Ground Floor & Third Floor , ‘THE COURT’, Near Arlem Junction , Fatorda, Margao – Goa

12 PCB MOCK TEST - 2

No. of Questions: 200 MM:720
Duration: 3 Hour

Instructions :
1. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
2. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
3. Dark only one circle for each entry.
4. There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A &
only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15. (Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section-B
before they start attempting the question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten
questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.)
5. Each question carries 4 marks .For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

_____________________________________________________________________________________________

4. A particle starts moving in circle, it's angular

position is given by (rad) then final
Physics angular velocity at t = 15 sec.
(A) (B)

Section A (C) (D)

1. Charge through a cross-section of a conductor is 5. ⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ and ⃗⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ then angle

given by Q = (t5 + 2t) coulomb. The instantaneous ⃗
between and ⃗ ⃗⃗ :-
current through the conductor at t = 1 s is (A) (B)
(A) 2 A (B) 5 A
(C) 7 A (D) 10 A (C) (D)
√

2. In a closed surface S, a dipole of charge 2q, a 6. The percentage error in measurement of mass
capacitor of charge are a point charge q are and speed are 3% and 4% respectively. How much
enlcosed then flux associated with surface is :- will be the maximum error in the estimate of
(A) (B) kinetic energy obtain by measuring mass and
speed :-
(C) (D) Zero
(A) 11% (B) 8%
(C) 4% (D) 3%
3. The position x of the particle varies with time t as
x = at2 - bt3, speed of particle when its 7. here velocity, F = force, t =
acceleration is zero. time. Find the dimension of and .
(A) (B) (A) [ ] [ ]
(B) [ ] [ ]
(C) (D) (C) [ ] [ ]
(D) [ ] [ ]
8. A stone is thrown vertically upward with an initial
speed u from the top a tower, reaches the ground
with a speed 4u, the height of the tower is :
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

9. Assertion :- The drift velocity of electron in a

metallic wire will decrease, if the temperature of
the wire is increased.
Reason :- On increasing temp., relaxation time of (A) 40N (B) 60N
electrons of metallic wire decreases. (C) 80N (D) 100N
(A) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the 13. Susceptibility of diamagnetic substances :-
Assertion. (A) Increases linearly with temperature.
(B) Both Assertion & Reason are True but (B) Decreases linearly with temperature.
Reason is not a correct explanation of the (C) Is independent of temperature.
Assertion. (D) Varies inversely with temperature.
(C) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(D) Both Assertion & Reason are False. 14. Magnetic field at centre of current carrying
geometry is :-
10. In the given fig. current i1, i2, and i3 in (A) are –

(A) 3,2,6 (B) 6,2,3 (A) (B)

(C) 2,3,6 (D) 6,3,2
(C) (D)
11. Potential difference on 4.5 capacitor in the
circuit shown is - 15. Force on 10cm length of wire B will be:-

(A) 6 x 10-8 N
(B) 7 x 10-8 N
(C) 8 x 10-8 N
(A) 8/3 V (B) 4V (D) 9 x 10-8 N
(C) 6V (D) 8V
16. A flux of 1 milli Weber passes through a strip
12. Two bodies of mass 6 kg and 10 kg are attached to having an area A = 0.02 m2. The plane of the strip
the end of a string which passing over a pulley. is at an angle of 60° to the direction of uniform
The 6 kg mass is attached to the table top by magnetic field B. The value of B is-
other string. The tension in this string T1 is equal (A) 0.1 T (B) 0.02 T
to :- (C) 0.058 T (D) 0.068 T
17. Two equal masses m1 and m2 moving along the
same straight line with velocities 3m/s and - 5m/s
respectively collide elastically. Their velocities
after the collision will be respectively.
(A) 4 m/s for both
(B) -3 m/s and 5 m/s
(C) -4 m/s and 4 m/s
(D) -5 m/s and 3 m/s
(A) 60° (B) 45°
(C) 30° (D) 90°
18. Assertion : Eddy currents are used in induction
brakes 22. As shown in the fig temperature of junction is:-
Reason : As eddy current always opposes the
relative motion.
(A) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(B) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
(A) (B)
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion. (C) (D)
(C) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(D) Both Assertion & Reason are False. 23. The three rods shown in figure have identical
dimensions. Heat flows from the hot end at a rate
19. In the given arrangement tension in the stings will of 40 W in the arrangement (a). Find the rates of
be: heat flow when the rods are joined as in
arrangement (b). (Assume KAI = 200 W/m and
KCu = 400 W/m )

(A)
(B) (A) 75 W (B) 200 W
(C) (C) 400 W (D) 4 W
(D)
24. If a large drop of radius 2cm is splitted into 8
20. The phase difference between the alternating identical small droplets. Find out work done in this
current & voltage represented by the following process if surface tension of liquid is T dyne/cm.
equation I = I0 & V=V0 will (A) 2 T ergs
be :- (B) 4 T ergs
(C) 8 T ergs
(A) (B)
(D) 16 T ergs
(C) (D)
25. A wire (Young's modulus Y = 2 x 1011 N/m2) has
21. A ray PQ is incident on the refractive face AB of length 1 m and area 1 mm2. The work required to
the prism ABC and emerges from other refractive increase its length by 2 mm is -
face AC as RS such that AQ = AR. If prism angle is (A) 0.4 J (B) 40 J
60° and refractive index is √ then the angle of (C) 4 J (D) 400 J
deviation of the ray is
26. Assertion: A material which stretches more is 32. A body of mass 'm' hangs from three springs, each
more elastic. of spring constant 'K' as shown in the figure. If the
Reason: Rubber is more elastic than steel. mass is slightly displaced and let go, the system
(A) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the will oscillate with time period :-
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(B) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(C) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(D) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

27. Body A floats in a liquid with half of its volume

immersed and body B floats with (2/3) of its
volume immersed in same liquid. Find ratio of
(A) √ (B) √
densities of body A and B.
(A) 4:3 (B) 2:3
(C) √ (D) √
(C) 3:4 (D) 1:3

28. If the ratio of maximum and minimum intensity in 33. The radii of two planets are R1 and R2 respectively
interference is 9 : 1 then find the ratio of intensity with density and . Then find ratio of
of both waves. acceleration due to gravity at their surfaces?
(A) 2:1 (B) 3:1
(C) 4:1 (D) 5:1 (A) (B)

29. A plane electromagnetic wave is propagating in

(C) (D)
space. At a particular time & point in space, the
amplitude of electric field associated with it is 9 x
103 V/m. Then amplitude of magnetic field 34. The magnitude of de-Broglie wave length (λ) of
associated with EM wave at this instant is:- electron(e), Proton(P), neutron(n) and α-particle
(A) 2.7 × 103 T (B) 9 × 10-3 T all having the same speed 1 m/s, in the increasing
-4
(C) 3 × 10 T (D) 3 × 10-5T order will follow the sequence :
(A) λe, λρ, λn, λα (B) λe, λn, λρ, λα
30. The equation of a stationary wave is (C) λα, λn, λρ, λe (D) λρ, λe, λα, λn
. The distance between two
35. Work function of metal surface is 1.6 x 10-19J.
consecutive antinodes will be - When light of 6400Å wavelength is incident on
(A) 1m (B) 2m
this surface then maximum K.E. of photoelectron
(C) 4m (D) 8m
(in Joule) is (h = 6.4x 10-34 J.S):-
(A) 14 × 10-19 (B) 2.8 × 10-19
31. Assertion : A P-n junction diode is used in reverse -19
(C) 0.14 × 10 (D) 1.4 x 10-19
biased to detect the intensity of light.
Reason : In reverse biased condition current is
small but it is more sensitive to changes in
intensity of light. Section B
(A) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the 36. The length of a simple pendulum is increased to
Assertion. 16 times. Its time period will become.
(B) Both Assertion & Reason are True but (A) Half (B) Double
Reason is not a correct explanation of the (C) Same (D) Four times
Assertion.
(C) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(D) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
37. Statement I : To convert a galvanometer into 42. Which of the following will be due to total internal
ammeter, a high value resistance is applied in reflection?
parallel. (A) Propagation of light in optical fibre
Statement II : To increase the range of voltmeter, (B) Mirage
resistance in series with (G) should be decreased. (C) Brilliance of diamond
(A) Statement-I and statement-II both are (D) All of these
true
(B) Statement-I is true and statement-II is 43. Assertion (A) : In case of an AC generator, the flux
false associated with its coil varies 90° in phase with
(C) Statement-I is false and statement-II is the emf induced in it.
true Reason (R) : When a coil rotates in a magnetic
(D) Statement-I and statement-II both are field about an axis passing through its diameter;
false when flux associated with it is maximum, then
emf induced in it is zero.
38. For photo electric effect in a metal the graph of (A) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
stopping potential V0 versus frequency( ) of Reason is a correct explanation of
incident radiation is shown. The work function of Assertion.
metal is (in eV) : (B) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not a correct explanation of
Assertion.
(C) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

44. Escape velocity on a planet is ve. If radius of the

planet remains same and mass becomes 4 times,
the escape velocity becomes -
(A) 4Ve (B) 2Ve
(A) 18.5 (B) 16.5 (C) Ve (D) Ve
(C) 14.5 (D) 12.5

39. Two particles A1 and A2 of masses m1 and m2 (m1 <

45. A uniform magnetic field is restricted within a
m2) have the same de-Broglie wavelength then.
region of radius r. The magnetic field changes with
(A) their momenta are not same ⃗⃗
(B) their energies are same time at a rate Loop 1 of radius R > r encloses
(C) energy of A1 is less than the energy of A2 the region r and loop 2 of radius R is outside the
(D) energy of A1 is more than the energy of A2 region of magnetic field as shown in the figure
below. Then the e.m.f. generated is :-
40. The de Broglie wavelength and kinetic energy of a
particle is 2000 Å and 1 eV respectively. If its
kinetic energy becomes 1 MeV, then its de Broglie
wavelength becomes
(A) 1 Å (B) 2 Å
(C) 5 Å (D) 10 Å
⃗⃗
41. Height of water that would be filled in a container (A) in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
of height 21 cm, so that it appears half filled to ⃗⃗
(B) in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
the observer, when viewed from the top of
(C) Zero in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
container, is
⃗⃗ ⃗⃗
( ) (D) in loop 1 and in loop 2

(A) 8 cm (B) 10.5 cm

(C) 12 cm (D) 14 cm
46. The strain-stress curves of three wires of different 51. Maximum limiting molar conductivity among the
material is shown in the figure. following at 298 K in water is of
(A) H+ (B) Mg2+
2+
(C) Ca (D) K+

52. A ketone reacted with ethyl magnesium bromide

followed by hydrolysis give a product which on
dehydration give an alkene. The alkene on
ozonolysis give diethyl ketone and acetaldehyde.
(A) Young's modulus of wire A is maximum The ketone is-
(B) Young's modulus of wire B is maximum (A) Dimethyl ketone
(C) Young's modulus of wire C is maximum (B) Ethyl methyl ketone
(D) Young’s modulus of all wires are same (C) Diethyl ketone
(D) Ethyl propyl ketone
47. The kinetic energy and potential energy of a
particle executing SHM are equal, then 53. ← → What is not true
displacement in terms of amplitude A is :-
for A and B –
(A) (B)
√ (A) A is hydrocarbon of general formula
√ (D) √ CnH2n+2 while B belongs to alkanol
(C)
(B) A can be obtained by reducing CH3CH2Cl
48. For step-down transformer value of while B by its hydrolysis
transformation ratio is (C) A is alkene while B is alkanal
(A) r > 1 (B) r < 1 (D) A and B both belongs to different
(C) r = 1 (D) r = 0 homologous series

49. A gas mixture contain 1 g H2 and 1 g He if 54. In Nessler’s reagent for the detection of ammonia
temperature of gas mixture is increased from 0 the active species is
to 100°C at isobaric process. Then find given heat (A) Hg2CI2 (B) HgCI2
(C) Hg2I2 (D) HgI42-
of gas mixture
[ = 5/3, = 7/5, R = 2 cal/mol-K]
55. In borax bead test, which of the following
(A) 124 cal (B) 327 cal
compound is formed?
(C) 218 cal (D) 475 cal
(A) Meta borate
(B) Tetra borate
50. The circuit has two oppositely connected ideal
(C) Borazine
diode in parallel. What is the current following in
(D) Ortho borate
the circuit.
56. Given below are two statements one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion(A): Aqueous solution of CuSO4 will have
pH less than 7 at 25 .
(A) 1.33 A (B) 1.71 A Reason (R): Dissolution of CuSO4 in water results
(C) 2.00 A (D) 2.31 A into acidic solution.
In the light of above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below.
Chemistry (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(B) (A) is true but (R) is false
(C) Both (A) and (R) are false
Section A (D) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
57. A mixture of acetone and methanol can be 65. Ion which cannot be oxidized by KMnO4?
separated by- (A) (B)
(A) Vaccum distillation (C) (D)
(B) Steam distillation
(C) Fractional distillation 66. Number of P – O – P bonds in a P4O10 molecule is
(D) None (A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 2 (D) 3
58. Before testing halogens the sodium extract is
boiled with conc. HNO3 to: 67. Select the compound which is non-aromatic
(A) bring common ion effect among the following.
(B) make solution clear
– ––
(C) destroy CN and S ions
(D) make the solution acidic

59. Which one of the following statements related to

lanthanons is incorrect?
(A) Europium shows +2 oxidation state.
(B) The basicity decreases as the ionic radius
decreases from Pr to Lu.
(C) All the lanthanons are much more reactive
than aluminium. 68.
(D) Ce(+4) solutions are widely used as oxidizing , compound (X) is
agent in volumetric analysis. (A) An alkene
(B) An aldehyde
60. 1 L of an unknown gas at NTP weighs 1.97g, (C) A ketone
formula of the gas may be (D) An alcohol
(A) CO (B) CO2
(C) NO (D) SO2
69. Most reactive alcohol towards sodium metal is
(A) CH3OH
61. Molecule with sp3d 2 hybridised central atom is
(B) (CH3)2CHOH
(A) XeOF2 (B) XeF2
(C) PCl5 (D) SF6 (C) (CH3)3COH
(D) CH3CH2CH2OH
62. At 298 K, a gas expands 0.1 L to 0.4 L against a
constant pressure of 20 atm. The work done 70. . Select the
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
during the process is (given: 1 L atm = 100 J)
(A) –600 J (B) +600 J appropriate reagent (X) in the above reaction
(C) –400 J (D) –800 J (A) H2O2
(B) Na in liquid NH3
63. Which of the following pairs of solution in not an (C) Pd–BaSO4
acidic buffer? (D) DIBAL–H
(A) CH3COOH and CH3COONa
(B) H3PO4 and NaH2PO4 71. → Product(s).
(C) HNO3 and KNO3 Product(s) formed is/are
(D) HCN and NaCN

64. PCI5 (g) PCI3 (g)+CI2 (g); H= + x kcal above

reaction is favoured in forward direction by
(A) Addition of PCl3(g)
(B) Removal of Cl2(g)
(C) Increasing the temperature
(D) Both (B) and (C)
72. Carbylamine test is not given by 80. Select the complex ion, which is paramagnetic in
(A) CH3 – NH – CH3 nature?
(B) CH3NH2 (A) [Fe(H2O)6] 3+
(C) C6H5 – NH2 (B) [Co(C2O4)3] 3–
(D) C2H5NH2 (C) [Zn(H2O)6] 2+
(D) [Co(CN)6] 3–
73. Polar molecule is
(A) PCl5 (B) XeF4
81. Negative deviation solution among the following
(C) NO2 (D) BeCl2
is/are
(A) Phenol and aniline
74. E° values for Li+/Li, Pb+2/Pb, Cu+2/Cu and Sn2+/Sn
(B) Benzene and toluene
are –3.05 V, –0.13V, +0.34 V and
(C) Ethanol and acetone
–0.14V respectively. Least reducing power is
(D) n-Hexane and n-heptane
of
(A) Li (B) Pb
82. Reduction potential of hydrogen electrode at the
(C) Sn (D) Cu
pH of 1 and at 1 atm of H2(g) pressure is
(A) –0.0591 V
75. Glucose → , Product formed is
(B) 1 V
(A) Hexanoic acid
(C) +0.0591 V
(B) n – Hexane
(D) 0 V
(C) n – Pentane
(D) Acetone
83. Consider the following reaction.
76. Which of the following artificial sweeteners does
not contain an amide linkage?
(A) Sucralose
(B) Aspartame
(C) Saccharin
Major product P is
(D) Alitame

77. Which of the following set of quantum number is

possible?
(A) n = 4, l = 4, m = –3, s = +
(B) n = 4, l = 3, m = –2, s = –
(C) n = 2, l = 3, m = +3, s = +
(D) n = 4, l = 4, m = 4, s = –

78. Total number of electrons present in antibonding

molecular orbital of O2 is
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8

79. Fusion of chromite ore with sodium carbonate in

free access of air gives
(A) Na2CrO4
(B) FeO
(C) CO
(D) Na2O
84. Product A is complete neutralization. The percentage of
nitrogen in the compound is
(A) 29.5 (B) 59.0
(C) 47.4 (D) 23.7

88. Minimum ionic radii among the following is of

(A) Ce3+ (B) Pr3+
3+
(C) Eu (D) Sm3+

89. A salt X when treated with dilute acid gives a

colourless gas which on coming in contact with air
forms reddish brown gas, Identify the salt X.
(A) NaCO3
85. A monoprotic acid undergo 40% dissociation in its (B) NaNO2
0.2 M aqueous solution. The approx. pH of (C) CH3COONa
solution will be (D) NaCI
(A) 2 (B) 1.7
(C) 1.53 (D) 1.1 90. The enthalpies of solution for copper sulphate
penta hydrate and anhydrous copper sulphate are
-11.7 kJ mol-1 and -65.5 kJ mol-1 respectively. The
Section B hydration enthalpy of anhydrous copper sulphate
is
(A) -53.8 kJ mol-1 (B) +53.8 kJ mol-1
86. Major product of the above reaction is
(C) -77.2 kJ mol-1 (D) +77.2 kJ mol-1

91. Most common fullerene C – 60 contains

(A) 20 Hexagonal and 15 pentagonal rings
(B) 20 Hexagonal and 12 pentagonal rings
(C) 12 Hexagonal and 20 pentagonal rings
(D) 20 Hexagonal and 20 pentagonal rings

92. 20 volume H2O2 solution has its % (w/v) strength

(A) 2% (B) 3%
(C) 6% (D) 11.2%

93. Strongest +I effect is shown by

(A) –CH3 (B) –OH
(D) ̅
(C)

94. An ether is easily prepared in which of the

following reaction?
(A) ̅
(B) ̅
(C) ̅

(D)
87. 29.5 mg of an organic compound containing
nitrogen was digested according to Kjeldahl's
method and the evolved ammonia was absorbed
in 20 mL of 0.1 M HCl solution. The excess of the
acid required 15 mL of 0.1 M NaOH solution for
95. Suitable pH range maintained in the above
reaction to get a better yield is

Botany
Section A
(A) 2 – 5 (B) 5 – 6
101. Assertion (A): In Humans male decides sex of
(C) 9 – 10 (D) 12 – 14
progeny.
Reason (R): In humans male produce
96. If half-life of a first order reaction is 2 min then
heterogametes.
the ratio of initial rate to the rate after two half-
lives is In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the
(A) (B)
options given below :
(C) (D) (A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
97. An electron in an atom jumps in such a way that (B) (A) is true but (R) is false
its kinetic energy changes from to . The change (C) (A) is false but (R) is true
in potential energy will be (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(A) (B)
(C) (D) 102. A colourblind man (XcY) has a colourblind
sister (XCXC) and a normal brother (XY). What is
98. For the reaction. genotype of father and mother :
(A) XCY, XCXC
(B) XCY, XCX
(C) XY, XCXC
(D) XY, XCX
Standard cell potential will be maximum when
(A) pH1>pH2, P1> P2
103. Radioisotope P32 and S35 used in :
(B) pH2> pH1, P2> P1
(A) Hershey - chase experiment
(C) pH1>pH2, P2 > P1
(B) Griffith experiment
(D) It is always zero
(C) Franklin stahl experiment
(D) Matthew meselson experiment
99.
104. Number of amino acid in a polypeptide chain
is 150. The number of m-RNA bases required is :
(A) 450 (B) 453
(C) 50 (D) 100

105. Presently_________% of all bird

(A) CaC2 (B) Mg2C3 species,______% of all mammals
(C) AI4C3 (D) NiC2 species,________% of all amphibian species,
_________% of all gymnosperm species in the
100. The electronic configurations of Eu (Atomic world face the threat of extinction :
No. 63), Gd (Atomic No. 64) and Tb (Atomic No. (A) 23;32;12;31
65) are (B) 12;23;32;31
(A) [ ] [ ] (C) 12;23;31;32
[ ] (D) 23;12;32;81
(B) [ ] [ ] [ ]
(C) [ ] [ ] [ ]
(D) [ ] [ ] [ ]
106. How many matching are correct :
a. Citric acid - Fungus 111. Statement -I- Biologists are sure about how
many prokaryotic species there might be
b. Yeast - Alchohol
Statement-II-India is one of the 12
c. Cyclosporin A - Virus
megadiversity countries of the world
d. Statins - Bacteria
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(A) 4 (B) 3
incorrect
(C) 2 (D) 1
(B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
107. Which one of the following is correct incorrect
statement (C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(A) A given species may occupy more than correct
one trophic level in the same ecosystem (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(B) A given species always occupy only one correct
trophic level in the same ecosystem
112. Which of the following statements are correct
(C) A given species may not occupy more
for chemiosmosis :
than one trophic level in the same
a. Decrease of protons in stroma
ecosystem
b. Decrease in pH in stroma
(D) Both A and B
c. Conformational change of F1 portion of ATP
108. -Thalassemia is controlled by two closely synthase
linked genes. This gene are : d. Conformational change of F0 portion of ATP
(A) HBA11 and HBA12 synthase
(B) HBA1 and HBA3 e. Facilitated diffusion of protons
(C) HBB1 and HBB2 (A) a, c, e (B) a, b, c
(D) HBA1 and HBA2 (C) d, e (D) b, d, e

113. Which of the following are the correct match.

109. Statement -I- Ecology is basically concerned (A) 3,50,000 times i. Cells in a
with three level of biological organisation
watermelon
organism, population and communities.
may increase in
Statement-II-Ecology is a subject which studies
size
the interactions among organisms and between
the organism and its physical environment. (B) Growth in length ii. growth of a
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are pollen tube
incorrect (C) Increase in surface iii. Dorsiventral
(B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is area Leaf
incorrect (D) All
(C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
is correct 114. Find out correct option from the given
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are statements.
correct (A) Plants that are adapted to dry tropical
regions have the C3 pathway.
110. Statement -I- Pyramid of biomass in sea is (B) C4 plants lack photorespiration and have
generally upright greater productivity of biomass.
Statement-II-Saprophytes are not given any (C) Maize and Sorghum show kranz anatomy
place in ecological pyramids and they are C4 plants.
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are (D) OAA in C4 cycle is formed in mesophyll cell
incorrect whereas decarboxylation in this cycle
(B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is occurs in bundle sheath cell.
incorrect (A) a, b and d are correct
(C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II (B) a, b, c and d are correct
is correct (C) b, c are correct
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are (D) b, c and d are correct
correct
115. Assertion (A): In Datura flowers is Statement II : Virus that infect plants have
actinomorphic double stranded RNA.
Reason (R) : In Datura flower can be divided Choose the correct answer from the option
into two similar halves by any radial plane given below:
passing through the centre. (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are
In the light of the above statements, choose incorrect
the most appropriate answer from the (B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
options given below : incorrect
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not (C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
the correct explanation of (A) is correct
(B) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(C) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct correct
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A) 121. Assertion (A): Bryophytes are also called
amphibians of plant kingdom.
116. Which one of the following is the correct Reason (R): Bryophytes can live in soil but are
equation for RQ: dependent on water for sexual reproduction.
(A) In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the
(B) options given below :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
(C) the correct explanation of (A)
(B) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (C) (A) is false but (R) is true
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
117. How many mitotic division occur in a cell of
root tip to form 354 cells :
(A) 354 (B) 353 122. Match List–I (Distinguishing features based on
(C) 177 (D) 86 chromosomal appearance) with List–II (Stage of
meiosis) and select the correct answer using the
118. How many matching are correct with codes given below the list :
reference to photosynthesis. List – I List – II
a. Photosynthesis - Physico-chemical
process a. Terminalized i. Pachytene
b. Joseph Priestley - Discovery of chiasmata
Hydrogen b. Exchange of ii. Zygotene
c. cornelius van Niel - Mouse and segments of
experiment Tobacco plant chromatids
used c. Synapsis of iii. Diakinesis
d. Purple and green - H2O used as homologous
sulphur bacteria hydrogen donor chromosomes
d. Appearance of iv. Diplotene
(A) Three (B) Four
(C) Two (D) One chiasmata
v. Diplotene
119. How many radial spokes are present in a cilia:
(A) 18 (B) 9 (A) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(C) 27 (D) 36 (B) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-v
(C) a-ii, b-v, c-i, d-iii
120. Given below are two statements (D) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
Statement I: Ustilago (rust) and
Puccinia(smut) are parasitic
123. Match the following columns. Choose the correct answer from the option
given below:
Column I Column II
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are
a. Meristem i. Photosynthesis,storage
incorrect
b. Parenchyma ii. Mechanical support (B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
c. Collenchyma iii. Actively dividing cells incorrect
d. Sclerenchym iv. Stomata (C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
a is correct
e. Epidermal v. Sclereids (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are
tissue correct

(A) a-i, b-iii, c-v, d-ii, e-iv 128. How many statements are correct with
(B) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-v, e-iv reference to given diagram.
(C) a-ii, b-iv, c-v, d-i, e-iii
(D) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i

124. Which one of the following are the correct

statements for TMV, bacteriophage and viroids
a. All are infectious agent
b. Nucleic acid are infectious
c. All are Acellular organisms
d. No mention in the five kingdom
classification of Whittaker
(A) Only a, b, c
(B) Only a, c, d
(C) Only a, b
(D) All
a. True root, stem and leaves are present
b. Haploid rhizoid present
125. Which one of the following are the incorrect c. Thalloid gametophyte protonema present
match. d. It is heterosporus plants
(A) Kingdom - Animalia e. A type of eukaryotes
(B) Order - Polymoniales (A) Three (B) Four
(C) Family - Primata (C) One (D) Two
(D) Genus - Triticum
129. Given below are two statements
126. Removal of introns and joining the exons in a Statement I: Pinus seeds can not germinate
defined order in a transcription unit is called: and establish with out the presence of
(A) Splicing mycorrhizae.
(B) Tailing Statement II: The leaves in Pteridophyta are
(C) Transformation small (microphylls) as in ferns.
(D) Capping Choose the correct answer from the option
given below:
127. Given below are two statements (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are
Statement I: Some of the flowering plant incorrect
produce hermaphrodite flowers and pollen (B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
grain are likely to come in contact with the incorrect
stigma of the same flower. (C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
Statement II : Flowering plants have is correct
developed many devices to discourage self- (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are
pollination and to encourage cross - correct
pollination.
130. Given below are two statements 134. Photosynthesis is
Statement I: DNA finger printing involves (A) Endergonic, photochemical, anabolic
identifying differences in some specific and reductive process
regions in DNA sequence called as repetitive (B) Exergonic, reductive and catabolic
DNA. process
Statement II : Depending on the base (C) Exergonic, reductive and anabolic
composition (A :T rich or G:C rich), length of process
(D) Exergonic and chemosynthetic process
segment and in number of repetitive units the
satellite DNA is classified into many categories
135. How many statements are correct for embryo
such as micro-satellites ,mini-satellites etc.
sac:
Choose the correct answer from the option
a. It represents female gametophyte
given below:
b. It is haploid structure
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are c. The number of cells are lesser than pollen
incorrect grain.
(B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is d. Filiform Apparatus present
incorrect (A) 4 (B) 3
(C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II (C) 1 (D) 2
is correct
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct
Section B
131. Assertion (A): AUG Codon has Dual function
Reason (R) : AUG codes for glycine, and it also
136. Which one of the following is not a functional
act as Initiator codon
unit of an ecosystem?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not (A) Energy flow
the correct explanation of (A) (B) Decomposition
(B) (A) is true but (R) is false (C) Productivity
(C) (A) is false but (R) is true (D) Stratification
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A) 137. Which association exemplifies commensalism
a. Orchid and Mango
132. Which of the following is correct statement: b. Egret and Balaenoptera
(A) The inner boundary of the cortex, the c. Mycorrhizae
endodermis, is impervious to water d. Barnacle and Cattle
because of a band of suberised matrix (A) a, b, c only
called the casparian strip. (B) a, c only
(B) Mycorrhiza is parasitic association (C) a, c, d only
(C) Dicot leaves are also called isobilateral (D) Only a
leaves
(D) Movement of proton across membrane
138. How many of the following fungus found in
to create a gradient or a high
the class Ascomycetes :
concentration of proton within the Rhizopus, Penicillium, Yeast, Mucor, Agaricus,
thylakoid lumen is passive.
Puccinia, Albugo, Claviceps, Neurospora,
Alternaria, Trichoderma, Aspergillus, Ustilago,
133. Tetrad is made up of :
Morels, Truffles, Colletotrichum:
(A) Four homologous chromosomes with
(A) 5 (B) 7
four chromatids
(C) 9 (D) 10
(B) Two homologous chromosomes, each
with two chromatids
(C) Four nonhomologous chromatids
(D) Four nonhomologous chromosomes
139. Which one of the following statements are (B) A-Collenchyma, B-Xylem, C-Phloem and
Incorrect with reference to given diagram : D-Companion cells
(C) A-Collenchyma, B-Phloem, C-Xylem and
D-Companion cells
(D) A-Companion cells, B-Phloem, C-Xylem
and D-Collenchyma

142. Which one of the following molecule are

utilised as well as released during glycolysis
process :
(A) ATP, H2O
(B) ATP
(C) ATP, H2O, CO2
(D) ATP, H2O, CO2, O2

a. All given plant are Phanerogams 143. Which one of the following are correct match
b. In all given plants same type of life cycle a. pistillate flower I. Unisexual
pattern occurs b. Antherozoid II. Type of gamete
c. All given plant are produced motile male
c. Homothallic III. Bisexual
gamete
d. Meiocytes IV. Gamete mother
d. All given plants are containes chlorophyll
a cell
(A) Only a, b (B) c, d (A) a-llI, b-I, c-IV, d-II
(C) a, b, c (D) Only d (B) a-ll, b-I, c-IV, d-III
(C) a-l, b-Il, c-III, d-IV
140. Sesbania, Trifolium and Indigofera belongs to
(D) a-IV, b-I, c-IlI, d-Il
the family :
(A) Brassicaceae
144. Match the following extincted species with
(B) Solanaceae
the country
(C) Liliaceae
a. dodo i. Russia
(D) Fabaceae
b. thylacine ii. Mauritius
141. Identify A, B, C, D in the following diagrams: c. Steller's sea cow iii. Africa
d. quagga iv. Australia
(A) a(iv),b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(B) a(iv),b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(C) a(ii),b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(D) a(ii),b(iv), c(iii), d(i)

145. Oxygen evolved by the green plants comes

from H2O, not from CO2. This was proved by using
:
(A) Radio isobar technique
(B) Radioisotope technique
(C) Both radio isobar and radio isotopes
techniques
(D) Law of limiting factor

146. Total number of cytochromes are involved in

ETS of mitochondria :
(A) A-Xylem, B-Phloem, C-Collenchyma and
(A) 4 (B) 3
D-Companion cells
(C) 6 (D) 5
147. How many statements are correct with
reference to mitochondria :
a. The number of mitochondria per cell is
variable depending on the physiological ZOOLOGY
activity of the cells.
b. It is double membrane bound structure.
c. The two membranes have their own specific
Section A
enzymes associated with the mitochondrial
151. Read the statements regarding muscle
function. proteins and find the correct option.
d. It is divide by fragmentation. i. Actin is a thin filament and is made up of
(A) 4 (B) 3 two F-actins.
(C) 2 (D) 1 ii. The complex protein, tropomyosin is
distributed at regular intervals on the
148. Select the correct statement for the given troponin.
diagram. iii. Myosin is a thick filament which is also a
polymerised protein.
iv. The globular head of meromyosin consists
of light meromyosin (LMM).
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(C) (i) and (iii) are correct
(D) (i) and (iv) are correct

152. Statement I: Glomerulus alongwith Bowman's

capsule is called the renal corpuscle.
(A) It is infectious agent
Statement II: Renal corpuscle, proximal
(B) It is connecting link
convoluted tubule (PCT) and distal convoluted
(C) It is obligate parasite
tubule (DCT) of the nephron are situated in
(D) All
the cortical region of kidney.
(A) Both statement I and II are correct
149. The group of organisms which are helpful in
(B) Only Statement II is correct
making curd from milk, production of antibiotics,
(C) Statement I is true and Statement II is
fixing nitrogen in legume roots. This group of
false
organisms are :
(D) Both Statements I and II are false.
(A) Heterotrophic bacteria
(B) Archaebacteria
(C) Cyanobacteria 153. Select the incorrect statements regarding
(D) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria AIDS from the following.
I. AIDS is caused by a retrovirus having single-
stranded RNA as its genome.
150. Statement-I Glycocalyx differs in composition
II. AIDS can be successfully treated using anti-
and thickness among different bacteria
retroviral drugs.
Statement -II In Bacteria cell wall Provides a
III. Macrophages act as HIV factory as it leads
strong structural support to prevent the
to the continuous production of new viral
bacterium from bursting or collapsing.
particles.
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are
IV. In AIDS, a decrease in B-lymphocyte count
incorrect
is seen.
(B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(A) II and IV (B) I and III
incorrect (C) I and II (D) III and IV
(C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct
154. Match the following. (A) Zero (B) 2 Vmax
Column I Column II (C) Vmax (D) Vmax
a. Unipolar neuron 1. Retina
b. Bipolar neuron 2. Autonomous 159. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
matching.
neural
system
c. Multipolar neuron 3. Cranial
nerves
d. Myelinated nerve 4. Embryonic
fibre stage
e. Unmyelinated nerve 5. Cerebral
fibre cortex

a. b. c. d. e.
(A) 1 4 5 3 2 (A) c-seminal vesicle, e-ejaculatory duct, d-vas
(B) 5 1 4 2 3 deferens, a-testis, b-phallic gland
(C) 4 1 5 3 2 (B) e-seminal vesicle, c-ejaculatory duct, a-vas
(D) 4 1 5 2 3 deferens, b-testis, d-phallic gland
(C) a-seminal vesicle, d-ejaculatory duct, b-vas
155. Assertion: Interstitial cell is present in the deferens, e-testis, c-phallic gland
region outside the seminiferous tubule called (D) b-seminal vesicle, a-ejaculatory duct, c-vas
interstitial spaces. deferens, d-testis, e-phallic gland
Reason: Interstitial cells provide nutrition to the
160. Read the following statements about the
sertoli cells.
parathyroid gland. Identify the true and false
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true
statements among them and select the correct
and the Reason is a correct explanation
option.
of the Assertion.
I. Human beings have a pair of parathyroid
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true
glands, situated in each lobe of the thyroid
and the Reason is not a correct
gland.
explanation of the Assertion.
II. The secretion of PTH is regulated by the levels
(C) If the Assertion is true but Reason is
of circulating calcium ions.
false.
III. PTH is a hypocalcemic hormone.
(D) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
IV. PTH plays a major role in maintaining calcium
156. Which of the following animals would you balance in the body along with TCT.
select if you were to look for feather like gills and (A) I-True, II- False, III- True, IV- False
muscular foot? (B) I- True, II- True, III- False, IV- True
(A) Dentalium (C) I- False, II- False, III- True, IV- False
(B) Sepia (D) I-False, II-True, III- False, IV-True
(C) Physalia
161. Read the following statements and find out
(D) Both A and B
the incorrect statement.
157. Statement I: The cerebral cortex is referred to (A) Dog fish has teeth that are modified placoid
as the grey matter due to its greyish appearance. scales
Statement II: The neuron cell bodies are (B) In Fighting fish, gills are covered by
concentrated in the cerebral cortex. operculum while in sting ray, gill cover is
(A) Both statement I and II are correct absent
(B) Only Statement II is correct (C) Air bladder in present in saw fish which
(C) Statement I is true and Statement II is false regulates buoyancy, while in Angel fish, air
(D) Both Statements I and II are false. bladder is absent
(D) Mouth of flying fish is terminal while that of
158. The Km value of the enzyme is the value of the great white shark is ventral.
substrate concentration at which the reaction
reaches to
162. Match the following. system
Column I Column II
iv. Antedon d. Flame cells
a. Curable STD 1. Syphilis
b. Non-curable STD 2. Genital v. Petromyzon e. Poikilothermous
herpes
c. Family planning 3. 1951 vi. Chelone f. 6-15 pairs of gills
programme started in
slits
India
d. MTP legalised in India 4. 1971
g. Homoiothermous

h. Placoid scales
a. b. c. d.
(A) 1 2 3 4 (A) i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – b, v – f, iv – e
(B) 1 2 4 3 (B) i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c, v – f, iv – e
(C) 2 1 3 4 (C) i – b, ii – c, iii – d, iv – a, v – f, iv – e
(D) 2 1 4 3 (D) i – b, ii – a, iii – c, iv – d, v – f, iv – g

163. A particular species of animals had three coat 166. In the three steps (a,b,c) of poly merase chain
colors: white, yellow and black. A population of reaction select the correct step.
this species in Africa had more number of yellow
animals and less number of white and black
animals. After hundreds of years, the species
evolved having very few yellow animals and more
white and black animals. The white and black
animals were at most similar in quantity. The type
of natural selection seen in this example is
(A) Stabilising selection
(B) Directional selection
(C) Disruptive selection
(D) It could be both stabilising and disruptive
(A) c – extension in presence of heat stable
selection
DNA polymerase
(B) a – annealing with two sets of primers
164. Select the correct statement(s). (C) b – denaturation at high temperature
(A) If any protein encoding gene is expressed in (D) a – denaturation using polymerase
a homologous host, it is called a
recombinant protein.
167. Out of 'X' pairs of ribs in humans only 'Y' pairs
(B) In PCR, the multiple copies of gene of
are true ribs. Select the option that correctly
interest is synthesised in vitro using one set
represents values of X and Y and provides their
of primers.
explanation.
(C) A thermostable enzyme (Taq polymerase) is
(A) X=12, Y=5 True ribs are attached
obtained from Thermus aquaticus.
dorsally to vertebral column
(D) None of the above. and sternum on two ends.
(B) X=24, Y=7 True ribs are dorsally
165. Match Column I with Column II. attached to vertebral column
Column I Column II but are free on ventral side.
(C) X=24, Y=12 True ribs are dorsally
i. Aplysia a. Nematocytes attached to vertebral column
but are free on ventral side.
ii. Pennatula b. Second largest (D) X=12, Y=7 True ribs are attached
phylum dorsally to vertebral column
and ventrally to the sternum.
iii. Taenia c. Water vascular
168. Find out the name of the following: (A) Two categories – exocrine and endocrine
a) A chordate animal having flame cells as glands
excretory structures (B) Three categories – holocrine, merocrine
b) Cortical portions projecting between the apocrine glands
medullary pyramids in the human kidney (C) Two categories – homocrine and
c) A loop of capillary running parallel to the heterocrine glands
Henle's loop (D) Both A and C
(A) (a)-Planaria, (b)-duct of Bellini, (c)-Peritubular
capillary 172. Hormones involved in carbohydrate
(B) (a)-Amphioxus, (b)-collecting duct,(c)-vasa metabolism are
recta (A) Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and
(C) (a)- Amphioxus, (b)-columns of Bertini, (c)- parathormone
vasa recta (B) Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and
(D) (a)-Amphioxus, (b)- columns of Bertini, (c)- glucocorticoid
peritubular capillary (C) Insulin, glucagon, glucacorticoid and
calcitonin
169. By using the carbonic anhydrase enzyme the (D) Insulin, glucagon, norepinephrine and
reaction (CO2+ H2O  H2CO3) speeds melatonin
dramatically with about
(A) 6,00,000 molecules being formed every 173. Which of the following is an indicative of
hour improved reproductive health of the society?
(B) 6,00,000 molecules being formed every a. Better awareness about sex related matters
second b. Increased number of medically assisted
(C) 36 million molecules being formed every deliveries
minute c. Better post-natal care
(D) Both B and C d. Increased maternal and infant mortality
rates
170. Recognise the figure and find out the correct e. Decreased number of couples with small
matching. families
f. Better detection and cure of STDs
g. Overall increased medical facilities for all
sex-related problems
(A) a, c d, and g
(B) a, e and f
(C) b, d, e and f
(D) a, b, c, f and g

174. In which "assisted reproductive technology"

(ART), test tube baby procedure is applied?
(A) Gamete intrafallopian transfer
(B) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
(C) In vitro fertilization and embryo transfer
(A) a-adenine, b-thymine, c-adenylic acid, d- (D) Zygote intrafallopian transfer
uridylic acid
(B) a-adenine, b-uracil, c-adenosine, d-uridine 175. Presence of more than one recognition sites
(C) a-guanine, b-thymine, c-adenosine, d- within the vector will
uridine (A) Facilitates the gene cloning
(D) a-adenine, b-cytosine, c-adenylic acid, d- (B) Facilitates the action of DNA ligase
uridylic acid (C) Facilitates the action of restriction enzyme
(D) Complicate the gene cloning
171. On the basis of mode of pouring of their
secretions, glands are divided into
176. How many documented varieties of Basmati 181. Which of the following is the marsupial
rice are grown in India? counterpart or Anteater?
(A) 2,00,000 (A) Numbat
(B) 50,000 (B) Spotted cuscus
(C) 1,000 (C) Marsupial mole
(D) 27 (D) Flying Phalanger

177. Polymerase Chain Reaction is not used in : 182. Assertion: Haemoglobin is a quarternary
(A) Confirming presence of a pathogen during structure protein
early infection Reason: It has 4 polypeptide chains – 2 type
(B) Identifying the mutated genes in suspected and 2 type folded as subunits with respect to
cancer patients each other.
(C) Isolating the gene of interest from host DNA (A) If both Assertion and Reason are true
to be cloned by recombinant procedures and the Reason is a correct explanation
(D) Detection of the presence of HIV in of the Assertion.
suspected AIDS patient (B) If both Assertion and Reason are true
and the Reason is not a correct
178. The characteristics of a molecular probe are explanation of the Assertion.
I. Very long molecule (C) If the Assertion is true but Reason is
II. Double-stranded false.
III. DNA or RNA (D) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
IV. Complementary to a part of the desired gene
The correct option is: 183. Secondary spermatocytes give rise to
(A) I and II ________ spermatids which transform into
(B) II and III ________ sperms by _________.
(C) III and IV (A) Diploid, haploid, spermiogenesis
(D) IV and I (B) Haploid, haploid, spermiogenesis
(C) Haploid, haploid, spermiation
179. Which of the following statements are true (T) (D) Diploid, haploid, spermiation
and which are false (F)?
i. Semilunar valves close as ventricular 184. How many of the following can be considered
pressure falls during ventricular systole. common allergens
ii. P wave and T wave of ECG represent Animal dander, sand, pollen, mites in dust,
depolarization of atria and repolarization of adrenaline, water
ventricles respectively. (A) 2 (B) 3
iii. CAD is also referred to as atherosclerosis (C) 4 (D) 1
and this affects blood vessels supplying to
lungs. 185. _______ uses ionising radiations and _______
(A) F T T (B) T T F uses non-ionising radiations for cancer diagnosis
(C) F T F (D) T T T (A) MRI, CT
(B) Radiography, MRI
180. Which of the following statements are true (T) (C) CT, MRI
and which are false (F)? (D) Both B and C
i. Homo erectus has a larger brain capacity
than homo habilis.
ii. Psilophyton is the direct ancestor of
conifers, Ginkgos, ferns, Gnetales etc. Section B
iii. Genetic drift can read to stabilisation,
directional change or disruption.
(A) T T F (B) F T F
(C) T F F (D) F F F
186. Which of the following statements are true (T) (D) i – d, ii – b, iii – f, iv – a, v – c
and false (F)?
i. Trophoplast cells contain stem cells which 190. Among the following, select the tools of
have the potency to give rise to all tissues recombinant DNA technology
and organs. a. Restriction enzymes
ii. After one month of pregnancy, heart sound b. Polymerase enzymes
of foetus can be heard. c. Ligases
iii. Absence of hymen is a reliable indicator of d. Vectors
sexual experience e. Host organisms
(A) T T F (B) T F F (A) a, b, c, d and e
(C) F F F (D) F T F (B) a, c, d and e
(C) a, b, c and d
187. Assertion: Lack of Menstruation may be
(D) a, b, c and e
indicative of pregnancy.
Reason: Menstruation only occurs if ovum is not
191. Identify development stage and place of
fertilised.
occurrence.
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
the Reason is not a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(C) If the Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(D) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

188. Statement I: A homocyclic compound, (A) Blastocyst, uterine wall

monosacc haride and phosphoric acid are three (B) Morula, starting point of fallopian tube
compounds of a nucleotide. (C) Late morula, middle part of fallopian tube
Statement II: A protein thread does not exist (D) Blastula, end part of fallopian tube
throughout as an extended rigid rod but in fact it
is folded in the form of a helix. 192. The non-medicated IUD is
(A) Both statement I and II are correct (A) Copper T
(B) Only Statement II is correct (B) Progestasert
(C) Statement I is true and Statement II is false (C) Lippes loop
(D) Both Statements I and II are false. (D) LNG-20

189. Match column I with Column II. 193. Hypothyroidism during pregnancy causes
I II defective development and maturation of growing
baby leading to
i. Neutrophils a. 250,000 a. Cretinism (stunted growth)
b. Dwarfism
ii. Eosinophils b. 0.5-1% c. Mental retardation
d. Low intelligence quotient (I.Q.)
iii. Basophils c. 5-5.5 million
e. Abnormal skin
iv. Platelets d. 20-25% f. Deaf-mutism
(A) a, b, d and f
v. RBCS e. 60-65% (B) b, c, d and e
(C) a, c, d, e and f
f. 2-3% (D) a, b, c, d, e and f

(A) i – e, ii – b, iii – f, iv – a, v – c
(B) i – e, ii – b, iii – f, iv – c, v – a
(C) i – e, ii – f, iii – b, iv – a, v – c
194. Recognise the figure and find out the correct b. The thin walled urinary bladder is present
matching. ventral to …….2…… which also opens in the
cloaca.
c. Frog is …….3…… animal.
d. In frog, there are ...... 4 ...... of cranial
nerves arising from brain.
(A) a – collectively, b–kidney, c–uricotelic, d–
ten pairs
(B) a–separately, b–rectum, c–ureotelic, d–
(A) 2-I band, 3-A band, 1-Z line, 4- twelve pairs
sarcomere, 5-H zone (C) a–separately, b–rectum, c–ureotelic, d–
(B) 3-I band, 2-A band, 1-Z line, 5- ten pairs
sarcomere, 4-H zone (D) a–collectively, b–rectum, c–ureotelic, d–
(C) 2-I band, 3-A band, 1-Z line, 5- twelve pairs
sarcomere, · 4-H zone
(D) 3-I band, 2-A band, 1-Z line, 4- 198. Read the following statements and find out
sarcomere, 5-H zone the incorrect statement about frogs.
(A) Frog respire on land and in water by
195. Statement I: Genetic modification of different methods.
organisms can have unpredictable results when (B) Liver secretes bile that is stored in the gall
such organisms are introduced into the bladder.
ecosystem. (C) Three chambered heart is situated in the
Statement II: The modification/usage of living upper part of body cavity.
organisms for public services (as food and (D) RBCs are enucleated and contain red
medicine sources, for example) has also created coloured pigment called haemoglobin.
problems with patents granted for the same.
(A) Both statement I and II are correct 199. Pick the correct statement.
(B) Only Statement II is correct (A) Contraction of internal intercostal muscles
(C) Statement I is true and Statement II is false lifts up the ribs and sternum.
(D) Both Statements I and II are false. (B) RBCs transport oxygen only.
(C) Thoracic cavity is anatomically an air tight
196. Assertion: In recombinant DNA technology, chamber.
human genes are often transferred into bacteria (D) Healthy man can inspire approximately 500
(prokaryotes) or yeasts (eukaryotes). mL of air per minute.
Reason: Both bacteria and yeasts multiply very
fast to form huge populations which express the 200. Statement I: A large number of infectious
desired gene. diseases like polio, diphtheria, pneumonia and
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true tetanus have been controlled to a large extent by
and the Reason is a correct explanation the use of vaccines.
of the Assertion. Statement II: Discovery of antibiotics and
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true various other drugs has also enabled us to
and the Reason is not a correct effectively treat non- infectious diseases.
explanation of the Assertion. (A) Both statement I and II are correct
(C) If the Assertion is true but Reason is (B) Only Statement II is correct
false. (C) Statement I is true and Statement II is
(D) If both Assertion and Reason are false. false
(D) Both Statements I and II are false.
197. Fill in the blanks:
a. In female frogs, the ureters and oviduct
open ……..1……… into the cloaca.