylene (2) Keeping in dark for a long period
(1) Is a derivative of carotenoids (3) Application of gibberellic acid
(2) Induces dormancy of buds and seeds (4) Low temperature treatment
(3) Is the only gaseous hormone 124. Which is not a character of arithmetic growth?
(4) Induces stem elongation in rosette plants (1) Constant growth rate
116. When apical bud of a plant is removed then (2) Linear growth curve
(1) Auxin shows apical dominance
(3) Presence of stationary phase
(2) Cytokinin is removed along with auxin
(4) Commonly seen in root meristems
(3) More lateral branches will be seen
(4) Root elongation is promoted 125. Find the odd one out w.r.t. day neutral plants.

117. Cytokinins are found in (1) Tomato (2) Soyabean

(a) Young fruits (3) Pepper (4) Cucumber

126. Increased vacuolation is a feature of cells in
(b) Developing shoot buds
A of plant growth. Here A is
(c) Root apices
(1) Meristematic phase
The correct one(s) is/are
(2) Phase of dedifferentiation
(1) Only a (2) Only b and c
(3) Phase of elongation
(3) Only c (4) All a, b and c
(4) Phase of cell division
118. Formation of cork from cork cambium is 127. Statement A: During growth, rate of anabolism is
(1) Redifferentiation (2) Differentiation more than catabolism.
(3) Stratification (4) Dedifferentiation Statement B: Plant growth is determinate in
nature.
119. Who amongst the following isolated auxins from
Considering above statements, select the correct
tips of coleoptiles of oat seedlings?
option.
(1) F. Skoog (2) F.W. Went
(1) Only statement A is true
(3) Cousins (4) Charles Darwin (2) Only statement B is true
120. Identify the plant hormone which is known as (3) Both the statements A and B are true
stress hormone and is anti-transpirant (4) Both the statements A and B are false

(10)
Compact Medical-2023 Weekly Test-10 (Code-A)

128. Seedless fruit can be produced by application of (1) Secondary cortex is a redifferentiated tissue.
(1) IAA (2) GA3 (2) Tracheary elements are formed by the
(3) Kinetin (4) Ethephon process of differentiation.
129. Match the following columns and select the (3) Coriander produces different shapes of
correct option. leaves in different habitats.
(4) Development stages are influenced by intra
Column I Column II as well as intercellular factors.
a. Indole compound (i) Abscisic acid SECTION - B
b. Adenine derivative (ii) Gibberellic acid 136. Match the columns and select the correct option.

c. Derivative of (iii) Auxin Column-I Column-II

carotenoids a. ABA (i) Indole compound
d. Terpenes (iv) Cytokinin b. Gibberellin (ii) Adenine derivative
(1) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii) c. Auxin (iii) Terpenes
(2) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii) d. Cytokinin (iv) Carotenoids
(3) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i) (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(4) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
130. Find the odd one out w.r.t. inhibitory substance (3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
causing seed dormancy?
(4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(1) Nitrates (2) Immature embryo 137. Which of the following phytohormones may
(3) Phenolic acid (4) Para-ascorbic acid involve in growth inhibiting as well as growth
131. Growth in plants is promoting activities?
a. Indeterminate (1) Auxin (2) ABA
b. Limited (3) Cytokinin (4) Ethylene
c. Closed 138. Identify the phytohormone on the basis of below
given features and select the correct statement
Choose the correct one(s). for it.
(1) a & c (2) b & c a. Induces cell division
(3) b only (4) a only b. First isolated from human urine
132. Cells in the meristematic phase of growth (1) Induces abscission of young fruits and leaves
shows/have
(2) Controls xylem differentiation
(1) Large nucleus
(3) Promotes growth of lateral buds
(2) Secondary cell wall
(4) Induces shoot growth
(3) High number of vacuoles
139. Select the wrong match.
(4) Both (1) & (3)
(1) Gibberellin – Bolting
133. Elongation of roots
a. Occurs at a constant rate (2) Cytokinin – Helps in production
of new leaves
b. Can be expressed by equation W1 = W0ert
c. Shows arithmetic growth pattern (3) Ethylene – Increases male
flowers in cucumber
(1) Only a is true (2) Both a & b are true
(4) ABA – Induces seed
(3) Only b is true (4) Both a & c are true
dormancy
134. Which of the following factors is not essential for
early growth of plants? 140. Combination of which of the given plant
hormones can be used to increase yield of
(1) Micronutrients like Zn, Fe
pineapple plants?
(2) Optimum temperature
(1) Auxin, Cytokinin
(3) Oxygen
(2) Ethylene, Gibberellins
(4) Light duration (3) Auxin, Ethylene
135. Mark the incorrect statement.
(11)
Weekly Test-10 (Code-A) Compact Medical -2023

(4) Cytokinin, Ethylene Choose the option to fill up the above blanks.
141. The hormone popularised as Anti GA hormone A B
can be used as (1) Ethylene ABA
(1) Fruit ripening hormone (2) ABA Cytokinin
(2) Weedicide (3) Cytokinin Auxin
(3) Root growth promoter in callus culture (4) ABA Ethylene
(4) Antitranspirant 146. Mark the incorrect statement.
142. Read the following statements and state them as (1) Flowering is dependent on length of light
true (T) or false (F) and accordingly select the period only
correct option.
(2) Wheat flowers when it receives long
A. Gardeners uses 2,4-D to make weed free photoperiod
lawn.
(3) The site of perception of photoperiod is
B. Auxin is used to boost the production of tea leaves of plant
leaves.
(4) Tomato is a day neutral plant
C. Coconut water contains auxin as well as
147. Vernalisation
ABA.
a. Prevents early reproductive development
A B C
b. Stimulus is received by leaves
(1) T F T
c. Is seen in winter annuals only
(2) F T F
(1) Only a is true
(3) T F F
(2) Only a & b are true
(4) F F T
(3) Only b & c are true
143. The hormone used to increase sugarcane yield is
(4) All a, b & c are true
(1) Auxin (2) Ethylene
148. Vivipary is seen in
(3) Cytokinin (4) Gibberellin
(1) Rhizophora (2) Henbane
144. Read the given statements and choose the
correct option. (3) Sugar beet (4) Carrot
A. ABA plays an important role in seed 149. Which of the given chemicals can be applied to
development and maturation. remove effect of dormancy inducing substances?
B. Sprouting of rhizomes can be induced by (1) ABA (2) Phenolic acid
applying auxin. (3) Nitrates (4) Coumarin
(1) Only A is correct 150. Cotyledons come out of the soil during
(2) Only B is correct germination of
(3) Both A & B are correct (1) Gram (2) Rice
(4) Both A & B are incorrect (3) Mango (4) Bean
145. " A accelerates senescence of leaves whereas
B delays it."

ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A (1) Parathyroid gland (2) Thymus gland
151. All the given functions are performed by (3) Thyroid gland (4) Parotid gland
testosterone in males, except 153. Assertion (A): Hypersecretion of growth
(1) Regulate development of seminal vesicle hormone in adults does not cause any further
increase in height.
(2) Anabolic effects on carbohydrate metabolism
Reason (R): Bones lose their sensitivity to
(3) High pitch voice growth hormone in adults.
(4) Act on CNS and influence libido In the light of above statements, select the
152. Which gland degenerates in old individuals correct option.
resulting in weaker immune responses?

(12)
Compact Medical-2023 Weekly Test-10 (Code-A)

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the 158. Match column I with column II w.r.t. chemical
correct explanation of (A) nature of hormones.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the Column I Column II
correct explanation of (A)
a. Endorphins (i) Protein
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true b. Noradrenaline (ii) Iodinated
amine
154. Read the given statements.
c. Growth (iii) Biogenic
(A) Chordates possess very simple endocrine
hormone amines
system with few hormones whereas a large
number of chemicals act as hormones and d. Thyroxine (iv) Neuropeptides
provide coordination in the invertebrates.
Select the correct option.
(B) Neural and endocrine system jointly
coordinate and integrate all activities of the a b c d
organs involved.
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) Hypothalamus contains several groups of
neurosecretory cells called nuclei which (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
produce hormones. (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) Estrogen and progesterone stimulate gonadal
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
activity and hence are called gonadotropins.
Choose the option that correctly identifies each 159. All the given hormones stimulate glycogenolysis,
statement as true (T) or false (F). except
(1) Adrenaline (2) Glucagon
A B C D
(3) Noradrenaline (4) Calcitriol
(1) F T T F 160. Which of the following hormone is used in
transplantation surgery?
(2) T F T F
(1) Cortisol (2) Aldosterone
(3) F T T T (3) T3 (4) Thymosin
(4) F F F F 161. The hormone which produces anti-inflammatory
reactions and stimulates lipolysis and proteolysis
155. Neurohormone synthesised by hypothalamus and is secreted by
transported to neurohypophysis is (1) Pancreas (2) Adrenal gland
(1) LH (2) Oxytocin (3) GIT (4) Thyroid gland
(3) Prolactin (4) MSH 162. Read the given statements and choose the
156. Tryptophan-derived hormone responsible for correct option.
regulating diurnal rhythm in man is Statement A: Low levels of estrogen and high
levels of parathyroid hormone play a significant
(1) Thymosin role in osteoporosis.
(2) Testosterone Statement B: A health disorder which is
(3) Melanin characterised by low metabolic rate, increase in
body weight and tendency to retain water in
(4) Melatonin tissues is Graves' disease.
157. Select the correct statement from the following. (1) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(1) Aldosterone is the main glucocorticoid in our (2) Both statements A and B are correct
body. (3) Only statement A is correct
(2) The adrenal cortex secretes adrenaline and (4) Only statement B is correct
noradrenaline.
163. Two children, Sonal and Shahida show stunted
(3) Catecholamines stimulate the synthesis of
growth. The former is mentally retarded whereas
lipids and proteins. the latter is not. The deficiency of which
(4) Sex corticoids are secreted from zona hormones is responsible for the same in former
reticularis of adrenal cortex. and latter respectively?

(13)
Weekly Test-10 (Code-A) Compact Medical -2023

(1) Growth hormone, PTH CRH : ACTH : : ______ : GH

(2) TCT, Growth hormone (1) GnRH (2) GHIH
(3) MRH (4) GHRH
(3) Thyroid hormones, Growth hormone
170. Observe the given figure.
(4) Cortisol, TCT
164. The production, secretion and ejection of milk by
mammary glands require synergistic effect of all
of the following, except
(1) Progesterone (2) Prolactin
(3) Inhibin (4) Oxytocin
165. All of the given functions are performed by
parathormone, except
(1) Stimulates bone resorption
Choose the incorrect option w.r.t it.
(2) Stimulates excretion of Ca2+ by the renal
tubules (1) It represents the dorsal view of thyroid gland
(2) Thyroid gland is composed of two lobes
(3) Increases Ca2+ absorption from the digested
food (3) Lobes are interconnected with a thin flap of
connective tissue called isthmus
(4) Decreases blood phosphate levels
(4) Each thyroid follicle is composed of follicular
166. Structure ‘X’ produces a releasing hormone cells enclosing a cavity
which acts on ‘Y’ that produces a peptide
hormone that targets Z. Z releases a steroid 171. Read the given statements.
hormone which supports pregnancy. Identify X, Y A: The endocrine glands and hormone-producing
and Z. diffused tissues/cells located in different parts
of our body constitute the endocrine system.
X Y Z
B: The pars distalis region of pituitary is
(1) Hypothalamus Pituitary Testis commonly called anterior pituitary.
gland C: ADH stimulates resorption of water and
(2) Hypothalamus Anterior Ovary electrolytes by the proximal tubules and
pituitary thereby reduces loss of water through urine.
D: Glucagon is secreted by  cells of islets of
(3) Hypothalamus Posterior Ovary Langerhans of pancreas.
pituitary
How many of the given statements are correct?
(4) Pituitary gland Ovary Corpus (1) Three (2) One
luteum
(3) Four (4) Two
167. How many of the organs from the box given 172. Excess of GH during adulthood results in
below are considered endocrine glands only?
(1) Acromegaly (2) Gigantism
Adrenal, Ovary, Thyroid, Parathyroid, Testis,
Pancreas, Kidney, Heart (3) Atelectasis (4) Dwarfism
173. Hormones derived from amino acid tyrosine are
(1) Three (2) Four
(1) TSH
(3) Two (4) One
(2) Prolactin
168. Select the incorrect match.
(3) Hormones of adrenal cortex
(1) cGMP – Secondary messenger
(4) Hormones of adrenal medulla
(2) Oxytocin – Relaxes smooth muscles of
uterus 174. Atrial natriuretic factor is not involved in
(1) Reduction in blood pressure
(3) Renin – Raises blood pressure
(2) Vasodilation of blood vessels
(4) TCT – Hypocalcemic harmone
(3) Conversion of angiotensinogen to
169. Complete the analogy. angiotensin I

(14)
Compact Medical-2023 Weekly Test-10 (Code-A)

(4) Increased excretion of Na+ in urine GH, Thyroxine, MSH, TSH, PTH, ADH
175. Select the correct option w.r.t. hormones.
(1) Three (2) Five
(1) Nutrient chemicals that act as intercellular
(3) Four (4) Two
messengers
181. Choose the incorrect option for steroid
(2) Produced in large amounts
hormones.
(3) Can initiate a biochemical reaction as well as
(1) Bind to specific intracellular receptors
influence its rate
(2) Lipid soluble in nature
(4) Formed in response to a particular stimulus
and are highly specific in nature (3) Alter the pattern of gene expression initiating
the transcription of some genes, while
176. The location of the gland which provides cell-
mediated immunity is repressing the transcription of others
(1) Brain (4) Employ cAMP as secondary messenger to
bring physiological effects
(2) Mediastinum
182. Select the correct set of hormones which are all
(3) Dorsal side of aorta
secreted by the same gland.
(4) Between lungs behind vertebral column
(1) Insulin, glucagon, thymosin
177. The hormones produced by labelled part ‘A’ in (2) Estrogen, progesterone, relaxin
the given figure, perform all the given functions
except (3) LH, FSH, androgens
(4) Oxytocin, prolactin, somatostatin
183. Read the given symptoms.
(a) Enlargement of the respective gland
(b) Protrusion of the eyeballs
(c) Increased BMR
(d) Weight loss
Identify the disease to which these symptoms
belong.
(1) Simple goitre (2) Diabetes insipidus
(3) Cushing’s syndrome (4) Graves’ disease
184. Target organ of mineralocorticoids is
(1) Plays a role in growth of pubic hair, axial hair (1) Gonads (2) Liver
and facial hair during puberty (3) Kidney (4) Pancreas
(2) Maintains cardio-vascular system 185. Which of the following hormones does not
(3) Excretion of Na+ and phosphate ions stimulate the synthesis and secretion of steroid
hormones?
(4) Maintenance of blood pressure
(1) ACTH (2) ICSH
178. Choose the incorrect match from the following. (3) GnRH (4) FSH
(1) Erythropoietin – Stimulates formation of SECTION - B
RBCs
186. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. ADH.
(2) GIP – Inhibits gastric motility
(1) Synthesized by hypothalamus
(3) Gastrin – Stimulates the secretion
(2) Peptide hormone
of pepsinogen
(3) Secreted in response to increase in blood
(4) Secretin – Inhibits secretion of
pressure
bicarbonate ions
(4) Causes constriction of blood vessels
179. Hormone which does not interact with
intracellular receptors is 187. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. a leaf shaped
composite gland.
(1) Insulin (2) Iodothyronine
(1) It is situated between the limbs of ‘C’ shaped
(3) Cortisol (4) Estradiol organ
180. How many hormones from the box given below (2) It secretes peptide hormones
are trophic hormones?

(15)
Weekly Test-10 (Code-A) Compact Medical -2023

(3) Its hormones regulate calcium balance (1) Hyposecretion of adrenal medulla
(4) CCK acts on this gland (2) Hypersecretion of adrenal medulla
188. Choose the odd pair w.r.t. their antagonistic (3) Hyposecretion of adrenal cortex
effects.
(1) Parathyroid hormone – Calcitonin w.r.t blood (4) Hypersecretion of pancreas
Ca+2 195. Sella turcica is a depression in the sphenoid bone
(2) Glucagon – Growth hormone w.r.t body which lodges
growth (1) Pineal gland (2) Hypophysis
(3) Vasopressin – ANF w.r.t blood pressure
(3) Epiphysis (4) Thyroid
(4) Epinephrine – Norepinephrine w.r.t. heart
rate 196. All of the following hormones require second
messengers for their action except
189. A patient showing acute weakness and fatigue is
(1) Hormones of adrenal cortex
asked to get few tests done. The tests show an
underproduction of hormones of adrenal cortex. (2) All polypeptide and protein hormones
What should be the diagnosis for this patient? (3) Epinephrine
(1) Addison’s disease (2) Gynaecomastia (4) Hypothalamic hormones
(3) Eunuchoidism (4) Castration 197. Secretion of pepsinogen is stimulated by
190. A gland X is present over the surface of another (1) Secretin (2) CCK
organ Y. Latter organ secretes a hormone that
stimulates RBC formation. The X and Y (3) Gastrin (4) GIP
respectively are 198. Select the incorrect statement about pineal
(1) Parathyroid and thyroid gland gland
(2) Pituitary and hypothalamus (1) Regulation of a 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm of
our body
(3) Adrenal gland and kidney
(2) Helps in maintaining body temperature
(4) Pineal gland and hypothalamus
191. The hormone secreted by the gland located on (3) Influences metabolism
the dorsal side of forebrain performs all the given (4) Decreases blood Ca+2 level
functions, except 199. In given below diagram select the labelled
(1) Maintains body temperature structure through which secretion of
(2) Influences metabolism neurosecretory cells reaches adenohypophysis
(3) Increases intelligence
(4) Regulates menstrual cycle
192. ADH, responsible for reabsorption of water and
reduction in urine volume is synthesised by
(1) Posterior pituitary gland
(2) Juxta glomerular apparatus
(3) Hypothalamic nuclei
(4) Adenohypophysis (1) A (2) B
193. Which set includes hormones that are involved in (3) C (4) D
carbohydrate metabolism?
200. Which of the following gland is present in
(1) Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine, calcitonin abdominal region?
(2) Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine, cortisol (1) Pineal (2) Adrenal
(3) Insulin, glucagon, cortisol, melanin (3) Thymus (4) Thyroid
(4) Insulin, glucagon, norepinephrine, vasopressin
194. Addison’s disease is associated with
❑ ❑ ❑

(16)