KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGTHAN, AHMEDABAD REGION

STUDY MATERIAL FOR THE SESSION 2020-21

SUBJECT: - SOCIAL SCIENCE
CLASS X
MULTIPLE CHOICE AND DESCRIPTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
HISTORY
CHAPTER: - THE RISE OF NATIONALISM IN EUROPE

Q1. Choose the correct nationality of the artist Frederic Sorrieu who
visualized in his painting a society made up of Democratic and Social
Republic.
(a) German
(b) Swiss
(c) French
(d) American
Answer: (b) Swiss
Q2. „Nationalism‟, which emerged as a force in the late 19th century, means
(a) Strong devotion for one‟s own country and its history and
culture.
(b) Strong devotion for one‟s own country without appreciation for other
nations.
(c) Strong love for one‟s own country and hatred for others.
(d) Equally strong devotion for all the countries of the world.
Answer: (a) Strong devotion for one‟s own country and its history
and culture.
Q3. Match the term with the statements given below:
A „Utopian Society‟ is
(i) a society under a benevolent monarchy
(ii) a society that is unlikely to ever exist
(iii) a society under the control of a chosen few wise men
(iv) a society under Parliamentary Democracy
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (iii) only
Answer: (b) (ii) and (iii)
Q4. Pick out the correct definition to define the term „Plebiscite‟.
(a) Plebiscite is a direct vote by which only the female members of a region
are asked to accept or reject a proposal.
(b) Plebiscite is a direct vote by the female members of a matriarchal
system to accept or reject a proposal.
(c) Plebiscite is a direct vote by only a chosen few from the total population
of a parti-cular region to accept or reject a proposal.
(d) Plebiscite is a direct vote by which all the citizens of a region are
asked to accept or reject a proposal.

Answer: (d) Plebiscite is a direct vote by which all the citizens of a

region are asked to accept or reject a proposal.

Q5. Ernst Renan believed that the existence of nations is a necessity

because

(a) It ensures protection to all inhabitants.

(b) It ensures liberty to all inhabitant citizens.
(c) It ensures Parliamentary form of govern-ment to its inhabitants.
(d) It ensures jobs and good health to all its inhabitants.
Answer: (b) it ensures liberty to all inhabitant citizens.
Q6. Which of the following countries did not attend the Congress of Vienna?

(a) Britain
(b) Russia
(c) Prussia
(d) Switzerland
Answer: (d) Switzerland
Q7. The first great revolution which gave the clear idea of nationalism with
its core words: „Liberty, Equality and Fraternity‟ was:

(a) The Russian Revolution

(b) The French Revolution

(c) The American Revolution

(d) India‟s First War of Independence

Answer: (d) India‟s First War of Independence

Q8. Which of the following statements about the „French Revolution‟ are
correct?

(i) After the end of the French Revolution it was proclaimed that it was the
people who would henceforth constitute the nation and shape its destiny.
(ii) France will have a constitutional monarchy and the new republic will be
headed by a member of the royal family.
(iii) A centralized administrative system will be put in place to formulate
uniform laws for all citizens.
(iv) Imposition of internal custom duties and dues will continue to exist in
France.
(a) (ii) and (iii)

(b) (ii) and (iv)

(c) (i) and (iii)

(d) (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (c) (i) and (iii)

Q9. The French revolutionaries declared that the mission and destiny of the
French nation was

(a) To conquer the people of Europe.

(b) To liberate the people of Europe from despotism.
(c) To strengthen absolute monarchies in all the countries of Europe.
(d) To propagate the ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity in every part
of the world.
Answer: (b) To liberate the people of Europe from despotism
Q10. The Civil Code of 1804 in France is usually known as:
(a) The French Revolutionary Code
(b) Napoleonic Code
(c) European Imperial Code
(d) The French Civil Code
Answer: (b) Napoleonic Code
Q11. The Napoleonic Code was exported to which of the following regions?
(a) England
(b) Spain
(c) Regions under French control
(d) Poland
Answer: (c) Regions under French control
Q12. The liberal nationalism stands for:
(a) Freedom for the individual and equality before law.
(b) Preservation of autocracy and clerical privileges.
(c) Freedom for only male members of society and equality before law.
(d) Freedom only for senior citizens.
Answer: (a) Freedom for the individual and equality before law.
Q13. Who among the following formed the secret society called „Young
Italy‟?
(a) Otto von Bismarck
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Mettemich
(d) Johann Gottfried Herder
Answer: (b) Giuseppe Mazzini
Q14. The term „Universal Suffrage‟ means:
(a) The right to vote and get elected, granted only to men.
(b) The right to vote for all adults.
(c) The right to vote and get elected, granted exclusively to property owning
men.
(d) The right to vote and get elected, granted only to educated men and
women.
Answer: (b) The right to vote for all adults.
Q15. Which of the following is not a feature or belief of „Conservatism‟?
(a) Conservatives believe in established, traditional institutions of state and
policy.
(b) Conservatives stressed the importance of tradition and preferred gradual
development to quick change.
(c) Conservatives proposed to return to the society of pre-
revolutionary days and were against the ideas of modernization to
strengthen monarchy.
(d) Conservatives believed in the monarchy, church, and other social
hierarchies.
Answer: (c) Conservatives proposed to return to the society of pre-
revolutionary days and were against the ideas of modernization to
strengthen monarchy.
Q16. The Treaty of recognized Greece as an independent nation:
(a) Vienna 1815
(b) Constantinople 1832
(c) Warsaw 1814
(d) Leipzig 1813
Answer: (b) Constantinople 1832
Q17. Who said „When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold‟?
(a) Garibaldi
(b) Bismarck
(c) Mazzini
(d) Duke Metternich
Answer: (d) Duke Metternich
Q18. What happened to Poland at the end of 18th century. Which of the
following answers is correct?
(a) Poland achieved independence at the end of the 18th century.
(b) Poland came totally under the control of Russia and became part of
Russia.
(c) Poland became the part of East Germany.
(d) Poland was partitioned at the end of the 18th century by three
Great Powers: Russia, Prussia and Austria.
Answer: (d) Poland was partitioned at the end of the 18th century by
three Great Powers: Russia, Prussia and Austria.
Q19. Who played the leading role in the unification of Germany?
(a) German Emperor (formerly King of Prussia) — Kaiser William I.
(b) Otto Von Bismarck (Prussian Chief Minister).
(c) Johann Gottfried Herder — German philosopher
(d) Austrian Chancellor — Duke Metternich.
Answer: (b) Otto Von Bismarck (Prussian Chief Minister).
Q20. Three wars over seven years with Austria, Denmark, Germany and
France, ended in
(a) Danish victory (b) Prussian victory
(c) French victory (d) German victory
Answer: (b) Prussian victory
Q21. Who was proclaimed the emperor of Germany in 1871?
(a) Otto Von Bismarck
(b) Victor Emmanuel II
(c) Count Cavour
(d) Kaiser William I of Prussia
Answer: (d) Kaiser William I of Prussia
Q22. Who became the King of United Italy in 1861?
(a) Giuseppe Garibaldi
(b) Victor Emmanuel II
(c) Count Cavour
(d) Giuseppe Mazzini
Answer: (b) Victor Emmanuel II
Q23. What helped in the formation of a nation-state in Britain?
(a) The formation of a nation-state in Britain was the result of a sudden
upheaval.
(b) In 1688, the monarchy in Britain had seized the power from English
Parliament.
(c) The parliament through a bloodless revolution seized power from
the monarchy which gradually led to the emergence of a nation-
state.
(d) The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Scotland and
Wales.
Answer: (c) The parliament through a bloodless revolution seized
power from the monarchy which gradually led to the emergence of a
nation-state.
Q24. Who was responsible for the unification of Germany?
(a) Count Cavour
(b) Bismarck
(c) Garibaldi
(d) Giuseppe Mazzini
Answer: (b) Bismarck
Q25. The allegory of the German nation who wears a crown of oak leaves
was a:
(a) Marianne
(b) Union Jack
(c) Britannia
(d) Germania
Answer: (d) Germania
Q26. A large part of Balkan region was under the control of:
(a) Russian empire
(b) Ottoman empire
(c) German empire
(d) Habsburg rulers
Answer: (b) Ottoman empire
Very Short Answer Questions (VSA) 1 Mark
Q1. What was the major change that occurred in the political and
constitutional scenario due to the French Revolution in Europe? (2015 D)
Answer:
It led to the transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to a body of
French citizens. The revolution proclaimed that it was the people
who would henceforth constitute the nation and shape its destiny.
Q2. What was the main aim of the French revolutionaries? (2015 OD)
Answer: The main aim of the French revolutionaries was to create a
sense of collective identity amongst the French people. They
proclaimed that it was the people who would constitute the nation
and shape its decisions.
Q3. What is the meaning of concentration camps? (2015 OD)
Answer:
Concentration camps are prisons where people are detained and
tortured without due process of law.
Q4. Name the Treaty of 1832 that recognised Greece as an independent
nation. (2016 D)
Answer: Treaty of 1832: Constantinople
Q5. Name the event that mobilized nationalist feelings among the educated
elite across Europe in 1830-1848? (2016 D)
Answer:
The Greek War of Independence in 1821
Q6. What was the main aim of revolutionaries of Europe during the years
following 1815? (2016 D)
Answer:
The main aim of revolutionaries of Europe was to oppose monarchial
forms of government.
Q7. Who remarked “when France sneezes the rest of Europe catches cold”.
(2016 OD)
Answer:
Duke Metternich
Q8. Who was proclaimed German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles
in January 1871? (2016 OD)
Answer: Kaiser William I of Prussia was proclaimed German Emperor
in a ceremony held at Versailles in January 1871.
Q9. Who was proclaimed the King of United Italy in 1861? (2016 OD)
Answer: Victor Emmanuel-II
Q10. Name the Treaty of 1832 that recognized Greece as an independent
nation.
Answer: The Treaty of Constantinople (1832) recognized Greece as
an independent nation.

Q11. Name the event that mobilized nationalist feelings among the educated
elite across Europe in 1830-1848?
Answer:
The event that mobilized nationalist feelings among the educated
elite across Europe in 1830-1848 was the Greek War of
Independence.
Q12. What was the main aim of the revolutionaries of Europe during the
years following 1815?
Answer:
The main aim of the revolutionaries of Europe during the years
following 1815 was to oppose monarchical forms of government,
that had been established after the Congress of Vienna and to fight
for liberty and freedom.
Q13. Who remarked “When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches
cold”?
Answer:
Duke Metternich, the Austrian Chancellor, remarked “When France
sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold”.
Q14. Who was proclaimed the German Emperor in a ceremony held at
Versailles in January 1871?
Answer:
Kaiser William I of Prussia was proclaimed the German Emperor in a
ceremony held at Versailles in January 1871.
Q15. What was the meaning of liberalism in early 19th century in Europe?
Answer:
For the new middle classes, liberalism stood for freedom for the
individual and equality of all before the law. Politically, it
emphasized the concept of government by consent. Economically,
liberalism stood for the freedom of markets and the abolition of
state-imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and capital.
Q16. What was main aim of the Treaty of Vienna of 1815?
Answer:
The Treaty of Vienna of 1815 was signed with the main aim of
undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe during
the Napoleonic wars. It was signed to re-establish conservative
regions in Europe.
Q17. What was the strong demand of the emerging middle classes in Europe
during 19th century?
Answer:
Men and women of liberal middle classes combined their demands
for constitutionalism with national unification.
 CHAPTER: - NATIONALISM IN INDIA
Q1. Who was the writer of the book „Hind Swaraj‟?

(a) Rabindranath Tagore

(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Jawahar Lai Nehru
Answer: (c) Mahatma Gandhi
Q2. Khilafat Committee was formed in 1919 in the city of

(a) Bombay
(b) Calcutta
(c) Lucknow
(d) Amritsar
Answer: (a) Bombay
Q3. The Non-cooperation Khilafat Movement began in

(a) January 1921

(b) February 1922
(c) December 1929
(d) April 1919
Answer: (a) January 1921
Q4. Which of the following was the reason for calling off the Non-cooperation
Movement by Gandhiji?

(a) Pressure from the British Government

(b) Second Round Table Conference
(c) Gandhiji‟s arrest
(d) Chauri-Chaura incident
Answer: (d) Chauri-Chaura incident
Q5. Baba Ramchandra, a sanyasi, was the leader of which of the following
movements?

(a) Khilafat Movement

(b) Militant Guerrilla Movement of Andhra Pradesh
(c) Peasants‟ Movement of Awadh
(d) Plantation Workers‟ Movement in Assam
Answer: (c) Peasants‟ Movement of Awadh
Q6. Who set up the „Oudh Kisan Sabha‟?

(a) Alluri Sitaram Raju

(b) Jawahar Lai Nehru and Baba Ramchandra
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru and Shaukat Ali
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: (b) Jawahar Lai Nehru and Baba Ramchandra
Q7. Under the presidency of Jawahahar Lai Nehru, the Lahore Congress
Session of 1929 formalised the demand of

(a) Abolition of Salt Tax

(b) „Purna Swaraj‟ or complete independence
(c) Boycott of Simon Commission
(d) Separate electorate for the „dalits‟
Answer: (b) „Purna Swaraj‟ or complete independence
Q8. The „Simon Commission‟ was boycotted because

(a) There was no British Member in the Commission.

(b) It demanded separate electorates for Hindus and Muslims.
(c) There was no Indian Member in the Commission.
(d) It favored the Muslims over the Hindus.
Answer: (c) There was no Indian Member in the Commission.
Q9. A form of demonstration used in the Non-cooperation Movement in
which people block the entrance to a shop, factory or office is

(a) Boycott
(b) Begar
(c) Picketing
(d) Bandh
Answer: (c) Picketing
Q10. Who formed the „Swaraj Party‟ within the Congress?

(a) Jawahar Lai Nehru and Motilal Nehru

(b) Abdul Ghaffar Khan and Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jawahar Lai Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose
(d) C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru
Answer: (d) C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru
Q11. Who founded the „Depressed Classes Association‟ in 1930?

(a) Alluri Sitaram Raju

(b) C.R. Das
(c) M.R. Jayakar
(d) Dr B.R. Ambedkar
Answer: (d) Dr B.R. Ambedkar
Q12. Which party did not boycott the Council elections held in the year
1921?

(a) Swaraj Party

(b) Justice Party
(c) Muslim League
(d) Congress Party
Answer: (b) Justice Party
Q13. What do you mean by the term „Begar‟?
(a) An Act to prevent plantation workers to leave the tea gardens without
permission.
(b) The forced recruitment of soldiers in rural areas during World War I.
(c) Labour that villagers were forced to contribute without any
payment.
(d) Refusal to deal and associate with people, or participate in activities as a
form of protest.
Answer: (c) Labour that villagers were forced to contribute without
any payment.
Q14. Where did Mahatma Gandhi start his famous „Salt March‟ on 12th
March 1930?

(a) Dandi (b) Chauri-Chaura

(c) Sabarmati (d) Surat
Answer: (c) Sabarmati
Q15. Which industrialist attacked colonial control over Indian economy and
supported the Civil Disobedience Movement?

(a) Dinshaw Petit

(b) Purshottamdas Thakurdas
(c) Dwarkanath Tagore
(d) Seth Hukumchand
Answer: (b) Purshottamdas Thakurdas
Q16. Who visualized and depicted the image of „Bharat Mata‟ through a
painting?

(a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Natesa Sastri
(d) Abanindranath Tagore
Answer: (d) Abanindranath Tagore
Q17. Which of the following was Mahatma Gandhi‟s novel method of fighting
against the British?

(a) He used violent method of stone pelting.

(b) He used arson to bum down government offices.

(c) He fought with the principle of „an eye for i an eye‟.

(d) He practiced open defiance of law, ; peaceful demonstration,

satyagraha and non-violence.

Answer: (d) He practiced open defiance of law, ; peaceful

demonstration, satyagraha and non-violence.
Q18. What does satyagraha mean? Choose one from j the following options.

(a) „Satyagraha‟ means use of physical force to inflict pain while fighting.
(b) „Satyagraha‟ does not inflict pain, it is a : non-violent method of
fighting against oppression.
(c) „Satyagraha‟ means passive resistance and is a weapon of the weak.
(d) „Satyagraha‟ was a racist method of mass agitation.
Answer: (b) „Satyagraha‟ does not inflict pain, it is a : non-violent
method of fighting against oppression.
Q19. What was the purpose of imposing the j Rowlatt Act?

(a) The Rowlett Act forbade the Indians to : qualify for administrative
services.
(b) The Rowlett Act had denied Indians the right to political participation.
(c) The Rowlett Act imposed additional taxes on Indians who were already
groaning under the burden of taxes.
(d) The Rowlett Act authorized the government to imprison any
person i without trial and conviction in a court of j law
Answer: (d) The Rowlett Act authorized the government to imprison
any person i without trial and conviction in a court of j law
Q20. Where did the brutal „Jallianwala Massacre‟ j take place?

(a) Amritsar (b) Meerut

(c) Lahore (d) Lucknow
Answer: (a) Amritsar
Q21. Why did General Dyer order to open fire on a i peaceful demonstration
at Jallianwala Bagh? Choose from the given options.

(a) He wanted to show his power.

(b) Firing was ordered because it was an unruly crowd.
(c) Because his object, as he declared later, was to „produce a moral
effect‟ to create fear in the minds of „satyagrahis‟.
(d) He ordered to fire because he noticed a j sudden unrest in the crowd.
Answer: (c) Because his object, as he declared later, was to „produce
a moral effect‟ to create fear in the minds of „satyagrahis‟.
Q22. From the options given below, which was the appropriate reason for
the formation of the party?
(a) Wanted Congress members to ask Dominion State for India
(b) Wanted Congress members to ask for Poorna Swaraj for Indians
(c) Wanted Congress members to oppose Simon Commission
(d) Wanted for a member of Congress to return to Council Politics
Ans- (d) Wanted for a member of Congress to return to Council
Politics
Q23. Civil Disobedience Movement started with which main demand.

(a) Abolition of Dowry

(b) Abolition of Untouchability
(c) Abolition of Salt Law
(d) None of the above options
Ans- (c) Abolition of Salt Law
Q14. Why Satyagraha was organized in Champaran in 1916?

(a) To oppose high land revenue

(b) To protest against the oppression of mill workers
(c) To oppose the plantation system
(d) To oppose the British Laws
Ans- (c) To oppose the plantation system
Q25. Which of the below-given statement is incorrect about Alluri Sitaram
Raju?

(a) Raju believed in the principle of non-violence advocated by

Gandhiji

(b) He used to persuade people to give up drinking

(c) He used to claim that he has special powers
(d) Alluri Sitaram Raju was inspired by the Non-Cooperation movement
Ans- (a) Raju believed in the principle of non-violence advocated by
Gandhiji
Q26. Why Gandhiji called off the Non-Cooperation Movement?

(a) Increasing pressure of the British government

(b) Round Table conferences
(c) Gandhiji‟s arrest
(d) The Chauri Chaura Incident
Ans- (d) The Chauri Chaura Incident
Q27. Who was responsible for organizing Dalits into the Depressed Class
Association in 1930?

(a) B.R. Ambedkar

(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Sardar Patel
(d) Sitaram Raju
Ans- (a) B.R. Ambedkar
Q28- Identify the two leaders who led the Khilafat Movement.

(a) Gandhiji and Sardar Patel

(b) Abul Kalam Azad and Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Muhammad Ali Jinnah and Abul Kalam Azad
(d) Shaukat Ali and Muhammad Ali
Ans- (d) Shaukat Ali and Muhammad Ali
Q29- Why Dalits were ignored by Congress for a long time?

(a) Because of Socialism

(b) Fear from Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(c) Because of Industrialists

(d) Fear of offending the Sanatanis

Ans- (d) Fear of offending the Sanatanis

Q30- Who wrote Vande Mataram?

(a) Rabindranath Tagore

(b) Natesa Shastri
(c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(d) Abanindranath Tagore
Ans- (c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
Q31. The Non-cooperation Movement began on which one of the following
dates?
(a) January 1921 (b) November 1921
(c) December 1921 (d) May 1921
Answer: (a) January 1921
Q32. In which of the following places Mahatma Gandhi organized satyagraha
for the first time in India?

(a) Dandi (b) Ahmedabad

(c) Kheda (d) Champaran
Answer: (d) Champaran
Q33. Who among the following was associated with the formation of Swaraj
Party within the Congress?

(a) Subhas Chandra Bose (b) Motilal Nehru

(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Dadabhai Naoroji
Answer: (b) Motilal Nehru
Q34. In which of the following Indian National Congress sessions was the
demand of„Purna Swaraj‟ formalised in December 1929?

(a) Madras Session (b) Lahore Session

(c) Calcutta Session (d) Nagpur Session
Answer: (b) Lahore Session

Q35. Who organized the dalits into the Depressed classes Association?

(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (b) Jawaharlal Nehru

(c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Motilal Nehru
Answer: (a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Q36. Why had the Congress ignored the dalits for long?

(a) Due to their liberal outlook

(b) Due to fear from the Britishers
(c) For fear of offending the sanatanis
(d) For fear of Dr B.R. Ambedkar
Answer: (c) For fear of offending the sanatanis
Q37. Which of the following combination of colours was there in the „Swaraj
flag‟ designed by Gandhiji in 1921?

(a) Red, green and white (b) Red, green and yellow
(c) Orange, white and green (d) Yellow, white and green
Answer: (a) Red, green and white
Q38. Who announced a vague offer of„ Dominion Status‟ for India in 1929?

(a) Lord Curzon (b) Viceroy Irwin

(c) Lord William Bentinck (d) Lord Mountbatten
Answer: (b) Viceroy Irwin
Q39.Which of the following agreements gave reserved seats to the
„Depressed classes‟ in provincial and central legislative councils?

(a) Lucknow Pact (b) Gandhi Irwin Pack

(c) Poona Pact (d) None of these
Answer: (c)
Q40. In which year the Second Round Table Conference was held?
(a) 1931 (b) 1935 (c) 1938 (d) 1945
Answer: (a) 1931
Explanation: In December 1931, Gandhiji attended the second round table
conference by demanding separate electorates for dalit.
Q41. What was the demand of 1929 sessions of the Congress at Lahore ?
(a) Poorna Swaraj (b) Right to speech
(c) Half authority (d) None of these
Answer: (a) Poorna Swaraj
Q42. Why were the slogans demanding “Swatantra Bharat” important?

(a) It showed the greatness of Mahatma Gandhi

(b) They were going beyond their own locality and emotionally
identifying with an all-India movement
(c) They were a unifying force of the Non-Cooperation Movement
(d) The various ways in which „Swaraj‟ was interpreted by different people
Answer: (b) They were going beyond their own locality and
emotionally identifying with an all-India movement.
Q43. When did the Jallianwalla Bagh incident take place?
(a) On 13 April (b) On 15 August (c) On 27 October (d) On 10 March
Answer: (a) On 13 April
Q44. What were boycotted during Non-cooperation movement?
(a) Foreign goods (b) Food (c) Water (d) None of these
Answer: (a) Foreign goods
Q44. Who published „The Folklore of Southern India‟?
(a) Natesa Sastri (b) Dr.Ambedkar
(c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) None of these
Answer: (a) Natesa Sastri
Q45. What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhiji‟s fast unto death in 1932?
(a) The clash with Dr. Ambedkar (b) The Clash with Bose
(c) The clash with Nehru (d) None of these
Answer: (a) The clash with Dr. Ambedkar
Q46. Who was the two great writers of Bengal and Madras, who contributed
to nationalism in the late nineteenth century?

(a) Rabindranath Tagore and Natesa Sastri

(b) Jamini Roy and Ravi Verma
(c) Rabindranath Tagore and Ravi Verma
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) Rabindranath Tagore and Natesa Sastri
Q47. Who was the President of the Muslim League in 1930?
(a) Mr. M.A. Jinnah (b) Maulana Azad
(c) Abdul Ghaffar Khan (d) Sir Muhammad Iqbal
Answer: (d) Sir Muhammad Iqbal
Q48.The Non-Cooperation Movement was started by Mahatma Gandhi in
support of which movement?

(a) Khilafat (b) Swaraj (c) Khilafat and Swaraj (d) None of these
Answer: (c) Khilafat and Swaraj
Q49. Who was the author of the famous novel „Anandamath‟?
(a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (b) Abanindranath Tagore
(c) Natesa Sastri (d) Rabindranath Tagore
Answer: (a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
Explanation:
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay was the author of the famous novel
„Anandamath‟. In the 1870s he wrote „Vande Mataram‟ as a hymn to the
motherland. His novel Anandamath and widely sung during the Swadeshi
movement in Bengal.
Q50. What was the reason behind clash between Gandhi Ji and Dr
Ambedkar?

(a) Separate electorates would create division in the society.

(b) Separate electorates would slow down the progress of integration into
society.
(c) With separate electorates, Dalit‟s would gain respect in society.
(d) The condition of Dalit‟s would become better.
Answer: (a) Separate electorates would create division in the society.
Explanation:
Gandhiji began fast unto death when Dr. B.R. Ambedkar demanded separate
electorate for dalits because Separate electorates would create division in
the society.

Q51. When did Gandhiji travelled to Champaran in Bihar?

(a) 1916 (b) 1920 (c) 1925 (d)1918
Answer: (a) 1916
Explanation:
In 1916 he travelled to Champaran in Bihar to inspire the peasants to
struggle against the oppressive plantation system.
Q52. Which one of the following leaders headed Oudh Kisan Sabha?

(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru (b) Mahatma Gandhi

(c) Subhash Chandra Bose (d) Motilal Nehru
Answer: (a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
Picture-based Questions:

Q53. Identify the following personality (NCERT TB page 70) and write a
short paragraph on him highlighting his contribution to the Indian national
movement.

Answer:

This is the portrait of Bal Gangadhar Tilak, a great leader of Indian national
movement. He played a very significant role in national movement. Indian
National Congress was divided into two wings- Moderate and Extremist. He
was the first extremist leader who declared “Swaraj is my birth right and I
must have it”. He organized the nationalist movement in Maharashtra and
brought it in conflict with the British government.

He united the moderates and extremists of Congress Party. He appealed

Indian people to boycott British goods, British courts, schools and colleges.
He was sent to jail numerous times by the Britishers. He infused the spirit of
self-sacrifice among the Indian masses. Movement. Thus his contribution
paved a new path to the Indian national movement.
Q54. Look at the picture taken from NCERT Textbook Page 71 and answer
the questions that follow.

(i) What is this image of?

(ii) Who painted this image and when?
(iii) How does the painter portray Bharat Mata?
Answer:

(i) This is the image of Bharat Mata.

(ii) Abanindranath Tagore painted this image in 1905.
(iii) The painter portrays Bharat Mata as an ascetic figure. She is calm,
composed, divine and spiritual.
Q55. Look at the picture taken from NCERT Textbook Page 72 and answer
the questions that follow.

(i) What is depicted in the above picture?

(ii) What was its significance during the freedom struggle?
Answer:
(i) In this picture, Bharat Mata is shown with a trishul standing beside a lion
and an elephant. These are the symbols of power and authority.
(ii) The image of Bharat Mata was an icon to create nationalist feeling in
Indians during the freedom struggle. It shows that Indians should fight
against the Britishers vehemently.
Q56. Which of the following agreements gave seats to the depressed classes
in Provincial and Central Legislative council? [AI 2012]
(a) Lucknow Pact (b) Gandhi-irwin Pact (c) Poona Pact (d) None of these
Ans:- (c) Poona Pact
Q57. Which one of the following Viceroys announced a vague offer of
dominion status for India in October 1929? [AI 2012]
(a) Lord Mount batter (b) Lord Dalhousie (c) Lord Irwin (d) None of these
Ans:- (c) Lord Irwin
Q58. In which of the following region was Dalit participa¬tion limited in the
civil disobedience movement? [AI 2012]

(a) Maharashtra and Nagpur (b) Awadh and Maharashtra

(c) Bengal and Punjab (d) Kerala and Karnataka
Ans:- (a) Maharashtra and Nagpur
Q59. Which of the following Acts did not permit plantation workers to leave
the tea gardens without permission? [AI 2012]

(a) Indian Independence Act

(b) Inland Emigration Act of 1859
(c) Impaired Legislature Council Act
(d) Inland Immigration Act
Ans:- (b) Inland Emigration Act of 1859
Q60. In which one of the following Indian National Congress Session, the
idea of Non-Cooperation movement was accepted?
(a) Lahore Session (b) Nagpur Session
(c) Calcutta (Kolkata) Session (d) Madras (Chennai) Session
Ans:- (c) Calcutta (Kolkata) Session
Q61. Why did Gandhiji withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement? [Delhi
2011]
(a) Gandhiji realised that people were losing interest in the movement.
(b) Gandhiji felt the movement was turning violent in many places.
(c) Some Congress leaders wanted to participate in elections to Provincial
Councils.
(d) Some Congress leaders wanted more radical mass agitations.
Ans:- (b) Gandhiji felt the movement was turning violent in many
places.
Q62. Which one of the following statements is false about Alluri Sitaram
Raju? [Delhi 2011]

(a) He claimed he had special powers.

(b) He was inspired by the non-cooperation movement.
(c) He believed in the principle of non-violence advocated by
Gandhiji.
(d) He persuaded people to give up drinking.
Ans:- (c) He believed in the principle of non-violence advocated by
Gandhiji.
Q63. Which one of the following statements is not related to the Gandhi-
Irwin Pact? [AI 2011]

(a) Gandhiji agreed not to launch any further mass agitations

against the British.
(b) Gandhiji agreed to participate in the Round Table Conference.
(c) Gandhiji decided to call off the Civil Disobedience Movement.
(d) The British agreed to release the political prisoners.
Ans:- (a) Gandhiji agreed not to launch any further mass agitations
against the British.
Q64. Why did Nationalists in India tour villages to gather folk songs and
legends? Choose the most appropriate reason from the following :

(a) Nationalists wanted to study their own culture.

(b) Nationalists wanted to publish it and earn money.
(c) Nationalists did it because it gave a true picture of traditional
culture.
(d) Nationalists wanted to keep folk culture intact.
Ans: (c) Nationalists did it because it gave a true picture of
traditional culture.
Q65. Which of the following statements is not true about the Simon
Commission? [Foreign 2011]

(a) It was appointed by Sir John Simon.

(b) It did not have any Indian member.
(c) It was opposed by all parties in India.
(d) It was set up to look into the Constitutional system in India.
Ans: - (a) It was appointed by Sir John Simon.
Q66. The Simon Commission was boycotted because
(a) There was no Indian in the commission
(b) It supported the Muslim League
(c) Congress felt that the people deserved Swaraj
(d) There were differences among the members.
Ans:- (a) There was no Indian in the commission
Q67. When did Jallianwalla Bagh incident take place?

(a) 13th April 1919 (b) 14th April 1920

(c) 13th March 1919 (d) 15th March 1920
Ans: (a) 13th April 1919
Q68. Justice Party of Madras was a party of
(a) Non-Muslims (b) Non-Brahmins
(c) Non-Tamils (d) Judges
Ans:- (b) Non-Brahmins
Q69. Who led a peasant movement during the Non-Cooperation Movement?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Gandhiji

(c) Baba Ramchandra (d) Sardar Patel
Ans:- (c) Baba Ramchandra
Q70. Baba Ramchandra led a Peasant Movement in Avadh against the

(a) British government (b) The ruler of Avadh

(c) The Talukdars (d) The moneylenders
Ans: (c) The Talukdars
Q71. With which main demand did the Civil Disobedience Movement start?

(a) Abolition of Untouchability (b) Abolition of Dowry

(c) Abolition of Salt Law (d) None of the above
Ans:- (c) Abolition of Salt Law

Q72. At which of the following places did Gandhiji make salt out of sea water
to defy the salt law?

(a) Sabarmati (b) Wardha (c) Dandi (d) Ahmedabad

Ans:- (c) Dandi
Q73. Who among the following led the Civil Disobedience Movement in
Peshawar ?

(a) Lala Lajpat Rai (b) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

(c) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan (d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans: (c) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
Q74. By what name were the dalits referred by Gandhiji ?
(a) Untouchables (b) Shudras (c) Harijans (d) Achhuts
Ans:- (c) Harijans
Q75. When was the Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industries set up ?
(a) 1926 (b) 1927 (c) 1928 (d) 1929
Ans: (b) 1927

Q76. Why was Alluri Sitaram Raju well known ?

(a) He led the militant movement of tribal peasants in Andhra
Pradesh
(b) He led a peasant movement in Avadh
(c) He led a satyagraha movement in Bardoli
(d) He set up an organisation for the uplifment of the dalits.
Ans:- (a) He led the militant movement of tribal peasants in Andhra
Pradesh
Q77. Which of the following was the most important feature of Satyagraha
Movement advocated by Gandhiji ?
(a) Abolition of untouchability (b) Social equality
(c) Truth and non-violence (d) Basic education
Ans: (c) Truth and non-violence
Q78. Why did Gandhiji organise Satyagraha in 1917 in Kheda district of
Gujarat ?
(a) To support the plantation workers.
(b) To protest against high revenue demand.
(c) To support the mill workers to fulfil their demand.
(d) To demand loans for the farmers.
Ans: (b) To protest against high revenue demand.
Q79. Gandhiji organised Satyagraha against Rowlatt Act in 1919 because

(a) The Act was unjust, which denied the civil rights to Indians.
(b) The Act was passed by the British.
(c) The Act discriminated against the Muslims.
(d) The Act denied educational rights to Indians.
Ans: (a) The Act was unjust, which denied the civil rights to Indians.
Q80. Why was Satyagraha organized in Champaran in 1916 ?

(a) To oppose the British laws.

(b) To oppose the plantation system.
(c) To oppose high land revenue.
(d) To protest against the oppression of the mill workers.
Ans: (b) To oppose the plantation system.
Q81. Why did the Indians oppose the Rowlett Act ?
(a) It introduced the Salt Law.
(b) It increased taxes on land.
(c) It gave the British the power to arrest and detain a person
without a trial.
(d) It put a ban on the Congress party.
Ans: (c) It gave the British the power to arrest and detain a person
without a trial.
Q82. Why did Gandhiji organise a Satyagraha in Ahmedabad Mill in 1918 ?
(a) To protest against the poor working conditions in the factory.
(b) To demand for higher wages for workers.
(c) To protest against high revenue demand.
(d) None of the above.
Ans: (a) To protest against the poor working conditions in the
factory.
Q83. What is meant by begar ?
(a) Unemployment
(b) Forced labour without payment
(c) Beggary
(d) Working for nominal payment
Ans: (b) Forced labour without payment
Q84. What does the term Khalifa refer ?

(a) Sultan of a Muslim country

(b) Spiritual leader of the Muslims
(c) Nawab of a Muslim state
(d) Badshah of Mughal period
Ans: (b) Spiritual leader of the Muslims
Q85. Mark the correct response

Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859 the peasants were not
permitted to

(a) Leave their village

(b) Settle in the city
(c) Leave their plantation without permission
(d) Allow the women to leave farmlands without permission
Ans: (c) Leave their plantation without permission
Q86. Why was the Simon Commission sent to India ?

(a) To look into the Indian constitutional matter and suggest reform
(b) To choose members of Indian Council
(c) To settle disputes between the government and the Congress leaders
(d) To set up a government organisation
Ans: (a) To look into the Indian constitutional matter and suggest
reform
Q87. Why was the Round Table Conference held in England?

(a) To discuss the provisions of future Indian Constitution.

(b) To discuss the steps to be taken to check Indian National Movement.
(c) To give concessions to Indians
(d) To make plans for improvement of agriculture in India.
Ans: (a) To discuss the provisions of future Indian Constitution.
Q88. By whom was the first image of Bharatmata painted?

(a) Rabindranath Tagore

(b) Abanindranath Tagore
(c) Ravi Verma .
(d) Nandalal Bose
Ans: (b) Abanindranath Tagore
Q89. During which of the following movements did the women participate in
large numbers for the first time ?

(a) Swadeshi and Boycott Movement

(b) Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) Quit India Movement
Ans: (c) Civil Disobedience Movement
Q90. Hills in Andhra Pradesh

(a) Satyagraha Movement

(b) Militant Guerrilla Movement

(c) Non-Violent Movement

(d) None of the above.

Ans: (b) Militant Guerrilla Movement

Q91. Which of the following is the most important factor for the growth of
nationalism in India?

(a) British administrative reforms.

(b) Introduction of railways.

(c) Social reforms.

(d) Colonial exploitation under the British rule.

50. Why did General Dyer open fire on peaceful crowd in Jallianwalla Bagh?

Mark the most important factor

(a) To punish the Indians.

(b) To take revenge for breaking martial laws.

(c) To create a feeling of terror and awe in the mind of Indians.

(d) To disperse the crowd.

 Very Short Answer Questions (VSA) 1 Mark

Q1. What was the Rowlatt Act?

Answer: Rowlatt Act gave the government enormous powers to suppress

political activities and allowed detention of political prisoners without trial for
two years. In other words, the Act proposed no appeal, no vakil and no
daleel.

Q2.Why was the Rowlett Act imposed?

Answer: The imposing of the Rowlatt Act authorized the government to

imprison any person without trial and conviction in a court of law.

Q3. In which session of the Indian National Congress was the

demand for „Puma Swaraj‟ formalized? (2012 D)
Answer: Lahore Session, December 1929.
Q4. Who composed „Vande Mataram‟? (2012 D)
Answer: Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
Q5. Who created the first image of Bharat Mata? (2012 D)
Answer: Abanindranath Tagore
Q6. Why was the Khilafat movement started? (2012 OD)

Answer: Khilafat movement was started by Mahatma Gandhi and the Ali
Brothers, Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali in response to the harsh treatment
given to the Caliph of Ottoman empire and the dismemberment of the
Ottoman empire by the British.

Q7. What combination of colours was there in the „Swaraj flag‟

designed by Gandhiji in 1921? (2012 OD)

Answer: Red, Green and White.

Q8. What was the main reason to withdraw the Non-cooperation

Movement?

Answer: Mahatma Gandhi called off the Non-cooperation Movement as the

movement had turned violent in many places. The Chauri Chaura incident in
1922 turned into a violent dash and 22 policemen were killed. Gandhiji felt
satyagrahis were not ready for mass struggles.
Q9.VWhich Act did not permit plantation workers to leave the tea
garden without permission?

Answer: Inland Emigration Act of 1859.

Q10. Name two main „Satyagraha‟ movements organized by

Mahatma Gandhi successfully in favour of peasants in 1916 and
1917. (2013 D)

Answer:

i) Indigo Planters Movement in Champaran, Bihar in 1916.

ii) Peasants Satyagraha Movement was organized in Kheda district in
Gujarat in 1917 to support peasants in the demand for relaxation of
revenue collection.

Q11. Who is the author of the famous book „Hind Swaraj‟? (2014 D)

Answer: Mahatma Gandhi.

Q12. In which novel was the hymn „Vande Mataram‟ included and
who was the novel written by? (2014 OD)

Answer:

i) Novel—Aandamath
ii) Author — Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.

Q13. In which year and place did Mahatma Gandhi organise

Satyagraha for the first time in India? (2014 D)

Answer: In 1916, in Champaran, Bihar.

 The Age of Industrialization
Q1. The person who got people from village, ensured them jobs, helped
them settle in cities and provided them money in times of need was known
as:
(a) Stapler (b) Fuller (c) Gomastha (d) Jobber
Answer: (d) Jobber
Q2. Why did Manchester export to India decline after the First World War?
(a) People were busy fighting the war.
(b) Factories closed down due to security problem.
(c) Factories and mills were busy producing goods to fulfill the need
of army.
(d) Export trade was restricted by the government.
Answer(c) Factories and mills were busy producing goods to fulfill
the need of army.
Q3. Why were workers in England hostile to machines and new technology?
(a) They did not know how to use these.
(b) They feared that they would lose their jobs and livelihood.
(c) The workers were too poor to buy new machines.
(d) They were scared of machines.
Answer: (b) They feared that they would lose their jobs and
livelihood.
Q4. Why were there frequent clashes between the Gomastha and the
weavers?
(a) The weavers hated foreigners.
(b) The Gomastha forced the weavers to sell goods at a dictated price.
(c) Gomasthas were outsiders without long term social link with the
village.
(d) None of the above.
Answer: (c) Gomasthas were outsiders without long term social link
with the village.
Q5. From which of the following trade did the early entrepreneurs make a
fortune?
(a) Textile trade (b) China trade
(c) Trade in tea (d) Industries
Answer: (b) China trade
Q6. Which of the following was a European managing agency?
(a) Tata Iron and Steel Company
(b) Andrew Yule
(c) Elgin Mill
(d) Birla industries
Answer: (b) Andrew Yule
Q7. Why did the weavers suffer from a problem of raw cotton?
(a) The cotton crop perished
(b) Raw cotton exports increased
(c) Local markets shrank
(d) Export market collapsed
Answer: (b) Raw cotton exports increased
Q8. In Victorian Britain the upper classes- aristocratic class and bourgeoisie
preferred handmade goods because:
(a) They were made from imported material.
(b) The handmade goods came to symbolize refinement and class.
(c) They were better finished.
(d) Only upper class could afford the expensive items.
Answer: (b) The handmade goods came to symbolize refinement and
class
Q9. By late 19th century why did the British manufacturers print calendars
for advertisements?
(a) Indian people were fond of using calendars in their houses.
(b) Unlike newspapers and magazines, calendars were used even by
people who did not know how to read or write.
(c) It was cheaper to advertise goods through calendars.
(d) It used to add beauty to the room.
Answer: (b) Unlike newspapers and magazines, calendars were used
even by people who did not know how to read or write.
Q10. Which of the following innovations helped the weavers in increasing
productivity and compete with mill sector?
(a) Spining jenny (b) Fly shuttle
(c) Cotton Gin (d) Roller
Answer: (b) Fly shuttle
Q11. In the 17th century, merchants from towns in Europe moved to the
countryside to:
(a) Supply money to peasants and artisans to persuade them to
produce for international markets.
(b) Persuade them to settle in towns.
(c) Provide them with small workshops.
(d) Stop them from working for other companies.
Answer: (a) Supply money to peasants and artisans to persuade them
to produce for international markets.
Q12. Name the first industrial country in the world:
(a) France
(b) Japan
(c) Britain
(d) Germany
Answer: (b) Japan
Q13. Why couldn‟t the merchants expand production within towns?
(a) The powerful guilds did not allow them to do so.
(b) New merchants were not competent enough to carry on production work
and trade.
(c) New merchants had inadequate capital.
(d) Competent weavers and artisans were not available in towns.
Answer: (a) The powerful guilds did not allow them to do so.
Q14. Where was the first cotton mill established? ;
(a) Bombay
(b) Ahmedabad
(c) Kanpur
(d) Madras
Answer: (a) Bombay
Q15. Who devised the Spinning Jenny?
(a) James Hargreaves
(b) James Watt
(c) Richard Arkwright
(d) Samuel Luke
Answer: (a) James Hargreaves
Q16. How did urban merchants acquire trade monopoly?
(a) The old merchants had won over the weavers and artisans.
(b) The powerful members of the guilds had bribed the rulers.
(c) The rulers granted different guilds the „monopoly right‟ and trade
of specific products.
(d) The guilds were so powerful that they did not allow new merchants to
enter into the field of trade.
Answer: (c) The rulers granted different guilds the „monopoly right‟
and trade of specific product
Q17. Indian industrial growth increased after First World War because:
(a) British opened new factories in India.
(b) New technological changes occurred.
(c) Indian mills now had a vast home market to supply to.
(d) India became independent.
Answer: (c) Indian mills now had a vast home market to supply to.
Q18. Which of the following helped the production of handloom cloth?
(a) Imposition of export duties (b) Technological changes
(c) Government regulations (d) Import duties
Answer: (c) Government regulations
Q19. Why was it difficult to get a job in a factory in 19th century Britain?
(a) Employers were looking for only skilled workers and they rejected
inexperienced applicants.
(b) The number of jobs was less than the number of job seekers.
(c) Employers did not prefer migrants.
(d) Employers wanted educated workers.
Answer: (b) The number of jobs was less than the number of job
seekers.
Q20. What made workers become hostile to the „Spinning Jenny‟?
(a) Common people had not yet accepted machine-made products.
(b) To some people machines appeared as „monsters‟.
(c) It had reduced the demand for labour.
(d) Hand-made goods were still popular.
Answer: (c) It had reduced the demand for labour.
Q21. Which of the following is not a reason why industrialists in 19th century
Europe preferred hand labour over machines?
(a) There was abundance of labour, so wages were low.
(b) Hand labour produced uniform and standardized goods for a
mass market.
(c) Machines required huge capital investment.
(d) Industries, where demand was seasonal, industrialists preferred hand
labour.
Answer: (b) Hand labour produced uniform and standardized goods
for a mass market
Q22. After 1940s, building activity opened up greater opportunities of
employment. What kind of work was introduced?
(a) Construction of big business houses.
(b) Construction of mills and factories.
(c) Construction of railway lines, railway stations and digging up of
tunnels.
(d) Construction of cinema halls for entertainment.
Answer: (c) Construction of railway lines, railway stations and
digging up of tunnels
Q23. Coarser cotton was produced in many countries but finer varieties
came from:
(a) Persia (b) India (c) China (d) Surinam
Answer: (b) India
Q24. With the growth of colonial power, trade through the new ports of
Bombay and Calcutta came to be controlled by:
(a) Indian merchants (b) European companies
(c) The East India Company (d) British Parliament.
Answer: (b) European companies b
Q25. Identify the incorrect option. Early entrepreneur of India:
(a) Dwarkanath Tagore of Bengal
(b) Seth Hukumchand of Calcutta
(c) Bhai Bhosle of Bombay
(d) Dinshaw Petit and Jamsetjee . Nusserwanjee—Parsis of Bombay.
Answer: (c) Bhai Bhosle of Bombay
Q26. How did the mill owners organize the recruitment of workers? Choose
the correct answer from the list given below:
(a) They were recruited through tests/ examinations.
(b) Selection boards used to be set up.
(c) Owners employed through jobbers (very often the jobber was an
old trustworthy worker).
(d) Family members of the owners were recruited.
Answer: (c) Owners employed through jobbers (very often the jobber
was an old trustworthy worker).
Q27. Why did the weavers suffer from a problem of raw cotton?
(a) Raw cotton exports increased.
(b) The cotton crop perished.
(c) Local markets shrank.
(d) Export market collapsed.
Answer: (a) Raw cotton exports increas
Q28. Name the most dynamic industry in Britain.
(a) Food processing
(b) Leather goods production
(c) Cotton and metal industries
(d) Electronic goods production
Answer: (c) Cotton and metal industries
Q29. How did the East India Company prevent the Indian weavers from
dealing with other companies?
(a) Paid higher prices for their products.
(b) Bought them off as slaves.
(c) Offered them loans for their production.
(d) Imposed extra tariff to discourage them to deal with other foreigners.
Answer: (c) Offered them loans for their production.
Q30. Which war materials were produced in India to supply to Britain during
World War I?
(a) Gunpowder, cannons and other ammunition.
(b) Jute bags, cloth for army uniforms, tents and leather boots.
(c) Medicines for the wounded soldiers.
(d) Hammers, axes and other building material.
Answer: (b) Jute bags, cloth for army uniforms, tents and leather
boots.
Q31. Guilds were associations of ___________ .
Answer: Explanation: Trade
Q32. ___________ was a mechanical device used for weaving.
Answer: Explanation: Fly shuttle
Q33. Manchester in England was well-known for ___________ .
Answer: Explanation: Textile production
Q34. The yam produced in Indian industries was exported to ___________ .
Answer: Explanation: China
Q35. The expansion of railways boosted the growth of ___________ and
___________ industries.
Answer: Explanation: Iron and steel
Q36. In Bengal, Dwarakanath Tagore made his fortune in China Trade.
(True/False)
Answer: Explanation: True
Q37. G.D. Birla was a Parsi entrepreneur who built huge industrial empire in
India. (True/False)
Answer: Explanation: False
Q38. Advertisements make the products appear desirable and necessary.
(True/False)
Answer: Explanation: True
Q39. When there is plenty of labour, wages are low. (True/False)
Answer: Explanation: True
Q40. In European society, members of the royal family are referred as
„bourgeoisie‟. (True/False)
Answer:
Explanation: False
Q41. Match the columns.

Column A Column B

(a) Gomasthas (i) Seth Hukumchand

(b) Spinning Jenny (ii) Official who acted as company‟s agent

(c) Steam engine (iii) Richard Arkwright

(d) Cotton mill (iv) James Hargreaves

(e) First Indian jute mill (v) James Watt

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) (ii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (v)
(d) (iii)
(e) (i)
Q42. What is proto-industrialization?
Answer:
Explanation:
Proto-industrialization refers to the early phase of industrialisation in Europe
and England where production was mainly done by hands.
Q43. Why the merchants from towns in Europe began to move
countryside in seventeenth and eighteenth centuries? [CBSE 2018]
Answer:
Explanation:
To engage the peasants and artisans to produce goods for an international
market.
Q44. What were the factors that led to an increased demand for
goods?
Answer:
Explanation:
Expansion of trade and acquisition of colonies in the seventeenth and
eighteenth centuries led to an increasing demand for goods.
Q45. What were trade guilds?
Answer:
Explanation:
Associations of traders and merchants that trained crafts people, maintained
control over production and regulated prices.
Q46. Who is a „stapler‟?
Answer:
Explanation:
A stapler is a person who sorts wool according to its fibre.
Q47. Define Fuller.
Answer:
Explanation:
A person who fulls or gathers a cloth by pleating is known as fuller.
Q48. Which city was known as finishing Centre?
Answer:
Explanation: London
Q49. What was the first symbol of the new era in England in the late
18th century?
Answer:
Explanation:
Cotton became the first symbol of the new era in England in the late
18th century.
Q50. Define Carding.
Answer:
Explanation:
Carding is a process in which fibres, such as cotton or wool, are prepared
before spinning.
Q51. Who created the first cotton mill?
Answer:
Explanation: Richard Arkwright
Q52. Which industries were the dynamic indus-tries of England
during its earliest phase of industrialization?
Answer:
Explanation:
Cotton and Iron and steel industries
Q53. Name any two non-mechanized sectors where ordinary and
small innovations formed the basis of growth.
Answer:
Explanation:
Food processing, building, pottery, glass work tanning, furniture making and
production of implements. (any two)
Q54. Who improved upon the steam engine produced by Newcomen?
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explanation: James Watt
Q55. Who was regarded as the typical-worker in the mid-nineteenth
century?
Answer:
Explanation:
A traditional craftsperson and labourer who did not operate machines.
Q56. Why did industrialists in Victorian Britain not want to introduce
machines?
Answer:
Explanation:
Machines reduced the requirement of human labour and inferred large
capital investment.
Q57. Name the areas that demanded seasonal labour in England.
Answer:
Explanation:
Gas works, breweries and dockyards
Q58. Why did the American industrialists favour the use of
mechanical power for production in nineteenth century?
Answer:
Explanation:
Because countries like America had shortage of labour.
Q59. Who invented the Spinning Jenny? [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
Explanation: James Hargreaves
Q60. Name the Indian goods that dominated the Indian market
before the age of machine industries.
Answer:
Explanation: Silk and cotton
Q61. Name an eminent pre-colonial port. [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
Explanation: Surat
Q62. To which ports did Surat on the Gujarat coast connect India?
Answer:
Explanation:
Surat connected India to the Gulf and Red Sea Ports.
Q63. Mention the reason for the decline of the pre¬colonial ports i.e.
Surat and Masulipatnam by the 1750‟s.
Answer:
Explanation:
The European companies became powerful by securing a variety of
concessions from local courts and the monopoly rights to trade. Leading to
the decline of the pre-colonial ports i.e. Surat and Masulipatnam.
Q64. Name two new ports which grew in importance after the
decline of Surat and Hooghly.
Answer:
Explanation: Bombay and Calcutta
Q65. Why was East India Company keen on expanding textile
exports from India?
Answer:
Explanation:
British cotton industries had not yet expanded and the Indian textiles were
in great demand in Europe.
Q66. What is the monopoly of trade?
Answer:
Explanation:
Monopoly of trade is the practice in which a country develops a system of
management and control, eliminating competition, control costs, ensure
regulated supply of products.
Q67. Why did the East India Company appoint Gomasthas? [CBSE
2018(C)]
Answer:
Explanation: To supervise weavers, collect supplies and examine the quality
of cloth.
Q68. Who was Henry Patullo? What did he say about the Indian
textiles?
Answer:
Explanation: Henry Patullo was an East India Company official. He said that
demand for Indian textile could never reduce, because no country produced
goods of the same quality
Q69. Why did Britain turn to India for cotton supplies by 1860s?
Answer:
Explanation:
Britain turned to India for cotton supplies by 1860s as American civil war cut
off the cotton supplies from US.
Q70. What was China trade?
Answer:
Explanation:
The British in India began exporting opium to China and took tea from China
to England. Many Indians participated in this trade, provided finance,
procuring supplies and shipping consignments. It- was called China trade.
Q71. Who set up six joint stock companies in Bengal?
Answer:
Explanation: Dwarkanath Tagore
Q72. How did fly shuttle increase handloom cloth production in the
20th century?
Answer:
Explanation: It helped weavers to operate large looms and weave large
pieces of cloth that increased the handloom production.
Q73. What did the Indian and British manufacturers do to expand
their market?
Answer:
Explanation:
They took the help of advertisement and tried to expand their market.
Q74. Why did the Manchester industrialists begin to put label on the
cloth bundles that were sent to India?
Answer:
Explanation: The label made the company‟s name familiar to the buyers and
also acted as the mark of quality.
Q75. Why were the images of gods and goddesses regularly
appeared on the labels?
Answer:
Explanation: The labels carrying images of gods and goddesses gave divine
approval to the goods being sold so that they appear somewhat familiar to
Indian people.
Q76. What message did the Indian manufacturers try to give
through advertisements?
Answer:
Explanation:
The Indian manufacturers tried to convey the message through
advertisements that if you cared for the nation then buy Indian goods.
Q77. Who are the bourgeoisie?
Answer:
Explanation: The upper middle class in Europe is called the bourgeoisie.
Q78. How did handloom cloth production increase in early 20th
century?
Answer:
Explanation: Handloom cloth production increased in the early 20 th century
due to new technology like looms with flying shuttle.
Q79. How did the early Indian entrepreneurs make their fortune?
Answer:
Explanation:
The early entrepreneurs made their fortune through China trade.
Q80. For which trade did the early entrepreneurs make a fortune?
Answer:
Explanation: China trade
Q81. Who set up the first Indian Jute Mill in Calcutta?
(a) G.D. Birla
(b) Seth Hukumchand
(c) Jamsetjee Nusserwanjee Tata
(d) Dwarkanath Tagore
Answer: (b) Seth Hukumchand
Q82. A fuller‟s job is to
(a) Pick up wool
(b) Sort wool according to its fiber
(c) Gather cloth by pleating
(d) Carry wool to the spinner
Answer: (c) gather cloth by pleating
Q83. Which of the following countries faced labour shortage in the
nineteenth century?
(a) America
(b) Britain
(c) France
(d) Germany
Answer: (a) America
Q84. The ports of Surat and Hoogly decayed in the
(a) sixteenth century
(b) Seventeenth century
(c) Eighteenth century
(d) Nineteenth century
Answer: (b) Seventeenth century
Q85. The first cotton mill in India was established in
(a) Madras
(b) Calcutta
(c) Gujarat
(d) Bombay
Answer: (b) Calcutta
Q86Dwarkanath Tagore was alan
(a) philanthropist
(b) Educationist
(c) Social reformer
(d) Industrialist
Answer: (d) Industrialist
Q87. Why did the weavers suffer from a problem of raw cotton?
(a) The cotton crop perished
(b) Raw cotton exports increased
(c) Local markets shrank
(d) Export market collapsed
Answer: (b) Raw cotton exports increased
Q88. In Victorian Britain the upper classes- aristocratic class and bourgeoisie
preferred handmade goods because:
(a) They were made from imported material.
(b) The handmade goods came to symbolize refinement and class.
(c) They were better finished.
(d) Only upper class could afford the expensive items.
Answer: (b) the handmade goods came to symbolize refinement and
class.
Q89. By late 19th century why did the British manufacturers print calendars
for advertisements?
(a) Indian people were fond of using calendars in their houses.
(b) Unlike newspapers and magazines, calendars were used even by
people who did not know how to read or write.
(c) It was cheaper to advertise goods through calendars.
(d) It used to add beauty to the room.
Answer: (b) Unlike newspapers and magazines, calendars were used
even by people who did not know how to read or write.
Q90. Which of the following innovations helped the weavers in increasing
productivity and compete with mill sector?
(a) Spinning jenny
(b) Fly shuttle
(c) Cotton Gin
(d) Roller
Answer: (b) Fly shuttle
Q91. According to historians, who was the typical worker in the mid-
nineteenth century?
(a) Craftsperson and labourer
(b) Machine operator
(c) Unskilled labour
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) Craftsperson and labourer
Q92. What do you mean by Carding?
(a) In spinning
(b) In weaving
(c) In which cotton or wool fibers are prepared for spinning
(d) In which finishing of cloth is done
Answer: (c) In which cotton or wool fibres are prepared for spinning
Q93. Who were the Staplers and Fullers?
(a) Gathers cloth by pleating
(b) Sorts wool according to its fibre
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) Both a and b
Q94. What was the reason behind new merchants could not set up business
in the towns in Europe?
(a) The rules became barrier
(b) Scarcity of product to start any business
(c) The powerful trade guilds and urban crafts made it difficult
(d) None of these
Answer: c. The powerful trade guilds and urban crafts made it
difficult
Q95. Which pre-colonial port connected India to the Gulf countries and the
Red Sea ports?
(a) Bombay (b) Hooghly (c) Surat (d) Machhalipatanam
Answer: (c) Surat
Q96. Who produced music book that Dawn of the Century?
(a) New Comen (b) James Watt (c) E. T. Paul (d) None of these
Answer: (c) E. T. Paul
Q97. What was supply during the First World War from Indian factories?
(a) Jute bags and cloth for army uniforms
(b) Tents and leather boots
(c) Horse and mule saddles
(d) All of these
Answer: (d) All of these
Explanation:
There are many items supply by Indian factories during the First World War.
They are jute bags, cloth for army uniforms, tents, leather boots, horse and
mule saddles, besides other things.
Q98. When did the export of Indian yarn to China declined?
(a) 1906
(b) 1910
(c) 1915
(d) 1902
Answer: (a) 1906
Explanation:
The export of Indian yarn to China declined in 1906, because produce from
the Chinese and Japanese mills flooded the Chinese market.
Q99. Which War caused new problems for Indian weavers?
(a) The American Civil War
(b) First world war
(c) Second world war
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) The American Civil War
Explanation:
The American Civil War caused new problems for Indian weavers. Indian
weavers could not get sufficient supply of raw cotton of good quality.The
Americans stopped supplying raw cotton to Britain due to the Civil War.
Q100. Who was Dwarkanath Tagore?
(a) A social reformer
(b) Musician
(c) Industrialist
(d) Painter
Answer: (c) Industrialist
Explanation:
Dwarkanath Tagore was the Industrialist. In Bengal, he made his fortune in
the China trade before he turned to industrial investment, setting up six
joint-stock companies in the 1830s and 1840s.
Q101. In 1917 who set up the first Indian jute mill in Calcutta?
(a) Seth Hukumchand
(b) G.D. Birla
(c) Jamsedjee Tata
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Seth Hukumchand
Explanation:
Seth Hukumchand, a Marwari businessman set up the first Indian jute mill in
Calcutta in 1917. He also traded with China.
Q102. In which century, the exports of British cotton goods increased
dramatically?
(a) 17th century
(b) 19th century
(c) 20th century
(d) 18th century
Answer: (b) 19th century
Explanation:
In the twentieth century, handloom cloth production expanded steadily
almost trebling the exports of British cotton goods increased dramatically.
Q103. During the 19th century, Which were the most dynamic industries in
Britain?
(a) Cotton and metal
(b) Metal and sugar
(c) Sugar and cotton
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) Cotton and metal
Explanation:
The most dynamic industries in Britain during 19th century were cotton and
metal.
Q104. What are the problems faced by the cotton weavers in India?
(a) Export market had collapsed
(b) They did not have good quality cotton
(c) Imported goods were cheap
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation:
The following problems was faced by cotton weavers in India and they are
Export market had collapsed ,they did not have good quality cotton and
Imported goods were cheap.
 Picture-based Questions:
Question 1.Look at the given picture taken from Textbook Page 125 and
then answer the questions that follow:

(i) What do you see in the above picture? What is the goddess shown
offering?
(ii) What message does the manufacturer want to convey to the people of
India?
(iii) How did people of India support the swadeshi movement?
Answer:
(i) In the above picture, the goddess is offering clothes to the people.
(ii) The manufacturer wants to convey to the people of India that it is also
the will of goddess that people should use country made things.
(iii) The people of India supported the swadeshi movement using country
made things.

Prepared By
Sanjay Tailor