Statistical Inference

Multiple Choice Questions

Sampling

1. Which of the following is an example of using statistical sampling?

a) Statistical sampling will be looked upon by the courts as providing superior audit
evidence
b) Statistical sampling requires the auditor to make fewer judgmental decisions
c) Statistical sampling aids the auditor in evaluating results
d) Statistical sampling is more convenient to use than non-statistical sampling
2. The sampling procedure in which an interviewer is asked to interview 25 teachers, 50
public servants, and 25 farmers are called
a) Stratified sampling
b) Accidental sampling
c) Spatial sampling

d) Quota sampling
3. Which of the following is not an example of a non-sampling risk?
a) Failing to evaluate results properly
b) Use of an audit procedure inappropriate to achieve a given audit objective
c) Obtaining an unrepresentative sample
d) Failure to recognize an error
4. If all other factors specified in an attribute sampling plan remain constant, changing the
specified tolerable deviation rate from 6% to 10%, and changing the specified risk from
97% to 93%, would cause the required sample size to
a) Remain the same
b) Increase
c) Decrease
d) Change by 4%
5. How is stratified sampling carried out?
a) Divide the population into homogeneous groups and select equally but randomly
b) Assigning numbers to the population & selecting the numbers
c) A sample is made up of elements which are said 10th from the previous selection

d) Population divides itself into groups and we select equally but randomly from
each
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the principles of sampling listed in the text?
 a) Sampling units must be identifiable and clearly defined
b) Sampling units must be representative and include males and females
c) Sampling units are not interchangeable

d) Sampling units must be independent of each other

7. The advantage of using statistical sampling techniques is that such techniques
a) Mathematically measure risk
b) Eliminate the need for judgmental decisions
c) Are easier to use than other sampling technique
d) Have been established in the courts to be superior to non-statistical sampling
8. The sampling procedure that includes all units of the population in the study is called
a) Complete coverage
b) Saturation survey
c) Survey population
d) (a) and (b) above
9. Probability sampling is the procedure that gives all units
a) A chance to be included in the study
b) An equal chance to be selected
c)An equal, calculable and non-zero chance to be selected
d) (a) and (b) above
10. Why do sampling errors occur?
a) Differences between sample and population
b) Differences among samples themselves
c) Choice of elements of sampling
d) All of the above
11. The height distribution of a few students in a school is an example of
a) Element
b) Parameter
c) Population
d) Statistic
12. If the mean of the sampling distribution is equal to the parameters then estimators will be
a) Biased
b) Consistent
c) Sufficient
d) Unbiased
e) Invariant
13. The probability distribution of a statistic is called
a) Sampling Distribution
b) Standard Error
c) Sampling Error
d) Parameter
e) Bias
14. The standard error of mean is the standard deviation of the
 a) Population
b) Sample
c) Sampling Distribution of mean
d) None of these
15. Probability distribution of expected value is called its
a) Standard Error
b) Sampling Distribution
c) Standard Deviation
d) None of these
16. Bias is

a) Cumulative
b) Decumulative
c) Decreasing
d) None of these
17. The unbiased point estimator of the population mean is
a) Sample proportion
b) Sample mean
c) Sample Variance
d) Sample standard deviation
e) None of these
18. The sampling Error is
a) Equal to the population mean
b) Population parameter
c) The difference between the sample statistic and the population parameter
d) Always Positive
e) Always Negative
19. A magazine conducts a survey and asks its readers to cut the questionnaire from the
magazine, fill it and send it via mail. It is a type of
a) Purposive Sampling
b) Snowball Sampling
c) Sequential Sampling
d) Convenience Samplin
20. The sampling technique in which every element of the population has an equal, non-zero
probability of being selected in a sample is called
a) Probability Sampling
b) Convenience Sampling
c) Purposive Sampling
d) Quota Sampling
e) Stratified Sampling
21. Sampling error is reduced by
a) Increasing the population
b) Decreasing the sample size
 c) Increasing the sample size
d) Non-random sampling
22. In random sampling, the probability of selecting an item from the population is
a) Zero
b) One

c) Known
d) Unknown
23. In sampling without replacement, an element can be chosen

a) Only once
b) Difficult to tell
c) Will not be choosen
d) More than once
24. Sampling is also called

a) Non-probability sampling
b) Biased sampling
c) Random sampling
d) Representative sampling
25. Random Sampling is also called
a) Sampling error
b) Random error

c) Probability sampling
d) Non-Probability sampling
26. Suppose a finite population contains 4 items and 2 items are selected at random with
replacement, then how many samples will be there
a) 8
b) 4

c) 10
d)6
 27.In sampling with replacement, the following is always true
a) n < N

b) All options
c) n = N
d) n > N
28. Suppose a finite population has 6 items and 2 items are selected at random without
replacement, then all possible samples will be
a) 12
b) 36

c) 15
d) 6
29. Find the number of all the possible samples from a population containing 8 items from which
2 items are selected at random without replacement
a) 56

b) 28
c) 66
d ) 38
30. A bag contains 6 balls of different colors. A student select 2 balls at random without
replacement. Find all possible combinations of the colour of the selected balls.
a) 13
b) 14

c) 15
d) 16
31. Consider a population containing N items and n are selected as a sample with replacement.
a) N

b) 𝑛𝑁

𝒄) 𝑵𝒏
e) None of above
32. Find the sampling fraction where N is population size and n is the sample size?
𝒏
a) 𝑵

b) 𝑛𝑁

c) 𝑁 𝑛
d) None of above
33. Find the standard error X in a sampling distribution with replacement. Given that
standard deviation of the population of 16 items is 8?
a) 3
b) 4

c) 2
d) 5
34. Standard deviation of the sampling distribution of a statistic is called
a) Bias
b) Error
c) Standard error
d) Difference
35. Study of population is called
a) Parameter
b) Census
c) Error
d) Statistic
36. A population about which we want to get some information is called
a) Target population
b) Finite population
c) Infinite population
d) Sampled population
37. In sampling with replacement, an element can be chosen
a) Less than once
b) Difficult to tell
c) More than once
d) Only once
38. The probability distribution of a statistic is called
a) Parameter
b) Sampling distribution
c) Relative frequency
d) Sampling
39. Sample is a subset of
a) Data
b) Distribution
c) Population
d) Random sample
40. In probability sampling, the probability of selecting an item from the population is
known and is
a) Any negative value
b) Equal to zero
c) Equal to zero
d) Non-zero
41. Any calculation on the sample data is called
a) Parameter
b) Statistic
c) Error
d) Average
42. The difference between a statistic and the parameter is called
a) Bias
b) Random error
c) Sampling error
d) Error
43. If we obtain a point estimate X for a population mean μ, the difference
between X and μ is called
a) Random error
b) Standard error
c) Bias
d) Error of estimation
44. Any measure of the population is called
a) Statistic
b) Parameter
c) Error
d) Statistics
45. A distribution formed by all possible values of a statistic is called
a) Frequency distribution
b) Binomial distribution
c) Sampling distribution
d) Probability distribution
46. For making voters list in Pakistan we need
a) Sampling error
b) Standard error
c) Simple random sampling
d) Census
47. List of all the units of the population is called
a) Random sampling
b) Sampling frame
c) Probability sampling
d) Bias
48. Sampling-based upon equal probability is called
a) Probability sampling
b) Systematic sampling
c) Stratified random sampling
d) Simple random sampling
49. If 𝜎1 = 𝜎2 =𝜎 and 𝑛1 ≠ 𝑛2 then S.E (𝑋2 − 𝑋1 ) is

𝜎 𝜎
a) √𝑛1 + 𝑛2
1 2

𝜎12 𝜎22
b) √𝑛 −
1 𝑛2
𝜎12 𝜎22
c) √𝑛 +
1 𝑛2
𝟏 𝟏
d) 𝝈√𝒏! + 𝒏
𝟐
50. If E()= then bias is
a) Positive
b) Zero
c) 100%
d) Negative
51. A plan for obtaining a sample from a population is called
a) Sampling design
b) Population design
c) Sampling frame
d) Sampling distribution
52. Sum of all sample means/Total number of samples is equal to
a) Both E( 𝑿 )and μ
b) 𝜇
c) E( 𝑋 )
d) 𝑝̂
53. If 𝑝1= 𝑝2 =p and 𝑛1 ≠ 𝑛2 , then S.E (𝑝̂ 1− 𝑃̂2 ) is
𝑃1 𝑞1 𝑝2 𝑞2
a) √ 𝑛1
-√ 𝑛2
𝑝1𝑞1 𝑝2 𝑞2
b) +
𝑛1 𝑛2
𝟏 𝟏
c) √𝒑𝒒 (𝒏 + 𝒏𝟐
)
𝟏
𝑝1𝑞1 𝑝2 𝑞2
d) −
𝑛1 𝑛2
54. The mean of sampling distribution of means is equal to
a) Population mean
b) Sample mean
c) Combined mean
d) Weighted mean
55. The selection of cricket team for the world cup is called
 a) Random sampling
b) Cluster sampling
c) Purposive sampling
d) Systematic sampling
56. In sampling with replacement, standard error of the sample proportion 𝑝̂ is equal to
𝒑 ( 𝟏−𝒑)
a) √
𝒏
𝑝+𝑞
b) √ 2
𝑝 (1−𝑝)
c)
𝑝
𝑝 (1−𝑝) 𝑁−𝑛
d) √ × √
𝑛 𝑁−1
57. The standard deviation of any sampling distribution is called
a) Covariance
b) Coefficient of variation
c) Standard error
d) Type-I error
58. A sample which is free from bias is called
a) Negatively biased
b) Biased
c) Unbiased
d) Positively biased
59. If a survey is conducted by a sampling design is called
a) Population survey
b) Sample survey
c) Observational study
d) Systematic survey
60. The difference between the expected value of a statistic and the value of the
parameter being estimated is called a ___________
a) Sampling error
b) Bias
c) Error
d) Standard error
61. The mean of sampling distribution of means is equal to
a) 𝑋
b) μ
c) p
d) 𝜇𝑑
62. A complete list of all the sampling units is called:
a) Sampling frame
b) Cluster
c) Population frame
d) Sampling design
63. The standard error increases when sample size is _____
a) Decreased
 b) Increased
c) Fixed
d) More than 30
64. Suppose a population has N items and n items are selected with replacement. Number of
all possible samples will be
a) n
b) N
𝑁
c) ( )
𝑛
d) 𝑵𝒏
65. Sampling error is reduced by
a) Increasing the population
b) Decreasing the sample size
c) Increasing the sample size
d) Non-random sampling
66. Suppose a finite population contains 7 items and 3 items are selected at random without
replacement, then all possible samples will be
a) 7
b) 35
c) 21
d) 14
67. In random sampling, the probability of selecting an item from the population is
a) Zero
b) One
c) Known
d) Unknown
68. In sampling without replacement, an element can be chosen
a) Only once
b) Difficult to tell
c) Will not be chosen
d) More than once
69. Non-random sampling is also called
a) Non-probability sampling
b) Biased sampling
c) Random sampling
d) Representative sampling
70. Random Sampling is also called
a) Sampling error
b) Random error
c) Probability sampling
d) Non-Probability sampling
71. Suppose a finite population contains 4 items and 2 items are selected at random with
replacement, then how many samples will be there
a) 8
 b) 4
c) 10
d) 6

72. A population contains 2 items and 4 items are selected at random with replacement, then
all possible samples will be
a) 8
𝟒
b) ( )
𝟐
c) 4
d) 16
73. In sampling with replacement, the following is always true
a) n < N
b) All options
c) n = N
d) n > N
74. In sampling with replacement, the standard error of X is equal to
𝜎 𝑛
a)
√𝑛 √𝑁
𝜎2
b)
𝑛
𝜎 𝑁−𝑛
c) √
√𝑛 𝑁−1
𝝈
d)
√𝒏
75. The finite population correction factor is
𝑁+𝑛
a) √ 𝑁+1
𝑵−𝒏
b) √𝑵−𝟏
𝑁−1
c) √𝑁−𝑛
𝑁+1
d) √𝑁+𝑛
76. A population contains N items and all possible samples of size n are selected without
replacement. The possible number of samples will be
a) (𝑁 𝑛 )
b) N
c) 𝑛𝑁
𝑵
d) ( )
𝒏
77. If N is the size of the population and n is the sample size, then sampling fraction is
𝑁
a) ( )
𝑛
b) 𝑁 𝑛
𝒏
c) 𝑵
d) 𝑛𝑁
78. Suppose a finite population has 6 items and 2 items are selected at random without
replacement, then all possible samples will be
a) 12
b) 36
c) 15
d) 6
79. The sample is a subset of
a) Data
b) Group
c) Population
d) Itself
e) Distribution
80. The difference between statistic and parameter is called
a) Random Error
b) Sampling Error
c) Standard Error
d) Bias
e) Error
81. In sampling with replacement, a sampling unit can be selected
a) Only once
b) More than one time
c) Less than one time
d) None of the above
82. Non Probability form of sampling is
a) Random Sampling
b) Non-Random Sampling
c) Probability Sampling
d) Quota Sampling
83. In random sampling, the probability of selecting an item from the population is
a) Unknown
b) Known
c) Undecided
d) One
e) Zero
84. Any numerical value calculated from sample data is called
a) Error
b) Statistic
c) Bias
d) Mean
85. Any numerical value computed from the population is called
a) Statistic
b) Bias
c) Sampling Error
d) Error
e) Parameter
86. Sampling in which a sampling unit can be repeated more than once is called
a) Sampling without replacement
b) Simple sampling
c) Sampling with replacement
d) None of the above
87. The list of all units in a population is called
a) Random sampling
b) Sampling Frame
c) Bias
d) Parameter
e) Statistic
88. Non-Sampling error is reduced by
a) Increasing Sample Size
b) Decreasing Sample Size
c) Reducing the Amount of Data
d) None of these
89. The standard deviation of the sampling distribution of any statistic is called
a) Sampling Error
b) Type-I Error
c) Non Sampling Error
d) Standard Deviation
e) Standard Error
90. The sampling Error is
a) Equal to the population mean
b) Population parameter
c) The difference between the sample statistic and the population parameter
d) Always Positive
e) Always Negative
91. The standard error of mean is the standard deviation of the
a) Population
b) Sample
c) Sampling Distribution of X
d) None of these
92. The unbiased point estimator of the population mean is
a) Sample proportion
b) Sample mean
c) Sample Variance
d) Sample standard deviation
93. The probability distribution of a statistic is called
a) Sampling Distribution
b) Standard Error
c) Sampling Error
d) Parameter
e) Bias
94. The sampling technique in which every element of the population has an equal, non-zero
probability of being selected in a sample is called
a) Probability Sampling
b) Convenience Sampling
c) Purposive Sampling
d) Quota Sampling
e) Stratified Sampling
 Estimation

1. The other name of significance level is

a) Type-I error
b) Type-II error
c) Error
d) Bias
2. A function that is used to estimate a parameter is called
a) Bias
b) Estimate
c) Estimation
d) Estimator
3. A specific value calculated from sample is called
a) Estimator
b) Estimate
c) Estimation
d) Bias
4. In point estimation we get
a) More than one value
b) A single value
c) Some arbitrary internal values
d) None of these
5. The following statistics are unbiased
a) Sample means
b) Sample proportion
c) Sample variance
d) All of these
6. The formula used to estimate a parameter is called:-
a) Estimate
b) (b) Estimation
c) (c) Estimator
d) (d) Confidence Interval

7. If E(𝜃̂) = 𝜃 then 𝜃̂ is called

a) Biased Estimator
b) Unbiased Estimator
c) Positively Biased
d) Negatively Biased
8. The level of confidence is denoted by :-
a) 1 – β
 b) α
c) β
d) 1 – α
9. 1– α is called
a) Level of significance
b) Power of the test
c) Level of confidence
d) Error
10. A statistic 𝜃̂ 𝑖𝑠 said to be unbiased estimator of θ if
a) E(𝜃̂) ≠ 𝜃
b) E(𝜃̂) < 𝜃
c) E(𝜃̂) > 𝜃
d) E(𝜽̂) = 𝜽
11. What will be the confidence level if the level of significance is 5%(0.05)
a) 90%
b) 95%
c) 99%
d) 5%
12. The probability that the confidence interval does not contain the population parameters
is denoted by
a) α
b) β
c) 1 – α
d) 1 – β
13. The way of finding the unknown value of population parameter from the sample values
by using a formula is called
a) Estimator
b) Estimation
c) Estimate
d) Bias
14. The probability that the confidence interval does contain the parameter is denoted by
a) Α
b) Β
c) 1 – α
d) 1 – β
15. The following is an unbiased estimator of the population variance σ2
(∑𝑋−𝑋̅ )2
a) S2= 𝑛
̅ )𝟐
(∑𝑿−𝑿
b) 𝑺𝟐 = 𝒏−𝟏
√(∑𝑋−𝑋̅)2
c) 𝑆 =
√𝑛
 √(∑𝑋−𝑋̅ )2
d) S=
√𝑛_1
16. If α=0.10 and n=15 then tα/2will be
a) 2.145
b) 1.753
c) 1.761
d) 1.771
17. An estimator Tn is said to be sufficient statistic for a parameter function τ(θ) if it
contained all the information which is contained in the
a) None of these
b) Parametric function
c) Sample
d) Population
18. For an estimator to be consistent ,the unbiasedness of the estimator is
a) Neither Necessary nor sufficient
b) Sufficient
c) None of these
d) Necessary
19. By the method of moments one can estimate
a) All constants of a population
b) All moments of a population distribution
c) All of the options
d) Only mean and variance of a distribution
20. Criteria to check a point estimator to be good are
a) Consistency
b) All of the options
c) Efficiency
d) Unbiasedness
21. Crammer-Rao inequality is valid n the case of
a) Upper bound on the variance
b) The asymptotic variance of an estimator
c) None of these
d) Lower bound on the variance
22. A quantity obtained by applying a certain rule or formula is known as
a) Estimator
b) Estimate
c) Test statistics
d) Estimation
23. The consistency of an estimator can be checked by comparing
a) Mean square
b) Mean
c) Standard Deviation
d) Variance
24. Rao-Blackwell Theorem enables us to obtain minimum variance unbiased estimator
through
a) Efficient statistics
b) Unbiased estimator
c) Sufficient statistics
d) Complete statistics
25. If the sample average 𝑥̅ 𝑖𝑠 𝑎𝑛 𝑒𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑝𝑜𝑝𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑚𝑒𝑎𝑛 𝜇, 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑥̅ 𝑖𝑠
a) Biased and Efficient
b) Unbiased and Efficient
c) Biased and Inefficient
d) Unbiased and Inefficient
26. Sample median as an estimator of the population mean is always
a) Unbiased
b) Sufficient
c) Efficient
d) None of all these
27. If n1 = 16 , n2 = 9 and α=0.01 , then tα/2 will be
a) 2.807
b) 2.787
c) 2.797
d) 3.767
28. A large sample contains more than
a) 20 values
b) 10 values
c) 30 values
d) 5 values
29. In a Z- test the number of degrees of freedom is
a) None of these
b) 𝑛 − 1
c) n –2
d) 1
30. A statistician calculates a95% confidence interval for µ when σ is known. The confidence
interval is Rs. 18000 to 22000, and then amount of sample means 𝑋̅ is
a) Rs 18000
b) Rs 20000
c) Rs 22000
d) Rs 40000
31. By decreasing 𝑋̅the length of confidence of interval for µ
a) No effect
b) Increases
c) None of these
d) Decreases
32. For α=0.05 ,the critical value of Z0.05is equal to
a) 2.58
b) (b)1.96
c) 1.645
d) 2.33
33. If µ=130 , 𝑿̅ =150 ,σ=5 and n=10. What statistic is appropriate
a) t
b) F
c) Z
d) X2
34. In applying t- test
a) n is small
b) σ is unknown
c) n is large
d) σ is known
35. The width of confidence interval decreases if the confidence coefficient is
a) One
b) Fixed
c) Increased
d) Decreased
36. A sample is considered a small sample if the size is
a) Less than 30
b) 30 or less
c) 60
d) 100
37. t- distribution is used when
a) Sample is small
b) σ2 is unknown
c) Population is normal
d) All of these options
38. If 1-α = 0.90 then value of Z α/2 is
a) 2.328
b) 1.96
c) 1.645
d) 2.575
39. If the population Standard Deviation is unknown and the sample size is less than
30 ,then confidence interval for the population mean (µ)is
𝑺
̅ ±tα/2(n-1)
a) 𝑿
√𝒏
 𝜎 2
b) 𝑋̅ ± t α/2 𝑛
√

𝑆
c) 𝑋̅ ± Zα/2 𝑛
√

𝑆
d) 𝑋̅ ± tα/2
√𝑛

40. The following statistics are unbiased estimators

a) sample mean

b) all of these

c) the sample variance

d) the sample proportion

41. If the population standard deviation (σ) is

𝑺
̅ ± 𝒁𝜶
a) 𝑿
𝟐 √𝒏

𝑠
b) 𝑋̅ ± 𝑍𝛼
2 √𝑛

𝜎
c) 𝑋̅ ± 𝑍𝛼
2 √𝑛

𝑠𝑑
d) 𝑋̅ ± 𝑡𝛼 𝑛
2 √

42. A 95% confidence interval for population proportion is 32.4% to 47.6 % the value of
the sample proportion is
a) 40%

b) 32.4%

c) 80%

d) 47.6%

43. For a normal population with known population standard deviation(σ1) and(σ2)
the confidence interval estimate for the difference between two population
mean(𝜇1 − 𝜇2 )is

𝝈 𝝈 𝟐 𝟐
̅̅̅̅𝟏 − ̅̅̅̅
a)(𝑿 𝑿𝟐 ) ± 𝒁𝜶 √𝒏 + √ 𝒏𝟐
𝟐 𝟏 𝟐
 2
̅̅̅2 ) ± 𝑍𝛼 √𝜎1 +𝜎2
̅̅̅1 − 𝑋
b)(𝑋 𝑛 +𝑛 2 1 2

2
̅̅̅2 ) ± 𝑍𝛼 √𝜎1 𝜎2
̅̅̅1 − 𝑋
c)(𝑋 𝑛 𝑛 2 1 2

2 2
̅̅̅2 ) ± 𝑍𝛼 √ 𝑠1 + 𝑠2
̅̅̅1 − 𝑋
d)(𝑋 𝑛 𝑛
2 1 2

44. Suppose the 90% confidence interval for population mean μ is -24.3 cents to 64.3
cents the sample mean is
a)-24.3

b) 20

c) 40

d) 64.3

45. In the case of paired observation (for a small sample n is less than equals to30 ) the
confidence interval estimate for the difference of two population means μ1 -μ2 =μd
𝑠𝑑
a) 𝑑̅ ± 𝑡𝛼 (𝑛1 + 𝑛2 − 1) 𝑛
2 √

𝑆
b) 𝑋̅ + 𝑍𝛼
2 √𝑛

𝑠𝑑
c) 𝑑̅ ± 𝑡𝛼 (𝑛 − 1) 𝑛
2 √

𝒔𝟐𝟏 +𝒔𝟐𝟏
̅ ± 𝒕𝜶 (𝒏 − 𝟏)
d) 𝒅
𝟐 √𝒏

46. If the population standard deviation σ is unknown and the sample size n is less than
or equals to 30 the confidence interval for the population mean μ is
𝑠
a)𝑋̅ ± 𝑡𝛼
2 √𝑛

𝝈
̅ ± 𝒛𝜶
b)𝑿
𝟐 √𝒏

𝑆
c)𝑋̅ ± 𝑍𝛼
2 √𝑛

𝑝̂𝑞̂
d) 𝑝̂ ± 𝑍𝛼 √ 𝑛
2
47. If n1 and n2 is smaller then and equals to 30 the confidence interval estimate for the
difference of two population means (μ1-μ2) when population standard deviations
σ1,σ2 are known but equal in case of pooled variats is

𝜎 𝜎 2 2
a)(𝑋̅1 − 𝑋̅2 ) ± 𝑍𝛼 √ 𝑛1 + 𝑛2
2 1 2

𝑠 𝑠 2 2
b)(𝑋̅1 − 𝑋̅2 ) ± 𝑡𝛼(𝑢) √𝑛1 + 𝑛2
2 1 2

2 2
̅̅̅2 ) ± 𝑍𝛼 √𝑆1 + 𝑆2
̅̅̅1 − 𝑋
c)(𝑋 𝑛
2 𝑛1 2

𝟏 𝟏
̅̅̅̅𝟏 − ̅̅̅̅
d)(𝑿 𝑿𝟐 ) ± 𝒕𝜶 𝑺𝒑 √𝒏 + 𝒏
𝟐 𝟏 𝟐

48. For a large sample the confidence interval estimate for the difference between two
population proportions p1-p2 is

a)(𝑝̂1 − 𝜎̂2 ) ± 𝑍𝛼 √𝑝̂1 𝑞̂1 + 𝑝̂ 2 𝑞̂2

2

𝑝̂1 𝑞̂1 +𝑝̂2 𝑞̂2

b)(𝑝̂1 − 𝜎̂2 ) ± 𝑍𝛼 √
2 𝑛1 +𝑛2

̂𝟏 𝒒
𝒑 ̂𝟏 ̂𝟐 𝒒
𝒑 ̂𝟐
c)(𝒑 ̂ 𝟐 ) ± 𝒁𝜶 √
̂𝟏 − 𝝈 +
𝟐 𝒏𝟏 𝒏𝟐

𝑝̂1 𝑞̂1 +𝑝̂2 𝑞̂2

d)(𝑝̂1 − 𝜎̂2 ) ± 𝑍𝛼 √
2 𝑛1 𝑛2

49. If t-distribution for two independent sample n1=n2=n, then the degree of freedom
will be
a)n-1

b)2n+1

c)2n-2

d)2n-1

50. Which one of the following is a biased estimator:

̅ )𝟐
∑(𝑿−𝑿
a)𝑺𝟐 = 𝒏

∑(𝑋−𝑋̅ )2
b) 𝑠 2 = 𝑛−1
 ∑𝑋
c)𝑋̅ = 𝑛

𝑋
d)𝑝̂ = 𝑛

51. For n paired of number of observations the degree of freedom for paired sample t-
test will be
a)𝑛1 + 𝑛2 − 1

b)𝑛1 − 𝑛2 − 2

c) n-1

d) n

52. If 1- α = 0.90 then value of Zα/2 is

a) 2.326

b) 2.575

c) 1.645

d) 1.96

53. If the population standard deviation σ is known and the sample size (n) is less than
or equal to or more than 30, the confidence interval for the population mean μ is
𝑠
a)𝑋̅ ± 𝑡𝛼
2 √𝑛

𝝈
̅ ± 𝒁𝜶
b)𝑿
𝟐 √𝒏

𝑆
c)𝑋̅ ± 𝑍𝛼
2 √𝑛

̂
𝑝𝑞
d)𝑝̂ ± 𝑍𝛼 √ 𝑛
2

54. A statistics is an unbiased estimator of a parameter if:

a) E (statistics) =Parameter
b) E (Mean) = Variance
c) E (Variance) =Mean
d) E (Sample mean) =Proportion

55. A set of jointly sufficient statistics is defined to be minimal sufficient if and only if
a) It is a function of every other set of sufficient statistics
b) It is not a function of every other set of sufficient statistics
c) It is a function of some other set of sufficient statistics
d) It is a function of any sufficient statistics in the set
56. Which of the following assumptions are required to show the consistency,
unbiasedness , and efficiency of the OLS estimator
I.𝐸(𝜇𝑡) = 0

II.𝐶𝑜𝑣(𝜇𝑡, 𝜇𝑡−𝑗) = 0;𝑡 ≠ 𝑡 – 𝑗

III.𝑣𝑎𝑟(𝜇𝑡) = 𝜎 2

IV.𝜇𝑡 ∼ 𝑁(0, 𝜎 2 )

(a) 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 2 3 and 4 only
57. Let 𝐿(𝜃; 𝑋1,𝑋2, ⋯ , 𝑋𝑛) be the likelihood function for a sample 𝑋1 ,𝑋2, ⋯ ,𝑋𝑛 ℎ𝑎𝑣𝑖𝑛𝑔
𝑗𝑜𝑖𝑛𝑡 𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑓(𝑥1 , 𝑥2 , ⋯ , 𝑥𝑛; 𝜃) where ? belong to parameter space. Then a test
=𝑆𝑢𝑝𝜃𝜀𝛩0𝐿(𝜃;𝑥1,𝑥2,⋯,𝑥𝑛)
defined as𝜆 = 𝜆𝑛 =𝜆(𝑥1, 𝑥2, ⋯ , 𝑥𝑛) 𝑆𝑢𝑝𝜃𝜀𝜗𝐿(𝜃;𝑥1 ;𝑥2 ;….𝑥𝑛 )
a) Generalized Likelihood Ratio test
b) Most Powerful Uniformly Test
c) Monotone Likelihood Ratio Test
d) Unbiased Test
58. If 𝑋1,𝑋2, ⋯ , 𝑋𝑛 𝑖𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑗𝑜𝑖𝑛𝑡 𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑜𝑓 𝑛 𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑜𝑚 𝑣𝑎𝑟𝑖𝑎𝑏𝑙𝑒𝑠, 𝑠𝑎𝑦𝑓(𝑋1, 𝑋2, ⋯ , 𝑋𝑛;
𝜃), 𝑤ℎ𝑖𝑐ℎ 𝑖𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑑 𝑡𝑜 𝑏𝑒 𝑎𝑓𝑢𝑛𝑐𝜃𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑜𝑓 𝜃 . Then𝐿(𝜃; 𝑋1,𝑋2, ⋯ , 𝑋𝑛)𝑖𝑠 𝑐𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑑
a) Maximum likelihoodfunction
b) Likelihood Function
c) Log Function
d) Marginal Function
59. For two estimators 𝑇1 = 𝑡1(𝑋1,𝑋2, ⋯ ,𝑋𝑛)𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑇2 =𝑡2(𝑋1,𝑋2, ⋯ ,𝑋𝑛) 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛
𝑒𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑜𝑟 𝑡1 𝑖𝑠 𝑑𝑒𝑓𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑑 𝑡𝑜 𝑏𝑒𝑅𝑡1(𝜃) ≤ 𝑅𝑡2(𝜃) 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑎𝑙𝑙 𝜃 𝑖𝑛 Θ
a) Admissible Estimator
b) Sufficient Estimator
c) Consistent Estimator
60. For a biased estimator Minimax Estimator 𝜃 𝑜𝑓 𝜃 𝑤ℎ𝑖𝑐ℎ 𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑖𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑡
a) 𝑀𝑆𝐸 ( 𝜃 ) = 𝑆𝐷 ( 𝜃 ) + 𝐵𝑖𝑎𝑠
b) 𝑴𝑺𝑬( 𝜽 ) = 𝑽𝒂𝒓 ( 𝜽 ) + 𝑩𝒊𝒂𝒔?
c) 𝑀𝑆𝐸 ( 𝜃 ) = 𝑉𝑎𝑟 ( 𝜃 ) + 𝐵𝑖𝑎𝑠
d) 𝑀𝑆𝐸 ( 𝜃 ) = 𝑆𝐷 ( 𝜃 ) + 𝐵𝑖𝑎𝑠2
61. Let Z1,Z2,Z3,…Zn 𝑏e 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑒𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑙𝑦 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑖𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑦 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑏𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑜𝑚
𝑣𝑎𝑟𝑖𝑎𝑏𝑙𝑒𝑠, 𝑠𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑠𝑓𝑦𝑖𝑛𝑔𝐸[|𝑍𝑡|] < Let N Be An Integer Valued Random Variable
 Whose Value N depends Only On the Values of The first n𝑍𝑖 s .Suppose𝐸(𝑁) <∞,Then
E(𝑍1 + 𝑍2 … + 𝑍𝑛 )=E (N)(𝑍𝑖 )is called
a) Independence Equation
b) Neyman Pearson lemma
c) Sequential Probability likelihood
d) Walds Equa
62. Let 𝑋1,𝑋2, ⋯ , 𝑋𝑛 𝑏𝑒 𝑎 𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑜𝑚 𝑠𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑙𝑒 𝑓𝑟𝑜𝑚 𝑎 𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑓(𝑥|𝜃)𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒𝜃 𝑖𝑠 𝑎 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓
𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑜𝑚 𝑣𝑎𝑟𝑖𝑎𝑏𝑙𝑒 Θ with a known density𝑔Θ(𝜃) 𝑇ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑒𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑟 𝜏(𝜃) 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ
𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑡𝑜 𝑝𝑟𝑖𝑜𝑟 𝑔Θ(𝜃)𝑖𝑠 𝑑𝑒𝑓𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑑 𝑎𝑠𝐸[𝜏(𝜃)|𝑋1,𝑋2, ⋯ , 𝑋𝑛]𝑖𝑠 𝑐𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑑
a) Minimax Estimator
b) Posterior Bay’s Estimator
c) Bay’s Estimator
d) Sufficient Estimator
63. If the 𝑉𝑎𝑟(𝑇2) < 𝑉𝑎𝑟(𝑇1)𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛𝑇2 𝑖𝑠
a) 𝑈𝑛𝑏𝑖𝑎𝑠𝑒𝑑
b) 𝑬𝒇𝒇𝒊𝒄𝒊𝒆𝒏𝒕
c) 𝑺𝑢𝑓𝑓𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑒𝑛𝑡
d) 𝐶𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑡
64. If 𝐸 ( 𝜃 ) = 𝜃 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝜃 𝑖𝑠 𝑠𝑎𝑖𝑑 𝑡𝑜 𝑏𝑒
a) Unbiased
b) Sufficient
c) Efficient
d) Consistent
65. In statistical inferences ,the best asymptotically normal estimator is denoted by
a) BAN
b) CANE
c) BANE
d) A and B
66. If Var(𝜃) → 0𝑎𝑠 𝑛 → 0 then 𝜃 is said to be
a) Unbiased
b) Sufficient
c) Efficient
d) Consistent
67. Let 𝑋1 , 𝑋2 , … , 𝑋𝑛 be a random sample from the density f(𝑥; 𝜃)where 𝜃may be a
vector if the conditional distribution of 𝑋1 , 𝑋2 , … 𝑋𝑛 given=sn does not depend on𝜃
for anyvalue of 𝜃 s of S, then statistics is called.
a) Minimax statistics
b) Efficient
c) Sufficient
d) Minimal sufficient statistics
 [𝜏́ (𝜃)]2
68. 𝑉𝑎𝑟𝜃 (𝑇) ≥ 𝜕 where T=t (𝑋1 , 𝑋2 … 𝑋𝑛 )is an unbiased estimator . 𝜏(𝜃).
𝑛𝐸[ log 𝑓(𝑋;𝜃)2 ]
𝜕𝜃
Then above inequality is called
a) Cauchy Schwarz Inequality
b) Bool’s Inequality
c) Chebyshev’s Inequality
d) Crammer Roa inequality
69. A test is said to be the most powerful test of size α, if
a) Among all other tests of size α or greater it has the largest
b) Among all other tests of size α or less ,it has the largest power
c) Among all other tests of size α or greater it has the α-1
d) Among all other tests of size α or greater , it has the smallest power
70. If the conditional distribution of 𝑋1 , 𝑋2 , … 𝑋𝑛 does not depend upon 𝜃, for any value
of S=s , the statistics S=s (𝑋1 , 𝑋2 , … 𝑋𝑛 )is called
a) Unbiased
b) Consistent
c) Sufficient
d) Efficient
 Hypothesis
1. If we reject the null hypothesis, we might be making
a) Type-| error
b) Type-|| error
c) A correct decision
d) Unpredictable
2. 1-𝜶 is the probability of
a) Type-| error
b) Rejection decision
c) Acceptance Region
d) Type-|| error
3. The t distributions are
a) Same as normal curve
b) Skewed
c) Symmetrical
d) None of these
4. Condition for applying the central limit Theorem (CLT) which approximates the
sampling distribution of mean with a normal distribution is
a) N < 30
b) n/N > 5
c) N(1-P) > 5
d) N > 30
5. What is the probability of a type II error when 𝜶 = 0.05
a) 0.025
b) 0.05
c) 0.95
d) Cannot be determined without more information
6. For t distribution, increasing the sample size, the effect will be on
a) Degree of freedom
b) The t-ratio
c) Standard error of the mean
d) All of the above
7. Analysis of variance (ANOVA) is a test for equality of
a) Variance
b) Means
c) Proportions
d) Only two parameters
8. In a Wilcoxon Rank-Sum test
a) Ties never affect the decision
b) Ties always affect the decision
c) c)Ties within one sample may affect the decision
d) d)Ties between the two samples may affect the decision
9. Three brands of coffee are rated for taste on a scale of 1 to 10. Six persons are asked to rate
each brand so that there is a total of 18 observations. The appropriate test to determine if
three brand taste equally good is
a) One way analysis of variance (ANOVA)
b) Wilcoxon Rank-Sum test
c) Spearman Rank difference
d) Kruskal-Wallis test
10. To perform a Runs test for randomness the data must be
a) Qualitative
b) Quantitative
c) Divided into at least two classifications
d) Divided into exactly two classification
11. The Runs test results in rejecting the null hypothesis of randomness when
a) There is an unusually large number of runs
b) There is an unusually small number of runs
c) Either of the above
d) None of the above
12. When testing for randomness, we can use
a) Mann-Whitney U test
b) Sign test
c) Runs test
d) None of these
13. Wilcoxon Rank-Sum test can be of
a) Upper tailed
b) Lower tailed
c) Either of the above
d) none of the above
14. The sign test assumes that the
a) Samples are independent
b) Samples are dependent
c) Samples have the same mean
d) None of these
15. When using the sign test, if two scores are tied, then
a) We count them
b) We discard them
c) We depend upon the scores
d) None of these
16. Which of the following tests is most likely assessing this null hypothesis: The number of
violations per apartment in the population of all city apartments is binomially distributed with
a probability of success in any one trial of
a) The Kolmogorov-Smirnov test
b) The Kruskal-Wallis test
c) The Mann-Whitney test
d) The Wilcoxon Signed-Rank test
17. The Wilcoxon Signed Rank test is used
a) Only with independent samples
b) Only in matched pairs samples (dependent samples)
c) As an alternative to the Kruskal-Wallis test
d) To test for randomness
18. The non-parametric equivalent of an unpaired samples t-test is
a) Sign test
b) Wilcoxon signed-rank test
c) Mann-Whitney U test
d) Kruskal Wallis Test
19. The Wilcoxon Rank-Sum test used to compare
a) Two populations
b) Three Populations
c) A sample mean to the population mean
d) Any number of populations
20. The sign test is
a) Less Powerful than that of the Wilcoxon signed-rank test
b) More Powerful than the paired sample t-test
c) More Powerful than the Wilcoxon signed-rank test
d) Equivalent to Mann-Whitney test
21. In testing for the difference between two populations, it is possible to use
a) The Wilcoxon Rank-Sum test
b) The Sign test
c) Either of the above
d) None of the above
22. The Mann-Whitney U test is preferred to a t-test when
a) Data are paired
b) Sample sizes are small
c) The assumption of normality is not met
d) Sample is dependent
23. The Spearman Rank-Correlation test requires that the
a) Data must be measured on the same scale
b) Data should be of ordinal scale at least
c) Data must be from two independent samples
d) Data must be distributed at least approximately as t-distribution
24. Which of the following test must be two-sided?
a) Kruskal-Wallis
b) Wilcoxon Signed-Rank
c) Runs test
d) Sign test
25. Which of the following test use Rank Sums
a) F-test
b) Chi-Square and Sign tests
 c) Runs test
d) Kruskal-Wallis and Wilcoxon tests
26. Comparing the times-to-failure of radar transponders made by firms A, B, and C based on an
airline’s sample experience with the three types of instruments one may use
a) Kolmogorov-Smirnov test
b) Kruskal-Wallis test
c) Wilcoxon Rank-Sum test
d) Spearman Rank Correlation test
27. Which of the following is NOT correct?
a) The probability of a type I error is controlled by the selection of the level of significance
b) The probability of a type II error is controlled by the sample size
c) The power of a test depends upon the sample size and the distance between the null hypothesis
and the alternative hypothesis
d) The -value measures the probability that the null hypothesis is true
e) The rejection region is controlled by the and the alternative hypothesis
28. Which of the following statements is correct
a) An extremely small p-value indicates that the actual data differs significantly from the
expected if the null hypothesis is true
b) The p-value measures the probability that the hypothesis is true
c) The p-value measures the probability of making a Type II error
d) The larger the p-value, the stronger the evidence against the null hypothesis
e) A large p-value indicates that the data is consistent with the alternative hypothesis
29. Since α= probability of Type I error, then 1−α
a) Probability of rejecting H0 when H0 is true
b) Probability of not rejecting H0 when H0 is true
c) Probability of not rejecting H0 when Ha is true
d) Probability of rejecting H0 when Ha is true 1–β
30. In statistical hypothesis test of equality of means, such as H0:μ=10, if α=5%
a) 95% of the time we will make an incorrect inference
b) 5% of the time we will say that there is a real difference when there is no difference (Type I
error)
c) 5% of the time we will say that there is no real difference when there is a difference (Type II
error)
d) 95% of the time the null hypothesis will be correct
e) 5% of the time we will make a correct inference
31. In statistical testing of the hypothesis, what happens to the region of rejection when the level
of significance α is reduced?

a) The answer depends on the value of β

b) The rejection region is reduced in size
c) The rejection region is increased in size
d) The rejection region is unaltered
e) The answer depends on the form of the alternative hypothesis
32. In testing the statistical hypothesis, which of the following statement(s) is false?
a) The critical region is the values of the test statistic for which we reject the null hypothesis
b) The level of significance is the probability of type I error
c) For testing H0:μ=μ0, H1:μ>μ0, we reject H0 for high values of the sample mean
d) In testing H0:μ=μ0, H1:μ≠μ0, the critical region is two-sided.
e) The p-value measures the probability that the null hypothesis is true
33. The following are percentages of fat found in 5 samples of each of two brands of baby food:

A: 5.7, 4.5, 6.2, 6.3, 7.3

B: 6.3, 5.7, 5.9, 6.4, 5.1

Which of the following procedures is appropriate to test the hypothesis of equal average fat
content in the two types of ice cream?

a) Paired t-test with 5 d.f

b) Two samples t-test with 8 d.f
c) Paired t-test with 4 d.f
d) Two samples t-test with 9 d.f
e) Sign test
34. In testing the statistical hypothesis, which of the following statement(s) is false?
a) The critical region is the values of the test statistic for which we reject the null hypothesis
b) The level of significance is the probability of type I error
c) For testing H0:μ=μ0, H1:μ>μ0, we reject H0 for high values of the sample mean
d) In testing , , the critical region is two-sided.
e) The -value measures the probability that the null hypothesis is true
35. In hypothesis testing, type II error is represented by and the power of the test is then
a) The probability of rejecting when is true
b) The probability of failing to reject when is true
c) The probability of failing to reject when is true
d) The probability of rejecting when is true
e) The probability of failing to reject
36. Rejecting 𝑯𝟎 when 𝑯𝟎 is true is called:
a) Type-| error
b) Type-|| error
c) Standard error
d) No error
37. A judge can release (acquit) a guilty person is an example of:
a) Type-| error
b) Type-|| error
c) No error
d) Correct decision
38. A good scheme related to education is rejected by education department, it is an
example of:
a) Type-| error
b) Type-||error
c) No error
d) Sampling error
39. The first and starting point in hypothesis testing is:
a) Starting 𝐻1
b) Starting 𝑯𝟎
c) Appropriate test statistics
d) Defining critical region
40. A misfit person is not selected for a job is:
a) Type-| error
b) Type-|| error
c) Correct decision (no error)
d) Standard error
41. Which one of the following cannot be a null hypothesis:
a) θ ≤ θ
b) θ ≥ θ
c) θ = θ
d) θ ≠ θ
42. The hypothesis, which is being tested is:
a) Simple hypothesis
b) Null hypothesis
c) Composite hypothesis
d) Alternative hypothesis
43. Which of the following can be alternative hypothesis 𝑯𝟏 :
a) θ ≤ θ
b) θ ≥ θ
c) θ = θ
d) θ ≠ θ
44. The probability of rejecting 𝑯𝟎 , when 𝑯𝟎 is true is called:
a) Type-| error
b) Type-|| error
c) Sampling error
d) The standard of the mean
45. Which of the following can be 𝑯𝟏 :
a) θ > θ
b) θ < θ
c) θ ≠ θ
d) all of the above
46. If 𝑯𝟎 : 𝝁 = 10 and 𝝈 = 5, then it is:
a) Simple hypothesis
b) Null hypothesis
c) Composite hypothesis
d) Alternative hypothesis
47. Rejecting 𝑯𝟎 when 𝑯𝟎 is false is called:
a) Types-| error
b) Type-|| error
c) Correct decision
d) None of the above
48. A hypothesis which is to be tested for the possible nullification is called:
a) Simple hypothesis
b) Composite hypothesis
c) Alternative hypothesis
d) Null hypothesis
49. A hypothesis in which all parameters are specified is called;
a) Composite hypothesis
b) Null hypothesis
c) Simple hypothesis
d) None of these
50. The probability of type-| error is denoted by:
a) 𝜶
b) 𝛽
c) 1-𝛽
d) 1-𝛼
51. The probability of rejecting a false 𝑯𝟎 is:
a) Level of significance
b) Level of confidence
c) Critical region
d) Power of test
52. If 𝜶 = 0.05 the value of one-tailed Z test will be:
a) 1.96
b) 1.64
c) 2.33
d) 2.58
53. The choice of one tailed test and two-tailed test depends upon:
a) Null hypothesis
b) Alternative hypothesis
c) Composite hypothesis
d) None of these
54. A________ error is made if 𝑯𝟏 is true but 𝑯𝟎 is accepted:
a) Type-|
b) Type-||
c) Sampling error
d) The standard error of the mean
55. Which critical region is located on both side of the curve, it is called:
a) One tail test
b) Two-tail test
c) Left tailed test
d) Right tailed test
56. Which one is an example of two-tailed test:
a) 𝐻1 : 𝜇 < 0
b) 𝐻1 : 𝜇 > 0
c) 𝐻1 : 𝜇 ≥ 0
d) 𝑯𝟏 : 𝝁 ≠ 0
57. A deserving player is not selected in national team, it is an example of:
a) Type-|| error
b) Type-| error
c) correct decision
d) Sampling error
58. A statistic on the basis of which a decision is made about the hypothesis of interest is
called:
a) Test statistics
b) Significance level
c) Statement of hypothesis
d) Critical region
59. The level of significance is the risk of:
a) Rejecting 𝑯𝟎 when 𝑯𝟎 is true
b) Rejecting 𝐻0 when 𝐻1 is correct
c) Rejecting 𝐻1 when 𝐻1 is correct
d) Accepting 𝐻0 when 𝐻0 is correct
60. In a Z-test, the number of degree of freedom is:
a) n – 2
b) n – 1
c) 1
d) None of these
61. Type-| error will occur if an innocent person is:
a) Arrested by police
b) Not Attested
c) Police care for him
d) None of these
62. The region of acceptance of 𝑯𝟎 is called:
a) Critical region
b) Test statistics
c) Type-| error
d) Acceptance region
63. A parameter is a -------- quantity:
a) Constant
b) Zero
c) Variable
d) None of the above
64. If population standard deviation is known and n > 30 then appropriate test statistics
mean comparison is:
a) T-Test
b) F-Test
c) Z-test
d) 𝑋 2 -test
65. The probability of rejecting a true hypothesis is called:
a) Critical region
b) Level of significance
c) Test statistics
d) Statement of hypothesis
66. The region of rejection of 𝑯𝟎 is called:
a) Critical region
b) Test statistics
c) Type-| error
d) Acceptance region