CF Merged
CF Merged
Section H
Nitin Vishen
Corporate
Finance
Capital Budgeting:
NPV and Other Investment Criteria
Learning Objectives
Learn how Managers evaluate investment options.
So, if PV(X) > $1mn (the investment) Investing in X increases Firm Value
Net Present Value (NPV)
1. The NPV rule offers a clear benchmark— accept projects with positive NPV.
2. NPV depends solely on the all cash flows, none are unaccounted for.
4. Net present value depends solely on the forecasted cash flows from the project and the
opportunity cost of capital.
5. Because present values are all measured in today’s dollars, you can add them up.
• NPV NPV NPV
Payback Period
a) If the opportunity cost of capital is 10%, which projects have positive NPV?
b) Calculate the payback period for each project.
c) Which project(s) would a firm using the payback rule accept if the cutoff
period is three years?
Chapter 5 - Question 2 – Solution
(a)
NPVA = –$1,000 + $1,000 / (1 + .10) = –$90.91
NPVC = –$3,000 + $1,000 / (1 + .10) + $1,000 / (1 + .10)2 + $1,000 / (1 + .10)4 + $1,000 / (1 + .10)5
NPVC = $39.47
Chapter 5 - Question 2 – Solution
(a) If the opportunity cost of capital is 10%, which projects have a positive NPV?
>>> Projects B and C have positive NPVs.
(c) Which project(s) would a firm using the payback rule accept if the cutoff period is three years?
>>> Accept projects A and B
Payback Period
NPV
Payoff
• Rate of return for a single−payoff 1 period investment
Investment
Internal Rate of Return (IRR)
You can purchase a turbo-powered machine tool gadget for $4,000. The
investment will generate $2,000 and $4,000 in cash flows for 2 years, respectively.
What is the IRR on this investment?
NPV
NPV
You can purchase a turbo-powered machine
Internal Rate of tool gadget for $4,000. The investment will
generate $2,000 and $4,000 in cash flows for 2
Return (IRR) years, respectively. What is the IRR on this
investment?
Rate 0% 5% 10% 15% 20% 25% 30% 35% 40% 45% 50%
𝐶 -4000 -4000 -4000 -4000 -4000 -4000 -4000 -4000 -4000 -4000 -4000 -4000
𝑃𝑉(𝐶 ) 2000 2000 1905 1818 1739 1667 1600 1538 1481 1429 1379 1333
𝑃𝑉(𝐶 ) 4000 4000 3628 3306 3025 2778 2560 2367 2195 2041 1902 1778
𝑁𝑃𝑉 2000 1533 1124 764 444 160 -95 -324 -531 -718 -889
Internal Rate
of Return (IRR)
• With some cash flows, the NPV of the project increases as the
discount rate increases.
Certain cash flows can generate NPV = 0 at two different discount rates.
𝑪𝟎 𝑪𝟏 𝑪𝟐 𝑪𝟑 𝑪𝟒 𝑪𝟓 𝑪𝟔 𝑪𝟕 𝑪𝟖 𝑪𝟗 𝑪𝟏𝟎
-30 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 -65
Companies sometimes get around the problem of multiple rates of return by discounting
the later cash flows back at the cost of capital until there remains only one change in the
sign of the cash flows!
Calculate Present Value in year 5 of all the subsequent cash flows at 10% cost of capital:
Now there is only one change in sign of cash flows. So, you will get only one IRR of 13.7%
Pitfall 2b—No Internal Rate of Return
It is not possible to calculate an IRR, but NPV is positive.
Project C0 C1 C2 IRR (%) NPV at 10%
C +1,000 −3,000 +2,500 None +339
600
500
400
300
200
100
0
0%
4%
8%
12%
16%
20%
24%
28%
32%
36%
40%
44%
48%
52%
56%
60%
64%
68%
72%
76%
80%
84%
88%
92%
96%
100%
Pitfall 3—Mutually Exclusive Projects
• Firms sometimes need to choose between multiple alternative ways
of utilizing the same resource
• IRR sometimes ignores the magnitude of the project.
Project C0 C1 IRR NPV at 10%
D −10,000 +20,000 100 +8,182
E −20,000 +35,000 75 +11,818
• We assume that discount rates are stable during the term of the project.
• This assumption implies that all funds are reinvested at the IRR.
• This assumption might not be true for all projects.
Verdict on IRR?
• If higher IRR is prescribed, it is possible that the operational managers will take
the first project they evaluate
• Or they might end up choosing very-short lived projects with higher IRR but
lower NPV
Chapter 5 – Question 12
No. Project A requires a larger capital outlay, it is possible that Project A has both a lower IRR and a
higher NPV than Project B. (In fact, is greater than for all discount rates less than
10%.) Because the goal is to maximize shareholder wealth, NPV is the correct criterion.
Chapter 5 – Question 12 - Solution
(b) How can you use the IRR Rule to choose the best project?
To use the IRR criterion for mutually exclusive projects, calculate the IRR for the incremental cash flows!
C0 C1 C2 IRR
A - B −200 +110 +121 10%
Because the IRR for the incremental cash flows exceeds the cost of capital, the additional investment in
A is worthwhile.
Chapter 5 – Question 12 - Solution
10.00
0.00
-10.00
NPV
-20.00
DISCOUNT RATE (%)
-30.00
-40.00
-50.00
-60.00
Chapter 5 – Question 13
NPV = 0
= [–$550,000 – (–$250,000)] / (1 + IRR)1
+ [$650,000 – (–$250,000)] / (1 + IRR)2
+ ($0 – $650,000) / (1 + IRR)3
NPV = 0
= –$300,000 / (1 + IRR)
+ $900,000 / (1 + IRR)2
–$650,000) / (1 + IRR)3
Because the cash flows change direction twice, there are two IRRs.
The IRRs for the incremental flows are approximately 21.13 percent
and 78.87 percent. If the cost of capital is between these two rates,
Titanic should work the extra shift.
IRR in Excel
XIRR: The same as IRR, but for irregularly spaced cash flows!
IIMB PGP/PGPBA 2023-25 – Term 2
Section H
Nitin Vishen
Corporate
Finance
Capital Budgeting :
Making Investment Decisions with the NPV Rule
Learning Objectives
Forecast cash flows for a capital
budgeting project
Forecasting
Capital Expenses:
• Record capital expenditures when they occur.
500 500
𝑁𝑃𝑉 𝑢𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝐴𝑐𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝐼𝑛𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑒 = − = $41.32
1.1 1.1
1500 500
𝑁𝑃𝑉 𝑢𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝐶𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝐹𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 = −2000 + + <0
1.1 1.1
No! At any positive discount rate, the cash flows will give a negative NPV.
Rule 1: Discount Cash Flows – Capital Expenses
A supermarket installs a new machine. The machine costs $250,000, and projected
profit per machine is as follows:
Short-term Assets: Accounts Receivables (customers’ unpaid bills) and Inventories of raw material
and finished goods.
Short-term Liabilities: Accounts Payable (Bills you have not paid) and Accruals (liabilities of wages
or taxes that have been incurred but not paid).
Example:
Rule 1: Discount Cash Flows – Working Capital
An increase in current liabilities represents cash inflow. If you delay paying your bills (an increase
in accounts payable), cash flow is higher. If your firm did not pay for its purchase of raw materials
until Period 2, there would be an increase in payables in Period 1, and our cash flow calculation
would change like this:
Rule 1: Discount Cash Flows – Working Capital
2. Forgetting that working capital may change during the life of the project.
• If you sold $100,000 of goods a year, and collect the amount after 6 months, you would have
$50,000 unpaid bills.
• If you increase prices by 10%, revenues will rise to $110,000.
• If collection period remains 6 months, unpaid bills rise to $55,000.
• So, Additional investment in working capital = $5000
Include:
Forecasting • Include all incidental effects.
• Forecast product sales today but also recognize
a Project's after-sales cash flows.
Cash Flow
• Remember salvage value.
• Include opportunity costs.
Exclude:
• Forget sunk costs.
• Beware of allocated overhead costs.
Rule 2: Discount Incremental Cash Flows only.
Cash Flow
1. Include the project’s effects on the firm’s other
business
2. Recognize after-sales cash flows
3. Remember Salvage Value
4. Include Opportunity Costs
Rule 2: Discount Incremental Cash Flows only
For example, recently Honda launched a new SUV Honda Elevate; sales of Honda
Amaze went down
Rule 2: Discount Incremental Cash Flows only
• When a project comes to an end, you may be able to sell the plant/equipment or
redeploy the assets elsewhere in the business.
• If you sell the equipment, you must pay tax on the difference between the sale price
and book value of the asset.
• The salvage value (net of any taxes) represents a positive cash flow to the firm.
• If the asset is used elsewhere in the business, the cash saved from not buying a new
asset is also a positive cash flow.
Rule 2: Discount Incremental Cash Flows only
• Example: A new manufacturing operation uses land that could otherwise be sold for
$100,000. This resource is not free: it has opportunity cost, which is the cash it could
generate for the company if the project were rejected and the land was sold.
• To calculate opportunity costs, you need to take the difference between the cash flows
with the project and those without the project
Rule 2: Discount Incremental Cash Flows only
If these overhead costs are not related to any one project, but for
the entire firm.
We only include only extra expenses that would result from the
project.
Rule 2: Discount Incremental Cash Flows only
Consider:
1. $50mn R&D expense for a new drug Should you go for clinical trial?
2. A railroad company has spent $50mn on engineering & consultancy services,
should they go ahead with the construction of a new high-speed rail line?
3. New software development has proved more costly than anticipated, would
you scrap the project?
These expenditures are sunk cost, and should be ignored while deciding to
accept/reject the project!
Rule 3: Treat Inflation Consistently.
Forecasting
a Project's •
•
Consistently handle inflation.
Nominal interest rates discount nominal cash flows.
Cash Flow •
•
Real interest rates discount real cash flows.
Results are the same.
Rule 3: Treat Inflation Consistently
You invest in a project that will produce real cash flows of −$100 in Year 0 and
then $35, $50, and $30 in the 3 respective years. If the nominal discount rate is
15% and the inflation rate is 10%, what is the NPV of the project?
Rule 3: Treat Inflation Consistently
Cash Flows 𝑪𝟎 𝑪𝟏 𝑪𝟐 𝑪𝟑
Real -100 +35 +50 +30
Nominal -100 35 × 1.1 = 38.5 05 × 1.1 = 60.5 30 × 1.1 = 39.5
Rule 3: Treat Inflation Consistently
Answer:
• Real Cash Flow = $100,000 / (1 + .04) = $96,154
• r = (1 + .08) / (1 + .04) – 1 = .03846, or 3.846%
• PV = $96,154 / (1 + .03846) = $92,593
Rule 4: Separate Investment and Financing Decisions.
Forecasting • Question: How should you treat the proceeds from the
debt issue and the interest and principal payments on
a Project's the debt?
Cash Flow • Answer: Neither subtract the debt proceeds from the
required investment nor recognize the interest and
principal payments on the debt as cash outflows.
A firm is considering investment in a new manufacturing plant. The site is owned by the company but existing
buildings would need to be demolished. Which of the following should be treated as incremental cash flows?
• Lost cash flows on an existing product that will be replaced by the new proposal :
• Incremental Cash Outflow
• Future depreciation of the new plant :
• Non-incremental Cash Flow
• The reduction in the firm's tax bill resulting from depreciation of the new plant :
• Incremental Cash Flow
• The initial investment in inventories of raw materials :
• Incremental Cash Outflow
• Money already spent on engineering design of the new plant :
• Sunk Cost
Corporate Income Tax Rates
Country Corporate Tax Rate (%)
Australia 30
Brazil 34
Canada 15
China 25
France 33
Germany 16
India 30
Ireland 13
Japan 23
United Kingdom 19
United States 21
Corporate Income Taxes
• Tax rates applicable to companies vary – across time and countries (and across types of
business). We will – typically – take a single corporate income tax rate as given (for simplicity). For
instance, in India this may be 30% and in the US 21%.
• Expenses are usually tax-deductible in the year they are incurred. This means they reduce or offset
taxable income that year. Capex is, mostly, an exception and must be depreciated.
• Depreciation rules/schemes set by the (relevant) tax authority vary. Common types include the
Straight Line method, and the Written Down Value method. Sometimes, an “accelerated”
scheme/option may be available.
• Losses in a given year may be used to offset/reduce taxable income in later years (“carry-forwards”)
Corporate Income Taxes
Depreciation Deductions:
• When firms calculate taxable income, they do not deduct capital expense.
• But they deduct depreciation, typically, on a straight-line!
Example:
• If a firm spends $10000 to buy equipment with 5-year life.
• It can deduct depreciation (Straight-line: $10000/5=$2000) from annual profits
• Assume Tax Rate = 30%
• Tax saving or Depreciation Tax Shield = 30% x $2000 = $600
• Some countries allow accelerated depreciation Higher depreciation in early years
Corporate Income Taxes
Example:
• A firm purchases a machine for $10000
• Depreciates it for 5 years, and then sells it for $1000
• The firm has to pay tax on $1000 sale
Corporate Income Taxes
Example:
• In US, losses can be carried forward indefinitely and used to offset up to 80% of future
income.
• A manufacturer loses $100,000 in 2020 but earns $100,000 in 2021 and 2022.
• It pays no tax in 2020 as there are no profits.
• In 2021, it can use $80,000 (=80% x $100,000) of the loss to offset income
• So, tax paid in 2021 = 21% x $20,000 = $4,200
• In 2022, the firm can use the remaining $20,000 carried forward, paying tax of 21% x
$80000 = $16,800
Chapter 6 – Question 12
• Capital Investment: Up-front investment in plant, equipment, research, start-up costs, & other outlays.
• Operating Cash Flow: Net increase in sales revenue from the new project less outlays.
• Investment in Working Capital: Represents a negative cash flow.
Total cash flow is the sum of cash flows from capital investment, operations, & changes in working capital.
Framework for calculating Free Cash Flows
Operating Cash Flow: Net increase in sales revenue from the new project less outlays.
• If the $50,000 installation cost is expensed at the end of year 1, the value of the tax shield is:
• PV = ($50,000 × .25) / (1 + .05) = $11,905
• If the $50,000 cost is capitalized and then depreciated using a five-year straight-line depreciation, the value of the
tax shield is:
• PV = (.25 × $50,000 × 0.20) × [1/1.05 + 1/1.052 + 1/1.053 +1/1.054 + 1/1.055 ] = $10,824
• If the installation cost can be expensed, then the tax shield is larger, which means the after-tax cost is smaller.
Project Step-by-step
walkthrough an
Analysis example of calculating
project’s cash flows
after accounting for
taxes!
IM&C Company Wants
to Sell a New Fertilizer
1. You are the CFO of International Mulch and Compost
Company (IM&C).
2. You need to analyze a proposal for selling a new fertilizer
3. You have 7-year forecasts of the project that requires
$12mn investment in Plant and Machinery
4. In year 7, the machinery can be dismantled and sold for
$1949 (forecasted salvage value)
5. Assume that the machinery will be fully depreciated over
6 years using straight-line depreciation for $2mn a year.
6. You need to calculate the cash flows!
7. Assume all values are nominal amounts.
8. We will assume negative tax as cash inflow, assuming
IM&C can use the tax loss on the new fertilizer project to
shield income from the rest of the operations.
IM&C Company Wants to Sell a New Fertilizer
Forecasts (in $000) with $12mn Investment:
Period 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
1. Capital investment 12,000 -1,949
2. Accumulated depn. 2,000 4,000 6,000 8,000 10,000 12,000 0
3. Year-end book value 12,000 10,000 8,000 6,000 4,000 2,000 0 0
4. Working capital 550 1,289 3,261 4,890 3,583 2,002 0
5 Revenues 523 12,887 32,610 48,901 35,834 19,717
6 Expenses 4,000 3,037 8,939 20,883 30,809 23,103 13,602
7 Depreciation 2,000 2,000 2,000 2,000 2,000 2,000 0
8 Pretax profit (5-6-7) -4,000 -4,514 1,948 9,727 16,092 10,731 4,115 1,949
9 Tax (@21%) -840 -948 409 2,043 3,379 2,254 864 409
10 Net income (8 - 9) -3,160 -3,566 1,539 7,684 12,713 8,477 3,251 1,540
IM&C Company Wants to Sell a New Fertilizer
Calculating Cash Flows from Capital Investments, Operations, and Working Capital:
Period 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Panel A: Capital Investment
1 Capital investment -12,000 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
2 Sale of fixed assets 1,949
3 Less tax on sale (@21%) -409
Cash flow from capital investment
4 (1 + 2 - 3) -12,000 0 0 0 0 0 0 1,540
Panel B: Operating Cash Flow
5 Revenues 0 523 12,887 32,610 48,901 35,834 19,717
6 Expenses 4,000 3,037 8,939 20,883 30,809 23,103 13,602
7 Depreciation 0 2,000 2,000 2,000 2,000 2,000 2,000
8 Pretax profit (5 - 6 - 7 ) -4,000 -4,514 1,948 9,727 16,092 10,731 4,115
9 Tax (@21%) -840 -948 409 2,043 3,379 2,254 864
10 Profit after tax (8 - 9) -3,160 -3,566 1,539 7,684 12,713 8,477 3,251
11 Operating cash flow (5 - 6 - 9) -3,160 -1,566 3,539 9,684 14,713 10,477 5,251
*Operating Cash Flow = Revenues – Expenses – Taxes = After-tax Profit + Depreciation = (Revenues – Expenses) × (1 – Tax Rate) + (Tax Rate × Depreciation)
IM&C Company Wants to Sell a New Fertilizer
Period 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Restate the net cash flows in the previous analysis in real terms.
Discount the restated cash flows at a real discount rate.
Assume at 20% nominal rate and 10% expected inflation.
Should the NPV change?
Year 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Real Cash Flows -15,160 -1,924 2,314 5,794 8,937 7,317 3,856 1,818
NPV for Real Cash Flows 3,806
Accelerated Depreciation and First-Year Expensing
1. Depreciation is a non-cash expense.
2. It is important only because it reduces taxable income.
3. Tax-shield = Depreciation × Tax rate
4. Most common method of Depreciation: Straight-line
depreciation, which allowed IM&C to write off a fixed
proportion of the initial investment each year.
5. Some countries permit firms to depreciate their investments
more rapidly!
6. Since 2018, firms in US have been permitted to write off the
entire amount of their investment in plant and machinery
immediately.
7. What happens to NPV of the fertilizer project, assuming that
the full $12mn investment can be depreciated immediately?
8. Accelerated Depreciation affects cash flows only through
lower taxes early on ⇒ Increases Discounted value of cash
flows
IM&C Company Wants to Sell a New Fertilizer
Accelerated Depreciation and First-Year Expensing
Period 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Panel A: Capital Investment
1 Capital investment -12,000 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
2 Sale of fixed assets 1,949
3 Less tax on sale (@21%) -409
Cash flow from capital investment
4 (1 + 2 - 3) -12,000 0 0 0 0 0 0 1,540
Panel B: Operating Cash Flow
5 Revenues 0 523 12,887 32,610 48,901 35,834 19,717 0
6 Expenses 4,000 3,037 8,939 20,883 30,809 23,103 13,602 0
7 Depreciation 12000 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
8 Pretax profit (5 - 6 - 7 ) -16,000 -2,514 3,948 11,727 18,092 12,731 6,115 0
9 Tax (@21%) -3,360 -528 829 2,463 3,799 2,674 1,284 0
10 Profit after tax (8 - 9) -12,640 -1,986 3,119 9,264 14,293 10,057 4,831 0
11 Operating cash flow (5 - 6 - 9) -640 -1,986 3,119 9,264 14,293 10,057 4,831
*Operating Cash Flow = Revenues – Expenses – Taxes = After-tax Profit + Depreciation = (Revenues – Expenses) × (1 – Tax Rate) + (Tax Rate × Depreciation)
IM&C Company Wants to Sell a New Fertilizer
Accelerated Depreciation and First-Year Expensing
Period 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
• Operating costs: These include all direct and indirect costs. Operating costs per unit are forecasted to remain constant in
real terms at $2,000.
• Comment: Is the analysis being done in real or nominal terms?
• Income: Revenue less the sum of research and development, operating costs, overhead, depreciation, and
interest.
• Comment: That is Correct!
• Tax: 30% of income. Income is negative in 2021. This loss is carried forward & deducted from taxable income
in 2023.
• Comment: If Reliable has profits on its remaining business, the tax loss should not be carried forward.
• Net present value: NPV of net cash flow at a 15% discount rate.
• Comment: Discount rate should reflect project characteristics; it is not equivalent to the firm’s borrowing rate.
Chapter 6 – Question 1 – Sample Analysis
Part b:
What additional information would you need to construct a version of Table in Q1 that makes sense?
Total Cash Flow -11.508 0.412 2.5701 1.242 1.687 1.687 1.687 1.687 1.687 1.687 6.0529 1.245
Discounted Cash Flow -11.508 0.34333 1.78479 0.71875 0.81356 0.67797 0.56497 0.47081 0.39234 0.32695 0.97758 0.16756
NPV -4.2694
Chapter 6 – Question 1 – Sample Analysis
($ in real 000's) 2021 2022 2023 2024 2025 2026 2027 2028 2029 2030 2031 2032
Unit Sales - 2,000 4,000 10,000 10,000 10,000 10,000 10,000 10,000 10,000 10,000 -
Revenue per unit - 4,000 4,000 2,490 2,490 2,490 2,490 2,490 2,490 2,490 2,490 -
Labor cost per unit - 2,500 2,250 2,000 2,000 2,000 2,000 2,000 2,000 2,000 2,000 -
Other costs % of Revenue - 10% 10% 10% 10% 10% 10% 10% 10% 10% 10% -
Corporate
Finance
• A company’s cost of capital is the opportunity cost of capital for an investment in all the
firm’s assets and is the correct discount rate for its average-risk project
• If a firm has no debt, the company’s cost of capital equals its cost of equity, i.e., the expected
rate of return on the company’s common stock.
• If a firm has both debt and equity, the company’s cost of capital is computed by considering a
portfolio of its debt and equity financing. Company’s beta is also its Asset Beta.
• A firm’s value can be stated as the sum of the value of its various assets.
• “The value-additivity principle.”
Asset Beta
• Company cost of capital is based on the average beta of the assets.
• The average beta of the assets is based on the percentage of funds in each asset.
• Assets = Debt + Equity
• If a firm has both debt and equity, the company’s cost of capital is computed by
considering a portfolio of its debt and equity financing.
Company Cost of Capital with No-Debt
J&J Market Value (Billions $ in 2020 Q3)
Assets: A = $380 𝛽 = 0.75 Equity: E = $380 𝛽 = 0.75
• Johnson & Johnson (J&J) has no-debt. Book Value of its Assets = $60bn
• We can infer the market value of J&J’s assets from its market cap.
• Beta must be the same on both sides of the balance sheet!
• If , then if J&J has no-debt,
• J&J’s shareholders bear all the risks of J&J’s assets
Value of a firm:
Company Cost of Capital with Debt and Equity
CSX Market Value (Billions $ in 2020 Q3)
Assets: A = $380 𝛽 =? Debt: D = $16.5 (22%) 𝛽 = 0.2
Equity: E = $60 (78%) 𝛽 = 1.18
Total: V = $76.5 Total: V = $76.5
• CSX, a Railroad Company has both debt equity
• What is CSX’s asset beta?
• CSX is a portfolio of its debt and equity financing. So,
𝑫 𝑬
𝜷𝑨 = 𝜷𝑫 × + 𝜷𝑬 ×
𝑽 𝑽
𝐷 𝐸
𝑟 =𝑟 × +𝑟 ×
𝑉 𝑉
𝑟 =𝑟 +𝛽 𝑟 −𝑟 = 2 + 1.18 × 7 = 10.3%
• If the Cost of Debt 𝑟 = 3.4%, the company’s Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) is:
𝑫 𝑬
𝒓𝑨 = 𝒓𝑫 × + 𝒓𝑬 ×
𝑽 𝑽
• Interest is tax-deductible!
• In WACC, we should adjust the cost of debt for the taxes saved on interest payments.
• You could use the After-tax cost of debt.
Investments that are not Average Risk?
• A company’s cost of capital is not necessarily the correct discount rate for a new investment
project that the firm takes up.
• A new investment project can be riskier or safer than the firm’s average risk.
• In principle, the cash flows of each project should be discounted it own opportunity cost of
capital, commensurate with the risk of the project.
• A firm’s value can be stated as the sum of the value of its various assets.
• The value-additivity principle:
• You could value projects A and B, as if they were separate firms, using their different discount
rates.
• Example: Johnson and Johnson invests in a new Biotech Research Project. Does this project’s
cost of capital equal that of producing Baby Oil (an existing product)?
Company vs.
Project
Cost of Capital
If J&J used 7.3% as cost of capital for every project, it would reject some good low-risk projects,
and accept many poor high-risk projects.
7.3% is the correct discount rate only if the project beta is 0.75.
Estimating Beta & the Cost of Capital
• Estimating the company cost of capital requires estimating the expected return
on a portfolio of the company’s debt and equity.
• Yield to Maturity (YTM) of the bonds issued by a company are a good measure of
its cost to debt
• To calculate cost of equity, you use CAPM.
• The Security Market Line (SML) shows the relationship between return and risk.
• CAPM uses beta as a proxy for risk.
Beta of US Steel Company
• The Betas for all three stocks change during the later half of the last decade.
• So, updating Beta with recent returns is prudent.
• However, you can be reasonably sure that Beta of US Steel > ExxonMobil > ConEd.
• measures the goodness of fit.
• In this case, we explain the firm’s returns using market returns.
• In case of ExxonMobil, Half of the risk is explained by market, the other
half is idiosyncratic.
• Standard Errors or SE (reported in brackets next to beta) are the extent of
mismeasurement of beta.
• You can use them to set up confidence intervals. 95% confidence interval is
• Example: For ExxonMobil,
Portfolio Beta
Leverage • Expected Costs and Sales are same for both Technologies
• Technology A: All Costs are Variable
and Risk • Technology B: Costs are fixed at $135 mn
• Higher Operating Leverage Higher Beta
Question
Which of these projects is likely to have the higher asset beta,
other things equal? Why?
Cash Flows
Cash Flow (mn $) Probability Expected Cash Flow
1.2 0.25
$ 1mn
for Bad
1.0 0.50
0.8 0.25
rassets = $4m / ($4m + 6m) × .04 + $6m / ($4m + 6m) × [.04 + 1.5(.06)]
rassets = .094, or 9.40%
C. The cost of capital depends on the risk of the project being evaluated. If the risk of the project is similar
to the risk of the other assets of the company, then the appropriate rate of return is the company cost of
capital. Here, the appropriate discount rate is 9.4 percent.
rassets = $4m / ($4m + 6m) × .04 + $6m / ($4m + 6m) × [.04 + 1.2(.06)]
2) Assume that the CAPM is correct! What is the discount rate that the firm
should set for investments that expand the scale of its operations without
changing its asset beta? . Ignore taxes
Answer
Security Beta Total Market Value ($ million)
Debt 0 100
Preferred Stock 0.20 40
Common Stock 1.20 299
2) Assume that the CAPM is correct! What is the discount rate that the firm should
set for investments that expand the scale of its operations without changing its asset
beta? . Ignore taxes
Answer: r = rf + (rm – rf) = .05 + .836(.06) = .1001, or 10.01%
IIMB PGP/PGPBA 2023-25 – Term 2
Section H
Nitin Vishen
Corporate
Finance
Capital Structure:
Does the Debt Policy Matter?
Factory
Real Assets: Machine
Patent
Assets used to produce goods
Brand
and services
Company Culture
Firm’s
Assets Financial Assets:
Financial claims to the income
Bonds
Loans
generated by the firm’s real Shares
assets
Financial Manager: Investment and Financing Decisions
Proposition 1:
When there are no taxes and capital markets function well, it makes no difference whether
the firm borrows or individual shareholders borrow. Therefore, the market value of a
company does not depend on its capital structure.
Proposition 2:
The expected rate of return on the common stock of a levered firm increases
in proportion to the debt-to-equity ratio (D/E), expressed in market values.
Modigliani-Miller Proposition 1
• What is the optimal capital structure (D/E) that maximizes the value of the firm?
• Modigliani and Miller say that in a perfect market, a firm’s value does not depend
on its choice of capital structure!
Assume 2 firms that generate the same stream of operating profits, and
differ only in their capital structure.
• Firm U is unlevered, i.e., it has no debt. Then, the Value of the Firm
equals the Value of its Equity , or
• Firm L is levered, i.e., it has debt and equity both. Then, the Value of the
Firm equals the Value of its Equity plus the Value of its Debt
, or .
Modigliani-Miller: Proposition 1 (Illustration)
• Total dollar return on both investments (Firm U and Firm L) is 0.01 Firm’s Profits
• So, both investments have the same pay-off
• Therefore,
• Two investments that have the same payoff should also have the same price.
• The value of the unlevered firm must be equal to that of the levered firm.
Modigliani-Miller Proposition 1 (Illustration)
• Total dollar return on both investments (Firm U and Firm L) is 0.01 Profits - Interest
• So, both investments have the same pay-off
• Two investments that have the same payoff should also have the same price.
• Therefore, and
• MM Proposition1: The market value of any firm is independent of its capital structure.
The Law of Conservation of Value
Assets Debt
+
Equity
• PV(A+B) = PV(A)+PV(B)
• The value of an asset is preserved regardless of the nature of the claims against it.
• So, MM Proposition 1: Firm Value is determined on the left-hand side of the balance
sheet by real assets – not by the proportions of debt and equity issued to buy the assets.
• So, it should not matter is the assets were bought using a combination of common and
preferred stocks, or long term versus short term, secured versus unsecured, senior versus
subordinated, and convertible versus non-convertible debt
• Combining assets or splitting them up will not affect values as long as they do not affect
investors choices
Modigliani-Miller Proposition 1 (Example)
• The financial manager of Macbeth Earnings Per Share ($) 0 1.00 2.00 3.00
argues that the investors could borrow Returns of Shares (%) 0 10 20 30
on their own account.
No Debt
• An investor could use $10 of his own Operating Income ($) 500 1,000 1,500 2,000
money, borrows further $10, and then
Earnings Per Share ($) 0.50 1.00 1.50 2.00
invests the total in 2 unlevered (No
Debt) Macbeth shares Returns of Shares (%) 5 10 15 20
• This is exactly the same set of payoffs as Pay offs of Investor who borrows to Invest
the investor would gain by buying one Earnings on 2 shares ($) 1 2 3 4
share in the levered company.
Interest ($) 1 1 1 1
• If Macbeth goes ahead and borrows it Net Earnings ($) 0 1 2 3
will not provide the investors anything
that they could not do by themselves. Returns of $10 investment (%) 0 10 20 30
Modigliani-Miller Proposition 2
• The Expected Rate of Return on the common stock of a levered firm increases in
proportion of the debt-to-equity ratio (D/E), expressed in market values.
MM Proposition 1: In perfect capital markets, a firm’s borrowing decision does not affect either its
operating income or its total market value. So, the borrowing decision does not affect the expected return
on the firm’s assets
Expected return on a portfolio equals a weighted average of the expected returns on its individual holdings.
So, expected return on a portfolio of a firm’s securities (debt and equity):
𝑬 𝑨 𝑨 𝑫
Modigliani-Miller Proposition 2
No Debt:
If Macbeth decides to issue $4,000 of debt at the interest rate of 10% rather than the
$5,000 as originally planned. What would be its cost of equity?
So,
Modigliani-Miller Proposition 2
• Leverage increases Earnings per Share & not Price per Share
• The value of a share depends not only on the payments to shareholders, but also
on the rate at which those cash flows are discounted.
• Change in expected earnings stream is exactly offset by a change in the rate at
which the earnings are discounted.
Modigliani-Miller Proposition 2
𝐷 𝐷 .1 0 8 rA
𝑟 =𝑟 + 𝑟 −𝑟 × = 0.108 + 0.108 − 0.06 ×
𝐸 𝐸
.0 6 0 rD
1 2 3 D e b t / E q u ity
Leverage and the Cost of Equity
If a new project has the same risk as the firm’s existing business, the appropriate discount
rate for the cash flows is 12.75% , firm’s cost of capital.
Leverage and the Cost of Equity
• If the firm borrows more the
required turn on equity will
rise.
• But, the required return on the
combination of debt and equity
(or, the return on assets) will
remain constant at 12.75%
• Because the proportions of
debt and equity also change
• More debt means the cost of
equity increases but at the
same time the proportion of
equity declines
Leverage and the Cost of Equity
• As a firm borrows more the risk
of debt slowly increases.
• Lenders become concerned
that they may not get their
money back and seek higher
compensation in terms of
higher interest rates.
• Proposition 2 continues to
predict that the expected
return on the combination of
debt and equity does not
change.
• Because some of the operating
risk is transferred from
stockholders to bond holders
Leverage and the Cost of Equity – Question!
New Capital Old Capital
Structure Structure
If , then
𝑬 𝑨 𝑨 𝑫
Financial Leverage has No Magic!
Context: Many managers think that increasing debt can decrease the overall cost of capital
of the company, as debt is cheaper.
MM: No there is no such magic in Financial leverage.
It is possible that some shareholders do not want to borrow by themselves (they want
limited liability they do not want to bear the risk of firm default)
Such investors prefer levered firms, and might pay a premium
Question
Let us say Macbeth’s stock had a beta of 0.9
when it was all equity-financed!
Macbeth then issues $5,000 debt which has
zero beta.
What happens to
a) Beta of Macbeth’s assets?
b) Beta of Macbeth’s Equity?
• Interest paid on the firms borrowing can be deducted from taxable income.
• The after-tax cost of debt
• Where is the marginal corporate tax rate
• So, cost of capital becomes the after-tax Weighted Average Cost of Capital
• After-tax WACC is used as a discount rate to get the PV(Free Cash Flows) of a firm.
• After-tax WACC is lower than the opportunity cost of capital because it includes a
downward tax adjustment.
Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC)
Omega Corporation has 10,000,000 shares outstanding at $55 per share. The firm has
estimated the expected rate of return to shareholders at about 12%. It has also issued long
term bonds at an interest rate of 7% and has a debt value of $200 million. It pays tax at a
marginal rate of 21%.
a) What is omegas after tax WACC?
Omega Corporation has 10,000,000 shares outstanding at $55 per share. The firm has
estimated the expected rate of return to shareholders at about 12%. It has also issued long
term bonds at an interest rate of 7% and has a debt value of $200 million. It pays tax at a
marginal rate of 21%.
b) How much higher would WACC be if Omega used no debt at all?
Assume: is unaffected by capital structure or interest-tax shields.
Use CAPM:
• E f E m f
• E
• E
Chapter 16 – Question 17
, , , ,
Find !
Use CAPM:
• D f D m f
• D
• D
Chapter 16 – Question 17
, , , ,
Find and !
• A D E
• A
•
•
Supplementary Question
Two firms, U and L, are identical except for their capital structure. Both will earn $150 in a
boom and $50 in a slump. There is a 50 percent chance of each event. U is entirely equity-
financed, and therefore shareholders receive the entire income. Its shares are valued at
$500. L has issued $400 of risk-free debt at an interest rate of 10%, and therefore $40 of L’s
income is paid out as interest. There are no taxes and other market imperfections. Investors
can borrow and lend at the risk-free rate of interest.
Because the firms are identical except for capital structure, and there are no taxes or other
market imperfections, the total values of these companies must be the same.
• If you own $20 of U’s stock, you own 4% of the outstanding shares and are entitled to
if there is a boom, and if there is a slump
•
Supplementary Question
Two firms, U and L, are identical except for their capital structure. Both will earn $150 in a
boom and $50 in a slump. There is a 50 percent chance of each event. U is entirely equity-
financed, and therefore shareholders receive the entire income. Its shares are valued at
$500. L has issued $400 of risk-free debt at an interest rate of 10%, and therefore $40 of L’s
income is paid out as interest. There are no taxes and other market imperfections. Investors
can borrow and lend at the risk-free rate of interest.
b) Suppose that you invest $20 in U’s stock. Is there an alternative investment in L that would
give identical payoffs in boom and slump? What is the expected payoff from such a strategy?
Supplementary Question
Two firms, U and L, are identical except for their capital structure. Both will earn $150 in a
boom and $50 in a slump. There is a 50 percent chance of each event. U is entirely equity-
financed, and therefore shareholders receive the entire income. Its shares are valued at
$500. L has issued $400 of risk-free debt at an interest rate of 10%, and therefore $40 of L’s
income is paid out as interest. There are no taxes and other market imperfections. Investors
can borrow and lend at the risk-free rate of interest.
b) Suppose that you invest $20 in U’s stock. Is there an alternative investment in L that would
give identical payoffs in boom and slump? What is the expected payoff from such a strategy?
• The equivalent investment is to purchase 4% of L’s outstanding stock, which will cost
(0.04 $100) = $4, and to invest $16 at the risk-free rate. The total amount invested is the
same ($20). In a boom, you are entitled to: [(0.10 $16) + (0.04) ($150 - $40)] = $6, and in
a slump you are entitled to: [(0.10 $16) + (0.04) ($50 - $40)] = $2
•
Supplementary Question
Two firms, U and L, are identical except for their capital structure. Both will earn $150 in a
boom and $50 in a slump. There is a 50 percent chance of each event. U is entirely equity-
financed, and therefore shareholders receive the entire income. Its shares are valued at
$500. L has issued $400 of risk-free debt at an interest rate of 10%, and therefore $40 of L’s
income is paid out as interest. There are no taxes and other market imperfections. Investors
can borrow and lend at the risk-free rate of interest.
c) If you invested only $20 in L’s stock. Design an alternative strategy with identical payoffs
from U.
If you own $20 of L’s common stock, you own 20% of the outstanding shares and, thus, are
entitled to [0.20 ($150 - $40)] = $22 if there is a boom.
Assume you buy outstanding shares in U worth . But you had only $20, so, you
borrowed the remaining .
For identical boom payoff
Supplementary Question
Two firms, U and L, are identical except for their capital structure. Both will earn $150 in a
boom and $50 in a slump. There is a 50 percent chance of each event. U is entirely equity-
financed, and therefore shareholders receive the entire income. Its shares are valued at
$500. L has issued $400 of risk-free debt at an interest rate of 10%, and therefore $40 of L’s
income is paid out as interest. There are no taxes and other market imperfections. Investors
can borrow and lend at the risk-free rate of interest.
c) If you invested only $20 in L’s stock. Design an alternative strategy with identical payoffs
from U.
If you own $20 of L’s common stock, you own 20% of the outstanding shares and, thus, are
entitled to [0.20 ($150 - $40)] = $22 if there is a boom, and [0.20 ($50 - $40) = $2 if there is
a slump.
The equivalent investment is to purchase 20% of U’s outstanding stock, which costs: (0.20
$500) = $100 and to borrow $80 at the risk-free rate. The total invested is the same $20. In a
boom you are entitled to: [(-0.10) ($80) + (0.20 $150)] = $22 and in a slump you are
entitled to: [(-0.10) ($80) + (0.20 $50)] = $2
Supplementary Question
Two firms, U and L, are identical except for their capital structure. Both will earn $150 in a
boom and $50 in a slump. There is a 50 percent chance of each event. U is entirely equity-
financed, and therefore shareholders receive the entire income. Its shares are valued at
$500. L has issued $400 of risk-free debt at an interest rate of 10%, and therefore $40 of L’s
income is paid out as interest. There are no taxes and other market imperfections. Investors
can borrow and lend at the risk-free rate of interest.
d) Now show that MM’s proposition II holds.
. ×$ . ×$ . ×$( ) . ×$( )
For U, . For L,
$ $
Using Proposition II formula:
IIMB PGP/PGPBA 2023-25 – Term 2
Section H
Nitin Vishen
Corporate
Finance
Capital Structure:
Leverage and Firm-Value with Taxes
Industry Book Debt Ratio
Pharmaceuticals
Semiconductors
0.07
0.24 How much should a
Computer software
Food
0.26
0.32 Corporation Borrow?
Oil 0.35
Machinery 0.35
• Do MM Propositions derived for frictionless markets, apply
Construction 0.39 to real world?
Transportation 0.40 • If debt policy did not matter, then financial managers
Paper 0.40 should not worry about it.
Aerospace 0.40 • They could have a routine or erratic debt policy, and it
would not matter.
Chemicals 0.41
Autos 0.46
• However, financial managers do worry about debt policy!
Clothing 0.46
Utilities 0.49 • Growth Companies borrow less compared to matured
Retail 0.53 firms.
Telecoms 0.55
Factors affecting
Capital Structure
• Restriction on this benefit in the US Tax System: Net amount of interest that
companies can deduct is limited to 30% of EBIT (Earnings Before Interest and
Taxes).
• In this course, we will ignore this limit.
• The tax deductibility of interest increases the total income that can be paid out to
bondholders and stockholders.
Tax Deductibility of Interest
Income Statement of Firm U Income Statement of Firm L
Earnings before interest and taxes $1,000 $1,000
Interest paid to bondholders (@8%) 0 80
Pretax income $1,000 $ 920
Tax @ 21% 210 193
Net income to stockholders $ 790 $ 727
Total income to both bondholders $0 + 790 = $790 $80 + 727 = $807
and stockholders
Interest tax shield (0.21 × interest) $0 $17
Total Income (to pay bondholders + equity holders) increases by Tax Shield amount.
In effect the government pays 21% of the interest expense of the levered firm.
Suppose debt of firm L is fixed and permanent Firm refinances its debt continuously
Then Firm L has a $17 cash flow every year.
You can think of tax shields as assets depend on tax rate, and Firm Earning > Interest
Tax Deductibility of Interest
Annual Tax Shield =
In practice, rather than fixed debt value, firms fix their D:E ratio Debt value will
fluctuate, and hence PV(Tax Shield) needs to be discounted at a higher discount rate.
Interest Tax Shield and Equity Value
Normal Balance Sheet (Market Values)
• MM say the value of a pie (Firm’s Assets) does
not depend on how it is sliced (Debt + Equity) Asset value (present value of Debt
after-tax cash flows)
Equity
• There is a 3rd slice: Government
Total assets Total value
• Firm can raise debt to reduce the Expanded Balance Sheet (Market Values)
Government’s slice Increase debt + equity Pre-tax asset value (present Debt
holders’ income value of pre-tax cash flows)
Government’s claim (present
• Extended B/S reports Pre-tax Asset Value value of future taxes)
Equity
Total pre-tax assets Total pre-tax value
Question!
Suppose that the Fleetwood Group borrows $15 million at an
interest rate of 6%. The corporate tax rate is 25%.
1. What is the present value of the tax shield if the debt is fixed
and permanent?
A.
2. How would your answer change if the interest rate on the
debt was 8%?
A. It would not
3. Suppose that instead of the debt being fixed, it was
rebalanced in the future to maintain a constant proportion of
Fleetwood's market value. Would you use a higher or lower
discount rate to value the tax shields? Would this result in a
higher or lower value for these tax shields?
A. Interest Tax shields will vary Higher discount Rate
Johnson & Johnson Balance Sheet Dec 2020 (mn $)
Book Values
Difference between Market and
Net working capital $ 8,744 $ 32,635 Long-term debt
Book Value of Assets = Difference
between Market and Book Value of Long-term assets 123,657 36,488 Other long-term
Equity liabilities
63,278 Equity
Total net assets $132,401 $132,401 Total value
PV(Tax Shield) calculated at 21% tax
rate, assuming fixed and perpetual Market Values
debt Net working capital $ 8,744 $ 32,635 Long-term debt
PV interest tax 6,853 36,488 Other long-term
What happens if J&J borrows shield liabilities
$10,000 mn more debt, and Long-term assets 426,128 408,602 Equity
repurchases the same amount of Total net assets $477,725 $477,725 Total value
shares?
J&J Balance Sheet with $10bn more Debt
Market Values
Firm Value rises by $2,100mn
Net working capital $ 8,744 $ 42,635 Long-term debt
PV interest tax 8,953 36,488 Other long-term
J&J repurchased $10bn shares, but shield liabilities
overall equity value dropped only by Long-term assets 462,128 400,702 Equity
$7.9bn Equity holders gained $2.1 bn
Total net assets $479,825 $479,825 Total value
J&J Balance Sheets with & without additional $10bn Debt
Book Values
Net working 8,744 32,635 Long-term Net working 8,744 42,635 Long-term debt
capital debt capital
Long-term 123,657 36,488 Other long- Long-term 123,657 36,488 Other long-term
assets term liabilities assets liabilities
63,278 Equity 53,278 Equity
Total net 132,401 $132,401 Total value Total net 132,401 132,401 Total value
assets assets
Market Values
Net working $ 8,744 $ 32,635 Long-term debt Net working 8,744 42,635 Long-term debt
capital capital
PV interest 6,853 36,488 Other long- PV interest tax 8,953 36,488 Other long-term
tax shield term liabilities shield liabilities
Assume that MM's theory holds with taxes. There is no growth, and the $40 of debt is expected to be
fixed and permanent. Assume a 40% corporate tax rate.
1. How much of the firm's value in dollar terms is accounted for by the debt-generated tax shield?
2. How much better off will the firm's shareholders be if it borrows $20 more and uses it to
repurchase stock?
Answers:
1) PV tax shield = Tc × D = .40 × $40 = $16
2) Increase in equity = Tc × ΔD = .40 × $20 = $8
Supplementary Question 4
Milton Industries expects free cash flow of $5 million each year. Milton’s corporate tax rate
is 35% and its unlevered cost of capital is 15%. The firm also has outstanding debt of
$19.05 million, and it expects to maintain this level of debt permanently.
a) What is the value of Milton Industries without leverage?
b) What is the value of Milton Industries with leverage?
Answers:
FCF = $5mn. Tc = 35%. . D=$19.05mn
MM and
Corporate Tax The formula implies that firm value and stockholders' wealth
continue to go up as D increases. So, should firms load up on wealth?
• With “corrected” MM theory, $2.1 billion came too easily for J&J
• It violates the law that there is no such thing as a money machine.
• And if Johnson & Johnson's stockholders would be richer with
$42,635 mn of corporate debt, why not $52,635 or $62,635 mn?
Is the optimal debt policy to be 100% debt-financing?
MM were not that fanatical about it. No one would expect
the formula to apply at extreme debt ratios.
.1
India
.09
PAT/Assets
• 30,000 Indian Firms from
.08
CMIE ProwessDx Database
• D/E is calculated using .07
Book values and not
market values
.06
0 .2 .4 .6 .8 1
D/E
Costs of Financial Distress
• When next year's asset value turns out to be less than $1,000.
• In this case, Ace Limited defaults.
• Its stockholders walk away; their payoff is zero.
• Bondholders get the assets worth $500.
• But Ace Unlimited's stockholders can't walk away.
• They have to pay up $500 from their own pocket, the difference between asset value and the
bondholders' claim.
When Ace Limited goes bankrupt, it is an operating problem having nothing to do with financing. Given
poor operating performance, the right to go bankrupt–the right to default- is a valuable privilege.
Bankruptcy Costs
• The failed energy giant Enron paid $757 million in legal, accounting, and other professional fees
during the time that it spent in bankruptcy.
• The estimated direct costs of sorting out the 65,000 claims on the assets of Lehman Brothers was
$5.9 billion.
• These are a small fraction of the companies' asset values.
• Lawrence Weiss, who studied 31 firms that went bankrupt between 1980 and 1986, found average
costs of about 3% of total book assets and 20% of the market value of equity in the year prior to
bankruptcy.
Evidence on
Bankruptcy Costs
• Bankruptcy eats up a larger fraction of asset
value for small companies than for large ones.
There are significant economies of scale in
going bankrupt.
• Consent of the bankruptcy court is required for routine business decisions, e.g.
sale/purchase of assets
• Proposals to reform and revive the firm are thwarted by impatient creditors, who
stand first in line for cash from asset sales or liquidation of the entire firm.
• Sometimes the bankruptcy court is so eager to maintain the firm as a going concern
that it allows the firm to engage in negative-NPV activities.
Indirect Costs of Bankruptcy
Example: Eastern Airlines entered the "protection" of the bankruptcy court in 1989.
• At the time, it had profit-making routes and salable assets such as planes and
terminal facilities.
• A prompt liquidation would have generated enough cash to pay off all debt and
preferred stockholders.
• However, Bankruptcy judge was keen to keep Eastern's planes flying at all costs, so
he allowed the company to sell many of its assets to fund hefty operating losses.
• When Eastern finally closed down after two years, there was almost nothing for
creditors, and the company ran out of cash to pay legal expenses.
• Indirect costs of bankruptcy are tough to estimate.
• Bankruptcy proceedings are often lengthy and complex.
Direct
• That is why creditors are reluctant to force bankruptcy.
• In principle, creditors would be better off to seize the
versus
assets as soon as possible. But to avoid bankruptcy costs,
creditors often overlook defaults in the hope of nursing the
firm over a difficult period.
Indirect • There is an old financial saying, “Borrow $1,000 and you've
got a banker. Borrow $10,000,000 and you've got a
Costs of partner.”
• Creditors may also shy away from bankruptcy because they
Bankruptcy worry that they might not get a full-priority over the
stockholders.
• Example: If the government is also one of the shareholders,
its interests would be to save jobs of the firm’s employees,
rather than interests of bondholders. Bankruptcy courts
may favor the government here.
• Firm only needs to pay interest to postpone
The firm is financially distressed: Face Value of Debt > Market Value of Firm
© McGraw Hill
• Suppose that Circular has $10 cash.
Game 1: Risk Shifting • CEO controls investment and operating decisions
• The following investment opportunity comes up:
• Let us say, the CEO computes the NPV of the project as -$2.
• Will he go ahead with the project?
• Cash decreases by $10, Fixed Assets Increase by $10-$2 = $8
• Bond Value drops as it is backed by risky asset!
• If the project fails, the shareholder loses nothing.
• If the project succeeds, the shareholder gains substantially even after paying bondholders
Risk Shifting
Supplementary Question 3
Food 50
Electronics 30
Chemicals 20
Amalgamated Products has three operating divisions: Food, Chemicals and Electronics.
To estimate the cost of capital for each division, Amalgamated has identified the following three
principal competitors: Estimated Equity Beta Debt/(Debt+Equity)
United Foods 0.8 0.3
General Electronics 1.6 0.2
Associated Chemicals 1.2 0.4
Assume these betas are accurate estimates and that the CAPM is correct. Assume further that
Amalgamated is exempt from corporate income tax.
a) Assuming that the debt of these firms is risk-free, estimate the asset beta for each of
Amalgamated’s divisions.
b) Amalgamated’s ratio of debt to debt plus equity is 0.4. If your estimates of divisional betas are
right, what is Amalgamated’s equity beta?
c) Assume that the risk-free interest rate is 7 percent and that the expected return on the market
index is 15 percent. Estimate the cost of capital for each of the Amalgamated’s divisions.
d) How much would your estimates of each division’s cost of capital change if you assumed that
debt has a beta of 0.2?
Supplementary Question 3
Division % of Firm Value Estimated Equity Beta Debt/(Debt+Equity)
Food 50 United Foods 0.8 0.3
Electronics 30 General Electronics 1.6 0.2
Chemicals 20 Associated Chemicals 1.2 0.4
a) Assuming that the debt of these firms is risk-free, estimate the asset beta for each of
Amalgamated’s divisions.
• Asset Betas: 𝛽 = 𝛽 × +𝛽 × and 𝛽 = 0
• Food = 0.8×0.7 = 0.56, Electronics = 1.6×0.8 = 1.28, Chemicals = 1.2×0.6 = 0.72
b) Amalgamated’s ratio of debt to debt plus equity is 0.4. If your estimates of divisional betas are
right, what is Amalgamated’s equity beta?
• D/V = 0.4, 𝛽 = 0.5 × 0.56 + 0.3 × 1.28 + 0.2 × 0.72 = 0.808
.
• 𝛽 =β + β −β × = 0.808 + 0.808 × = 0.808 × 1.67 = 1.35
.
Supplementary Question 3
Division % of Firm Value Estimated Equity Beta Debt/(Debt+Equity)
Food 50 United Foods 0.8 0.3
Electronics 30 General Electronics 1.6 0.2
Chemicals 20 Associated Chemicals 1.2 0.4
c) Assume that the risk-free interest rate is 7 percent and that the expected return on the market
index is 15 percent. Estimate the cost of capital for each of the Amalgamated’s divisions.
• CAPM: 𝑟 = 𝑟 + 𝛽 𝑟 − 𝑟 = 7% + 𝛽 15% − 7% = 7% + 𝛽 × 8%
d) How much would your estimates of each division’s cost of capital change if you assumed that
debt has a beta of 0.2?
• CAPM: 𝑟 = 𝑟 + 𝛽 𝑟 − 𝑟 = 7% + 𝛽 15% − 7% = 7% + 𝛽 × 8%
• 𝛽 =𝛽 × +𝛽 ×