› Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
Click the website link to open the webpage
d Website will be live
within few days
› www.cuet.pw
d CUET UG Mock Test
î Free General Test is
regularly conducted
by www.cuet.pw for
free. Simply Go to
our website and
download and
start solving.
d Website will be live
within few days
› www.cuet.pw
› Publisher : Libgen Books
www.cuet.pw
Click the website link to open the webpage
› All the books, PDFs,
Mock Test, General Test
and Chapterwise PYQs
published by www.cuet.pw
are fully optimized for
mobile reading and
convenient for your eyes.
› www.cuet.pw website will be
live after 14th or 15th March
š What’s Inside this Crashup
§ 700+ PYQs ChapterWise of
Physics and Chemistry
§ NTA ICAR UG(2019-2022)
ChapterWise PYQs of Physics and
Chemistry
§ Solutions of CUET Chapterwise
Mock Test conducted by
www.cuet.pw
§ CUET 2022 Chemistry Solved Papers
§ Will be available in secured PDF
format (.drmz)
› Publisher : Libgen Books
www.cuet.pw
Click the website link to open the webpage
d Website will be live
within few days
› www.cuet.pw
 ` Chapter 1
Reproduction in
Organisms

Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
Click the website link to open the webpage
 1. Find the false statement.
(A) In yeast unequal division leads to bud
formation.
(B) When off spring is produced by a
single parent with or without the
involvement of gamete formation, the
reproduction is asexual.
(C) Size of crows and parrots are not very
diff erent yet their life span shows a
wide diff erence.
(D) In binary fission cell divides in
unequal parts.
(a) Only B and D
(b) Only C
(c) Only D
(d) Only A and B
 2. What are the units of vegetative
propagation in plants?
(a) Runners and rhizomes
(b) Suckers and bulbs
(c) Tuber and offset
(d) All of these

3. Sexual reproduction when compared to

asexual reproduction is a

(a) Slow process (c) Simple process

(b) Fast process (d) Complex process
(a) A and D only
(b) A and C only
(c) B and D only
(d) B and C only
 4. Pre-fertilization events among these are
(a) Syngamy
(b) Gametogenesis and gamete transfer
(c) Formation of zygote
(d) Embryogenesis

5. Gametes are generally

(a) Haploid
(b) Triploid
(c) Diploid
(d) Hexaploid

6. Transfer of pollen grains from anther to

stigma is known as
(a) Emasculation
(b) Pollination
(c) Bagging
(d) Fertilization
 7. The most critical event in sexual
reproduction is
(a) Gametogenesis
(b) Gamete transfer
(c) Fertilization (Syngamy)
(d) Embryogenesis
8. Assertion : Asexual as well as sexual
modes of reproduction are exhibited by
the higher plants.
Reason : Only sexual mode of
reproduction is present in most of the
animals.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
 is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

9. Assertion : Humans are called

continuous breeders.
Reason : Humans are reproductively
active throughout.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.
10. Assertion : Sexual reproduction is a
simple and fast process.
Reason : Asexual reproduction is a
complex and slow process
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.
11. Assertion : Organisms exhibiting
external fertilization releases large
number of gametes in to the
surrounding medium.
Reason : It will enhance the chance of
syngamy.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.
12. Assertion : Budding and gamete
formation are the common asexual
methods seen in animals.
Reason : Asexual method does not
involve the formation and fusion of
gametes.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.
 š Answers
Click the website link given below to
get the solutions
www.cuet.pw

› Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
www.cbse.page
www.libgen.co.in
Click the website links to open the webpage
 ` Chapter 2
Sexual Reproduction in
Flowering Plant

Publisher : Libgen Books

www.icar.pw
Click the website link to open the webpage
 1. Flowers convey important human
feelings such as
(a) Love and affection
(b) Happiness and grief
(c) Mourning
(d) All of these

2. When does plant decides to flower?

(a) In embryonic development
(b) During the appearance of flower buds
(c) Before the actual flower appear on
plant
(d) All the above

3. Whorl of petals in flower represents

(a) Gynoecium
(b) Androecium
(c) Calyx
(d) Corolla
4. Which of the following layer of
microsporangium provides
nourishment to the developing anther?
(a) Middle layers
(b) Tapetum
(c) Endothecium
(d) Epidermis
5. The bigger cell that receives abundant
food and has irregularly shaped
nucleus is called
(a) Generative cell
(b) Vegetative cell
(c) Germ cell
(d) Sperm cell
6. The spindle-shaped cell with dense
cytoplasm and nucleus in pollen grain
is called
(a) Vegetative cell (c) Sperm cell
(b) Generative cell (d) Egg cell
 7. Viability of pollen grains depend upon
(a) A particular species
(b) Prevailing temperature
(c) Humidity
(d) All of the above

8. Rice pollen grains are viable for

(a) 6.0 mins
(b) 30 mins (approx)
(c) 60 mins (approx)
(d) 40 mins
 9. Assertion : Pollen grains are well
preserved as fossils.
Reason : Pollen posses sporopollenin.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.
10. Assertion : Coconut water is a cellular
endosperm.
Reason : White kernel of coconut is a
free nuclear endosperm.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.
11. Assertion : Seed is the basic tool for
agriculture.
Reason : Dehydration and dormancy
of mature seed is not crucial for the
storage of seeds.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.
12. Assertion : Polyembryony is found in
all angiosperm.
Reason : All angiosperm are produced
by apomixis.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.
 š Answers
Click the website link given below to
get the solutions
www.cuet.pw

› Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
www.cbse.page
www.libgen.co.in
Click the website links to open the webpage
 ` Chapter 3
Human Reproduction

Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
Click the website link to open the webpage
1. The cells which secrete androgens are
(a) Spermatozoa
(b) Interstitial cells
(c) Sertoli cells
(d) Germ cells

2. What is indicated by c in the figure?

(a) Vasa efferentia
(b) Rete testis
(c) Epididymis
(d) Vas deferens

3. The secretion of which gland helps in

the lubrication of penis ?
(a) Seminal vesicle
(b) Prostate
(c) Bulbourethral
(d) Epididymis
 4. he ovarian stroma is divided into zones
(a) Peripheral medulla and inner cortex
(b) Peripheral epithelia and inner
endothelia
(c) Peripheral cortex and inner medulla
(d) Peripheral endothelia and inner
epithelia

5. Birth canal is formed by

(a) Cervical canal + Uterus
(b) Cervical canal + Vagina
(c) Cervical canal + Isthmus
(d) Cervical canal + Fallopian tube

6. External thin membranous layer of

uterus is known as
(a) Pleura
(b) Pericardium
(c) Perimetrium
 (d) Periosteum

7. Which layer of uterus undergoes cyclic

changes during menstrual cycle ?
(a) Mesoderm
(b) Myometrium
(c) Endothelium
(d) Endometrium

8. Assertion : Androgens stimulate the

process of spermatogenesis.
Reason : FSH acts on sertoli cells and
stimulates the secretion of some factors
which helps in the process of
spermiogenesis.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
 explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

9. Assertion : Only one sperm can

fertilize ovum.
Reason : A sperm when comes in
contact with zona pellucida layer of the
ovum, some changes occur in
membrane that blocks the entry of
other sperm.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
 is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

10. Assertion : Human are viviparous.

Reason : Human are sexually
reproducing organism.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

11. Assertion : Proximal end of fallopian

tube (infundibulum) possess fimbriae
 (finger like projection).
Reason : Fimbriae help in catching of
ovum after ovulation.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

12. Assertion : Doctors use to inject

oxytocins to induce delivery.
Reason :Oxytocin causes uterine
contraction which helps in delivery.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
 explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.
 š Answers
Click the website link given below to
get the solutions
www.cuet.pw

› Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
www.cbse.page
www.libgen.co.in
Click the website links to open the webpage
 ` Chapter 4
Reproductive Health

Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
Click the website link to open the webpage
 1. CDRI stands for
(a) Contraceptive Drug Research Institute
(b) Central District Research Institute
(c) Central Drug Research Institute
(d) Central Dermatologic Research
Institute

2. Coitus interrupts/withdrawal method

concerns with
(a) Withdrawal of penis from vagina
before ejaculation
(b) Withdrawal of penis from vagina after
ejaculation
(c) Prevention of coitus
(d) Alternate prevention of coitus

3. Multiload 375 is a
(a) Disease resistant crop
(b) New viral vector
 (c) Intrauterine Device
(d) Biological warfare device

4. In tubectomy, which part of

reproductive system is removed and/or
tied up ?
(a) Cervix
(b) Oviduct
(c) Uterus
(d) Ovary

5. In India, which gender is generally

wrongly blamed for being infertile ?
(a) Woman
(b) Man
(c) Either man or woman
(d) Genetic factors

6. Fertilization outside the body in almost

similar conditions as that in the body is
 termed as
(a) In vitro fertilization
(b) Ex vivo fertilization
(c) In vivo fertilization
(d) Ex vitro fertilization

7. WHO refers reproductive health as

(a) Physically healthy reproductive organ
(b) Functionally healthy reproductive
organ
(c) Normal emotional and behavioural
interaction among people in all sex
related aspects.
(d) All the above

8. Assertion : Couple avoid coitus from

day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle and
it is one of the easy method of
contraceptions.
 Reason : Ovulation occurs during
these days (fertile period) so there is
no chance of conception by abstaining
from coitus during this period
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

9. Assertion : Spermicidal creams, jellies

and foams are usually used along with
nutrients.
Reason : All of the above products
increases their contraceptive efficiency.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

10. Assertion : As long as mother breast

feeds the child fully, chances of
conception are almost nil.
Reason : Menstrual cycle and
ovulation do not occur during the
period of intense lactation.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

11. Assertion : Coitus interruptus is

method of contraception.
Reason : It prevents insemination.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
 false.

12. Assertion : STDs are a major threat to

a healthy society.
Reason : Complication of STDs are
PID, abortions, still births, infertility,
ectopic pregnancies and even cancer of
the reproductive tract.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.
 š Answers
Click the website link given below to
get the solutions
www.cuet.pw

› Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
www.cbse.page
www.libgen.co.in
Click the website links to open the webpage
 ` Chapter 5
Principles of Inheritance
and Variation

Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
Click the website link to open the webpage
1. The dwarfness in plants of F2
generation is
(a) Recessive
(b) Dominant
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

2. In Mendelism, the linkage was not

observed due to
(a) Mutation
(b) Independent assortment
(c) Synapsis
(d) Crossing over

3. In hybridization, Tt × tt gives rise to

the progeny of ratio
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1
 (d) 1 : 2 : 1

4. In a monohybrid cross, 120 plants are

obtained. The ratio of homozygous and
heterozygous will be
(a) 40 : 80
(b) 60 : 60
(c) 20 : 100
(d) 10 : 110

5. In a plant, red fruit (R) is dominant

over yellow fruit (r) and tallness (T) is
dominant over shortness (t). If a plant
with RRTt genotype is crossed with a
plant that is rrtt, then
(a) 75 per cent will be tall with red fruit
(b) All the offspring will be tall with red
fruit
(c) 25 per cent will be tall with red fruit
(d) 50 per cent will be tall with red fruit
6. In Mendelian dihybrid cross, how
many individuals are homozygous
recessive for one of the character only
in F2 generation ?
1
(a)
16
2
(b)
16
3
(c)
16
6
(d)
16

7. Who noted that the behaviour of

chromosomes was parallel to the
behaviour of genes and uses
chromosome movement to explain
Mendel’s law ?
(a) T. H. Morgan
(b) Hugo de Vries
 (c) Sutton and Boveri
(d) Beadle and Tatum

8. Assertion : In a monohybrid cross F1

generation indicates recessive
characters.
Reason : Dominance occurs only in
homozygous state.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.
 9. Assertion : In humans, the gamete
contributed by the male determines
whether the child produced will be
male or female.
Reason : Sex in human is a polygenic
trait depending upon a cumulative
effect of some gene on X-chromosomes
and some on Y-chromosomes.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

10. Assertion : PKU leads to mental

 retardation
Reason : Phenylpyruvic acid and their
derivatives are accumulated in brain in
PKU.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

11. Assertion : Cystic fibrosis is Mendelian

disorder.
Reason : Tuners syndrome is
chromosomal disorder.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
 are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

12. Assertion : UV radiation is mutagen.

Reason : UV radiation can cause
mutation in organism.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
 is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.
 š Answers
Click the website link given below to
get the solutions
www.cuet.pw

› Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
www.cbse.page
www.libgen.co.in
Click the website links to open the webpage
 ` Chapter 6
Molecular Basis of
Inheritance

Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
Click the website link to open the webpage
 1. A nucleotide has the following
components
(a) A phosphate group, nitrogenous base,
a hexose sugar
(b) A phosphorous base, nitrogenous
group, a ribose sugar
(c) A nitrogenous base, phosphate group,
a ribose sugar
(d) A nitrogenous base, phosphate group,
a hexose sugar

2. In the context of genetic material,

nucleotide consists of
(a) N-base, Ribose sugar, Phosphate group
(b) N-base, Hexose sugar, Phosphate
group
(c) Nucleoside + Phosphate
(d) Both (a) and (c)
 3. Friedrich Miescher
(a) Identified DNA as a basic substance
and named it ‘Nucleotide’ in 1896.
(b) Identified DNA as an acidic substance
and named it ‘Nuclein’ in 1896.
(c) Identified DNA as an acidic substance
and named it ‘Nuclein’ in 1869.
(d) None of the above

4. J. D. Watson and F.H. Crick utilized

X-ray diffraction data produced by
(a) Rosalind Wilkins and Maurice Franklin
(b) Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin
(c) Sutton and Boveri
(d) None of these

5. The length of human DNA is

approximately
(a) 2.2 meters considering all cells of body
(b) 3.1 meters considering only one cell
(c) 2.2 meters considering only one cell
(d) None of these

6. ‘Beads-on-string’ structure can be

viewed under
(a) Light microscope
(b) Compound microscope
(c) Confocal laser microscope
(d) Electron microscope

7. In the nucleus, the region of chromatin

which is loosely packed is known as
(a) Heterochromatin
(b) Chromatin fibres
(c) Euchromatin
(d) Chromosome

8. Assertion : Chargaff rule is applicable

to RNA.
 Reason : RNA is a double standard
molecule.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

9. Assertion : DNA polymerase-I acts as

proofreader.
Reason : DNA polymerase-I removes
mismatched nucleotides.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

10. Assertion : Cytoplasmic inheritance

occurs only due to plasmagenes.
Reason : Plasmagenes are restricted to
only nucleus.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

11. Assertion : DNA replication occurs

within a small opening of the DNA
helix.
Reason : DNA can not be separated in
its entire length due to very high
energy requirement.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.
12. Assertion : Both the strands of DNA
are not copied during process of
transcription.
Reason : The two molecules of RNA
complementary to each other form the
double stranded RNA and this would
prevent RNA from being translated into
protein.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.
 š Answers
Click the website link given below to
get the solutions
www.cuet.pw

› Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
www.cbse.page
www.libgen.co.in
Click the website links to open the webpage
 ` Chapter 7
Evolution

Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
Click the website link to open the webpage
1. Miller simulated early Earth conditions
in a laboratory by passing electric
discharge through a closed flask raising
its temperature to 800°C and
containing
(a) CH4 and H2
(b) NH3
(c) Water vapour
(d) All of these

2. Homologous organ represents

(a) Convergent evolution
(b) Divergent evolution
(c) Anthropogenic evolution
(d) Genetic drift

3. Which statement is true about

Australopithecines ?
(a) They hunted with stone weapons.
(b) They ate fruit.
(c) Two million years ago they lived in the
East African grasslands.
(d) All the above

4. All these facts are true about the

Neanderthal man except
(a) Brain size is 1400 cc.
(b) Used hides to protect their bodies.
(c) Lived in east and central Asia between
1,00,000–40,000 years back.
(d) Their fossils were discovered in Java
in 1891.

5. Which of these is a direct ancestor of

turtles ?
(a) Sauropsids
(b) Synapsids
(c) Pelycosaurs
 (d) Thecodonts

6. Which of the following were extinct in

the Permian period ?
(a) Ferns
(b) Cycads
(c) Arborescent lycopodus
(d) Bryophytes

7. Seed ferns evolved from

(a) Cycads
(b) Gnetales
(c) Conifers
(d) Progymnosperm

8. Assertion : Homo erectus probably ate

meat.
Reason : Homo erectus had a large
brain around 900 cc.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

9. Assertion : Dryopithecus was more

man-like.
Reason : Ramapithecus was more
ape-like.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
 explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

10. Assertion : Human losses gene for tail.

Reason : Lamarck’s theory of evolution
is known as the theory of continuity of
germplasm.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.
11. Assertion : Pasteur demonstrates that
life comes from pre existing life.
Reason : Pasteur performed swan neck
experiment.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

12. Assertion : Chemical evolution was

more or less accepted.
Reason : Miller in his experiment
observed the formation of amino acids
 in similar condition which was their on
earth at the time of origin.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.
 š Answers
Click the website link given below to
get the solutions
www.cuet.pw

› Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
www.cbse.page
www.libgen.co.in
Click the website links to open the webpage
 ` Chapter 8
Human Health and
Disease

Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
Click the website link to open the webpage
1. In malaria, fever and chills occur every
3 to 4 days due to rupture of RBCs and
release of which toxic substance ?
(a) Haemophilia
(b) Hematocrit
(c) Hemozoin
(d) Haemoglobin

2. Malarial parasites require two hosts.

They are
(a) Humans, female anopheles mosquito
(b) Humans, Aedes Egypti
(c) Cattle, female anopheles mosquito
(d) Cattle, Aedes Egypti

3. After the injection of sporozoites in the

blood of humans, which organ do they
travel initially ?
(a) Lymph nodes
 (b) Brain
(c) Lungs
(d) Liver

4. W. bancrofti infects which part of the

human body?
(a) Blood vessels of upper limbs
(b) Lymph vessels of lower limb
(c) Blood vessels of lower limb
(d) Lymph vessels of upper limb

5. Which are the main symptoms of

ringworm ?
(a) Appearance of worms on skin
(b) Appearance of dry scaly lesions
(c) Inflammation of limbs
(d) Fever and chills

6. In ringworm which parts of the body

are usually affected ?
 (a) Skin, hair and scalp
(b) Skin, nails and hands
(c) Skin, hair and lips
(d) Skin, nails and scalp

7. Every day our body is exposed to a

large number of infectious agents.
But all are not capable of causing
disease. This is due to
(a) Decreased virulence of pathogen
(b) Immunity of an individual
(c) Genotype of an individual
(d) Lifestyle of an individual

8. Assertion : Chill and high fever occurs

due to malaria.
Reason : Release of the toxin,
hemozoin from ruptured RBCs in
malaria.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
 are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

9. Assertion : Innate immunity is present

by birth.
Reason : Innate immunity is non
specific type of defence.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

10. Assertion : Our body elicits highly

intensified secondary response for
same pathogens.
Reason : Our body contain memory
T - cells.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.
11. Assertion : In tetanus preformed
antibodies are given to patient.
Reason : Quick immune response is
required in tetanus.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

12. Assertion : Bone marrow and thymus

are primary lymphoid organs.
Reason : Immature lymphocytes
differentiate and proliferate in these
 organs.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.
 š Answers
Click the website link given below to
get the solutions
www.cuet.pw

› Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
www.cbse.page
www.libgen.co.in
Click the website links to open the webpage
 ` Chapter 9
Strategies for
Enhancement in Food
Production

Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
Click the website link to open the webpage
 1. How can we prevent the spreading of
the flu in case when some chicken are
infected in poultry form?
(a) Select these chickens
(b) Kill selected chicken and burn them
(c) Kill selected chickens and bury them
deep inside earth
(d) All the above

2. The following are freshwater fi shes

except :
(a) Catla
(b) Rohu
(c) Common carp
(d) Mackerel
3. The word ‘poultry’ is used to refer the
meat of
(a) Chicken and ducks
(b) Turkey
(c) Geese
(d) All of these

4. Find out the incorrect statement.

(a) Conventional breeding is often
constrained by the availability of
limited number of disease resistance
genes.
(b) Transfer of resistance gene is achieved
by sexual hybridization between the
target and source plant.
(c) Inducing mutations in plant through
various means and then screening the
plant materials for resistance
sometimes leads to desirable genes
 being identified.
(d) It is not possible to induce mutations
artificially through use of chemicals or
radiation like gamma radiation.

5. The sequential steps for breeding are

(A) Screening germplasm for resistance
sources
(B) Selection and evaluation of hybrid
(C) Hybridization of selected parents
(D) Testing and release of new varieties
(a) D, C, B, A
(b) A, B, C, D
(c) A, C, B, D
(d) A, C, D, B
6. Wheat variety Atlas 66 is rich in
(a) Lipid content
(b) Water content
(c) Protein content
(d) Mineral content

7. The capacity to regenerate whole plant

from plant cell or explant is known as :
(a) Totipotency
(b) Pluripotency
(c) Metaplasia
(d) Atrophy

8. Interspecific hybridization means

(a) Mating of animals within the same
breed.
(b) Superior male of one breed mated
with superior female of another breed.
(c) Male and female animals of two
different related species are mated.
(d) All the above

9. Assertion : Shoot-tip culture is used to

raise virus-free clones.
Reason : Other explants can equally
give rise to virus -free clones.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.
10. Assertion : Hairy leaves in several
plants are associated with resistance to
insect pests.
Reason : Nectar less cotton varieties
do not attract bollworms.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

11. Assertion : Artificial insemination is

technique used in controlled breeding
experiment.
Reason : Artificial insemination helps
 us to overcome several problems of
normal mating.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

12. Assertion : Some cotton varieties do

not attract bollworms.
Reason : These cotton varieties are
nectar less and posses smooth leaves.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.
 š Answers
Click the website link given below to
get the solutions
www.cuet.pw

› Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
www.cbse.page
www.libgen.co.in
Click the website links to open the webpage
 ` Chapter 10
Microbes in Human
Welfare

Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
Click the website link to open the webpage
1. Which vitamin is synthesized by LAB?
(a) Vitamin B2
(b) Vitamin B6
(c) Vitamin B5
(d) Vitamin B12

2. The traditional drink of south India is

made by fermenting sap from tree.
(a) Eucalyptus
(b) Coconut
(c) Palm
(d) Date

3. Brewer’s Yeast is
(a) Saccharomyces cariocanus
(b) Saccharomyces florentinus
(c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(d) Saccharomyces spencerorum
4. The enzyme streptokinase is used
medicinally to
(a) Check growth of microbes in body
fluids
(b) Remove blood clots from the blood
vessels
(c) Weaken walls of blood vessels
(d) Create blood clots in blood vessels

5. Which drug is generally administered at

the time of organ-transplant procedure?
(a) Actinomycin-D
(b) Bleomycin
(c) Cyclosporin-A
(d) Paclitaxel

6. The mechanism of action of statins is

(a) Allosteric inhibition of enzyme is
responsible for the synthesis of
cholesterol.
(b) Competitive inhibition of enzyme is
responsible for the synthesis of
cholesterol.
(c) Irreversible inhibition of enzyme is
responsible for the synthesis of
cholesterol.
(d) None of the above

7. In primary treatment of sewage water,

after sedimentation, the solids that
settle form
(a) Activated sludge
(b) Primary sludge
(c) Secondary sludge
(d) Both (a) and (c)

8. What is the role of bacteria present in

the rumen of cattle?
(a) Production of methane
(b) Regulation of digestion
 (c) Breakdown of cellulose
(d) Synthesis of polysaccharides

9. Which institutes have actively

participated in the development of
technology for biogas production?
IARI, IIT, IISC, KVIM, KVIC.
(a) IIT and KVIM
(b) IISC and KVIC
(c) KVIC and IARI
(d) IARI and KVIM

10. Fungi which form symbiotic

associations with plants are .
(a) Rhizobium
(b) Mycorrhiza
(c) Azospirillum
(d) Oscillatoria
11. Assertion : Statins reduces blood
cholesterol level.
Reason : They competitively inhibit
the enzyme responsible for synthesis of
cholesterol.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

12. Assertion : Azospirillum and

Azotobacter enriching the nitrogen
content of soil.
Reason : They are free living nitrogen
 fixer in soil.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.
 š Answers
Click the website link given below to
get the solutions
www.cuet.pw

› Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.page
www.cbse.page
www.libgen.co.in
Click the website links to open the webpage
 ` Chapter 11
Biotechnology Principles
and Processes

Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
Click the website link to open the webpage
1. We can cut DNA with the help of
(a) DNAase
(b) RNAase
(c) Knife
(d) Restriction enzyme

2. Restriction enzyme breaks

(a) Glycosidic linkage
(b) H-bond
(c) Sugar–phosphate linkage
(d) All of these

3. Select the incorrect statement.

(a) Selection of recombinants due to
inactivation of antibiotic is a
cumbersome procedure.
(b) Insertional inactivation of
β−galactosidase leads to colourless
colonies.
(c) Insertional inactivation of
β−galactosidase leads to blue color
colonies.
(d) In insertional inactivation, the rDNA is
inserted within the coding sequence of
an enzyme β−galactosidase.

4. Bacteriophages are used in

biotechnology as
(a) Vector or vehicle DNA
(b) Cloning organism
(c) Restriction enzyme synthesizers
(d) None of these

5. PCR is related to
(a) DNA cloning
(b) DNA amplification
(c) DNA selective replication
(d) All of these
6. PCR technique is considered as best for
(a) DNA synthesis
(b) DNA amplification
(c) Protein synthesis
(d) Amino acid synthesis

7. Bacteria protects themselves from viral

attack by producing
(a) Exonuclease
(b) Endonuclease
(c) DNA ligase
(d) Gyrase

8. Which of the following bacteria is not a

source of restriction endonuclease ?
(a) Haemophilus influenzae
(b) Escherichia coli
(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(d) Bacillus amylo
 9. Assertion : A sexual reproduction is
advantageous over asexual
reproduction.
Reason : Sexual reproduction provides
opportunities for variation, some of
which is beneficial for individual as
well as population.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

10. Assertion : Selection of recombinants

due to inactivation of antibiotics is
 complicated process.
Reason : It requires simultaneous
plating in two plates having different
antibiotic.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

11. Which of the given statement is correct

in the context of observing DNA
separated by agarose gel
electrophoresis ?
(a) DNA can be seen in visible light.
(b) DNA can be seen without staining in
visible light.
(c) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be
seen in visible light.
(d) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be
seen under exposure to UV light.
 š Answers
Click the website link given below to
get the solutions
www.cuet.pw

› Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
www.cbse.page
www.libgen.co.in
Click the website links to open the webpage
 ` Chapter 12
Biotechnology and Its
Application

Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
Click the website link to open the webpage
1. Salt stress, disease resistance and cold
stress in plants can be introduced by
(a) Genetic engineering
(b) Tissue culture
(c) Hybridoma technology
(d) None of these

2. Bt-crops are not affected by Bt-toxin

because
(a) Toxin exist as inactive protoxin.
(b) It has special antibodies against toxin.
(c) Its intracellular medium is alkaline so
toxin remains inactive.
(d) All the above

3. Transfer of rDNA through phage is

done by
(a) Diffusion
(b) Transformation
 (c) Transduction
(d) Conjugation

4. Protein encoded gene cryIAb controls

(a) Cotton bollworm
(b) Beetles
(c) Corn borer
(d) Flies

5. What is true about Bt-toxin ?

(a) The concerned bacillus has antitoxins.
(b) The inactive protoxin gets converted
into active form in the insect gut.
(c) Bt-protein exists as active toxin in the
bacillus.
(d) The activated toxin enters the ovary of
pest to sterilize it and thus prevent its
multiplication.
 6. Some of the steps involved in the
production of humulin are given below.
Choose the correct sequence.
(1) Purification of humulin.
(2) Extraction of recombinant gene product
from E. coli.
(3) Culturing recombinant E. coli in
bioreactors.
(4) Introduction of recombinant plasmid
into E. coli.
(5) Synthesis of gene for human insulin
artificially.
(6) Insertion of human insulin gene into
plasmid.
(a) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5, 6
(b) 1, 3, 5, 6, 2, 4
(c) 5, 6, 4, 3, 2, 1
(d) 3, 5, 2, 1, 6, 4

7. Rosie a transgenic cow known to

 produce a type of milk which has all
the following charac- teristics except
(a) Protein content of 2.4 gm/litre
(b) Has human α−lactalbumin
(c) More balance diet than normal milk
for babies
(d) Rich in cholesterol

8. Assertion : ELISA is used to detect

infection by pathogen, that can be
detected by the presence of antigens or
by detecting the antibodies synthesized
against the pathogen.
Reason : ELISA is based on the
principle of anitgen-antibody
interaction.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
 true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

9. Assertion : Biopiracy is the team used

to refer to the use of bio-resources by
multinational companies and other
organizations without proper
authorization from the countries and
people concerned without
compensatory payment.
Reason : Bioprospecting is the process
of discovery and commercialization of
new products based on biological
resources.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
 explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

10. Assertion : serum and urine analysis is

not sensitive methods of diagnosis
Reason : Early detection of pathogen
is not possible by these methods.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
 is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.

11. Assertion : Why oral insulin is not

administered to diabetic people.
Reason : Insulin is digested by our
digestive enzymes.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.
12. In Bt cotton the Bt toxin present in
plant tissue as pro-toxin is converted
into active toxin due to
(a) Alkaline pH of the insect gut
(b) Acidic pH of the insect gut
(c) Action of gut microorganisms
(d) Presence of conversion factors in
insect gut
 š Answers
Click the website link given below to
get the solutions
www.cuet.pw

› Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
www.cbse.page
www.libgen.co.in
Click the website links to open the webpage
 ` Chapter 13
Organisms and
Populations

Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
Click the website link to open the webpage
1. Which part of human body is a unique
habitat for hundreds of species of
microbes ?
(a) Mouth
(b) Urinary bladder
(c) Intestine
(d) Spleen

2. The temperature of habitat affects

kinetics of __________ in the body of
organisms.
(a) Hormones
(b) Enzymes
(c) Inflammatory mediators
(d) Neurotransmitters

3. The organisms which can tolerate and

thrive in a wide range of temperature
are called as __________.
 (a) Stenothermal
(b) Homiotherm
(c) Eurythermal
(d) Poikilotherm

4. The organisms which are tolerant of a

wide range of salinities are
(a) Salinotrophs
(b) Euryhaline
(c) Salinosomes
(d) Stenohaline

5. Allen’s rule is with respect to _______

(a) Reptiles
(b) Mammals
(c) Aves
(d) Amphibia
6. Which bacteria can flourish in hot
springs and deep sea hydrothermal
vents ?
(a) Cyanobacteria
(b) Archaebacteria
(c) Actinobacteria
(d) Acidobacteria

7. What adaptation desert lizard shows to

deal with high temperature ?
(a) Bask in sun when body temperature
drops.
(b) Move in shade when body
temperature drops.
(c) Bask in sun when ambient
temperature drops.
(d) Move in shade when ambient
temperature drops.
 8. The sigmoid curve of population
growth is also known as
(a) Wagner-Nelson logistic growth
(b) Lineweaver-Burk logistic growth
(c) Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth
(d) Darwin’s logistic growth

9. Which of the following weed plant

produces cardiac glycosides
(highly poisonous material) ?
(a) Acacia
(b) Cactus
(c) Calotropis
(d) All of these

10. Find out the false statement.

(a) Parasite that feeds on the external
surface of the host organism are called
ectoparasite.
(b) The life cycle of endoparasite are more
complex because of their extreme
specialization.
(c) Parasitism evolved in so many
taxonomic groups from plants to
higher vertebrates.
(d) Endoparasites have greatly complex
morphological and anatomical
features along with high reproductive
potential.

11. What parameters are used for tiger

census in our country’s national parks
and sanctuaries ?
(a) Pug marks only
(b) Pug marks and faecal pellets
(c) Faecal pellets only
(d) Actual head counts
12. Assertion : Mycorrhizae are
association between fungi and roots of
higher plants.
Reason : Lichens represent mutualistic
relationship between fungus and
photosynthetic algae or cyanobacteria.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.
 š Answers
Click the website link given below to
get the solutions
www.cuet.pw

› Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
www.cbse.page
www.libgen.co.in
Click the website links to open the webpage
 ` Chapter 14
Ecosystem

Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
Click the website link to open the webpage
1. Find out the incorrect statement.
(a) Biosphere is a global ecosystem.
(b) Transfer of energy in ecosystem
explains in terms of food web and
nutrient cycle.
(c) Pond, lake and wetland are aquatic
ecosystems.
(d) Ecosystem is structural not functional
unit of ecosystem.

2. Which of the following occupy top

vertical strata of forest ecosystem?
(a) Shrubs
(b) Herbs and grasses
(c) Tree
(d) Phytoplankton
 3. Humus is degraded by some microbes
and release of inorganic nutrients
occur by the process known as
(a) Fragmentation
(b) Leaching
(c) Humidification
(d) Mineralization

4. Find out the total number of incorrect

statements from the following:
(a) Decomposition is largely an anaerobic
process.
(b) Fragmentation, leaching and
catabolism occur simultaneously on
detritus.
(c) Vertical distribution of different
species occupying different level is
called stratification.
(d) Pond is a deep water body.
(e) The rate of decomposition is
controlled by chemical composition of
detritus and climatic factors.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

5. Which law is obeyed during energy

flow in an ecosystem?
(a) First law of thermodynamics
(b) Second law of thermodynamics
(c) Third law of thermodynamics
(d) Both (a) and (b)
 6. DFC (Detritus Food Chain) begins with
(a) Dead organic matter
(b) Fungi
(c) Bacteria
(d) Plant

7. Each tropic level has a certain mass of

living material at a particular time
called
(a) Standing state
(b) Stranding crop
(c) Ecological pyramid
(d) GPP
 8. Find out the correct statement:
(a) Trophic level represents a functional
level, not a species as such.
(b) A given species never occupies more
than one trophic level in the same
ecosystem at the same time.
(c) In most of the ecosystems, producers
are less in number and biomass than
the herbivores.
(d) Pyramid of energy can never be
upright.

9. If succession occurs on bare rock, it is

known as
(a) Primary succession
(b) Secondary succession
(c) Tertiary succession
(d) Quaternary succession
10. Find out the total number of true
statements from the following.
(a) Primary succession is a very slow
process, taking thousands of years for
the climax to be reached.
(b) All succession whether taking place in
water or land, proceeds to a similar
climax community, the mesic.
(c) As succession proceeds, the number
and types of animals and decomposers
also change.
(d) Saprophytes are not given at any place
in the ecological pyramids even
though they play a vital role in the
ecosystem.
11. Which of the following are the
differences between carbon and
phosphorus cycle?
(a) Carbon cycle is sedimentary whereas
phosphorus cycle is gaseous.
(b) Carbon cycle is not significantly
affected by human activities whereas
phosphorus is significantly affected.
(c) Carbon has respiratory release but not
phosphorus.
(d) All the above

12. Which of the following are the

reservoir of gaseous cycle?
(a) Atmosphere
(b) Earth crust
(c) Hydrosphere
(d) Both (a) and (c)
 š Answers
Click the website link given below to
get the solutions
www.cuet.pw

› Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
www.cbse.page
www.libgen.co.in
Click the website links to open the webpage
 ` Chapter 15
Biodiversity and
Conservation

Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
Click the website link to open the webpage
1. Which of the following shows maximum
genetic diversity?
(a) Rice
(b) Mango
(c) Rauwolfi a vomitoria
(d) Wheat

2. Find the false statement.

(a) The number of fungi species is more
than the combined total of the species
of fishes, amphibians, reptiles and
mammals.
(b) Conventional taxonomic methods are
not suitable for identifying microbial
species.
(c) For many taxonomic groups, species
inventories are more complete in
temperate than in tropical countries.
(d) Insects forms 70 per cent part of all
the species recorded.
3. Find the false statement.
(a) In the last 20 years alone there is a
disappearance of 27 species.
(b) Three species (Bali, Javan and
Caspian) of tiger are included in
recently extinct animals.
(c) If we apply May’s estimate then there
are probably more than 1,00,000
plant species in India that are yet to be
discovered and described.
(d) There is more solar energy available in
tropics, which contribute to higher
productivity; this in turn contributes
directly to greater diversity.
(a) A only
(b) C, D only
(c) B, D only
(d) A and C only
4. Find the incorrect statement.
(a) ‘Sixth extinction’ is different from
previous extinction in terms of rate of
extinction.
(b) Ecologist warn that if the present
trend of extinction continues, nearly
50 per cent all species on earth might
be wiped out within the next 100
years.
(c) Amphibians appear to be vulnerable to
extinction.
(d) Recent extinction is completely
natural.

5. Steller’s sea cow and Passenger pigeon

became extinct due to
(a) Alien species invasion
(b) Co-extinction
(c) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(d) Over exploitation
6. Which of these are invasive weeds?
(a) Carrot grass (Parthenium)
(b) Gandhari (lantana)
(c) Water hyacinth (Eicchornia)
(d) All of these

7. The following are examples of In situ

conservation except?
(a) Biosphere reverse
(b) National park
(c) Sacred groves
(d) Gene-bank
 8. In India, ecologically unique and
biodiversity rich regions are legally
protected as
(a) Biosphere reserve
(b) National park
(c) Sanctuaries
(d) All of these

9. Ex situ conservation includes

(a) Cryopreservation of gametes
(b) In vitro fertilization
(c) Tissue culture
(d) All of these

10. How do ecologists estimate the total

number of species present in the world?
(a) By counting them all.
(b) By counting the number of any one
species and applying this to various
 genus.
(c) By making statistical comparison of
the temperate–tropical species
richness of an exhaustively studied
group of insects and extrapolating this
ratio to other group of animals and
plants.
(d) By calculating biomass of all the
species.

11. Gametes of threatened species can be

preserved in viable and fertile condition
for long periods using
(a) PCR technique
(b) CTAB
(c) Cryopreservation technique
(d) In situ conservation
12. Assertion : Most diversified organism
on earth is insects.
Reason : insects possess chitinous
exoskeleton
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are
false.
 š Answers
Click the website link given below to
get the solutions
www.cuet.pw

› Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
www.cbse.page
www.libgen.co.in
Click the website links to open the webpage
 ` Chapter 16
Environmental Issues

Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
Click the website link to open the webpage
1. The most widely used and eff ective
device for removing particulate matter is
(a) Arrester
(b) Scrubber
(c) Electrostatic precipitator
(d) Converters

2. Which statement is incorrect about ESP

(Electrostatic Precipitator)?
(a) Corona produces electrons.
(b) Collecting plates are grounded, so it is
used to attract the charged dust
particle.
(c) Velocity of air between the plates must
be low.
(d) Electrodes wires that are maintained
at hundred volts produces corona.
3. Scrubber is used to remove which of the
following gas?

(a) SO2 (c) O2

(b) N2 (d) CO2

4. According to CPCB which particulate

size causes greatest harm to human
health?

(a) 2.5 µm (c) 4.5 µm

(b) 3.5 µm (d) 5.2 µm

5. What is/are done by catalytic

converters?
(a) Unburnt hydrocarbons are converted
to CO2 and H2O.
(b) CO in converted to CO2.
(c) Nitric oxide is changed to N2.
(d) All the above
6. According to Euro II norms, sulphur
should be controlled at in diesel
and in petrol.
(a) 350 ppm, 150 ppm
(b) 50 ppm, 150 ppm
(c) 50 ppm, 50 ppm
(d) 350 ppm, 50 ppm

7. Which of the following is the most

difficult to remove from waste water?
(a) Suspended solids
(b) Dissolved salts
(c) Biodegradable waste matter
(d) All of these
8. World’s most problematic aquatic weed
is
(a) Terror of Bengal
(b) Water hyacinth
(c) Eichhornia crassipes
(d) All of these

9. Select the correct statement.

(A) Use of incinerator is crucial to the
disposal of hospital waste.
(B) Recycling is the only solution for the
treatment of e-waste.
(C) Fish-eating birds containing 2ppm
DDT become agents of
biomagnifications.
(D) Polybend, is a fine powder of bitumen.

(a) A and B only (c) C and D only

(b) B and C only (d) A, B and C only
10. Bad ozone is formed in
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Ionosphere
(c) Troposphere
(d) Lithosphere

11. National Forest Policy (1988) of India

has recommended per cent forest
cover for the plains and per cent
for the hills.

(a) 60, 40 (c) 40, 60

(b) 33, 67 (d) 67, 33
12. Jhum cultivation (slash and burn
agriculture) is found in which part of
India?
(a) North-eastern state
(b) Western state
(c) Southern state
(d) Desert state
 š Answers
Click the website link given below to
get the solutions
www.cuet.pw

› Publisher : Libgen Books

www.cuet.pw
www.cbse.page
www.libgen.co.in
Click the website links to open the webpage
 d CUET 2022
î Biology PYQs
` 18th August Slot 1

› Publisher :
› www.cuet.pw

d Website will be live

within few days
Click the website link to open the webpage
š 2022 18th Aug Slot 1
1. The protein formed by the encoded
gene expression in a heterologous
host is called
(a) Structural protein
(b) Recombinant protein
(c) Transposone
(d) Prohormone

Recombinant protein

Option (B) is the correct answer as any

protein encoding gene is expressed in a
heterologous host is called
recombinant protein.
Option (a) is incorrect as structural
proteins are the most abundant class of
proteins in nature and form structural
elements.
 Option (C) is incorrect as transposons
are repetitive DNA sequences that have
the capacity to move from one location
to another in genome.
Option (D) is incorrect as prohormones
are the precursors of hormones

2. A kind of population interaction in

which one species benefits and the
other is neither harmed nor benefited?
(a) Commensalism
(B) Ammensalism
(C) Mutualism
(D) Parasitism

Commensalism
Commensalism is a type of population
interaction where one species benefits
and the other remains unaffected. It
 can also be denoted by (+, 0)

3. Fruit which develop only from the

ovary are called-
(a) False fruits
(b) Parthenocarpic fruits
(c) True fruits
(d) Apomictic fruits

True fruits
True fruits are developed only from
ovary while in false fruits, parts other
than ovary also contributes.

4. Algal blooms do not cause-

(a) Imbalance in ecosystem dynamics
(b) Deterioration of the water quality
and fish mortality
(c) Reduction in BOD
(d) Increase in organic matters in water
body

Reduction in BOD
Algal blooms are formed by
overproduction of algae in
nutrient-rich or eutrophicated
water-bodies. They can cause harmful
effects on aquatic species by increasing
organic matter and thus BOD of water
body increases too.

5. Observe the given figure and name

the step used in Recombinant DNA
Technology
 (a) Selecting
(b) Scrolling
(c) Spiraling
(d) Spooling

Spooling

Option (D) is the correct answer as the

given figure represents the process of
spooling which is a method of
extraction of substance like DNA in the
form of a spool over a glass rod.

6. Perisperm differs from endosperm is

that it is-
(a) Haploid having reserve food
(b) Polyploid having reserve food
(c) Triploid having no reserve food
(d) Diploid having no reserve food
 Diploid having no reserve food

Perisperm is remnant of nucellus and

thus is diploid. Endosperm is triploid
nutritious tissues Both endosperm and
perisperm store reserve food.

7. Identify and name the two parts in a

flower which are most important units
of sexual reproduction?

(a) 1 - Style, 3 - stamen

(b) 4 - filament, 6 - thalamus
(c) 3 - Anther, 7 - ovary
(d) 2 – Stigma, 5 - sepals
 3 - Anther, 7 - ovary

In the question, most important units

of sexual reproduction are asked which
are Anther and ovary. So correct option
is (C).

8. Density of population tells us about-

(a) total number of individuals of a
species
(b) total area occupied by a species
(c) number of individuals present per
unit space in a given time
(d) population growth in a particular
time span

number of individuals present per

unit space in a given time
 Pollution density generally measured
as number of individuals of species
present in unit space in a given time.
Percent cover or biomass can also be
used for measuring population density

9. Select the hormones produced in

women only during pregnancy
(a) Estrogen
(b) Human chronic gonadotroph
(c) Progesterone
(d) Human placental lactogen
(e) Relaxin
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
(a) B and D only
(b) B and E only
(c) A, B and C only
(d) B, D and E only
 B, D and E only

Option (D) is the correct answer as,

hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin),
hpL (human placental lactogen) and
relaxin are produced in humans only
during pregnancy. Estrogen and
progesterone are also secreted in a
non-pregnant woman.

10. Which of the following is not an

example of terrestrial ecosystem?
(a) Wetland
(b) Grassland
(c) Forest
(d) Desert

Wetland
 Wetland is an aquatic ecosystem. Rest
all are examples of terrestrial
ecosystems.

11. Transfer of an ovum collected from a

donor into fallopian tube is called
method.
(a) ZIFT
(b) ICST
(c) GIFT
(d) IVF

GIFT
Option (C) is the correct answer as:
GIFT is the method of transfer of ovum
collected from a donor into the
fallopian tube of another female who
cannot produce one, but can provide
suitable environment for fertilisation.
 Option (A) is not the correct answer as
ZIFT stands for the transfer of zygote
(upto 8 blastomeres) into the fallopian
tube.
Option (B) is not the correct answer as
ICSI is the method of injecting the
sperms directly into the ovum in-vitro.
Option (D) is not the answer as IVF
stands for in- vitro fertilisation.

12. Given below are two statements: one

is labelled as Assertion A and the
other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Leydig cells synthesise
and secrete male testicular hormones
called androgens.
Reason R: Androgens, stimulate the
process of spermatogenesis. In the
light of the above statements, choose
 the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct are R is
NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is not correct
(d) A is not correct but R is correct

Both A and R are correct and R is the

correct explanation of A

Option (A) is the correct answer as at

the age of puberty due to significant
increase in the secretion of
gonadotropin releasing hormone there
is an increase in the secretion of
gonadotropins i.e., LH and FSH. LH
acts on the Leydig cells and stimulates
synthesis and secretion of androgens.
13. The inactive protoxin gets converted
into an active form due to the
(a) Alkaline pH of insect’s gut
(b) Temperature and acidic pH of gut
(c) Exposure to light
(d) Exposure to light and acidic pH of
gut

Alkaline pH of insect’s gut

Option (a) is the answer as the Bt toxin

protein exist as inactive protoxins but
once an insect ingests the inactive
toxin, it is converted into an active
form of toxin due to alk

14. Which of the following gets

embedded in the endometrium during
implantation?
 (a) Zygote
(b) Morula
(c) Blastocyst
(d) Embryo

Blastocyst

Option (C) is the answer as the

blastocyst gets embedded in the
endometrium of the uterus.
Option (A) is not the answer as zygote
is single – celled and it divides
mitotically to develop into morula
(8-16 celled).
Option (B) is not the answer as morula
continues to divide and transforms into
blastocyst.
Option (D) is not the answer as embryo
with 8 blastomeres is called morula.
15. Introduction of which one of the
following organism’s species did cause
decline or extinction of indigenous
species?
(a) Eicchornia Crassipes
(b) Nile Perch
(c) Clarias gariepinus
(d) Steller’s Sea cow

Steller’s Sea cow

The correct option given by NTA is
option (D) but as per NCERT it should
be option (B).
The Nile perch introduced into Lake
Victoria led eventually to the extinction
of ecologically unique assemblage of
more than 200 species of cichlid fish in
the lake. Clarias gariepinus, African
catfish pose threat to the indigenous
 catfish in our rivers. Eicchornia cause
environmental damage and pose threat
to our native species. Stellar’s sea cow
got extinct due to overexploitation by
humans.

16. Match List I with List II

LIST I
(a) Progestasert
(b) Saheli
(c) Lippe’s Loop
(d) Periodic abstinence
LIST II
(I) once a week pill
(II) hormone releasing IUD
(III) Non-medicated IUD
(IV) Natural method of birth control
 Choose the correct answer from the
options given below :
(a) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
(b) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
(c) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
(d) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV

Option (C) is correct answer because

Progestasert is a hormone-releasing
IUD.
Saheli is a ‘once a week’ pill.
Lippe’s loop is a non-medicated IUD.
Periodic abstinence or rhythm method
is a natural method of contraception in
which couples abstain sexual
intercourse from day 10 to 17 of a 28
days menstrual cycle.
17. The vital link that ensures continuity
of species between organisms of one
generation and the next generation is
(a) Male gamete
(b) Female gamete
(c) Zygote
(d) Syngamy

Zygote

The vital link that ensures continuity of

species between organisms of one
generation and the next generation is
the zygote.
The process of fusion of gamete is
called syngamy and it results in
formation of diploid zygote.
Gametes are reproductive cells of a
sexually reproducing organisms.
18. In case of COVID positive patients,
presence of corona virus is suspected
only when the pathogen has produced
a disease symptom. But when the
symptoms of the disease has not
appeared, the corona virus in the
body can be detected by–
(a) Enzyme linked immuno-sorbent
Assay (ELISA) only
(b) Recombinant DNA technology only
(c) Reverse transcriptase Polymerase
ChainReaction (RT-PCR)
(d) Widal Test

Reverse transcriptase Polymerase

ChainReaction (RT-PCR)

Option (C) is the correct answer

because in RT-PCR, RNA of retrovirus is
reverse transcripted with the help of
 enzyme reverse transcriptase. DNA
formed is amplified with the help of
PCR. So a minute quantity of corona
virus can be detected with the help of
RT-PCR. ELISA is based on antigen –
antibody reaction. Widal test is a
diagnostic test for typhoid.

19. Bacillus thuringiensis is a biocontrol

agent against
(a) Nematode
(b) Fungal pathogen
(c) Insect pests
(d) Bacterial pathogen

Insect pests

Bacillus thuringiensis is a biocontrol

agent against insect pests.
It is introduced in the field crop in
 order to control butterfly caterpillars
(larva)

20. Arrange the following events in the

female reproductive cycle in their
natural sequence.
(a) Ovulation
(b) Growth of corpus luteum
(c) Sudden increase in level of LH
(d) Secretion of FSH
(e) Growth of ovarian follicle and
oogenesis
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
(a) E - D - A - B – C
(b) D - E - C - A - B
(c) E - C - A - D – B
(d) D - A - C - E - B
 D-E-C-A-B
Option (B) is the correct answer
because the correct sequence of the
events in the female reproductive cycle
is :
D – Secretion of FSH
E – FSH leads to the growth of ovarian
follicles into a fully mature Graafian
follicle
C – During the mid of menstrual cycle,
there is sudden increase in the level of
LH (LH surge)
A – LH surge leads to ovulation
B – It is followed by luteal phase in
which the remaining parts of the
Graafian follicle transform as the
corpus luteum.
21. Which of the following methods are
commonly used in DNA
fingerprinting?
(a) Genetic transformation
(b) PCR and RFLP
(c) Bioprospecting
(d) Molecular diagnosis

PCR and RFLP

PCR and RFLP are used in DNA
fingerprinting to increase the
sensitivity of the technique.
Bioprospecting is defined as exploring
molecular, genetic and species level
diversity for products of economic
importance.
Molecular diagnosis is referred to as
detection of genomic variant.
22. Which layer of microsporangium is
nutritive in function?
(a) Epidermis
(b) Endothecium
(c) Middle Layers
(d) Tapetum

Tapetum

Tapetum is innermost wall layer of

microsporangium and it provides
nourishment to developing pollen
grains.
Outer three wall layers, epidermis,
endothecium and middle layers
perform the function of protection and
help in dehiscence of anther to release
pollen.
23. Match List I with List II
LIST I
(a) Catalytic converter
(b) Incinerators
(c) Electrostatic precipitator
(d) Sewage treatment plant
LIST II
(I) Particulate matter
(II) Organic waste
(III) Hospital Waste
(IV) Carbon monoxide and nitrogen
oxides
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
(a) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I
(b) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
(c) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
(d) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
 A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

When exhaust passes through catalytic

converter then carbon monoxide and
nitrogen oxide are converted to carbon
dioxide and nitrogen gas.
The use of incinerator is crucial for
disposal of hospital waste.
Electrostatic precipitator can remove
over 99particulate matter. In sewage
treatment plant biodegradation of
organic matter occurs by
microorganisms.
24. During gene therapy, which vector is
used to introduce functional ADA
cDNA into lymphocyte
(a) Plasmid
(b) Bacteriophage
(c) pBR322
(d) Retrovirus

Retrovirus
Option (D) is correct answer because
disarmed retrovirus is used as a vector
to introduce functional ADA cDNA into
the lymphocytes, which are
subsequently returned to the patient.
Plasmids are extra chromosomal
double stranded circular DNA present
in most of the bacteria.
Bacteriphages are viruses which infect
bacteria. pBR322 is a plasmid vector of
 E. coli.

25. The animals that feed on herbivores

like insects, birds and mammals in
terrestrial ecosystem, are called
(a) Saprotrophs
(b) Primary consumers
(c) Secondary carnivores
(d) Primary carnivores

Primary carnivores

The animals that feed on herbivores

are called primarycarnivores. These
are also called secondary consumers.
Herbivores are primary consumers.
Secondary carnivores feed on primary
carnivores. Saprotrophs are
decomposers. They act over the dead
organic matter.
26. Recombinant Proteins are expressed
in
(a) Cloning vector
(b) Heterology Host
(c) Homologous chromosomes
(d) Promotor

Heterology Host

(B) is the correct answer because

recombinant proteins are expressed in
heterologous host. The hosts which
have foreign gene are called
heterologous hosts.
Option (C) is not the answer because
chromosomes which are similar and
present together are called homologous
chromosomes. Option (A) is not the
answer because cloning vectors are
used in genetic engineering for gene
 transformation. Option (D) is not the
answer because promotor is a type of
gene which is helpful in protein
synthesis.
27. The chemical carcinogens present in
tobacco smoke is the major cause of
(a) AIDS
(b) Lung Cancer
(c) Allergy
(d) Pneumonia

Lung Cancer

Option (B) is the correct answer as the

chemical carcinogens present in
tobacco smoke have been identified as
a major cause of lung cancer.
Option (A) is not the answer as AIDS is
caused by HIV. It is a sexually
transmitted disease.
 Option (C) is not the answer as allergy
is defined as the exaggerated response
of the immune system towards certain
antigens present in the environment.
Option (D) is not the answer
pneumonia is a bacterial disease of
respiratory tract.

28. Match the features that are required

to facilitate cloning of alien DNA into
a vector
List I (Features to facilitate)
(a) Origin of replication (ori)
(b) Selectable Marker
(c) Cloning sites
(d) Vectors for cloning genes in plants
 List II (Cloning Vector)
(I) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(II) Recognition sites commonly used for
restriction enzymes
(III) Helps in identifying and eliminating
non-transformants
(IV) Sequence from where replication
starts
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below
(a) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(d) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Option (A) is the correct answer

because
Origin of the replication (ori) is the
sequence from where the replication
starts.
Selectable markers in vector help in
identifying and eliminating
non-transformants and selectively
permitting the growth of the
transformants.
Cloning sites are the recognition sites
commonly used for restriction
enzymes.
Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used as a
cloning vector for plants. It is called as
natural genetic engineer of plants.
29. Which of the following is effect of
steroid in males?
(a) Premature baldness
(b) Deepening of voice
(c) Excessive hair growth on face and
body
(d) Enlargement of clitoris

Premature baldness
Option (A) is the correct answer
because the side effects of the use of
anabolic steroids in males include
premature baldness, increased
aggressiveness, breast enlargement,
etc.
The side-effects of the use of anabolic
steroids in females include
masculinisation, deepening of voice,
excessive hair growth on face and body,
 enlargement of clitoris and abnormal
menstrual cycles.

30. Which of the following cells produce

antibodies?
(a) Monocytes
(b) PMNL neutrophils
(c) T-lymphocytes
(d) B- lymphocytes

B- lymphocytes

Option (D) is the correct answer

because the B-lymphocytes produce an
army of proteins in response to
pathogens into our blood to fight with
them. These proteins are called
antibodies.
The T-cells themselves do not secrete
antibodies but help B cells to produce
 them.
Neutrophils and monocytes are
phagocytic cells included under cellular
barriers of innate immunity.

31. Nutrient cycles are of two types:

(a) Gaseous and solid
(b) Liquid and sedimentary
(c) Gaseous and sedimentary
(d) Aquatic and Gaseous

Gaseous and sedimentary

Nutrient cycles are of two types:

(i) Gaseous cycle – Biogeochemical is
non- mineral. Exchange of nutrients
occur in gaseous or vapour form.
Reservoir pool is atmosphere or
hydrosphere.
e.g. Nitrogen, Carbon, Oxygen and
 Hydrogen cycle. (ii) Sedimentary cycle
– Biogeochemical is mineral. Reservoir
pool is earth’s crust or lithosphere.
e.g. Sulphur and Phosphorus cycle.

32. Technology of biogas production in

India was developed due to the efforts
of
(A) GEAC
(B) ICAR
(C) IARI
(D) IRRI
(E) KVIC
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) C and D only
(c) B and D only
(d) C and E only
 C and E only

The technology of biogas production

was developed in India mainly due to
the efforts of Indian Agricultural
Research Institute (IARI) and Khadi
and Village Industries Commission
(KVIC)

33. The bacterium responsible for

breakdown of cellulose in a biogas
plant is
(a) Acetobacter aceti
(b) Lactobacillus
(c) Clostridium
(d) Methanobacterium

Methanobacterium
 Certain bacteria, which grow
anaerobically on cellulosic material,
produce large amount of methane
along with CO2 and H2. These bacteria
are collectively called Methanogens,
and one such common bacterium is
Methanobacterium.

34. With reference to processing of hn

RNA, which of the following
statements is/are INCORRECT?
(A) Introns are removed and exons are
joined directly splicing.
(B) Capping and Tailing occurs at 5 end
and 3 end respectively.
(C) Addition of 200-300 adenylated
residues means capping.
(D) Addition of guanosine triphosphate
takes place at 5 end.
(E) Processing take place in the nucleus
and converts hn RNA into functional
RNA.
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below
(a) B only
(b) C only
(c) B and C only
(d) B and D only

C only

During processing of hn RNA,

(i) Splicing occurs which is removal of
introns and joining of exons in a
defined order.
(ii) Methyl guanosine triphosphate is
added at 5 end of hn RNA. This is
called capping.
(iii) Tailing occurs by the addition of
 adenylate residues of about 200 – 300
at 3 end of hn RNA.
(iv) The fully processed hn RNA is
called mRNA and it is transported out
of the nucleus for translation.

35. Match List I with List II

List I (Name of scientists)
(A) Alec Jeffreys
(B) Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod
(C) Marshall Nirenberg
(D) Meselson Stahl
List II (Discovery)
(I) Lac Operon
(II) Deciphering of genetic code
(III) Semiconservative replication of DNA
(IV) DNA Fingerprinting
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
(a) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(b) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(c) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(d) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

The technique of DNA fingerprinting

was developed by Alec Jeffreys.
Jacob and Monod proposed the model
of gene regulation, known as Operon
model, in bacteria.
Nirenberg and Matthaei used a
synthetic poly U RNA and deciphered
the genetic code by translating this as
polyphenylalanine.
Meselson and Stahl proved the
semi-conservative model of DNA
replication in E. coli
36. The pyramid of biomass in sea is
generally inverted because:
(a) Sunlight is filtered through sea
water leading to less photosynthesis
(b) Of the high salt content of sea water
(c) The biomass of phytoplankton far
exceeds that of fishes
(d) The biomass of fishes far exceeds
that of phytoplankton

The biomass of fishes far exceeds that

of phytoplankton

In sea ecosystem, pyramid of biomass

is generally inverted, because the
biomass of fishes far exceeds the
biomass of producers (phytoplanktons)
and primary consumers
(zooplanktons), due to their large size
and longer life span.
37. One of the following is NOT a
characteristic/criteria of genetic
materials, identify it:
(a) Genetic material should be able to
generate its replica
(b) Genetic material should be stable
chemically and structurally
(c) It should not provide the scope for
mutations
(d) It should be able to express itself in
the form of Mendelian characters.

It should not provide the scope for

mutations
A molecule that can act as genetic
material must fulfil the following
criteria:
(I) It should be chemically and
structurally stable.
 (II) It should be able to generate its
replica
(III It should provide scope for slow
mutation that are required for
evolution.
(IV) It should be able to express itself in
the form of Mendelian characters.

38. Adenine pairs with Thymine through

how many hydrogens bonds?
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5

2
Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds
with thymine from opposite strand in a
DNA molecule. Similarly, guanine is
bonded with cytosine with three
hydrogen bonds.
39. A pure breeding garden pea plant was
crossed with a pure dwarf plant. The
plant produced 400 seeds. The seeds
were sown to produce plants. The
phenotype of the plants in next
generation will be

(a) All tall

(b) All dwarf
(c) 300 tall and 100 dwarf plants
(d) All plants of intermediate height

All tall

Tallness and dwarfness in pea plants

are dominant and recessive traits
respectively. The cross can be
represented as follows:
40. If in a pond there were 150 carps
found last year and through
reproduction 450 new carps are
added in the pond, what will be the
birth rate here?
(a) 4 offsprings per carp per year
(b) 3 offsprings per carp per year
(c) 2 offsprings per carp per year
(d) 1 offspring per carp per year

3 offsprings per carp per year

 Given : Number of individuals last year
(N ) = 150
Number of individuals added in one
year (∆N ) = 450
Time period (∆T ) = 1 year
∆N 450
Birth rate = =
N∆t 150 × 1
= 3 offsprings per carp per year

41. When the life appear on the earth

after its formation?
(a) After 200 million years
(b) After 300 million years
(c) Atter 500 million years
(d) After 250 million years

Atter 500 million years

Option (C) is the correct answer

because life appeared 500 million years
 after the formation of earth, i.e.,
almost four billion years ago.

42. According to the early Greek thinkers,

the unit of life which were transferred
to different planets were-
(a) Spores
(b) Water
(c) Oxygen
(d) Methane

Spores

Option (A) is the correct answer

because according to the early Greek
thinkers, the unit of life called spores
were transformed to different planets
including earth. It is still a favourite
idea of some astronomers.
43. Louis Pasteur by careful
experimentation demonstrated that
life comes from-
(a) Killed yeast
(b) Rotting matter
(c) Other plants
(d) Pre-existing life

Pre-existing life

Option (D) is the correct answer

because Louis Pasteur by careful
experimentation demonstrated that life
comes from pre-existing life. Theory of
spontaneous generation stated that
living organisms arise from decaying
and rotting matter. This was
experimentally disproved by Louis
Pasteur.
44. Oparin and Haldane proposed the
theory that the first form of life could
have come from-
(a) Non-living organic molecules
(b) Inorganic molecules
(c) UV rays
(d) CO2 and water

Non-living organic molecules

Option (A) is the correct answer

because Oparin and Haldane proposed
that the first forms of life could have
come from pre-existing non-living
molecules (e.g. RNA, protein etc.) and
that formation of life was preceded by
chemical evolution.
45. The theory of Chemical evolution was
studied and tested in laboratory by–
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) S.L. Miller
(c) Louis Pasteur
(d) Haldane

S.L. Miller
Option (B) is the correct answer
because based on the hypothesis
proposed by Oparin and Haldane, S.L.
Miller provided an experimental
evidence of the chemical evolution in
1953 in a laboratory set-up. Louis
Pasteur dismissed the theory of
spontaneous generation once and for
all.
46. The explant used in tissue culture
must show
(a) Encystation
(b) Sporulation
(c) Dioecy
(d) Totipotency

Totipotency

The capacity to generate a whole plant

from any cell/explant is called
totipotency. Therefore, the explant
used in tissue culture must show
totipotency. Formation of cyst in
unfavourable conditions by unicellular
organisms is called encystation.
Sporulation is the production of spores
by the organisms such as fungi. Having
male and female sex organs in different
individuals is called dioecy.
47. Virus free plants of banana are
developed by using
(a) Protoplasts
(b) Meristem
(c) Cotyledon
(d) Leaf

Meristem
Pathogen free clones of plants can be
obtained through meristem culture
because meristem is free of virus due to
high concentration of auxins and rapid
rate of cell division.
48. Pomato is developed by
technique.
(a) Micropropagation
(b) Mutation breeding
(c) Biofortification
(d) Somatic hybridization

Somatic hybridization

Pomato was developed by somatic

hybridization (protoplast fusion) of two
different genera tomato and potato. It
is intergeneric somatic hybrid. The
method of producing thousands of
plants through tissue culture is called
micropropagation. Biofortification is
breeding of crops for higher level of
nutrients. Mutation breeding can make
crops resistant against diseases.
49. In tissue culture, the nutrient medium
usually contains as a carbon
source.
(a) Sucrose
(b) Maltose
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Calcium carbonate

Sucrose
In tissue culture, the nutrient medium
usually contains sucrose as carbon
source.
50. Protoplasts are obtained by digestion
of of the cells
(a) Nuclei
(b) Plasma membranes
(c) Cell walls
(d) Proteins

Cell walls
For protoplast fusion, the two cells of
desired plants are first treated with
enzymes pectinase and cellulase. These
enzymes dissolve the cell wall and as a
result naked protoplasts are produced.
 › Publisher : Libgen
Books
www.cuet.pw
www.cbse.page
www.libgen.co.in
Click the website links to open the webpage
d CUET 2022
î Chemistry PYQs

› Publisher : www.cuet.pw

d Website will be live

within few days
› www.cuet.pw
š 2022 17th August Slot 1
1. In a face centred cubic unit cell of
close packed atoms, the radius of
atom (r ) is related to the edge length
‘a’ of the unit cell by the expression
a a
(A) r = p (C) r = p
2 2p 2
a 3a
(B) r = (D) r =
2 4
Answer (C)

For a FCC unit cell atom touches each

other along a face diagonal, that can
be represented as
p
2a = 4r
a
r= p
2 2
 2. Which of the following arrangements
represents alignment of magnetic
moments of Ferrimagnetic
substance?
(A) ↑↑↓↑↓↑↑↑
(B) ↑↑↑↑↑↑↑↑
(C) ↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓
(D) ↑↓↑↓↑↓↑↓

Answer (A)

3. An alloy of Cu, Ag and Au is found to

have Cu constituting the CCP lattice.
If Ag atoms occupy edge centres, and
Au is present at body centre, then the
alloy has formula

(A) Cu4Ag2Au (C) Cu4Ag3Au

(B) Cu4Ag4Au (D) CuAgAu

Answer (C)
 Cu forming CCP, so number of Cu = 4
Ag occupying edge centre, so number
1
of Ag = 12 × = 3
4
Au present at body centre, so number
of Au = 1
Formula = Cu4Ag3Au

◦
4. What is ∆G for the given reaction?
2+ 2+
Zn(s) + Cu (aq) −→ Zn (aq) + Cu(s)
0 0
EZn2+/Zn = −0.76 V ECu2+/Cu = +0.34 V
−1
F = 96500 C mol
◦
(A) ∆G = −212.3 kJ/mol
◦
(B) ∆G = +212.3 kJ/mol
◦
(C) ∆G = −312.5 kJ/mol
◦
(D) ∆G = 0

Answer (A)
 ◦ ◦
∆G = −nF E
For given cell reaction, n = 2
◦ ◦ ◦
Ecell = Ecathode − Eanode
= 0.34 − (−0.76)
= 1.1 V
◦
∆G = −2 × 96500 × 1.1
= −212.3 kJ/mol

5. How many electrons flow when a

current of 5 amperes is passed
through a metal for 193 s ?
−1
(Given: F = 96500 c mol ,
23 −1
NA = 6.022 × 10 mol )
23
(A) 6.022 × 10 electrons
21
(B) 6.022 × 10 electrons
21
(C) 3.011 × 10 electrons
23
(D) 3.011 × 10 electrons

Answer (B)
 Charge Q = it
= 5 × 193 = 965
965
C= = 0.01 F
96500
1 F = charge of 1 mole electrons
0.01 F = charge of 0.01 mole electrons
23
= charge of 6.02 × 10 × 0.01 electrons
21
= charge of 6.02 × 10 electrons

6. Kohlrausch law of independent

migration of ion is applicable to
(A) Only to weak electrolytes at a certain
concentration
(B) Only to strong electrolytes at all
concentrations
(C) To both - strong and weak
electrolytes
(D) To non-electrolytes

Answer (C)
 Kohlrausch law of independent
migration of ions :
The law states that limiting molar
conductivity of an electrolyte can be
represented as the sum of the
individual contributions of the anion
and cation of the electrolyte.

7. In the first order reaction the

concentration of the reactant is
1
reduced th in 60 minutes, what will
4
be its half-life ?
(A) 120 minutes
(B) 40 minutes
(C) 30 minutes
(D) 25 minutes
Answer (C)
 For first order reaction
t 1/4 = 2t 1/2
2t 1/2 = 60
t 1/2 = 30 min

8. Which of the following is the correct

relationship between time required
for completion of 99.9% of a first
order reaction and its half-life ?
(A) t 1 = 5 × t 99.9%
2
(B) t 99.9% = 10 × t 1
2
(C) t 99.9% = 2t 1
2
(D) t 99.9% = t 1
2

Answer (B)
 For first order reaction

a0
µ ¶
2.303
t= log
k a0 − x
if a 0 = 100M at t = t99.9% x = 99.9M
µ ¶
2.303 100
t 99.9 = log
k 100 − 99.9
3 × 2.303 6.93
= =
k k
0.693
Since t 1 =
2
k
µ ¶
0.693
t99.9 = × 10
k
t99.9 = 10t1
2

9. A catalyst increases the rate of

reaction by:
(A) Decreasing enthalpy of reactants
(B) Increasing internal energy of
reactants
(C) Decreasing activation energy of
reaction
(D) Increasing activation energy of
reaction
Answer (C)

•Catalyst affects activation energy of

any chemical reaction.
•It increases rate of reaction by
decreasing the activation energy of
reaction.

10. Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
A. Gem stone I. Emulsion
B. Milk II. Solid sol
C. Cloud III. Foam
D. Froth IV. Aerosol
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below :
 (A) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(C) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(D) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Answer (B)

11. Consider the case when a highly

diluted solution of KI is added to
AgNO3 solution. Arrange the
following in the increasing order of
ease of coagulation of the resulting
sol.

A. BaSO4 C. Na3PO4
B. NaCl D. K4[Fe(CN)6]
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below :

(A) A < C < B < D (C) A < B < C < D

(B) D < C < A < B (D) B < A < C < D
 Answer (D)

Since highly diluted KI is added into

AgNO3 solution, the resultant colloidal
solution will be positive charged due
+
to excess Ag .
This positively charged sol will be
coagulated by anion of electrolyte.
Electrolyte having anion with higher
negative charge will have more ease of
coagulation.
Hence order will be
NaCl < BaSO4 < Na3PO4 < K4[Fe(CN)6]

12. Which of the following conditions

can be used to change physical
adsorption of a gas to chemical
adsorption ?
(A) Decrease in temperature
(B) Increase in temperature
(C) Using catalyst
(D) Increasing surface area of adsorbent

Answer (B)

A physical adsorption at low

temperature may pass into
chemisorption as the temperature is
increased.
For example, dihydrogen is first
adsorbed on nickel by van der Waals
force.
Molecules of hydrogen then dissociate
to form hydrogen atoms which are
held on the surface by chemisorption.
13. Which of the following graph(s) are
for First Order Reactions ?

(A) (a) and (d) only

(B) (b) and (c) only
(C) (a), (d) and (e) only
(D) (c) and (e) only

(a) and (d) only

14. Consider the statements for the
metallurgical processes and select
the correct statements :
(A) Malachite is an ore of copper
(B) Bauxite is an ore of aluminium
(C) Calamine is an ore of Zinc
(D) Haematite is an ore of iron
(E) Siderite is an ore of Zinc
Choose the correct statement from the
options given below :
(A) A, B, E and D only
(B) A and B only
(C) A, B, C and D only
(D) A only

Answer (C)
 Name Formula Ore of
Malachite CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 Cu
Bauxite AlOx(OH)3−2x Al
Calamine ZnCO3 Zn
Haematite Fe2O3 Fe
Siderite FeCO3 Fe

15. Arrange the following molecules in

the increasing order of number of
P – OH bonds present in it

(A) H4P2O6 (C) H3PO4

(B) H3PO2 (D) H3PO3
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below :

(A) B < C < D < A (C) D < B < A < C

(B) B < D < C < A (D) D < C < B < A

Answer (B)
16. Arrange the following in the
decreasing order of acidity :

(A) H2O (C) H2Te

(B) H2S (D) H2Se
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below :

(A) D > C > B > A (C) A > B > C > D

(B) C > D > B > A (D) A > B > D > C

Answer (B)
 Acidic character increases from H2O to
H2Te.
The increase in acidic character can be
explained in terms of decrease in bond
enthalpy for the dissociation of H-E
bond down the group.
Owing to the decrease in enthalpy for
the dissociation of H-E bond down the
group, the thermal stability of
hydrides also decreases from H2O to
H2Te.

17. Which of the following molecules

have linear shape ?

(A) XeF2 (C) XeF6

(B) XeF4 (D) XeO3

Answer (A)
 3
XeF2 → sp d → linear
3 2
XeF4 → sp d → square planar
3 3
XeF6 → sp d → Distorted octahedral
3
XeO3 → sp → Pyramidal

18. Which of the following statements

about d-block elements are NOT
correct ?
(A) They show variable oxidation states
(B) They exhibit paramagnetic and
diamagnetic properties
(C) All of their ions are coloured
(D) They exhibit catalytic property

Answer (C)

All of the ion of d-block element are

0 10
not coloured, those with d or d
configuration are generally colourless.
19. The spin only magnetic moment of
3+
Cr ion in BM is :

(A) 1.73 (C) 4.89

(B) 3.87 (D) 3.57

Answer (B)

3+ 3
Cr ⇒ [Ar ]3d
3 unpaired
p electrons
µ = 3(3 + 2)BM
p
= 15BM
= 3.87BM

20. Select the correct statements for the

d-block and f-block elements:
(A) The maximum oxidation state shown
by manganese is +6.
3+
(B) Sc (Scandium) is colourless
(C) Brass is an alloy of Copper and Zinc
(D) Lanthanide series included a total of
 15 elements
(E) V2O5 (Vanadium Pentaoxide) is used
in the manufacturing of sulphuric
acid (by contact process).
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below :

(A) A and B only (C) B, C and E only

(B) A, B and E only (D) B, C and D only

Answer (C)
 •Mn can show +7 as maximum
oxidation state e.g. KMnO4
3+ 0
•Sc is colourless due to d
configuration
•Brass consist 60% Cu and 40% Zn
•Lanthanide series consists 14
elements
•V2O5 is used as a catalyst in
manufacturing of sulphuric acid by
contact process.

21. The IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] is :

(A) Diammine dichlorido platinum (II)
(B) Diammine dichlorido platinum (IV)
(C) Diammine dichlorido platinum (0)
(D) Diimmine dichlorido platinum (IV)

Answer (A)
 [pt(NH3)2Cl2]
IUPAC - Diammine dichlorido
platinum (II)

22. Match List I with List II

List I : (Property)
(A) Transition metal can act as catalyst
(B) Zr and Hf have similar atomic radii
(C) Transition metals form complex
compounds
(D) Transition metals ions are coloured
List II : (Reason)
(I) Due to their high ionic charges,
small size and availability of
d-orbitals
(II) Unpaired electrons in d-orbitals of
metal ions
(III) Ability to adopt multiple oxidation
states and to form complexes
(IV) As consequence of Lanthanoid
contraction
Choose the correct answer from the
option given below :
(A) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(B) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(C) A-III, B-IV-, C-I, D-II
(D) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-III
Answer (C)

23. The donor atoms in ethylene

diamine tetra acetate ions are :
(A) Two N and two O atoms
(B) Two N and four O atoms
(C) Four N and two O atoms
(D) Three N and Three O atoms
Answer (B)

Donor atoms are two N and four O

atoms
24. Indicate the complex ion which does
not show geometrical isomerism :
+
(A) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]
(B) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
3+
(C) [Pt(NH3)6]
3–
(D) [Co(CN)4(NC)2]
Answer (C)

[M(A)6]
Type of complex cannot show
geometrical isomerism

25. Which of the following is the

electronic configuration of the
central metal atom/ion of
2+
[Co(H2O)6] complex ion ?
6 1 5 2
(A) t 2g e g (C) t 2g e g
4 3 6 0
(B) t 2g e g (D) t 2g e g

Answer (C)
 2+
For [Co(H2O)6] H2O will be weak
field ligand as Co is present in +2
oxidation state. Hence electronic
5 2
configuration is, t 2g e g

26. Identify the compound Y in the

following reaction :
+ −
NH2 N2 Cl

NaNO2+HCl Cu2Cl2
−−−−−−−→ −−−−→ Y + N2
278K
(A) Chlorobenzene
(B) Benzene
(C) m− Chlorobenzene
(D) p− Chlorobenzene
Answer (A)

Sandmeyer’s reaction :

27. Consider the following bromides :

 (I) −→ 1-Bromobutane
(II) −→ 3-Bromobutene
(III) −→ 2-Bromobutane
The correct order of reactivity towards
SN 1 reaction is :

(A) I > II > III (C) II > I > III

(B) II > III > I (D) III > II > I

Answer (B)

Reactivity towards SN 1 depends upon

stability of carbocation
Order of stability II > III > I

28. Aryl halides can not be prepared by

the reaction of aryl alcohols with
PCl3, PCl5 or SOCl2 because :
(A) Phenols are highly stable
compounds
(B) Carbon-oxygen bond in phenols has
 a partial double bond character
(C) Carbon-oxygen bond is highly polar
(D) Phenyl cation is stabilised by
resonance

Answer (B)

Carbon-oxygen bond in phenol has a

partial double bond character due to
resonance, so it is very difficult to
break. Hence it cannot be used for
preparation of aryl halide by PCl3,
PCl5 or SOCl2

29. Jones Reagent is :

(A) KMnO4 | H2SO4
(B) K2Cr2O7 | H2SO4
(C) CrO3 | H2SO4
(D) KMnO4 | KOH

Answer (C)
 Chromium trioxide (CrO3) in acidic
media (Jones reagent).

30. Match List I with List II

List I :
Names of drug
(A) Ranitidine
(B) Valium
(C) Codeine
(D) Chloramphenicol
List II :
Class of drugs
(I) Tranquilizer
(II) Narcotic Analgesic
(III) Antibiotic
(IV) Antacid
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below :
(A) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
 (B) A-IV, B-II, C-II, D-I
(C) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(D) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Answer (A)

31. Match List I with List II

List-I
Given pair of organic compounds can
be distinguished by
(1) Ethanal/Propanal
(2) Ethanol/Ethanoic acid
(3) Butanal/Butan-2-one
(4) Benzaldehyde/Ethanal
List-II
Tests
(I) Sodium Hydrogen carbonate test
(II) Fehling’s Test
(III) Tollen’s Test
(IV) Iodoform Test
 Choose the correct answer from the
options given below :
(A) 1 – IV, 2 – I, 3 – II, 4 – III
(B) 1 – III, 2 – II, 3 – IV, 4 – I
(C) 1 – IV, 2 – I, 3 – III, 4 – II
(D) 1 – I, 2 – II, 3 – III, 4 – IV
Answer (C)

32. Identify A and B in the following

reaction :
N H3 2C H3C l
C6H5CH2Cl −−−→ A −−−−−→ B
(A) A = C6H5CH2NH2 ,
B = C6H5CH2NH–CH3
(B) A = C6H5CH3, B = C6H5CH2CH3
(C) A = C6H5CH2NH2,
B = C6H5CH2 N CH3

CH3
(D) A = C6H5CH3, B = C6H5CH2CH2CH3
 Answer (C)

C6H5CH2Cl + NH3 −→
C6H5CH2NH2 + HCl
CH3
2C H3C l
(A) −−−−−→ (B) C6H5CH2 N
CH3

33. Out of the following compounds,

which is the most basic in aqueous
solution ?

(A) CH3—NH2 (C) (CH3)3N

(B) (CH3)2NH (D) C6H5NH2

Answer (B)

Order of basic strength in aqueous

solution :
(CH3)2NH > CH3—NH2 > (CH3)3N >
C6H5NH2
34. Arrange the following in increasing
order of their boiling points :

A. (C2H5)2NH C. C2H5N(CH3)2
B. n-C4H9NH2 D. n-C4H9OH
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below :

(A) B < C < A < D (C) C < A < B < D

(B) C < B < A < D (D) C < D < B < A

Answer (C)

For isomeric Amine order of boiling

point is 1° > 2° > 3°
Alcohol has high BP than amine with
same number of carbon due to
stronger H-bonding.
Hence order C < A < B < D

35. Which of the following is an essential

amino acid ?
 (A) Glycine (B) Alanine
(C) Glutamine (D) Valine
Answer (D)

Valine is an essential amino acid as it

cannot be synthesised in body.

36. In nucleic acids, the Nucleotides are

joined together by
(A) Glycosidic linkage
(B) Phosphodiester linkage
(C) Hydrogen bonds
(D) Weak intermolecular forces
Answer (B)

Nucleotides are joined together by

phosphodiester linkage between 5 and
3 carbon atom of pentose sugar.

37. The letter ‘D’ in carbohydrates

signifies
 (A) Dextrorotatory
(B) Configuration
(C) Diamagnetic character
(D) Optical activity

Answer (B)

The letter ‘D’ in carbohydrates

signifies the substitution orientation
at a centre of chirality i.e.,
configuration.

38. Which of the following monomeric

pair is used to make polymer Nylon
6, 6 ?
(A) Hexane-1, 6 dioic acid and Hexane
-1, 6-diamine
(B) Ethane-1, 2-dioic acid and
Benzene-1, 4-dicarboxylic Acid
(C) Urea and Methanal
(D) Phenol and Methanol
 Answer (A)

Nylon-6, 6 is a copolymer of Hexane-1,

6-dioic acid and Hexane-1, 6-diamine.
nHHN – (CH2)6−NHH + nHOOC−
polymerise
(CH2)4−COOH −−−−−−−→
(−NH−(CH2)6NH−CO – (CH2)4 – CO−)n
Nylon-6, 6

39. Which amongst the following

antibiotics is an example of narrow
spectrum antibiotic ?
(A) Vancomycin
(B) Chloramphenicol
(C) Amoxycillin
(D) Penicillin G
Answer (D)
 Narrow spectrum antibiotics are
effective mainly against Gram-positive
or gram-negative bacteria.
eg : Penicillin G.

40. Which of the following polymers are

obtained by chain growth
polymerisation ?
(A) Orlon
(B) Nylon
(C) Teflon
(D) Nylon 2 - nylon 6
(E) Dacron
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below :

(A) A, E only (C) A, D only

(B) A, C only (D) C, E only

Answer (B)
 Chain growth polymers or addition
polymers are formed by the repeated
addition of monomers molecules
possessing double or
à triple bonds. !
polymerise
nCH2 CH −−−−−−−→ CH2 CH
n
CN CN
Acrylonitrile Orlon
polymerise
³ ´
nCF2=CF2 −−−−−−−→ − CF2 − CF2 −
n
Tetrafluoroethene teflon

41. Isotonic solutions are the solutions

with :
(A) Same vapour pressure
(B) Same temperature
(C) Same osmotic pressure
(D) Same volume
Answer (C)
 Solutions having same osmotic
pressure are known as isotonic
solutions.

42. An unripe mango placed in a

concentrated salt solution to prepare
pickle shrivels because :
(A) It gains water via osmosis
(B) It loses water via reverse osmosis
(C) It gains water via reverse osmosis
(D) It loses water via osmosis

Answer (D)

In osmosis flow of solvent take place

from dilute solution to concentrated
solution.

43. Adding a salt to water leads to

increase in the boiling point of
solution with respect to water
 because :
(A) Vapour pressure of solution is
increased
(B) Solubility of salt in water is increased
(C) Solubility of salt in water is
decreased
(D) Vapour pressure of solution is
decreased

Answer (D)

On adding salt to water, chances of

vapour formation decreases so vapour
pressure decreases as a result boiling
point of solution increases.

44. Salt is used to clear snow on the roads

covered with snow to :
(A) Decrease the freezing point
(B) Increase the boiling point
(C) Increase the osmotic pressure
(D) Increase the solubility of salt

Answer (A)

Salt is used to clear snow on the roads

covered with snow to decrease the
freezing point.

45. Which of the following is a colligative

property ?
(A) Vapour pressure
(B) Osmotic pressure
(C) Freezing point
(D) Boiling point

Answer (B)
Osmotic pressure is a colligative
property as it depends on the number
of particles present in the solution.
Passage :
Ethers are class of organic compounds
that contain ether group – an oxygen
atom connected to two alkyl groups or
aryl groups.
They have the general formula
R – O – R’ where R and R’ represents
the alkyl or aryl groups.
Ether, like water have a tetrahedral
3
geometry i.e., oxygen is sp hybridised.
The C – O – C bond angle in ethers is
slightly greater than the tetrahedral
angle due to repulsive interactions
between the two bulky groups when
they are attached to oxygen.
46. Which of the following cannot be
made by using Williamson Synthesis?
(A) Methoxybenzene
(B) Benzyl p-nitro phenyl ether
(C) tert-Butyl methyl ether
(D) Di-tert-Butyl ether

Answer (D)

Williamson’s synthesis :
∆
R — X + R’ONa −−→ ROR’ + NaX
3°-alkyl Halide not form ether actually
they undergo elimination reaction.
CH3 CH3
− + ∆
CH3 C Cl + CH3 C O Na −−→
CH3 CH3
CH3
CH3 C CH2

47. The IUPAC name of the ether

 CH2 = CH — CH2 — O — CH3 is
(A) Alkyl methyl ether
(B) 1-Methoxyprop-2-ene
(C) 3-Methoxyprop-1-ene
(D) Vinyl dimethyl ether

Answer (C)

CH2 = CH — CH2 — O — CH3 :

3-Methoxyprop-1-ene

48. Dehydration of alcohol to ethers is

catalysed by :
(A) Conc. H2SO4 at 413 K
(B) Hot & NaOH
(C) Hot & HBr
(D) Hot & HNO3
Answer (A)
 Dehydration of alcohols into ether
take place in presence of Conc. H2SO4
at 140°C
H2SO4
2 CH3CH2OH −−−− ◦
→ C 2 H5 OC 2 H5 + H2 O
140 C

CH3
HI
49. CH O CH3 −→ A + B,
CH3
A and B are
CH3
(A) CH I + CH3OH
CH3
CH3
(B) CH OH+CH3I
CH3
CH3
(C) H3C C OH
CH3
(D) CH3OH + CH3I
 Answer (B)

OC2H5

50. + HBr → A + B, A and B are

OH

(A) + C2H5Br

Br

(B) + C2H5OH

OC2H5
Br
(C) + H2O
 OC2H5 OC2H5
Br
(D) +

Br
Answer (A)
d CUET UG Mock Test
î Free General Test is
regularly conducted
by www.cuet.pw for
free. Simply Go to
our website and
download and
start solving.
d Website will be live
within few days
› www.cuet.pw
› Publisher : Libgen Books
www.cuet.pw
Click the website link to open the webpage
› All the books, PDFs,
Mock Test, General Test
and Chapterwise PYQs
published by www.cuet.pw
are fully optimized for
mobile reading and
convenient for your eyes.
› www.cuet.pw website will be
live after 14th or 15th March
š What’s Inside this Crashup
§ 700+ PYQs ChapterWise of
Physics and Chemistry
§ NTA ICAR UG(2019-2022)
ChapterWise PYQs of Physics and
Chemistry
§ Solutions of CUET Chapterwise
Mock Test conducted by
www.cuet.pw
§ CUET 2022 Chemistry Solved Papers
§ Will be available in secured PDF
format (.drmz)
› Publisher : Libgen Books
www.cuet.pw
Click the website link to open the webpage
d Website will be live
within few days
› www.cuet.pw