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 ` Chapter 1
Electric Charges and Fields

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1. Three charges +q, +2q and +4q are
connected by strings as shown in the
figure, what is ratio of tensions in the
strings AB and BC ?

(a) 1:2 (b) 1:3

(c) 2:1 (d) 3:1

2. Two point charges of +3µC and +4µC

repel each other with a force of 10 N. If
each is given an additional charge of
−6µC, the new force is
(a) 6 N (b) 6.5 N
(c) 7.5 N (d) 7 N

3. A charged ball B hangs from a silk

thread S, which makes an angle θ with a
large charged conducting sheet P, as
shown in the figure. The surface charge
 density σ of the sheet is proportional to:

(a) cotθ (b) cosθ

(c) tanθ (d) sinθ

4. Dimensional formula for electrical field

is
(a) [M L T A ]
1 2 −3 −2

(b) [M L T A ]
1 2 −3 −1

(c) [M L T A ]
1 1 −3 −1

(d) [M L T A ]
0 0 0 0

5. Five equal charges each of value q are

 placed at the corners of a regular
pentagon of side a. The electric field at
the centre of the pentagon is:

q 3q
(a) 2
(b) 2
4πϵ0 r 4πϵ0 r
2q
(c) 2
(d) Zero
4πϵ0 r
6. The electric field near a conducting
surface having a uniform surface charge
density is given by:
σ
(a) and is parallel to the surface
ϵ0
 2σ
(b) and is parallel to the surface
ϵ0
σ
(c) and is normal to the surface
ϵ0
2σ
(d) and is normal to the surface
ϵ0

7. Select the correct statements from the

following
(i) inside a charged or neutral conductor,
electrostatic field is zero
(ii) the electrostatic field at the surface of
the charged conductor
must be tangential to the surface at
any point
(iii) there is no net charge at any point
inside the conductor
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
 (d) (i), (ii), and (iii)

8. A rod of length 2.4m and radius 4.6mm

−7
carries a negative charge of 4.2 × 10 C
spread uniformly over it surface. The
electric field near the mid-point of the
rod, at a point on its surface is:
5 −1
(a) −8.6 × 10 N C
4 −1
(b) 8.6 × 10 N C
5 −1
(c) −6.7 × 10 N C
4 −1
(d) 6.7 × 10 N C

9. If electric field in a region is radially

outward with magnitude E = Ar, the
charge contained in a sphere of radius r
centred at the origin is
1 3 3
(a) Ar (b) 4πϵ0Ar
4πϵ0
3
1A r
(c) 3
(d)
4πϵ0 r 4πϵ0A
10. A charge q is placed at the centre of the
open end of a cylindrical vessel. The
flux of the electric field through the
surface of the vessel is

(a) q/ϵ0 (b) q/2ϵ0

(c) 2q/ϵ0 (d) zero

11. Two infinite plane parallel sheets,

separated by a distance d have equal
and opposite uniform charge densities
σ. Electric field at a point between the
sheets is
σ
(a)
2ϵ0
 σ
(b)
ϵ0
(c) Zero
(d)depends on the location of the point

12. Which of the following statements is

not true about Gauss’s law ?
(a) Gauss’s law is not much useful in
calculating electrostatic field when the
system has some symmetry.
(b) Gauss’s law is based on the inverse
square dependence on distance
contained in the coulomb’s law.
(c) Gauss’s law is true for any closed
surface.
(d) The term q on the right side of Gauss’s
law includes the sum of all charges
enclosed by the surface.
 š Answers
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 ` Chapter 2
Electrostatic Potential and
Capacitance

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1. The value of electric potential at any
point due to any electric dipole is
⃗p × ⃗r
(a) k × 2
r
⃗p × ⃗r
(b) k × 3
r
⃗p · ⃗r
(c) k × 2
r
⃗p · ⃗r
(d) k × 3
r
2. What is the electric potential at a
distance of 9cm from 3µC ?
(a) 270V
(b) 3V
(c) 300V
(d) 30V

3. Two spherical conductors of radii 4m

and 5m are charged to same potential.
If σ1 and σ2 be the respective values of
the surface density of charge on the
 two conductors, then the ratio σ1/σ2 is
(a) 25/16
(b) 16/25
(c) 5/4
(d) 4/5

4. The electric potential at a point in free

space due to a charge Q coulomb is
11
Q × 10 V . The electric field at that
point is
22 −1
(a) 12πϵ0Q × 10 V m
20 −1
(b) 12πϵ0Q × 10 V m
20 −1
(c) 4πϵ0Q × 10 V m
22 −1
(d) 4πϵ0Q × 10 V m

5. Figure shows the field lines of a

positive point charge. The work done
by the field in moving a small positive
charge from Q to P is
(a) zero
(b) positive
(c) negative
(d) data insufficient

6. As shown in the figure, charges +q and

−q are placed at the vertices B and C of
an isosceles triangle. The potential at
the vertex A is
 1 2q
(a) ·p
4πϵ0 a +b
2 2

1 q
(b) ·p
4πϵ0 a +b
2 2

1 (−q)
(c) ·p
4πϵ0 a +b
2 2

(d) zero

7. Four charges each equal to q are placed

at the comers of a square of side l. The
electric potential at the centre of the
square is
1 4q
(a)
4πϵ0 l
1 4q
(b) p
4πϵ0 2l
p
1 2q
(c)
πϵ0 l
1 2q
(d)
πϵ0 l
 8. When air is replaced by a dielectric
medium of constant K, the maximum
force of attraction between two
charges separated by a distance
(a) increases K times
(b) remains unchanged
(c) decreases K times
−1
(d) increases K times

9. Dielectric constant of a medium is also

known as
(a) relative permeability
(b) permeability
(c) permittivity
(d) relative permittivity

10. Two parallel plates have equal and

opposite charge. When the space
between them is evacuated, the electric
5
field between the plates is 2 × 10 V/m.
When the space is filled with dielectric,
 5
the electric field becomes 1 × 10 V/m.
The dielectric constant of the dielectric
material is
1
(a)
2
(b) one
(c) two
(d) three

11. When a dielectric slab is removed

5
electric field becomes 4.8 × 10 V/m. If
5
original field was 6 × 10 V/m,
dielectric constant of dielectric
material is
(a) 7.6
(b) 8
(c) 2
(d) 0.8

12. In a parallel plate capacitor, the

capacity increases if
 (a) area of the plate is decreased
(b) distance between the plates
increases
(c) area of the plate is increased
(d) dielectric constant decreases

13. A parallel plate capacitor with air

between the plates has a capacitance of
20 pF. The capacitance, if the distance
between the plates is reduced by half
and the space between them is filled
with a substance of dielectric constant
3 is
(a) 120 pF
(b) 140 pF
(c) 20 pF
(d) 60 pF

14. A parallel plate condenser is filled with

two dielectrics as shown. Area of each
2
plate is A m and the separation is t m.
 The dielectric constants are K1 and K2
respectively. Its capacitance in farad
will be
ϵ0A
(a) (k1 + k2)
t
2ϵ0A
(b) (k1 + k2)
t
ϵ0A(k1 + k2)
(c)
t 2
ϵ0A(k1 − k2)
(d)
t 2
15. A parallel plate capacitor having a
separation between the plates d, plate
area A and material with dielectric
constant K has capacitance C0. Now
one-third of the material is replaced by
another material with dielectric
constant 2 K, so that effectively there
are two capacitors one with area 1/3
A, dielectric constant 2 K and another
 with area 2/3 A and dielectric constant
K. If the capacitance of this new
capacitor is C then C/C0 is:
(a) 1
(b) 4/3
(c) 2/3
(d) 1/3

16. For the configuration of media of

permittivity’s ϵ0, ϵ, and ϵ0 between
parallel plates each of area A, as shown
in figure the equivalent capacitance is

(a) ϵ0A/d
(b) ϵϵ0A/d
 ϵϵ0A
(c)
d (ϵ + ϵ0)
ϵϵ0A
(d)
(2ϵ + ϵ0) d
17. Van de Graaff generator is used to
(a) store electrical energy
(b) build up high voltage of few million
volts
(c) decelerate charged particle like
electrons
(d) both (a) and (b)
 š Answers
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 ` Chapter 3
Current Electricity

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 1. Drift velocity of a free electron inside a
conductor is
(a) the thermal speed of the free electron
(b) the speed with which a free electron
emerges out of the conductor
(c) the average speed acquired by the
electron in any direction
(d) the average speed of the electron
between successive collisions in the
direction opposite to the applied
electric field

2. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7)kΩ is to

be marked with rings of different
colours for its identification. The
colour code sequence will be
(a) Violet - Yellow - Orange - Silver
(b) Yellow - Violet - Orange - Silver
(c) Green - Orange - Violet - Gold
(d) Yellow - Green - Violet - Gold
3. Two different conductors have same
◦
resistance at 0 C. It is found that the
◦
resistance of the first conductor at t 1 C
is equal to the resistance of the second
◦
conductor at t 2 C. The ratio of the
temperature coefficients of resistance
α1
of the conductors, is
α2
t1
(a)
t2
t2 − t1
(b)
t2
t2 − t1
(c)
t1
t2
(d)
t1

4. A wire of length 5 m and radius 1 mm

has a resistance of 1 Ω. What length of
the wire of the same material at the
same temperature and of radius 2 mm
 will also have a resistance of 1 Ω ?
(a) 1.25 m
(b) 2.5 m
(c) 10 m
(d) 20 m

5. A meter bridge is setup as shown to

determine an unknown resistance X
using a standard 10 ohm resistor. The
galvanometer shows null point when
tapping-key is at 52 cm mark. The
end-corrections are 1 cm and 2 cm
respectively for the ends A and B. The
determined value of X is
(a) 10.2 ohm
(b) 10.6 ohm
(c) 10.8 ohm
(d) 11.1 ohm

6. In the meter bridge experiment shown

in the figure, the balance length AC
corresponding to null deflection of the
galvanometer is x. What would be the
balance length if the radius of the wire
AB is doubled?
(a) 4x
(b) 2x
(c) x
(d) x/2

7. In the circuit shown, a meter bridge is

in its balanced state. The meter bridge
wire has a resistance 0.1 ohm/cm. The
value of unknown resistance X and the
current drawn from the battery of
negligible resistance are

(a) 6 Ω , 5 A (b) 10 Ω , 0.1 A

(c) 4 Ω , 1.0 A (d) 12 Ω , 0.5 A
8. What is the reading of ammeter shown
in the figure below ?

(a) 3 A
(b) 4 A
(c) 1.5 A
(d) 6 A
 š Answers
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 ` Chapter 4
Moving Charges and
Magnetism

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1. If a velocity has both perpendicular
and parallel components while moving
through a magnetic field, what is the
path followed by a charged particle ?
(a) Linear
(b) Circular
(c) Helical
(d) Elliptical

2. An α-particle enters a magnetic field of

6
1 T with a velocity 10 m/s in a
direction perpendicular to the field.
The force on α-particle is
−3
(a) 1.6 × 10 N
−13
(b) 3.2 × 10 N
−13
(c) 4.8 × 10 N
−13
(d) 6.4 × 10 N
−12
3. If a particle of charge 10 C moving
along the x̂ - direction with a velocity
5 −10
10 m/s experiences a force of 10 N
 in ŷ - direction due to magnetic field,
then the minimum magnetic field is
−3
(a) 10 T in ẑ-direction
−15
(b) 10 T in ẑ-direction
−3
(c) 6.25 × 10 T in ẑ-direction
3
(d) 6.25 × 10 T in ẑ-direction

4. Acertain region has an electric field

E⃗ = (2î − 3 ĵ) N/C and a uniform
magnetic field B ⃗ = (5î + 3 ĵ + 4k̂)T .
The force experienced by a charge 1C
moving with velocity (î + 2ĵ)ms is −1

(a) (10î + 7ĵ + 7k̂)

(b) (10î + 7ĵ − 7k̂)
(c) (10î − 7ĵ − 7k̂)
(d) (−10î + 7ĵ + 7k̂)
−11
5. A particle with 10 C of charge and
−7
10 kg mass is moving with a velocity
8
of 10 m/s along the y-axis. A uniform
static magnetic field B = 0.5 T is acting
 along the x-direction. The force on the
particle is
3
(a) 5 × 10 N along k̂
−4
(b) 5 × 10 N along −k̂
−11
(c) 5 × 10 N along î
−11
(d) 5 × 10 N along −ĵ

6. A proton enters a magnetic field of

2
intensity 1.5 Wb/m with a velocity
7 −1
2 × 10 ms in a direction at an angle
◦
30 with field. The force on the proton
will be (charge on proton is
−19
1.6 × 10 C )
−12
(a) 1.2 × 10 N
−12
(b) 2.4 × 10 N
−12
(c) 4.8 × 10 N
−12
(d) 7.2 × 10 N

7. Two electrons move parallel to each

other with equal speed v. The ratio of
magnetic and electrical forces between
 them is
c v
(a) (b)
v c
2 2
c v
(c) 2 (d) 2
v c
8. Magnetic field at any point on the axis
of a current element is
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) a constant
(d) zero

9. A circular coil has 250 turns and a

mean diameter of 20 cm. It carries a
current of 5 A. What is the strength of
the magnetic field at a point on its axis
at a distance of 5 m from the centre of
the coil?
−7
(a) 2π × 10 T
−8
(b) 2π × 10 T
 −7
(c) 4π × 10 T
−8
(d) 4π × 10 T

10. A conducting wire carrying current is

arranged as shown. The magnetic field
at O

µ0 I 1
 
1
(a) −
6 R1 R2
µ0 I 1
 
1
(b) +
6 R1 R2
µ0 I 1
 
1
(c) −
12 R1 R2
 µ0 I 1
 
1
(d) +
12 R1 R2
11. 20 A current is flowing in a long
straight wire. The intensity of magnetic
field at a distance 10 cm from the wire
will be
−5 2
(a) 4 × 10 Wb/m
−5 2
(b) 6 × 10 Wb/m
−5 2
(c) 8 × 10 Wb/m
−5 2
(d) 9 × 10 Wb/m

12. Two thin, long, parallel wires,

separated by a distance d carry a
current of i A in the same direction.
They will
(a) attract each other with a force of
µ0 i 2

(2πd)
(b) attract each other with a force of
 µ0 i2

(2πd )2

µ0 i2
(c) repel each other with a force of
(2πd)
µ0 i 2
(d) repel each other with a force of
(2πd ) 2

13. An 8 cm long wire carrying a current of

10 A is placed inside a solenoid
perpendicular to its axis. If the
magnetic field inside the solenoid is 0.3
T, then magnetic force on the wire is
(a) 0.14 N
(b) 0.24 N
(c) 0.34 N
(d) 0.44 N

14. A galvanometer having a coil resistance

of 60 Ω shows full scale deflection
when a current of 1 A passes through
it. It can be converted into an ammeter
 to read currents upto 5 A by
(a) putting in series a resistance of 15 Ω
(b) putting in parallel a resistance of 15 Ω
(c) putting in series a resistance of 240 Ω
(d) putting in parallel a resistance of
240 Ω
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 ` Chapter 5
Magnetism and Matter

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1. A bar magnet of magnetic moment pm
is divided into two equal parts by
cutting it perpendicular to its length.
The magnetic moment of either piece
will be
pm
(a)
2
(b) Pm
(c) 2Pm
(d) Zero

2. If a bar magnet is placed with its south

pole pointing towards geographic
south in magnetic meridian, then the
neutral points are located
(a) at the middle point of the magnet
(b) on the line perpendicular to the axis of
the magnet
(c) at the angle of 45° with the magnetic
axis
(d) along the axis of the magnet

3. A bar magnet of length 0.2 m and pole

strength 5 Am is kept in a uniform
magnetic induction field of strength 15
2
Wb/m making an angle of 30° with
the field. Find the couple acting on it
(a) 9.0 Nm
(b) 2.5 Nm
(c) 5.5 Nm
(d) 7.5 Nm

4. A short bar magnet, placed with its axis

at 30° with an external magnetic field
of 0.16 T, experiences a torque of
magnitude 0.032 J. The magnetic
moment of the bar magnet is (in units
of J/T)
(a) 0.2 (b) 0.4
(c) 0.5 (d) 4
5. A closely wound solenoid of 1000 turns
−4 2
and area of cross-section 2 × 10 m
carries a current of 1 A. It is placed in
horizontal axis at 30° with the
direction of uniform magnetic field of
0.16 T. Magnetic moment of solenoid
and torque experienced by the solenoid
due to the field respectively are
2
(a) 0.4Am , 0.116Nm
2
(b) 0.2Am , 0.026Nm
2
(c) 0.2Am , 0.016Nm
2
(d) 0.1Am , 0.016Nm

6. Gauss’s law should be invalid if

(a) the inverse square law were not
exactly true
(b) the velocity of light were not a
universal constant
(c) there were magnetic monopoles
(d) none of these

7. Horizontal component of earth’s

magnetic field remains zero at
(a) magnetic poles
(b) equator
(c) an altitude of 60°
(d) a latitude of 60°

8. Which of the following is responsible

for the earth’s magnetic field ?
(a) Rotational motion of earth.
(b) Translational motion of earth.
(c) Convective currents in earth’s core.
(d) Diversive current in earth’s core.

9. The vertical component of earth’s

magnetic field is zero at
(a) magnetic equator
 (b) magnetic poles
(c) geographical poles
(d) north pole

10. Relative permeability of iron is 5500,

then its magnetic susceptibility will be
(a) 5501
(b) 5499
−7
(c) 5500 × 10
7
(d) 5500 × 10

11. Among the following properties

describing diamagnetism identify the
property that is wrongly stated.
(a) The magnetic moment of individual
electrons neutralize each other.
(b) Diamagnetism is explained in terms of
electromagnetic induction.
(c) Diamagnetic material does not have
permanent magnetic moment.
(d) Diamagnetic materials have a small
positive susceptibility.

12. The universal property of all

substances is
(a) paramagnetism
(b) ferromagnetism
(c) diamagnetism
(d) all of these

13. For a paramagnetic material, the

dependence of the magnetic
susceptibility χ on the absolute
temperature is given as
1
(a) χ =
T
(b) χ = T
1
(c) χ = 2
T
(d) Independent
 š Answers
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 ` Chapter 6
Electromagnetic Induction

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1. Eddy currents may be reduced by using
(a) thick piece of cobalt
(b) thick piece of nickel
(c) laminated core of steel
(d) laminated core of soft iron

2. A coil of insulated wire is connected to

a battery. If it is taken to galvanometer,
its pointer is deflected, because
(a) the number of turns in the coil of the
galvanometer are changed
(b) the coil acts like a magnet
(c) the induced current is produced
(d) none of these

3. To induce an emf in a coil, the linking

magnetic flux
(a) must remain constant
(b) can either increase or decrease
(c) must increase
 (d) must decrease

4. Flux of magnetic field through an area

bounded by a closed conducting loop
can be changed by changing
⃗
(a) magnetic field B
(b) area of the loop
(c) angle between area vector and B⃗
(d) All of the above

5. The magnetic flux through a circuit of

resistance R changes by an amount ∆φ
in a time ∆t. Then the total quantity of
electric charge Q that passes through
any point in the circuit during the time
∆t is represented by
∆φ
(a) Q =
R
∆φ
(b) Q = R
∆t
 1 ∆φ
(c) Q = ·
R ∆t
∆φ
(d) Q =
∆t

6. The expression for the induced

 emf ‹
dφ
contains a negative sign e = − .
dt
What is the significance of the negative
sign ?
(a) The induced emf is opposite to the
direction of the flux.
(b) The induced emf is produced only,
when the magnetic flux decreases.
(c) The induced emf opposes the changes
in the magnetic flux.
(d) None of the above

7. Lenz’s and Faraday’s law is expressed

by the following formula (here e =
induced emf, φ = magnetic flux in one
 turn and N = number of turns)
dφ
(a) e = −N
dt
dφ
(b) e = N
dt
dN
(c) e = −φ
dt ‹
d φ
(d) e = −
dt N

8. Which of the following statements are

correct ?
(a) A permanent magnet is used in a small
dynamo.
(b) The current produced by an AC
generator changes in direction only.
(c) The direction of the current produced
by electromagnetic induction is given
by Lenz’s law.
(d) Generators work on the principle of
 electromagnetic induction.

9. If a current of 3 A flowing in the

primary coil is reduced to zero in 0.01
s then the induced emf in the
secondary coil is 1500 V, the mutual
inductance between the two coils is
(a) 0.5 H
(b) 1.5 H
(c) 5 H
(d) 10 H

10. A coil of wire of radius R has 200 turns

and a self-inductance of 108 mH. The
self-inductance of a similar coil of 500
turns will be
(a) 375 mH
(b) 675 mH
(c) 527 mH
(d) None of these
11. Self-inductance _____ when the
number of turns of a coil is doubled.
(a) is halved
(b) is doubled
(c) becomes four times
(d) becomes one quarter

12. The physical quantity which is

−1
measured in the unit of WbA is
(a) magnetic flux
(b) self-inductance
(c) mutual inductance
(d) both (b) and (c)

13. A generator has an emf of 440 V and

internal resistance of 400 Ω. Its
terminals are connected to a load of
4000 Ω. The voltage across the load is
(a) 200 V
 (b) 220 V
(c) 400 V
(d) 440 V

14. A cycle wheel is rotated with a speed of

240rpm in a plane normal to
horizontal component of earth’s
magnetic field of 0.36G. Find the value
of induced current between the rim
and axle of the wheel given, there are
16 spokes, each 70 cm long. The
resistance of each spoke is 2Ω.
1
(a) 1.76 × 10 A
−3
(b) 1.76 × 10 A
−5
(c) 1.10 × 10 A
−4
(d) 1.10 × 10 A
 š Answers
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 ` Chapter 7
Alternating Current

Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
Click the website link to open the webpage
1. In an AC circuit I = 100 sin 200πt. The
time required for the current to achieve
its peak value will be
1
(a) s
200
1
(b) s
400
1
(c) s
100
1
(d) s
300

2. When an AC voltage of 220 V is

applied to the capacitor C, then
(a) The current is in phase with the
applied voltage
(b) Power delivered to the capacitor per
cycle is zero
(c) The maximum voltage between plates
is 220 V
(d) The charge on the plate is not in phase
with the applied voltage

3. In the case of an inductor

π
(a) Voltage leads the current by
4
π
(b) Voltage leads the current by
3
π
(c) Voltage leads the current by
2
π
(d) Voltage lags the current by
2

4. An alternating current of frequency f is

flowing in a circuit containing a
resistor of resistance R and a choke of
inductance L in series. The impedance
of this circuit is
(a) R + 2π f L
p
(b) R + L
2 2

(c) R + 2π f L
p
2
 R + 4π f L
p
(d) 2 2 2 2

5. The reactance of capacitor at 50 Hz is

10 Ω. What will be its reactance at 200
Hz ?
(a) 2.5 Ω
(b) 10 Ω
(c) 20 Ω
(d) 40 Ω
‚ Œ
0.4
6. In an LR circuit, the value of L is
π
H and the value of R is 30 Ω. If in the
circuit, an alternating emf of 200 V at
50 cps is connected, the impedance of
the circuit and current will be
(a) 50 Ω, 4 A
(b) 40.4 Ω, 5 A
(c) 30.7 Ω, 6.5 A
(d) 11.4 Ω, 17.5 A
 7. Same current is flowing in two
alternating circuits. The first circuit
contains only inductance and the other
contains only a capacitor.
If the frequency of the emf of AC is
increased, the effect on the value of the
current will be
(a) Increases in both the circuits
(b) Decreases in both the circuits
(c) Increases in the first circuit and
decreases in the other
(d) Decreases in the first circuit and
increases in the other

8. The frequency at which 9 mH inductor

and 10 µF capacitor will have same
reactance is
(a) 0.33 kHz (b) 0.53 kHz
(c) 5.3 kHz (d) 50 kHz
 9. The power factor in a circuit connected
to an AC. The value of power factor is
(a) Unity when the circuit contains an
ideal resistance only
(b) Unity when the circuit contains an
ideal capacitance only
(c) Unity when the circuit contains an
ideal inductance only
(d) Zero when the circuit contains an
ideal resistance only

10. The core of any transformer is

laminated so as to
(a) Make it light weight
(b) Make it robust and strong
(c) Increase the secondary voltage
(d) Reduce the energy loss due to eddy
currents
11. If the coils of transformer are made up
of thick wires, then
(a) Joule’s heating loss is increased
(b) Joule’s heating loss is reduced
(c) Eddy current loss will be more
(d) Magnetic flux leakage is reduced

12. A step-down transformer is used on a

1000 V line to deliver 20 A at 120 V at
the secondary coil. If the efficiency of
the transformer is 80% the current
drawn from the line is
(a) 0.3 A
(b) 3 A
(c) 30 A
(d) 24 A

13. Input power at 22000 V is to be

stepped down to 220 V by a
transformer with a winding of 4400
turns in the primary. What should be
the number of turns in the secondary
of the transformer ?
(a) 44
(b) 200
(c) 220
(d) 440
 š Answers
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 ` Chapter 8
Electromagnetic Wave

Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
Click the website link to open the webpage
1. A parallel plate capacitor with plate
area A and sepa-ration between the
plates d, is charged by a constant
current I. Consider a plane surface of
area A/2 parallel to the plates and
drawn between the plates. The
displacement current through this area
is
(a) I
I
(b)
8
I
(c)
4
I
(d)
2

2. Which of the following is the unit of

displacement current ?
(a) Cs-1
(b) Vs-1
 (c) Vm-1
(d) Cm-1

3. Which of the following statement is

wrong ?
(a) Infrared rays have more energy than
the photon of visible light.
(b) Photographic plates are sensitive to
ultraviolet rays.
(c) Photographic plates can be made
sensitive to infrared rays.
(d) Infrared photon is invisible but can
cast shadows like visible light rays.

4. What remains unchanged when an

electromagnetic wave goes from air to
glass ?
(a) Wavelength
(b) Frequency
(c) Speed
 (d) Amplitude

5. For an electromagnetic wave

(a) Average electric density and average
magnetic energy density are zero
(b) Average electric density and average
magnetic density does not exist
(c) Average electric density and average
magnetic energy density have
different values
(d) Average electric density and average
magnetic energy density are equal

6. The electric and magnetic field of an

electromagnetic wave are
(a) in opposite phase and parallel to each
other
(b) in opposite phase and perpendicular
to each other
(c) in phase and perpendicular to each
other
(d) in phase and parallel to each other

7. Electromagnetic wave consists of

periodically oscillating electric and
magnetic vectors
(a) in mutually perpendicular planes but
vibrating
(b) in phase in randomly oriented planes
but vibrating in phase
(c) in mutually perpendicular planes but
vibratingwith a phase difference of
n/2
(d) in mutually perpendicular planes but
vibrating with a phase difference of n

8. Choose the false statement.

(a) EM waves are produced by accelerated
charged particles
 E0
(b) For EM waves =c
B0
(c) EM. waves cannot be polarised
(d) The energy in electromagnetic waves
are divided equally between the
electric and magnetic field vectors

9. The electromagnetic waves travel with

a velocity in a medium material
1
(a) c = p
µ0ϵ0
c
(b) v = p
µr ϵr
(c) Greater than velocity of light
(d) None of these

10. Wave which cannot travel in vacuum is

(a) X-rays
(b) Infrasonic
(c) Ultraviolet
 (d) Radio waves

11. Radio waves do not penetrate in the

band of
(a) ionosphere
(b) mesosphere
(c) troposphere
(d) stratosphere

12. Which of the following wave cannot be

produced by charges accelerating in AC
circuits having an inductor and
capacitor ?
(a) Radio wave
(b) Microwave
(c) Infrared
(d) None of these
 š Answers
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 ` Chapter 9
Ray Optics and Optical
Instruments

Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
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 1. Which of the following is incorrect
statement ?
(a) the magnification produced by a
convex mirror is always less than one
(b) a virtual, erect, same-sized image can
be obtained using a plane mirror
(c) a virtual, erect, magnified image can
be formed using a concave mirror
(d) a real, inverted, same-sized image can
be formed using a convex mirror

2. Select the wrong statement in case of

image formed by a plane mirror.
(a) The image is as far behind the mirror
as the object is in front of it.
(b) The image is erect and virtual.
(c) The size of the image is same as that
of the size of the object.
(d) Since the image formed is behind the
 mirror it can be taken on the screen.

3. An expression for linear magnification

(m) produced by a spherical mirror
(for Real image) is given by,
f −v
(a) m =
f
v− f
(b) m =
f
f
(c) m =
f −v
f
(d) m =
v− f

4. Match the corresponding entries of

column I with column II [Where m is
the magnification produced by the
mirror]
Column I Column II

(A) m = −2 (i) Convex mirror

 1 (ii) Concave mirror
(B) m = −
2
(C) m = +2 (iii) Real image

1 (iv) Virtual image

(D) m = +
2
(a) A→(iv), B→(i), C→(ii), D→(iii)
(b) A→(iii), (ii), B→(i), C→(iv), (ii),
D→(ii)
(c) A→(i), (ii), B→(ii), (iii), C→(ii), (iv),
D→(i), (iv)
(d) A→(iv), B→(iii), C→(i), D→(ii)

5. An object is placed in front of a concave

mirror of radius of curvature 40 cm at a
distance of 10 cm. The position, nature
and magnification of the image is
(a) At 20 cm, behind the mirror, real,
inverted and m = 2
(b) At 20 cm, behind the mirror, virtual,
erect and m = −2
(c) At 20 cm, behind the mirror, virtual,
erect and m = 2
(d) At 20 cm, behind the mirror, real,
inverted and m = −2

6. An object 1 cm tall is placed 4 cm in

front of a mirror. In order to produce
an upright image of 3 cm height, one
needs a
(a) convex mirror of radius of curvature
12 cm
(b) concave mirror of radius of curvature
12 cm
(c) concave mirror of radius of curvature
4 cm
(d) plane mirror of height 12 cm

7. A ray of light strikes a transparent

 p
rectangular slab of refractive index 2
at an angle of incidence of 45°.
The angle between the reflected and
refracted rays is
(a) 30°
(b) 90°
(c) 105°
(d) 120°

8. One face of a rectangular glass plate 6

cm thick is silvered. An object held 8
cm in front of the first face, forms an
image 12 cm behind the silvered face.
The refractive index of the glass is
(a) 0.4
(b) 0.8
(c) 1.2
(d) 1.6
 9. If a convex lens of focal length 80 cm
and a concave lens of focal length 50
cm are combined together, what will be
the power of combination ?
(a) +0.65 D
(b) −0.65 D
(c) +0.75 D
(d) −0.75 D

10. A ray of light passes through an

equilateral prism (refractive index 1.5)
such that angle of incidence is equal to
angle of emergence and the latter is
equal to 3/4th of the angle of prism.
The angle of deviation is
(a) 60°
(b) 30°
(c) 45°
(d) 120°
11. The aperture of a telescope is made
large
(a) to increase the intensity of image
(b) to decrease the intensity of image
(c) to have greater magnification
(d) to have lesser resolution

12. The focal lengths of objective and eye

piece of astronomical telescope are 2 m
and 5 cm respectively. The magnifying
power of telescope when final image
formed at infinity is
(a) −2.5
(b) −10
(c) −40
(d) −80
 š Answers
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 ` Chapter 10
Wave Optics

Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
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1. A cylindrical wavefront is formed with
(a) a source of infinite distance
(b) an extended source
(c) a point source at infinite distance
(d) a point source at finite distance

2. The refractive index of glass is 1.5 for

light waves of λ = 6000 Å in vacuum.
Its wavelength in glass is
(a) 2000 Å
(b) 4000 Å
(c) 1000 Å
(d) 3000 Å

3. A glass slab of thickness 7 cm contains

the same number of waves as 9 cm of
water, when a monochromatic light
passes through them. The ratio of
wavelength of light in glass to that in
 water will be: [Refractive index of
water is 4/3]
(a) 9/7
(b) 7/9
(c) 3/7
(d) 7/3

4. In Young’s double slit experiment two

disturbances arriving at a point P
π
have phase difference of . The
3
intensity of this point expressed as a
fraction of maximum intensity I0 is

3 3
(a) I0 (b) I0
2 4

2 4
(c) I0 (d) I0
3 3
5. The colour of bright fringe nearest to
central achromatic fringe in the
interference pattern with white light
will be:
(a) Violet
(b) Red
(c) Green
(d) Yellow

6. Interference phenomenon can take

place
(a) in all waves
(b) in transverse waves only
(c) in longitudinal waves only
(d) in standing waves only

7. The necessary condition for an

interference by two sources of light is
that the
(a) two light sources must have the same
 wavelength.
(b) two point sources must have the same
amplitude.
(c) two sources should have the same
wavelength, nearly the same
amplitude and should have a constant
phase difference.
(d) two point sources should have a
randomly varying phase difference.

8. In Young’s double slit experiment the

slits are separated by 0.28 mm and the
screen is placed 1.4 m away. The
distance between the central and
fourth bright fringe is measured to be
1.2 cm. The wavelength of light used
in the experiment is
−8
(a) 6 × 10 m
−7
(b) 6 × 10 m
−7
(c) 3 × 10 m
 −8
(d) 3 × 10 m

9. Young’s experiment is performed with

light of wavelength 6000 Å wherein 16
fringes occupy a certain region on the
screen. If 24 fringes occupy the same
region with another light of
wavelength λ, then λ is
(a) 3000 Å
(b) 400 Å
(c) 500 Å
(d) 4000 Å

10. Light of wavelength 600 nm is incident

on an aperture of size 2 mm. The
distance up to which light can travel
such that its spread is less than the size
of the aperture is
(a) 1.67 m
(b) 2.67 m
 (c) 5.67 m
(d) 6.67 m

11. In a Fraunhofer diffraction at single slit

of width d with incident light of
wavelength 5500, the first minimum is
◦
observed, at angle 30 . The first
secondary maximum is observed at an
angle θ = ?
 
−1 1
(a) sin p
3 2
1
 ‹
−1
(b) sin
3
p 
−1 3
(c) sin
2
3
 ‹
−1
(d) sin
4

12. A transparent thin plate of a polaroid is

placed on another similar plate such
 that the angle between their axes is
60°. The intensities of the emergent
and the unpolarised incident light will
be in the ratio of
(a) 1 : 8
(b) 8 : 1
(c) 3 : 8
(d) 8 : 3

13. The relation between refractive index

of the in medium and angle of
polarisation is called
(a) Brewster’s law
(b) Malus law
(c) Bragg’s law
(d) Lambert’s law

14. Polaroid sheets are placed one over the

other with their axes inclined to each
other at angle θ . If only 12.5% of the
intensity of light incident on first sheet
emerges from the second sheet, the
value of θ is
(a) 30
(b) 45
(c) 60
(d) 90
 š Answers
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 ` Chapter 11
Dual Nature of Matter and
Radiation

Publisher : Libgen Books

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 1. Which of the following statements is
correct regarding the photoelectric
experiment ?
(a) The photocurrent increases with
increase in frequency
(b) Stopping potential increases with
increase in intensity of incident light
(c) The photocurrent increases with
intensity of light
(d) All of the these

2. In photoelectric experiment if both the

intensity and frequency of the incident
light are doubled, then the saturation
of photoelectric current
(a) becomes four times
(b) is doubled
(c) is halved
(d) remain same
3. The number of photoelectrons emitted
per unit time depends on ν > ν0
(a) threshold frequency
(b) frequency of the incident radiation
(c) density of the metal irradiated
(d) intensity of the incident radiation

4. The phenomenon inverse to

photoelectric effect is
(a) production of X-rays
(b) pair production
(c) Raman effect
(d) Compton effect

5. Which one of the following is true in

photoelectric emission ?
(a) The threshold frequency depends
upon the wavelength of incident light.
(b) Above the threshold frequency, the
 maximum kinetic energy of
photoelectrons is inversely
proportional to the frequency of
incident light.
(c) Number of photoelectrons emitted is
directly proportional to the intensity
of light of a given frequency at
moderate intensities.
(d) Photoelectric current is directly
proportional to the amplitude of light
of a given frequency.

6. Light of two different frequencies

whose photons have energies 1 eV and
2.5 eV respectively, successively
illuminate a metallic surface whose
work function is 0.5 eV. Ratio of
maximum speeds of emitted electrons
will be
(a) 1 : 4
 (b) 1 : 1
(c) 1 : 5
(d) 1 : 2

7. Ultraviolet light of wavelength 280 nm

is used in an experiment on photo
electric effect with lithium
(φ = 2 5. eV) cathode
(a) The stopping potential is 4.4 eV
(b) The maximum kinetic energy is 4.4 eV
(c) The stopping potential is 1.9 V
(d) The maximum kinetic energy is 1.9 eV

8. To observe the effect of intensity of

light on photocurrent,
(i)collector is maintained at positive
potential with respect to emitter
(ii)frequency of incident light is kept fixed
(iii)accelerating potential is fixed
(iv)distance of source from emitter is kept
constant
Which of the above statements are
correct ?
(a) (i), (ii), and, (iii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (ii)

9. From rest an electron is accelerated

between two such points which has
potential 20 and 40 volts respectively.
Associated de-Broglie wavelength of
electron is
(a) 27.5 Å
(b) 2.75 Å
(c) 7.5 Å
(d) 0.75 Å
10. A radiation of wavelength 2000 Å
incident on the metal surface, with
work function 5.01 eV. What is the
potential difference must be applied to
stop the fastest photoelectron emitted
by metal surface ?
(a) 4.19 eV
(b) 3.19 eV
(c) 6.19 eV
(d) 1.19 eV

11. _______ crystal is used to scatter

electron in the Davisson and Germer
Experiment.
(a) Silver
(b) Calcite
(c) Nickel
(d) Cobalt
12. Dimensions of Planck’s constant will be
2 −2 2 2 −1
ML T M L T
(a) −1
(b) −2
T LT
2 2 −2 2 3 −1
M LT M L T
(c) −2
(d) −2
T LT
 š Answers
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 ` Chapter 12
Atoms

Publisher : Libgen Books

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1. In a Geiger-Marsden experiment. Find
the distance of closest approach to the
nucleus of a 7.7 MeV α before it comes
momentarily to rest and reverses its
direction. (Z for gold nucleus = 79):
(a) 40 fm
(b) 30 fm
(c) 20 fm
(d) 10 fm

2. In the Geiger-Marsden scattering

experiment, in case of head-on collision
the impact parameter should be:
(a) zero
(b) minimum
(c) infinite
(d) maximum
3. Which of the following spectral series
falls within the visible range of
electromagnetic radiation?
(a) Pfund series
(b) Paschen series
(c) Balmer series
(d) Lyman series

4. The shortest wavelength present in the

Paschen series of spectral lines is
(a) 820 nm
(b) 800 nm
(c) 790 nm
(d) 720 nm

5. When an electron jumps from the

fourth orbit to the second orbit, one
gets the
(a) second line of Lyman series
(b) first line of Pfund series
 (c) second line of Balmer series
(d) second line of Paschen series

6. If the mass of the electron is reduced to

half, the Rydberg constant
(a) becomes one fourth
(b) becomes half
(c) becomes double
(d) remains unchanged

7. Which of the following is true?

(a) The spectral series formula can be
derived from the Rutherford model of
the hydrogen atom.
(b) Balmer series is a line spectrum in the
ultravio- let.
(c) Paschen series is a line spectrum in the
infrared.
(d) Lyman series is a continuous spectrum.
8. The wavelength of radiation emitted is
λ0 when an electron jumps from the
third to second orbit of hydrogen atom.
For the electron jumping from the
fourth to the second orbit of the
hydrogen atom, the wavelength of
radiation emitted will be:
25
(a) λ0
16
27
(b) λ0
20
20
(c) λ0
27
16
(d) λ0
25

9. What is the energy of the electron

revolving in third orbit expressed in eV
(a) 4 eV (b) 4.53 eV
(c) 3.4 eV (d) 1.51 eV
 š Answers
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 ` Chapter 13
Nuclei

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 27
1. If the nucleus of 13Al has a nuclear
125
radius of about 3.6 fm, then 52Te
would have its radius approximately as
(a) 4.8 fm
(b) 12 fm
(c) 9.6 fm
(d) 6 fm

2. Which of the following cannot be

emitted by radioactive substances
during their decay?
(a) Helium nuclei
(b) Electrons
(c) Protons
(d) Neutrinos

3. When a microgram of matter is

converted to energy, the amount of
energy released will be
 10
(a) 9 × 10 J
7
(b) 9 × 10 J
4
(c) 3 × 10 J
17
(d) 9 × 10 J

4. If in a nuclear fusion reaction, mass

defect is 0.3% then energy released in
fusion of 1 kg mass
12
(a) 27 × 10 J
13
(b) 27 × 10 J
10
(c) 27 × 10 J
11
(d) 27 × 10 J

5. When
high energy alpha-particles

4
2 He pass through nitrogen gas, an
isotope of oxygen is formed with the
emission of particles named X . The
nuclear reaction for the same is
14
7 N + 4
2 He → 17
8 O + X
 What it is the name of X ?
(a) Positron
(b) Proton
(c) Neutron
(d) Electron

6. An electron emitted in beta radiation

originates from
(a) photon escaping from the nucleus
(b) decay of a neutron in a nuclei
(c) free electrons existing in the nuclei
(d) inner orbits of atom

7. A uranium nucleus (atomic number 92,

mass number 238) emits an alpha
particle and the resultant nucleus emits
a beta-particle. The atomic and mass
numbers respectively of the final
nucleus are
(a) 92, 232
 (b) 90, 236
(c) 90, 240
(d) 91, 234

8. Complete the series

+
6
He → e + Li+?
6

(a) neutron
(b) proton
(c) antineutrino
(d) neutrino

9. Half-lives of two radioactive elements

A and B are 20 minutes and 40
minutes, respectively. Initially, the
samples have equal number of nuclei.
After 80 minutes, the ratio of decayed
numbers of A and B nuclei will be
(a) 1 : 16 (b) 5 : 4
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1
 š Answers
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 ` Chapter 14
Semiconductors

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 1. When arsenic is added as an impurity
to silicon, the resulting material is
(a) n-type conductor
(b) n-type semiconductor
(c) p-type conductor
(d) p-type semiconductor

2. A p-type semiconductor is,

(i) a silicon crystal doped with arsenic
impurity.
(ii) a silicon crystal doped with aluminium
impurity.
(iii) a germanium crystal doped with boron
impurity.
(iv) a germanium crystal doped with
phosphorus impurity.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) only (i) is correct

3. In a common base mode of a transistor,

the collector current is 5.488 mA for an
emitter current of 5.60 mA. The value
of the base current amplification factor
(β) will be
(a) 49
(b) 50
(c) 51
(d) 48

4. A common emitter amplifier has a

voltage gain of 50, an input impedance
of 100 Ω and an output impedance of
200 Ω. The power gain of the amplifier
is
(a) 500 (b) 1000
(c) 1250 (d) 50
5. A transistor is operated in common
emitter configuration at VC = 2V such
that a change in the base current from
100 µA to 300 µA produces a change
in the collector current from 10 mA to
20 mA. The current gain is
(a) 50
(b) 75
(c) 100
(d) 25

6. When npn transistor is used as an

amplifier
(a) electrons move from base to collector
(b) holes move from emitter to base
(c) electrons move from collector to base
(d) holes move from base to emitter
7. Which one of the following truth table
represents an AND gate

A B Y
0 0 1
(a) 1 0 0
0 1 0
1 1 0

A B Y
0 0 1
(b) 0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1

A B Y
0 0 0
(c) 0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1
 A B Y
0 0 1
(d) 1 0 1
0 1 1
1 1 0

8. The circuit given in figure, is equivalent

to

(a) OR gate
(b) NOR gate
(c) AND gate
(d) NAND gate
 9. In an n-p-n transistor circuit, the
collector current is 10 mA. If 90% of
the electrons emitted reach the
collector, the emitter current (I E ) and
base current (I B ) are given by:
(a) I E = −1mA, I B = 9mA
(b) I E = 9mA, I B = −1mA
(c) I E = 1mA, I B = 11mA
(d) I E = 11mA, I B = 1mA

10. A semiconductor has equal electron

8 −3
and hole concentration of 6 × 10 m .
On doping with certain impurity,
electron concentration increases to
12 −3
9 × 10 m . The new hole
concentration is
5 −5
(a) 4 × 10 m
4 −5
(b) 4 × 10 m
5 −5
(c) 4 × 10 m
6 −5
(d) 4 × 10 m
11. An intrinsic Germanium (Ge)
29
semiconductor having 2.5 × 10 atoms
3
per m is doped uniformly by trivalent
aluminum at 1 ppm. If the thermally
generated electron concentration at
room temperature is ni = 10 /m , the
17 3

resulting electron concentration after

doping at the some temperature will be
8 −3
(a) 2.5 × 10 m
10 −3
(b) 4 × 10 m
18 −3
(c) 2.5 × 10 m
20 −3
(d) 4 × 10 m

This question was asked in ICAR UG

AIEEA 2019
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 ` Chapter 15
Communication Systems

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1. The loss of strength of a signal while
propagating through a medium is
known as
(a) reception
(b) absorption
(c) transmission
(d) attenuation

2. A transducer used at the transmitting

end, serves the purpose of converting
(a) electrical signal to sound form
(b) sound signal to electrical form
(c) electrical signal to magnetic form
(d) sound signal to magnetic form

3. Through which mode of propagation

can the radio waves be sent from one
place to another ?
(a) Ground wave propagation
(b) Sky wave propagation
(c) Space wave propagation
(d) All of these

4. The maximum line of sight distance d M

between two antennas having heights
h T and hR above the earth is
(a) R (h T + hR)
p

(b) 2R/ (h T + hR)

p

(c) Rh T + 2RhR
p p

(d) 2Rh T + 2RhR

p p

5. The mode of propagation used by short

wave broadcast services is
(a) space wave
(b) sky wave
(c) ground wave
(d) both (a) and (c)
6. A transmitting antenna at the top of a
tower has a height 30 m and the height
of the receiving antenna is 50 m. What
is the maximum distance between
them for satisfactory communication in
line of sight mode? Given radius of
6
earth 6.4 × 10 m
(a) 44.9 km
(b) 44.8 km
(c) 44 km
(d) 4.48 km

7. Frequencies in the UHF range normally

propagate by means of
(a) ground waves
(b) sky waves
(c) surface waves
(d) space waves
8. Troposphere reflects the waves having
frequencies from
(a) 100 MHz to 200 MHz
(b) 2 MHz to 30 MHz
(c) 0 Hz to 20 kHz
(d) 20 Hz to 20 kHz

9. In space wave propagation, the relation

between height of antenna (h) and
range of transmission is (radius of
earth = R)
p
(a) d = 2Rh
(b) d = 2Rh
(c) d = (2h)1/3

(d) d = h
10. The maximum amplitude of an
amplitude modulated wave is found to
be 15 V while its minimum amplitude
is found to be 3 V. The modulation
index is
(a) 3/2
(b) 1/2
(c) 2/3
(d) 2

11. Range of frequencies allotted for

commercial FM radio broadcast is
(a) 88 to 108 MHz
(b) 8 to 88 MHz
(c) 88 to 108 kHz
(d) 8 to 99 kHz
12. For an amplitude modulated wave, the
maximum amplitude is found to be 12
V and minimum amplitude is found to
be 4 V. The modulation index of this
wave is
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 20%
 š Answers
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 d CUET 2022
î Biology PYQs
` 18th August Slot 1

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š 2022 18th Aug Slot 1
1. The protein formed by the encoded
gene expression in a heterologous
host is called
(a) Structural protein
(b) Recombinant protein
(c) Transposone
(d) Prohormone

Recombinant protein

Option (B) is the correct answer as any

protein encoding gene is expressed in a
heterologous host is called
recombinant protein.
Option (a) is incorrect as structural
proteins are the most abundant class of
proteins in nature and form structural
elements.
 Option (C) is incorrect as transposons
are repetitive DNA sequences that have
the capacity to move from one location
to another in genome.
Option (D) is incorrect as prohormones
are the precursors of hormones

2. A kind of population interaction in

which one species benefits and the
other is neither harmed nor benefited?
(a) Commensalism
(B) Ammensalism
(C) Mutualism
(D) Parasitism

Commensalism
Commensalism is a type of population
interaction where one species benefits
and the other remains unaffected. It
 can also be denoted by (+, 0)

3. Fruit which develop only from the

ovary are called-
(a) False fruits
(b) Parthenocarpic fruits
(c) True fruits
(d) Apomictic fruits

True fruits
True fruits are developed only from
ovary while in false fruits, parts other
than ovary also contributes.

4. Algal blooms do not cause-

(a) Imbalance in ecosystem dynamics
(b) Deterioration of the water quality
and fish mortality
(c) Reduction in BOD
(d) Increase in organic matters in water
body

Reduction in BOD
Algal blooms are formed by
overproduction of algae in
nutrient-rich or eutrophicated
water-bodies. They can cause harmful
effects on aquatic species by increasing
organic matter and thus BOD of water
body increases too.

5. Observe the given figure and name

the step used in Recombinant DNA
Technology
 (a) Selecting
(b) Scrolling
(c) Spiraling
(d) Spooling

Spooling

Option (D) is the correct answer as the

given figure represents the process of
spooling which is a method of
extraction of substance like DNA in the
form of a spool over a glass rod.

6. Perisperm differs from endosperm is

that it is-
(a) Haploid having reserve food
(b) Polyploid having reserve food
(c) Triploid having no reserve food
(d) Diploid having no reserve food
 Diploid having no reserve food

Perisperm is remnant of nucellus and

thus is diploid. Endosperm is triploid
nutritious tissues Both endosperm and
perisperm store reserve food.

7. Identify and name the two parts in a

flower which are most important units
of sexual reproduction?

(a) 1 - Style, 3 - stamen

(b) 4 - filament, 6 - thalamus
(c) 3 - Anther, 7 - ovary
(d) 2 – Stigma, 5 - sepals
 3 - Anther, 7 - ovary

In the question, most important units

of sexual reproduction are asked which
are Anther and ovary. So correct option
is (C).

8. Density of population tells us about-

(a) total number of individuals of a
species
(b) total area occupied by a species
(c) number of individuals present per
unit space in a given time
(d) population growth in a particular
time span

number of individuals present per

unit space in a given time
 Pollution density generally measured
as number of individuals of species
present in unit space in a given time.
Percent cover or biomass can also be
used for measuring population density

9. Select the hormones produced in

women only during pregnancy
(a) Estrogen
(b) Human chronic gonadotroph
(c) Progesterone
(d) Human placental lactogen
(e) Relaxin
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
(a) B and D only
(b) B and E only
(c) A, B and C only
(d) B, D and E only
 B, D and E only

Option (D) is the correct answer as,

hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin),
hpL (human placental lactogen) and
relaxin are produced in humans only
during pregnancy. Estrogen and
progesterone are also secreted in a
non-pregnant woman.

10. Which of the following is not an

example of terrestrial ecosystem?
(a) Wetland
(b) Grassland
(c) Forest
(d) Desert

Wetland
 Wetland is an aquatic ecosystem. Rest
all are examples of terrestrial
ecosystems.

11. Transfer of an ovum collected from a

donor into fallopian tube is called
method.
(a) ZIFT
(b) ICST
(c) GIFT
(d) IVF

GIFT
Option (C) is the correct answer as:
GIFT is the method of transfer of ovum
collected from a donor into the
fallopian tube of another female who
cannot produce one, but can provide
suitable environment for fertilisation.
 Option (A) is not the correct answer as
ZIFT stands for the transfer of zygote
(upto 8 blastomeres) into the fallopian
tube.
Option (B) is not the correct answer as
ICSI is the method of injecting the
sperms directly into the ovum in-vitro.
Option (D) is not the answer as IVF
stands for in- vitro fertilisation.

12. Given below are two statements: one

is labelled as Assertion A and the
other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Leydig cells synthesise
and secrete male testicular hormones
called androgens.
Reason R: Androgens, stimulate the
process of spermatogenesis. In the
light of the above statements, choose
 the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct are R is
NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is not correct
(d) A is not correct but R is correct

Both A and R are correct and R is the

correct explanation of A

Option (A) is the correct answer as at

the age of puberty due to significant
increase in the secretion of
gonadotropin releasing hormone there
is an increase in the secretion of
gonadotropins i.e., LH and FSH. LH
acts on the Leydig cells and stimulates
synthesis and secretion of androgens.
13. The inactive protoxin gets converted
into an active form due to the
(a) Alkaline pH of insect’s gut
(b) Temperature and acidic pH of gut
(c) Exposure to light
(d) Exposure to light and acidic pH of
gut

Alkaline pH of insect’s gut

Option (a) is the answer as the Bt toxin

protein exist as inactive protoxins but
once an insect ingests the inactive
toxin, it is converted into an active
form of toxin due to alk

14. Which of the following gets

embedded in the endometrium during
implantation?
 (a) Zygote
(b) Morula
(c) Blastocyst
(d) Embryo

Blastocyst

Option (C) is the answer as the

blastocyst gets embedded in the
endometrium of the uterus.
Option (A) is not the answer as zygote
is single – celled and it divides
mitotically to develop into morula
(8-16 celled).
Option (B) is not the answer as morula
continues to divide and transforms into
blastocyst.
Option (D) is not the answer as embryo
with 8 blastomeres is called morula.
15. Introduction of which one of the
following organism’s species did cause
decline or extinction of indigenous
species?
(a) Eicchornia Crassipes
(b) Nile Perch
(c) Clarias gariepinus
(d) Steller’s Sea cow

Steller’s Sea cow

The correct option given by NTA is
option (D) but as per NCERT it should
be option (B).
The Nile perch introduced into Lake
Victoria led eventually to the extinction
of ecologically unique assemblage of
more than 200 species of cichlid fish in
the lake. Clarias gariepinus, African
catfish pose threat to the indigenous
 catfish in our rivers. Eicchornia cause
environmental damage and pose threat
to our native species. Stellar’s sea cow
got extinct due to overexploitation by
humans.

16. Match List I with List II

LIST I
(a) Progestasert
(b) Saheli
(c) Lippe’s Loop
(d) Periodic abstinence
LIST II
(I) once a week pill
(II) hormone releasing IUD
(III) Non-medicated IUD
(IV) Natural method of birth control
 Choose the correct answer from the
options given below :
(a) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
(b) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
(c) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
(d) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV

Option (C) is correct answer because

Progestasert is a hormone-releasing
IUD.
Saheli is a ‘once a week’ pill.
Lippe’s loop is a non-medicated IUD.
Periodic abstinence or rhythm method
is a natural method of contraception in
which couples abstain sexual
intercourse from day 10 to 17 of a 28
days menstrual cycle.
17. The vital link that ensures continuity
of species between organisms of one
generation and the next generation is
(a) Male gamete
(b) Female gamete
(c) Zygote
(d) Syngamy

Zygote

The vital link that ensures continuity of

species between organisms of one
generation and the next generation is
the zygote.
The process of fusion of gamete is
called syngamy and it results in
formation of diploid zygote.
Gametes are reproductive cells of a
sexually reproducing organisms.
18. In case of COVID positive patients,
presence of corona virus is suspected
only when the pathogen has produced
a disease symptom. But when the
symptoms of the disease has not
appeared, the corona virus in the
body can be detected by–
(a) Enzyme linked immuno-sorbent
Assay (ELISA) only
(b) Recombinant DNA technology only
(c) Reverse transcriptase Polymerase
ChainReaction (RT-PCR)
(d) Widal Test

Reverse transcriptase Polymerase

ChainReaction (RT-PCR)

Option (C) is the correct answer

because in RT-PCR, RNA of retrovirus is
reverse transcripted with the help of
 enzyme reverse transcriptase. DNA
formed is amplified with the help of
PCR. So a minute quantity of corona
virus can be detected with the help of
RT-PCR. ELISA is based on antigen –
antibody reaction. Widal test is a
diagnostic test for typhoid.

19. Bacillus thuringiensis is a biocontrol

agent against
(a) Nematode
(b) Fungal pathogen
(c) Insect pests
(d) Bacterial pathogen

Insect pests

Bacillus thuringiensis is a biocontrol

agent against insect pests.
It is introduced in the field crop in
 order to control butterfly caterpillars
(larva)

20. Arrange the following events in the

female reproductive cycle in their
natural sequence.
(a) Ovulation
(b) Growth of corpus luteum
(c) Sudden increase in level of LH
(d) Secretion of FSH
(e) Growth of ovarian follicle and
oogenesis
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
(a) E - D - A - B – C
(b) D - E - C - A - B
(c) E - C - A - D – B
(d) D - A - C - E - B
 D-E-C-A-B
Option (B) is the correct answer
because the correct sequence of the
events in the female reproductive cycle
is :
D – Secretion of FSH
E – FSH leads to the growth of ovarian
follicles into a fully mature Graafian
follicle
C – During the mid of menstrual cycle,
there is sudden increase in the level of
LH (LH surge)
A – LH surge leads to ovulation
B – It is followed by luteal phase in
which the remaining parts of the
Graafian follicle transform as the
corpus luteum.
21. Which of the following methods are
commonly used in DNA
fingerprinting?
(a) Genetic transformation
(b) PCR and RFLP
(c) Bioprospecting
(d) Molecular diagnosis

PCR and RFLP

PCR and RFLP are used in DNA
fingerprinting to increase the
sensitivity of the technique.
Bioprospecting is defined as exploring
molecular, genetic and species level
diversity for products of economic
importance.
Molecular diagnosis is referred to as
detection of genomic variant.
22. Which layer of microsporangium is
nutritive in function?
(a) Epidermis
(b) Endothecium
(c) Middle Layers
(d) Tapetum

Tapetum

Tapetum is innermost wall layer of

microsporangium and it provides
nourishment to developing pollen
grains.
Outer three wall layers, epidermis,
endothecium and middle layers
perform the function of protection and
help in dehiscence of anther to release
pollen.
23. Match List I with List II
LIST I
(a) Catalytic converter
(b) Incinerators
(c) Electrostatic precipitator
(d) Sewage treatment plant
LIST II
(I) Particulate matter
(II) Organic waste
(III) Hospital Waste
(IV) Carbon monoxide and nitrogen
oxides
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
(a) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I
(b) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
(c) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
(d) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
 A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

When exhaust passes through catalytic

converter then carbon monoxide and
nitrogen oxide are converted to carbon
dioxide and nitrogen gas.
The use of incinerator is crucial for
disposal of hospital waste.
Electrostatic precipitator can remove
over 99particulate matter. In sewage
treatment plant biodegradation of
organic matter occurs by
microorganisms.
24. During gene therapy, which vector is
used to introduce functional ADA
cDNA into lymphocyte
(a) Plasmid
(b) Bacteriophage
(c) pBR322
(d) Retrovirus

Retrovirus
Option (D) is correct answer because
disarmed retrovirus is used as a vector
to introduce functional ADA cDNA into
the lymphocytes, which are
subsequently returned to the patient.
Plasmids are extra chromosomal
double stranded circular DNA present
in most of the bacteria.
Bacteriphages are viruses which infect
bacteria. pBR322 is a plasmid vector of
 E. coli.

25. The animals that feed on herbivores

like insects, birds and mammals in
terrestrial ecosystem, are called
(a) Saprotrophs
(b) Primary consumers
(c) Secondary carnivores
(d) Primary carnivores

Primary carnivores

The animals that feed on herbivores

are called primarycarnivores. These
are also called secondary consumers.
Herbivores are primary consumers.
Secondary carnivores feed on primary
carnivores. Saprotrophs are
decomposers. They act over the dead
organic matter.
26. Recombinant Proteins are expressed
in
(a) Cloning vector
(b) Heterology Host
(c) Homologous chromosomes
(d) Promotor

Heterology Host

(B) is the correct answer because

recombinant proteins are expressed in
heterologous host. The hosts which
have foreign gene are called
heterologous hosts.
Option (C) is not the answer because
chromosomes which are similar and
present together are called homologous
chromosomes. Option (A) is not the
answer because cloning vectors are
used in genetic engineering for gene
 transformation. Option (D) is not the
answer because promotor is a type of
gene which is helpful in protein
synthesis.
27. The chemical carcinogens present in
tobacco smoke is the major cause of
(a) AIDS
(b) Lung Cancer
(c) Allergy
(d) Pneumonia

Lung Cancer

Option (B) is the correct answer as the

chemical carcinogens present in
tobacco smoke have been identified as
a major cause of lung cancer.
Option (A) is not the answer as AIDS is
caused by HIV. It is a sexually
transmitted disease.
 Option (C) is not the answer as allergy
is defined as the exaggerated response
of the immune system towards certain
antigens present in the environment.
Option (D) is not the answer
pneumonia is a bacterial disease of
respiratory tract.

28. Match the features that are required

to facilitate cloning of alien DNA into
a vector
List I (Features to facilitate)
(a) Origin of replication (ori)
(b) Selectable Marker
(c) Cloning sites
(d) Vectors for cloning genes in plants
 List II (Cloning Vector)
(I) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(II) Recognition sites commonly used for
restriction enzymes
(III) Helps in identifying and eliminating
non-transformants
(IV) Sequence from where replication
starts
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below
(a) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(d) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Option (A) is the correct answer

because
Origin of the replication (ori) is the
sequence from where the replication
starts.
Selectable markers in vector help in
identifying and eliminating
non-transformants and selectively
permitting the growth of the
transformants.
Cloning sites are the recognition sites
commonly used for restriction
enzymes.
Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used as a
cloning vector for plants. It is called as
natural genetic engineer of plants.
29. Which of the following is effect of
steroid in males?
(a) Premature baldness
(b) Deepening of voice
(c) Excessive hair growth on face and
body
(d) Enlargement of clitoris

Premature baldness
Option (A) is the correct answer
because the side effects of the use of
anabolic steroids in males include
premature baldness, increased
aggressiveness, breast enlargement,
etc.
The side-effects of the use of anabolic
steroids in females include
masculinisation, deepening of voice,
excessive hair growth on face and body,
 enlargement of clitoris and abnormal
menstrual cycles.

30. Which of the following cells produce

antibodies?
(a) Monocytes
(b) PMNL neutrophils
(c) T-lymphocytes
(d) B- lymphocytes

B- lymphocytes

Option (D) is the correct answer

because the B-lymphocytes produce an
army of proteins in response to
pathogens into our blood to fight with
them. These proteins are called
antibodies.
The T-cells themselves do not secrete
antibodies but help B cells to produce
 them.
Neutrophils and monocytes are
phagocytic cells included under cellular
barriers of innate immunity.

31. Nutrient cycles are of two types:

(a) Gaseous and solid
(b) Liquid and sedimentary
(c) Gaseous and sedimentary
(d) Aquatic and Gaseous

Gaseous and sedimentary

Nutrient cycles are of two types:

(i) Gaseous cycle – Biogeochemical is
non- mineral. Exchange of nutrients
occur in gaseous or vapour form.
Reservoir pool is atmosphere or
hydrosphere.
e.g. Nitrogen, Carbon, Oxygen and
 Hydrogen cycle. (ii) Sedimentary cycle
– Biogeochemical is mineral. Reservoir
pool is earth’s crust or lithosphere.
e.g. Sulphur and Phosphorus cycle.

32. Technology of biogas production in

India was developed due to the efforts
of
(A) GEAC
(B) ICAR
(C) IARI
(D) IRRI
(E) KVIC
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) C and D only
(c) B and D only
(d) C and E only
 C and E only

The technology of biogas production

was developed in India mainly due to
the efforts of Indian Agricultural
Research Institute (IARI) and Khadi
and Village Industries Commission
(KVIC)

33. The bacterium responsible for

breakdown of cellulose in a biogas
plant is
(a) Acetobacter aceti
(b) Lactobacillus
(c) Clostridium
(d) Methanobacterium

Methanobacterium
 Certain bacteria, which grow
anaerobically on cellulosic material,
produce large amount of methane
along with CO2 and H2. These bacteria
are collectively called Methanogens,
and one such common bacterium is
Methanobacterium.

34. With reference to processing of hn

RNA, which of the following
statements is/are INCORRECT?
(A) Introns are removed and exons are
joined directly splicing.
(B) Capping and Tailing occurs at 5 end
and 3 end respectively.
(C) Addition of 200-300 adenylated
residues means capping.
(D) Addition of guanosine triphosphate
takes place at 5 end.
(E) Processing take place in the nucleus
and converts hn RNA into functional
RNA.
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below
(a) B only
(b) C only
(c) B and C only
(d) B and D only

C only

During processing of hn RNA,

(i) Splicing occurs which is removal of
introns and joining of exons in a
defined order.
(ii) Methyl guanosine triphosphate is
added at 5 end of hn RNA. This is
called capping.
(iii) Tailing occurs by the addition of
 adenylate residues of about 200 – 300
at 3 end of hn RNA.
(iv) The fully processed hn RNA is
called mRNA and it is transported out
of the nucleus for translation.

35. Match List I with List II

List I (Name of scientists)
(A) Alec Jeffreys
(B) Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod
(C) Marshall Nirenberg
(D) Meselson Stahl
List II (Discovery)
(I) Lac Operon
(II) Deciphering of genetic code
(III) Semiconservative replication of DNA
(IV) DNA Fingerprinting
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
(a) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(b) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(c) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(d) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

The technique of DNA fingerprinting

was developed by Alec Jeffreys.
Jacob and Monod proposed the model
of gene regulation, known as Operon
model, in bacteria.
Nirenberg and Matthaei used a
synthetic poly U RNA and deciphered
the genetic code by translating this as
polyphenylalanine.
Meselson and Stahl proved the
semi-conservative model of DNA
replication in E. coli
36. The pyramid of biomass in sea is
generally inverted because:
(a) Sunlight is filtered through sea
water leading to less photosynthesis
(b) Of the high salt content of sea water
(c) The biomass of phytoplankton far
exceeds that of fishes
(d) The biomass of fishes far exceeds
that of phytoplankton

The biomass of fishes far exceeds that

of phytoplankton

In sea ecosystem, pyramid of biomass

is generally inverted, because the
biomass of fishes far exceeds the
biomass of producers (phytoplanktons)
and primary consumers
(zooplanktons), due to their large size
and longer life span.
37. One of the following is NOT a
characteristic/criteria of genetic
materials, identify it:
(a) Genetic material should be able to
generate its replica
(b) Genetic material should be stable
chemically and structurally
(c) It should not provide the scope for
mutations
(d) It should be able to express itself in
the form of Mendelian characters.

It should not provide the scope for

mutations
A molecule that can act as genetic
material must fulfil the following
criteria:
(I) It should be chemically and
structurally stable.
 (II) It should be able to generate its
replica
(III It should provide scope for slow
mutation that are required for
evolution.
(IV) It should be able to express itself in
the form of Mendelian characters.

38. Adenine pairs with Thymine through

how many hydrogens bonds?
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5

2
Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds
with thymine from opposite strand in a
DNA molecule. Similarly, guanine is
bonded with cytosine with three
hydrogen bonds.
39. A pure breeding garden pea plant was
crossed with a pure dwarf plant. The
plant produced 400 seeds. The seeds
were sown to produce plants. The
phenotype of the plants in next
generation will be

(a) All tall

(b) All dwarf
(c) 300 tall and 100 dwarf plants
(d) All plants of intermediate height

All tall

Tallness and dwarfness in pea plants

are dominant and recessive traits
respectively. The cross can be
represented as follows:
40. If in a pond there were 150 carps
found last year and through
reproduction 450 new carps are
added in the pond, what will be the
birth rate here?
(a) 4 offsprings per carp per year
(b) 3 offsprings per carp per year
(c) 2 offsprings per carp per year
(d) 1 offspring per carp per year

3 offsprings per carp per year

 Given : Number of individuals last year
(N ) = 150
Number of individuals added in one
year (∆N ) = 450
Time period (∆T ) = 1 year
∆N 450
Birth rate = =
N∆t 150 × 1
= 3 offsprings per carp per year

41. When the life appear on the earth

after its formation?
(a) After 200 million years
(b) After 300 million years
(c) Atter 500 million years
(d) After 250 million years

Atter 500 million years

Option (C) is the correct answer

because life appeared 500 million years
 after the formation of earth, i.e.,
almost four billion years ago.

42. According to the early Greek thinkers,

the unit of life which were transferred
to different planets were-
(a) Spores
(b) Water
(c) Oxygen
(d) Methane

Spores

Option (A) is the correct answer

because according to the early Greek
thinkers, the unit of life called spores
were transformed to different planets
including earth. It is still a favourite
idea of some astronomers.
43. Louis Pasteur by careful
experimentation demonstrated that
life comes from-
(a) Killed yeast
(b) Rotting matter
(c) Other plants
(d) Pre-existing life

Pre-existing life

Option (D) is the correct answer

because Louis Pasteur by careful
experimentation demonstrated that life
comes from pre-existing life. Theory of
spontaneous generation stated that
living organisms arise from decaying
and rotting matter. This was
experimentally disproved by Louis
Pasteur.
44. Oparin and Haldane proposed the
theory that the first form of life could
have come from-
(a) Non-living organic molecules
(b) Inorganic molecules
(c) UV rays
(d) CO2 and water

Non-living organic molecules

Option (A) is the correct answer

because Oparin and Haldane proposed
that the first forms of life could have
come from pre-existing non-living
molecules (e.g. RNA, protein etc.) and
that formation of life was preceded by
chemical evolution.
45. The theory of Chemical evolution was
studied and tested in laboratory by–
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) S.L. Miller
(c) Louis Pasteur
(d) Haldane

S.L. Miller
Option (B) is the correct answer
because based on the hypothesis
proposed by Oparin and Haldane, S.L.
Miller provided an experimental
evidence of the chemical evolution in
1953 in a laboratory set-up. Louis
Pasteur dismissed the theory of
spontaneous generation once and for
all.
46. The explant used in tissue culture
must show
(a) Encystation
(b) Sporulation
(c) Dioecy
(d) Totipotency

Totipotency

The capacity to generate a whole plant

from any cell/explant is called
totipotency. Therefore, the explant
used in tissue culture must show
totipotency. Formation of cyst in
unfavourable conditions by unicellular
organisms is called encystation.
Sporulation is the production of spores
by the organisms such as fungi. Having
male and female sex organs in different
individuals is called dioecy.
47. Virus free plants of banana are
developed by using
(a) Protoplasts
(b) Meristem
(c) Cotyledon
(d) Leaf

Meristem
Pathogen free clones of plants can be
obtained through meristem culture
because meristem is free of virus due to
high concentration of auxins and rapid
rate of cell division.
48. Pomato is developed by
technique.
(a) Micropropagation
(b) Mutation breeding
(c) Biofortification
(d) Somatic hybridization

Somatic hybridization

Pomato was developed by somatic

hybridization (protoplast fusion) of two
different genera tomato and potato. It
is intergeneric somatic hybrid. The
method of producing thousands of
plants through tissue culture is called
micropropagation. Biofortification is
breeding of crops for higher level of
nutrients. Mutation breeding can make
crops resistant against diseases.
49. In tissue culture, the nutrient medium
usually contains as a carbon
source.
(a) Sucrose
(b) Maltose
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Calcium carbonate

Sucrose
In tissue culture, the nutrient medium
usually contains sucrose as carbon
source.
50. Protoplasts are obtained by digestion
of of the cells
(a) Nuclei
(b) Plasma membranes
(c) Cell walls
(d) Proteins

Cell walls
For protoplast fusion, the two cells of
desired plants are first treated with
enzymes pectinase and cellulase. These
enzymes dissolve the cell wall and as a
result naked protoplasts are produced.
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š 2022 17th August Slot 1
1. In a face centred cubic unit cell of
close packed atoms, the radius of
atom (r ) is related to the edge length
‘a’ of the unit cell by the expression
a a
(A) r = p (C) r = p
2 2p 2
a 3a
(B) r = (D) r =
2 4
Answer (C)

For a FCC unit cell atom touches each

other along a face diagonal, that can
be represented as
p
2a = 4r
a
r= p
2 2
 2. Which of the following arrangements
represents alignment of magnetic
moments of Ferrimagnetic
substance?
(A) ↑↑↓↑↓↑↑↑
(B) ↑↑↑↑↑↑↑↑
(C) ↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓
(D) ↑↓↑↓↑↓↑↓

Answer (A)

3. An alloy of Cu, Ag and Au is found to

have Cu constituting the CCP lattice.
If Ag atoms occupy edge centres, and
Au is present at body centre, then the
alloy has formula

(A) Cu4Ag2Au (C) Cu4Ag3Au

(B) Cu4Ag4Au (D) CuAgAu

Answer (C)
 Cu forming CCP, so number of Cu = 4
Ag occupying edge centre, so number
1
of Ag = 12 × = 3
4
Au present at body centre, so number
of Au = 1
Formula = Cu4Ag3Au

◦
4. What is ∆G for the given reaction?
2+ 2+
Zn(s) + Cu (aq) −→ Zn (aq) + Cu(s)
0 0
EZn2+/Zn = −0.76 V ECu2+/Cu = +0.34 V
−1
F = 96500 C mol
◦
(A) ∆G = −212.3 kJ/mol
◦
(B) ∆G = +212.3 kJ/mol
◦
(C) ∆G = −312.5 kJ/mol
◦
(D) ∆G = 0

Answer (A)
 ◦ ◦
∆G = −nF E
For given cell reaction, n = 2
◦ ◦ ◦
Ecell = Ecathode − Eanode
= 0.34 − (−0.76)
= 1.1 V
◦
∆G = −2 × 96500 × 1.1
= −212.3 kJ/mol

5. How many electrons flow when a

current of 5 amperes is passed
through a metal for 193 s ?
−1
(Given: F = 96500 c mol ,
23 −1
NA = 6.022 × 10 mol )
23
(A) 6.022 × 10 electrons
21
(B) 6.022 × 10 electrons
21
(C) 3.011 × 10 electrons
23
(D) 3.011 × 10 electrons

Answer (B)
 Charge Q = it
= 5 × 193 = 965
965
C= = 0.01 F
96500
1 F = charge of 1 mole electrons
0.01 F = charge of 0.01 mole electrons
23
= charge of 6.02 × 10 × 0.01 electrons
21
= charge of 6.02 × 10 electrons

6. Kohlrausch law of independent

migration of ion is applicable to
(A) Only to weak electrolytes at a certain
concentration
(B) Only to strong electrolytes at all
concentrations
(C) To both - strong and weak
electrolytes
(D) To non-electrolytes

Answer (C)
 Kohlrausch law of independent
migration of ions :
The law states that limiting molar
conductivity of an electrolyte can be
represented as the sum of the
individual contributions of the anion
and cation of the electrolyte.

7. In the first order reaction the

concentration of the reactant is
1
reduced th in 60 minutes, what will
4
be its half-life ?
(A) 120 minutes
(B) 40 minutes
(C) 30 minutes
(D) 25 minutes
Answer (C)
 For first order reaction
t 1/4 = 2t 1/2
2t 1/2 = 60
t 1/2 = 30 min

8. Which of the following is the correct

relationship between time required
for completion of 99.9% of a first
order reaction and its half-life ?
(A) t 1 = 5 × t 99.9%
2
(B) t 99.9% = 10 × t 1
2
(C) t 99.9% = 2t 1
2
(D) t 99.9% = t 1
2

Answer (B)
 For first order reaction

a0
µ ¶
2.303
t= log
k a0 − x
if a 0 = 100M at t = t99.9% x = 99.9M
µ ¶
2.303 100
t 99.9 = log
k 100 − 99.9
3 × 2.303 6.93
= =
k k
0.693
Since t 1 =
2
k
µ ¶
0.693
t99.9 = × 10
k
t99.9 = 10t1
2

9. A catalyst increases the rate of

reaction by:
(A) Decreasing enthalpy of reactants
(B) Increasing internal energy of
reactants
(C) Decreasing activation energy of
reaction
(D) Increasing activation energy of
reaction
Answer (C)

•Catalyst affects activation energy of

any chemical reaction.
•It increases rate of reaction by
decreasing the activation energy of
reaction.

10. Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
A. Gem stone I. Emulsion
B. Milk II. Solid sol
C. Cloud III. Foam
D. Froth IV. Aerosol
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below :
 (A) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(C) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(D) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Answer (B)

11. Consider the case when a highly

diluted solution of KI is added to
AgNO3 solution. Arrange the
following in the increasing order of
ease of coagulation of the resulting
sol.

A. BaSO4 C. Na3PO4
B. NaCl D. K4[Fe(CN)6]
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below :

(A) A < C < B < D (C) A < B < C < D

(B) D < C < A < B (D) B < A < C < D
 Answer (D)

Since highly diluted KI is added into

AgNO3 solution, the resultant colloidal
solution will be positive charged due
+
to excess Ag .
This positively charged sol will be
coagulated by anion of electrolyte.
Electrolyte having anion with higher
negative charge will have more ease of
coagulation.
Hence order will be
NaCl < BaSO4 < Na3PO4 < K4[Fe(CN)6]

12. Which of the following conditions

can be used to change physical
adsorption of a gas to chemical
adsorption ?
(A) Decrease in temperature
(B) Increase in temperature
(C) Using catalyst
(D) Increasing surface area of adsorbent

Answer (B)

A physical adsorption at low

temperature may pass into
chemisorption as the temperature is
increased.
For example, dihydrogen is first
adsorbed on nickel by van der Waals
force.
Molecules of hydrogen then dissociate
to form hydrogen atoms which are
held on the surface by chemisorption.
13. Which of the following graph(s) are
for First Order Reactions ?

(A) (a) and (d) only

(B) (b) and (c) only
(C) (a), (d) and (e) only
(D) (c) and (e) only

(a) and (d) only

14. Consider the statements for the
metallurgical processes and select
the correct statements :
(A) Malachite is an ore of copper
(B) Bauxite is an ore of aluminium
(C) Calamine is an ore of Zinc
(D) Haematite is an ore of iron
(E) Siderite is an ore of Zinc
Choose the correct statement from the
options given below :
(A) A, B, E and D only
(B) A and B only
(C) A, B, C and D only
(D) A only

Answer (C)
 Name Formula Ore of
Malachite CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 Cu
Bauxite AlOx(OH)3−2x Al
Calamine ZnCO3 Zn
Haematite Fe2O3 Fe
Siderite FeCO3 Fe

15. Arrange the following molecules in

the increasing order of number of
P – OH bonds present in it

(A) H4P2O6 (C) H3PO4

(B) H3PO2 (D) H3PO3
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below :

(A) B < C < D < A (C) D < B < A < C

(B) B < D < C < A (D) D < C < B < A

Answer (B)
16. Arrange the following in the
decreasing order of acidity :

(A) H2O (C) H2Te

(B) H2S (D) H2Se
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below :

(A) D > C > B > A (C) A > B > C > D

(B) C > D > B > A (D) A > B > D > C

Answer (B)
 Acidic character increases from H2O to
H2Te.
The increase in acidic character can be
explained in terms of decrease in bond
enthalpy for the dissociation of H-E
bond down the group.
Owing to the decrease in enthalpy for
the dissociation of H-E bond down the
group, the thermal stability of
hydrides also decreases from H2O to
H2Te.

17. Which of the following molecules

have linear shape ?

(A) XeF2 (C) XeF6

(B) XeF4 (D) XeO3

Answer (A)
 3
XeF2 → sp d → linear
3 2
XeF4 → sp d → square planar
3 3
XeF6 → sp d → Distorted octahedral
3
XeO3 → sp → Pyramidal

18. Which of the following statements

about d-block elements are NOT
correct ?
(A) They show variable oxidation states
(B) They exhibit paramagnetic and
diamagnetic properties
(C) All of their ions are coloured
(D) They exhibit catalytic property

Answer (C)

All of the ion of d-block element are

0 10
not coloured, those with d or d
configuration are generally colourless.
19. The spin only magnetic moment of
3+
Cr ion in BM is :

(A) 1.73 (C) 4.89

(B) 3.87 (D) 3.57

Answer (B)

3+ 3
Cr ⇒ [Ar ]3d
3 unpaired
p electrons
µ = 3(3 + 2)BM
p
= 15BM
= 3.87BM

20. Select the correct statements for the

d-block and f-block elements:
(A) The maximum oxidation state shown
by manganese is +6.
3+
(B) Sc (Scandium) is colourless
(C) Brass is an alloy of Copper and Zinc
(D) Lanthanide series included a total of
 15 elements
(E) V2O5 (Vanadium Pentaoxide) is used
in the manufacturing of sulphuric
acid (by contact process).
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below :

(A) A and B only (C) B, C and E only

(B) A, B and E only (D) B, C and D only

Answer (C)
 •Mn can show +7 as maximum
oxidation state e.g. KMnO4
3+ 0
•Sc is colourless due to d
configuration
•Brass consist 60% Cu and 40% Zn
•Lanthanide series consists 14
elements
•V2O5 is used as a catalyst in
manufacturing of sulphuric acid by
contact process.

21. The IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] is :

(A) Diammine dichlorido platinum (II)
(B) Diammine dichlorido platinum (IV)
(C) Diammine dichlorido platinum (0)
(D) Diimmine dichlorido platinum (IV)

Answer (A)
 [pt(NH3)2Cl2]
IUPAC - Diammine dichlorido
platinum (II)

22. Match List I with List II

List I : (Property)
(A) Transition metal can act as catalyst
(B) Zr and Hf have similar atomic radii
(C) Transition metals form complex
compounds
(D) Transition metals ions are coloured
List II : (Reason)
(I) Due to their high ionic charges,
small size and availability of
d-orbitals
(II) Unpaired electrons in d-orbitals of
metal ions
(III) Ability to adopt multiple oxidation
states and to form complexes
(IV) As consequence of Lanthanoid
contraction
Choose the correct answer from the
option given below :
(A) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(B) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(C) A-III, B-IV-, C-I, D-II
(D) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-III
Answer (C)

23. The donor atoms in ethylene

diamine tetra acetate ions are :
(A) Two N and two O atoms
(B) Two N and four O atoms
(C) Four N and two O atoms
(D) Three N and Three O atoms
Answer (B)

Donor atoms are two N and four O

atoms
24. Indicate the complex ion which does
not show geometrical isomerism :
+
(A) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]
(B) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
3+
(C) [Pt(NH3)6]
3–
(D) [Co(CN)4(NC)2]
Answer (C)

[M(A)6]
Type of complex cannot show
geometrical isomerism

25. Which of the following is the

electronic configuration of the
central metal atom/ion of
2+
[Co(H2O)6] complex ion ?
6 1 5 2
(A) t 2g e g (C) t 2g e g
4 3 6 0
(B) t 2g e g (D) t 2g e g

Answer (C)
 2+
For [Co(H2O)6] H2O will be weak
field ligand as Co is present in +2
oxidation state. Hence electronic
5 2
configuration is, t 2g e g

26. Identify the compound Y in the

following reaction :
+ −
NH2 N2 Cl

NaNO2+HCl Cu2Cl2
−−−−−−−→ −−−−→ Y + N2
278K
(A) Chlorobenzene
(B) Benzene
(C) m− Chlorobenzene
(D) p− Chlorobenzene
Answer (A)

Sandmeyer’s reaction :

27. Consider the following bromides :

 (I) −→ 1-Bromobutane
(II) −→ 3-Bromobutene
(III) −→ 2-Bromobutane
The correct order of reactivity towards
SN 1 reaction is :

(A) I > II > III (C) II > I > III

(B) II > III > I (D) III > II > I

Answer (B)

Reactivity towards SN 1 depends upon

stability of carbocation
Order of stability II > III > I

28. Aryl halides can not be prepared by

the reaction of aryl alcohols with
PCl3, PCl5 or SOCl2 because :
(A) Phenols are highly stable
compounds
(B) Carbon-oxygen bond in phenols has
 a partial double bond character
(C) Carbon-oxygen bond is highly polar
(D) Phenyl cation is stabilised by
resonance

Answer (B)

Carbon-oxygen bond in phenol has a

partial double bond character due to
resonance, so it is very difficult to
break. Hence it cannot be used for
preparation of aryl halide by PCl3,
PCl5 or SOCl2

29. Jones Reagent is :

(A) KMnO4 | H2SO4
(B) K2Cr2O7 | H2SO4
(C) CrO3 | H2SO4
(D) KMnO4 | KOH

Answer (C)
 Chromium trioxide (CrO3) in acidic
media (Jones reagent).

30. Match List I with List II

List I :
Names of drug
(A) Ranitidine
(B) Valium
(C) Codeine
(D) Chloramphenicol
List II :
Class of drugs
(I) Tranquilizer
(II) Narcotic Analgesic
(III) Antibiotic
(IV) Antacid
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below :
(A) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
 (B) A-IV, B-II, C-II, D-I
(C) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(D) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Answer (A)

31. Match List I with List II

List-I
Given pair of organic compounds can
be distinguished by
(1) Ethanal/Propanal
(2) Ethanol/Ethanoic acid
(3) Butanal/Butan-2-one
(4) Benzaldehyde/Ethanal
List-II
Tests
(I) Sodium Hydrogen carbonate test
(II) Fehling’s Test
(III) Tollen’s Test
(IV) Iodoform Test
 Choose the correct answer from the
options given below :
(A) 1 – IV, 2 – I, 3 – II, 4 – III
(B) 1 – III, 2 – II, 3 – IV, 4 – I
(C) 1 – IV, 2 – I, 3 – III, 4 – II
(D) 1 – I, 2 – II, 3 – III, 4 – IV
Answer (C)

32. Identify A and B in the following

reaction :
N H3 2C H3C l
C6H5CH2Cl −−−→ A −−−−−→ B
(A) A = C6H5CH2NH2 ,
B = C6H5CH2NH–CH3
(B) A = C6H5CH3, B = C6H5CH2CH3
(C) A = C6H5CH2NH2,
B = C6H5CH2 N CH3

CH3
(D) A = C6H5CH3, B = C6H5CH2CH2CH3
 Answer (C)

C6H5CH2Cl + NH3 −→
C6H5CH2NH2 + HCl
CH3
2C H3C l
(A) −−−−−→ (B) C6H5CH2 N
CH3

33. Out of the following compounds,

which is the most basic in aqueous
solution ?

(A) CH3—NH2 (C) (CH3)3N

(B) (CH3)2NH (D) C6H5NH2

Answer (B)

Order of basic strength in aqueous

solution :
(CH3)2NH > CH3—NH2 > (CH3)3N >
C6H5NH2
34. Arrange the following in increasing
order of their boiling points :

A. (C2H5)2NH C. C2H5N(CH3)2
B. n-C4H9NH2 D. n-C4H9OH
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below :

(A) B < C < A < D (C) C < A < B < D

(B) C < B < A < D (D) C < D < B < A

Answer (C)

For isomeric Amine order of boiling

point is 1° > 2° > 3°
Alcohol has high BP than amine with
same number of carbon due to
stronger H-bonding.
Hence order C < A < B < D

35. Which of the following is an essential

amino acid ?
 (A) Glycine (B) Alanine
(C) Glutamine (D) Valine
Answer (D)

Valine is an essential amino acid as it

cannot be synthesised in body.

36. In nucleic acids, the Nucleotides are

joined together by
(A) Glycosidic linkage
(B) Phosphodiester linkage
(C) Hydrogen bonds
(D) Weak intermolecular forces
Answer (B)

Nucleotides are joined together by

phosphodiester linkage between 5 and
3 carbon atom of pentose sugar.

37. The letter ‘D’ in carbohydrates

signifies
 (A) Dextrorotatory
(B) Configuration
(C) Diamagnetic character
(D) Optical activity

Answer (B)

The letter ‘D’ in carbohydrates

signifies the substitution orientation
at a centre of chirality i.e.,
configuration.

38. Which of the following monomeric

pair is used to make polymer Nylon
6, 6 ?
(A) Hexane-1, 6 dioic acid and Hexane
-1, 6-diamine
(B) Ethane-1, 2-dioic acid and
Benzene-1, 4-dicarboxylic Acid
(C) Urea and Methanal
(D) Phenol and Methanol
 Answer (A)

Nylon-6, 6 is a copolymer of Hexane-1,

6-dioic acid and Hexane-1, 6-diamine.
nHHN – (CH2)6−NHH + nHOOC−
polymerise
(CH2)4−COOH −−−−−−−→
(−NH−(CH2)6NH−CO – (CH2)4 – CO−)n
Nylon-6, 6

39. Which amongst the following

antibiotics is an example of narrow
spectrum antibiotic ?
(A) Vancomycin
(B) Chloramphenicol
(C) Amoxycillin
(D) Penicillin G
Answer (D)
 Narrow spectrum antibiotics are
effective mainly against Gram-positive
or gram-negative bacteria.
eg : Penicillin G.

40. Which of the following polymers are

obtained by chain growth
polymerisation ?
(A) Orlon
(B) Nylon
(C) Teflon
(D) Nylon 2 - nylon 6
(E) Dacron
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below :

(A) A, E only (C) A, D only

(B) A, C only (D) C, E only

Answer (B)
 Chain growth polymers or addition
polymers are formed by the repeated
addition of monomers molecules
possessing double or
à triple bonds. !
polymerise
nCH2 CH −−−−−−−→ CH2 CH
n
CN CN
Acrylonitrile Orlon
polymerise
³ ´
nCF2=CF2 −−−−−−−→ − CF2 − CF2 −
n
Tetrafluoroethene teflon

41. Isotonic solutions are the solutions

with :
(A) Same vapour pressure
(B) Same temperature
(C) Same osmotic pressure
(D) Same volume
Answer (C)
 Solutions having same osmotic
pressure are known as isotonic
solutions.

42. An unripe mango placed in a

concentrated salt solution to prepare
pickle shrivels because :
(A) It gains water via osmosis
(B) It loses water via reverse osmosis
(C) It gains water via reverse osmosis
(D) It loses water via osmosis

Answer (D)

In osmosis flow of solvent take place

from dilute solution to concentrated
solution.

43. Adding a salt to water leads to

increase in the boiling point of
solution with respect to water
 because :
(A) Vapour pressure of solution is
increased
(B) Solubility of salt in water is increased
(C) Solubility of salt in water is
decreased
(D) Vapour pressure of solution is
decreased

Answer (D)

On adding salt to water, chances of

vapour formation decreases so vapour
pressure decreases as a result boiling
point of solution increases.

44. Salt is used to clear snow on the roads

covered with snow to :
(A) Decrease the freezing point
(B) Increase the boiling point
(C) Increase the osmotic pressure
(D) Increase the solubility of salt

Answer (A)

Salt is used to clear snow on the roads

covered with snow to decrease the
freezing point.

45. Which of the following is a colligative

property ?
(A) Vapour pressure
(B) Osmotic pressure
(C) Freezing point
(D) Boiling point

Answer (B)
Osmotic pressure is a colligative
property as it depends on the number
of particles present in the solution.
Passage :
Ethers are class of organic compounds
that contain ether group – an oxygen
atom connected to two alkyl groups or
aryl groups.
They have the general formula
R – O – R’ where R and R’ represents
the alkyl or aryl groups.
Ether, like water have a tetrahedral
3
geometry i.e., oxygen is sp hybridised.
The C – O – C bond angle in ethers is
slightly greater than the tetrahedral
angle due to repulsive interactions
between the two bulky groups when
they are attached to oxygen.
46. Which of the following cannot be
made by using Williamson Synthesis?
(A) Methoxybenzene
(B) Benzyl p-nitro phenyl ether
(C) tert-Butyl methyl ether
(D) Di-tert-Butyl ether

Answer (D)

Williamson’s synthesis :
∆
R — X + R’ONa −−→ ROR’ + NaX
3°-alkyl Halide not form ether actually
they undergo elimination reaction.
CH3 CH3
− + ∆
CH3 C Cl + CH3 C O Na −−→
CH3 CH3
CH3
CH3 C CH2

47. The IUPAC name of the ether

 CH2 = CH — CH2 — O — CH3 is
(A) Alkyl methyl ether
(B) 1-Methoxyprop-2-ene
(C) 3-Methoxyprop-1-ene
(D) Vinyl dimethyl ether

Answer (C)

CH2 = CH — CH2 — O — CH3 :

3-Methoxyprop-1-ene

48. Dehydration of alcohol to ethers is

catalysed by :
(A) Conc. H2SO4 at 413 K
(B) Hot & NaOH
(C) Hot & HBr
(D) Hot & HNO3
Answer (A)
 Dehydration of alcohols into ether
take place in presence of Conc. H2SO4
at 140°C
H2SO4
2 CH3CH2OH −−−− ◦
→ C 2 H5 OC 2 H5 + H2 O
140 C

CH3
HI
49. CH O CH3 −→ A + B,
CH3
A and B are
CH3
(A) CH I + CH3OH
CH3
CH3
(B) CH OH+CH3I
CH3
CH3
(C) H3C C OH
CH3
(D) CH3OH + CH3I
 Answer (B)

OC2H5

50. + HBr → A + B, A and B are

OH

(A) + C2H5Br

Br

(B) + C2H5OH

OC2H5
Br
(C) + H2O
 OC2H5 OC2H5
Br
(D) +

Br
Answer (A)
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