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CBSE
CLASS 12

MATHEMATICS

MOCK PAPER
 CBSE CLASS 12 MOCK PAPER
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CBSE
Class 12 Mathematics
Mock Paper
Time: 3 Hours. Total Marks: 80

General Instructions:
1. This Question paper contains - five sections A, B, C, D and E. Each section is
compulsory. However, there are internal choices in some questions.
2. Section A has 18 MCQ’s and 2 Assertion-Reason based questions of 1 mark each.
3. Section B has 5 Very Short Answer (VSA)-type questions of 2 marks each.
4. Section C has 6 Short Answer (SA)-type questions of 3 marks each.
5. Section D has 4 Long Answer (LA)-type questions of 5 marks each.
6. Section E has 3 source based/case based/passage based/integrated units of
assessment (4 marks each) with sub parts.

Section A
(Multiple Choice Questions)
Each question carries 1 mark.

6 x+4
1. If A = [ ] is symmetric, then the value of x is
3x − 8 x+5
A. –4
B. –5
C. 6
D. –6

8 0 
2. If for any 2 × 2 square matrix A, A (adj A) =   , then write the value of |A|.
0 8 
A. 2
B. 8
C. –4
D. –6

3. This 3 x 2 matrix gives information about the number of men and women workers in
three factories I, II and III who lost their jobs in the last 2 months. What do you infer
from the entry in the third row and second column of this matrix?
Men workers Women workers
Factory I 40 15
Factory II 35 40
Factory III 72 64
A. 64 women lost their jobs in factory III in the last two months.
B. 40 men lost their jobs in factory III in the last two months.
C. 35 women lost their jobs in factory II in the last two months.
D. 72 men lost their jobs in factory I in the last two months.

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 CBSE CLASS 12 MOCK PAPER
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5x  4 , 0 x 1
4. The value of b for which the function f  x    2 is continuous at
4x  3bx , 1  x  2
every point of its domain is
5
A. 
3
13
B. 
3
C. –1
D. 0

5. The points A(3, −5, 1), B(−1, 0 , 8) and C( 7, −10, −6) are
A. Coplanar
B. Non-coplanar
C. Collinear
D. Non-collinear

dy
6. Find integrating factor of the differential equation (x log x)  y  2log x.
dx
A. x
B. x log x
C. log x
D. ex

7. The point which does not lie in the half plane 3x + y  6 is

A. (1, 2)
B. (2, 1)
C. (1, 3)
D. (–3, 1)

8. If a  b  a  c and a × b  a × c, a  0, then
A. b=c
B. b=0
C. c0
D. b  c


1
9.  1  sin x dx equal to…
0

A. 0
B. ∞
C. –2
D. 2

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 cos  sin  
10. The inverse of the matrix   is
  sin  cos 
cos θ sin θ
A. [ ]
sin θ cos θ
cos θ − sin θ
B. [ ]
sin θ cos θ
cos θ sin θ
C. [ ]
−sin θ cos θ
cos θ − sin θ
D. [ ]
sin θ −cos θ

11. The corner points of the shaded feasible region of an LPP are shown in the figure.
The maximum value of the objective function Z = x + y occurs at

A. (0, 0)
B. (25, 0)
C. (20, 10)
D. (0, 20)

12. If a  5iˆ  ˆj  3kˆ and b  ˆi  3jˆ  5k,

ˆ then the position vector of their mid-point is

A. 3iˆ  ˆj  4kˆ
B. 3iˆ  ˆj  4kˆ
C. ˆi  ˆj  4kˆ

D. ˆi  ˆj  kˆ

cos θ sin θ
13. If A = [ ], then |A| is equal to
− sin θ cos θ
A. cos 2 θ − sin2 θ
B. sin θ
C. 0
D. 1

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14. If one ball is drawn at random from each of the three boxes containing 3 white and 1
black, 2 white and 2 black, 1 white and 3 black balls, then the probability that 2 white
and 1 black balls will be drawn is
13
A.
32
1
B.
4
1
C.
32
3
D.
16

15. Find solution of the differential equation

dy
dx
 
 1  x2 1  y 2 
x2
A. tan 1 y  1  C
2
x3
B. tan 1 y  x  C
3
y2
C. tan 1 x  1  C
2
y3
D. tan 1 x  y  C
3

16. If a , b, c are three vectors such that a  5, b  12 and c  13 and a  b  c  0.

Find the value of a. b  b . c  c . a .

A. 123
B. –123
C. 169
D. –169

17. Determine the value of constant k, so that the function

x2  25
f(x)  x 5
x 5
k x 5
is continuous at x = 5.
A. 2
B. 10
C. 6
D. 8

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x 3 y 4 z 8
18. Find the equation of a line through (–2, 1, 3) and parallel to   .
3 5 6
x 3 y 4 z 8
A.  
2 1 3
x 3 y 5 z 6
B.  
2 1 3
x 2 y 1 z 3
C.  
3 5 6
x 2 y 1 z 3
D.  
2 1 3

ASSERTION-REASON BASED QUESTIONS

In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
Reason (R). Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.

19. Assertion (A): The function f(x) = x9 + 3x7 + 64 is increasing for all x ∈ R.
Reason (R): Let f be continuous on [a, b] and differentiable on the open interval
(a, b). Then f is increasing in [a, b] if f’(x) > 0 for each x ∈ (a, b).

20. Assertion (A): If A = {a, b, c} and B = {1, 2, 3} and a function f: A  B is given by f =

{(a, 2), (b, 3), (c, 1)}. Then f is a bijective function.
Reason (R): f is not one-one.

Section B
This section comprises of very short answer type-questions (VSA) of 2 marks each.
 3 
21. Find the value of x if sin sin 1  cos1 x   1
 5 
OR
 1  x2   2x  
Prove the following tan 1    tan 1  
2 2
 2x   1  x 
 

22. A balloon, which always remains spherical on inflation, is inflated by pumping in 900
cubic centimetres of gas per second. Find the rate at which the radius of the balloon
increases when the radius is 15 cm.

23. The income I of a doctor is given by I = x3 – 3x2 + 5x. Can an insurance agent ensure
the growth of his income?
OR
4sin x  2x  x cos x
Give the intervals in which the function f(x) = is increasing or
2  cos x
decreasing.

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p x
24. Evaluate :  dx
0 x  px

25. Show that the function f(x) = 3x5 + 40x3 + 240x is always increasing on R.

SECTION C
(This section comprises of short answer type questions (SA) of 3 marks each)

26. Evaluate:
cos 2x + 2 sin2 x
 cos2 x
dx

27. A random variable X has the following probability distribution:

X 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
P(X) 0 k 2k 2k 3k k2 2k2 7k2 +k

Determine: (i) k (ii) P(X < 3) (iii) P(X > 6)

cos x
28. Solve the integral  1  sin x 2  sin x  dx.
OR
 x
Prove that:  dx  
0 1  sin x

x
dy y y2 f(y)
29. Find the solution of the differential equation =x−
dx x2 f′ (x)
y

OR
Find the family of curves passing through the point (x, y) for which the slope of the
tangent is equal to the sum of y-coordinate and exponential raise to the power of x-
coordinate.

30. Solve the following Linear Programming Problem graphically.

Maximize profit Z = 19.6x + 9y subject to 3y + x ≤ 12, y + 3x ≤ 12,x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
OR
Solve the following Linear Programming Problem graphically.
Maximize: Z = 300x + 160y
Subject to the constraints: x + y ≤ 24, x + ½ y ≤ 16, x > 0, y > 0

31. Discuss the continuity of the function f(x) at x = 1.

3 1
2  x , 2  x  1

3
 , x 1
2
3
2  x , 1  x  2

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SECTION D
(This section comprises of long answer-type questions (LA) of 5 marks each)

32. Using integration, find the area bounded by the curve x2 = 4y and the line x = 4y –
2.

33. Show that relation R defined by (a, b) R (c, d)  a + d = b + c on the set N × N is an

equivalence relation.
OR
Let f: N  N be defined by
n + 1

f(n) =  2 if n is odd
 n
 2
Find whether the function f is bijective or not.

34. Solve the following equations by finding inverse of its coefficient matrix:
3x + 2y + z = 1600
4x + y + 3z = 2300
x + y + z = 900

35. The vector equations of two lines are:

  
r  ˆi  2jˆ  3kˆ   ˆi - 3jˆ  2kˆ and r  4iˆ  5jˆ  6kˆ   2iˆ  3jˆ  kˆ 
Find the shortest distance between the above lines.
OR
x 1 3 y z 1
Find the vector equation of the line parallel to the line   and
5 2 4
passing through (3, 0, –4). Also find the distance between these two lines.

SECTION E
(This section comprises of 3 case-study/passage-based questions of 4 marks each with
two sub-parts. First two case study questions have three sub-parts (i), (ii), (iii) of
marks 1, 1, 2 respectively. The third case study question has two sub-parts of 2 marks
each.)

36. On a certain day, Ridhima measured the volume of a flower pot kept in her garden &
represented the volume as f(x) = 3x2 – 3ax + 4 for some values of a.
(i) Check whether the function is differentiable for all real values x.
(ii) Find the value of a, if the critical point is x = 1.
(iii) Find the intervals in which the function decreases monotonically.
OR
(iii) Find the points of absolute maximum/absolute minimum in the interval [0, 4] and
the absolute maximum/absolute minimum value of the function.

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37. A building is to be constructed in the form of a triangular pyramid, ABCD as shown in the
figure.

Taking its angular points as A(0, 1, 2), B(3, 0, 1), C(4, 3, 6) and D(2, 3, 2) and G be
the point of intersection of the medians of ∆BCD.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions.
(i) Find the coordinates of G.
(ii) Find the length of vector ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
AG.
(iii) Find the area of ∆ABC.
OR
(iii) Find the sum of lengths of ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
AB and ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
AC. Then find the length of perpendicular
from the vertex D on the opposite face.

38. In answering a question on a MCQ test with 4 choices per question, a student knows the
answer, guesses it or copies the answer. Let ½ be the probability that he knows the
answer, ¼ be the probability that he guesses and ¼ be the probability that he copies it.
If the probability that the copied answer will be correct is ¾, answer the following
questions.
(i) What is the probability that the answer is correct?
(ii) What is the probability that student knows the answer, given that he answered it
correctly?

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CBSE
CLASS 12

PHYSICS

MOCK PAPER
 CBSE CLASS 12 MOCK PAPER
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CBSE
Class 12 Physics
Mock Paper
Time: 3 Hours. Total Marks: 70

General Instructions:
i. There are 33 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
ii. This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D, and
Section E.
iii. All the sections are compulsory.
iv. Section A contains sixteen questions, twelve MCQ and four Assertion Reasoning
based of 1 mark each, Section B contains five questions of two marks each, Section
C contains seven questions of three marks each, Section D contains two case study-
based questions of four marks each and Section E contains three long answer
questions of five marks each.
v. There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one
question in Section B, one question in Section C, one question in each CBQ in Section
D and all three questions in Section E. You have to attempt only one of the choices
in such questions.
vi. Use of calculators is not allowed.

SECTION - A
Select and write one most appropriate option out of the four options given for each of the
questions.
[15]
1. What will be the Coulomb force between two charges, when the distance between
them is reduced to half?
(a) The force between the charges increases 2 times.
(b) The force between the charges increases 4 times.
(c) The force between the charges increases 8 times.
(d) The force between the charges increases 12 times.

2. A long cylindrical shell carries positive surface charge σ in the upper half and
negative surface charge - σ in the lower half. The electric field lines around the
cylinder will look like figure given in:
(a)

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(b)

(c)

(d)

3. The period of oscillation of a magnet of momentum pm is 1.5s. If we use a bar magnet

of same moment of inertia but moment 9pm, the time period of oscillation will be:
(a) 0.5 s
(b) 1.0 s
(c) 1.5 s
(d) 2.0 s

4. The transition from the state n = 3 to n = 1 in a hydrogen like atom results in

ultraviolet radiation. Infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition from:
(a) 3 → 2
(b) 4 → 2
(c) 4 → 3
(d) 2 → 1

5. In hydroelectric power station,

(a) Kinetic energy of falling water → rotational energy of turbines → electrical
energy of generator
(b) Rotational energy of turbines →electric energy of generator
(c) Potential energy of falling water → rotational energy of turbines →electrical
energy of generator
(d) Kinetic energy of falling water → electric energy of generator

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6. A current I is flowing through the loop as shown in the figure (MA = R, MB = 2R).
𝜇0 𝐼
The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is times:
𝑅

5
(a) , into the plane of the paper
16
5
(b) , out of the plane of the paper
16
7
(c) , out of the plane of the paper
17
7
(d) , into the plane of the paper
17

7. A metal plate is getting heated. Which one of following statements is incorrect?

(a) It is placed in a space varying magnetic field that does not vary with time.
(b) A direct current is passing through the plate.
(c) An alternating current is passing through the plate.
(d) It is placed in a time varying magnetic field.

8. We fail to observe the diffraction pattern from a wide slit illuminated by a

monochromatic light as _______.
(a) It acts as a coherent source of light
(b) Angular width of the central maxima is small
(c) Diffraction doesn't take place
(d) Diffraction depends upon the size of the obstacle or aperture

9. What determines the maximum kinetic energy of the electron emitted from the
photosensitive plate?
(a) frequency of incident light
(b) frequency of incident light and work function of plate both
(c) work function of the plate
(d) smoothness of plate

10. Consider the following statements about electromagnetic waves and choose the
correct ones.
S1: E.M waves having wavelengths 1000 times smaller than light waves are called X-
rays.
S2: Ultraviolet waves are used in the treatment of swollen joints.
S3: Alpha and gamma rays are not electromagnetic waves.
S4: de-Broglie waves are not electromagnetic in nature.
S5: Electromagnetic waves exhibits polarization while sound waves do not.

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(a) S3, S4 and S5
(b) S1, S4 and S5
(c) S1, S3 and S5
(d) S2, S3 and S4

11. The ratio of the speed of the electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom to the
speed of light is _______.
(a) 1/2
(b) 1/137
(c) 2/137
(d) 1/237

12. In the circuit given below P ≠ R and the reading of the galvanometer is same with
Switch S open or closed. Then:

(a) IQ = IR
(b) IR =IG
(c) IP = IG
(d) IQ = IG

For Questions 13 to 16, two statements are given –one labelled Assertion (A) and other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the options given
below.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

13. Assertion (A): For the radiation of a frequency greater than the threshold frequency,
Photoelectric current is proportional to the intensity of the radiation.
Reason (R): Greater the number of energy quanta available, greater is the number of
electrons absorbing the energy quanta and greater is number of electrons coming out
of the metal.

14. Assertion (A): A very thin depletion region forms between the p and n sides of a p-n
junction diode, resulting in an extremely high electric field even when a small reverse
bias voltage is applied across it.
Reason (R): A p-n junction diode is fabricated by heavily doping both p and n sides of
the junction.

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15. Assertion (A): Heavy water is generally used as a moderator in a nuclear reactor.
Reason (R): Heavy water is kept under pressure in nuclear reactors, which raises its
boiling point.

16. Assertion (A): A transformer is used to increase or decrease ac voltage only.

Reason (R): A transformer works on the basis of mutual induction.

SECTION - B
Q. no. 17 to 21 are very short answer questions.

17. Electromagnetic waves with wavelength [2]

(i) λ1 is suitable for radar systems used in aircraft navigation.
(ii) λ2 is used to heat food.
(iii) λ3 is used for medical examination.
Identify and name the part of the electromagnetic spectrum to which these radiations
belong. Also arrange these wavelengths in ascending order of their magnitude.

18. What will be the effect on the interference fringes obtained in Young's double slit
experiment if the monochromatic light is replaced by white light source? [2]

19. What results do you expect if ⍺-particle scattering experiment is repeated using a
thin sheet of hydrogen in place of a gold foil? Explain. (Hydrogen is a solid at
temperature below 14K).

20. Violet light is incident on a thin convex lens. If this light is replaced by red light,
explain with reason, how the power of the lens would change? [2]

21. An engineer wants to automate his lighting system for a project, so he builds a circuit
that uses a photodiode to detect the amount of sunlight outside and control the
intensity of light inside his house. In this case, he intends to connect the photodiode
in forward bias in his circuit and place it directly in the sunlight. [2]
Do you believe his instrument will work as intended in this case? Justify your
response.
OR
Explain the diffusion process for a p-n junction diode and what we mean by potential
barrier for a p-n junction diode?

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SECTION - C
Q. no. 22 to 28 are short answer questions.

22. [3]
(i) State and explain the law used to determine magnetic field at a point due to a
current element.
(ii) The straight wire carrying the current of 5A is twisted into semi-circular arc of
radius 2cm as shown in the figure. Find the magnitude and direction of magnetic
field at the center of arc.

23. Explain with the help of a labelled diagram the underlying principle and working of
a step- up transformer. Why cannot such a device be used to step - up D.C
voltage? [3]

24. [3]
(i) An ac circuit as shown in the figure has an inductor of inductance L and a resistor
of resistance R connected in series. Using the phasor diagram, explain why the
voltage in the circuit will lead the current in phase.
(ii) The potential difference across the resistor is 160 V and that across the inductor
is 120 V. Find the effective value of the applied voltage. If the effective current in
the circuit be 1.0 A, calculate the total impedance of the circuit.
(iii) What will be the potential difference in the circuit when direct current is passed
through the circuit?

11
25. Write symbolically the nuclear β+ decay process of 6 C . Is the decayed product X an
isotope or isobar of ( 116 C )? Given the mass values m ( 116 C ) = 11.011434 u and m (X)
= 11.009305 u. Estimate the Q-value in this process. [3]

26. There is a gravitational force of attraction between the Earth and the Moon. We need
to balance this force by placing equal charges on both of them. What should be the
value of these charges which balances the gravitational force of attraction? (ME = 6
× 1024kg and MM = 7 × 1022 kg) [3]

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27. [3]
(a) What will be the reading of an ammeter for an a.c. with peak value of 6 A?
(b) Draw a labelled diagram of an A.C generator. Briefly explain its principle and
working.

28. [3]
a. Plot a graph to show the variation of stopping potential with frequency of incident
radiation in relation to photoelectric effect.
b. Use Einstein's photoelectric equation to show how from this graph,
i. Threshold frequency
ii. Planck's constant can be determined.
OR
(a) How does one explain the emission of electrons from a photosensitive surface
with the help of Einstein's photoelectric equation?
(b) Work function of aluminium is 4∙2 eV. If two photons each of energy 2∙5 eV are
incident on its surface, will the emission of electrons take place? Justify your
answer.
(c) The stopping potential in an experiment on photoelectric effect is 1∙5 V. What is
the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted? Calculate in Joules.

SECTION – D

Q.no. 29 to 30 are case - based/data -based questions with 2 to 3 short sub - parts.
Internal choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.

29. Case study: [4]

A battery is a combination of two or more cells. In the following figure, a single batter
is represented in which two cells of emf Ɛ1 and Ɛ2, and internal resistance r1 and r2
respectively are connected.

Answer the following questions:

(i) The equivalent emf of this combination is :
 r  2 r2
a. 1 1
r1  r2
1 r1  2 r2
b.
r1  r2
1 r2  2 r1
c.
r1  r2
d. 1  2

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(ii) For terminal B to be negative:
a. 1 r2  2 r1
b. 1 r2  2 r1
c. 1 r1  2r2
d. 2r2  1 r1

(iii) The current in the internal circuit is:

  2
a. 1
r1  r2
 2  1
b.
r1  r2
1  2
c. 
r1 r2
1  2
d. 
r2 r1

(iv) The equivalent internal resistance of the combination is:

r r
a. 1 2
r1 r2
b. r1  r2
r1 r2
c.
r1  r2
d. r1  r2

30. Case study: [4]

A semiconductor diode is a two-terminal device with metallic contacts for external
voltage application. It is forward biased when the p-side is connected to the positive
terminal of the battery and the n-side to the negative terminal, and reverse biased
when the n-side is positive, and the p-side is negative. An ideal diode has zero
resistance in forward biasing and infinite resistance in reverse biasing. When the p-
n junction is forward biased, the holes and electrons move towards each other, and
the diode conducts current. When the p-n junction is reverse biased, the holes and
electrons move away from each other, and the diode does not conduct current.

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(i) Which of the following graph shows the IV characterstics of an Ideal pn diode?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
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(ii) What is the depletion region in a p-n junction diode?
(a) The region where the holes and electrons crosses each other.
(b) The region where there are no mobile charge carriers.
(c) The region where the p-type and n-type semiconductors meet.
(d) None of the above.

(iii) What is the reverse saturation current in a p-n junction diode?

(a) The current that flows when the diode is in thermal equilibrium
(b) The current that flows when the diode is forward biased
(c) The current that flows when the diode is reverse biased
(d) The current that flows when the diode is placed under external changing
magnetic field
(iv) In which of the following figures, the pn diode is reverse biased?

a)

b)

c)

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d)
OR
What is the purpose of doping a semiconductor in the formation of a p-n
junction?
(a) To increase the resistance of the semiconductor
(b) To decrease the resistance of the semiconductor
(c) To create a region of excess electrons in the semiconductor
(d) To create a region of excess holes in the semiconductor

SECTION - E
Q. no. 31 to 33 are long answer questions.

31. [5]
(a) The figure shows a network of five capacitors connected to a 100 V supply.
Calculate the total energy stored in the network.

(b) When a parallel plate capacitor is being charged by a dc battery, why does a
galvanometer show a momentary deflection? Obtain the expression for the
displacement current and show how it is related to conduction current in a
steady state.
OR
(a) Deduce an expression for the electric potential due to an electric dipole at any
point on its axis. Mention one contrasting feature of electric potential of a dipole
at a point as compared to that due to single charge.

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(b)
F
1. The electric field E due to a point charge at any point near it is defined as lim
q o q

, where q is the test charge and F is the force acting on it.

What is the physical significance of in this expression?

2. Draw the electric filed lines of a point charge Q when Q > 0 and Q < 0.
3. If E  6i  3j  4k , calculate the electric flux through a surface of area 20 units in
Y-Z Plane.

32. [5]
(a) In the circuit given below, find the voltmeter reading across a 4 Ω resistor.

(b)
(i) Use Kirchhoff’s rules to obtain the balance condition in Wheatstone bridge.
(ii) Give one practical application that is based on this principle.
OR
(a) Plot a graph showing the variation of current density (j) versus the electric field
(E) for two conductors of different materials.
(b) What information from this plot regarding the properties of the conducting
material, can be obtained which can be used to select suitable materials for use
in making
1. standard resistance
2. connecting wires in electric circuits?
3. Electron drift speed is estimated to be of the order of mm s−1. Yet large
current of the order of few amperes can be set up in the wire. Explain briefly.

33. A slit of width 0.6 mm is illuminated by a beam of light consisting of two

wavelengths 600 nm and 480 nm. The diffraction pattern is observed on a screen
1.0 m from the slit. Find: [5]
(i) The distance of the second bright fringe from the central maximum pertaining to
light of 600 nm.
(ii) The least distance from the central maximum at which bright fringes due to both
the wavelength coincide.
(iii) How can you differentiate whether a pattern is produced by a single slit or
double slit?
OR
(a) Two thin convex lenses L1 and L2 of focal lengths f1 and f2, respectively, are
placed coaxially in contact. An object is placed at a point beyond the focus of lens
L1. Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation by the combination and
hence derive the expression for the focal length of the combined system.
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(b) A ray PQ incident on the face AB of a prism ABC, as shown in the figure, emerges
from the face AC such that AQ = AR.

Draw the ray diagram showing the passage of the ray through the prism. If the
angle of the prism is 60° and refractive index of the material of prism is√3 ,
determine the values of angle of incidence and angle of deviation.

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CBSE
CLASS 12

CHEMISTRY

MOCK PAPER
 CBSE CLASS 12 MOCK PAPER
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CBSE
Class 12 Chemistry
Mock Paper
Time: 3 Hours. Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:
 There are 33 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
 SECTION A consists of 16 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
 SECTION B consists of 5 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
 SECTION C consists of 7 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
 SECTION D consists of 2 case-based questions carrying 4 marks each.
 SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
 All questions are compulsory.
 Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed.

SECTION A

The following questions are multiple-choice questions with one correct answer. Each
question carries 1 mark. There is no internal choice in this section.

1. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown below?

a) Ethyl benzyl ketone

b) Methyl phenyl ketone
c) Diphenyl ketone
d) 1-phenyl-2-butanone

2. Azodye test given by:

a) All amines
b) Only primary amines
c) Only primary aliphatic amines
d) Only primary aromatic amines

3. Degeneracy of the d-orbital is removed with the approach of the ligand due to:
a) Ligand electron-metal electron repulsion
b) Ligand electron-metal nucleus attraction
c) Ligand nucleus-metal electron attraction
d) Ligand nucleus-metal nucleus repulsion

4. Which of the following will have the highest density?

a) CHCl3
b) CH2Cl2
c) CH3Cl
d) CCl4
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5. In the following diagram point, 'X' represents

a) Boiling point of solution

b) Freezing point of solvent
c) Boiling point of solvent
d) Freezing point of solution

6. Which of the following is NOT an interstitial compound?

a) TiC
b) Fe3H
c) FeCl3
d) Mn4N

7. In the complex [Ni(H2O)2(NH3)4]2+, the number of unpaired electrons is:

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3

8. The C-O-H bond angle in alcohol is

a) Slightly greater than 109°28’.
b) Slightly less than 109°28’.
c) Slightly greater than 120°
d) Slightly less than 120°

9. The hybridization of nitrogen atom of amino group is:

a) sp
b) sp2
c) sp3
d) sp3d

10. When chloroform is exposed to air and sunlight, it gives:

a) CCl4
b) COCl2
c) Mustard gas
d) Marsh gas

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11. An endothermic reaction with high activation energy for the forward reaction is
given by the diagram?
a)

b)

c)

d)

12. Glucose on reaction with Br2 water gives:

a) Saccharic acid
b) Hexanoic acid
c) Gluconic acid
d) Salicylic acid

13. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Cuprous ion is colourless whereas cupric ion is blue in the aqueous
solution.
Reason (R): Cuprous ion has unpaired electrons while cupric ion does not.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

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14. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion (A): [Ti(H2O)6]3+ is coloured while [Sc(H2O)6]3+ is colourless.
Reason (R): d-d transition is not possible in [Sc(H2O)6]3+.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

15. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion (A): The presence of nitro group at the ortho or para position increases the
reactivity of haloarenes towards nucleophilic substitution.
Reason (R): The nitro group, being an electron-withdrawing group, decreases the
electron density over the benzene ring.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

16. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction.
Reason (R): Friedel-Crafts reaction is an electrophilic substitution reaction.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

SECTION B
This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in one question. The following
questions are very short answer types and carry 2 marks each.

17. State Henry’s law. What is the significance of KH? [2]

18. Given simple chemical tests to distinguish between the following pairs of
compounds: [2]
(a) Ethanol and Phenol
(b) Propanol and 2-methylpropan-2-ol

19. [2]
(a) Write down the IUPAC name of the following complex:
[Co(NH3)5 (NO2)](NO3)2
(b) Write the formula for the following complex:
Potassium tetracyanidonickelate(II)

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20. For a reaction: [2]
For a reaction:
h
H2  Cl2   2HCl
Rate = k
(a) Write the order and molecularity of this reaction.
(b) Write the unit of k.
OR
For the reaction [2]
2N2O5(g) → 4NO2(g) + O2 (g)
The rate of formation of NO2 (g) is 2.8 x 10-3 M s-1.
Calculate the rate of disappearance of N2O5(g)

21. [2]
(a) What are glycosidic linkages? In which type of biomolecules are they present?
(b) Which monosaccharide units are present in starch, cellulose and glycogen and
which linkages link these units?

SECTION C
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in one question. The following
questions are short answer type and carry 3 marks each.

22. [3]
(a) Write the IUPAC name of the complex [Cr(NH3)4 Cl2]Cl.
(b) What type of isomerism is exhibited by the complex [Co(en) 3]3+?
(en = ethane-1,2-diamine)
(c) Why is [NiCl4]2- paramagnetic but [Ni(CO)4] is diamagnetic?
(At. nos. : Cr = 24, Co = 27, Ni = 28)

23. Write the main products when: [3]

(a) n-butyl chloride is treated with alcoholic KOH.
(b) 2, 4, 6-trinitrochlorobenzene is subjected to hydrolysis.
(c) methyl chloride is treated with AgCN.

24. Account for the following: (Any two) [3]

(a) Primary amines (R-NH2) have higher boiling points than tertiary amines (R3N).
Write the order of boiling points for R-NH2, R2NH, and R3N.
(b) Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction.
(c) (CH3)2NH is more basic than (CH3)3N in an aqueous solution.

25. The following data were obtained during the first order thermal decomposition of
SO2Cl2 at a constant volume: [3]
SO2Cl2(g) SO2 (g) +Cl2(g)

Experiment Time/s-1 Total pressure/atm

1 0 0.4
2 100 0.7

Calculate the rate constant. (Given: log 4 = 0.6021, log 2 = 0.3010)

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26. Write the products in the following reactions: [3]
(a)

(b)
CH3
|
CH3  CH  O  CH2  CH3  ? ?
HI

(c) CH3  CH  CH  CH2  OH 

PCC
?

27. Arrange the following compound groups in the increasing order of their property
indicated: [3]
(a) p-nitrophenol, ethanol, phenol (acidic character)
(b) Propanol, Propane, Propanal (boiling point)
(c) Bromomethane, Bromoform, Chloromethane, Dibromomethane (boiling point)

28. [3]
(a) Why carboxylic acids do not form oximes?
(b) Why the dipole moment of chlorobenzene is lower than that of cyclohexyl
chloride?

SECTION D
The following questions are case-based questions. Each question has an internal choice and
carries 4 (1+1+2) marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that
follow.

29. The vapour pressure of a solvent in solution is less than that of the pure solvent. The
vapour pressure of the solution decreases when a non-volatile solute is added to a
volatile solvent. There are many properties of solutions which are connected with
this decrease in vapour pressure. These are:
• Relative lowering of the vapour pressure of the solvent
• Elevation of the boiling point of the solvent
• Depression of the freezing point of the solvent
• Osmotic pressure of the solution
All these properties depend on the number of solute particles irrespective of their
nature relative to the total number of particles present in the solution. Such
properties are called colligative properties. Colligative is a Latin word. In this, ‘Co’
means together and ‘ligare’ means to bind.
(a) Give reason: The elevation of the boiling point of 1 M KCl solution is nearly
double that of 1 M sugar solution. [1]
(b) Out of 0.1 molal aqueous solution of glucose and 0.1 molal aqueous solution of
KCl, which one will have a higher boiling point and why? [1]
(c) 18 g of glucose, C6H12O6 (Molar mass = 180 g mol ) is dissolved in 1 kg of water
-1

in a saucepan. At what temperature will this solution boil? [2]

(Kb for water = 0.52 k kg mol , boiling points of pure water =373.15K)
-1

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OR
Calculate the freezing point of a solution containing 60 g of glucose (Molar mass =
180g mol-1) in 250 g of water. (Kf of water = 1.86 K kg mol-1) [2]

30. The most remarkable characteristic of a living system is that it grows, sustains and
reproduces itself. Another amazing thing about a living system is that it is made up
of non-living atoms and molecules. Living systems are made up of a number of
complex organic compounds called biomolecules. These biomolecules interact with
each other and constitute the living systems. Biomolecules may be defined as
complex lifeless chemical substances which form the basis of life, i.e., they not only
build up living systems (creatures) but are also responsible for their growth,
maintenance and ability to reproduce. The various biomolecules are carbohydrates,
proteins, vitamins, nucleic acids, etc.
(a) Write the name of the vitamin responsible for the coagulation of blood.
(b) What type of linkage is present in nucleic acids?
(c) Define the following terms with suitable examples.
(i) Tertiary structure of protein
(ii) Essential amino acids
OR
(c) Define the following terms with a suitable example.
(a) Polysaccharides
(b) Denatured protein

SECTION E
The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each. All questions have
an internal choice.

31. Answer any five questions: [5]

(a) Mn shows the highest oxidation state of +7 with oxygen but with fluorine, it
shows an oxidation state of +4.
(b) Cr+2 is a strong reducing agent.
(c) Cu+2 salts are coloured, while Zn+2 salts are white.
(d) Which metal in the first series of transition metals exhibits +1 oxidation state
most frequently and why?
(e) Comment: The enthalpies of atomisation of the transition metals are high.
(f) What are the different oxidation states exhibited by lanthanoids.
(g) Actinoid contraction is greater from element to element than lanthanoid
contraction. Why?

32. [5]
(a) Calculate the mass of Ag deposited at the cathode when a current of 2 amperes
was passed through a solution of AgNO3 for 15 minutes.
(Given: Molar mass of Ag = 108 g mol―1 1F = 96500 C mol―1)
(b) Define electrochemical cells. What happens if the external potential applied
becomes greater than E°cell of electrochemical cell?
(c) Name the type of cell which was used in Apollo space programme for providing
electrical power.

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OR
(a) Calculate rGO for the reaction [2]
Mg (s) + Cu (aq) ⟶ Mg 2+ (aq) + Cu (s)
2+

Given: E0 cell = + 2.71 V, 1 F = 96500 C mol-1

(b) State Kohlrausch law of independent migration of ions. Why does the
conductivity of a solution decrease with dilution? [2]
(c) Define fuel cell. [1]

33. An organic compound (A) (molecular formula C8H16O2) was hydrolysed with dilute
sulphuric acid to give a carboxylic acid (B) and an alcohol (C). Oxidation of (C) with
chromic acid produced (B). (C) on dehydration gives but-1-ene. Write equations for
the reactions involved. [5]
OR
(a) Predict the main product of the following reactions: [3]
(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(b) Explain the structure of the carbonyl functional group with a diagram. [2]

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CBSE
CLASS 12

BIOLOGY

MOCK PAPER
 CBSE CLASS 12 MOCK PAPER
This file belongs to Greycells18 Media Ltd.
CBSE
Class 12 Biology
Mock Paper
Time: 3 Hours. Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:
 All questions are compulsory.
 The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
 Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each;
Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4
marks each; and Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
 There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some
questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
 Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION A

1. The male gametophyte in angiosperms produces [1]

a) single sperm and two vegetative cells
b) three sperms
c) two sperms and a vegetative cell
d) single sperm and a vegetative cell

2. In a flower, if the megaspore mother cell forms megaspores without undergoing meiosis
and if one of the megaspores develops into an embryo sac, its nuclei would be [1]
a) haploid
b) diploid
c) few haploid and few diploid
d) with varying ploidy

3. Given below is a sequence of bases in the mRNA of a bacterial cell. Identify the amino acid
that would be incorporated at codon position 3 and codon position 5 during the process of
its translation. [1]
3’-AUCAGGUUUGUGAUGGUACGA-5’
a) Phenylalanine, Methionine
b) Cysteine, Glycine
c) Alanine, Proline
d) Serine, Valine

4. Select the incorrect statement from the following: [1]

a) Linkage is an exception to the principle of independent assortment in heredity.
b) Galactosemia is an inborn error of metabolism.
c) Small population size results in random genetic drift in a population.
d) Baldness is a sex-linked trait.

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5. The probability of all possible genotypes of offspring in a genetic cross can be obtained
with the help of a [1]
a) test cross
b) back cross
c) Punnett square
d) linkage cross

6. According to Mendel, the nature of the unit factors that control the expression of traits
were [1]
a) stable and blending
b) blending and discrete
c) stable and discrete
d) None of these

7. The correct feature of the double-helical structure of DNA as given by Watson and Crick is
[1]
a) right-handed helix, pitch is 3.4 nm
b) left-handed helix, pitch is 3.8 nm
c) right-handed helix, pitch is 3.8 nm
d) left-handed helix, pitch is 3.4 nm

8. The cause of Klinefelter's syndrome in humans is [1]

a) absence of Y chromosome
b) absence of X chromosome
c) extra copy of an autosome
d) extra copy of an X chromosome

9. A decrease in the T-lymphocytes count in the human blood will result in a [1]
a) decrease in antigens
b) decrease in antibodies
c) increase in antibodies
d) increase in antigens

10. EcoRI cleaves the DNA strands to produce [1]

a) satellite ends
b) blunt ends
c) ori replication ends
d) sticky ends

11. The main objective of production of pest resistant GM crops is to [1]

a) encourage eco-friendly pesticides
b) reduce pesticide accumulation in food chain
c) eliminate pests from the field without the use of manual labour
d) retain maximum nutritional content in the crop that would be otherwise consumed by
pest

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12. The primary productivity in an ecosystem is expressed as [1]
a) gm2 yr-1
b) gm-2 yr
c) kcal m-2 yr-1
d) kcal m-2

Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answerthese questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.

13. Assertion (A): Apomictic fruits are seedless. [1]

Reason (R): Apomictic fruits are formed without fertilisation.

14. Assertion (A): Genetic code is commaless [1]

Reason (R): Genetic code is overlapping.

15. Assertion (A): Antibody mediated immune response is provided by the B-cells. [1]
Reason (R): B-cells work chiefly by secreting substances called antibodies into the body
fluids.

16. Assertion (A): The first restriction endonuclease was Hind II. [1]
Reason (R): Hind II always cuts the DNA molecule at a particular point by
recognising a specific sequence of 6-base pairs.

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SECTION B

17. Sperms have a tail whereas an egg does not. Why? [2]

18. In a typical nucleus, some regions of the chromatin are stained light and others dark. Why?
What is its significance? [2]

19. A person is suffering from a high-grade fever. Which symptoms will help us identify whether
the person is suffering from typhoid, pneumonia, or malaria? [2]

20. [2]
a) Write the scientific name of the source organism of the stable DNA polymerase
used in PCR.
b) State the advantage of using a thermostable DNA polymerase.

21. Mention any two reasons why the primary productivity varies in different types of
ecosystems. [2]
OR
Why are green algae not likely to be found in the deepest strata of the ocean?

SECTION C

22. During the reproductive cycle of a human female, when, where and how does a placenta
develop? What is the function of the placenta during pregnancy and embryo
development? [3]

23. Penetration of the ovum layers by human sperm is a chemical mechanism. Compile and
describe your interpretation based on the above statement. [3]

24. Name and explain a surgical contraceptive method that can be adopted by the male partner
of a couple. [3]

25. Industrial melanism in England after 1850 is an excellent example of natural selection.
Explain. [3]

26. Mention the common bacterium found in anaerobic sludge during sewage treatment and
in the rumen of cattle. How is this bacterium commercially useful? [3]

27. On spraying Bacillus thuringiensis on an infected cotton crop field, the pests are killed by
the toxin, however the toxin although produced by the bacterium does not affect it. Explain
giving reason. [3]
OR
How is recombinant DNA technology helpful in detecting the presence of mutated genes
in cancer patients?

28. “Biodiversity plays a major role in many ecosystem services that nature provides.” [3]
a) Describe any two broadly utilitarian arguments to justify the given statement.
b) State one ethical reason of conserving biodiversity.

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SECTION D

Q.no 29 and 30 are case based questions. Each question has subparts with an internal
choice in one subpart.

29. A schematic representation of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) up to the extension stage is
given below: [4]

a) Name and explain the process ‘a.’

b) Identify ‘b.’
c) How many DNA duplexes are obtained from one DNA duplex after 3 cycles of PCR?
OR
c) Describe the role of heat in the process of PCR.

30. Population is a group of individuals of a single species living in a given area. It includes
spatial arrangement, genetic variation and the dynamics including natality, mortality, biotic
potential, and carrying capacity. Population structure includes features such as density,
abundance, spacing and genetic variations. The genetic structure reveals genetic variations
and population size. [4]
a) Write any two characteristics which only a population shows but an
individual cannot.
b) List any two ways of measuring population density of a habitat.
c) Mention the essential information that can be obtained by studying the
population density.
OR
c) Explain the death rate in a population with the help of an example.

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SECTION E

31. [5]
a) IVF is an extremely popular method these days that is helping childless
couples to bear children. Describe the different steps that are carried out in
this technique.
b) Would you consider Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) as an IVF? Give
a reason in support of your answer.
OR
Suggest the aspects of reproductive health which need to be given special
attention in the present scenario.

32. Study the schematic representation of the genes involved in the lac operon given below and
answer the questions that follows. [5]

a) Identify and name the regulatory gene in this operon. Explain its role in
‘switching off’ the operon.
b) Why is lac operon’s regulation referred to as negative regulation?
c) Name the inducer molecule and the products of the genes z and y of the
operon.Write the function of these gene products.
OR
Study the given pedigree chart showing the inheritance of sickle-cell anaemia and
answer the questions that follow:

a) Is the trait recessive or dominant?

b) Is the trait sex-linked or autosomal?
c) Give the genotype of the parents.

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33. When a microorganism invades a host, a definite sequence of events usually occurs leading
to infection and disease, causing suffering to the host. This process is called pathogenesis.
Once a microorganism overcomes the defence system of the host, development of the
disease follows a certain sequence of events as shown in the graph. Study the graph below
for the sequence of events leading to the appearance of a disease and answer the questions
that follow: [5]

a) In which period, according to the graph, are there maximum chances of a

person transmitting a disease/infection and why?
b) Study the graph and write what is an incubation period. Name a sexually
transmitted disease (STD) that can be easily transmitted during this period.
Name the specific type of lymphocytes that are attacked by the pathogen of
this disease.
c) In which period, the number of immune cells forming antibodies will be the
highest in a person suffering from pneumonia? Name the immune cells that
produce antibodies.
OR
Drugs like LSD, barbiturates, and amphetamines are used as medicines to help
patients with mental illness. However, excessive doses and abusive usage of
drugs is harmful. Enumerate the major adverse effects of such drugs in humans.

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CBSE
Class 12 Mathematics
Mock Paper

Section A

1. Correct Option: C
Explanation:
6 x+4
Given, A = [ ]
3x − 8 x + 5
We have,
A11 = 6, A12 = x + 4, A21 = 3x − 8, A22 = x + 5
Since, the matrix is symmetric, then
A12 = A21
 x + 4 = 3x − 8
 2x = 12  x = 6

2. Correct Option: B
Explanation:
8 0 
A (adj A) =  
0 8 
8 0 
|A| I2 =  
0 8 
1 0
|A| I2 = 8  
0 1 
|A| I2 = 8 I2
⇒ |A| = 8

3. Correct Option: A
Explanation:
64 women lost their jobs in factory III in the last two months.

4. Correct Option: C
Explanation:
Function f is continuous at every point of its domain, so f is continuous at 1.
lim f  x   lim f  x 
x 1 x 1

 lim 5x  4  lim 4x 2  3bx

x 1 x 1

 5  4  4  3b
 1  4  3b
 b  1

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5. Correct Option: C
Explanation:
Given points are A(3, −5, 1), B(−1, 0 , 8) and C( 7, −10, −6)
 Position vector of A = 3i  5j  1kˆ
Position vector of B =  1i  0j  8kˆ
Position vector of C = 7i  10j  6kˆ

  
AB  Position vector of B  Position vector of A = 1i  0j  8kˆ  3i  5j  1kˆ 
  4i  5j  7kˆ

  
AC  Position vector of C  Position vector of A = 7i  10j  6kˆ  3i  5j  1kˆ 
 4i  5j  7kˆ
 AC   AB
 AB and AC have the same magnitude but opposite directions
 The points A, B and C are collinear

6. Correct Option: C
Explanation:
Given differential equation is:
dy
 x log x   y  2log x
dx
dy 1 2log x
  y
dx x log x x log x
dy 1 2
  y
dx x log x x
dy
Comparing with  Py  Q
dx
1 2
P ,Q
x log x x
1
 dx
 Pdx x log x log  log x 
I.F.  e e e  log x

7. Correct Option: B
Explanation:
On substituting (2, 1) in 3x + y  6, we get
7  6, which is not true
Hence, (2, 1) does not lie in the half plane 3x + y  6.

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8. Correct Option: A
Explanation:
a  b  a  c and a  b  a  c
 a  b  a  c  0 and a  b  a  c
  
 a  b  c  0 and a  b  c  0 
As a  0,
Hence, b  c  0  b  c.

9. Correct Option: D
Explanation:
 1
I  dx
0 1  sin x
 1 1  sin x
I   dx
0 1  sin x 1  sin x
 1  sin x
I  dx
2
0 1  sin x
 1  sin x
I  dx
2
0 cos x

 

I   sec2 x  tan x sec x dx
0

I   tan x  sec x 
0
I    1  1 
I2

10. Correct Option: B

Explanation:
cos  sin 
A=
 sin  cos 
 cos2   sin2   1  0
Sin ce A  0, therefore A 1 exist.
AdjA 1 cos   sin   cos   sin  
 A 1    
A 1  sin  cos    sin  cos  

11. Correct Option: C

Explanation:
The corner points are A(25, 0), B(20, 10), C(0, 20) and O(0, 0).
Z=x+y
At A(25, 0), Z = 25
At B(20, 10), Z = 30
At C(0, 20), Z = 20

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At O(0, 0), Z = 0
Thus the maximum value of Z is 30 which is at point (20, 10).

12. Correct Option: A

Explanation:
ˆ
a  5iˆ  ˆj  3k;
b  ˆi  3jˆ  5kˆ
 a  b  6iˆ  2jˆ  8kˆ
ab ˆ ˆ
 3i  j  4kˆ
2

13. Correct Option: D

Explanation:
cos θ sin θ
A=[ ]
− sin θ cos θ
|A| = cos 2 θ + sin2 θ = 1

14. Correct Option: A

Explanation:
Total balls in 1st box = 3 white + 1 black = 4
Total balls in 2nd box = 2 white + 2 black = 4
Total balls in 3rd box = 1 white + 3 black = 4
Probability of 2 white and 1 black balls = P(WWB) + P(WBW) + P(BWW)
3 2 3 3 2 1 1 2 1
        
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
18  6  2 13
 
64 32

15. Correct Option: B

Explanation:
Given differential equation is
dy
dx
 
 1  x2 1  y 2 

1 y
dy
2 
 1  x2 dx 
Integrating both the sides, we get


dy
1 y
 1  x2 dx
2   
x3
 tan 1 y  x  C
3
This is the required solution of the given differential equation.

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16. Correct Option: D
Explanation:
Considering dot product on both sides,
a  b  c  . a  b  c   0.0
a  b  c  2  a . b  b. c  c .a   0
2 2 2


 52  122  132  2  a . b  b. c  c .a   0

 2  a . b  b. c  c .a   338

 a . b  b. c  c .a    338
2
 169

17. Correct Option: B

Explanation:
We have,
x2  25
f(x)  x 5
x 5
k x 5
x2  25
lim  f 5
x5 x  5
 x  5 x  5
lim k
x5 x 5
lim x  5  k
x5
10  k

18. Correct Option: C

Explanation:
x 3 y 4 z 8
Equation of line through (−2, 1, 3) and parallel to  
3 5 6
x 2 y 1 z 3
 
3 5 6

19. Correct Option: A

Explanation:
Given: f(x) = x9 + 3x7 + 64
Here, f is a continuous and differentiable for all x ∈ R.
⇒ f’(x) = 9x8 + 21x6
⇒ f’(x) = 3x6(3x2 + 7)
Now, x6 > 0 for all x ∈ R
Also, x2 > 0 for all x ∈ R
Thus, f’(x) > 0 for all x ∈ R.
As f is continuous and differentiable for all x ∈ R, so it is increasing for each x ∈ R.
Thus, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.

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20. Correct Option: C
Explanation:
If A = {a, b, c} and B = {1, 2, 3}
The function f: A → B is given by f = {(a, 2), (b, 3), (c, 1)}
Every element of set A is mapped to a unique element of set B, i.e. each element in
set B has a unique pre image in B.
So, f is a one–one function.
Thus, the reason is false.
Range of f = {1, 2, 3} = B
So, f is an onto function.
Thus, f is a bijective function.
Hence, the assertion is true.

Section B
 3 
21. sin sin 1  cos1 x   1
 5 
Operating both sides by sin-1, we get
3
sin 1  cos 1 x  sin 1 1 
5
3 
 sin 1  cos 1 x 
5 2
 3
 cos1 x   sin 1  
2 5
3
 cos1 x  cos1  
5
3  
x ...  Since, sin 1 x  cos 1 x  
5  2
OR
 1  x2   2x 
tan 1   tan 1 
 2x  
 1  x2 
 
1  1  x
 1  1  x 
2 2
1
 tan    cot   tan 1  cot 1 x
 2x   2x  x
 
 tan 1 x  cot 1 x 
2 2

4 3
22. The volume of a sphere (V) with radius (r) is given by V  r
3
Rate of change of volume (V) w.r.t. (t) is given by
dV dV dr
 .
dt dr dt
d 4  dr
  r3  .
dr  3  dt
dr
 4r2 .
dt
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dV
It is given that  900 cm3 / s
dt
dr 900 225
  
dt 4r2 r2
Therefore, when radius = 15 cm
dr 225 1
 
dt (15)2 
Hence, the rate at which the radius of the balloon
1
increases when the radius is 15 cm is cm / s.


23. We have, I = x3  3x2  5x

dI
  3x2  6x  5
dx
 
 3x2  6x  3  2

 3  x  2x  1   2
2

2
 3  x  1  2  0
dI
Sin ce  0 for all x, the income I of the doctor is increasing for all values of x.
dx
Thus, the insurance agent can ensure growth in the income of the doctor.
OR
4sin x  2x  x cos x 4sin x
f(x) =  x
2  cos x 2  cos x
cos x 2  cos x   sin2 x
f’(x) = 4. 1
2  cos x 2
 2cos x  cos2 x  sin2 x 
 4.  2
 1

 2  cos x  

 2cos x  1 
 4  1
  2  cos x 2 
 
8cos x  4  4  cos2 x  4cos x

2  cos x 2
4cos x  cos2 x cos x  4  cos x 
f’(x)  
2  cos x 2 2  cos x 2
Now for increasing function f’(x) > 0
 4  cos x 
f’(x)  cos x
2  cos x 2
4  cos x
is always +ve since |cos x|1
2
2  cos x 
∴ f’(x) > 0 if cos x is +ve
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    3 
f(x) is increasing in 0,    ,2
 2  2 

p x
24. Let I =  dx ...(1)
0 x  px
According to the property,
a a
 f(x)dx   f(a  x)dx
0 0
p px
I  dx ...(2)
0 px  x
Adding equations (1) and (2), we get
p x  px
2I   dx
0 x  px
p
  1dx =  x p = p – 0 = p
0
0
p
Thus, 2I = p  I 
2

25. f(x) = 3x5 + 40x3 + 240x

⇒ f’(x) = 15x4 + 120x2 + 240
⇒ f’(x) = 15(x4 + 8x2 + 16)
⇒ f’(x) = 15(x2 + 4)2
As (x2 + 4)2 is always greater than zero.
f’(x) > 0
Hence, the given function is always increasing on R

Section C
cos2x  2sin2 x
26. Given I   dx
cos2 x
cos2x  2sin2 x
I dx
cos2 x

I
cos2 x  sin2 x  2sin2 x
2
cos x
dx .....  cos2x  cos2 x  sin2 x 
cos x  sin2 x
2
I dx
cos2 x
I
1
cos2 x
dx ....  cos2 x  sin2 x  1 
I   sec2x dx
I  tan x  c

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27.
7
(i)  P(X i )  1
i0
 0  k  2k  2k  3k  k 2  2k 2  7k 2  k   1
 
 10k2  9k  1  10k2  9k  1  0  10k2  10k  k  1  0
 10k(k  1)  (k  1)  0
 (k  1)(10k  1)  0
1
 k  1, k 
10
k,also being a probability cannot be negative
1
k
10
3
(ii) P(X < 3) = P(0) + P(1) + P(2) = 0 + k + 2k = 3k =
10
17
(iii) P(X > 6) = P(7) = 7k 2 + k =
100

cos x
28. Let I   dx
1  sin x 2  sin x 
Take sin x = t ⇒ cos x dx = dt, we get
dt
I
1  t 2  t 
1 A B
Let  
1  t 2  t  1t 2t
 1  A  2  t   B 1  t 
Take t = 2 and then t = 1, we get
B = –1 and A = 1
1 1 1
  
1  t 2  t  1  t 2  t
Therefore, we have
 1 1 
I   dt
 1  t   2  t  
  log 1  t  log 2  t  C
2 t
 log C
1t
2  sin x
 log C
1  sin x
OR
 x
Let I =  dx … (i)
0 1  sin x
[By the property of definite integrals]

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 x a a
I  dx usin g  f(x)dx   f(a  x)dx
0 1  sin    x  0 0
π π-x
 I=  dx
0 1 + sinx
π 1 π x
=π dx -  dx
0 1 + sinx 0 1 + sinx
π 1 - sinx
=π dx - I;  using  i  
0 1 - sin2x
π 1 - sinx
 2I = π  dx
0 cos2x
π

= π  sec2x - tanx.secx dx
0

π
= π  tanx - secx 0
2I =  [(tan  – sec ) – (tan 0 – sec 0)]
2I =  [0 – (− 1) – (0 – 1)] = 2
I=

x
dy y y2 f(y)
29. ∵ dx = x − x2 f′ (x)
y

⇒ This is a homogeneous equation.

y
Take v =
x
Hence, y = vx
dy dv
⇒ = v+x
. dx dx
dv f(1⁄v)
⇒v + x = v − v2
. dx f′(1⁄v)
Separating the variables, we get
f ′ (1⁄v) dx
− dv =
1
v 2 f( ⁄v) x
Integrating both sides, we get
log|f(1⁄v)| = logx + log c
⇒ f(1⁄v) = cx
.
⇒ f(x⁄y) = cx
.
This is the required solution.
OR
dy
We know that the slope of the tangent is given by
dx
dy
According to question,  y  ex
dx
dy
Or,  y  ex   i 
dx
This is a linear differential equation of the form

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dy
 Py  Q , where, P = -1 and Q = ex
dx
Therefore,
Pdx - 1dx
I.F. = e =e  = e-x
Solution of (i) is given by
y.e-x =  ex e-x dx + c

 y.e-x = x + c
This is the required family of curves.

30. The feasible region is given below:

Here, the points lying on x + 3y = 12 are (0, 4) and (12, 0)

Also, the points lying on 3x + y = 12 are (0, 12) and (4, 0)
The feasible region contains (0, 0) as it satisfies both the inequality.
The point of intersection of both the equation is (3, 3).
We have the corner points of the feasible region are (0, 0), (4, 0), (0, 4) and (3, 3).
Z = 19.6x + 9y
At (0, 0), Z = 19.6 × 0 + 9 × 0 = 0
At (4, 0), Z = 19.6 × 4 + 9 × 0 = 78.4
At (0, 4), Z = 19.6 × 0 + 9 × 4 = 36
At (3, 3), Z = 19.6 × 3 + 9 × 3 = 58.8 + 27 = 85.8
Therefore, maximum profit = Rs. 85.8 at (3, 3).
OR
The feasible region is as follows:

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The lines meet at P(8, 16).
The feasible region is OCPB.
The value of Z = 300x + 160y
at O(0, 0) is zero
at C(16, 0) is 4800
at B(0 ,24) is 3840
at P(8, 16) is 4960
Clearly value is max. at P(8, 16)
So, the maximum value of Z is 4960 which is at P(8, 16).

3  3 1
31. L.H.L.  Lt   x    1 
x  1  2  2 2
3  3 5
R.H.L. = Lt   x    1 
2  2 2
x1

L.H.L. ≠ R.H.L.
So the function is discontinuous.

Section D

32. The shaded area OBAO represents the area bounded by the curve x2 = 4y and line x
= 4y – 2.

The points of intersection of the line and parabola are A(–1, ¼) & B(2, 1).
Area OBAO = Area OBCO + Area OACO …(1)
Area OBCO =
x2 x2
 2 dx   2 dx
0 4 0 4
2 2
1  x2  1  x3 
   2x    
4 2  4 3 
 0  0
1 1 8
 2  4    
4 4 3
3 2 5
  
2 3 6

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Area OACO
x2 x2
 0 dx   0 dx
1 4 1 4
0 0
1  x2  1  x3 
   2x    
4 2  4 3 
 1   1
 2    3 
1   1 1    1  
   2  1   

4 2  4   3 
     
1 1  1 1 
    2   
4 2  4 3
3 1 7
  
8 12 24
5 7  9
Therefore, required area =     sq. units
 6 24  8

33. R is defined as (a, b) R (c, d) = a + d = b + c

Let (a, b) ∈ N × N, then we have
a + b = b + a, true in N
 (a, b) R (a, b)
 R is reflexive.
Let (a, b), (c, d) ∈ N × N such that (a, b) R (c, d)
a+d=b+c
c+b=d+a
 (c, d) R (a, b), for (a, b), (c, d)  N x N
 R is symmetric.
Let (a, b), (c, d), (e, f),  N × N such that (a, b) R (c, d) and (c, d) R (e, f)
Since, (a, b) R (c, d)  a + d = b + c … (i)
Also, (c, d) R (e, f)  c + f = d + e … (ii)
Adding (i) and (ii), we get
a+d+c+f=b+c+d+e
a+f=b+e
 (a, b) R (e, f)
Thus, R is transitive
Hence, the relation R is an equivalence relation.
OR
f :N  N
n  1
 2 if n is odd
f(n)  
 n if n is even
 2

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Let f(n1 )  f(n2 )
Case 1 : n1 , n2 are odd
Let f(n1 )  f(n2 )
n1  1 n2  1
 
2 2
 n1  n2
Case 2: n1 , n2 are even
n1 n2
f(n1 )  f(n2 )   n1  n 2
2 2
Case3: n1 is odd and n2 is even
n1  1 n2
f(n1 )  f(n2 )  
2 2
 n1  1  n2
 n1  n2
Hence,
f(n1 )  f(n2 ) does not imply n1  n2  n1 , n2  N
 f is not one  one
Function f is onto and hence, f is surjective.
So f is not bijective.

34. From above system, we get:

3x+2y+z=1600
4x+y+3z=2300
x+y+z=900
Thus we get:
3 2 1  x  1600
4 1 3  y   2300
    
1 1 1  z   900 
This is of the form
 3 2 1 x  1600
AX=B, where A= 4 1 3 ;X   y  and B  2300
1 1 1  z   900 
3 2 1
A  4 1 3  3 1  3  2  4  3  1  4  1   6  2  3  5  0
1 1 1
We need to find A -1 :
C11  2;C12  1;C13  3
C21  1;C22  2;C23  1
C31  5;C32  5;C33  5

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T
 2 1 3   2 1 5 
 
Therefore, adj A   1 2 1   1 2 5
 5 5 5  3 1 5
 2 1 5 
adjA 1
Thus, A 
-1
   1 2 5
A 5
 3 1 5
Therefore, X  A -1 B
x   2 1 5  1600
 y    1  1 2 5 2300
  5  
 z   3 1 5  900 
x 1 −3200 − 2300 + 4500
y
⇒ [ ] = − [−1600 + 4600 − 4500]
z 5
4800 − 2300 − 4500
x 1 −1000
⇒ [y] = − [−1500]
z 5
−2000
x 200
⇒ [y] = [300]
z 400
Thus, x = 200, y = 300, z = 400.

35. The given equations of the lines are


r = ˆi + 2jˆ + 3kˆ + λ ˆi - 3jˆ + 2kˆ 

r = 4iˆ + 5jˆ + 6kˆ + μ 2iˆ + 3jˆ + kˆ 
On comparing with standard equation of line
ˆ b = ˆi - 3jˆ + 2kˆ
We have a = ˆi + 2jˆ +3k;
1 1

ˆ b2  2iˆ  3jˆ  kˆ
a2  4iˆ  5jˆ  6k;
a 2  a 1  3iˆ  3jˆ  3kˆ
ˆi ˆj kˆ
b1  b2  1 3 2
2 3 1

 9iˆ  3jˆ  9kˆ

 a 2    
 a 1 . b1  b 2  3iˆ  3jˆ  3kˆ . 9iˆ  3jˆ  9kˆ 
 3 9  3 3  3  9
 27  9  27  9

and b1  b 2   92  32  92
 81  9  81  171  3 19

Shortest Distance =
a2  a1  .  b1 × b2 
b1 × b2

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9 3
= =
3 19 19
OR
x 1 3 y z 1 x 1 y 3 z 1
Given equation of line is   or   .
5 2 4 5 2 4
ˆ  (5i  2j  4k)
Vector equation of given line r  (i  3j  k) ˆ ... (1)
Direction ratios of the line = (5, –2, 4)
Vector equation of the line passing through (3, 0, –4) and parallel to the given line
ˆ  (5i  2j  4k)
r  (3i  0j  4k) ˆ ... (2)
i j kˆ

Now, b  a2  a1  5  2 4  18i  23j  11kˆ
2 3 3
Distance between the lines (1) and (2) is given by:

d

b  a 2  a1   18 i  23j  11kˆ
b 25  4  16

18 i  23j  11kˆ


45
324  529  121 974
 
3 5 3 5

Section E

36.
(i) Given: f(x) = 3x2 – 3ax + 4
Since, f is a polynomial function.
So, f is differentiable for all the real values of x.

(ii) f'(x) = 6x – 3a
Since, x = 1 is the critical point
⇒ f’(1) = 0
⇒ 6 – 3a = 0
⇒a=2

(iii) As f(x) = 3x2 – 6x + 4

⇒ f’(x) = 6x – 6 = 6(x – 1)
As the volume is always positive ⇒ Discriminant < 0
When x ≥ 1, f’(x) ≥ 0
When x < 1, f’(x) < 0
Thus, f is strictly increasing in the interval [1, ∞) & decreasing in the interval (–
∞, 1).
OR

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(iii) As f(x) = 3x2 – 6x + 4
⇒ f’(x) = 6x – 6
⇒ f”(x) = 6 > 0
As x = 1 is the critical point.
We have, f”(1) > 0
Hence, by second derivative test, 1 is a point of local minima. The local
minimum value is f(1) = 1.
As we need to look for the local minima/maxima in the interval [0, 4].
Consider, f(0) = 4 & f(4) = 28.
Thus, 4 is the point of absolute maximum & absolute maximum value is 28.

37.
(i) G being the centroid of ∆BCD
3+4+2 0+3+3 1+6+2
⇒G=( , , ) = (3, 2, 3)
3 3 3
(ii) Here, A ≡ (0, 1, 2) and G ≡ (3, 2, 3)
AG = (3 − 0)î + (2 − 1)ĵ + (3 − 2)k̂ = 3î + ĵ + k̂
⇒ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ | = √9 + 1 + 1 = √11
⇒ |AG
1
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ × AC
(iii) Area of ∆ABC = 2 |AB ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ |
î ĵ k̂
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
AB × AC = |3 − 0 0 − 1 1 − 2|
4−0 3−1 6−2
î ĵ k̂
= |3 −1 −1|
4 2 4
= î(−4 + 2) − ĵ(12 + 4) + k̂(6 + 4)
= −2î − 16ĵ + 10k̂
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ × AC
|AB ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ | = √(−2)2 + (−16)2 + (10)2 = √4 + 256 + 100 = √360 = 6√10
1
Area of ∆ABC = 2 × 6√10 = 3√10 sq. units
OR
AB = 3î − ĵ − k̂ and ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
(iii) ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ AC = 4î + 2ĵ + 4k̂
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ | = √9 + 1 + 1 = √11 and |AC
|AB ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ | = √16 + 4 + 16 = 6
⇒ |AB ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ | + |AC
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ | = √11 + 6 = 9.32 units
The length of perpendicular from the vertex D on the opposite face
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ on ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
= |Projection of AD ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ |
AB × AC
(2î + 2ĵ) ∙ (−2î − 16ĵ + 10k̂)
=| |
√(−2)2 + (−16)2 + 102
−4 − 32
=| |
6√10
36
=| |
6√10
6
=| |
√10

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38.
(i) Let E1 be the event that the student knows the answer.
Let E2 be the event that the student guesses the answer.
Let E3 be the event that the student copies the answer.
Let A be the event that the answer is correct.
1 1 1
P  E1   ;P  E2   ;P  E3   ;
2 4 4
Probability that he answers correctly given that he knew the answer is 1.
That is, P  A |E1   1
If E2 has already occurred, then the student guesses. Since there are four
choices out of which only one is correct, therefore, the probability that he
1
answers correctly given that he has made a guess is .
4
1
That is P  A |E2   .
4
3
It is given that, P  A |E3  
4
∴ P(A) = P(E1) P(A|E1) + P(E2) P(A|E2) + P(E3) P(A|E3)
1 1 1 1 3 1 1 3
= ×1+ × + × = + +
2 4 4 4 4 2 16 16
12 3
= =
16 4

(ii) By Bayes Theorem, we have,

Required probability = P(E1|A)
P(E1 )P(A|E1 )
=
P(E1 )P(A|E1) + P(E2 )P(A|E2 ) + P(E3 )P(A|E3 )
1
×1
=2
3
4
2
=
3
Thus, the probability that student knows the answer, given that he answered it
2
correctly is .
3

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CBSE
Class 12 Physics
Mock Paper

SECTION - A

1. Correct answer – b: The force between the charges increases 4 times.

2. Correct answer – a:

We can consider the shell to be a dipole. So, at the equatorial points the electric lines
should be downwards. Also, the field lines should start from the positive terminal and
end at the negative terminal.
The electric field lines should be smooth and continuous. Figure (1) satisfies all the
required conditions.

3. Correct answer – a: 0.5 s

1/2
 1 
T  B
 pm 
So, time period becomes one third of the earlier.

4. Correct answer – c: 4 →3
The hydrogen spectrum has a spectral series as follows: Lyman (n → 1) Balmer (n →
2) Bracket (n → 3) Paschen (n → 4) Pfund (n → 5) The infrared radiation is emitted
when an electron jumps from a higher energy level to either 3, 4 or 5 levels. This is the
case for the Bracket, Paschen and Pfund series. Hence, the correct option out of the
four will be 4 → 3.

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5. Correct option – a: Kinetic energy of falling water → rotational energy of turbines →
electrical energy of generator.
In hydroelectric power stations, kinetic energy of falling water → electric energy of
generator.

6. Correct option – d:7/16, into the plane of the paper.

Now for the given figure, the magnetic field at centre M due to current flowing through
DA will be

Similarly, the magnetic field due to the current flowing through BC is

Whereas, magnetic field due to AB and CD will be zero since point M lies on the straight
line.
Hence net magnetic field for the given case will be

And by using the right-hand thumb rule we can conclude that direction of the
magnetic field will be in the plane of the paper.

7. Correct option –a: It is placed in a space varying magnetic field that does not vary with
time.
A metal plate can be heated by any of the flowing methods.
 Passing Direct current or Alternating current through plates
 Keeping it time-varying magnetic field, which produces induced current.

8. Correct option – d: Diffraction depends upon the size of the obstacle or aperture
When the size of the slit is large (a > λ) , bending of light becomes so small that it
cannot be detected up to a certain distance of screen from the slit. Hence no
diffraction. Diffraction of becomes pronounced when the dimensions of the aperture
or the obstacle are comparable to the wavelength of light. The diffraction will be more
pronounced when the slit width is smallest.

9. Correct option – b: frequency of incident light and work function of plate both

10. Correct option – b: S1, S4 and S5

S1, S4 and S5 are correct while S2 and S3 are incorrect.

11. Correct option – b: 1/137

The speed of electron in ground state of hydrogen atom is:

Hence, the ratio of speed of electron in ground state of H atom to speed of light is

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12. Correct option – b: IR =IG
From given diagram, we can observe that when switch is closed or open the reading
on galvanometer is same and resistance P and R are not same.
Using the balanced condition, we can say that
Current in resistance R and G will be same.
Thus, IR =IG

13. Correct option – a: If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct
explanation of Assertion.
As we know, the photo electric effect will only be observed when frequency of emitted
radiation is greater than or equal to the threshold frequency.
Also, when there is a greater number of quanta available, leads to an increase in the
number of energies absorbed by the electrons. Thus, the number of electrons coming
out of the metal will also increase, this explains the given assertion statement.
Hence both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is correct explanation of
Assertion.

14. Correct option –d: A is false, and R is also false.

The p-n junction, as we know, is lightly doped and has a large depletion region that
can only be eliminated by forward biassing, whereas the Zener diode is made by
heavily doping both the p and n sides of the junction. Because of heavy doping, a very
thin (<10−6 m) depletion region is formed between the p and n sides, and hence, the
electric field of the junction is extremely high (~5 × 106 V/m) even for a small reverse
bias voltage of about 5V.

15. Correct option –b: Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
In nuclear reactors, heavy water is generally used as a moderator because unlike
normal water, which absorbs neutron, it slows down neutron without absorbing it.

16. Correct option – a: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
As we know, a transformer works on the principle of mutual inductance and it is used
to increase or decrease AC voltage only.

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SECTION - B

17. Ascending order of the EM waves (in terms of frequency)

Radio waves < Microwaves < Gamma rays
Or in terms of increasing wavelength the order will be
X-ray < Microwave< Radio waves
i.e., λ3 < λ2 < λ1

18. There will be a central white fringe with a few coloured fringes on both sides. a) The
path difference to the central fringe is zero for all colours. Hence each colour produces
a bright fringe here. As they overlap, a white fringe is formed. b) In white light, there
are different colours (Wavelengths). The fringe of one colour is slightly displaced from
the fringe of other colours of the same order. Thus, the fringes of different colours do
not exactly overlap.

19. As a result, when solid hydrogen is used in the -particle scattering experiment, a thin
sheet of hydrogen would not provide enough scattering angle because hydrogen's
mass (1.67×10-27 kg) is less than the mass of incident -particles (6.64 ×10-27 kg). As a
result, the scattering particles would not re-enter the target nucleus, hence we will be
unable to conclude that the nucleus is located in the centre of an atom.

20. The refractive index of lens for violet rays is more than that for red rays, so power of
a lens will decrease if violet light is replaced by red light.

21. In forward bias depletion region between on junction is very thin because it allows
current to flow. But in reverse bias depletion region becomes thick and the thickness
of region depend upon amount of photon absorbed on the surface. When light strikes
the junction, the reverse bias current in the depletion region becomes much larger
than the forward bias current, allowing charge carriers to easily cross the barrier and
contribute to current across the diode. That is why the photo diode is wired in reverse
bias. Hence, we can conclude that, for the given case the device will not work as
intended since the photodiode is connected in forward bias condition instead of
reverse bias.
OR
When a p-n junction diode is forward biased, electrons flow from the n-type side to
the p-type side. This flow of electrons creates a depletion region on the p-type side.
The depletion region is a region where there are no free electrons. The depletion
region acts as a barrier to the flow of electrons. The diffusion of electrons across the
depletion region creates a potential difference across the depletion region.

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SECTION - C
22.
(i) According to Biot–Savart law, the magnitude of the magnetic field at a point due
to a current-carrying element is directly proportional to current I and element
length dl, and is inversely proportional to the square of the distance r.

(ii) Magnitude of magnetic field at center is given by

0 I   
B
2R  2 
For semicircular loop   
4  10-7  5
  
B  2 
2  2  10-2
 
B  2.5  10 T  
-7

By u sin g right hand thumb rule we can say that the direction of magnetic fiels
is int o the paper plane

23. Transformer: Principle: It is a device which converts high voltage AC into low voltage
AC and vice-versa. It is based upon the principle of mutual induction. When alternating
current is passed through a coil, an induced emf is set up in the neighboring coil.

Working: When an alternating current is passed through the primary, the magnetic
flux through the iron core changes, which does two things. It produces emf in the
primary and an induced emf is also set up in the secondary. If we assume that the
resistance of primary is negligible, then the back emf will be equal to the voltage
applied to the primary.

Where, N1 and N2 are number of turns in the primary and the secondary respectively
and V1 and V2 are their voltages respectively.

i.e.,
In a step-up transformer: N2 > N1, therefore, V2 > V1 such a device cannot be used to
step up a dc because a dc voltage cannot produce a changing flux, which is very
essential to the production of induced emf in the secondary.

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24.
(i) In the LR circuit,

V  Vm sin wt
 
i  im sin  wt  
 2
The voltage leads the current.
(ii) Vm2  VR2  Vl2
Vm2  VR 2  Vl2
Vm2  1602  1202
Vm  200V
Vm  IZ
Vm
Z
I
200
Z  200
1
(iii) When DC is passed through an inductor, the inductor will behave like a wire.
There will be no potential drop across the inductor, so the total potential drop is
160 V.

25. In + decay, the atomic number Z of the nucleus goes up by 1.

The nuclear + decay process of 116 C is
11
6 C  11
5 B + e+ + 
𝐺𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛:
11
6𝐶 = 11.011434 u
m (𝑋) = 115B = 11.009305 u
Mass of an electron or positron = 0.000548 u
c = speed of light
The Q value of the nuclear masses of the 116𝐶 is given as:
Q = [𝑚( 116𝐶 ) - 0m(m (𝑋)) + m𝑒 ]𝐶 2 (1)
If atomic masses are used instead of nuclear masses,
then we have to add 6m𝑒 in the case of 11 C and 5m𝑒 in the case of 11 𝐵
Hence, eq.(1) reduces to
Q = [𝑚( 116𝐶 ) - m( 115𝐵 ) - 2m𝑒 ]𝐶 2
𝑄 = [11.011434 - 11.009305 - 2 × 0.000548]𝐶 2
𝑄 = 0.001033 C2 u
1 u = 931.5 Mev/C2
𝑄 = 0.001033 × 931.5 = 0.962 Mev
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26. The Coulomb force between two charges is equal to the gravitational force between
the Earth and the Moon.
Therefore, we have

27.
(a)

(b) AC Generator: Principle: It works on the principle of Faraday's law of

electromagnetic induction. Whenever a coil is rotated in a uniform magnetic field
about an axis perpendicular to the field, the magnetic flux linked with coil changes
and an induced emf is set up across its ends.

The essential parts of an ac generator are shown in the figure. Initially, the
armature coil ABCD is horizontal. As the coil is rotated clockwise, the arm AB
moves up and CD moves down. The magnetic flux linked with the coil at any
instant is:
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ϕ = NBA cos ωt.
Induced emf will be

Let E0 be the peak value of induced emf. E = E0 sin ωt where, E0 = NBAω

28.
(a)

(b)
i. Threshold frequency is the minimum cut-off frequency below which no
emission takes place. By making V0 zero in this graph we can find the threshold
0
frequency which is equal to .
h
ii. According to photoelectric equation
eV0 =hν-0
h 
V0 = ν- 0
e e
Slope of potential vs frequency graph gives the value of h/e. As we know the
value to e we can easily calculate the value of h.
OR
(a) K max  hv  0
(b) According to this equation, the electron absorbs a quantum of energy hv. If this
quantum of energy absorbed exceeded the minimum energy needed for the
electron to escape from the metal surface having work function 0 , the electron is
emitted with maximum kinetic energy K max .
(c) Emission will not occur because the minimum energy required to release an
electron from the metal surface should be 4.2 eV.
K max  eV0
K max  1.6  1019  1.5
K max  2.4  1019 J

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SECTION - D

29.
r2 ϵ1 +r1 ϵ2
(i) Correct option – c: r2 +r1
The equivalent emf of the given combination is given as shown below.
ϵ1 ϵ
+ r2 r ϵ + r ϵ
r1 2 1 1 2
ϵeq = 1 12 =
+r r2 + r1
r 1 2
(ii) Correct option – b: r2 ϵ1 + r1 ϵ2
As we know for the given combination the equivalent emf is given as shown
below.
r2 ϵ1 + r1 ϵ2
ϵeq =
r2 + r1
Hence from this, we can conclude that for the given combination of cells, the
thermal B can be negative only if r2 ϵ1 < r1 ϵ2 .
ϵ +ϵ
(iii) Correct option – a: r1 +r2
1 2
According to Ohm’s law, we know that electric current in a circuit is directly
proportional to potential difference or emf across any given circuit.
ϵ +ϵ
i.e., I = r1 +r2
1 2
r1 r2
(iv) Correct option – c: r
1 +r2
In the given combination the cells are connected in parallel hence the equivalent
internal resistance for the given circuit will be
1 1 1 r1 r2
= + ⇒ req =
req r1 r2 r1 + r2

30.
(i) Correct answer – c:

An ideal diode has zero resistance in forward biasing and infinite resistance in
reverse biasing.

(ii) Correct answer – b: The region where there are no mobile charge carriers.
The depletion region is the region around the p-n junction where there are no
mobile charge carriers due to the diffusion of holes and electrons towards each
other. This creates a region with a fixed electric field that opposes the diffusion of
charge carriers.
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(iii) Correct answer – a: The current that flows when the diode is in thermal
equilibrium
The reverse saturation current is the current that flows when the p-n junction
diode is in thermal equilibrium and there is no external bias applied. It is due to
the random thermal generation of electron-hole pairs in the depletion region.

(iv) Correct answer – c:

When the p side of a p-n junction has a lower potential than the n side, the junction
is reverse biased.
Hence the correct option is C among the following.
OR
Correct answer – d: To create a region of excess holes in the semiconductor.
The purpose of doping a semiconductor in the formation of a p-n junction is to
create regions of excess holes in the p-type semiconductor and excess electrons
in the n-type semiconductor, which creates a depletion region at the junction
where there are no mobile charge carriers. This allows the p-n junction to act as a
one-way valve for the flow of current, making it useful in a variety of electronic
applications.

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SECTION - E

31.
(a)

Effective capacitance of both 3μF capacitors is 6μF and that for 1μF and 2μF
capacitors is 3μF. Effective capacitance of the entire circuit 4μF.
CV 2
Energy stored is given by
2
4 100 
2

2
2  104 J
0.02J

(b) When the capacitor is connected to the battery, the charges starts accumulating
on the plates of the capacitor. This process continues till the potential of the
battery becomes equal to the battery. Because of this flow of charges, the
galvanometer shows deflection.
1 Q Q
ΦE = E A= A=
ε0 A ε0
dQ
If charge Q on the capacitor changes with time, there is a current i 
dt
dΦE d  Q  1 dQ
  
dt dt  0  0 dt
 dΦE 
 id   0  
 dt 
where Id is the conduction current

OR

(a) Let P be an axial point at distance r from the centre of the dipole.

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Electric potential at point P will be

….
For a faraway point, r ≫ a

At large distances, dipole potential falls off as 1/r², whereas the potential due to a
single charge falls off as 1/r.

(b)

1. The indicates that the test charge q is so small that its presence does not
disturb the distribution of source charge and hence its electric field.
2. The electric fields of the point charge Q are shown below.

3. Area vector in Y-Z plane points along outward along positive x-direction is,
= . Hence the flux is:

32.
(a) Effective resistance of the circuit is 8 Ω.
V = 16 V
V=IR
16=I×8
I=2A
current in the each branch
is 1A
so potential difference across 4Ω is given by
V=1×4=4V

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(b)
(i)

For loop ADBA,

-I1R1  0  I2R 2  0
Or loop CBDC,
I2R 4 +0-I1R23 =0
From Eq. 1,
I1 R 2

I2 R 1
From Eq. 2,
I1 R4

I2 R3
Hence,
R2 R 4

R1 R3
(ii) It is used for the determination of an unknown resistance.
OR
(a) The current density j is related to electric field as E = σ E, here, σ is the
conductivity of the material. The above relation is equivalent to Ohm’s law. Now,
for a given material, slope is a constant. Hence, the plot of j versus E will be a
straight line starting from the origin.

(b) The slope of the graph gives the conductivity s of the material. The graph with a
greater slope is a better conductor and the graph with a lesser slope is a poor
conductor than the other.

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(i) To make a standard resistance: A resistor should allow only a limited current
to flow through it. Hence, from the graph, we come to know that the material
whose plot is similar to plot (2) should be used to make a resistor.
(ii) To make a connecting wire: A wire should allow all the current to flow through
it without resisting it. So, it should have a higher conductivity. Hence, from
the graph, we come to know that the material whose plot is similar to plot (1)
should be used to make a wire.
(iii) Electron drift is estimated to be of the order of mm s−1. However, the current
set up in the wires is of the order of few amperes. This is because the electron
density is very large in a material. It is of the order 1028/m3 of the wire. Hence,
all these electrons contribute to the total current. Therefore, despite having
small drift speeds, the current set up in wires is large.

33.
(i) Given that,
Width, d = 0.6 mm = 0.6× 10-3 m
Distance between screen and slit, D = 1 m
Now,
For second bright fringe from the centre maxima pertaining to light of 600 nm.
𝑛𝜆𝐷 2 × 600 × 1
𝑥= =
𝑑 0.6 × 10−3
∴ 𝑥 = 2 × 106 𝑛𝑚

(ii) For the given case, consider that nth bright fringe of wavelength λ2 and some (n-
1)th bright fringe of wavelength λ1 coincides with each other.
i.e., 𝑛𝜆2 = (𝑛 − 1)𝜆1 ⇒ 480𝑛 = 600𝑛 − 600
∴𝑛=5
Now, the minimum distance from the central maxima will be
5 × 480 × 1
𝑥′ =
0.6 × 10−3
∴ 𝑥 = 4 × 106 𝑛𝑚

(iii) From the below figure we can conclude that, diffraction occurs in both cases but
there is diffraction as well as interference among the diffracted rays in a double
slit. As a result, for double slit diffraction, we see a distinct bright and dark pattern.

OR

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(a) Consider two thin lens L1 and L2 of focal length f1 and f2 held coaxially in contact
with each other. Let P be the point where the optical centres of the lenses coincide
(lenses being thin).
Let the object be placed at a point O beyond the focus of lens L 1 such that OP = u
(object distance). Lens L1 alone forms the image at I1 where P I1 = v1 (image
distance). The image I1 would serve as a virtual object for lens L2 which forms a
final image I at distance PI = v. The ray diagram showing the image formation by
the combination of these two thin convex lenses will be as shown below:

From the lens formula, for the image I1 formed by the lens L1, we have

1 1 1
  ----------------(1)
v1 u f1
For the image formation by the second lens, L2 :
1 1 1
  ---------------(2)
v v 1 f2

Adding (1) and (2) we get:

1 1 1 1 1 1
    
v1 u v v1 f1 f2
1 1 1 1
   
u v f1 f2
1 1 1 1
  
v u f1 f2

If the two lenses are considered a single lens of focal length f, which forms an
image I at a distance v with an object distance being u, then we get
1 1 1  1 1 1
   where, =  
v u f  f f1 f2 
f1 f2
f 
f1  f2
f1 f2
Hence, the focal length of the combined system is given by: f 
f1  f2

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(b) Given that side AQ = AR. This implies that AQR =  ARQ.
The ray diagram for the refraction of ray PQ passing through the prism ABC is as
shown below.

As the ray PQ after refraction from surface AB emerges from face AC at point R of
the prism, it implies that the refracted ray QR travels parallel to the base of the
prism. This happens at the minimum deviation position.
So, according to the angle of minimum deviation formula, we have
 A  m 
sin
 2 ----------------------(1)
A
sin
2
Where A is the angle of prism, δm is the angle of minimum deviation and μ is the
refractive index of the prism.
Given A = 60°, n= √3
Substituting in (1) we get:
60  m 
sin
3 2
60
sin
2
60  m 
3  sin 30  sin
2
3 60  m 
 sin
2 2
 3   60  m 
sin 1  
 2  2
 
60  m 
60 
2
120° = (60° + δm)
⇒ δm = 60°
Thus, the angle of minimum deviation = 60. At the minimum deviation position,
A  m
i
2
We know A = 60 , m  60
Substituting we get:
60  60
i
2
⇒ I = 60°
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CBSE
Class 12 Chemistry
Mock Paper

SECTION A

1. Correct option: d) 1-phenyl-2-butanone

2. Correct option: d) Only primary aromatic amines.

The azo products have an extended conjugate system having both the aromatic rings
joined by N=N bonds.

3. Correct option: a) Ligand electron-metal electron repulsion

Degeneracy of the d-orbital is removed with the approach of the ligand due to ligand
electron-metal electron repulsion.

4. Correct option: d) CCl4

With increasing number of halogen atoms, density increases.

5. Correct option: d) Freezing point of solution

In the following diagram point, 'X' represents freezing point of solution.

6. Correct option: c) FeCl3.

FeCl3 is not an interstitial compound.

7. Correct Option: c) 2
In Ni(H2O)2(NH3)4]2+, the number of unpaired electrons is 2.

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8. Correct option: b) Slightly less than 109°28’
In alcohols and ethers, the oxygen atom is sp3 hybridized. So, according to
hybridization, the geometry around oxygen atoms should be tetrahedral and angle
should be equal to 109o28′. But in reality it is not seen. The reason is the two lone
pairs on the oxygen atom. They cause repulsion to each other and resulting bond
angle is slightly less in those compounds. Hence, the C-O-H bond angle in alcohols is
slightly less than the tetrahedral angle which is equal to 109o28′.

9. Correct option: c) sp3.

Nitrogen atom of amino group is sp3 hybridised.
One pair of electron acts as a lone pair and the remaining three electrons forms bonds
with either hydrogens or alkyl or aryl groups.

10. Correct option: b) COCl2

Chloroform gives COCl2 on exposure to air and sunlight.

11. Correct Option: b)

∆H positive and Ea is highest.

12. Correct option: c) Gluconic acid.

Glucose on reaction with Br2 is converted into Gluconic acid.

13. A is true but R is false.

Cuprous ions (Cu+) is colourless because it has no unpaired electrons in the 3d sub-
shell as it has 3d10 configuration. The cupric ion (Cu2+) has one unpaired electron as
it has configuration 3d9. By absorbing the visible light the unpaired electron can
migrate from one set of d-orbitals to another under the applied field of water
molecules. Hence cupric ion (Cu2+) in aqueous solution shows blue colour. So, the
assertion is true but the reason is false.

14. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

[Ti(H2O)6]3+ is coloured while [Sc(H2O)6]3+ is colourless.
This is because, in [Ti(H2 O)6 ]3+ has unpaired electron for d-d transition( responsible
for colorness of a complex compound) so it is coloured, while [Sc(H2O)6]3+ cannot
undergo d-d Transition as do not have unpaired electrons so it is colorless. So, both
the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.

15. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

The Nitro group, being an electron-withdrawing group, decreases the electron
density over the benzene ring. So, both the assertion and the reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

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16. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction (alkylation and acetylation) due to
salt formation with aluminium chloride, the Lewis acid, which is used as a catalyst.
Due to this, the nitrogen of aniline acquires a positive charge and hence acts as a
strong deactivating group for further reaction. Thus, both assertion and reason are
true and the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

SECTION B

17. Henry’s law states that the partial pressure of the gas in the vapour phase (p) is
proportional to the mole fraction of the gas (x) in the solution and expressed as:
P = KH x
Where KH is Henry’s constant.
Significance of KH: The higher the value of Henry’s law constant KH at a given pressure,
the lower is the solubility of the gas in the liquid.

18.
(a) Ethanol and Phenol
There are two distinguishing tests.
1. Idodoform test: Ethanol gives a positive result, while phenol gives a negative
response to the iodoform test.
Reaction of ethanol:
CH3CH2OH  NaOH  I2   HCOONa  CHI3
Yellow ppt.
2. Coupling test: Ethanol gives a negative response, while phenol gives a positive
response to the coupling test.
Reaction of phenol:

(b) Distinguishing test between propanol and 2-methylpropan-2-ol

Lucas test: Difference in reactivity of three classes of alcohols with HCl
distinguishes them from one another.
Alcohols react with hydrogen halides to form alkyl halides.
ROH + HX → R–X + H2O
Alcohols are soluble in Lucas reagent (conc. HCl and ZnCl2), while their halides
are immiscible and produce turbidity in solution.

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Because 2-methylpropan-2-ol is a tertiary alcohol, turbidity is produced
immediately.

Propanol is a primary alcohol which does not produce turbidity at room

temperature.

19.
(a) CO(NH3)5(NO2)](NO3)2
IUPAC name: Pentaamminenitrocobalt (III) nitrate
(b) Potassium tetracyanidonickelate (II)
Formula of the complex: K2[Ni(CN)4]

20.
(a) The reaction is a zero-order reaction, and the molecularity of this reaction is 2.
(b) The unit of the rate constant k is mole L−1 sec−1.
OR
Rate of formation of NO2 = 2.8 × 10-3 M s-1
Rate of disappearance of N2O5 =
1 d N2O5  1 d NO2 
 
2 dt 4 dt
d N2O5  1
  2.8  103  2
dt 4
 1.4  103 M s 1

21.
(a) The ether linkages which connect the two molecules of a monosaccharide are
called glycosidic linkages. These are present in oligosaccharides (i.e.,
disaccharides, trisaccharides, etc.) and polysaccharides.
(b) All these polysaccharides are made up of glucose units. In starch and glycogen,
α-glycosidic linkages are present while in cellulose, β -glycosidic linkages are
present between glucose units.

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SECTION C

22.
(a) The IUPAC name of the complex [Cr(NH3)4 Cl2]Cl is
Tetraamminedichlorochromium (III) chloride.
(b) Optical isomerism is exhibited by the complex [Co (en) 3]3+.
(c) Both [NiCl4]2− and [Ni(CO)4] are tetrahedral, but their magnetic characters are
different. This is due to the difference in the nature of ligands.
Ni+2 = [Ar] 4s03d8

Ni+2 has 2 unpaired electrons; hence, this complex is paramagnetic.

In Ni(CO)4, Ni is in the zero oxidation state, i.e. it has a configuration of 3d8 4s2.
[Ni(CO)4]
Ni = [Ar] 4s2 3d8

Electrons of CO

↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓
3d 4s 4p 4d
But CO is a strong field ligand. Therefore, it causes the pairing of unpaired 3d
electrons. Also, it causes the 4s electrons to shift to the 3d orbital, thereby giving
rise to sp3 hybridisation. Since no unpaired electrons are present in this case,
[Ni(CO)4] is diamagnetic.

23.
(a) When n-butyl chloride is treated with alcoholic KOH, but-1-ene is formed.
CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–Cl + Alc. KOH → CH3–CH2–CH=CH2 + KCl + H2O
but-1-ene
(b) 2, 4, 6-trinitrochlorobenzene under mild hydrolysis conditions (H2O/323 K)
gives 2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol or picric acid.

(c) When methyl chloride is treated with AgCN, methyl cyanide is formed.
CH3–Cl + AgCN → CH3–C  N + AgCl
Methyl chloride Methyl cyanide

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24.
(a) Due to maximum intermolecular hydrogen bonding in primary amines (i.e. due
to the presence of more number of H atoms), primary amines have a high boiling
point in comparison to tertiary amines.
(b) Aniline does not undergo Friedel–Crafts reaction due to the acid–base reaction
between basic compounds. Aniline and Lewis acid/Protic acid are used in the
Friedel-Crafts reaction.
(c) In (CH3)3N, there is maximum steric hindrance and least solvation, but in
(CH3)2NH, solvation is more and steric hindrance is less, lesser than in (CH3)3N.
Although +I effect is less since there are two methyl groups, di-methyl amine is
still a stronger base than tri-methyl amine.

25. The given reaction is as follows:

SO2Cl2 (g) 
SO2 (g)  Cl2 (g)
Also given:
Experiment Time s−1 Total pressure/atm
1 0 0.4
2 100 0.7

The rate constant k can be calculated as follows:

2.303 P
k log 0
t 2P0 -Pt
when t  100s,
2.303 0.4
k log
100 (2  0.4)-0.7
2.303 0.4
k log
100 0.1
2.303
k log 4
100
2.303
k  0.6021
100
k  1.39  102 s 1
Therefore, the rate constant is 1.39  102 s1 .

26.
(a) Acetylation of salicylic acid:

Thus, the products are aspirin and acetic acid.

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(b)

Thus, the products are 2-iodopropane and ethanol.

(c)
CH3  CH  CH  CH2  OH 
PCC
 CH3  CH  CH  CHO
Buten  2  al
Thus, the product is but-2-enal.

27.
(a) Decreasing order of acidic character:
p-nitrophenol > phenol > ethanol
(b) Decreasing order of boiling points:
propanol > propanal > ethanol
(c) Increasing order of boiling points:
Chloromethane < Bromomethane < Dibromomethane < Bromoform

28.
(a) Due to resonance between lone pair and lone pair of electrons on the O-atom of
the OH group and C = O, the carboxyl carbon is less electrophilic than carbonyl
carbon in aldehydes and ketones. Therefore, nucleophile addition of NH2OH to
the C=O group of carboxylic acids does not occur and hence carboxylic acids do
not form oximes.

(b) In chlorobenzene, the chlorine atom is linked to a sp2 hybridised carbon atom. In
cyclohexyl chloride, the Cl-atom is linked to a sp3 hybrdised carbon atom. Now,
sp2 hybridised carbon has more s-character than sp3 hybridised carbon atom.
Therefore, the former is more electronegative than the latter. Hence, the density
of electrons of C-Cl bond near the Cl-atom is less in chlorobenzene than in
cyclohexyl chloride.
Moreover, the R-effect of the benzene ring of chlorobenzene decreases the
electron density of the C-Cl bond near the Cl-atom. As a result, the polarity of the
C-Cl bond in chlorobenzene decreases. So, the dipole moment of chlorobenezene
is lower than that of cyclohexyl chloride.

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SECTION D

29.
(a) Cl dissociates into K+ and Cl-, i.e., i = 2. Whereas, sugar doesn’t dissociate to give
ions.
Since, elevation in boiling point is directly proportional to “i” value. Therefore,
the elevation in boiling point of 1M KCl solution is nearly double than that of 1 M
sugar solution.

(b) In the same volume of water, 0.1 mole of KCl will have greater boiling point
elevation, as boiling point elevation is a colligative property which depends on
the relative amounts of constituents and not on their identity.
Since more ions will be produced by KCl (ionic compound) than glucose
(covalent compound) as there are more component parts in the KCl molecule,
the KCl solution will have a higher boiling point.

(c) w1 = weight of solvent (H2O) = 1

kg = 1000 gm w2 =
weight of solute (C6H12O6)
=18 gm
M2 = Molar mass of solute (C6H12O6) =180 g mol-1
Kb = 0.52 K kg mol-1
Tbo   373.15K
K b  1000  w 2
Tb 
M2  W1
0.52  1000  18

180  1000
 0.052K
Tb  Tb  T  b
0.052  Tb  373.15
 Tb  373.202K
OR
(c) Given,
W2 = 60g
M2 = 180g mol-1
W1 = 250g
Kf = 1.86 K kg mol-1
ΔTf = kf×m
K  w 2  1000
Tf 0 - Tf  f
M2  w1
1.86  60  1000
273 - Tf 
180  250
273.15 – Tf = 2.48
Tf = 273.15 – 2.48 = 270.67K
Hence, the freezing point is 270.67K or -2.48 °C

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30.
(a) Vitamin K is responsible for the coagulation of blood.
(b) Nucleic acid shows phosphodiester linkages.
(c)
(i) Tertiary structure of protein: The tertiary structure of proteins represents the
overall folding of the polypeptide chains, i.e. further folding of secondary
structure. It gives rise to two major molecular shapes—fibrous and globular.
(ii) Essential amino acids: Those amino acids which are not synthesised by our
body are called essential amino acids. They must be part of our diet. Valine,
leucine, phenylalanine, methionine, lysine and histidine are essential amino
acids.
OR
(c)
(i) Polysaccharides: These are polymeric carbohydrate molecules composed of
long chains of monosaccharide units bound together by glycosidic linkages.
(ii) Denatured protein: When the normal environment of a living protein molecule
is changed even slightly, such as by a change in pH or in temperature, the
hydrogen bonds get disturbed and break. When attractions between and
within protein molecules are destroyed, the chains separate from each other,
globules unfold and helices uncoil. This is called denaturation of proteins.

SECTION E

31.
(a) In case of oxygen, Mn shows the highest oxidation state of +7. This is because Mn
forms pπ–dπ multiple bonds using 2p orbitals of oxygen and 3d orbitals of Mn.
With F, Mn displays an oxidation state of +4 because of the single bond formation
caused by the unavailability of 2p orbitals in F for multiple bonding.
(b) Cr2+ is strongly reducing in nature. It has a d4 configuration. While acting as a
reducing agent, it oxidises to Cr3+ (with electronic configuration d3). This d3
configuration can be written as t2g3 configuration, which is a more stable
configuration.

(c) Zn2+ salts have a completely filled set of d-orbitals (3d10), while Cu2+ has an
incompletely filled set of d-orbitals (3d9), and therefore, d–d transition is
possible in Cu2+, leading to blue colour.

(d) In the first transition series, copper exhibits +1 oxidation state very frequently.
It is because copper (+1) has an electronic configuration of [Ar]3d10. The
completely filled d-orbital makes it highly stable.

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(e) Transition elements have high effective nuclear charge and a large number of
valence electrons. Therefore, they form very strong metallic bonds. As a result,
the enthalpy of atomization of transition metals is high.

(f) In the lanthanide series, +3 oxidation state is most common, i.e., Ln(III)
compounds are predominant. However, +2 and +4 oxidation states can also be
found in the solution or in solid compounds.

(g) In actinoids, 5f orbitals have a poorer shielding effect than 4f orbitals (in
lanthanoids). Thus, the effective nuclear charge experienced by electrons in
valence shells in case of actinoids is much more than that experienced by
lanthanoids. Hence, the size contraction in actinoids is greater as compared to
that in lanthanoids.
32.
(a) t = 15 min
= 900 s
I= 2A
Molar mass of Ag = 108 gmol−1
1 F = 96500 C mol−1
Q=It
Q=2  900
Q=1800 C
From the reaction,
Ag+ + e− → Ag
Mass of Ag deposited
QM

nF
108  1800

1  96500
 2.01 g
Mass of Ag deposited is 2.01 g.
(b) An electrochemical cell is a device capable of either deriving electrical energy
from chemical reactions or facilitating chemical reactions through the

introduction of electrical energy. When the external potential is higher than Ecell ,
the flow of the current is reversed and the cell gets recharged.

(c) A fuel cell was used in the Apollo space programme for providing electrical
power.
OR
2
(a) The reaction given is Mg(s)  Cu (aq)  Mg2(aq)  Cu(s)
In the given reaction, the electron transfer is of 2 electrons. Hence,
n=2
Given, E0cell = +2.71 V
1 F = 96500 Cmol−1
We know that,
-G0 = nFE0 cell

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= 2  96500  2.71
= 523030 J
G   523030 J
0

G0 = - 5.23  105 J = -523.03kJ

(b) Kohlrausch law: The limiting molar conductivity of an electrolyte (i.e. molar
conductivity at infinite dilution) is the sum of the limiting ionic conductivities of
the cation and the anion each multiplied with the number of ions present in one
formula unit of the electrolyte.
On dilution, the volume of the solution increases, but the number of ions which
carry a charge in a solution remains the same. Hence, the number of ions per unit
volume which carry a charge in a solution decreases. Conductivity through a
solution is due to the presence of these ions. Therefore, the more salt or ions
dissolved in solution, the higher the conductivity (within limits). In a dilute
solution, the concentration of ions goes down, and the ability to pass a current is
diminished.

(c) A fuel cell is an electrochemical cell which converts chemical energy of a

spontaneous redox reaction to electrical energy.

33. An organic compound (A) with molecular formula C8H16O2 gives a carboxylic acid (B)
and an alcohol (C) on hydrolysis with dilute sulphuric acid. Thus, compound A must
be an ester. Further, alcohol C gives acid B on oxidation with chromic acid. Thus, B
and C must contain equal number of carbon atoms.
Since, compound A contains a total of 8 carbon atoms, each of B and C contain 4
carbon atoms.
Again, on dehydration, alcohol C gives but-1-ene. Therefore, C is of straight chain and
hence, it is butan-1-ol.
On oxidation, Butan-1-ol gives butanoic acid. Hence, acid B is butanoic acid.
Hence, the ester with molecular formula C8H16O2 is butylbutanoate.

All the given reactions can be explained by the following equations.

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OR
(a)
(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(b) Structure of carbonyl functional group:

 The carbonyl carbon group is sp2 hybridised and forms three sigma bonds.
 The fourth electron in the p-orbital forms a π-bond by overlapping with p-
orbital of oxygen.
 The oxygen atom also has two non-bonding electron pairs.
 So the carbonyl carbon with the three atoms linked to it lies in the same plane
and the π-cloud lies above and below the plane.
 The bond angle is 120° with expected trigonal coplanar structure.

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CBSE
Class 12 Biology
Mock Paper

SECTION A

1. Correct option - c)
The male gametophyte protoplast divides mitotically, yielding two unequal cells: a
small generative cell and a big vegetative cell. The generative cell splits into two
male gametes (or sperms). In angiosperms, the male gametophyte generates two
sperms and a vegetative cell. The vegetative cell eventually develops into a pollen
tube.

2. Correct option - b)
In some species, the diploid egg cell is formed without reduction division and
develops into an embryo without fertilisation.

3. Correct option - a)
The genetic code is a set of rules by which nucleotide triplets (called codons) specify
the amino acids that are added to a growing polypeptide chain during protein
synthesis. In the given mRNA sequence 3'-AUCAGGUUUGUGAUGGUACGA-5', the
codons can be determined as follows:
Position 1 – AUC
Position 2 – AGG
Position 3 – UUU
Position 4 – GUG
Position 5 - AUG (which serves as the start codon)
Position 6 - GUA
Using the genetic code table, we can determine the amino acid that corresponds to
each codon:
AUC codes for Isoleucine (I)
AGG codes for Arginine (R)
UUU codes for Phenylalanine (F)
GUG codes for Valine (V)
AUG codes for Methionine (M) and serves as the start codon.
GUA codes for Valine (V)
Therefore, the amino acid that would be incorporated at codon position 3 is
Phenylalanine and that at position 5 is Valine.

4. Correct option - d)
Baldness in humans is a sex influenced trait and the gene is carried on autosomes.
In males the chromosomes are in heterozygous condition having X and Y
chromosomes. The allele present on these chromosomes may get influenced due to
the sex hormones secreted by the person. A female will always inherit only one X
chromosome from her father. The female’s mother carries only one copy of the
allele and does not carry the allele for pattern baldness.

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5. Correct option - c)
Punnett square is a graphical representation to indicate all possible combinations
of the union of gametes during fertilisation and to calculate the probability of all
possible genotypes of offspring in a genetic cross.

6. Correct option - c)
Mendel described genes as factors. They were stable and discrete in nature and
were passed on to the next generation.

7. Correct option - a)
The double-helical structure of DNA proposed by Watson and Crick is a right-
handed helix because the backbone of the DNA molecule is composed of alternating
deoxyribose and phosphate groups. The pitch of the helix is 3.4 nm, which is the
distance between two successive nucleotide bases along the backbone.

8. Correct option - d)
Klinefelter's syndrome is a genetic condition in males. It occurs when a male is born
with an extra copy of an X chromosome. The extra chromosome is not transmitted
genetically but arises from the inability of the X chromosome to detach itself from
the pair during meiosis.

9. Correct option - b)
Drastically reduced number of lymphocytes leads to repeated infections caused due
to bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites and the symptoms of these infections,
which vary widely according to the site of infection and the specific microorganism.

10. Correct option - d)

Sticky ends are formed when the restriction enzymes cut the DNA molecule at a
position such that it leaves an overhanging stretch of the nitrogenous base which
can pair with the complementary base pairs. EcoRI cuts through the DNA strands at
nucleotides that overhang at the end. This overhanging nucleotide strand is called
a sticky end because it can easily bond with the complementary DNA fragments.

11. Correct option - b)

The accumulation of herbicide can have detrimental effects on those who consume
the food. The production of herbicide resistant GM crops is done to reduce the
accumulation of herbicide so that individuals can get the nutrients from food.

12. Correct option - c)

Primary production is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter
produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis. The
primary productivity in an ecosystem is expressed as gm-2 yr-1 or kcal m-2 yr-1.

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13. Correct option - d) A is false but R is true
Parthenocarpy is the development of fruits without fertilisation. The
parthenocarpic fruits formed are seedless. Thus, the assertion is false.
Parthenocarpy can be used to produce seedless fruits like bananas where apomixis
is the development of seeds without prior fertilisation that mimics sexual
reproduction. So, the reason is true.

14. Correct option - c) A is true but R is false

A commaless genetic code means that no punctuation is needed between any two
words. So, the assertion is true.
The genetic code is non-overlapping. In actual practice six bases code for not more
than two amino acids. So, the reason is false.

15. Correct option - a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Antibody mediated immune response occurs due to antibodies produced in the
blood. These antibodies are chiefly secreted by the B-cells into the body fluids.
When an antigen (pathogen) enters the body, the B-cells produce antibodies
(immunoglobulins) in response to it.
Thus, both assertion and reason are true, and the reason correctly explains the
given assertion.

16. Correct option - b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
Hind II was the first discovered restriction endonuclease enzyme. It has been
isolated from Haemophilus influenzae. It cuts the DNA molecules at a particular
point by recognising a specific sequence of six base pairs. This specific sequence is
known as the recognition sequence for Hind II.
Thus, both assertion and reason are true, but the reason does not explain the given
assertion.

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SECTION B

17. Sperms have to swim in the female reproductive tract to reach the ovum. They do
this by vibrating their tail in the fluid medium. Hence, the sperms have a tail
whereas an egg does not require a tail.

18. In a typical nucleus, some regions of the chromatin are stained light because of loose
packing of the chromatin. Some regions of the chromatin are stained dark because
the chromatin is densely packed. Euchromatin is transcriptionally active chromatin
while heterochromatin is transcriptionally inactive chromatin.

19. If the person has sustained high fever, weakness, stomach pain, constipation,
headache, and loss of appetite, then he is suffering from typhoid.
If the person has fever, chills, cough and headache and his lips and fingernails turn
grey to bluish, it is pneumonia.
If the person has chills and high fever recurring every 3 to 4 days, then it is malaria.

20.
a) The thermostable DNA polymerase, Taq polymerase is isolated from the
thermostable bacteria, Thermus aquaticus.
b) Thermus aquaticus has the ability to remain active at high temperatures. Unlike
other enzymes which become non-functional at high temperatures, Taq
polymerase remains perfectly active. During DNA amplification, the process of
DNA denaturation requires a very high temperature. So, the temperature
tolerance of Taq polymerase makes it suitable for use in DNA amplification.

21. The primary productivity varies in different types of ecosystems because it depends
on the plant species (producers) of a given ecosystem and their photosynthetic
capacity. Also, primary productivity is influenced by various environmental factors
and the availability of nutrients.
OR
Green algae survive by the utilisation of food synthesised by themselves through
photosynthesis. At the deepest layer in the ocean, light is absent. So, photosynthesis
does not take place and hence, green algae are not likely to be found in deep strata of
the ocean.

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SECTION C

22. Development of the placenta:

 During the reproductive cycle of a human female, placenta develops after the
implantation of the zygote into the uterus.
 After implantation, the cells of the inner cell mass of the blastocyst differentiate to
form the embryo proper.
 The trophoblast differentiates into two layers, the outer layer, and the inner layer.
The outer layer secretes enzymes to dissolve the endometrium of the uterus. The
inner layer grows out in the form of finger-like projections called chorionic villi into
the uterine stroma.
 They are surrounded by uterine tissue and maternal blood vessels.
 The chorionic villi and the uterine tissue become interdigitated to form the
structural and functional unit called the placenta.
Functions of the placenta:
 The placenta secretes hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen and progesterone that are
necessary to maintain pregnancy.
 Placenta facilitates the supply of oxygen and provides nutrients to the embryo
through the umbilical cord.

23. The penetration of an ovum by human sperm is a chemical mechanism. In this process,
the acrosome of the sperm undergoes an acrosomal reaction and releases certain
sperm lysins, which dissolve the egg layers locally and make path for the penetration
of the sperm. These sperm lysins contain corona penetrating enzyme, acrosin and a
lytic enzyme such as hyaluronidase which dissolves the hyaluronic acid polymers in
the intercellular spaces, which holds the granulosa cells of corona radiata.

24. Vasectomy is a surgical contraceptive method that can be adopted by the male partner
of a couple.
Vasectomy, being a surgical method, has very low reversibility. It is mostly a
permanent method. In this method, a part of the vas deferens is cut and tied together.
As a result, sperm production remains unchanged. But during intercourse, the sperms
cannot get transferred into the female genital tract. Therefore, it is a proven, reliable
and an efficient method of contraception.

25. The theory of natural selection states that the organism which is best adapted to the
surroundings can survive and reproduce. This theory is best explained by the
phenomenon of industrial melanism which is explained below:
 Before industrialisation, the population of white-winged moths was more as
compared to the dark-winged moths.
 The white-coloured lichens used to cover the trees. Therefore, the white-winged
moths could easily camouflage and prevent predation.
 The dark-winged moths were picked out by the predators, and so their population
decreased.
 After industrialisation, the dark-winged moths outnumbered the white-winged
ones because the tree trunk became dark due to industrial smoke and soot. Under
this condition, the dark-winged moths easily camouflaged.
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 Thus, the population of white-winged moths decreased due to predation.
 In this way, nature favoured that variety of moths which could survive in the
changing environment.

26. The common bacterium found in anaerobic sludge during sewage treatment and in
the rumen of the cattle are methanogens. Methanogens have become industrially
important as their technical application lies in the production of biogas by the
digestion of organic substrates. Also, they find their role in the sewage treatment
plants to filter the wastewater.

27. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals during a certain phase of growth.
These crystals contain a toxic insecticidal protein which is responsible for killing
the pest. But this toxin does not affect the bacterium because the protein is present
in an inactive protoxin form. When the pest consumes it, the alkaline pH of the
midgut of the insect dissolves the protein crystal which makes the toxin active. This
activated toxin binds to the surface of the midgut epithelial cells and aerates pores
that cause cell swelling and lysis and eventually result in the death of the insect.
Thus, although the toxin kills the pests the bacterium remains unaffected.
OR
Molecular diagnosis in recombinant DNA technology uses a ssDNA or ssRNA tagged
with a radioactive molecule. It is allowed to hybridise its complementary DNA in a
clone of cells followed by detection using autoradiography. The clone having the
mutated gene will not appear on the photographic film, because the probe used will
not be complementary to the mutated gene. In this way, the presence of mutated genes
can be detected using recombinant DNA technology.

28.
a) Biodiversity plays a major role in many ecosystem services in the following ways:
 Oxygen supply - Biodiversity provides the most basic necessity of life, i.e.,
oxygen. Even the Amazon Forest, known as the lungs of the planet, produces
20% of the total oxygen in the Earth’s atmosphere.
 Pollination - Another most important ecosystem service of biodiversity is
pollination through bees, bumblebees, birds, and bats.
b) We share biodiversity with thousands of plants, animals, and microbes on the
Earth. Every species has an intrinsic value, even if it may not be of any economic
value to us. We also have a moral duty to care for their well-being and pass on our
biological legacy in good order to future generations.

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SECTION D
29.
a) ‘a’ - Denaturation.
Denaturation is the first step of PCR which involves the breaking of phosphate
bonds between the DNA base pairs at 95℃.
b) ‘b’ – Primer.
The primer binds on the DNA that initiates polymerisation with the help of Taq
polymerase enzyme at a temperature of 60℃.
c) After each cycle, the number of DNA duplexes doubles itself. Thus, after the first
cycle there are two DNA duplexes. A duplex has two DNA strands. Thus, after the
second cycle there will be four duplexes, and after the third cycle there will be 8
DNA duplexes.
OR
c) The heat helps in the process of denaturation in PCR. The dsDNA is heated in this
process at an extremely high temperature of 95℃ so that both the strands are
separated.

30.
a) Characteristics shown by a population but not by an individual:
 Population size or density
 Population interactions
b) Ways of measuring population density of a habitat:
 Percentage cover for trees with a larger canopy
 Number of fish caught per trap
c) The population density tells us about the status of a species i.e., the outcome of
competition, the impact of predation or the effect of pesticides.
OR
c) Death rate is expressed as the number of deaths in a population in a given period
of time.
For example, if 4 individuals out of 40 deer died in a specific time period, say a week,
the death rate in the population of deer during that period is 4/40 = 0.1 individual
per deer per week.

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SECTION E
31.
a) In IVF, ova from the wife/donor (female) and sperms from the husband/donor
(male) are collected and are induced to form the zygote under stimulated
conditions in the laboratory.
The zygote or early embryos (with up to 8 blastomeres) are then transferred
into the fallopian tube (ZIFT-zygote intra fallopian transfer) and embryos with
more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus (IUT- intra uterine
transfer), to complete further development.
b) No, GIFT cannot be considered as an IVF technique because the fertilization of
the ovum by the sperm takes place inside the female body/in vivo unlike IVF
in which fertilisation occurs in a petridish or a test tube.
OR
Aspects of reproductive health which need to be given special attention in the present
scenario:
a) Educating people about the reproductive system, processes and practices and the
importance of safe and responsible sex.
b) Providing education about harmful sexual practices, unwanted pregnancy, unsafe
abortion, reproductive tract infections and cancers, gender-based responsibilities
and gender equality in making decisions about sex.
c) Establishing a proper system of education, counselling, prevention, detection and
management of health problems, care and rehabilitation and ensuring easy
accessibility of appropriate services.
d) Establishing appropriate systems to provide effective and accessible healthcare
for women during pregnancy and childbirth to provide the best chance for a
healthy mother.
e) Making policies and practices for population growth control so that people can
have access to safe, effective, and affordable contraception. However, they
should have the right to decide, when and which method to adopt.

32.
a) The regulatory gene in the given operon is ‘i' gene.
It codes for the repressor protein of the operon, which is synthesised
constitutively. The repressor has an affinity for the operator gene. It binds to
the operator and prevents the RNA polymerase from transcribing the structural
genes.
b) When the repressor binds to the operator, the operon is ‘switched off’ and the
transcription is stopped. So, lac operon’s regulation is called negative
regulation.
c) Lactose is an inducer molecule.
Gene ‘z’ codes for β-galactosidase, which is responsible for the hydrolysis of
lactose into galactose and glucose. ‘y’ gene codes for permease. It increases the
permeability of the cell to lactose.
OR
a) Sickle cell anaemia is controlled by a single pair of alleles HbA and HbS. Only
homozygous individuals for HbS i.e., HbS HbS show the diseased phenotype
while the heterozygous individuals are carriers (HbA HbS). Thus, it is a recessive
trait.
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b) This trait is autosomal in nature because its gene is present on the autosomes.
The disease can be transmitted from the parents to the offspring only if both
the parents are heterozygous (carrier of the gene).
c) The parents are heterozygous for the trait as two of their offspring have
diseased phenotypes. The genotypes of parents would be HbA HbS and HbA HbS
respectively.

33.
a) There is a maximum chance of a person transmitting a disease/infection during
the period of illness because the number of microorganisms in the body is very
high at that time.
b) Incubation period refers to the period between the exposure to an infection and
the appearance of the first symptoms.
HIV-AIDS is an STD that can be easily transmitted during this incubation period.
T-helper cells are the specific type of lymphocytes that are attacked by the
pathogen of this disease.
c) Period of decline is the time period when the number of immune cells forming
antibodies will be the highest in a person suffering from pneumonia. Immune
cells that produce antibodies are B-lymphocytes.
OR
Harmful effects of drugs in humans:
 Anxiety, shakiness, nausea and sweating, loss of mind control
 Reckless behaviour, vandalism, and violence
 Lack of interest in personal hygiene, fluctuations in weight and appetite
 Social adjustment problems
 Withdrawal, isolation, depression, fatigue, and aggressive behaviour can be life-
threatening.
 Excessive dosage of drugs may lead to coma and death due to respiratory
failure, heart failure or cerebral haemorrhage.

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