M.M.: 720 TIME: 3 : 20 Hrs.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. Duration of test is 3 hours 20 minutes and questions paper contains 200 questions (Phy. 50,
Chem. 50 and Bot. 50 and Zoo. 50). The max. marks are 720. So the total number of question
and utilization of time will remain the same.
2. Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 questions and section B
will have 15 questions, out of these 15 question, candidates can choose to attempt any 10
questions. So the total number of question and utilization of time will remain the same.
3. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or
the centre in charge.
5. Before attempting the question paper ensures that it contains all the pages and that no
question is missing.
6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
Guessing of answer is harmful.
7. Use blue or black ball point pen only to completely darken the appropriate circle.
8. If you want to attempt any question then circle should be properly darkened.
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PHYSICS SECTION - A

1. The ratio of the dimensions of Planck’s

constant and that of the moment of inertia
is the dimensions of
(a) time (b) frequency
(c) angular momentum (d) velocity
2. A particle is moving eastwards with a
velocity of 5 ms-1. In 10 seconds the
velocity changes to 5 ms-1 northwards. The
average acceleration in this time is
4. The equation of a projectile is
1
(a) ms 2 towards north gx 2
2 y  3x  The angle of projection is given
1 2
(b) ms 2 towards north – east by
2
1
1 (a) tan   (b) tan   3
(c) ms 2 towards north – west 3
2

(d) zero (c) (d) zero
2
3. The equation represented by the graph
below is: 5. The moment of the force, F  4iˆ  5 ˆj  6kˆ
at (2, 0, -3), about the point (2, - 2, -2), is given
by

6. A mas m1 is placed on a rough horizontal

plane, coefficient of friction between then
is M. Another mass m2 hung from the
string connected by frictionless pulley as
shown in the figure. Then

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9. A mass of m kg moving with a speed of 1.5
m/s on a horizontal smooth surface,
collides with a nearly weightless spring of
force constant k = 50 N/m. If the maximum
compression of the spring is 0.15 m, the
value of mass m is

(a) 0.5 kg (b) 0.15 kg

(c) 0.12 kg (d) 1.5 kg
7. Which of the following is true about
a
acceleration, a for the system? 10. A circular hole of radius   is cut out of a
2
circular disc of radius ‘a’ as shown in
figure. The Centre of mass of the remaining
circular portion with respect to point ‘O’
will be:
(a) Acceleration is more in A, when force is
applied on A.
(b) Acceleration is more in B, when force is
applied on B.
(c) Acceleration is same and does not
depend on whether the force is applied on
m1 or m2
(d) Acceleration depends on the tension in 1 10
(a) a (b) a
the string. 6 11
8. For a conservative force in one dimension, 5 2
(c) a (d) a
potential energy function V(x) is related to 6 3
the force F(x) as 11. Two objects P and Q initially at rest move
towards each other under mutual force of
attraction. At the instant when the velocity
of P is v and that of Q is 2v, the velocity of
centre of mass of the system is
(a) v (b) 3v

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(c) 2v (d) zero 14. In planetary motion the areal velocity of
12. A toy car rolls down the inclined plane as position vector of a planet depends on
shown in the fig. It loops at the bottom. angular velocity ( ) and the distance of the
What is the relation between H and h? planet from sun (r). If so, the correct relation
for areal velocity is

15. If ‘g’ is the acceleration due to gravity on

the earth’s surface, the gain in the potential
energy of an object of mass ‘m’ raised from
the surface of the earth to a height equal to
the radius ‘R’ of the earth is
1 1
(a) mgR 2 (b) mgR
4 2
13. Three identical spherical shells, each of (c) 2 mgR (d) mgR
mass m and radius r are placed as shown in 16. The adjacent graph shows the extension
figure. Consider an axis XX’ which is ( l ) of a wire of length 1m suspended from
touching to two shells and passing through the top of a roof at one end with a load W
diameter of third shell. Moment of inertia connected to the other ed. If the corss-
of the system consisting of these three sectional area of the wire is 10-6m2, calculate
spherical shells about XX’ axis is the Young’s modulus of the r material of the
wire

16 2
(a) 3mr2 (b) mr
5
(a) 2  1011 N/m2 (b) 2  10-11 B/m2
11 2 (c) 2  10-12 B/m2 (d) 2  10-13 N/m2
(c) 4mr2 (d) mr
5

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17. Surface tension may be defined as (a) (T-4) K (b) (T + 2.4)K
(a) the work done per unit area in (c) (T-2.4) K (d) (T + 4) K
increasing the surface area of a liquid under 21. Pressure exerted by a gas is
isothermal conditions (a) independent of density of the gas
(b) the work done per unit area in (b) inversely proportional to the density of
increasing the surface area of a liquid under the gas
adiabatic conditions (c) directly proportional to the square of the
(c) the work done per unit area in density of the gas
increasing the surface area of a liquid under (d) directly proportional to the density of
adiabatic conditions the gas
(d) free surface energy per unit volume 22. A particle is executing SHM along a
18. The rectangular surface of area 8 cm  4 cm straight line. Its velocities at distances x1
of a black body at temperature 127oC emits and x2 from the mean position are V1 and
energy E per second. If the length and V2, respectively. Its time period is
breadth are reduced to half of the initial
value and the temperature is raised to
327oC, the rate of emission of energy
becomes
3 81
(a) E (b) E
8 16
9 81 23. Frequency of oscillation is proportional to
(c) E (d) E
16 64
19. Choose the incorrect statement related to an
isobaric process.
V
(a)  constant
T
(b) W  PV 24. A travelling harmonic wave is represented
(c) Heat given to a system is used up in raising
by the equation y(x, t) = 10-3 sin (50t + 2x),
the temperature only.
where x and y are in meter and t is in
(d) Q  W
seconds. Which of the following is a
20. One mole of an ideal gas at an initial correct statement about the wave?
temperature of T K does 6R joules of work (a) The wave is propagating along the
adiabatically. If the ratio of specific heats negative x-axis with speed 25 ms-1.
of this gas at constant pressure and at (b) The wave is propagating along the
constant volume is 5/3, the final positive x-axis with speed 100 ms-1.
temperature of gas will be

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2 2
(c) The wave is propagating along the (c) 0.005 Nm /C (d) 3.14 Nm /C
positive x-axis with speed 25 ms-1. 29. Charges are placed on the vertices of a
(d) The wave is propagating along the square as shown. Let E be the electric field
negative x-axis with speed 100 ms-1. and V the potential at the centre. If the
25. A progressive wave y  A sin(kx  t ) is charges on A and B are interchanged with
reflected by a rigid wall at x = 0. Then the those on D and C respectively, then
reflected wave can be represented by

26. Two tones of frequencies n1 and n2 are

(a) E changes, V remains unchanged
sounded together. The beats can be heard
distinctly when (b) E remains unchanged, V changes
(a) 10 < (n1 – n2) < 20 (c) both E and V change
(b) 5 < (n1 – n2) > 20 (d) E and V remain unchanged
(c) 5 < (n1 – n2) < 20 30. An electric dipole of moment p is placed
(d) 0 < (n1 – n2) < 10 normal to the lines of force of electric
27. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge
intensity E , then the work done in
q, are separated by a distance d. If F is the
deflecting it through an angle of 180o is
force of repulsion between the ions, the
(a) pE (b) +2pE
number of electrons missing from each ion
(c) -2pE (d) zero
will be (e being the charge of an electron)
31. Figure shows some equipotential lines
distributed in space. A charged object is
moved from point A to point B.

28. The electric field in a region of space is

given by E  E0iˆ  2E0 ˆj where Eo = 100
N/C. The flux of the field through a circular
(a) The work done in Fig. (i) is the greatest
surface of radius 0.02 m parallel to the Y-Z
(b) The work done in Fig. (ii) is least
plane is nearly:
(a) 0.125 Nm2/C (b) 0.02 Nm2/C

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(c) The work done is the same in Fig. (i),
Fig. (ii) and Fig. (iii)
(d) The work done in Fig. (iii) is greater (c)
than Fig. (ii) but equal to that in
32. Which of the following is the correct
equation when kirchhoff’s loop rule is
applied to the loop BCDEB in clockwise (d)
direction?

34. Biot-Savart law indicates that the moving

electrons (velocity v) produce a magnetic
field B such that
(a) B is perpendicular to v
(b) B is parallel to v
(c) it obeys inverse cube law
(d) it is along the line joining the electron
and point of observation.
35. A rigid square of loop of side ‘a’ and
carrying current I2 is lying on a horizontal
surface near a long current I1 carrying wire
33. A cell having an emf E and internal in the same plane as shown in figure. The
resistance r is connected across a variable net force on the loop due to the wire will
external resistance R. As the resistance R is be:
increased, the plot of potential difference V
across R is given by

(a)

(b)

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PHYSICS SECTION - B 38. In the case of an inductor
36. Consider the two idealised systems (i) a 
(a) voltage lags the current by
parallel plate capacitor with large plates 2
and small separation and (ii) a long 
(b) voltage leads the current by
solenoid of length L >> R. radius of cross- 2
section. In (i) E is ideally treated as a 
(c) voltage leads the current by
constant between plates and zero outside. 3
In (ii) magnetic field is constant inside the 
solenoid and zero outside. These idealised (d) voltage leads the current by
4
assumptions, however, contradict 39. An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of
fundamental laws as below capacitance C and a resistor of resistance
(a) case (i) contradicts Gauss’law for ‘R’ are connected in series to an ac source
electrostatic fields of potential difference ‘V’ volts as shown
(b) case (ii) contradicts Gauss’law for in figure.
magnetic fields Potential difference across L, C and R is 40
V, 10 V and 40 V, respectively. The
amplitude of current flowing through LCR
series circuit is 10 2 A. The impedance of
37. An electron moves on a straight line path
the circuit is
XY as shown. The abcd is a coil adjacent to
the path of electron.
What will be the direction of current if any,
induced in the coil?

(a) 5  (b) 4 2
(c) 5 2 (d) 4 
40. For a plane electromagnetic wave
propagating in x-direction, which one of
the following combination given the correct
(a) adcb possible directions for electric field (E) and
(b) The current will reverse its direction as magnetic field (B) respectively?
the electron goes past the coil
(c) No current induced
(d) abcd

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41. An electromagnetic radiation of frequency 44. When an unpolarized light of intensity I0 is
n, wavelength  , travelling with velocity v incident on a polarizing sheet, the intensity
in air, enters a glass slab of refractive of the light which does not get transmitted
index  . The frequency, wavelength and is
velocity of light in the glass slab will be 1 1
(a) I 0 (b) I 0
respectively 4 2
(c) I0 (d) zero
45. In photoelectric effect, stopping potential
for a light of frequency n1 is V1. If light is
replaced by another having a frequency n2
then its stopping potential will be
42. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm
from a concave mirror of focal length 15
cm. If the object is displaced through a
distance of 20 cm towards the mirror, the 46. A steel ball of mass m is moving with a
displacement of the image will be kinetic energy K. The de-Broglie
(a) 30 cm away from the mirror wavelength associated with the ball is
(b) 36 cm away from the mirror
h h
(c) 36 cm towards the mirror (a) (b)
2mK 2mK
(d) 30 cm towards the mirror
43. Assertion: If the rays are diverging after h
(c) (d) None of these
emerging from a lens; the lens must be 2mK
concave. 47. The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen
Reason: The convex lens can give atom in its first to second excited states is
diverging rays. (a) 1/4 (b) 4/9
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct (c) 9/4 (d) 4
and the Reason is a correct explanation of 48. The curve of binding energy per nucleon as
the Assertion. a function of atomic mass number has a
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct sharp peak for helium nucleus. This implies
but Reason is not a correct explanation of that helium
the Assertion. (a) can easily be broken up
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is (b) is very stable
incorrect. (c) can be used as fissionable material
(d) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason (d) is radioactive
is correct.

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49. Consider the junction diode as ideal. The (b) Non-metallic elements are less in
value of current flowing through AB is number than metallic elements.
(c) For transition elements, the 3d-orbitals
are filled with electrons after 3p-orbitals
(a) 0 A (b) 10-2 A and before 4s-orbitals.
(c) 10-1 A (d) 10-3 A (d) The first ionisation enthalpies of
50. Assertion: Electron has higher mobility elements generally increase with increase
than hole in a semiconductor. in atomic number as we go along a period.
Reason: The effective mass of electron is 53. Isostructural species are those which have
more than the effective mass of the hole. the same shape and hybridisation. Among
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct the given species identify the isostructural
and the Reason is a correct explanation of pairs.
the Assertion. (a) [NF3 and BF3]
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct (b) [ BF4 and NH 4 ]
but Reason is not a correct explanation of (c) [BCl3 and BrCl3]
the Assertion. 
(d) [ NH 3 and NO3 ]
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is 54. Assertion (A): Among the two O-H bonds
incorrect. in H2O molecule, the energy required to
(d) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason break the first O-H bond and the other O-H
is correct. bond is the same.
CHEMISTRY SECTION - A Reason (R): This is because the electronic
environment around oxygen is the same
51. Which one of the following options does even after breakage of one O-H bond.
not represent ground state electronic (a) A and R both are correct, and R is
configuration of an atom? correct explanation of A.
(b) A and R both are correct, but R is not
the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A and R both are false.
55. The entropy change can be calculated by
q
using the expression S  rev . When water
T
52. The statement that is not correct for freezes in a glass beaker, choose the correct
periodic classification of elements is: statement amongst the following:
(a) The properties of elements are periodic
function of their atomic numbers.

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56. We know that the relationship between Kc (a) II > I > III (b) II > III > I
and Kp is (c) III > I > II (d) I > II > III
60. Assertion (A): Simple distillation can help
What would be the value of n for the in separating a mixture of propan-1-ol
reaction? (boiling point 97oC) and propanone
(boiling point 56oC).
Reason (R) : Liquids with a difference of
(a) 1 (b) 0.5
more than 20oC in their boiling points can
(c) 1.5 (d) 2
be separated by simple distillation.
57. The oxidation number of an element in a
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the
compound is evaluated on the basis of
correct explanation of A.
certain rules. Which of the following rules
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not
is not correct in this respect?
the correct explanation of A.
(a) The oxidation number of hydrogen is
(c) Both A and R are not correct.
always + 1.
(d) A is correct but R is not correct.
(b) The algebraic sum of all the oxidation
61. Arrange the halogens F2, Cl2, Br2, I2, in
numbers in a compound is zero.
order of their increasing reactivity with
(c) An element in the free or the
alkanes.
uncombined state bears oxidation number
(a) I2 < Br2 < Cl2 < F2
zero.
(b) Br2 < Cl2 < F2 < I2
(d) In all its compounds, the oxidation
(c) F2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2
number of fluorine is -1.
(d) Br2 < I2 < Cl2 < F2
58. The element which exists in liquid state for
62. The values of Van’t Hoff factors for KCl,
a wide range of temperature and can be
NaCl and K2SO4, respectively, are…….. .
used for measuring high temperature is:
(a) 2, 2 and 2 (b) 2, 2 and 3
(a) B (b) Al
(c) 1, 1 and 2 (d) 1, 1 and 1
(c) Ga (d) In
63. Assertion: When methyl alcohol is added to
59. What is the correct order of decreasing
water, boiling point of water increases
stability of the following cations?

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Reason: When a volatile solute is added to Identify the configuration of transition
a volatile solvent elevation in boiling point element, which shows highest magnetic
is observed. moment.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct (a) 3d7 (b) 3d5
statements and reason is correct (c) 3d8 (d) 3d2
explanation of assertion. 67. The colour of the coordination compounds
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct depends on the crystal field splitting. What
statements but reason is not correct will be the correct order of absorption of
explanation for assertion. wavelength of light in the visible region for
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason the complexes,
is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion and reason both are incorrect
statements.
64. Using the data given below find out the
strongest reducing agent.

(a) Cl- (b) Cr

3+ 68. Assertion: Nitration of chlorobenzene leads
(c) Cr (d) Mn2+
to the formation of m-nitrochlorobenzene.
65. Assertion: Order of the reaction can be zero
Reason: -NO2 group is a m-directing group.
or fractional.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct
Reason: We cannot determine order from
and the reason is the correct explanation of
balanced chemical equation.
assertion.
(a) Both assertion and reason are correct
(b) Assertion and reason both are wrong
and the reason is the correct explanation of
statements.
assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct but the reason is
(b) Both assertion and reason are correct a
wrong statements.
but reason does not explain assertion.
(d) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct
(c) Assertion is correct but the reason is
statement.
incorrect.
69. Assertion: Compounds containing –CHO
(d) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.
group are easily oxidised to corresponding
66. The magnetic nature of elements depends
carboxylic acids.
on the presence of unpaired electrons.

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Reason : Carboxylic acids can be reduced 73. Among LiCl, BeCl2, BCl3 and CCl4, the
to alcohols by treatment with LiAlH4. covalent bond character follows the order
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct
and reason is correct explanation of
assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are wrong
statements.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason 74. Which one of the following statements is
is wrong statement. not correct for sigma- and pi- bonds formed
(d) Assertion and reason both are correct between two carbon atoms?
statements but reason is not correct (a) Sigma-bond is stronger than a pi-bond.
explanation of assertion. (b) Bond energies of sigma- and pi-bonds
70. Which one of the followings has maximum are of the order of 264 kJ/mol and 347
number of atoms? kJ/mol, respectively.
(a) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108] (c) Free rotation of atoms about a sigma-
(b) 1 g of mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24] bond is allowed but not in case of a pi-
(c) 1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16] bond.
(d) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7] (d) Sigma-bond determines the direction
71. The total number of valence electrons in between carbon atoms but a pi-bond has no
4.2 g of N 3 ion is (NA is the Avogadro’s primary effect in this regard.
75. For the reaction,
number)
(a) 2.1 NA (b) 4.2 NA
(c) 1.6 NA (d) 3.2 NA At constant temperature,  H-  E us
72. Which of the following statements do not (a) + RT (b) -3RT
form a part of Bohr’s model of hydrogen (c) +3RT (d) -RT
atom? 76. Three thermochemical equations are given
(a) Energy of the electrons in the orbits are below:
quantized.
(b) The electron in the orbit nearest the
nucleus has the lowest energy.
(c) Electrons revolve in different orbits
around the nucleus.
(d) The position and velocity of the Based on the above equations, find out
electrons in the orbit cannot be determined which of the relationship given below is
simultaneously. correct.
(a) z = x + y (b) x = y + z

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(c) y = 2z – x (d) x = y – z (c) 35.33 (d) 43.33
77. The value of equilibrium constant of the 82. With respect to the conformers of ethane,
reaction, which of the following statements is true?
(a) Bond angle changes but bond length
remains same.
Is 8.0. The equilibrium constant of the (b) Both bond angle and bond length
reaction change.
(c) Both bond angle and bond length
remain same.
(a) 16 (b) 1/8 (d) Bond angle remains same but bond
(c) 1/16 (d) 1/64 length changes.
78. For any reversible reaction, if we increase 83. In the following the most stable
concentration of the reactants, then effect conformation of n-butane is
on equilibrium constant
(a) depends on amount of concentration
(b) unchange
(c) decrease
(d) increase.
79. Which one of the following compounds is
not a protonic acid?
(a) B(OH)3 (b) PO(OH)3
(c) SO(OH)2 (d) SO2(OH)2
80. An organic compound X(molecular
84. For an ideal solution, the correct option is
formula C6H7O2N) has six carbon atoms in
a ring system, two double bonds and a nitro
group as substituent, X is
(a) homocyclic but not aromatic
(b) aromatic but not homocyclic
(c) homocyclic and aromatic 85. Standard reduction potentials of the half
(d) heterocyclic and aromatic. reactions are given below:
81. In the Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of
nitrogen present in a soil sample, ammonia
evolved from 0.75 g of sample neutralized
10 mL of 1 M H2SO4. The percentage of
nitrogen in the soil is
(a) 37.33 (b) 45.33

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The strongest oxidising and reducing (c) Order of a reaction is sum of power to
agents respectively are the concentration terms of reactants to
(a) F2 and I- (b) Br2 and Cl- express the rate of reaction.
-
(c) Cl2 and Br (d) Cl2 and I2 (d) Order of reaction is always whole
number.
89. Nitrogen forms N2, but phosphorus does
CHEMISTRY SECTION - B not form P2, however, it converts P4, reason
is
86. Standard electrode potential for Sn4+/Sn2+
(a) triple bond present between phosphorus
couple is +0.15 V and that for the Cr3+/Cr
atom
couple is -0.74 V. These two couples in
(b) p  p bonding is weak
their standard state are connected to make a
(c) p  p bonding is strong
cell. The cell potential will be
(a) + 1.19 V (b) + 0.89 V (d) multiple bonds form easily.
(c) + 0.18 V (d) + 1.83 V 90. Sc (Z = 21) is a transition element but Zn
87. Consider the reaction: (Z = 30) is not because
(a) both Sc3+ and Zn2+ ions are colourless
and form white compounds
The equality relationship between (b) in case of Sc, 3d orbitals are partially
filled but in Zn these are filled
(c) last electron is assumed to be added to
4s level in case of Zn
(d) both Sc and Zn do not exhibit variable
oxidation states
91. Among the following series of transition
metal ions, the one where all metal ions
have 3d2 electronic configuration is

88. Which one of the following statements for

the order of a reaction is incorrect?
(a) Order can be determined only 92. The correct order of the stoichiometries of
experimentally. AgCl formed when AgNO3 in excess is
(b) Order is not influenced by treated with the complexes: CoCl3.6NH3,
stoichiometric coefficient of the reactants. CoCl3.5NH3, CoCl3.4NH3 respectively is

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(a) 3AgCl, lAgCl, 2AgCl (b) Cannizzaro’s reaction
(b) 3AgCl, 2AgCl, lAgCl (c) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction
(c) 2AgCl, 3AgCl, 2AgCl (d) Cross Aldol condensation.
(d) lAgCl, 3AgCl, 2AgCl 97. Propionic acid with Br2/P yields a dibromo
93. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of product. Its structure would be
the complex [Ni(CO)4] are
(a) square planar geometry and diamagnetic
(b) tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
(c) square planar geometry and
paramagnetic
(d) tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic.
94. Replacement of Cl of chlorobenzene to
give phenol requires drastic conditions. But
chlorine of 2,4-dinitrochlorobenzene is
readily replaced because 98. Which of the following amines will give
(a) NO2 donates e- at meta position the carbylamines test?
(b) NO2 withdraws e- from ortho/para
positions
(c) NO2 makes ring electron rich at ortho
and para
(d) NO2 withdraws e- from meta position.
95. In the reaction,

the electrophile involved is 99. Which of the following statements about


primary amines is false?
(a) dichloromethyl cation (C HCl2 )
(a) Alkyl amines are stronger bases than

(b) formyl cation (C HO) aryl amines.
(b) Alkyl amines react with nitrous acid to
(c) dichloromethyl anion (CHCl2 )
produce alcohols.
(d) dichlorocarbene (:CCl2)
(c) Aryl amines react with nitrous acid to
96. Reaction between benzaldehyde and
produce phenols.
acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH
(d) Alkyl amines are stronger bases than
is known as
ammonia.
(a) Aldol condensation

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100. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives (a) If both Assertion and Reason are
true and the Reason is a correct
explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are
true but the Reason is not a
correct explanation of the
BIOLOGY SECTION - A Assertion.
101. Organisms that can respond to stimuli (c) If assertion is true but the Reason
are is false.
(a) Eukaryotes only (d) If both Assertion and Reason are
false.
(b) Prokaryotes only
105. Photosynthetic protists are
(c) Both Prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(a) Euglenoids, Diatoms and
(d) Those with a well developed
Dinoflagellates
nervous system
(b) Euglenoids and slime moulds
102. Taxonomy based on determination of
genetic relationships is (c) Diatoms and Zooflagellates
(a) Cytotaxonomy (d) Desmide + Ciliates.
(b) Numerical taxonomy 106. Basidiomycetes include
(c) Biochemical taxonomy (a) Mushroom, Toadstool, Puffball
and bracket fungi.
(d) Experimental taxonomy
(b) Smut fungi and rust fungi
103. Study the four statements (A-D) given
below and select the two correct ones (c) Both a and b
out of them: (d) Bread mould, sac fungi and algal
(A) Definition of biological species fungi.
was given by Ernst mayr. 107. The scientist who first crystallized
(B) Photoperiod does not affect TMV was
reproduction in plants. (a) Ivanowsky (b) Pasteur
(C) Binomial nomenclature system (c) Robertson (d) Stanley
was given by R.H. Whittaker 108. Given below is he diagram of a
(D) In unicellular organisms, bacteriophage. In which one of the
reproduction is synonymous with options all the four parts A, B, C and D
growth. are correct?
The two correct statements are
(a) A and D (b) A and B
(c) B and C (d) C and D
104. Assertion: All living objects exhibit
metabolism.
Reason: All living phenomenon are due
to underlying interactions.

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(b) If both Assertion and Reason are
true but the Reason is not a
correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but the Reason
is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are
false.
111. The major pigments in green algae are
_______ and ______; and stored food
(a) A-Tail fibres, B – Head, C – Sheath, is________
D – Collar (a) Chal a, Chl d, Starch
(b) A – Sheath, B-Collar, C – Head, (b) Chl a, Chl c, Floridean starch
D – Tail fibres (c) Chl a, Chl b, Starch
(c) A – Head, B – Sheath, C – Collar (d) Shl a, Chl c, mannitol.
D – Tail fibres 112. Chlamydomonas, Volvox, Ulothrix,
(d) A-Collar, B – Tail fibres, C – head Spirogyra and Chara belong to
D – Sheath. (a) Phaeophyceae
109. Read the statements I and II and (b) Rhoxophycease
choose the correct option (c) Chlorophyceae
Statement I: Viruses and viroids as well (d) Cyanophyceae
as the lichens are included in the five 113. The heterosporous pteridophytes are
kingdom system of classification. (a) Lycopodium and Pteris
Statement II: Viruses are intracellular (b) Selaginella and Psilotum
obligate parasite. (c) Selaginella and Salvinia
(a) If both statements are correct (d) Dryopteris and Adiantum
(b) If both statements are incorrect 114. Read the statements I and II and
(c) If only Statement I is correct choose the correct option
(d) If only statement II is correct. Statement I: In plants, both haploid and
110. Assertion: Heterocysts are specialized diploid cells can be divided by
cells of blue green algae for Nitrogen moitosis.
fixation. Statement II: In angiosperms, each of
Reason: In Heterocyst cells oxygen the cells of an embryo sac (highly
depleted conditions can be created, recued female gametophyte) is diploid.
which is essential for Nitrogenase (a) If both statements are correct
functioning. (b) If both statements are incorrect
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are (c) If only Statement I is correct
true and the Reason is a correct
(d) If only statement II is correct.
explanation of the Assertion.

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115. Examine the figures A, B, C and D. In (c) Ecinodermata
which one of the four options all the (d) Annelida.
times, A, B, C and D are correct? 117. Match the columns
Column I Column II
A. Testudo I. Tortoise
B. Calotes II. Garden
Lizard
C. Alligator III. Wall
Lazard
D. Hemidactylus IV. Alligator
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(c) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

118.
(a) A-Locust, B-Scorpion, C-Prawn,
D-Pila
(b) A-Locust, B-Prawn, C-Scorpion,
D-Pila
(c) A-Locust, B-Scorpion, C-Prawn, The above diagram shows the germ
D-Snail layers. The animals having structures
(d) A-Butterfly, B-Scorpion, C-Prawn shown in the figure are respectively
D-Pila. called
116. I. Excretory system absent. (a) Diploblastic, Triploblastic
II. Dioecious, external fertilization, (b) Triploblastic, Diploblastic
indirect development with free (c) Diploblastic, Diploblastic
swimming larva (d) Triploblastic, Triploblastic.
III. Water vascular system is present 119. Assertion: Polyps produce medusa
IV. Unsegmented body sexually and medusa form the polyps
V. Complete digestive system with asexually.
ventral mouth and anus and Reason: Polyps and medusa are the
dorsal or upper side. common feature of different group of
The above characters are associated cnidarians.
with animals of (a) If both Assertion and Reason are
(a) Mollusca true and the Reason is a correct
(b) Hemichordata explanation of the Assertion.

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(b) If both Assertion and Reason are (b) If both Assertion and Reason are
true but the Reason is not a true but the Reason is not a
correct explanation of the correct explanation of the
Assertion. Assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but the Reason (c) If assertion is true but the Reason
is false. is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are (d) If both Assertion and Reason are
false. false.
120. Which of the following perianths are 123. Permanent tissues consist of cells
found? having no power of cells division. Such
(a) Lily (b) China rose tissues are formed by
(c) Rose (d) Pea (a) Primary meristem
121. Match the Column I with Column II (b) Cork cambium
Column I Column II (c) Fascicular and interfascicular
(Aestivation in (Examples) cambium
Corolla) (d) All
A. Valvate I. China rose, 124. At places, the cork contains aerating
Lady’s finger, pores called
Cotton (a) Stomata
B. Twisted II. Calotropis (b) Lenticels
C. Imbricate III. Cassia, (c) Hydathode
(d) Pneumatophores.
Glumohur
125. Axillary bud develop by activity of
D. Vexillary IV. Pea, Beans.
(a) Lateral meristem
(papillionaceo
us) (b) Shoot Apical meristem
(c) Root Apical meristem
(d) Intercalary meristem.
(a) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
126. Match the list I with List II
(b) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(c) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV List I List II
(d) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III A. Cells with 1. Vascular
122. Assertion: In monocots leaf base may active cell tissues
provides extra mechanical support to division
the stem. capacity
Reason: In monocots the leaf base B. Tissue having 2. Meristema tic
expands into a sheath which covers the all cells similar tissue
stem. in structure
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are and function
true and the Reason is a correct C. Tissue having 3. Sclereids
explanation of the Assertion. different types

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of cells (a) If both Assertion and Reason are
D. Dead cells with 4. Simple tissue true and the Reason is a correct
highly explanation of the Assertion.
thickened (b) If both Assertion and Reason are
walls and true but the Reason is not a
narrow lumen. correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (c) If assertion is true but the Reason
(b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 is false.
(c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (d) If both Assertion and Reason are
false.
(d) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
131. The molecules in a membrane that
127. Which of the following contains the
limit its permeability are the
largest quality of extracellular
materials? (a) Carbohydrates
(a) Striated muscles (b) Phospholipids
(b) Areolar connective tissues (c) Proteins
(c) Striated epithelium (d) Water
(d) Myelinated nerve fibres 132. Which of the following elements helps
in maintaining the structure of
128. Our heart consists of which type of
ribosomes?
tissues?
(a) Magnesium
(a) Epithelial tissue
(b) Zinc
(b) Connective tissue
(c) Copper
(c) Muscular tissue and neural tissue
(d) Molybdenum.
(d) All
133. Assertion: Smooth endoplasmic
129. Read the statements A and B and
reticulum is frequently observed in
choose the correct option
protein secretory cells.
A: Wall of internal organs like that of
Reason: Lumen of smooth endoplasmic
blood vessels, Stomach and intestine
reticulum is only storage site of
has smooth muscles.
secretory proteins.
B: Smooth muscles are involuntary.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are
(a) If both statements are correct
true and the Reason is a correct
(b) If both statements are incorrect explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If only statement A is correct (b) If both Assertion and Reason are
(d) If only statement B is correct. true but the Reason is not a
130. Assertion: Smooth muscles are correct explanation of the
involuntary. Assertion.
Reason: These are controlled by (c) If assertion is true but the Reason
autonomic nervous system. is false.

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(d) If both Assertion and Reason are C. Alkaloids III. Morphine,
false. Cadeine
134. Assertion: Polysome can produce D. Lectins IV. Carotenoids,
multiple copies of identical proteins. Anthocyanine
Reason: In polysome single m-RNA (a) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
gets decoded by a large number of (b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
ribosomes. (c) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are (d) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
true and the Reason is a correct 137. “Ramchandran plot” is used to confirm
explanation of the Assertion. the structure of
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are (a) RNA
true but the Reason is not a (b) Proteins
correct explanation of the (c) Triacylglycerides
Assertion. (d) DNA
(c) If assertion is true but the Reason 138. Assertion: All enzymes are protein.
is false. Reason: RNA cannot act as enzymes.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are (a) If both Assertion and Reason are
false. true and the Reason is a correct
135. This molecule is related to explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are
true but the Reason is not a
correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but the Reason
is false.
(a) Phospholipid (d) If both Assertion and Reason are
(b) Lecithin false.
(c) Cholesterol 139. DNA replicates
(d) Oleic acid. (a) Only once in each cell cycle
(b) Twice in each cell cycle
BIOLOGY SECTION - B (c) Once in mitotic cell cycle, once in
meiotic I (Reductional division)
and once in meiotic II (equational
136. Match the columns
division)
Column I Column II
(d) Once in mitotic cell cycle and
(Category) (Secondary Once in Meiotic II.
Metabolites)
A. Pigments I. Concanavalin A
B. Terpenoides II. Monoterpenes,
Diterpenes

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140. Anaphase I is marked by (b) The pattern of grana within the
(a) Movement of homologous chloroplasts of photosynthetic
chromosomes toward their plants
respective pole (c) The carbon-fixation process also
(b) Centromere division known as the Calvin cycle
(c) Sister chromatids remain (d) An energy diagram for the
associated at centromere transfer of electrons in the light
(d) a and c reactions of photosynthesis in
141. Arrange the following events of plants.
meiosis in correct sequence 144. The requirement for the reduction of
I. Crossing over each molecule of CO2 through C3 cycle
II. Synapsis is
III. Terminalisation of chiasmata (a) 3 NADH2, 2ATP
IV. Disappearance of nucleolus (b) 2 NADPH2, 2ATP
(a) I, II, III, IV (c) 2 NADPH2, 3ATP
(b) II, III, IV, I (d) 3 NADPH2, 3 ATP
(c) II, I, IV, III 145. Assertion: Like respiration in
(d) II, I, III, IV Photosynthesis too, ATP synthesis is
linked to development of proton
142. Assertion: Meiosis is also known as
gradient across a membrane.
reduction division.
Reason: Proton gradient is the
Reason: Meiosis reduce the number of
strongest source of potential energy
chromosomes in daughter cells.
which can be used in joining of ADP
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are
and Pi.
true and the Reason is a correct
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are
explanation of the Assertion.
true and the Reason is a correct
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are
explanation of the Assertion.
true but the Reason is not a
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are
correct explanation of the
true but the Reason is not a
Assertion.
correct explanation of the
(c) If assertion is true but the Reason
Assertion.
is false.
(c) If assertion is true but the Reason
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are
is false.
false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are
143. The Z-scheme refers to
false.
(a) The type of photosynthesis used
in plants found in areas with
minimal precipitation

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146. Correct sequence of events in Kreb’s BIOLOGY SECTION - C
cycle is
(a) Acetyl CoA→Citrate→Pyruvate→ 151. Identify the region of human brain
∝-ketoglutarate→succinate→ which has pneumotaxic centre that
malate→fumarate→ OAA alters respiratory rate by reducing the
(b) Acetyl CoA→Citric acid→ ∝- duration of inspiration
ketoglutarate→succinic acid→ (a) Cerebrum (b) Medulla
fumaric acid→malic acid→ OAA (c) Pons (d) Thalamus
(c) Acetyl CoA→Citric acid→ malic 152. Origin of heart beat and its conduction
acid→ ∝-ketoglutarate → Succinic is represented by
acid → OAA (a) SA Node – Purkinje fibres – AV
(a) All are wrong. node – Bundle of His
147. Terminal e– acceptor of e– transport is (b) AV node – Bundle of his – SA node
(a) CO2 (b) C6H12O6 – Purkinje fibres
(c) H2O (d) O2. (c) Purkinje fibres – AV node – SA
148. Choose the correct option node – Bundle of His
Volume of CO 2 evolved (d) SA node – AV Node – Bundle of
(a) RQ  His – Purkinje fibres.
Volume of CO 2 Consumed
153. Hepatic portal system carries
(b) RQ depends on the types of
respiratory material (a) Oxygenated blood from liver to
intestine
(c) Living organisms use respiratory
substances (often more than one); (b) Deoxygenated blood from liver to
pure lipid or fats are never used. intestine.
(d) All (c) Oxygenated blood from intestine
to liver
149. Which one of the following plants does
not show plasticity? (d) Deoxygenated blood from
intestine to liver.
(a) Cotton (b) coriander
154. Match the Columns
(c) Butter cup (d) Maize
150. Dissociation curve is associated with Column I Column II
(a) Carbonic anhydrase A. Nephridia I. Crustaceans
(b) CO (Prawn)
(c) CHCl3 B. Malpighian II. Annelids
(d) Oxyhaemoglobin. Tubules (Earthworms)
C. Antennal III. Insects
gland or (Corkcorach)
Green
glands
(a) A-I, B-II, C-II
(b) A-III, B-II, C-I

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(c) A-II, B-III, C-I (a) Na+ ions rapidly move to the
(d) A-II, B-I, C-III inside of the cell
155. Which of the following factors can (b) Na+ ions rapidly move to the
active the JG cells to release rennin? outside of the cell
(a) A fall in glomerular blood (c) K+ ions rapidly move to the
pressure (GBP) outside of the cell
(b) Adrenal cortex to release (d) K+ ions rapidly move to the
aldosterone outside of the cell.
(c) Adrenal medulla to release 159. Read the statements A and B and
adrenaline. choose the correct option as:
(d) Posterior pituitary to release A: In chemical synapse, action potential
vasopressin. move in one directions.
156. Match the following and mark the B: In electrical synapse is rare in our
correct option: body.
Column I Column II (a) If both statements are correct
A. Hinge joint I. Between (b) If both statements are incorrect
humerus and (c) If only statement A is correct
pectoral girdle (d) If only statement B is correct.
B. Pivot joint II. Between carpals
160. Which of the following statements
and Metacarpals
of thumb. about hormones is/are correct?
C. Gliding joint III. Between the I. Hormones are non-nutrient
carpals chemicals
D. Saddle joint IV. Between atlas II. Hormones act as intercellular
and axis. messengers
E. Ball and Socket V. Knee joint III. Hormones are produced in trace
joint
amount
(a) A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-II, E-I IV. Hormones may be proteins,
(b) A-I, B-II, C-II, D-V, E-IV steroids, glycoproteins and
(c) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-V, E-IV bigenic amines
(d) A-V, B-III, C-II, D-I, E-II (a) All (b) I, II, III
157. Myasthenia is an_______ disorder (c) IV (d) I, III
affecting neuromuscular junction to 161. Prolonged hyperglycemia leads to a
fatigue, weakening and paralysis of complex disorder called:
skeletal muscles (a) Diabetes mellitus
(a) Arthritis (b) Autoimmune (b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Agnosic (d) Amnesic (c) Cretinism
158. During depolarization of the neuronal (d) Myxoedema.
membrane
162. Match the following columns

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Column I Column II (c) Supplementing food
A. Pituitary gland I. Grave’s disease (d) Ex situ conservation.
B. Thyroid gland II. Diabetes 165. Match the columns
mellitus Column I Column II
C. Adrenal gland III. Diabetes I. Acrosome A. Ovary
insipidus II. Leydig’s cells B. Vagina
D. Pancreas IV. Addison’s or interstitial
disease cells
(a) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV III. Graafian C. Sperm
(b) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II follicles
(c) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III IV. Hymen D. Testis
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (a) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
163. Go through the following statements (b) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
I. Flowers are bisexual and (c) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
homogameous maturing anther (d) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
and stigma of a flower at the same 166. Levels of which of the following
time hormones increase during pregnancy
II. Mechanical devices bringing in a female?
anthers and stigma close together (a) cortisol (b) Thyroxine
in a bisexual chasmogamous (c) Estrogen (d) All of these
flower 167. Assertion: All copulations do not lead
III. Cleistogamy (Bisexual flowers to fertilization and pregnancy.
remain closed) Reason: Fertilization can occur only if
IV. Anther and stigma of an ovum and sperms are transported
intersexual flower mature in bud simultaneously to ampulla.
condition (a) If both Assertion and Reason are
V. Anther and stigma of an true and the Reason is a correct
intersexual flower mature in bud explanation of the Assertion.
condition. (b) If both Assertion and Reason are
The above contrivances favour true but the Reason is not a
(a) Allogamy correct explanation of the
(b) Autogamy Assertion.
(c) Xenogamy (c) If assertion is true but the Reason
(d) Cross pollination is false.
164. Pollen tablets are available in the (d) If both Assertion and Reason are
market for false.
(a) In vitro fertilization
(b) Breeding programmes 168. IUD’s which are used by females.

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(a) Are implanted under the skin and (b) If both Assertion and Reason are
they release progestogen and true but the Reason is not a
estrogen correct explanation of the
(b) Act as spermicidal jellies Assertion.
(c) Release copper ions in the uterus (c) If assertion is true but the Reason
that increase phagocytosis of is false.
sperms (d) If both Assertion and Reason are
(d) Block the entry of sperms into false.
vagina. 173. DNA polymerase
169. Mark the correct statement A. Is the main enzyme for RNA
(a) Saheli is once a week oral synthesis
contraceptive B. Is DNA dependent DNA
(b) Progestasert releases estrogen polymerizing enzyme
(c) Cu-T is a barrier method C. Is highly efficient enzyme
(d) Vasectomy and tuberctomy are D. It catalyses reaction with high
temporary methods of degree of accuracy
contraception. (a) C, D (b) A, B, C, D
170. A sex linked allele NEVER passes from (c) B, C, D (d) A, B, C
a 174. RFLP analysis is a technique that
(a) Man to his sons (a) uses hybridization to detect
(b) Woman to her daughters specific DNA restriction
(c) Man to his grandsons fragments in genomic DNA
(d) Woman to her granddaughters (b) measures the transfer frequency
171. Chromosomal theory of inheritance of genes during conjugation
was proposed by (c) used to detect genetic variations
(a) Sutton and Boveri at protein loci
(b) Bateson and Punnett (d) is used to amplify genes for
(c) TH Morgan producing useful products
(d) Watson and Crick. 175. Which is the basis of genetic mapping
172. Assertion: Multiple alleles can be found of human genome as well as DNA
only when population studies are finger printing?
made. (a) Polymorphism in DNA sequence
Reason: Occasionally, a single gene (b) Single nucleotide polymorphism
produce may produce more than one (c) Polymorphism in hnRNA
effect. sequence
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are (d) Polymorphism in RNA sequence
true and the Reason is a correct 176. Directional selection
explanation of the Assertion. (a) Works against adaptive traits

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(b) Favours intermediate forms of a 181. Assertion: Spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils,
traits payer’s parched of small intestine and
(c) Eliminates uncommon form of appendix are secondary lymphoid
alleles organs
(d) Shift allele frequencies in a Reason: Secondary lymphoid organs
steady, consistent direction. provide the sites for storing and
177. According to Hugo de Vries, the interaction of lymphocytes with
mechanism of evolution is antigens.
(a) Phenotypic variations (a) If both Assertion and Reason are
(b) Saltation true and the Reason is a correct
(c) Multiple step mutations explanation of the Assertion.
(d) Minor mutations. (b) If both Assertion and Reason are
178. Which one of the following options true but the Reason is not a
gives the correct matching of a disease correct explanation of the
with its causative organism and mode Assertion.
of infection? (c) If assertion is true but the Reason
(a) Elephantiasis = Wuchereria is false.
bancrofti – with infected water (d) If both Assertion and Reason are
and food false.
(b) Malaria = Plasmodium vivax – 182. Citric acid is produced by
Bite of male Anopheles mosquito (a) Acetobacter aceti (a bacterium)
(c) Typhoid = Salmonella typhi – (b) Yeast (a fungus)
With inspired air (c) Aspergillus niger (a fungus)
(d) Pneumonia = Streptococcus (d) Streptococcus (a bacterium)
pneumoniae – Droplet infection 183. Match the columns
179. Which of the following diseases cause Column I Column II
chronic inflammation in the lymphatic I. Aspergillus A. lactic acid
vessels of the lower limb that results niger
into its massive swelling? II. Lactobacillus B. Butyric acid
(a) Ascariasis III. Clostridium C. Citric acid
(b) Filariasis butylicum
(c) Amoebiasis IV. Tricoderma D. Cyclosporin
(d) Trypanosomiasis. polysporum A
180. Drug called ‘Heroin’ is synthesized by (a) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
(a) Acetylation of morphine (b) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D
(b) Glycosylation of morphine (c) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
(c) Nitration of morphine (d) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C
(d) Methylation of morphine.

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184. Select the correct group of biocontrol (a) In man insulin is synthesized as a
agents proinsulin.
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis, Tobacco (b) the proinsulin has an extra
mosaic virus, Aphids peptide called C-peptide.
(b) Trichoderma, Baculovirus, (c) The functional insulin has A and B
Bacillus thuringeiensis chains linked together by
(c) Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, hydrogen bonds.
Trichoderma (d) Genetically engineered insulin is
(d) Nostoc, Azospirilium, produced in E.Coli.
Nucleopolyhedrovirus 189. What is the type of ecological
185. DNA fragments can be separated by a relationship that can involve either
technique known as members of the same species or
(a) Gel electrophoresis different species and in which both
(b) Gel digestion participants are harmed?
(c) Transformation (a) Mutualism
(d) Microinjection. (b) Parasitism
(c) Competition
BIOLOGY SECTION - D (d) Amensalism.
190. In the exponential growth equation
186. Which of the following are required to Nt = N0ert, e represents
facilitate cloning into a vector? (a) The base of geometric logarithms
(a) Origin of replication (b) the base of number of logarithms
(b) Selectable marker (c) the base of exponential
(c) Cloning sites logarithms
(d) All of these (d) the base of natural logarithms.
187. What is the criterion for DNA 191. The greatest biodiversity on Earth is
fragments movement on agarose gel found in
during gel electrophoresis? (a) Tropical Amazonian rainforest in
(a) The smaller the fragment size, the South Africa.
farther it moves. (b) Temperate Amazonian rain forest
(b) Positively charged fragments in North America
move to farther end (c) Tropical Amazonian rain forest in
(c) Negatively charged fragments do South America
not move. (d) Temperate Amazonian rain forest
(d) The larger the fragments size, the in South America.
farther it moves. 192. Which one of the following growth
188. Which of the following statements is regulators is known as ‘stress
not correct? hormone’?
(a) Abscissic acid

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(b) Ethylene 197. Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of
(c) GA3 triplamitin is
(d) Indole acetic acid. (a) 0.7 (b) 0.07
193 Climate of the world is threatened by (c) 0.09 (d) 0.9
(a) Decreasing amount of 198. In a chloroplast, the highest number of
atmospheric oxygen protons are found in
(b) Increasing concentration of (a) Stoma
atmospheric carbon dioxide (b) Lumen of thylakoids
(c) Increasing amount of (c) Inter membrane space
atmospheric carbon dioxide (d) Antennae complex.
(d) Increasing concentration of 199. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo
atmospheric oxygen enzyme in photorespiration leads to
194. The process of growth is maximum the formation of
during (a) 2 molecules of 3-C compound
(a) Log phase (b) Lag phase (b) 1 molecules of 3-C compound
(c) Senescence (d) Dormancy. (c) 1 molecules of 6-C compound
195. Select the correct route for the passage (d) 1 molecules of 4-C compound and
of sperms in male frogs. 1 molecule of 2-C compound
(a) Testes→ Bidder’s canal→ 200. The energy-releasing metabolic
Kidney→ Vasa efferentia→ process in which substrate is oxidized
Urinogenital duct→ Cloaca without an external electron acceptor
(b) Testes→ Vasa efferentia→ is called
Kidney→ Seminal Vesicle→ (a) Glycolysis
Urinogenital duct→ Cloaca (b) Fermentation
(c) Testes→ Vasa efferentia→ (c) Aerobic respiration
Bidder’s canal→ Ureter→ Cloaca (d) Photorespiration
(d) Testes→ Vasa efferentia→ Kidney
→ Bidder’s canal→ Urinogenital
duct→ Cloaca
196. In which one of the following processes
CO2 is not released?
(a) Aerobic respiration in plants
(b) Aerobic respiration in animals
(c) Alcoholic fermentation
(d) Lactate fermentation

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