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CAPM® Practice Test

1. Which of the following represents process of monitoring the status of project
activities to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline to
achieve the plan?

1. Control Schedule

2. Monitor and Control Project Work

3. Control Schedule

4. Control Quality

2. Which of the following best describes an identified area of project management

defined by its knowledge requirements and described in terms of its component
processes, practices, inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques ?

1. Project Life Cycle

2. Project Management Knowledge Area

3. Process Group

4. Processes

3. What is the name of the process of monitoring the status of the project and product
scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?

1. Direct and manage Project Work

2. Validate Scope

3. Control Scope

4. Monitoring and Controlling

4. Which of the following represents a technique for systematically reviewing materials

using a list for accuracy and completeness?

1. Checksheets

2. Checklist

3. Procedure

4. Methodology

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5. A process whereby modifications to documents, deliverables, or baselines associated
with the project are identified, documented, approved, or rejected is known as:

1. Change Request

2. Change Control

3. Change Request Review

4. Change Control Board (CCB)

6. The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract
is known as:

1. Manage Procurements

2. Conduct Procurements

3. Control Procurements

4. Plan Procurements

7. Which of the following describes a technique used to develop as many potential

options as possible in order to identify different approaches to execute and perform
the work of the project?

1. Alternatives Generation

2. Alternative Analysis

3. Sensitivity Analysis

4. Regression Analysis

8. Which of the following process group contains the processes performed to finalize all
activities across all Process Groups to formally close a project or phase ?

1. Closing Process Group

2. Initiating Process Group

3. Executing Process Group

4. Monitoring and Controlling Process Group

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9. Which of the following BEST represent the Adaptive life cycle ?

1. A project life cycle, that is intended to facilitate change and require a high de-
gree of ongoing stakeholder involvement. Adaptive life cycles are also iterative
and incremental, but differ in that iterations are very rapid (usually 2–4 weeks in
length) and are fixed in time and resources.

2. A project life cycle where the project scope is generally determined early in the
project life cycle, but time and cost estimates are routinely modified as the proj-
ect team’s understanding of the product increases.

3. A form of project life cycle in which the project scope, and the time and cost re-
quired to deliver that scope, are determined as early in the life cycle as possible.

4. None of the above

10. Which of the following describes the realized cost incurred for the work performed
on an activity during a specific time period?

1. Actual Cost (AC)

2. Planned Cost (PC)

3. Earned Value (EV)

4. Planned Value(PV)

11. Which of the following represents an activity where effort is allotted

proportionately across certain discrete efforts and not divisible into discrete efforts?

1. Apportioned Effort

2. Discrete effort

3. Level of Effort

4. Percentage effort

12. Conditions, not under the immediate control of the team, that influence, constrain,
or direct the project, program, or portfolio is known as :

1. Enterprise Environmental Factors

2. Uncontrolled Events

3. Issues

4. Risks

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13. Which of the following represents an elicitation technique using focused sessions
that bring key cross-functional stakeholders together to define product requirements
and results in full participation and buy-ins?
1. Facilitated Workshops

2. Context Diagram

3. Affinity Diagram

4. Focus Groups

14. Which of the following describes a type of contract involving payment to the seller
for the seller’s actual costs, plus a fee typically representing seller’s profit?

1. Cost-Reimbursable Contract

2. Firm-Fixed-Price Contract (FFP)

3. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contracts (FP-EPA)

4. Time and Material Contract (T&M)

15. Which of the following describes technique for estimating the duration or cost of an
activity or a project using historical data from a similar activity or project?

1. Point Estimate

2. Analogous Estimating

3. Bottom up Estimate

4. Parametric Estimate

16. Budget within the cost baseline that is allocated for identified risks that are
accepted and for which contingent or mitigating responses are developed is known as:

1. Management Reserve

2. Contingency Buffer

3. Contingency Reserve

4. Management Buffer

17. Which of the following is the project document including the identification,
assessment, and classification of project stakeholders?

1. Stakeholder Register

2. Stakeholder List

3. Project Team Directory

4. Risk Register

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18. Which of the following describes a collection of formal documented procedures
used to apply technical and administrative direction and surveillance to: identify and
document the functional and physical characteristics of a product, result, service, or
component control any changes to such characteristics record and report each change
and its implementation status and support the audit of the products, results, or
components to verify conformance to requirements and includes the documentation,
tracking systems, and defined approval levels necessary for authorizing and controlling
changes?

1. Configuration Management System

2. Change Management System

3. Integrated Change Control

4. Change Control Board

19. Which of the following describes a graphic display of process data over time and
against established control limits, which has a centerline that assists in detecting a
trend of plotted values toward either control limit?

1. Run Chart

2. Scatter Diagram

3. Trend Diagram

4. Control Chart

20. Which of the following is the term is used to define a comprehensive list of changes
made during the project and typically includes dates of the change and impacts in
terms of time, cost, and risk?

1. Change Log

2. Change Register

3. Issue Log

4. Change Request

21. Verifiable product, result, or capability to perform a service that is required to be

produced to complete a process, phase, or project is called:

1. Deliverable

2. Project

3. Process

4. Plan

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22. Which of the following represents the process of creating, collecting, distributing,
storing, retrieving, and the ultimate disposition of project information in accordance
with the communications management plan?

1. Control Communications

2. Manage Communications

3. Conduct Communications

4. Develop Communications

23. Which of the following describes a type of contract where the buyer pays the
seller a set amount (as defined by the contract), and the seller can earn an additional
amount if the seller meets defined performance criteria?

1. Firm-Fixed-Price Contract (FFP)

2. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contracts (FP-EPA)

3. Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF)

4. Cost-Reimbursable Contract

24. Which of the following describes the process of communicating and working with
stakeholders to meet their needs/expectations, address issues as they occur, and
foster appropriate stakeholder engagement in project activities throughout the project
life cycle?

1. Control Stakeholder Engagement

2. Manage Stakeholder Engagement

3. Identify Stakeholders

4. Plan Stakeholder Management

25. Which of the following describes responses provided which may be used in the
event that a specific trigger occurs?

1. Contingent Response Strategies

2. Fallback Plan

3. Risk Mitigation

4. Residual Risk

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26. A subsidiary plan of the project management plan that defines the processes,
procedures, tools, and techniques to effectively engage stakeholders in project
decisions and execution based on the analysis of their needs, interests, and potential
impact is known as :

1. Communication Management Plan

2. Requirement Management Plan

3. Scope Management Plan

4. Stakeholder Management Plan

27. Which of the following describes an analytical technique to determine the

information needs of the project stakeholders through interviews, workshops, study of
lessons learned from previous projects, etc.?

1. Communication Requirements Analysis

2. Collect Requirement

3. Stakeholder Analysis

4. Identify Stakeholders

28. Which of the following represents a risk that remains after risk responses have
been implemented?

1. Residual Risk

2. Watch List

3. Issue

4. Tasks

29. Which of the following describes the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis
or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

1. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

2. Perform Risk Analysis

3. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

4. Plan Risk Responses

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30. Which of the following describes numbering system used to uniquely identify each
component of the work breakdown structure (WBS)?

1. Index

2. Coding

3. Code of Accounts

4. Map id

31. Which of the following defines the process of leading and performing the work
defined in the project management plan and implementing approved changes to
achieve the project’s objectives ?

1. Direct and Manage Project Execution

2. Executing Project Work

3. Direct and Manage Project Work

4. Leading and Directing Project Work

32. Which of the following describes the approved version of the time-phased project
budget, excluding any management reserves, which can be changed only through
formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual
results?

1. Cost Baseline

2. Project Budget

3. Management reserve

4. Project Value

33. Which of the following describes the process of determining which risks may affect
the project and documenting their characteristics?

1. Identify Risks

2. Identify Activities

3. Identify Stakeholders

4. Identify Team

34. Which schedule compression technique used to shorten the schedule duration for
the least incremental cost by adding resources?

1. Crashing

2. Fast Tracking

3. Lead

4. Lag

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35. What is the term to describe a group creativity technique that allows large numbers
of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?

1. Affinity Diagram

2. Brainstorming

3. Delphi technique

4. Nominal Group thinking

36. A description, analogy or schematic used to represent how the communication

process will be performed for the project is known as:

1. Communication Methods

2. Communication Models

3. Communication Technology

4. Communication Requirement

37. Which of the following describes a method used to estimate the minimum project
duration and determine the amount of scheduling flexibility on the logical network
paths within the schedule model?

1. Resource Leveling

2. Schedule Compression

3. Critical Path Method

4. Apply Lead and Lag

38. Establishing connections and relationships with other people from the same or
other organizations is known as:

1. Networking

2. Relationships

3. Bounding

4. Team Building

39. Which of the following represents a general data gathering and creativity technique
that can be used to identify risks, ideas, or solutions to issues by using a group of team
members or subject matter experts?

1. Brainstorming

2. Affinity Diagram

3. Delphi technique

4. Nominal Group thinking

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40. Which of the following describes the work done to compensate for imperfections
that prevent organizations from completing planned activities correctly as essential
first-time work?

1. Conformance Work

2. Work

3. Non Conformance Work

4. Cost of Quality

41. Which of the following process group contains the processes performed to complete
the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications?

1. Closing Process Group

2. Initiating Process Group

3. Executing Process Group

4. Monitoring and Controlling Process Group

42. Which of the following represents handling, controlling, and guiding a conflictual
situation to achieve a resolution?

1. People Management

2. Communication Management

3. Stakeholder Management

4. Conflict Management

43. Which of the following defines the time in calendar units between the start and
finish of a schedule activity?

1. Activity Estimates

2. Activity Resource

3. Activity Duration

4. Activity Effort

44. Which of the following represent documented economic feasibility study used to
establish validity of the benefits of a selected component and that also used as a basis
for the authorization of further project management activities?

1. Business Case

2. Project Charter

3. Contract

4. Tender

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45. Which of the following is the technique of systematically gathering and analyzing
quantitative and qualitative information to determine whose interests should be
taken into account throughout the project?

1. Cost Benefit Analysis

2. Value Analysis

3. Stakeholder Analysis

4. Risk Analysis

46. A review at the end of a phase in which a decision is made to continue to the next
phase, to continue with modification, or to end a project or program can be BEST
described as:

1. Project Review

2. Phase Gate

3. Lesson Learned

4. Retrospective

47. A common type of responsibility assignment matrix that uses responsible,

accountable, consult, and inform statuses to define the involvement of stakeholders in
project activities is known as:

1. RACI

2. RAM

3. Impact Matrix

4. Probability Matrix

48. Which of the following describes a request, demand, or assertion of rights by a

seller against a buyer, or vice versa, for consideration, compensation, or payment
under the terms of a legally binding contract, such as for a disputed change?

1. Claim

2. Payment

3. Invoice

4. Receipt

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49. An information system consisting of the tools and techniques used to gather,
integrate, and disseminate the outputs of project management processes. It is used to
support all aspects of the project from initiating through closing, and can include both
manual and automated systems. Which of the following BEST represent the above said
description?

1. Configuration Management System

2. Project Management Information System

3. Change Management System

4. Project Management Plan

50. Which of the following knowledge area includes the processes that organize,
manage, and lead the project team?

1. Project Human Resource Management

2. Project Resource Management

3. Project Communication Management

4. Project Stakeholder Management

51. All of the following processes form part of the Executing process group except:

1. Performing activities in accordance with the project management plan.

2. Managing changes to the deliverables.

3. Completing the work in accordance with the defined quality framework and
specification.

4. Coordinating people and resources.

52. Which calculation is correct for the To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI) based on
the Estimate At Completion (EAC)?

1. AC + (BAC – EV)

2. (BAC - EV)/(BAC - AC)

3. BAC/CPIcum

4. (BAC - EV)/(EAC - AC)

53. A Pareto diagram shows:

1. The 80% of the work that is important.

2. The qualitative improvement trend demonstrated by implementing a Six Sigma

initiative.

3. A histogram ordered by frequency of occurrence.

4. The 20% of the work that is causing the most issues.

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54. Integrated Change Control includes all of the following tools and techniques except:

1. Project management plan updates.

2. Expert judgement.

3. Change control meetings.

4. A change control board to approve or reject changes.

55. All of the following are true concerning expected monetary value (EMV) except:

1. Decision tree analysis is more effective using net present values (NPV) in its
calculations rather than EMV.

2. The EMV of an opportunity is generally a positive value.

3. EMV is a statistical concept that calculates the average value of a future scenario
that may, or may not happen by multiplying the value of each possible outcome
by the probability of it occurring and summing the products.

4. The EMV of a threat is generally a negative value.

56. Co-location is one of the techniques used to:

1. Ensure effective control over the work of the project team.

2. Develop the project team.

3. Define the organisation structure.

4. Acquire the project team.

57. When managing a complex, cross functional project; which of the following
structures will give the project manager the most authority?

1. Balanced matrix.

2. Strong matrix.

3. Functional.

4. Weak matrix.

58. Leadership in a project environment should demonstrate all of the following

characteristics except:

1. The focusing of the efforts of a group of people on achieving a common

objective.

2. High levels of respect and trust.

3. The ability to get things done through others.

4. A primary focus on external senior managers and other key stakeholders to

ensure the project is a success through managing upwards.

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59. The processes included in project communication management are:

1. Collect Requirements, Plan Communications, Distribute Information and Control

Communications.

2. Identify Stakeholders, Collect Requirements, Plan Communications, Distribute

Information, Manage Stakeholder Expectations and Report Performance.

3. Plan Communications Management, Manage Communications and Control

Communications.

4. Collect Requirements, Plan Communications Management, Manage

Communications and Control Communications.

60. Which of the following is true concerning the work breakdown structure (WBS)?

1. The PMI WBS and PRINCE2 product breakdown structure (PBS) are effectively
the same thing.

2. The WBS is the same as the organisational breakdown structure (OBS).

3. The WBS is a hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried

out by the project team.

4. The WBS is the bill of materials (BoM) needed to accomplish the work of the
project.

61. All of the following are true of cost plus fixed fee (CPFF) contracts, except:

1. The seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs incurred performing the contract
work.

2. The seller receives a fixed fee calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated
project cost.

3. The fee does not change based on the performance of the seller.

4. The seller receives a fee calculated as a fixed percentage of the actual project
cost.

62. Analogous estimating when applied to a duration is:

1. Based on expert judgement and is consequently more accurate than standard

critical path estimating.

2. Used when there is a limited amount of detailed information available.

3. A calculation based on a three point estimate using a modified BETA

distribution.

4. The same as ‘bottom up’ estimating.

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63. The code of accounts:

1. Is the system used to keep track of purchases and contracts.

2. Is any numbering system used to uniquely identify each component of the work
breakdown structure.

3. Links the work breakdown structure to the schedule task identifier.

4. Is the alpha-numeric reference used in the organisations accounts system to

identify cost centres.

64. A procurement audit will consider all of the following except:

1. The changes in market conditions between the contract date and the current
time.

2. Any successes or failures in the process that warrant recognition.

3. The complete procurement process from initial planning through to the

administration of the procurement.

4. Any lessons learned that can be applied to future procurement processes.

65. The Delphi technique has all of the following characteristics except:

1. It is a technique to reduce bias and prevent any one person from exerting
undue influence.

2. It is a way to reach a consensus of experts.

3. It is an Oracle® database application used to optimise future outcomes.

4. Individual experts are unaware of who else is participating in the process.

66. The basic decision making styles normally used by project managers include all of
the following except:

1. Coin flip (random).

2. Command.

3. Consultation.

4. Rational choice theory

67. The Control Costs process includes all of the following except:

1. Informing appropriate stakeholders of all approved changes and associated

costs.

2. Influencing factors that create changes in the authorised cost baseline.

3. Developing the cost performance baseline.

4. Acting to bring expected cost overruns within acceptable limits.

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68. All of the following statements are true about product and project life cycles
except:

1. Generally a product lifecycle is contained within a project lifecycle.

2. A project life cycle is determined by the organisation and generally consists of

phases that may be sequential or overlapping.

3. A product lifecycle is determined by the organisation and generally consists of

sequential phases.

4. Generally a project lifecycle is contained within a product lifecycle.

69. As part of a successful communication, the receiver is responsible for:

1. Making sure the information is clear and complete, understood and

acknowledged.

2. Making sure the information is received in its entirety, understood correctly and
acknowledged.

3. Making sure the information is clear and complete, understood and agreed
with.

4. Listening actively to ensure all of the information is received.

70. The project charter has all of the following characteristics except:

1. Its primary use is to authorise the start of a project or phase.

2. It provides the project manager with authority to apply resources and expend
money on project activities.

3. Its primary use is to request bids or proposals for the work it defines.

4. The project charter can be created by the person external to the project,
responsible for the authorisation of the work, or that person can delegate the
creation of the project charter to the project manager.

71. All of the following are true concerning enterprise environmental factors (EEF)
except:

1. EEF do not include the organisations purchasing guidelines because this type of
function is managed by the Accounts Department.

2. EEF include the tools, systems and software that comprise the project
management information system (PMIS).

3. EEF incorporates the organisation’s culture, structure and processes.

4. EEF include all relevant laws, regulations and standards imposed by all levels of
government, industry bodies and society.

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72. All of the following statements concerning the project scope statement are true
except:

1. It is an output of the Validate Scope process.

2. It describes the project’s deliverables and the work needed to create them.

3. It may contain explicit scope exclusions that can assist in managing stakeholder
expectations.

4. It provides a common understanding of the project’s scope among the project’s

stakeholders.

73. The cost of quality includes all of the following except:

1. Buying professional indemnity insurance.

2. The cost of defects and rework caused by failing to achieve requirements.

3. The cost of inspecting and appraising conforming products produced by the

project.

4. Preventing non-conformance to requirements.

74. The responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) shows:

1. The connections between activities and project team members.

2. The delegation of responsibility through the hierarchically organised

management structure.

3. Accountabilities to assist in team performance appraisals.

4. The sequence of activities a named resource is responsible for accomplishing.

75. Which of the following represent a discretionary dependency?

1. Not starting design until all of the approvals have been received.

2. Waiting the specified 72 hours before stripping formwork from a newly poured
concrete slab.

3. Applying a start-to-start link between two tasks in a PDM network.

4. Applying a lag of 4 days between two tasks.

76. Which of the following is not a Project Management Knowledge Area

1. Communications Management

2. Procurement Management

3. Change Control Management

4. Project Integration Management

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77. A project is a _____________ effort undertaken to create a _____________ product or
service.

1. unique, temporary

2. significant, necessary

3. organized, profitable

4. temporary, unique

78. Possible socioeconomic influences on the project include

1. Budgetary considerations

2. Internationalization

3. Activity based costing

4. Matrix organization

79. Based on the life cycle model of the typical project, which stage is expected to
experience the highest resource usage?

1. Initial phase(s)

2. Intermediate phase(s)

3. Closing phase(s)

4. Staffing phase(s)

80. Which is not a facilitating process?

1. Solicitation planning

2. Quality planning

3. Communications planning

4. Resource planning

81. Core processes:

1. Can interact differently with one-another, depending on the nature of the

project

2. Have clear dependencies

3. Must be preformed simultaneously

4. Are managed by the same staff members throughout the project

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82. Which of the following is a tool or technique used in integrated change control

1. Organizational procedures

2. Performance reports

3. Project plan updates

4. Performance measurement

83. The project plan:

1. Is a management control that will change only intermittently and only in

response to an approved scope change

2. Usually includes the work break down structure but not major milestones

3. Is used to manage project execution

4. Includes open issues, but not pending decisions

84. Change control requests:

1. Must be relayed in writing

2. Provide the baseline against which changes will be controlled

3. Are always initiated externally

4. Are inputs to integrated change control

85. _________ is the formal procedure for sanctioning project work to ensure it is done at
the right time.

1. Work-authorization system

2. Organizational procedures

3. Status review

4. Project planning

86. Which of the following is not a tool or technique of project plan execution?

1. PM Information system

2. Change control system

3. Organizational procedures

4. General management skill

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87. Which scope management process creates the WBS?

1. Initiation

2. Scope planning

3. Scope definition

4. Scope verification

88. Project Scope Management is:

1. Used to make sure that all work required, and only the work required, is
included in order to complete the project successfully

2. The features to be included in a product or service

3. Is synonymous with change control management

4. Is conducted primarily by external stakeholders

89. Which of the following is not an output of the initiation process

1. Project charter

2. Constraints

3. Alternatives identification

4. Assignment of the PM

90. The lowest level of the WBS is:

1. Control account

2. Code of accounts

3. Work Package

4. Deliverable

91. Acceptance of work results is crucial to what phase of the scope management
process

1. Initiation

2. Scope planning

3. Scope definition

4. Scope verification

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92. An activity has a optimistic duration estimate of 2 days, a mostly likely estimate of
5 days, and a pessimistic estimate of 8 days. What is the weighted average duration?

1. 4

2. 5

3. 5.2

4. 6

93. Which method does not use boxes or nodes to represent work or activities?

1. PERT

2. PDM

3. ADM

4. GERT

94. Each box is an activity; the number it contains is the duration of the activity in days.
The duration of the critical path is:

1. 16 days

2. 19 days

3. 14 days

4. 20 days

95. A method of shortening the duration of the project is:

1. Lead

2. Creating milestones

3. Fast tracking

4. Leveling

96. Which is a tool or technique of the schedule development process?

1. Resource pool description

2. Supporting detail

3. Duration compression

4. Activity duration estimates

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97. Which type of cost estimate is based on individual activities?

1. Top-down

2. Bottom-up

3. Parametric

4. Analogous

98. Using the chart below, what is the cost variance?

1. – $ 3, 000

2. $ 5,000

3. $ 3,000

4. – $ 2,000

99. Which is not a part of the cost budgeting process?

1. Project Schedule

2. Cost estimates

3. Resource requirements

4. WBS

100. Cost estimating is:

1. Assessing how much the organization will charge for the product or service

2. Assessing how much it will cost the organization to provide the product or
service

3. Establishing a baseline to use in measuring project performance

4. Analyzing positive and negative variances

101. Earned Value is:

1. The amount future value of a present investment

2. The actual hours worked on the project multiplied by the budgeted labor rate

3. Budgeted value of work actually accomplished

4. PV-AC

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102. The future value of $3000 invested for 5 years at 12 interest is:

1. $ 4,702.00

2. $ 4,982.00

3. $ 5,287.00

4. $ 5,394.00

103. Which of the following is not part of the quality assurance process?

1. Operational definitions

2. Quality policy

3. Quality audits

4. Quality improvement

104. A packing process results a product with a mean weight of 8 ounces. The process
has a standard deviation of 0.5 ounce. What percentage of samples will weigh between
7.5 and 8 ounces?

1. 31.74

2. 34.13

3. 68.26

4. 95.46

105. Which of the following is a primary motivational tool of McGregor’s Theory X?

1. Trust

2. Safety

3. Self Esteem

4. Self Actualization

106. Which of the following is not part of a modern quality management concept?

1. Performance standard is zero defects

2. Quality must be inspected in

3. 85% of failures occur because of the process, not the worker

4. Quality is a 4 cycle process – plan/do/check/act

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107. Which of the following is not a considered a failure cost?

1. Rework

2. Training

3. Rejects

4. Scrap

108. A person who is attempting to fulfill the need for safety has already satisfied
which needs?

1. Esteem

2. Self-Actualization

3. Physiological

4. Social

109. Which of the following is an input to the team development process?

1. General management skills

2. Inputs to performance appraisals

3. Staffing pool description

4. External feedback

110. In which organizational structure is the project manager likely to have the most
authority?

1. Functional

2. Weak Matrix

3. Projectized

4. Strong Matrix

111. Which theory specifies money as an important employee motivator?

1. Theory X

2. Theory Y

3. Theory Z

4. Theory Q

CAPM® is a registered mark of the Project Management Institute, Inc.

Invensis® Learning is registered trade mark of Invensis Technologies Pvt Ltd.
112. Dual reporting is most likely to occur in which type of organization?

1. Functional

2. Projectized

3. Matrix

4. Laissez-faire

113. Which of the following is not a part of the information distribution process?

1. Project plan

2. Project records

3. Communication skills

4. Stakeholder analysis

114. Which is the process that involves documenting project results in order to
formalize the acceptance of the product by the sponsor, client, or customer?

1. Information distribution

2. Scope acceptance

3. Performance reporting

4. Administrative closure

115. _________________ specifies to whom information will flow and what method will be
used to distribute various types of information.

1. Collection and filing structure

2. Communications requirements

3. Distribution structure

4. Communications management plan

116. Which of the following is not one of the Risk Management processes?

1. Risk identification

2. Risk quantification

3. Risk assessment

4. Risk response planning

CAPM® is a registered mark of the Project Management Institute, Inc.

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117. Risk response planning is one of the _______________ processes

1. planning core processes

2. planning facilitating processes

3. controlling core processes

4. controlling facilitating processes

118. Using the figure below, what is the probability that the task will be completed on
time and under budget?

1. 12.5 %

2. 16.25 %

3. 25.0 %

4. 90.0 %

119. Using a contractor to perform a high risk task is which form of risk response?

1. Mitigation

2. Acceptance

3. Transference

4. Avoidance

120. The contract type that represents the lowest risk to the buyer is:

1. CPIF

2. FPI

3. FFP

4. CPFF

121. The contract type that represents the greatest risk to the buyer is:

1. CPPC

2. FPI

3. CPIF

4. CPFF

CAPM® is a registered mark of the Project Management Institute, Inc.

Invensis® Learning is registered trade mark of Invensis Technologies Pvt Ltd.
122. Which is a document is not used to solicit proposals from potential buyers?

1. IFQ

2. IFB

3. RFP

4. RFQ

123. Which is not a process of Procurement Management?

1. Solicitation planning

2. Solicitation

3. Solicitation selection

4. Contract administration

124. Meeting with prospective sellers prior to preparation of a proposal is

1. Bidder Negotiations

2. Bidder Auction

3. Bidder Conference

4. Bidder Selection

125. Which is not another term for contract?

1. Agreement

2. Purchase Order

3. Proposal

4. Memorandum of Understanding

Name

E -Mail ID

Contact Number

Date Place

CAPM® is a registered mark of the Project Management Institute, Inc.

Invensis® Learning is registered trade mark of Invensis Technologies Pvt Ltd.
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