FME

Multiple Choice Questions

Subject: Fundamentals of Mechanical Engineering
Subject Code: KME201T
Year: I
Semester: II
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Unit 1

1. Choose the correct statement

(a) Elastic materials have similar properties in all directions
(b) Isotropic materials have similar properties in all directions
(c) Homogeneous materials have similar properties in all directions
(d) None of the above

2. The internal resistive force per unit area offered by material against the deformation
(a) Pressure
(b) Stress
(c) Modulus of elasticity
(d) Strain

3. Choose the correct statement

(a) Stress developed due to external force in an elastic material depends partially on elastic
constants
(b) Stress developed due to external force in an elastic material does not depend on elastic
constant
(c) Stress developed due to external force in an elastic material depends on elastic constants
(d) None of the above

4. Units of longitudinal strain are

(a) mm/m
(b) mm/cm
(c) m/mm
(d) unit less

5. Statement related to Hooke's law

(a) Valid up to elastic limit
(b) Stress strain curve linear
(c) a & b both correct
(d) a & b both incorrect

6.Match the following

(a) Bulk modulus (1) Normal stress / Longitudinal strain
(b) Modulus of rigidity (2) Normal stress / Volumetric strain
(c) Young's modulus (3) Stress / Strain
(d) modulus of elasticity (4) Shear stress / Shear strain

(a) a1-b2-c4-d3
(b) a2-b4-c3-d1
(c) a3-b1-c2-d4
(d) a1-b2-c3-d4

7. Among the options which quantity has the units of modulus of elasticity are the same as of
(a) stress
(b) modulus of rigidity
(c) pressure
(d) any one of the above

8. 1 MPa is equal to
(a) 1 N/m²
(b) 1 N/mm²
(c) 1 kN/m²
(d) 1 kN/mm²

9. Deformation of a bar under its own weight is ----------- deformation due to direct load of half
of a weight of the body applied at the lower end
(a) double
(b) four times
(c) half
(d) equal to

10. If a bar of length 2L m extends by 2l mm under load W, the strain is

(a) 1000 l/L
(b) l/L
(c) 0.001 l/L
(d) none of these
11. Four wires of same material are applied the same load. In which of the following cases, the
elongation will be maximum (length, diameter)?
(a) 2 m, 1 mm
(b) 4 m, 2 mm
(c) 8 m, 4 mm
(d) 12 m, 6 mm

12. Es=3Ea, the stress in steel of a composite bar made of aluminium and steel strips each having
a cross-sectional area of 300 mm and subjected to an axial load of 12 kN is
(a) 10 MPa
(b) 20 MPa
(c) 30 MPa
(d) 40 MPa

13. The ratio of modulus of rigidity to modulus of elasticity for most of the materials is
(a) 0.5
(b)> 0.5
(c) <0.5
(d) > 1

14. Factor of safety is defined as ratio of

(a) ultimate stress to allowable stress
(b) ultimate stress to yield stress
(c) allowable stress to ultimate stress
(d) allowable stress to yield stress

15. The modulus of elasticity in terms of bulk modulus is given by

(a) 3K/(1+2v)
(b) 3K(1+2v)
(c) 3K/(1-2v)
(d) 3K (1-2v)

16. For a Poisson's ratio 0.4 for a material, the ratio of modulus of elasticity to shear modulus of
elasticity is
(a) 14/5
(b) 5/7
(c) 7/5
(d) 5/14
17. The ratio of lateral strain to linear strain is known
(a) modulus of rigidity
(b) elastic limit
(c) Poisson's ratio
(d) modulus of elasticity

18. Match the following

Bending moment Load
(a) Cubic law (1) Uniformly distributed load
(b) Parabolic law (2) No load
(c) Linear law (3) Uniformly Varying load
(d) Horizontal line (4) Point load

(a) a3-b1-c4-d2
(b) a3-b2-c1-d4
(c) a1-b3-c2-d4
(d) a1- b4-c3-d2

19. Maximum bending moment in a cantilever carrying a point load at the free end occurs at the
(a) free end
(b) mid-span
(c) fixed end
(d) Any where

20. Maximum bending moment in a cantilever carrying a uniformly distributed load is

(a) wl2/4
(b) wl2/8
(c) wl3/4
(d) wl2/2

21. Maximum bending moment in a simply supported beam carrying a point load is and at
(a) Wl/2 and mid span
(b) Wl/4 and at mid span
(c) WI/4 and support
(d) Wl/2 and support

22. Maximum bending moment in a simply supported beam carrying a point load W at ‘ a ‘
distance is from one end of the span is l .
(a) Wa(l-a)/l
(b) Wa2/l
(c) Wa(l-a)²/l
(d) Wa(l-a)/l2

23. Which property among the following options of a material allows it to be drawn into a
smaller section is called
(a) Elasticity
(b) Drawing
(c) Ductility
(d) Malleability

24. In tensile test of mild steel, necking starts from

(a) Proportional limit
(b) Plastic limit
(c) Ultimate point
(d) Rupture point

25.In which of the following Beams the supports are not situated at the ends
(a). cantilever beam
(b) simply supported beam
(c). over hanging beam
(d). none of the above

26. In a cantilever beam of length L carrying a load whose intensity varies uniformly from zero
at the free end to w per unit run at the fixed end, the maximum B .M is
(a). wl/3
(b). wl2/3
(c). wl2/6
(d). wl2/24

27.Which one is the correct relation for change in length

(a). PL/AE
(b). AE/PL
(c). PE/AL
(d). PA/LE

28.Total elongation produced in a bar due to its self-weight

(a). WL2/AE
(b). WL2/2AE
(c). WL/AE
(d). WL/2AE
29.Which of the following is/are statically indeterminate beam(s)?
(a) Cantilever beam
(b) Simply supported beam
(c) Continuous beam
(d) None of the above

30. Strength of a material depends upon its

(a) cross-section
(b) type of loading
(C) internal resistance
(d) volume.

31. Strength of a material is a

(a) fixed quantity
(b) variable quantity
(c) changes with time
(d) remains constant all time

32. True stress is based upon:

(a) the original area of cross-section
(b) the final area of cross-section
(c) the average area of cross-section
(d) the instantaneous area of cross-section.

33. Engineering stress is the same as the

(a) true stress
(b) conventional stress
(c) average stress
(d) final stress.

34. True stress in case of tensile test is

(a) equal to the conventional stress
(b) greater than the conventional stress
(c) lesser than the conventional stress
(d) depends upon the type of loading

35. The tensile stress-strain diagram for cast iron shows

(a) a linear relationship up to the point of fracture
(b) a pronounced yield point
(c) no yield point at all
(d) large deformation before fracture.

36. The actual fracture strength of materials is

(a) sometimes less than
(b) always less than
(c) always more than
(d) equal to the ultimate strength

37. If a body is in mechanical equilibrium, which of the following need to be true?

(a) the body must be at rest
(b) the vector sum of all the forces and moments must be zero
(c) the body can be accelerating
(d) all of the above

38. Find the reaction force at due to the uniform loading and the applied couple.

(a) Ra = 5kn
(b) Ma = 3kN-m CW
(c) Ra = 6 kN
(d) Ma = 4kN-m CW

39. Determine the internal shear and moment in the beam as a function of x throughout the beam.
Choose the correct answer(s) from below.
(a) If x is less than 12ft, V = (27-2x) k
(b) If x is less than 12ft, M = (-x² +27x) k.ft
(c) If x lies in between 12 ft and 24ft, V=(-15k)
(d) If x lies in between 12ft and 24ft, M = (-15x +360) kft

40. Consider the loaded simple supported beam. Maximum bending moment Mmax produced in
the beam due to this loading is

(a) Mmax = 5620 N.m

(b) Mmax = 6520 N.m
(c) Mmax = 2810 N.m
(d) Mmax = 1405 N.m

41. Repeat the above problem, where the 1500 N load has been replaced by the 4.2 kN-m couple.
Now the maximum bending moment M due to loading will be

(a) Mmax = 2800 N.m

(b) Mmax = 1400 N.m
(c) Mmax = 2400 N.m
(d) Mmax = 400 N.m

42. A round bar is subjected to an axial tensile load of 100 kN. What must be the diameter “d” if
the stress there is to be 100 MN/m2 ?
(a) 32.61 mm
(b) 24.02 mm
(c) 35.68 mm
(d) 36.42 mm

43. Find out elongation in the above question. E = 290 GPa

(a) 0.0745 mm
(b) 0.0845 mm
(c) 1.245 mm
(d) 0.0645 mm

44.A steel rod has diameter is 2 mm, it pulled by a force of 100 N. Determine the stress?
(a) 31.5X106 N/m2
(b) 13.5X106 N/m2
(c) 21.5X106 N/m2
(d) 15.6X106 N/m2

45. A string 4 mm in diameter has original length 2 m. The string is pulled by a force of 200 N.
If the final length of the spring is 2.02 m, determine: Young’s modulus
(a). 2.6X109 N/m2
(b) 3.6X108 N/m2
(c) 1.6X109 N/m2
(d) 1.6X107 N/m2

46. A brass wire of length 2m has its one end, fixed to rigid support and from the other end a 4
kg wt. is suspended. If the radius of wire is 0.35mm, find the extension produced in the wire.
Take E = 11X1010 N/m2
(a) 0.165 m
(b) 0.185 m
(c) 0.0185m
(d) 0.277m

47. The modulus of elasticity and rigidity of a material are 200 GPa and 80 GPa. The Bulk
modulus is.
(a) 135.36 GPa
(b) 133.33 GPa
(c) 121.35 GPa
(d) 331.33 GPa

48. Find the vertical reaction force at A for the loaded beam shown in figure.

(a) 42.426 KN
(b) 100.20 KN
(c) 91.65 KN
(d) 85.87 KN

49. Find out the horizontal reaction force at B in above beam

(a) 42.426 kN
(b) 42.553 kN
(c) 41.112 kN
(d) 42.880 kN

50. The shear force diagram for the beam shown in figure is

(a)

(b)
(c)

(d)

Answer Key

1 B 11 A 21 B 31 A 41 A

2 B 12 C 22 A 32 D 42 C

3 C 13 C 23 C 33 C 43 A

4 D 14 A 24 C 34 B 44 A

5 A 15 D 25 C 35 C 45 C

6 B 16 A 26 C 36 B 46 B

7 D 17 C 27 A 37 B 47 B

8 B 18 A 28 D 38 C 48 C

9 D 19 C 29 C 39 Abcd 49 B

10 C 20 d 30 B 40 A 50 B
 Unit 2

1. The rpm of a four-stroke engine is 4000. How many power cycle will be completed in one
second?
A. 67
B. 33
C. 77
D. 35

2. The rpm of a two-stroke engine is 2500. How many power cycle will be completed in one
second?
A. 40
B. 41
C. 42
D. 39

3. In I.C. engines scavenging is facilitated to increase

A. Thermal efficiency
B. Speed
C. Power output
D. Fuel consumption

4. The compression ratio of SI engine is 8. What is its air standard efficiency?

A. 40.25%
B. 50.29%
C. 56.46%
D. 37.89%

5. Which of the following part is not concern with compression ignition engine?
A. Fuel pump
B. Fuel injector
C. Governor
D. Carburettor

6. Advantage of reciprocating IC engines over steam turbine is

A. mechanical simplicity
B. improved plant efficiency
C. lower average temperature
D. all of the above

7. Main advantage of a two-stroke engine over four stroke engine is

A. more uniform torque on the crank shaft
B. more power output for the cylinder of same dimensions
C. absence of valves
D. all of the above

8. Main disadvantage of a two-stroke engine over four stroke engine is

A. more uniform torque on the crank shaft
B. More wear and tear of moving parts.
C. absence of valves
D. none of the above

9. A gas engine working on Otto cycle has a cylinder of diameter 200 mm and stroke 250 mm.
The clearance volume is 1570 cc. Find the air standard efficiency. Take  =1.4
A. 53.2%
B. 51.2%
C. 55.5%
D. 49.6%

10. The normal range of compression ratio for Diesel cycle is

A. 4 to 6
B. 6 to 8
C. 15 to 20
D. > 25

11. The air standard Diesel cycle consist of

A. Two constant volume and two isentropic processes
B. Two constant pressure and two isentropic processes
C. Two constant pressure and two constant volume
D. One constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic processes

12. The lubricants commonly used in the automobile is

A. animal oil
B. vegetable oil
C. mineral oil
D. cooking oil

13. The C.O.P of Carnot refrigerator is 2. The ratio of highest temperature to lowest temperature
will be _____
A. 1.5
B. 0.67
C. 0.5
D. 2

14. In comparison to petrol, diesel fuel is

A. Less difficult to ignite
B. Just about the same difficult to ignite
C. More difficult to ignite
D. Highly ignitable

15. The temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when it is not affected by the moisture
present in the air, is called
(A) Wet bulb temperature
(B) Dry bulb temperature
(C) Dew point temperature
(D) None of these

16. During dehumidification process, __________ decreases.

(A) Wet bulb temperature
(B) Relative humidity
(C) Dry bulb temperature
(D) Specific humidity

17. The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of moist air to the mass of water
vapour in the same volume of saturated air at the same temperature and pressure, is called
(A) Humidity ratio
(B) Relative humidity
(C) Absolute humidity
(D) Degree of saturation

18. The condition of refrigerant after passing through the condenser in a vapour compression
system is
(A) Saturated liquid
(B) Wet vapour
(C) Dry saturated vapour
(D) Superheated vapour

19. The efficiency of Carnot heat engine is 40% if it is reversed to work as a refrigerator find its
C.O.P
(A) 2.5
(B) 1.5
(C) 3.5
(D) 0.4

20. The C.O.P of reversible refrigerator is 3.5 .if it works as engine , then its efficiency is
(A) 22.22%
(B) 28.57%
(C) 40%
(D) 33%

21. Which process is taking place in compressor

(A) Isothermal process
(B) Isentropic process
(C) Isenthalpic process
(D) Isobaric process

22. One ton of the refrigeration is

(A) The standard unit used in refrigeration problems
(B) The cooling effect produced by melting 1 ton of ice
(C) The refrigeration effect to freeze 1 ton of water at 0°C into ice at 0°C in 24 hours
(D) The refrigeration effect to produce 1 ton of ice at NTP conditions

23. The dry bulb temperature during sensible heating of air

(A) Remains constant
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these

24. During heating and dehumidification process, dry bulb temperature

(A) Remains constant
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these

25. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is high pressure saturated liquid
(A) After passing through the condenser
(B) Before passing through the condenser
(C) After passing through the expansion or throttle valve
(D) Before entering the expansion valve
26. The coefficient of performance of a domestic refrigerator is ________ as compared to a
domestic air-conditioner.
(A) Same
(B) Less
(C) More
(D) None of these

27. The capacity of a domestic refrigerator is in the range of

(A) 0.1 to 0.3 TR
(B) 1 to 3 TR
(C) 3 to 5 TR
(D) 5 to 7 TR

28. When the temperature of the surrounding is higher than the temperature of the body, then the
heat loss by convection from the body to the surrounding will be
(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) Zero
(D) None of these

29. In a refrigeration system, heat absorbed in comparison to heat rejected is

(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Same
(D) More for small capacity and less for high capacity

30. In a refrigeration system, the expansion device is kept between the

(A) Compressor and condenser
(B) Condenser and receiver
(C) Receiver and evaporator
(D) Evaporator and compressor

31. The vapour compression refrigerator employs the following cycle

(A) Rankine
(B) Carnot
(C) Reversed Rankine
(D) Reversed Carnot

32. Refrigerant is not required to have?

(A) High risibility with oil
(B) Low boiling point
(C) Good electrical conductivity
(D) Large latent heat

33. A machine working on a Carnot cycle operates between 305 K and 260 K. The C.O.P of the
refrigerating machine is
(A) 6.78
(B) 4.76
(C) 5.78
(D) 3.56

34. A machine working on a Carnot cycle operates between 305K and 260K. The C.O.P of the
machine as a heat pump is
A 5.78
B 6.78
C 4.78
D 3.87

35. Following type of compressor is used by domestic refrigerator

(A) Centrifugal
(B) Axial
(C) Miniature sealed unit
(D) Piston type reciprocating

36. Choose the correct statement

(A) During cooling and dehumidification, dry bulb temperature remains constant
(B) During cooling and dehumidification, dry bulb temperature increases
(C) During cooling and dehumidification, dry bulb temperature decreases
(D) None of these

37. Choose the correct statement

(A) The conditioned air supplied to the room must have the capacity to take up room sensible
heat load only
(B) The conditioned air supplied to the room must have the capacity to take up room latent heat
load only
(C) The conditioned air supplied to the room must have the capacity to take up both room
sensible heat and latent heat loads
(D) None of the above

38. Choose the correct statement

(A) The specific humidity during heating and humidification process. remains constant
(B) The specific humidity during heating and humidification process Increases
(C) The specific humidity during heating and humidification process Decreases
(D) None of these

39. The advantage of dry compression is that

(A) It permits higher speeds to be used
(B) It permits complete evaporation in the evaporator
(C) It results in high volumetric and mechanical efficiency
(D) All of the above

40. Answer in True/False.

(1) In parallel HEV, two motors are used.
(2) In ICE heavy series parallel HEV, only mechanical drivetrain is active during normal driving.
(3) In Front electric rear hybrid complex HEV, no battery charging takes place during lights
loads.
(A).1)-True, 2)-True, 3)-False
(B) 1)-True, 2)-False, 3)-False
(C) 1)-False, 2)-False, 3)-True
(D) 1)-False, 2)-True, 3)-True

41. Answer in True/False.

A) In series HEV, battery can be charged at rest.
B) In parallel HEV, both drivetrains are active during normal driving.
C) In Front hybrid rear electric complex HEV, whole system is active in acceleration mode.
1. 1)-True, B)-True, C)-False
2. A)-False, B)-True, C)-False
3. A)-True, B)-False, C)-True
4. A)-False, B)-True, C)-True

42. Answer in True/False.

A) In electric heavy series parallel HEV, battery is not used in normal driving.
B) Parallel HEV has dual axle transmission mechanism.
C) In straight drive, speed of both the motors is same, in dual motor system.
1. A)-True, B)-False, C)-True
2. A)-True, B)-False, C)-False
3. A)-False, B)-False, C)-True
4. A)-False, B)-True, C)-True
43. Find the Relative C.O.P. of a refrigeration system if the work input is 50 KJ/kg and
refrigeration effect produced is 110 KJ/kg of refrigerant flowing. Also Theoretical C.O.P. is 4.
A 0.65
B 1.81
C .55
D 0.89

44. Find the C.O.P. of a refrigeration system if the work input is 45 KJ/kg and refrigeration
effect produced is 110 KJ/kg of refrigerant flowing.
A 0.409
B 2.44
C 3.00
D 0.25

45. Match the following

Column I Column II
P. COMPRESSOR 1. ISOBARIC PROCESS
Q. EVAPORATOR 2. ISENLTHPIC PROCESS
R. EXPANSION VALVE 3. ISENTROPIC PROCESS
S. CONDENSOR 4. ISOTHERMAL PROCESS

A. P4, Q1, R2, S3

B. P4, Q1, R3, S2
C. P3, Q2, R1, S4
D. P3, Q4, R2, S1

46. Match the following

Column I Column II
P. Reversed Carnot cycle 1. SI engine
Q. Otto cycle 2. Refrigerator
R. Carnot cycle 3. CI engine
S. Diesel cycle 4. Heat engine

A. P4, Q1, R2, S3

B. P4, Q1, R3, S2
C. P2, Q1, R4, S3
D. P3, Q4, R2, S1

47. Match the following

 Column I Column II
P. Condensor 1. 2-Stroke engine
Q. Injector 2. Refrigerator
R. Carburettor 3. CI engine
S. Port 4. Petrol engine

A. P4, Q1, R2, S3

B. P2, Q3, R4, S1
C. P2, Q1, R4, S3
D. P3, Q4, R2, S1

48. In order to increase moisture content in air which one is used in winter air conditioner
A. cooling coil
B. filter
C. wet cloth strip
D. hygroscopic material

49. To obtain dehumidification, the cooling coil is required to be operated at temperatures

A much above the dew point temperature
B. below the dew point temperature
C. at the dew point temperature
D. slightly above the dew point temperature

50. The C.O.P of refrigerator can be increased by

A. increasing the condenser temperature keeping evaporator temperature constant
B. decreasing the evaporator temperature keeping condenser temperature constant
C. increasing both condenser and evaporator temperature
D. increasing the evaporator temperature keeping condenser temperature constant

Answer Key
1 B 11 D 21 B 31 D 41 3
2 C 12 C 22 C 32 C 42 1
3 C 13 A 23 B 33 C 43 C
4 C 14 C 24 B 34 B 44 B
5 D 15 B 25 D 35 D 45 D
6 D 16 B 26 B 36 C 46 C
7 D 17 B 27 A 37 C 47 B
8 B 18 A 28 B 38 B 48 C
9 B 19 B 29 B 39 D 49 B
10 C 20 A 30 C 40 D 50 D
 Unit 3
1. The reciprocal of the specific volume of a liquid is
a) weight density
b) mass density
c) specific weight
d) specific volume

2. Two fluids a and b have mass densities of pa and pb respectively. If pa > pb, which one of the
following expressions will represent the relation between their specific volumes va and vb?
a) va > vb
b) va < vb
c) va = vb
d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient information.

3. A beaker is filled with a liquid up to the mark of one litre and weighed. The weight of the
liquid is found to be 6.5 N. The specific weight, specific gravity and specific volume of the
liquid will be
a) 6.5 kN/m3, 0.66 and 1.5 l/kg
b) 4.5 kN/m3, 0.68 and 2.5 l/kg
c) 6 kN/m3, 0.55 and 2 l/kg
d) 7:5 kN/m3, 0.76 and 1.75 l/kg

4. Which one of the units does not represent dynamic viscosity?

a) Pa-s
b) N-s/m2
c) Poise
d) Stokes

5. The dynamic viscosity of a fluid is 1 Poise. What should one multiply to it to get the answer in
N-s/m2?
a) 0.1
b) 1
c) 10
d) 100

6. The space between two plates (20cm*20cm*1cm), 1 cm apart, is filled with a liquid of
viscosity 1 Poise. The upper plate is dragged to the right with a force of 5 N keeping the lower
plate stationary.
What will be the velocity in m/s of flow at a point 0.5 cm below the lower surface of the upper
plate if linear velocity profile is assumed for the flow?
a) 1.25
b) 2.5
c) 12.5
d) 0.25

7. Which of the following statement is correct about the viscosities of a liquid and a gas will
change with temperature?
a) Viscosity increases with the increase in temperature of a liquid and decreases with the increase
in temperature of a gas
b) Viscosity increases with the increase in temperature of a liquid and increases with the increase
in temperature of a gas
c) Viscosity decreases with the increase in temperature of a liquid and decreases with the
increase in temperature of a gas
d) Viscosity decreases with the increase in temperature of a liquid and increases with the
increase in temperature of a gas

8. The kinematic viscosity of oil of specific gravity .8 is .0007 m/s2. This oil is used for
lubrication of shaft of diameter .4 m and rotates at 190 rpm. Calculate the power lost in the
bearing for a sleeve length of 90 mm. The thickness of the oil film is 1.5 mm.
a) 668.19 Watts
b) 477.65 Watts
c) 238.83 Watts
d) None of the mentioned

9. The velocity distribution for fluid flow over a flat plate is given by u=2y-6y2 in which u is the
velocity in meter per second at a distance of y meter above the plate. Determine the shear stress
at y = 0. 13 m. Take dynamic viscosity of fluid as 8.6 poise.
a) 0.378 N/m2
b) 0.172 N/m2
c) 0.086 N/m2
d) None of the mentioned

10. What is the characteristic variation shown by the thixotropic fluids in their shear stress vs.
rate of shear strain graph?
a) shear stress increases with increase in rate of shear strain
b) shear stress decreases with increase in rate of shear strain
c) shear stress shows variation only after a definite shear stress is reached
d) shear stress has decreasing constant and then variation relationship with rate of shear strain

11. Two pipes of diameters d1 and d2 converge to form a pipe of diameter d. If the liquid flows
with a velocity of v1 and v2 in the two pipes, what will be the flow velocity in the third pipe?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

12. Figure shows a oil supply system, oil flows in from pipes 1 and 2 and goes out from pipes 3
and 4 as shown. If all the pipes have the same diameter, which of the following must be correct?

a) the sum of the flow velocities in 1 and 2 is equal to that in 3 and 4

b) the sum of the flow velocities in 1 and 3 is equal to that in 2 and 4
c) the sum of the flow velocities in 1 and 4 is equal to that in 2 and 3
d) the flow velocities in 1 and 2 is equal to that in 3 and 4
13. Pressure changes when entered in to turbine. Which kind of turbines it is?
a) Reaction turbines
b) Impulse turbines
c) Reactive turbines
d) Kinetic turbines

14. Velocity changes when entered in to turbine. Which kind of turbines it is?
a) Kinetic turbines
b) Axial flow turbines
c) Impulse turbines
d) Reaction turbines

15. Which type of electric power obtained from the energy of the water.
a) Roto dynamic power
b) Thermal power
c) Nuclear power
d) Hydroelectric power

16. In a reaction turbine overall efficiency is defined as

a) Actual work available at the turbine to the energy imparted to the wheel
b) Work done on the wheel to the energy (or head of water) actually supplied to the turbine
c) Power produced by the turbine to the energy actually supplied by the turbine
d) Actual work available at the turbine to energy imparted to the wheel

17. Which type of turbine is Pelton Wheel turbine?

a) Tangential flow turbine.
b) Radial flow turbine
c) Outward flow turbine
d) Inward flow turbine

18. Which type of efficiency is defined as ratio between power delivered to runner and power
supplied at inlet of turbine.
a) Mechanical efficiency
b) Volumetric efficiency
c) Hydraulic efficiency
d) Overall efficiency

19. For what type of flow Bernoulli equation is derived

a) irrotational flow
b) inviscid, incompressible flow
c) viscous flow
d) compressible flow

20. Which type of energy is converted in Centrifugal pumps

a) Kinetic energy to hydrodynamic energy
b) Hydrodynamic energy to kinetic energy
c) Mechanical energy to kinetic energy
d) Mechanical energy to Hydrodynamic energy

21.Centrifugal pumps are used to ________

a) Transfer speed
b) Transfer pressure
c) Transfer temperature
d) Transfer energy

22. Gear pumps are mainly used in chemical installations because they pump ________
a) High viscosity fluids
b) High density fluids
c) High pressure fluids
d) High temperature fluids

23. When passing through the impeller fluid gains

a) Velocity
b) Pressure
c) Temperature
d) Velocity and pressure

24. The velocity imparted by the impeller is converted into _________

a) Pressure energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Momentum
d) Potential energy

25. What is a major advantage of centrifugal pump?

a) Cost
b) Simple in construction
c) Efficiency
d) Pump parameters
26. Among following options which type of pump is Reciprocating pump
a) Negative displacement pump
b) Positive displacement pump
c) Diaphragm pump
d) Emulsion pump

27. When compared to centrifugal pumps, reciprocating pumps has ____ efficiency
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Equal
d) Exponential

28. When both the sources are effective it is called as __________

a) Double acting pump
b) Single acting pump
c) Triple acting pump
d) Normal pump

29. Name the type of reservoir which stores the liquid under pressure
a) Hydraulic accumulator
b) Hydraulic crane
c) Hydraulic gear
d) Hydraulic pump

30. In a hydraulic lift ______ is fixed on the crown of the sliding ram where the carried load is
located.
a) Cage
b) Wire rope
c) Pulleys
d) Jiggers

31. The two types of pulleys in a hydraulic lift are ______ and ______
a) fixed, fixed
b) movable, fixed
c) movable, movable
d) semi-movable, movable

32. For an inviscid, incompressible flow the relation between pressure and velocity is given by
__________
a) p = constant
b) p + 0.5ρ*V2= constant
c) 0.5ρ*V2 = 0
d) p + 0.5ρ*V2 = 0

33. Bernoulli’s principle is derived from which of the following?

a) Conservation of mass
b) Conservation of energy
c) Newton’s law of motion
d) Conservation of momentum

34. For a Newtonian fluid stress strain relationship is

a) Parabolic
b) Hyperbolic
c) Linear
d) Inverse type

35. Water is flowing in a fire hose with a velocity of 1.0 m/s and a pressure of 200000 Pa. At the
nozzle the pressure decreases to atmospheric pressure (101300 Pa), there is no change in height.
Use the Bernoulli equation to calculate the velocity of the water exiting the nozzle.
a) 12m/s
b) 15 m/s
c) 14 m/s
d) 16 m/s

36. Through a refinery, fuel ethanol is flowing in a pipe at a velocity of 1 m/s and a pressure of
101300 Pa. The refinery needs the ethanol to be at a pressure of 2 atm (202600 Pa) on a lower
level. How far must the pipe drop in height in order to achieve this pressure? Assume the
velocity does not change. (Hint: Use the Bernoulli equation. The density of ethanol is 789 kg/m3
and gravity g is 9.8 m/s2.
a) 13.1 meter upper.
b) 13.1 meter lower.
c) 15.1 meter lower.
d) 15.1 meter upper.

37. Among the following options which is a shear-thinning fluid?

a) Bingham plastic
b) Rheopectic
c) Dilatant
d) Pseudoplastic
38. Among the following options which is a shear-thickening fluid?
a) Bingham plastic
b) Thixotropic
c) Dilatant
d) Pseudoplastic

39. The principle of Orificemeter is same as that of Venturimeter.

a) True
b) False

40. The Orificemeter readings are more accurate than Venturimeter.

a) True
b) False

41. Name the Pipes which are of largest diameter which carry water from reservoir to the
a) Head stock
b) Tail race
c) Tail stock
d) Pen stock

42. Among the following options which is the correct formula for absolute pressure?
a) Pabs = Patm– Pgauge
b) Pabs = Pvacuum – Patm
c) Pabs = Pvacuum + Patm
d) Pabs = Patm + Pgauge

43. Among the following options which one represent the total head of turbines
a) Pressure head + Static head
b) Kinetic head + Static head
c) Static head + Pressure head
d) Pressure head + Kinetic head + Static head

44. Among the following options which one represent difference between head race and tail race
a) Gross head
b) Net head
c) Net positive suction head
d) Manometric head

45. Hydraulic Turbines are based on which principle?

a) Faraday law
b) Newton’s second law
c) Charles law
d) Braggs law

46. What rotates due to the arrangement of hydraulic jigger

a) Fixed cylinder
b) Sliding contact
c) Fluid
d) Pulley

47. Oil flows between two plates of which the upper one is stationary and the lower one is
moving with a velocity P. What will be the velocity of the fluid in contact with the upper plate?
a) P
b) P ⁄ 2
c) 2P
d) 0

48. In liquids in order to measure the viscosity of fluid experimentally we consider the variation
of shear stress with respect to what property?
a) strain
b) shear strain
c) rate of shear strain
d) none of the mentioned

49. Three fluids a, b and c have Bulk Moduli of ka, kb and kc respectively. If ka > kb > kc,
which liquid will have the highest compressibility?
a) liquid a
b) liquid b
c) liquid c
d) they will have equal compressibility

50. Two pipes of diameters da and db converge to form a pipe of diameter 2d. If the liquid flows
with a velocity of va and vb in the two pipes, what will be the flow velocity in the third pipe?
a) va + vb
b) va + vb /2
c) va + vb /4
d) 2(va + vb)

Answer Key
1 B 11 D 21 D 31 B 41 D
2 B 12 A 22 A 32 B 42 D
3 A 13 A 23 D 33 B 43 D
4 D 14 C 24 A 34 C 44 A
5 A 15 D 25 B 35 C 45 B
6 C 16 A 26 B 36 B 46 D
7 A 17 A 27 B 37 D 47 D
8 A 18 C 28 A 38 C 48 C
9 A 19 B 29 A 39 A 49 C
10 C 20 A 30 A 40 B 50 C
 Unit 4
1. In measurement and metrology mode refers to
a) Accuracy
b) Precision
c) Standard
d) Sensitivity

2. Static error of measurement is

a) True value – Measured value
b) Precision – True value
c) Measured value – Precision
d) None of the above

3. The ability by which a measuring device can detect small differences in the quantity being
measured by it, is called its
a) Damping
b) Sensitivity
c) Accuracy
d) None of the above

4. Systematic errors are

a) Randomly distributed
b) Regularly repetitive in nature
c) Distributed on both + ve and - ve sides of mean value
d) Unknown errors

5. To compare a measurand (quantity to be measured) with a standard through a calibrated

system is called
a) Direct comparison
b) Indirect comparison
c) both ‘a’ and ‘b’
d) None of the above

6. Internationally recognized and accepted unit system is.

a) MKS, FPS, SI
b) FPS, MKS
c) SI
d) both a & b

7. Most common high-accuracy metal used in resistance thermometers is.

(a) rhodium, nickel, platinum
(b) nickel, platinum
(c) iridium, platinum
(d) platinum
8. A line standard of measurement
a) Measuring tape
b) Slip gauge
c) Micrometer
d) End bars

9. For monochromatic condition, an optical pyrometer is provided with a

(a) radiation filter
(b) blue filter
(c) absorption filter
(d) red filter

10. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) When radiation intensity falls, the wavelength increases.
(b) When radiation intensity falls, the wavelength decreases.
(c) When radiation intensity falls, the wavelength remains the same.
(d) No relationship exists between the wavelength and radiation intensity.

11. The conduct of an instrument under different conditions of input with time is known as
(a) loading effect
(b) dynamic response
(c) hysteresis
(d) linearity

12. ‘Interchangeability’ is normally employed for

a) Mass production
b) Production of identical parts
c) Parts within the prescribed limits of sizes
d) All of the above

13. Which is theoretical size for both the parts of a mating pair
a) Normal size
b) Actual size
c) Basic size
d) All of the above

14. _____ is the differences of the two limits of size of the part
a) Tolerance
b) Low limit
c) High limit
d) Design size

15. In an assembly, the size of a shaft is less than the size of mating hole is
a) Clearance
b) Interference
c) Allowance
d) None of the above

16. Which of the following is true for the calibration of instruments?

a) In casting and fabrication shops the measurements made are of more precise nature as
compared to those made in machine shop and tool room
b) Periodical calibration is made for optical measuring instruments
c) There is no need of periodic calibration in universal microscope
d) Preventive maintenance is not necessary for optical measuring instruments

17. In an interchangeable assembly, shafts of size mm mate with

holes of size . The maximum interference (in microns) in the

assembly is
a) 40
b) 30
c) 20
d) 10

18. A shaft has a dimension, The respective values of fundamental

deviation and tolerance are,

a) 0.025, ± 0.008
b) 0.025, 0.017
c) 0.008, ±0.008
d) 0.008, 0.017

19. A hole is specified as . The mating shaft has a clearance fit with
minimum clearance of 0.01 mm. The tolerance on the shaft is 0.04 mm. The maximum clearance
in mm between the hole and the shaft is.

(a) 0.04 mm
(b )0.05 mm
(c) 0.10 mm
(d) 0.11 mm

20. Which statement is correct

(i) A shaft whose upper deviation is zero is a shaft basic system
(ii) A hole whose lower deviation is zero is hole basic system
(iii) A shaft whose lower deviation is zero is a shaft basic system
(iv) A hole whose upper deviation is zero is hole basic system

(a) (i) & (ii)

(b) (i) & (iii)
(c) (ii) & (iv)
(d) (ii) & (iii)
21. The degree of tightness and looseness between two mating parts is
(a) Limits
(b) Fits
(c) Tolerances
(d) Allowances

22. Match the following

(i) Clearance fit (p) Hole = Shaft
(ii) Interference fit (q) Hole > Shaft
(iii) Transition fit (r) Shaft > Hole

(a) (i)-p, (ii)-q (iii)-r

(b) (i)-r, (ii)-p (iii)-p
(c) (i)-q, (ii)-p (iii)-r
(d) None of the above

23. Which statement is incorrect

(a) Maximum clearance is the difference between the minimum size of the hole and the
maximum size of the shaft
(b) Minimum clearance is the difference between the minimum size of the hole and the
maximum size of the shaft
(c) Maximum clearance is the difference between the maximum size of the hole and the
minimum size of the shaft
(d) Maximum interference is the difference between the maximum size of the shaft and the
minimum size of the hole

is the example of
(a) Bilateral tolerance
(b) Unilateral tolerance
(c) option (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

25 ±0.05 is the example of

(a) Bilateral tolerance
(b) Unilateral tolerance
(c) option (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
26. Which statement is not correct
(a) Tolerance may be positive or negative
(b) Tolerance is the permissible variation in dimension of a part (either a hole or a shaft)
(c) Allowances is to be provided on the dimension of mating parts to obtain desired type of fit
(d) Tolerance has absolute value without sign

27. Which statement is correct

(a) Go limit gauge is applied for minimum material limit
(b) No go limit gauge is applied for maximum material limit
(c) Plug gauge is used to check accuracy of the shaft
(d) Not-go plug corresponds to high limit of the hole

28. What is Taylor’s principle of gauge design

(a) “GO” gauge should always be so designed that it will cover the maximum metal condition,
whereas a “NOT-GO” gauge will cover the minimum metal condition
(b) “GO” gauge should always be so designed that it will cover the minimum clearance, whereas
a “NOT-GO” gauge will cover the maximum clearance condition
(c) option (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

29. Which is not the dynamic pressure measurement device

(a) diaphragm
(b) bellows
(c) manometer
(d) bourdon tube

30. LVDT is the type of measurement

(a) Primary measurement
(b) Secondary measurement
(c) Tertiary measurement
(d) None of the above

31. Bourdon tube is used to measure

(a) Temperature
(b) Pressure
(c) Strain
(d) Force

32.
Match the following

Thermometer Thermometric property

1. Constant volume gas thermometer a. Length

2. Constant pressure thermometer b. Volume

3. Thermocouple c. Pressure

4. Mercury in glass d. Thermal emf

(a) 1-(a), 2-(b), 3-(c), 4-(d)

(b) 1-(b), 2-(c), 3-(a), 4-(d)
(c) 1-(c), 2-(b), 3-(d), 4-(a)
(d) 1-(c), 2-(b), 3-(a), 4-(d)

33. Which statement is not correct

(a) When the current passing through the filament is very low the radiation emitted by the
filament of a lesser intensity than that of source and filament appears dark against a bright
background
(b) When the current passing through the filament is exact, the intensity of the radiation emitted
by the filament is equal to that of the source and hence the filament disappears into the
background
(c) When the current passing through the filament is very high, the radiation emitted by the
filament is of higher intensity than that of the source and the filament appears brighter than the
background
(d) When the current passing through the filament is very high, the radiation emitted by the
filament is of lower intensity than that of the source and the filament appears brighter than the
background

34. In case of clearance fit, Allowance is

(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) None of the above

35. In case of Interference fit, Allowances is

(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) Option (a) and (b)
36. In case of transition fit, Allowances is
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) None of the above

37. Resolution of an instrument is specified as

(a) Absolute value
(b) Percentage of full-scale deflection
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) None of these

38. In an open loop control system

(a) Output is independent of control input
(b) Output is dependent on control input
(c) Only system parameters have effect on the control output
(d) None of the above

39. A control system in which the control action is somehow dependent on the output is known as
(a) Closed loop system
(b) Semi closed loop system
(c) Open system
(d) None of the above

40. In closed loop control system, with positive value of feedback gain the overall gain of the
system will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) be unaffected
(d) any of the above

41. Which principle is used to measure the torque from the rotating shaft in torsion-bar
dynamometer,
(a) recording tape is used
(b) load cell is used
(c) stroboscopic effect used with opto-electrical transducer
(d) microscopic effect

42. Which of the following statements is not necessarily correct for open control system?
(a) Input command is the sole factor responsible for providing the control action
(b) Presence of non-linearities causes malfunctioning
(c) Less expensive
(d) Generally free from problems of non-linearities
43. What do you call an elastic member that is used in conjunction with a strain gauge.
(a) absorption type dynamometer
(b) proving ring
(c) bonded resistance strain gauge
(d) load cell

44. A good control system has all the following features except
(a) good stability
(b) slow response
(c) good accuracy
(d) sufficient power handling capacity

45. A car is moving at a constant speed of 50 km/h, which of the following is the feedback
element for the driver?
(a) Clutch
(b) Eyes
(c) Needle of the speedometer
(d) Steering wheel

46. Which of the following is true about the Prony brake dynamometer,
(a) mechanical energy is converted into heat energy
(b) no energy conversion take place
(c) electrical energy is converted into torque
(d) mechanical energy is converted into electrical energy

47. What is/are reason(s) for strain gauges that we cannot use them at elevated temperatures
(a) a problem with gauge factor because resistivity changes
(b) gauge welding not done properly
(c) inferior strain gauge materials
(d) decomposition of adhesive materials

48. Semiconductors used for temperature measurement are called

(a) thermistors
(b) thermopiles
(c) resistance temperature detectors
(d) pyrometers

49. Gauge pressure is measured

(a) above the local atmospheric pressure
(b) below the local atmospheric pressure
(c) above the zero-absolute pressure
(d) below the zero-absolute pressure

50. Which of the following devices works on the principle of mutual inductance?
(a) Potentiometer
(b) Rheostat
(c) Piezoelectric crystal
(d) LVDT

Answer Key:
1 A 11 B 21 B 31 B 41 C
2 A 12 D 22 D 32 C 42 B
3 B 13 C 23 A 33 D 43 D
4 B 14 A 24 B 34 A 44 B
5 B 15 A 25 A 35 B 45 C
6 C 16 B 26 A 36 C 46 A
7 D 17 B 27 D 37 C 47 D
8 A 18 D 28 C 38 A 48 A
9 D 19 D 29 C 39 B 49 A
10 A 20 A 30 C 40 A 50 D
 Unit 5
1. Transducers are used to:
a) convert energy from one form to another
b) convert work to power
c) convert work from one form to another
d) convert power from one form to another

2. Piezoelectric transducer are used to convert

a) electrical energy to mechanical energy
b) mechanical energy to electrical energy
c) sound energy to mechanical energy
d) mechanical energy to sound energy

3. Pirani Gauge are used to measure

a) Mechanical transducer
b) Temperature transducer
c) Light transducer
d) Pressure transducer

4. LVDT stands for

a) Linear variable differential temperature
b) Linear variable differential transformer
c) Liquid visible differential transformer
d) Liquified visible differential transformer

5. Hall effect transducers are used to measure

a) Electric flux
b) Electric Field
c) Temperature
d) Magnetic field

6. Objects can be sensed by an Eddy current type displacement sensor:

a) Wooden Objects
b) Metal Objects
c) Plastic Objects
d) Bricks

7. Sensor having least accuracy to measure the displacement is

a) Optical Type
b) Eddy Current Type
c) Ultrasonic Type
d) Laser Focus Type

8. Potentiometric position sensor works on the

a) Resistive Effect
b) Hall Effect
c) Mutual Inductance
d) Eddy current effect

9. Proximity position sensor is

a) contact type
b) non-contact type
c) eddy current type
d) resistive type

10. In mechatronics application rotary motion can be provided by

(1) gear-motor type
(2) rack and pinion type system
(3) 3 phase induction motor

(a) 1 & 2
(b) 1 & 3
(c) 1, 2 & 3
(d) 2 & 3

11. DAS is used for (data acquisition system)?

a) Storing data
b) Converting analog to digital data
c) Converting digital to analog data
d) Processing the data

12. What can be said accurately about this diagram

(a) Linear single-rod single acting
(b) Linear single-rod double acting
(c) Linear rodless double acting
(d) Linear double-rod double acting

13. Electronically controlled automatic transmission is mainly used to

(a) Eliminates gear clutches
(b) Eliminates the gear shaft lever
(c) Reduces the number of automatic transmission components
(d) Reduces shift shock and achieves more efficient transmission of engine torque

14. Gears are used to convert rotary motion into translatory motion is called
a) Spur gear
b) Rack and pinion
c) Helical gear
d) Internal gear

15. What is true about the valve

(1) it is an actuator
(2) controls the rate of flow of air into the chamber
(3) electromechanical device

(a) 1 & 2
(b) 1 & 3
(c) 1, 2 & 3
(d) 2 & 3

16. Type of thermistor in which temperature increases with resistance is called

(a) NTC Thermistor
(b) PTC Thermistor
(c) None of these
(d) Any of these

17. Which is the first aspect which needs to be considered in the Mechatronics design process?
a) Hardware integration and simulation
b) Conceptual design
c) Mathematical modeling
d) Modeling and simulation

18. The example of the first level of integration of Mechatronics system is

a) Fluid valves
b) Automatic machine tools
c) Industrial robots
d) Microprocessors

19. The following main dynamic characteristic(s) is usually considered in Mechatronics

application of sensors.
(a) Response time
(b) Rise time
(c) Time constant
(d) All of the above

20. While comparing hydraulic and pneumatic actuating system, what is true
(1) The stiffness or impedance, of the pneumatic system can be controlled more easily than with
hydraulic counterpart
(2) A pneumatic system does not allow easy energy storage
(3) Pneumatic systems have low weight and leakage coefficient.

(a) only 1
(b) 1 & 2
(c) 1, 2 & 3
(d) 1 & 3

21. What is true regarding this diagram

(a) 4/2 valve

(b) 4/3 valve
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) none of the above

22. Select the instrument which is not the transducer:

(a) Analogue voltmeter
(b) Thermocouple
(c) Photo electric cell
(d) Pneumatic cylinder
23. Object grasping and obstacle avoidance can be sensed by
(a) Hall Effect sensor
(b) Proximity sensor
(c) Light sensor
(d) Optical sensors

24. The detector used in Optical sensor is

(a) Light emitting diode
(b) Photo diode
(c) Transistor
(d) All of the above

25. Second level in the mechatronics system design are used to

(a) Integrate microelectronics into electrically controlled devices
(b) Integrate electrical signal with mechanical action
(c) Advanced control strategy level
(d) Provide artificial intelligence

26. The application of microprocessor based electrical motors is for

a) Prediction of fault in the system
b) Correction before a fault occurs
c) Actuation purpose in robots
d) Providing intelligence

27. Hardware designing is used for which phase of mechatronics system

a) Prototyping
b) Modeling
c) Simulation
d) Deployment

28. Which sensor is used in hazardous regions?

(a) Capacitive sensor
(b) Pressure sensors
(c) Namur sensor
(d) Color sensors

29. What are the advantages of encoder?

(a) High resolution
(b) High reliability and accuracy
(c) Integration between optical and digital technology
(d) All of the Above

30. Which of the following is not a part of avionic systems?

(a) Flight Recorder
(b) Weather Radars
(c) Communication systems
(d) Empennage

31. The quantity can be measured by Potentiometer transducer is

(a) Pressure
(b) Displacement
(c) Humidity
(d) Both (a) and (b)

32. Constantan is used for measurement of dynamic strains. It is an alloy of

(a) Copper and Aluminium
(b) Nickel and molybdenum
(c) Nickel and chromium
(d) Copper and nickel

33. Strain gauge is

(a). Active device and converts mechanical displacement into a change of resistance
(b). Passive device and converts electrical displacement into a change of resistance
(c). Passive device and converts mechanical displacement into a change of resistance
(d). Active device and converts electrical displacement into a change of resistance

34. Thermistor is a transducer. Its temperature coefficient is

(a). Negative
(b). Positive
(c). Zero
(d). None of these

35. Quaternary joint in kinematic chain is an example of

a) one binary joint
b) two binary joints
c) three binary joints
d) four binary joints

36. Links in steam engine is associated with

a) piston, piston rod and cross-head
b) connecting rod with big and small end brasses, caps and bolts
c) crank pin, crankshaft and flywheel
d) all of the mentioned

37. The assembly of following number of links is called mechanism.

a) two links
b) three links
c) four or more than four links
d) all of the mentioned

38. By fixing one of the links of chain, it becomes

a) structure
b) mechanism
c) inversion
d) machine

39.Four links mechanism is

a) simple mechanism
b) compound mechanism
c) inversion mechanism
d) none of the mentioned

40. The application of altimeter is to shows the aircraft’s __________

a) Altitude
b) Airspeed
c) True speed
d) Mach speed

41. The gears are used to connect two parallel shafts.

1) Spur gear
2) Helical gear
3) Double helical gears
4) Bevel gears

a) only 1
b) 2 & 3
c) 1, 2, & 3
d) only 4

42. Which gear converts the translation motion to rotary motion and vice versa
a) Worm and worm wheel
b) Rack and pinion
c) Helical gear
d) Bevel gear

43. Consider two meshed gear wheels A and B. If there are 40 teeth on wheel A and 80 teeth on
wheel B, then gear ratio is.
a) 2
b) 0.5
c) 1
d) 4

44. What is the purpose of pawl, when it is used against a ratchet which is attached to a shaft?
a) It allows unidirectional motion of shaft
b) It allows bidirectional motion of shaft
c) It does not allow motion of shaft
d) It is used to create additional friction force for the shaft

45. What is/ are correct about equal pull and push actuators
(a) Linear rodless double acting
(b) Linear double-rod double acting
(c) both a & b
(d) none of thE above

46. The belt slip occurs due to

a) Heavy load
b) Loose belt
c) Driving pulley too small
d) Any one of the above

47. Which type of motion is transmitted by hydraulic actuators?

a) Linear motion
b) Rotary motion
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

48. Which of the following are functions of bearings?

a) Ensure free rotation of shaft with minimum friction
b) Holding shaft in a correct position
c) Transmit the force of the shaft to the frame
d) All of the listed

49. This diagram is related to

(a) water raised from reciprocating pump to tank and vice versa
(b) a directional control valve
(c) a mechatronics system
(d) both (b) & (c)

50. What is the correct sequence related to evolution of mechatronics?

(1) Information revolution
(2) Industrial revolution
(3) Semiconductor revolution

(a) 1-2-3
(b) 3-2-1
(c) 2-3-1
(d) 1-3-2

Answer Key:

1 A 11 B 21 B 31 D 41 C
2 B 12 B 22 A 32 D 42 B
3 D 13 D 23 B 33 C 43 A
4 B 14 B 24 B 34 A 44 A
5 D 15 C 25 A 35 C 45 C
6 B 16 B 26 C 36 D 46 D
7 C 17 D 27 A 37 C 47 C
8 A 18 A 28 C 38 B 48 D
9 B 19 D 29 D 39 A 49 D
10 A 20 D 30 D 40 A 50 C