Solution to Level_1 Paper_2 Section_A Q1 (2022/23): page 1 of 2

A. Aufderhorst-Roberts Exam Solution

Email: anders.aufderhorst-roberts@durham.ac.uk
Solution to: Foundations of Physics 1 Paper 2, Section A (Electromagnetism), Question 1.

(a) Analysis

– The expression indicates that a point charge approximation is being used.

[1 Mark]
– Therefore the distance of the point R must be significantly larger than the diameter of the
arrangement of charges.
– The charges are all on the x axis with a maximum spacing of 4 m.
– Therefore x  4 m.
[1 Mark]

(b) Synthesis

– The electric field at a position P is calcualted through the superposition of electric fields due to
the charges q1 , q2 , and q3
q1 q2 q3
E= r̂ + r̂ + r̂
4π0 r21,P 1,P 4π0 r22,P 2,P 4π0 r23,P 3,P

[1 Mark]
– All three charges lie on the x-axis therefore:

r̂1,P = r̂2,P = r̂3,P = ı̂

[1 Mark]
– Deriving expressions for the vector distances between P and each of the three charges:

r1,P = rP − r1 = (x m)ı̂ − (1.0 m)ı̂ = (x − 1.0 m)ı̂

r2,P = rP − r2 = (x m)ı̂ + (1.0 m)ı̂ = (x + 1.0 m)ı̂

r3,P = rP − r3 = (x m)ı̂ + (3.0 m)ı̂ = (x + 3.0 m)ı̂

[3 Marks]

– Substituting vector distances and charges into the expression for E:

−4.0 × 10−9 −6.0 × 10−9 2.0 × 10−9

E= ı̂ + ı̂ + ı̂
4π0 (x − 1)2 4π0 (x + 1)2 4π0 (x + 3)2

– Simplifying:  
2.0 3.0 1.0
E = −18 + − NC−1 ı̂
(x − 1.0)2 (x + 1.0)2 (x + 3.0)2
[3 Marks]

(c) Application

– We assume that q4 is moved from position a = −∞ to position b = (2.0, 0.0, 0.0). Because the
electric field is a conservative field, the work done in moving the charge from infinity to its final
position is independent of the route taken.
[2 Marks]

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Solution to Level_1 Paper_2 Section_A Q1 (2022/23): page 2 of 2

– The work done to move q4 along a path dl opposes the applied force and is given by:
ˆ b ˆ b
Wa→b = − F · dl = − q4 E · dl
a a

– The electric field points away from the origin and the direction of travel of q4 is in the direction
of the origin, therefore E · dl = −|E|dl.
– The point charge moves in the positive x-direction so dl = dx
– Use the expression for E given in part (a) and substitute it into the expression for work done.
ˆ b ˆ 2   
2.0 3.0 1.0
Wa→b = − F · dl = − q4 18 2
+ 2
− (dx)
a −∞ (x − 1.0) (x + 1.0) (x + 3.0)2

– Integrate:
  2
2.0 3.0 1.0
Wa→b = q4 18 + − = 50.4 q4
(x − 1.0) (x + 1.0) (x + 3.0) −∞

– Substitute q4 = 1.0 nC to give:

Wa→b = 1.0 × 10−9 × 50.4 = 5.0 × 10−8 J

(note, some students may instead prefer to calculate the work done by integrating the electric
field by distance to find the potential and multiplying the result by q4 . Full marks should be
awarded irrespective of which approach is taken)
[3 Marks]

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 Solution to Level_1 Paper_2 Section_A Q2 (2022/23): page 1 of 3

A. Aufderhorst-Roberts Exam Solution

Email: anders.aufderhorst-roberts@durham.ac.uk
Solution to: Foundations of Physics 1 Paper 2, Section A (Electromagnetism), Question 2

(a) Evaluation

– This question requires the use of ampere’s law:

˛
µ0 Ienclosed = B · dl

– The path dl is counterclockwise therefore, by convention, currents passing out of the page are
positive and currents passing into the page are negative.
– Only I1 and I3 are enclosed by dl, therefore:

Ienclosed = −I1 + I3 = −4.0 A + 1.0 A = −3.0 A

[1 Mark]
– Substituting into Ampere’s law:
˛
B · dl = −3.0 A × µ0 = −3.8 × 10−6 T m

[1 Mark]

(b) Application

(i)
– For r < a (inside the cylinder) we apply Ampere’s law to a circular path of radius r < a to
obtain: ˛
B · dl = µ0 Ienclosed = µ0 × 0 = 0
C
B=0
[2 Marks]
(ii)
– For a < r < b (inside the shell of the conductor), the current is uniform within the conductor’s
cross section. Therefore any circular path with radius a < r < b will enclose a current that is
proportional to the total current I and the proportion of the cross sectional area of the pipe
that is enclosed.
π(r2 − a2 ) r 2 − a2
Ienclosed = I 2 2
=I 2
π(b − a ) b − a2
– Substituting this expression into Ampere’s law gives:
˛
r 2 − a2
B · dl = µ0 Ienclosed = µ0 I 2
C b − a2

– Integrate over a circular path of radius r:

r 2 − a2
B(2πr) = µ0 I
b2 − a2
µ0 I r 2 − a 2
B=
(2πr) b2 − a2
[2 Marks]

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 Solution to Level_1 Paper_2 Section_A Q2 (2022/23): page 2 of 3

(iii)
– For r > b (outside the cylinder), the entire cross section of the pipe is enclosed:

Ienclosed = I

– Substituting this expression into Ampere’s law gives:

˛
B · dl = µ0 I
C

B(2πr) = µ0 I
µ0 I
B=
2πr
[2 Marks]

(c) Analysis

(i)
– We use the expression for the field generated by a single wire, from Amperes law:
µ0 I
B=
2πr
Where r = the distance from the centre of the wire.
– We use this to calculate the magnetic field generated by each wire. of the wires, which we denote
B1 , B2 , B3 , B4 and B5
– At the centre of the outermost wire, the field contribution from the current flowing through the
outermost wire is zero.
B1 = 0
[2 Marks]
– The total magnetic field in the outermost wire will therefore have contributions only from the
other four wires:
BTotal = B2 + B3 + B4 + B5

– Substituting the expression for the field generated by a single wire:

 
µ0 I 1 1 1 1
BTotal = + + +
2π d 2d 3d 4d

[2 Marks]
(ii)
– We denote the point that is 10.0 m from the middle wire as X.
– We denote the distance between X and each wire as d1 , d2 , d3 , d4 and d5 . By simple geometric
deduction:
d1 = (2 × 1.00 m) + 10.0 m = 12.0 m
d2 = 1.00 m + 10.0 m = 11.0 m
d3 = 10.0 m
d1 = 10.0 m − 1.00 m = 9.00 m
d1 = 10.0 m − (2 × 1.00 m) = 8.00 m

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Solution to Level_1 Paper_2 Section_A Q2 (2022/23): page 3 of 3

– The total magnetic field is therefore:

 
µ0 I 1 1 1 1 1
BTotal = + + + +
2π 12.0 11.0 10.0 9.00 8.00

[2 Marks]
– The field at point X is therefore:
µ0
BTotal = 15.0 A × × 0.510
2π
BTotal = 1.53 µT
[1 Mark]

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Solution to Level_1 Paper_2 Section_B Q3 (2022/23): page 1 of 1

Foundations of Physics May/June Paper 2 Q3: Setter Chris Done

all marks are for comprehension and application, apart from [d] which demon-
states analysis and synthesis.

(a) length contraction L = L0 /γ. [1 mark]

2 1/2
γ(0.6c) = 1/(1 − 0.6 ) = 1.25 = 5/4 so each sees the other with
L = L0 /γ = 4/5L0 [2 marks]

(b) (1) the tail of B passes the tip of A: the tip of A is at x = 0 so

this is still at x1 = 0. but it takes a time in S of t1 = L/|u| =
4/5L0 /(3/5c) = 4/3L0 /c so (0, 4/3L0 /c) [1 mark]
(2) the missile is fired from the tail of A. The tail of A is at −L0 in
S, but this happens at t1 in S, so at (−L0 , 4/3L0 /c) [1 mark]
(3) the tip of B passes the tail of A. The tail of A is at −L0 in S. so
it takes time t3 = L0 /|u| = 5/3L0 /c so (−L0 , 5/3L0 /c) [1 mark]
(4) the tail of B passes the tail of A. The tail of A is at −L0 in
S. but now distance is L + L0 so time is t4 = (L + L0 )/|u| =
(1/γ + 1)L0 /|u| = 9/5L0 /(3/5c) = 3L0 /c so (−L0 , 3L0 /c)[1 mark]

(c) t01 = γ(t1 −ux1 /c2 ) = 5/4×[4/3L0 /c−(−3/5c)×(0)] = 5/4[4/3]L0 /c =

(5/3)(L0 /c) [1 mark]
t02 = 5/4[(4/3)(L0 /c) − (−3/5c)(−L0 )/c2 ] = 5/4[4/3 − 3/5]L0 /c =
(11/12)(L0 /c) [1 mark]
t03 = 5/4[(5/3)(L0 /c) − (−3/5c)(−L0 )/c2 ] = 5/4[5/3 − 3/5]L0 /c =
(4/3)(L0 /c) [1 mark]
t04 = 5/4[3L0 /c − (−3/5c)(−L0 )/c2 ] = 3L0 /c [1 mark]

(d) the order of events is t02 < t03 < t01 < t04 [1 mark]
So B sees the missile launched (event 2) BEFORE the tail of A crosses
the tip of B (event 3) where the collision would occur. [2 marks]
so both A and B agree that no collision takes place, and there is no
paradox [1 mark]

1
Solution to Level_1 Paper_2 Section_B Q4 (2022/23): page 1 of 1

Foundations of Physics May/June Paper 2 Q4: Setter Chris Done

all marks are for comprehension and application,

(a) continuity of ψ at x = 0: A = B + C [1 mark]

continuity of dψ/dx at x = 0: ik1 A = ik2 B − ik2 C [1 mark]
k1 /k2 A = B − C [1 mark]
add: (1 + k1 /k2 )A = 2B hence B = 21 (1 + k1 /k2 )A [1 mark]
1
subtract (1 − k1 /k2 )A = 2C hence C = 2
(1 − k1 /k2 )A [1 mark]

(b) time independent schroedinger is

h̄2 d2 ψ
− + U ψ = Eψ
2m dx2
2 2
h̄ d ψ
in region 1 then U = 0 so − 2m dx2
= Eψ [1 mark]
2 2 2
so d ψ/dx = −(2m/h̄ )Eψ = k12 ψ [1 mark]
region 3 has the same potential so k3 = k1 [1 mark]
2 2 2
in region 2, U = −3E so d ψ/dx = −(2m/h̄ )4Eψ = k22 ψ [1 mark]
hence k1 /k2 = 1/2. so k2 = 2k1 [1 mark]

(c) region 1: ψ ∗ ψ = A2 and region 3: ψ ∗ ψ = D2 = A2 [1 mark]

−ik2 x −ik2 x
region 2: (Be + Ce ik2 x
)(B ik2 x
+C ) = B + C + BCe−2ik2 x +
2 2

CBe2ik2 x [1 mark]
put in terms of A where B = 3A/4 and C = A/4
= A2 [(1/4)(3/2)2 + (1/4)(1/2)2 + (1/2)(3/2)(1/2)(1/2)[e2ik2 x + e−2ik2 x ]
[1 mark]
= (A2 /4)[9/4 + 1/4 + 3/4 × 2 cos(2k2 x)] = (A2 /4)[5/2 + 3/2 cos(2k2 x)]
[2 marks]