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in
Fundamental of Mechanical Engineering & Mechatronics
FUNDAMENTAL OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERING &
MCQs
MECHATRONICS

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

UNIT-1

Strain

1. The dimension of strain is?

a) LT-2
b) N/m2
c) N
d) Dimensionless
Answer: d

2. What is tensile strain?

a) The ratio of change in length to the original length
b) The ratio of original length to the change in length
c) The ratio of tensile force to the change in length
d) The ratio of change in length to the tensile force applied
Answer: a

3. Find the strain of a brass rod of length 250mm which is subjected to a tensile load of
50kN when the extension of rod is equal to 0.3mm?
a) 0.025
b) 0.0012
c) 0.0046
d) 0.0014
Answer: b

4. Find the elongation of an steel rod of 100mm length when it is subjected to a tensile
strain of 0.005?
a) 0.2mm
b) 0.3mm
c) 0.5mm
d) 0.1mm
Answer: c.

5. A tensile test was conducted on a mild steel bar. The diameter and the gauge length of
bat was 3cm and 20cm respectively. The extension was 0.21mm. What is the value to
strain?
a) 0.0010
b) 0.00105
c) 0.0105
d) 0.005
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Answer: b

6. i) Strain is a fundamental behaviour of a material.

ii) Strain does not have a unit.
a) Both i and ii are true and ii is the correct explanation of i
b) Both i and ii ate true but ii is not the correct explanation of i
c) i is true but ii is false
d) ii is true but i is false
Answer: b

7. A tensile test was conducted on a steel bar. The gauge length of the bar was 10cm and
the extension was 2mm. What will be the percentage elongation?
a) 0.002
b) 0.02
c) 0.2
d) 2
Answer: d

8. The lateral strain is ___________

a) The ratio of axial deformation to the original length
b) The ratio of deformation in area to the original area
c) The strain at right angles to the direction of applied load
d) The ratio of length of body to the tensile force applied on it
Answer: c

9. The unit of force in S.I. units is ?

a) Kilogram
b) Newton
c) Watt
d) Dyne
Answer: b

10. Which of the following is not the unit of distance?

a) Angstrom
b) Light year
c) Micron
d) Milestone
Answer: d

11. A solid cube is subjected to equal normal forces on all its faces. The volumetric strain
will be x-times the linear strain in any of the three axes when?
a) X=1
b) X=2
c) X=3
d) X=4
Answer: c
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12. A rod 200cm long is subjected to an axial pull due to which it elongates about 2mm.
Calculate the amount of strain?
a) 0.001
b) 0.01
c) 0.02
d) 0.002
Answer: a

13. Some structural members subjected to a long time sustained loads deform
progressively with time especially at elevated temperatures. What is such a phenomenon
called?
a) Fatigue
b) Creep
c) Creep relaxation
d) Fracture
Answer: b

14. Find the strain of a brass rod of length 100mm which is subjected to a tensile load of
50kN when the extension of rod is equal to 0.1mm?
a) 0.01
b) 0.001
c) 0.05
d) 0.005
Answer: b

Normal & Shear Stress

1. In the given figure a stepped column carries loads. What will be the maximum normal
stress in the column at B in the larger diameter column if the ratio of P/A here is unity?
a) 1/1.5
b) 1
c) 2/1.5
d) 2
Answer: c
Explanation: Normal stress at B = Total load acting at B / Area of a cross-section at B
= (P + P) / 1.5 A = 2P/ 1.5A = 2/1.5.
2. The stress which acts in a direction perpendicular to the area is called ____________
a) Shear stress
b) Normal stress
c) Thermal stress
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Normal stress acts in a direction perpendicular to the area. Normal stress is
of two types tensile and compressive stress.
3. Which of these are types of normal stresses?
a) Tensile and compressive stresses
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b) Tensile and thermal stresses

c) Shear and bending
d) Compressive and plane stresses
Answer: a
Explanation: The normal stress is divided into tensile stress and compressive stress.
4. In a body loaded under plane stress conditions, what is the number of independent
stress components?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
Answer: c
Explanation: In a body loaded under plane stress conditions, the number of independent
stress components is 3 I.e. two normal components and one shear component.
5. If a bar of large length when held vertically and subjected to a load at its lower end, its
won-weight produces additional stress. The maximum stress will be ____________
a) At the lower cross-section
b) At the built-in upper cross-section
c) At the central cross-section
d) At every point of the bar
Answer: b
Explanation: The stress is the load per unit area. After the addition of weight in the bar
due to its loading on the lower end the force will increase in the upper cross-section
resulting in the maximum stress at the built-in upper cross-section.
6. Which type of stress does in a reinforcement bar is taken by the concrete?
a) Tensile stress
b) Compressive stress
c) Shear stress
d) Bending stress
Answer: b
Explanation: Concrete has the property of taking a good amount of compressive stress.
So, In the reinforcement bar, the compressive stress is taken by the concrete.
7. A material has a Poisson’s ratio of 0.5. If uniform pressure of 300GPa is applied to that
material, What will be the volumetric strain of it?
a) 0.50
b) 0.20
c) 0.25
d) Zero
Answer: d
Explanation: As volumetric strain = (1-2μ)σ/E
Here the value of μ is 0.5 so 1 – 2 * 0.5 becomes zero.
Therefore whatever be the stress the value of volumetric strain will be zero.
8. A diagram which shows the variations of the axial load for all sections of the pan of a
beam is called ____________
a) Bending moment diagram
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b) Shear force diagram

c) Thrust diagram
d) Stress diagram
Answer: d
Explanation: The stress diagram shows the variation of the axial load for all sections of
the pan. The bending moment diagram shows the variation of moment in a beam. The
shear force diagram shows the variation in the shear force due to loading in the beam.
9. The stress induced in a body, when subjected to two equal and opposite forces which
are acting tangentially across the resisting section resulting the shearing of the body
across its section is called ____________
a) Bending stress
b) Compressive stress
c) Shear strain
d) Shear stress
Answer: d
Explanation: Shear stress makes the body to shear off across the section. It is tangential
to the area over which it acts. The corresponding strain is the shear strain.
10. What is the formula for shear stress?
a) Shear resistance/shear area
b) Force/unit area
c) Bending strain/area
d) Shear stress/length
Answer: a
Explanation: When force is applied, the twisting divides the body. The resistance is
known as shear resistance and shear resistance per unit area is known as shear stress.
11. Which of the following stresses are associated with the tightening of a nut on a bolt?
P. Crushing and shear stress in threads
Q. Bending stress due to the bending of bolt
R. Torsional shear stress due to frictional resistance between the nut and the bolt
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) P and Q
b) P and R
c) Only P
d) Only R
Answer: a
Explanation: Bending stress comes when there is some kind of eccentric load. Torsional
stress will come when the nut is rotating. Shear stress will come in tightening of a nut on
bolt.
12. The transverse shear stress acting in a beam of rectangular cross-section, subjected to
a transverse shear load, is ____________
a) variable with maximum at the bottom of the beam
b) Variable with maximum at the top of the beam
c) Uniform
d) Variable with maximum on the neutral axis
Answer: d
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Explanation: Maximum value of shear stress at neutral axis is τ = 3/2 τmean

So, transverse shear stress is variable with a maximum in the neutral axis.

13. A block 100mm x 100mm base and 10mm height. What will the direct shear stress in
the element when a tangential force of 10kN is applied to the upper edge to a
displacement 1mm relative to lower face?
a) 1Pa
b) 1MPa
c) 10MPa
d) 100Pa
Answer: b
Explanation: Shear stress = 10kN / 100mmx100mm = 1 N/mm2 = 1MPa.

Tensile Stress

1. During a tensile test on a ductile material ____________

a) Nominal stress at fracture is higher than the ultimate stress
b) True stress at fracture is higher than the ultimate stress
c) True stress a fracture is the same as the ultimate stress
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: In a ductile material, the true stress at fracture will be higher the ultimate
stress.

2. When equal and opposite forces applied to a body, tend to elongate it, the stress so
produced, is called ____________
a) Shear stress
b) Compressive stress
c) Tensile stress
d) Transverse stress
Answer: c
Explanation: When subjected to two equal and opposite pulls as a result of which there is
an increase in length. This produces tensile stress.

3. Which of the following stresses are associated with the tightening of a nut on a bolt?
P. Tensile stress due to the streching of bolt
Q. Bending stress due to the bending of bolt
R. Torsional shear stress due to frictional resistance between the nut and the bolt
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) P and Q
b) P and R
c) Only p
d) R and Q
Answer: a
Explanation: Bending stress comes when there is some kind of eccentric load. When nut
is tightened, the bolt will pull itself and stretching will be there resulting in the tensile
stress. Torsional stress will come when the nut is rotating.
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4. In a tensile test, near the elastic limit zone ____________

a) Tensile stress increases in linear proportion to the stress
b) Tensile stress increases at a faster rate
c) Tensile stress decreases at a faster rate
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The stress first decreases and then decreases before the strain hardening
occurs. The decreases in the stress is due to the attraction between carbon molecules.

5. Match the following and give the correct code given in options:

List 1 List 2

A. Tensile test on CI 1. Plain fracture on a transverse plane

B. Tensile test on MS 2. Granular helecoidal fracture

C. Torsion test on CI 3. Cup and cone

4. Granular fracture in a transverse plane

a) A – 1 B – 2 C – 4
b) A – 1 B – 4 C – 2
c) A – 3 B – 1 C – 2
d) A – 3 B – 4 C – 1
Answer: d
Explanation: Tensile test on CI is done on cup and cone. Torsion test on MS is on plain
fracture on a traverse plane.
6. The phenomenon of slow growth of strain under a steady tensile stress is called
____________
a) Yielding
b) Creeping
c) Breaking
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Creeping is the phenomenon of slow growing strain under a stress for a
period of time.
7. A rod 150cm long and of diameter 2cm is subjected to an axial pull of 20kN. What will
be the stress?
a) 60 N/mm2
b) 65 N/mm2
c) 63.6 N/mm2
d) 71.2 N/mm2
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Answer: c
Explanation: The stress = load / area
Load = 20,000N
Area = π/4 (20)2 = 100π mm2.
8. The stress in a rod is 70 N/mm2 and the modulus of elasticity is 2 x 105 N/mm2. what
will be the strain in the rod?
a) 0.00052
b) 0.00035
c) 0.00030
d) 0.00047
Answer: b
Explanation: As E = σ/e
Here, E = 2 * 105 N/mm2
And, σ = 70 N/mm2
e = 70/2*105 = 0.00035.
9. What will be the minimum diameter of a steel wire, which is used to raise a load of
4000N if the stress in the rod is not to exceed 95 MN/m2?
a) 6mm
b) 6.4mm
c) 7mm
d) 7.3mm
Answer: d
Explanation: As stress = load / area
Area = load/stress
Also, area is π/4 D2 so π/4 D2 = 4000 / 95
And D = 7.32.
10. A tensile test was conducted on mild steel bar. The load at elastic limit was 250kN
and the diameter of the steel bar was 3cm. What will be the value of stress?
a) 35368 x 104 N/m2
b) 32463 x 104 N/m2
c) 35625 x 104 N/m2
d) 37562 x 104 N/m2
Answer: a
Explanation: The stress = load / area
Load = 150 x 1000N
Area = π/4 (0.03)2 m2.

Compressive Stress

1. For keeping the stress wholly compressive the load may be applied on a circular
column anywhere within a concentric circle of diameter _____________
a) D/2
b) D/3
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c) D/4
d) D/8
Answer: c
Explanation: The load application on a circular column affects stress. If it is under D/4
the stress will be wholly compressive.
2. Consider two bars A and B of same material tightly secured between two unyielding
walls. Coefficient of thermal expansion of bar A is more than that of B. What are the
stresses induced on increasing the temperature?
a) Tension in both the materials
b) Tension in material A and compression in material B
c) Compression in material A and tension in material B
d) Compression in both the materials
Answer:d
Explanation: Since both the supports are fixed and both bars will try to expand, so rise in
temperature will cause compressive stresses in the bars.
3. What will be the unit of compressive stress?
a) N
b) N/mm
c) N/mm2
d) Nmm
Answer: c
Explanation: As the stress is the ratio of force to the area, so it will be N/mm2. Here mm is
normally used in its calculation most of the time.
4. A cast iron T section beam is subjected to pure bending. For maximum compressive
stress to be 3 times the maximum tensile stress, centre of gravity of the section from
flange side is ____________
a) h/2
b) H/3
c) H/4
d) 2/3h
Answer: c
Explanation: H/4 when the applied moment is sagging. Otherwise, I.e. if the applied
moment is hogging it is H/4. as in the options both are not given means we have to take
hogging.
5. A solid circular shaft of diameter d is subjected to a torque T. the maximum normal
stress induced in the shaft is ____________
a) Zero
b) 16T/πd3
c) 32T/πd3
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The maximum torque transmitted by a circular solid shaft is obtained from
the maximum shear stress induced at the outer surface of the solid shaft and given by T =
πD3/16 x normal stress,
So, normal stress = 16T/πd3.
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6. When a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the maximum compressive stress

develops on ____________
a) Bottom fibre
b) Top fibre
c) Neutral axis
d) Every cross-section
Answer: b
Explanation: Loaded means loaded downwards. In that case, upper fibres will be
compressed while lower will be expanded. Hence maximum compressive stress will be
developed in top layer.
8. A steel bar of 40mm x 40mm square cross-section is subjected to an axial compressive
load of 200kN. If the length of the bar is 2m and E=200GPa, the elongation of the bar
well be ____________
a) 1.25mm
b) 2.70mm
c) 4.05mm
d) 5.40mm
Answer: a
Explanation: Elongation of the bar = Pl/AE = -200x103x 2000 / ( 1600 x 200 x 103) = -
1.25
The minus sign here shows that the stress here is compressive.

Elasticity

1. The property by which a body returns to its original shape after removal of the force is
called __________
a) Plasticity
b) Elasticity
c) Ductility
d) Malleability
Answer: b

2. The property of a material by which it can be beaten or rolled into thin plates is called
__________
a) Malleability
b) Plasticity
c) Ductility
d) Elasticity
Answer: a

3. Which law is also called as the elasticity law?

a) Bernoulli’s law
b) Stress law
c) Hooke’s law
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d) Poisson’s law
Answer: c

4. The materials which have the same elastic properties in all directions are called
__________
a) Isotropic
b) Brittle
c) Homogeneous
d) Hard
Answer: a

5. A member which does not regain its original shape after removal of the load producing
deformation is said __________
a) Plastic
b) Elastic
c) Rigid
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a

6. The body will regain it is previous shape and size only when the deformation caused by
the external forces, is within a certain limit. What is that limit?
a) Plastic limit
b) Elastic limit
c) Deformation limit
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b

7. The materials which have the same elastic properties in all directions are called
__________
a) Isotropic
b) Brittle
c) Homogenous
d) Hard
Answer: a
Explanation: Isotropic materials have the same elastic properties in all directions.

8. As the elastic limit reaches, tensile strain __________

a) Increases more rapidly
b) Decreases more rapidly
c) Increases in proportion to the stress
d) Decreases in proportion to the stress
Answer: a

9. What kind of elastic materials are derived from a strain energy density function?
a) Cauchy elastic materials
b) Hypo elastic materials
c) Hyper elastic materials
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d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c

10. What the number that measures an object’s resistance to being deformed elastically
when stress is applied to it?
a) Elastic modulus
b) Plastic modulus
c) Poisson’s ratio
d) Stress modulus
Answer: a

Hooke’s Law

1. The law which states that within elastic limits strain produced is proportional to the
stress producing it is known as _____________
a) Bernoulli’s law
b) Hooke’s law
c) Stress law
d) Poisson’s law
Answer: b

2. For an isotropic, homogeneous and elastic material obeying Hooke’s law, the number
of independent elastic constants is ____________
a) 2
b) 3
c) 9
d) 1
Answer: b

3. What is the factor of safety?

a) The ratio of stress to strain
b) The raio of permissible stress to the ultimate stress
c) The ratio of ultimate stress to the permissible stress
d) The ratio of longitudinal strain to stress
Answer: c

4. What is Hooke’s law for the 1-D system?

a) The relation between normal stress and the corresponding strain
b) The relation between shear stress and the corresponding strain
c) The relation between lateral strain and the corresponding stress
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a

5. Limit of proportionality depends upon ____________

a) Area of cross-section
b) Type of loading
c) Type of material
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d) All of the mentioned

Answer: a
6. The stress at which extension of a material takes place more quickly as compared to the
increase in load is called ____________
a) Elastic point
b) Plastic point
c) Breaking point
d) Yielding point
Answer: d

7. Which of these is a non-hoookean material?

a) Steel
b) Rubber
c) Aluminium
d) Copper
Answer: b

8. Where in the stress-strain curve, the hooke’s law is valid?

a) Strain hardening region
b) Necking region
c) Elastic range
d) Valid everywhere
Answer: c

9. Highest value of stress for which Hooke’s law is applicable for a given material is
called ____________
a) Stress limit
b) Strain limit
c) Proportional limit
d) Significant limit
Answer: c

Stress & Strain Curve

1. The slope of the stress-strain curve in the elastic deformation region is ____________
a) Elastic modulus
b) Plastic modulus
c) Poisson’s ratio
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a

2. What is the stress-strain curve?

a) It is the percentage of stress and stain
b) It is the relationship between stress and strain
c) It is the difference between stress and strain
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
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3. Which point on the stress strain curve occurs after the proportionality limit?
a) Upper yield point
b) Lower yield point
c) Elastic limit
d) Ultimate point
Answer: c

4. Which point on the stress strain curve occurs after the lower yield point?
a) Yield plateau
b) Upper yield point
c) Ultimate point
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a

5. Which point on the stress strain curve occurs after yield plateau?
a) lower yield point
b) Upper yield point
c) Ultimate point
d) Breaking point
Answer: c

6. Which point on the stress strain curve occurs after the ultimate point?
a) Last point
b) Breaking point
c) Elastic limit
d) Material limit
Answer: b

7. Elastic limit is the point ____________

a) up to which stress is proportional to strain
b) At which elongation takes place without application of additional load
c) Up to which if the load is removed, original volume and shapes are regained
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c

8. What is the point P shown on the stress strain curve?

a) Upper yield point

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b) Yield plateau
c) Elastic limit
d) Ultimate point
Answer: d

9. What is the point P shown in the stress-strain curve?

a) Lower yield point

b) Elastic limit
c) Proportionality limit
d) Breaking point
Answer: d

10. What is the point shown in the stress strain curve?

a) Elastic limit
b) Lower yield point
c) Yield plateau
d) Lower strain point
Answer: b

11. Where is the necking region?

a) The area between lower yield point and upper yield point
b) The area between the plastic limit and elastic limit
c) The area between the ultimate point and initial point
d) The area between the ultimate point and rupture
Answer: d
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Elastic Constants

1. How many elastic constants of a linear, elastic, isotropic material will be?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 1
d) 4
Answer: a

2. How many elastic constants of a non homogeneous, non isotropic material will be?
a) 9
b) 15
c) 20
d) 21
Answer: d

3. How can be the Poissons ratio be expressed in terms of bulk modulus(K) and modulus
of rigidity(G)?
a) (3K – 4G) / (6K + 4G)
b) (3K + 4G) /( 6K – 4G)
c) (3K – 2G) / (6K + 2G)
d) (3K + 2G) / (6K – 2G)
Answer: c

4. Calculate the modulus of resilience for a 2m long bar which extends 2mm under
limiting axial stress of 200 N/mm2?
a) 0.01
b) 0.20
c) 0.10
d) 0.02
Answer: c.

5. In an experiment, the bulk modulus of elasticity of a material is twice its modulus of

rigidity. The Poissons ratio of the material is ___________
a) 1/7
b) 2/7
c) 3/7
d) 4/7
Answer: b

6. What will be the value of the Poisson’s ratio if the Youngs modulus E is equal to the
bulk modulus K?
a) 1/2
b) 1/4
c) 1/3
d) 3/4
Answer: c
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7. What is the expression for modulus of rigidity in terms of modulus of elasticity and the
Poissons ratio?
a) G = 3E / 2(1 + μ)
b) G = 5E / (1 + μ)
c) G = E / 2(1 + μ)
d) G = E/ (1 + 2μ)
Answer: c

8. What is the relationship between Youngs modulus E, modulus of rigidity C, and bulk
modulus K?
a) E = 9KC / (3K + C)
b) E = 9KC / (9K + C)
c) E = 3KC / (3K + C)
d) E = 3KC / (9K + C)
Answer: a

9. What is the limiting values of Poisson’s ratio?

a) -1 and 0.5
b) -1 and -0.5
c) -1 and -0.5
d) 0 and 0.5
Answer: d

10. What is the relationship between modulus of elasticity and modulus of rigidity?
a) C = E / 2(1 + μ)
b) C = E / (1 + μ)
c) C = 2E / (1 + μ)
d) C = 2E / 2(1 + μ)
Answer: c

Elastic Constants Relationship

1. What is the ratio of Youngs modulus E to shear modulus G in terms of Poissons ratio?
a) 2(1 + μ)
b) 2(1 – μ)
c) 1/2 (1 – μ)
d) 1/2 (1 + μ)
Answer: a).

2. The relationship between Youngs modulus E, bulk modulus K if the value of Poissons
ratio is unity will be __________
a) E = -3K
b) K = -3E
c) E = 0
d) K = 0
Answer: a
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3. A rod of length L and diameter D is subjected to a tensile load P. which of the

following is sufficient to calculate the resulting change in diameter?
a) Youngs modulus
b) Poissons ratio
c) Shear modulus
d) Both Youngs modulus and shear modulus
Answer: a

4. E, G, K and μ elastic modulus, shear modulus, bulk modulus and Poisson’s ratio
respectively. To express the stress strain relations completely for this material, at least
__________
a) E, G and μmust be known
b) E, K and μmust be known
c) Any two of the four must be known
d) All the four must be known
Answer: c

5. Youngs modulus of elasticity and Poissons ratio of a material are 1.25 x 102 MPa and
0.34 respectively. The modulus of rigidity of the material is __________
a) 0.9469 MPa
b) 0.8375 MPa
c) 0.4664 MPa
d) 0.4025 MPa
Answer: c

6. If E,G and K have their usual meanings, for an elastic material, then which one of the
following be possibly true?
a) G = 2K
b) G = K
c) K = E
d) G = E = K
Answer: c

7. If a material had a modulus of elasticity of 2.1 kgf/cm2 and a modulus of rigidity of 0.8
kgf/cm2 then what will be the approximate value of the Poissons ratio?
a) 0.26
b) 0.31
c) 0.47
d) 0.43
Answer: b

8. Consider the following statements:

X. Two-dimensional stresses applied to a thin plater in its own plane represent the plane
stress condition.
Y. Normal and shear stresses may occur simultaneously on a plane.
Z. Under plane stress condition, the strain in the direction perpendicular to the plane is
zero.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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a) 2 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3
Answer: d

9. What is the relationship between the linear elastic properties Youngs modulus, bulk
modulus and rigidity modulus?
a) 1/E = 9/k + 3/G
b) 9/E = 3/K + 1/G
c) 3/E = 9/K + 1/G
d) 9/E = 1/K + 3/G
Answer: d

10. Which of the relationship between E, G and K is true, where E, G and K have their
usual meanings?
a) E = 9KC / (3K + C)
b) E = 9KC / (9K + C)
c) E = 3KC / (9K + C)
d) E = 3KC / (3K + C)
Answer: a

Principle of Superposition

1. Which law states the when a number of loads are acting on a body, the resulting strain,
according to principle of superposition, will be the algebraic sum of strains caused by
individual loads?
a) Hooke’s law
b) Principle of superposition
c) Lami’s theorem
d) Strain law
Answer: b

2. How the total strain in any body subjected to different loads at different sections can be
calculated?
a) The resultant strain is the algebraic sum of the individual strain
b) The resultant strain calculated by the trigonometry
c) The resultant will be through Lame’s theorem
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a

3. Three sections in a beam are of equal length of 100mm. All three sections are pulled
axially with 50kN and due to it elongated by 0.2mm. What will be the resultant strain in
the beam?
a) 0.002
b) 0.004
c) 0.006
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d) 0.020
Answer: c

4. Two sections in a bar of length 10cm and 20cm respectively are pulled axially. It
causes an elongation of 0.2mm and 0.4mm respectively in each section. What will be the
resultant strain in the bar?
a) 0.004
b) 0.002
c) 0.003
d) 0.006
Answer: a

5. A composite bar have four sections each of length 100mm, 150mm, 200mm, 250mm.
When force is applied, all the sections causes an elongation of 0.1mm. What will the
resultant strain in the bar?
a) 0.0012
b) 0.00154
c) 0.00256
d) 0.0020
Answer: c

6. A brass bar, having cross sectional area of 100mm2, is subjected to axial force of
50kN. The length of two sections is 100mm and 200mm respectively. What will be the
total elongation of bar if E = 1.05 x 105 N/mm2 ?
a) 1.21mm
b) 2.034mm
c) 2.31mm
d) 1.428mm
Answer: d

7. A composite bar having two sections of cross-sectional area 100mm2 and

200mm2 respectively. The length of both the sections is 100mm. What will be the total
elongation of bar if it is subjected to axial force of 100kN and E = 105 N/mm2?
a) 1.0
b) 1.25
c) 1.5
d) 2.0
Answer: c

8. A bar having two sections of cross sectional area of 100mm2 and 200mm2 respectively.
The length of both the sections is 200mm. What will be the total strain in the bar if it is
subjected to axial force of 100kN and E = 105 N/mm2?
a) 0.010
b) 0.015
c) 0.020
d) 0.030
Answer: b
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9. A brass bar, having cross sectional area of 150mm2, is subjected to axial force of 50kN.
What will be the total strain of bar if E= 1.05 x 104 N/mm2?
a) 0.062mm
b) 0.025mm
c) 0.068mm
d) 0.054mm
Answer: d.

10. A composite bar of two sections of each of length 100mm, 150mm. When force is
applied, all the sections causes an elongation of 0.1mm. What will the resultant strain in
the bar?
a) 0.0016
b) 0.00154
c) 0.00256
d) 0.0020
Answer: a

11. If the given forces P1, P2, P3, P4,and P5 which are co planar and concurrent are such
that the force polygon does not close, then the system will
a) Be in equilibrium
b) Always reduce to a resultant force
c) Always reduce to a couple
d) Always be in equilibrium and will always reduce to a couple
Answer: b

Types of Beams and Loads

1. _______ is a horizontal structural member subjected to transverse loads perpendicular

to its axis.
a) Strut
b) Column
c) Beam
d) Truss
Answer: c

2. Example for cantilever beam is ______

a) Portico slabs
b) Roof slab
c) Bridges
d) Railway sleepers
Answer: a
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3. The diagram depicts _______ kind of beam.

a) Cantilever
b) Continuous
c) Over hanging
d) Propped cantilever
Answer: d

4. Fixed beam is also known as __________

a) Encastered beam
b) Built on beam
c) Rigid beam
d) Tye beam
Answer: a

5. U.D.L stands for?

a) Uniformly diluted length
b) Uniformly developed loads
c) Uniaxial distributed load
d) Uniformly distributed loads
Answer: d

6. Given below diagram is ______ load.

a) Uniformly distributed load

b) Uniformly varying load
c) Uniformly decess load
d) Point load
Answer: b

7. Moving train is an example of ____ load.

a) Point load
b) Cantered load
c) Rolling load
d) Uniformly varying load
Answer: c

8. Continuous beams are _________

a) Statically determinate beams
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b) Statically indeterminate beams

c) Statically gravity beams
d) Framed beams
Answer: b

9. A beam which extends beyond it supports can be termed as __________

a) Over hang beam
b) Over span beam
c) Isolated beams
d) Tee beams
Answer: a

10. Units of U.D.L?

a) KN/m
b) KN-m
c) KN-m×m
d) KN
Answer: a

Shear Force and Bending Moment

1. Shear force is unbalanced _____ to the left or right of the section.

a) Horizontal force
b) Vertical force
c) Inclined force
d) Conditional force
Answer: b

2. SI units of shear force is _______________

a) kN/m
b) kN-m
c) kN
d) m/N
Answer: c.

3. Determine the moment at fixed end.

a) 40 kNm
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b) 50 kNm
c) 60 kNm
d) 80 kNm
Answer: d

4. Shear force is diagram is _______ representation of shear force plotted as ordinate.

a) Scalar
b) Aerial
c) Graphical
d) Statically
Answer: c

5. Hogging is________
a) Negative bending moment
b) Positive shear force
c) Positive bending moment
d) Negative shear force
Answer: a

6. At the point of contraflexure, the value of bending moment is ____________

a) Zero
b) Maximum
c) Can’t be determined
d) Minimum
Answer: a

7. _________ positive/negative bending moments occur where shear force changes its
sign.
a) Minimum
b) Zero
c) Maximum
d) Remains same
Answer: c

8. Shear force of following diagram

a) Rectangle
b) Square
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c) Circle
d) Trapezoidal
Answer: a

9. SI units of Bending moment is ___________

a) kN
b) kN2
c) kNm
d) km
Answer: c.

10. What is the other name for a positive bending moment?

a) Hogging
b) Sagging
c) Inflation
d) Contraflexure
Answer: b

Types of Supports

1. A simple support offers only _______ reaction normal to the axis of the beam.
a) Horizontal
b) Vertical
c) Inclined
d) Moment
Answer: b

2. To avoid _____ stresses in beams, one end of the beam is placed on the rollers.
a) Compressive
b) Pyro
c) Temperature
d) Tensile
Answer: c

3. ________ support develops support moment.

a) Hinged
b) Simple
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c) Fixed
d) Joint
Answer: c
4. Hinge support is called as __________
a) Socket joint
b) Swivel joint
c) Ball joint
d) Pin joint
Answer: d

5. Name the support from following figure.

a) Hinge support
b) Fixed support
c) Free support
d) Roller support
Answer: b

6. For a simply supported beam, the moment at the support is always __________
a) Maximum
b) Zero
c) Minimum
d) Cannot be determined
Answer: b

7. “Hinged support offers resistance against rotation”.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
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8. Find the reaction at simple support A?

a) 6.5 kN
b) 9 kN
c) 10 kN
d) 7.5 kN
Answer: d

9. Roller support is same as _____

a) Hinged support
b) Fixed support
c) Simply support
d) Roller support
Answer: c

10. Hinged supports offers vertical and ________ reaction.

a) Horizontal
b) Moment
c) Rotation
d) Couple
Answer: a

Maximum Shear Force

1. Which of these is the correct way of sign convention for shear force?
a) R U P
b) L U P
c) R U N
d) L D P
Answer: a

2. At hinge, the moments will be _________

a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Uniform
d) Zero
Answer: d

3. What is variation in SFD, if the type of loading in the simply supported beam is U.D.L
is ____
a) Rectangle
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b) Linear
c) Trapezoidal
d) Parabolic
Answer: b

4. The rate of change of shear force is equal to _____

a) Direction of load
b) Change in BMD
c) Intensity of loading
d) Maximum bending
Answer: c.

5. The shear force in a beam subjected to pure positive bending is _____

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Zero
d) Cannot determine
Answer: c

6. In SFD, vertical lines are for ______

a) Point loads
b) UDL
c) UVL
d) LDP
Answer: a

7. A cantilever beam loaded with udl throughout, the maximum shear force occurs at____
a) Free end
b) Fixed end
c) At centre
d) At point of contraflexure
Answer: b

8. A simply supported beam of span 1 m carries a point load “w” in centre determine the
shear force in the half left of the beam.
a) W/3
b) W/4
c) W/2
d) W
Answer: c

9. At the Point of contraflexure, what is the value of bending moment?

a) one
b) zero
c) three
d) infinity
Answer: b
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10. When SF is zero, the bending moment is _____

a) Zero
b) Maximum
c) Very difficult to say
d) Minimum
Answer: b

Maximum Bending Moment

1. A cantilever beam subjected to point load at its free end, the maximum bending
moment develops at the ________ of the beam.
a) Free end
b) Fixed end
c) Centre
d) Point of inflection
Answer: b

2. Bending moment in a beam is maximum when the _________

a) Shear force is minimum
b) Shear force is maximum
c) Shear force is zero
d) Shear force is constant
Answer: c

3. Positive bending moment is known as _______

a) Hogging
b) Sagging
c) Ragging
d) Inflection
Answer: a

4. A simply supported beam of span “x” meters carries a udl of “w” per unit length over
the entire span, the maximum bending moment occurs at _____
a) At point of contra flexure
b) Centre
c) End supports
d) Anywhere on the beam
Answer: b

5. The maximum BM is ______

a) 40 kNm
b) 50 kNm
c) 90 kNm
d) 75 kNm
Answer: c

6. Bending moment can be denoted by ____

a) K
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b) M
c) N
d) F
Answer: b

7. Number of points of contra flexure for a double over hanging beam.

a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) Infinite
Answer: b

8. Maximum bending moment in a cantilever beam subjected to udl (w)over the entire
span (l).
a) wl
b) wl3
c) wl2
d) w
Answer: c

9. Determine the maximum bending moment for the below figure.

a) wl/2
b) wl/3
c) wl/4
d) wl
Answer: c

10. What is the variation in the BM, if the simply supported beam carries a point load at
the centre.
a) Triangular
b) Rectangular
c) Trapezoidal
d) Other quadrilateral
Answer: a

Shear Force and Bending Moment diagram

1. What is the bending moment at end supports of a simply supported beam?

a) Maximum
b) Minimum
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c) Zero
d) Uniform
Answer: c

2. What is the maximum shear force, when a cantilever beam is loaded with udl
throughout?
a) w×l
b) w
c) w/l
d) w+l
Answer: a

3. Sagging, the bending moment occurs at the _____ of the beam.

a) At supports
b) Mid span
c) Point of contraflexure
d) Point of emergence
Answer: b

4. What will be the variation in BMD for the diagram? [Assume l = 2m].

a) Rectangular
b) Trapezoidal
c) Triangular
d) Square
Answer: c

5. What is the maximum bending moment for simply supported beam carrying a point
load “W” kN at its centre?
a) W kNm
b) W/m kNm
c) W×l kNm
d) W×l/4 kNm
Answer: d

6. How do point loads and udl be represented in SFD?

a) Simple lines and curved lines
b) Curved lines and inclined lines
c) Simple lines and inclined lines
d) Cant represent any more
Answer: c
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7. ________ curve is formed due to bending of over hanging beams.

a) Elastic
b) Plastic
c) Flexural
d) Axial
Answer: a

8. The relation between slope and maximum bending moment is _________

a) Directly proportion
b) Inversely proportion
c) Relative proportion
d) Mutual incidence
Answer: b

9. What is the SF at support B?

a) 5 kN
b) 3 kN
c) 2 kN
d) 0 kN
Answer: d

10. Where do the maximum BM occurs for the below diagram.

a) -54 kNm
b) -92 kNm
c) -105 kNm
d) – 65 kNm
Answer: c
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UNIT-2
1. The working cycle in case of four stroke engine is completed in following
number of revolutions of crankshaft
(a) 1/2
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4
(e) 8.
Ans: c

2. In a diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by

(a) spark
(b) injected fuel
(c) heat resulting from compressing air that is supplied for combustion
(d) ignition
(e) combustion chamber.
Ans: c

3. Scavenging air in diesel engine means

(a) air used for combustion sent under pres-sure
(b) forced air for cooling cylinder
(c) burnt air containing products of combustion
(d) air used for forcing burnt gases out of engine’s cylinder during the exhaust period
(e) air fuel mixture.
Ans: d

4. Supercharging is the process of

(a) supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density greater than the
density of the surrounding atmosphere
(b) providing forced cooling air
(c) injecting excess fuel for raising more load
(d) supplying compressed air to remove combustion products fully
(e) raising exhaust pressure.
Ans: a

5. Does the supply of scavenging air at a density greater than that of atmosphere mean
engine is supercharged ?
(a) yes
(b) no
(c) to some extent
(d) unpredictable
(e) depends on other factors.
Ans: b

6. The ratio of indicated thermal efficiency to the corresponding air standard cycle
efficiency is called
(a) net efficiency
(b) efficiency ratio
(c) relative efficiency
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(d) overall efficiency

(e) cycle efficiency.
Ans: c

7. Compression ratio of IC. engines is

(a) the ratio of volumes of air in cylinder before compression stroke and after
compression stroke
(b) volume displaced by piston per stroke and clearance volume in cylinder
(c) ratio of pressure after compression and before compression
(d) swept volume/cylinder volume
(e) cylinder volume/swept volume.
Ans: a

8. The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle compared to diesel cycle for the given
compression ratio is
(a) same
(b) less
(c) more
(d) more or less depending on power rating
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c

9. The calorific value of gaseous fuels is expressed in terms of

(a) kcal
(b) kcal/kg
(c) kcal/m2
(d) kcal/n?
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

10. If the intake air temperature of I.C. engine increases, its efficiency will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) unpredictable
(e) depend on other factors.
Ans: b

12. All heat engines utilize

(a) low heat value of oil
(b) high heat value of oil
(c) net claorific value of oil
(d) calorific value of fuel
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a

13. An engine indicator is used to determine the following

(a) speed
(b) temperature
(c) volume of cylinder
(d) m.e.p. and I.H.P.
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(e) BHP.
Ans: d

14. Fuel oil consumption guarantees for I .C. engine are usually based on
(a) low heat value of oil
(b) high heat value of oil
(c) net calorific value of oil
(d) calorific value of fuel
(e) all of the above.
Ans: b

17. If the compression ratio of an engine working on Otto cycle is increased from 5 to 7,
the %age increase in efficiency will be
(a) 2%
(b) 4%
(c) 8%
(d) 14%
(e) 27%.
Ans: d

18. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engine the inlet valve
(a) opens at 20° before top dead center and closes at 35° after the bottom dead center
(b) opens at top dead center and closes at bottom dead center
(c) opens at 10° after top dead center and closes 20° before the bottom dead center
(d) may open or close anywhere
(e) remains open for
200°. Ans: a

19. The pressure and temperature at the end of compression stroke in a petrol engine
are of the order of
(a) 4 – 6 kg/cm2 and 200 – 250°C
(b) 6 – 12 kg/cm2 and 250 – 350°C
(c) 12 – 20 kg/cm2 and 350 – 450°C
(d) 20 – 30 kg/cm2 and 450 – 500°C
(e) 30 – 40 kg/cm2 and 500 –
700°C. Ans: b

20. The pressure at the end of compression in the case of diesel engine is of the order of
(a) 6 kg/cm
(b) 12kg/cm2
(c) 20 kg/cm2
(d) 27.5 kg/cm2
(e) 35 kg/cm2
Ans: e

21. The maximum temperature in the I.C. engine cylinder is of the

order of (a) 500- 1000°C
(b) 1000- 1500°C
(c) 1500-2000°C
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(d) 2000-2500°C
(e) 2500-3000°C
Ans: d

22. The thermal efficiecny of a diesel cycle having fixed compression ratio, with
increase in cut- off ratio will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) be independent
(d) may increase or decrease depending on other factors
(e) none of the
above.
Ans: b

23. Pick up the wrong statement

(a) 2-stroke engine can run in any direction
(b) In 4-stroke engine, a power stroke is obtained in 4-strokes
(c) thermal efficiency of 4-stroke engine is more due to positive scavenging
(d) petrol engines work on otto cycle
(e) petrol engines occupy more space than diesel engines for same power
output. Ans: e

24. Combustion in compression ignition engines is

(a) homogeneous
(b) heterogeneous
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) laminar
(e) turbulent.
Ans: b

25. The fuel in diesel engine is normally injected at pressure of

(a) 5-10 kg/cm2
(b) 20-25 kg/cm2
(c) 60-80 kg/cm2
(d) 90-130 kg/cm2
(e) 150-250 kg/cm2
Ans: d

26. The temperature of interior surface of cylinder wall in normal operation is not
allowed to exceed
(a) 80°C
(b) 120°C
(c) 180°C
(d) 240°C
(e) 320°C.
Ans: c

30. Compression loss in I.C engines occurs duto

(a) leaking piston rings
(b) use of thick head gasket
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(c) clogged air-inlet slots

(d) increase in clearance volume caused b bearing-bushing wear
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

31. The air requirement of a petrol engine during starting compared to theoretical air
required for complete combustion is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) may be more or less depending on engine capacity
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b

Two-Stroke Engine
1. In a two stroke engine, the working cycle is completed in two revolutions of the
crankshaft.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b

2. A two stroke cycle engine gives _____________ the number of power strokes as
compared to the four stroke cycle engine, at the same engine speed.
a) half
b) same
c) double
d) four times
Answer: c

3. A two stroke cycle engine occupies larger floor area than a four stroke cycle engine.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b

4. A two stroke engine gives _____________ mechanical efficiency than a four stroke
cycle engine.
a) higher
b) lower
c) equal
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a

5. The two stroke cycle engine have lighter flywheel.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
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6. Thermal efficiency of a two stroke cycle engine is _____________ a four stroke cycle
engine.
a) equal to
b) less than
c) greater than
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b

7. In a petrol engine, the mixture has the lowest pressure at the __________
a) beginning of suction stroke
b) end of suction stroke
c) end of compression stroke
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b

8. In compression ignition engines, swirl denotes a __________

a) haphazard motion of the gases in the chamber
b) rotary motion of the gases in the chamber
c) radial motion of the gases in the chamber
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b

9. The injector nozzle of a compression ignition engine is required to inject fuel at

sufficiently high pressure in order to __________
a) inject fuel in a chamber of high pressure at the end of the compression stroke
b) inject fuel at a high velocity to facilitate atomization
c) ensure that penetration is not high
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d

10. Which of the following engines will have a heavier flywheel than the remaining ones?
a) 30 kW four stroke petrol engine running at 1500 r.p.m
b) 30 kW two stroke petrol engine running at 1500 r.p.m
c) 30 kW two stroke diesel engine running at 750 r.p.m
d) 30 kW four stroke diesel engine running at 750 r.p.m
Answer: a

Refrigeration and Air-conditioning

(Answer of Q.1-Q.52 is given after Q.52)

Q. 1 What is refrigeration?
a) Heat removal b) heat addition c) Work absorption d) work addition

Q2. Refrigerators and heat pumps are

a) Work producers b) work absorbers c) heat exchangers d) expansion devices
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Q.3 In Refrigerators heat is absorbed from body to be cooled at temperature

a) Atmospheric b) less than atmospheric c) at condenser temperature d) above atmospheric

Q.4 What is the value of 1 ton of refrigeration

a) 3.5 KW b) 3KW c) 4.5KW d) 4kW

Q.5 What is a heat pump

a) Reversed heat engine b) pump c) heat engine d) compressor

Q.6 In vapour compression system the condensation process is done at

a) constant temperature and pressure
b) constant volume and entropy
c) constant entropy and pressure
d) constant pressure and volume

Q.7 In vapour compression system the heat absorption process is done at

a) constatnt temperature and pressure
b) constant volume and entropy
c) constant entropy and pressure
d) constant pressure and volume

Q.8 Expansion process is ideally a process of

a) Constant enthalpy b) constant pressure c) constant temperature d) constant entropy

Q.9 If the condenser pressure is increased then the COP of the refrigeration system will
a) increase b) decrease c) no effect d) will not work

Q.10 If the evaporator pressure is reduced then the COP will

a) increase b) decrease c) no effect d) will not work

Q.11 The compression process in refrigeration process ic

a) isenthalpic b) isobaric c) isochoric d) isentropic

Q.12 In wet compression the refrigerant is at entry of compression is

a) wet b) superheated c) dry saturated d) no effect

Q.13 In dry compression refrigeration system the refrigerant at entry of compressor is

a) wet b) superheated c) dry saturated d) no effect

Q.14 In wet compression the refrigerant is at exit of compression is

a) wet b) superheated c) dry saturated d) no effect

Q.15 If the liquid refrigerant is sub cooled after condensation then COP will
a) increase b) decrease c) no effect d) will not work

Q.16 The COP in use of flash chamber in refrigerator will

a) increase b) decrease c) no effect d) will not work

Q.17 The use of intercooler, the COP of refrigerator will

a) increase b) decrease c) no effect d) will not work
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Q.18 For high compression ratio and pressure the compressor used should be
a) rotary b) reciprocating c) compound d)multistage rotary

Q.19. For large volume of refrigerant and moderate pressure the compressor should be
a) rotary b) reciprocating c) compound d)multistage rotary

Q.20 In vapour absorption system the absorbent used is

a) water b) NH3 c) liquid ammonia d) hydrogen

Q.21 In Li-Br vapour absorption system the refrigerant is

a)ammonia b) nitrogen c) hydrogen d) water

Q.22 The analyser do the function to make water vapour

a) supply b) absorb c) condense d) dry

Q.23 The COP of vapour absorption system compared to vapour compression system is
a) high b) same c) less d) no effect

Q.24 The COP of heat pump as compared to refrigerator is

a) high b) same c) less d) no effect

Q.25 The COP of heat pump is

a) 1+ COPref b) 1- COPref c) COPref d) 1/ COPref

Q.26 Which contents are used to make brine solution

a) water, salt b) water, phosphates c) water, acid d) water, ammonia

Q.27 Secondary refrigerants’ are used where plant size is

a) domestic b) of large capacity c) small d) medium

Q.28 Dry ice is made up of

a) solid ammonia b) solid oxygen c) solid carbon dioxide d) solid nitrogen

Q.29 Air refrigeration system is not much in use except in aircraft because of
a) less capacity, small size
b) less COP, large size for volume handeled
c) high COP but high power requirements
d) balancing problem and frost formation

Q.30 Ammonia is not used in domestic refrigeration system because of

a) high in flammability b) pungent smell c) toxicity d) less efficient

Q.31 The hydrocarbons as refrigerants are not in use due to

a) high in flammability b) pungent smell c) toxicity d) less efficient

Q.32 The chemical formula of R 12 is

a) CCF2 b)CCl2F2 c) CHF1Cl3 d) CF4

Q.33 The CFC is ozone depleting due to presence of atom of

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a) C b) H c) F d) Cl

Q.34 The refrigerant having non-zero ozone depletion potential is

a) R717 b) R170 c) R600 d) R14

Q.35 The wet bulb depression is the difference of

a) DBT, WBT b) DPT, DBT c) DPT, WBT d) WBT, enthalpy

Q.36 The dew point depression is difference of

a) DBT, WBT b) DPT, DBT c) DPT, WBT d) WBT, enthalpy

Q.37 The wet bulb temperature line are

a) parallel, equispaced
b) inclined, parallel and equispaced
c) inclined, parallel and non-equispaced
d) horizontal and parallel to each other

Q.38 The dry bulb temperature lines are

a) parallel, equispaced
b) inclined, parallel and equispaced
c) inclined, parallel and non-equispaced
d) vertical and parallel to each other

Q.39 The dew-point temperature lines are

a) parallel, equispaced
b) inclined, parallel and equispaced
c) inclined, parallel and non-equispaced
d) horizontal, equispaced and parallel to each other

Q.40 The specific volume lines are

a) parallel, equispaced
b) inclined, parallel and equispaced
c) inclined, parallel and non-equispaced
d) horizontal, equi-spaced and parallel to each other

Q.41 The expansion devices used in laboratory are of

a) capillary tube b) thermal expansion type c) automatic expansion valve
d) throttle valve

Q.42 The compressors used in refrigerator system are of

a) hermatically sealed type b) vane type, centrifugal type reciprocating type

Q.43The alignment circle in psychrometric chart havin the value of

a) 26°C DBT, 50%RH c) 25°C DBT, 60%RH c) 25°C WBT, 60%RH d) 25°C DBT,
100%RH

Q.44 In mixing of two air streams in air conditioning system the outlet temperature of air
after mixing is
a) less than outside b) equal to ADP c) equal to outside d) less than ADP
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Q.45 In humidification process the humidity increases and the DBT

a) increases b) decreases c) same d) first rise then decrease

Q.46 In sensible cooling the specific humidity

a) increases b) decreases c) same d) first rise then decrease

Q.47 In sensible heating the DBT of air

a) increases b) decreases c) same d) first rise then decrease

Q.48 In dehumidification process the humidity increases and the DBT

a) increases b) decreases c) same d) first rise then decrease

Q.49 In chemical humidification the enthalpy of air

a) increases b) decreases c) same d) first rise then decrease

Q.50 The agitator is used where the refrigerant used is of

a) primary b) secondary c) halocarbon d) ammonia

Q.51 The bulb of psychrometer is dry then it will indicate

a) DPT b) DBT c) WBT d) dry bulb depression

Q.52 If the bulb of psychrometer is surrounded by a wet wick then it will give value of
a) DPT b) DBT c) WBT d) dry bulb depression

Key Solutions
1 (a) 2(b) 3(b) 4(a)5(a) 6(a) 7(a) 8(a) 9(b) 10(c) 11(d) 12(a) 13(c) 14(a) 15(a) 16(c) 17(a)
18(b) 19(a) 20(a) 21(d) 22(c) 23(c) 24(a) 25(a) 26(a) 27(b) 28(c) 29(b) 30(c) 31(a) 32(b)
33(d) 34(d) 35(a) 36(b) 37(b) 38(d) 39(d) 40(b) 41(a) 42(a) 43(a) 44(a) 45(c) 46(c) 47(a)
48(c) 49(c) 50(b)51(b)52(c)

Latest Refrigeration and Air Conditioning Questions and Answers

53. Pick up the wrong statement. A refrigerant should have
(a) Tow specific heat of liquid
(b) high boiling point
(c) high latent heat of vaporisation
(d) higher critical temperature
(e) low specific volume of vapour.
Ans: b

54. A standard ice point temperature corresponds to the temperature of

(a) water at 0°C
(b) ice at - 4°C
(c) solid and dry ice
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(d) mixture of ice, water and vapour under equilibrium conditions under NTP conditions
(e) mixture of ice and water Under equilibrium conditions.
Ans: e

54. Vapour compression refrigeration is some what like

(a) Carnot cycle
(b) Rankine cycle
(c) reversed Camot cycle
(d) reversed Rankine cycle
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

55. Which of the following cycles uses air as the refrigerant

(a) Ericsson
(b) Stirling
(c) Carnot
(d) Bell-coleman
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

56. Ammonia-absorption refrigeration cycle requires

(a) very little work input
(b) maximum work input
(c) nearly same work input as for vapour compression cycle
(d) zero work input
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

57. An important characteristic of absorption system of refrigeration is

(a) noisy operation
(b) quiet operation
(c) cooling below 0°C
(d) very little power consumption
(e) its input only in the form of heating.
Ans: b

58. The relative coefficient of performance is

(a) actual COP/fheoretical COP
(b) theoretical COP/actual COP
(c) actual COP x theoretical COP
(d) 1-actual COP x theoretical COP
(e) 1-actual COP/fheoretical COP.
Ans: a
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61. In vapour compression cycle, the conditii of refrigerant is saturated liquid

(a) after passing through the condenser
(b) before passing through the condensei
(c) after passing through the expansion throttle valve
(d) before entering the expansion valve
(e) before entering the compressor.
Ans: a

62. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is very wet vapour
(a) after passing through the condenser
(b) before passing through the condenser
(c) after passing through the expansion or throttle valve
(d) before entering the expansion valve
(e) before entering the compressor.
Ans: e

63. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is high pressure saturated liquid
(a) after passing through the condenser
(b) before passing through the condenser
(c) after passing through the expansion or thiottle valve
(d) before entering the expansion valve
(e) before entering the compressor.
Ans: d

64. In vapour compression cycle the condition of refrigerant is superheated vapour

(a) after passing through the condenser
(b) before passing through the condenser
(c) after passing through the expansion or throttle valve
(d) before [entering the expansion valve
(e) before entering the compressor.
Ans: b

65. In vapour compression cycle the condition off refrigerant is dry saturated vapour
(a) after passing through the condenser
(b) before passing through the condenser
(c) after passing through the expansion or throttle valve
(d) before entering the expansion valve
(e) before entering the compressor..
Ans: e

66. The boiling point of ammonia is

(a) -100°C
(b) -50°C
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(c) - 33.3°C
(d) 0°C
(e) 33.3°C.
Ans: c

67. One ton of refrigeration is equal to the refrigeration effect corresponding to melting of
1000 kg of ice
(a) in 1 hour
(b) in 1 minute
(c) in 24 hours
(d) in 12 hours
(e) in 10 hours.
Ans: c

68. One ton refrigeratiqn corresponds to

(a) 50 kcal/min
(b) 50 kcal/kr
(c) 80 kcal/min
(d) 80 kcal/hr
(e) 1000 kcal/day.
Ans: a

69. In S.J. unit, one ton of refrigeration is equal to

(a) 210 kJ/min
(b) 21 kJ/min
(c) 420 kJ/min
(d) 840 kJ/min
(e) 105 kJ/min.
Ans: a

70. The vapour compression refrigerator employs the following cycie

(a) Rankine
(b) Carnot
(c) Reversed Rankine
(d) Brayton
(e) Reversed Carnot.
Ans: e

71. Allowable pressure on high-pressure side or ammonia absorption system is of the order of
(a) atmospheric pressure
(b) slightly above atmospheric pressure
(c) 2-4 bars
(d) 5-6 bars
(e) 7-10 bars.
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Ans: d

72. The moisture in a refrigerant is removed by

(a) evaporator
(b) safety relief valve
(c) dehumidifier
(d) driers
(e) expansion valve
Ans: d

73. The condensing pressure due to the presence of non-condensable gases, as compared to
that actually required for
condensing temperatures without non-condensable gases,
(a) will be higher
(b) will be lower
(c) will remain unaffected
(d) may be higher or lower depending upon the nature of non-condensable gases
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a

74. Critical pressure of a liquid is the pressure

(a) above which liquid will remain liquid
(b) above which liquid becomes gas
(c) above which liquid becomes vapour
(d) above which liquid becomes solid
(e) at which all the three phases exist together.
Ans: a

75. Critical temperature is' the temperature above which

(a) a gas will never liquefy
(b) a gas will immediately liquefy
(c) water will evaporate
(d) water will never evaporate
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

76. The refrigerant for a refrigerator should have

(a) high sensible heat
(b) high total heat
(c) high latent heat
(d) low latent heat
(e) low sensible heat
Ans: c
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77. Rating of a domestic refrigerator is of the order of

(a) 0.1 ton
(b) 5 tons
(c) 10 tons
(d) 40 tons
(e) 100 tons.
Ans: a

78. The COP of a domestic refrigerator

(a) is less than 1
(b) is more than 1
(c) is equal to 1
(d) depends upon the make
(e) depends upon the weather conditions.
Ans: b

79. The domestic refrigerator uses following type of compressor

(a) centrifugal
(b) axial
(c) miniature sealed unit
(d) piston type reciprocating
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

80. Presence of moisture in a refrigerant affects the working of

(a) compressor
(b) condenser
(c) evaparator
(d) expansion valve.
(e) heat transfer.
Ans: d

81. Refrigeration in aeroplanes usually employs the following refrigerant

(a) Co2
(b) Freon-11
(c) Freon-22
(d) Air
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

82. Domestic refrigerator working on vapour compression cycle uses the following type of
expansion device
(a) electrically operated throttling valve
(b) manually operated valve
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(c) thermostatic valve

(d) capillary tube
(e) expansion valve.
Ans: d

83. Air refrigeration operates on

(a) Carnot cycle
(b) Reversed Carnot cycle
(c) Rankine cycle
(d) Erricson cycle
(e) Brayton cycle.
Ans: e

84. Air refrigeration cycle is used in

(a) domestic refrigerators
(b) commercial refrigerators
(c) air conditioning
(d) gas liquefaction
(e) such a cycle does not exist.
Ans: d

85. In a vapour compression cycle, the refrigerant immediately after expansion valve is
(a) liquid
(b) sub-cooled liquid
(c) saturated liquid
(d) wet vapour
(e) dry vapour.
Ans: d

86. The vapour pressure of refrigerant should be

(a) lower than atmospheric pressure
(b) higher than atmospheric pressure
(c) equal to atmospheric pressure
(d) could be anything
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

87. For better COP of refrigerator, the pressure range corresponding to temperature in
evaporator and condenser must be
(a) small
(b) high
(c) euqal
(d) anything
(e) under some conditions small and under some conditions high.
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Ans: a

88. The bank of tubes at the back of domestic refrigerator are

(a) condenser tubes
(b) evaporator tubes
(c) refrigerant cooling tubes
(d) capillary tubes
(e) throttling device.
Ans: a

89. The higher temperature in vapour compression cycle occurs at

(a) receiver
(b) expansion valve
(c) evaporator
(d) condenser discharge
(e) compressor discharge.
Ans: e

90. Highest temperature encountered in refrigeration cycle should be

(a) near critical temperature of refrigerant
(b) above critical temperature
(c) at critica. temperature
(d) much below critical temperature
(e) could be anywhere.
Ans: d

93. Absorption system normally uses the following refrigerant

(a) Freon-11
(b) Freon-22
(c) C02
(d) S02
(e) ammonia.
Ans: e

95. The value of COP in vapour compression cycle is usually

(a) always less than unity
(b) always more than unity
(c) equal to unity
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
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96. In a refrigeration system, heat absorbed in comparison to heat rejected is

(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) more for small capacity and less for high capacity
(e) less for small capacity and more for high capacity.
Ans: b

97. Condensing temperature in a refrigerator is the temperature

(a) of cooling medium
(b) of freezing zone
(c) of evaporator
(d) at which refrigerant gas becomes liquid
(e) condensing temperature of ice.
Ans: d

98. Formation of frost on evaporator in refrigerator

(a) results in loss of heat due to poor heat transfer
(b) increases heat transfer rate
(c) is immaterial
(d) can be avoided by proper design
(e) decreases compressor power.
Ans: a

103. A refrigeration cycle operates between condenser temperature of + 27°C and evaporator
temperature of- 23°C. The Carnot coefficient of performance of cycle will be
(a) 0.2
(b) 1.2
(c) 5
(d) 6
(e) 10.
Ans: c

104. Which of the following is not a desirable property of a refrigerant

(a) high triiscibility with oil
(b) low boiling point
(c) good electrical conductor
(d) large latent heat
(e) non-inflammable.
Ans: c

105. In vapour compression refrigeration system, refrigerant occurs as liquid between

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(a) condenser and expansion valve

(b) compressor and evaporator
(c) expansion valve and evaporator
(d) compressor and condenser
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

106. Pick up the correct statement about giving up of heat from one medium to other in
ammonia absorption system
(a) strong solution to weak solution
(b) weak solution to strong solution
(c) strong solution to ammonia vapour
(d) ammonia vapour to weak solution
(e) ammonia vapour to strong solution.
Ans: b

107. Efficiency of a Cornot engine is given as 80%. If the- cycle direction be reversed, what
will be the value of COP of
reversed Carnot cycle
(a) 1.25
(b) 0.8
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.25
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

107. If a heat pump cycle operates between the condenser temperature of +27°C and
evaporator temperature of - 23°C, then
the Carnot COP will be
(a) 0.2
(b) 1.2
(c) 5
(d) 6
(e) 10.
Ans: d

109. Aqua ammonia is used as refrigerant in the following type of refrigeration system
(a) compression
(b) direct
(c) indirect
(d) absorption
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
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111. In a refrigeration cycle, the flow of refrigerant is controlled by

(a) compressor
(b) condenser
(c) evaporator
(d) expansion valve
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

112. Where does the lowest temperature occur in a vapour compression cycle ?
(a) condenser
(b) evaporator
(c) compressor
(d) expansion valve
(e) receiver.
Ans: b

113. The leaks in a refrigeration system using Freon are detected by

(a) halide torch which on detection produces greenish flame lighting
(b) sulphur sticks which on detection gives white smoke
(c) using reagents
(d) smelling
(e) sensing reduction in pressure.
Ans: a

124. Pick up the incorrect statement

(a) lithium bromide used in vapour absorption cycle is nonvolatile
(b) lithium bromide plant can't operate below 0°C
(c) a separator is used in lithium bromide plant to remove the unwanted water vapour by
condensing
(d) concentration of solution coming out of lithium bromide generator is more in comparison
to that entering the generator
(e) weak solution in liquid heat exchanger gives up heat to the strong solution.
Ans: c

126. Mass flow ratio of NH3 in comparison to Freon-12 for same refrigeration load and same
temperature limits is of the order
of
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1 : 9
(c) 9 : 1
(d) 1 : 3
(e) 3 : 1
Ans: b
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127. Freon group of refrigerants are

(a) inflammable
(d) toxic
(c) non-inflammable and toxic
(d) non-toxic and inflammable
(e) non-toxic and non-inflammable.
Ans: e

128 Ammonia is
(a) non-toxic
(b) non-inflammable
(c) toxic and non-inflammable
(d) highly toxic and inflammable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

129. In vapour compression cycle using NH3 as refrigerant, initial charge is filled at
(a) suction of compressor
(b) delivery of compressor
(c) high pressure side close to receiver
(d) low pressure side near receiver
(e) anywhere in the cycle.
Ans: c

132. One ton of the refrigeration is

(a) the standard unit used in refrigeration problems
(b) the cooling effect produced by melting 1 ton of ice
(c) the refrigeration effect to freeze 1 ton of water at 0°C into ice at 0°C in 24 hours
(d) the refrigeration effect to produce 1 ton of ice at NTP conditions
(e) the refrigeration effect to produce 1 ton of ice in 1 hour time.
Ans: c

134. Superheating in a refrigeration cycle

(a) increases COP
(b) decreases COP
(c) COP remains unaltered
(d) other factors decide COP
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b

135. For proper refrigeration in a cabinet, if the temperature and vapour pressure difference
between cabinet and atmosphere
is high, then
(a) bigger cabinet should be used
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(b) smaller cabinet should be used

(c) perfectly tight vapour seal should be used
(d) refrigerant with lower evaporation temperature should be used
(e) refrigerant with high boiling point must be used.
Ans: c

135. Choose the correct statement

(a) A refrigerant should have low latent heat
(b) If operating temperature of system is low, then refrigerant with low boiling point should
be used
(c) Precooling and subcooling bf refrigerant are same
(d) Superheat and sensible heat of a. refrigerant are same
(e) Refrigerant is inside the lubes in case of a direct-expansion chiller.
Ans: b

138. The advantage of dry compression is that

(a) it permits higher speeds to be used
(b) it permits complete evaporation in the evaporator
(c) it results in high volumetirc and mechanical efficiency
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

139. Choose the wrong statement

(a) Temperature of medium being cooled must be below that of the evaporator
(b) Refrigerant leaves the condenser as liquid
(c) All solar thermally operated absorption systems are capable only of intermittent operation
(d) frost on evaporator reduces heat transfer
(e) refrigerant is circulated in a refrigeration system to transfer heat.
Ans: a

142. The coefficient of performance is the ratio of the refrigerant effect to the
(a) heat of compression
(b) work done by compressor
(c) enthalpy increase in compressor
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

143. The C.O.P of a refrigeration cycle with increase in evaporator temperature, keeping
condenser temperature constant, will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unaffected
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(d) may increase or decrease depending on the type of refrigerant used

(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a

144. Vertical lines on pressure-enthalpy chart show constant

(a) pressure lines
(b) temperature lines
(c) total heat lines
(d) entropy lines
(e) volume lines.
Ans: c

145. Most of the domestic refrigerators work on the following refrigeration system
(a) vapour compression
(b) vapour absorption
(c) carnot cycle
(d) electrolux refrigerator
(e) dual cycle.
Ans: a

146. The general rule for rating refrigeration systems (excepting for C02 system) is to
approximate following h.p. per ton of
Refrigeration
(a) 0.1 to 0.5 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(b) 0.5 to 0.8 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(c) 1 to 2 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(d) 2 to 5 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(e) 5 to 10 h.p. per ton refrigeration.
Ans: c

147. Reducing suction pressure in refrigeration cycle

(a) lowers evaporation temperature
(b) increases power required per ton of refrigeration
(c) lowers compressor capacity because vapour is lighter
(d) reduces weight displaced by piston
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

148. Cooling water is required for following equipment in ammonia absorption plant
(a) condenser
(b) evaporator
(c) absorber
(d) condenser and absorber
(e) condenser, absorber and separator (rectifier).
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Ans: e

151. Which of the following refrigerants has lowest freezing point

(a) Freon-12
(b) NH3
(c) C02
(d) Freon-22
(e) S02.
Ans: d

152. The COP of a vapour compression plant in comparison to vapour absorption plant is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) more/less depending on size of plant
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a

153. The C.O.P. of a domestic refrigerator in comparison to domestic air conditioner will be
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) dependent on weather conditions
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c

154. The evolution of heat of solution takes place in ammonia absorption plant when
(a) ammonia vapour goes into solution
(b) ammonia vapour is driven out of solution
(c) lithium bromide mixes with ammonia
(d) weak solution mixes with strong solution
(e) lithium bromide is driven out of solution.
Ans: a

155. The change in evaporator temperature in a refrigeration cycle, as compared to change in

condenser temperature,
influences the value of C.O.P.
(a) more
(b) less
(c) equally.
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
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156. Cooling water is required for following equipment in ammonia absorption plant
(a) condenser
(b) evaporator
(c) condenser and absorber
(d) condenser, absorber and separator (rectifier).

157. Absorption system normally uses the following refrigerant

(a) Freon-11
(b) Freon-22
(c) C02
(d) ammonia.

158. Which of the following is not a desirable property of a refrigerant

(a) high triiscibility with oil
(b) low boiling point
(c) good electrical conductor
(d) large latent heat

160. Choose the correct statement

(a) A refrigerant should have low latent heat
(b) If operating temperature of system is low, then refrigerant with low boiling point should
be used
(c) Precooling and subcooling bf refrigerant are same
(d) Superheat and sensible heat of a. refrigerant are same

161. Aqua ammonia is used as refrigerant in the following type of refrigeration system
(a) compression
(b) direct
(c) indirect
(d) absorption

162. If the evaporator temperature of a plant is lowered, keeping the condenser temperature
constant, the h.p. of compressor required will be
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) more/less depending on rating

164. In a refrigeration cycle, the flow of refrigerant is controlled by

(a) compressor
(b) condenser
(c) evaporator
(d) expansion valve
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166. The leaks in a refrigeration system using Freon are detected by

(a) halide torch which on detection produces greenish flame lighting
(b) sulphur sticks which on detection gives white smoke
(c) using reagents
(d) smelling

167.Pick up the incorrect statement

(a) lithium bromide used in vapour absorption cycle is nonvolatile

(b) lithium bromide plant can't operate below 0°C
(c) a separator is used in lithium bromide plant to remove the unwanted water vapour by
condensing
(d) concentration of solution coming out of lithium bromide generator is more in
comparison to that entering the generator

168. The wet bulb depression is the difference of

(a) DBT, WBT
(b) DPT, DBT
(c) DPT, WBT
(d) WBT, enthalpy

169. The dew point depression is difference of

(a) DBT, WBT
(b) DPT, DBT
(c) DPT, WBT
(d) WBT, enthalpy

170.The wet bulb temperature lines are

(a) parallel, equispaced
(b) inclined, parallel and equispaced
(c) inclined, parallel and non-equispaced
(d) horizontal and parallel to each other

AIR CONDITIONING

1. The dry bulb temperature lines are

(a) parallel, equispaced
(b) inclined, parallel and equispaced
(c) inclined, parallel and non-equispaced
(d) vertical and parallel to each other

2. The dew-point temperature lines are

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(a) parallel, equispaced

(b) inclined, parallel and equispaced
(c) inclined, parallel and non-equispaced
(d) horizontal, equispaced and parallel to each other

3. The specific volume lines are

(a) parallel, equispaced
(b) inclined, parallel and equispaced
(c) inclined, parallel and non-equispaced
(d) horizontal, equi-spaced and parallel to each other

4. The compressors used in refrigerator system are of

(a) hermatically sealed type
(b) vane type
(c) centrifugal type
(d) reciprocating type

5. In humidification process the humidity increases and the DBT

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) same
(d) first rise then decrease

6. In sensible cooling the specific humidity

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) same
(d) first rise then decrease

7. In sensible cooling the DBT of air

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) same
(d) first rise then decrease

8. In dehumidification process the humidity increases and the DBT

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) same
(d) first rise then decrease

9. In chemical humidification the enthalpy of air

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(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) same
(d) first rise then decrease

10. The bulb of psychrometer is dry then it will indicate

(a) DPT
(b) DBT
(c) WBT
(d) dry bulb depression

11. If the bulb of psychrometer is surrounded by a wet wick then it will give value of
(a) DPT
(b) DBT
(c) WBT
(d) dry bulb depression

12. The Wet bulb depression is zero when Relative humidity equals
(a) 0
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.75
(d) 1

13. In a psychrometric chart, the vertical lines parallel to the ordinate indicate
(a) Dry bulb Temperature
(b) Wet bulb Temperature
(c) Specific humidity
(d) Enthalpy of saturation

14. The uniformly spaced horizontal lines running parallel to the abscissa in a
psychrometric chart indicate
(a) Absolute humidity
(b) Specific humidity
(c) Dew point temperature
(d) Volume

15. Which of the following statements are TRUE?

(a) Thermodynamic WBT is a property of moist air, while WBT as measured by wet
bulb thermometer is not a property
(b) Both the thermodynamic WBT and WBT as measured by wet bulb thermometer
are properties of moist air
(c) Under no circumstances, dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures are equal
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(d) Wet bulb temperature is always lower than dry bulb temperature, but higher than
dew point temperature

16. Which of the following statements are TRUE?

(a) During sensible cooling of air, both dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures decrease
(b) During sensible cooling of air, dry bulb temperature decreases but wet bulb
temperature remains constant
(c) During sensible cooling of air, dry and wet bulb temperatures decrease but dew
point temperature remains constant
(d) During sensible cooling of air, dry bulb, wet bulb and dew point temperatures
decrease

17. Which of the following statements are TRUE?

(a) During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air decreases
(b) During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air increases
(c) During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air remains constant
(d) During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air may increase,
decrease or remain constant depending upon the temperature of the wet surface

18. The temperature at which the water vapour in the air starts condensing is known as
(a) dew point
(b) dry bulb
(c) wet bulb
(d) saturation

19. When moisture is added to air at constant dry bulb temperature, the process is known as
(a) Sensible cooling
(b) humidification
(c) dehumidification
(d) Chilling

20. Which of the following can be measured by a sling psychrometer?

(a) Wet bulb temperature
(b) Dry bulb as well as wet bulb temperatures
(c) Specific humidity
(d) Absolute humidity

21. A mixture of dry air and water vapour, when the air has diffused the maximum amount
of water vapour into it, is called
(a) Dry air
(b) Moist air
(c) Saturated air
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(d) Specific humidity

22. The temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when it is not effected by the
moisture present in it, is called
(a) Wet bulb temperature
(b) Dry bulb temperature
(c) Dew point temperature
(d) None of these

23. The relative humidity of air is defined as the ratio of

(a) Mass of water vapour in a given volume to the total mass of the mixture of air and
water vapour.
(b) Mass of water vapour in a given volume to the mass of water vapour, if air is
saturated at the same temperature
(c) Mass of water vapour in a given volume to the mass of air
(d) Mass of air to the mass of water vapour in the mixture of air and water vapour

24. On a psychrometric chart, sensible cooling is represented by

(a) Horizontal line
(b) Inclined line
(c) Vertical line
(d) None of these

25. If relative humidity is 100% , then

(a) Dry bulb temperature is greater than wet bulb temperature
(b) Wet bulb temperature is greater than dry bulb temperature
(c) Dry bulb temperature is equal to wet bulb temperature
(d) Dry bulb temperature is one-half of wet bulb temperature

26. The curved lines on a psychrometric chart indicates

(a) Dry bulb temperature
(b) Wet bulb temperature
(c) Specific humidity
(d) Relative humidity

26. The minimum temperature to which moist air can be cooled under ideal conditions in a
spray washer is
(e) Dew point temperature of inlet air
(f) Wet bulb temperature of inlet air
(g) Water inlet temperature
(h) Water outlet temperature
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UNIT-3

FLUID MECHANICS
Fluid Properties – 1

1. Which one of the following is the unit of mass density?

a) kg / m3
b) kg / m2
c) kg / m
d) kg / ms
Answer: a
Explanation: Mass Density(p) is defined as the mass(m) per unit volume(V ), i.e., p = m
⁄v
Thus, the unit of p is kg = m3.

2. The specific gravity of a liquid has

a) the same unit as that of mass density
b) the same unit as that of weight density
c) the same unit as that of specific volume
d) no unit
Answer: d
Explanation: The specific gravity of a liquid is the ratio of two similar quantities
(densities) which makes it unitless.

3. The specific volume of a liquid is the reciprocal of

a) weight density
b) mass density
c) specific weight
d) specific volume
Answer: b
Explanation: Specific volume(v) is defined as the volume(V ) per unit mass(m).
v = v⁄m = 1 / m⁄v = 1⁄p
where p is the mass density.

4. Which one of the following is the unit of specific weight?

a) N / m3
b) N / m2
c) N / m
d) N / ms
Answer: a
Explanation: Specific weight(γ) is defined as the weight(w) per unit volume(V ), i.e.,
γ=w/v
Thus, unit of is N / m3.

5. Which one of the following is the dimension of mass density?

a) [M1 L-3 T0].
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b) [M1 L3 T0].
c) [M0 L-3 T0].
d) [M0 L3 T0].
Answer: a
Explanation: Mass Density(p) is defined as the mass(m) per unit volume(V ), i.e.,
[p] = [m]/[v] = [m] /[L3] = [ML-3].

6. Which one of the following is the dimension of specific gravity of a liquid?

a) [M1 L-3 T0].
b) [M1 L0 T0].
c) [M0 L-3 T0].
d) [M0 L0 T0].
Answer: d
Explanation: The specific gravity of a liquid is the ratio of two similar quantities
(densities) which makes it dimensionless.

7. Which one of the following is the dimension of specific volume of a liquid?

a) [M1 L-3 T0].
b) [M-1 L3 T0].
c) [M-1 L-3 T0].
d) [M0 L3 T0].
Answer: b
Explanation: Specific volume(v) is defined as the volume(V ) per unit mass(m). Thus,
[v] = [V]/[m] = [L3]/[M] = [M-1L3].

8. Which one of the following is the dimension of specific weight of a liquid?

a) [ML-3 T -2].
b) [ML3 T-2].
c) [ML-2 T-2].
d) [ML2 T-2].
Answer: c
Explanation: Specific weight(γ) is defined as the weight(w) per unit volume(V ), i.e.,

9. Two fluids 1 and 2 have mass densities of p1 and p2 respectively. If p1 > p2, which
one of the following expressions will represent the relation between their specific
volumes v1 and v2?
a) v1 > v2
b) v1 < v2
c) v1 = v2
d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient information.
Answer: b
Explanation: Specific volume(v) is defined as the volume(V ) per unit mass(m).
v = v⁄m = 1 / m⁄v = 1⁄p
where p is the mass density. Thus, if p1 > p2, the relation between the specific volumes
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v1 and v2
will be represented by v1 < v2.

10. A beaker is filled with a liquid up to the mark of one litre and weighed. The weight of
the liquid is found to be 6.5 N. The specific weight of the liquid will be
a) 6:5 kN / m3
b) 6:6 kN / m3
c) 6:7 kN / m3
d) 6:8 kN /m3
Answer: a
Explanation: Specific weight(γ) is defined as the weight(w) per unit volume(V ), i.e.,
γ = w⁄V
Thus, γ = 6:5 ⁄10-3 N ⁄ m3 = 6:5 kN/m3.

11. A beaker is filled with a liquid up to the mark of one litre and weighed. The weight of
the liquid is found to be 6.5 N. The specific gravity of the liquid will be
a) 0.65
b) 0.66
c) 0.67
d) 0.68
Answer: b
Explanation: Specific gravity(S) of a liquid is defined as the ratio of the density of the
liquid(pl) to that of water(pw).

Thus, S = 0:66.

12. A beaker is filled with a liquid up to the mark of one litre and weighed. The weight of
the liquid is found to be 6.5 N. The specific volume of the liquid will be
a) 1 l /kg
b) 1:5 l /kg
c) 2 l /kg
d) 2:5 l /kg
Answer: b

Fluid Properties – 2
1. Calculate the specific weight and weight of 20dm3 of petrol of specific gravity 0.6.
a) 5886,117.2
b) 5886,234.2
c) 11772,117.2
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Specific weight = density*acceleration due to gravity
=.6*1000*9.81=5886N/m3
Weight=volume*specific weight
=5886*0.02=117.2N.
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2. If 200m3 of fluid has a weight of 1060N measured on the planet having acceleration
due to gravity 6.625m/s2, what will be it’s specific volume?
a) 0.8
b) 0.7
c) 0.9
d) 0.5
Answer: a
Explanation: Specific weight=Weight/volume
= (Mass*acceleration due to gravity)/volume
=density*acceleration due to gravity
=1/(specific volume *acceleration due to gravity)
Specific volume=1060/(200*6.625).

3. For an incompressible fluid does density vary with temperature and pressure?
a) It varies for all temperature and pressure range
b) It remains constant
c) It varies only for lower values of temperature and pressure
d) It varies only for higher values of temperature and pressure
Answer: b
Explanation: For an incompressible fluid, the change in density is negligible. Thus it
does not change with temperature and pressure.

4. Specific gravity is what kind of property?

a) Intensive
b) Extensive
c) None of the mentioned
d) It depends on external conditions
Answer: a
Explanation: It is independent of quantity of matter present.

5. If there is bucket full of oil and bucket full of water and you are asked to lift them,
which one of the two will require more effort given that volume of buckets remains
same?
a) Oil bucket
b) Water bucket
c) Equal effort will be required to lift both of them
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Density of water is more that oil. Hence, its weight for same volume of oil
will also be higher. Therefore, more effort will be required.

6. If the fluid has specific weight of 10N/m3 for a volume of 100dm3 on a planet which is
having acceleration due to gravity 20m/s2 , what will be its specific weight on a planet
having acceleration due to gravity 4m/s2?
a) 5 N/m3
b) 50 N/m3
c) 2 N/m3
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d) 10 N/m3
Answer: c
Explanation: For same volume, specific weight is directly proportional to acceleration
due to gravity
Specific weight=4*10/20=2.

7. Should Specific Wieght of incompressible fluid only be taken at STP?

a) Yes, as specific weight may show large variation with temperature and pressure
b) No, it can be taken for any temperature and pressure
c) It should be taken at standard temperature but pressure may be any value
d) It should be taken at standard pressure but temperature may be any value
Answer: b
Explanation: Specific weight is inversely proportional to volume. For incompressible
fluid , variation of volume with temperature and pressure is negligible for practical
consideration. Therefore, specific weight remains constant.

8. An instrument with air as fluid was involved in some experiment( specific volume was
the characteristic property utilized) which was conducted during day in desert. Due to
some reason experiment couldn’t be conducted during day and had to be conducted
during night. However there were considerable errors in obtained values. What might be
the reason of these errors?
a) It was human error
b) It was instrumental error
c) Error was due to the fact that experiment was conducted at night
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: In Desert areas, temperature at night is considerably lower than at day. Due
to this air contracts at night. Hence, it’s specific volume changes. As specific volume was
characteristic property utilized, results obtained showed error due to change in specific
volume.

9. A stone weighed 177 N on earth. It was dropped in to oil of specific gravity 0.8 on a
planet whose acceleration due to gravity is 5m/s2. It displaced oil having weight of 100N.
What was the volume of oil displaced by the stone?
a) 25 Litres
b) 15 Litres
c) 25 m3
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Volume displaced=oil displaced/(specific gravity*water density*
acceleration due to gravity )=100/ (0.8*1000*5).

10. An compressible fluid’s specific gravity was measured on earth, on a planet having
acceleration due to gravity 5.5 times that of earth, and in space at STP. Where will it be
having highest value?
a) on the earth
b) on the planet
c) in the space
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d) it will be constant everywhere

Answer: d
Explanation: Specific gravity is characteristic property of fluid and is independent of
external conditions.

Viscosity – 1

1. Water flows between two plates of which the upper one is stationary and the lower one
is moving with a velocity V. What will be the velocity of the fluid in contact with the
upper plate?
a) V
b) N ⁄ 2
c) 2V
d) 0
Answer: d
Explanation: According to the No-Slip condition, the relative velocity between the plate
and the fluid in contact with it must be zero. Thus, the velocity of the fluid in contact with
the upper plate is 0 and that with the lower plate is V.

2. The viscous force the relative motion between the adjacent layers of a fluid in motion.
Which one of the flowing fits best in the sentence?
a) opposes
b) never affects
c) facilitates
d) may effect under certain conditions
Answer: a
Explanation: Viscosity is the internal friction of a fluid in motion. It is the property by
the virtue of which the relative motion between two adjacent fluid layers is opposed.

3. The viscosity of a fluid in motion is 1 Poise. What will be it’s viscosity (in Poise) when
the fluid is at rest?
a) 0
b) 0.5
c) 1
d) 2
Answer: c
Explanation: Viscosity is the property of a fluid and is constant for a given fluid under
given conditions, irrespective of the fact whether the fluid is at rest or in motion.

4. Which of the following correctly states how the viscosities of a liquid and a gas will
change with temperature?
a) Viscosity increases with the increase in temperature of a liquid and decreases with the
increase in temperature of a gas
b) Viscosity increases with the increase in temperature of a liquid and increases with the
increase in temperature of a gas
c) Viscosity decreases with the increase in temperature of a liquid and decreases with the
increase in temperature of a gas
d) Viscosity decreases with the increase in temperature of a liquid and increases with the
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increase in temperature of a gas

Answer: a
Explanation: Viscosity of a liquid is due to the cohesion between it’s molecules. With
the increase in temperature of a liquid, cohesion increases, leading to the rise in viscosity.
Viscosity of a gas is due to the momentum transfer between it’s molecules. With the
increase in the temperature of a liquid, molecular motion increases, leading to the fall in
viscosity.

5. Which one of the following is not a unit of dynamic viscosity?

a) Pa-s
b) N-s/m2
c) Poise
d) Stokes
Answer: d

Explanation:
where F= viscous force, A= area, du ⁄ dx = velocity gradient, μ = co-effcient of viscosity.
Therefore,

SI unit of μ is N-s/m2 = Pa-s and CGS unit of μ is dyne-s/cm2. 1 Poise= 1 dyne-s/cm2 and
1 Stokes= 1 cm2/s. Thus, Stokes is not an unit of μ, rather it is a unit of kinematic
viscosity υ.

6. Which of the following is a unit of dynamic viscosity?

a) [M1 L1 T-1].
b) [M1 L-1 T-1].
c) [M1 L-2 T-2].
d) [M1 L-2 T-2].
Answer: b

Explanation:
where F= viscous force, A= area, du ⁄ dx = velocity gradient, μ = co-effcient of viscosity.
Therefore,
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7. Which one of the following is the CGS unit of dynamic viscosity?

a) Stokes
b) Pa-s
c) m2/s
d) Poise
Answer: d

Explanation:
where F= viscous force, A= area, du ⁄ dx = velocity gradient, μ = co-effcient of viscosity.
Therefore,

CGS unit of μ is = dyne-s/cm2. 1 Poise= 1 dyne-s/cm2 and 1 Stokes= 1 cm2/s. Thus, the
CGS unit of μ will be Poise. Stokes is the CGS unit of kinematic viscosity.
8. The dynamic viscosity of a fluid is 1 Poise. What should one multiply to it to get the
answer in N-s/m2?
a) 0.1
b) 1
c) 10
d) 100
Answer: a
Explanation:

1 Poise = 1 dyne-s/cm2

9. Which of the following is a unit of kinematic viscosity?

a) Stokes
b) Pa-s
c) m2=s
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d) Poise

Answer: a
Explanation: ν = μ/ρ, where ν = kinematic viscosity, μ = dynamic viscosity and ρ =
density of the fluid. Unit of μ is dyne-s/cm2 and that of ρ is kg/cm3.
Thus, the unit of ν is cm2/s = Stokes Poise is the unit of dynamic viscosity.

1 Poise = 1 dyne-s/cm2

10. Which of the following is the dimension of kinematic viscosity?

a) [L1 T-1].
b) [L1 T-2].
c) [L2 T-1].
d) [L2 T-2].
Answer: c
Explanation: ν = μ/ρ, where ν = kinematic viscosity, μ = dynamic viscosity and ρ =
density of the fluid.

11. The kinematic viscosity of a fluid is 0.1 Stokes. What will be the value is m2/s?
a) 10-2
b) 10-3
c) 10-4
d) 10-5
Answer: d
Explanation: 1Stokes = 1cm2/s = 10-4m2/s Therefore, 0.1Stokes = 10-1cm2/s = 10-5m2/s.

12. The shear stress at a point in a liquid is found to be 0.03 N/m2. The velocity gradient
at the point is 0.15 s-1. What will be it’s viscosity (in Poise)?
a) 20
b) 2
c) 0.2
d) 0.5
Answer: b

Explanation:
where F= viscous force, A= area, du ⁄ dx = velocity gradient, μ = co-effcient of viscosity.
Therefore,
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13. The space between two plates (20cm*20cm*1cm), 1 cm apart, is filled with a liquid
of viscosity 1 Poise. The upper plate is dragged to the right with a force of 5N keeping the
lower plate stationary.

What will be the velocity in m/s of flow at a point 0.5 cm below the lower surface of the
upper plate if linear velocity profile is assumed for the flow?
a) 1.25
b) 2.5
c) 12.5
d) 0.25

Answer: c

Explanation:
where Fν = viscous force, A = area, du ⁄ dx = velocity gradient, μ = co-effcient of
viscosity. If linear velocity profile is assumed, du⁄dx = U/x, where U = velocity of the
upper plate and x = distance between the two plates. Now, the viscous force Fv = -F= -
5N. Substituting all the values in the equation, U becomes 12.5 m/s.

Viscosity – 2.

1. Two horizontal plates placed 250mm have an oil of viscosity 20 poises. Calculate
the shear stress in oil if upper plate is moved with velocity of 1250mm/s.
a) 20 N/m2
b) 2 N/m2
c) 10 N/m2
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:c
Explanation: Shear Stress = Viscosity * Velocity Gradient
= 20/10* 1.25/0.25
= 10 N/m2.

2. The kinematic viscosity of oil of specific gravity .8 is .0005 .This oil is used for
lubrication of shaft of diameter .4 m and rotates at 190 rpm. Calculate the power lost in
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the bearing for a sleeve length of 90mm. The thickness of the oil film is 1.5mm.
a) 477.65 Watts
b) 955.31 Watts
c) 238.83 Watts
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Power lost= torque * angular velocity
= force* radius* angular velocity
= shear stress * area* radius* angular velocity
Shear Stress = viscosity* velocity gradient
Power lost= 0.0005*0.8*1000* 2*3.142*190/60*0.2*3.142*0.23 * 190/60
= 477.65 Watts.

3. Find the kinematic viscosity of oil having density 1962 g/m3. the force experienced for
area of 20 m2 is 4.904 kN and velocity of gradient at that point is 0.2/s.
a) 0.625
b) 1.25
c) 2.5
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: kinematic viscosity = dynamic viscosity / density
= (shear stress*density)/velocity gradient
= (4904* 1962)/(20*0.2)
= .625.

4. The velocity distribution for fluid flow over a flat plate is given by u=2y-6y2 in which
u is the velocity in metre per second at a distance of y metre above the plate. Determine
the shear stress at y=0.15m.Take dynamic viscosity of fluid as 8.6 poise.
a) 0.172 N/m2
b) 0.344 N/m2
c) 0.086 N/m2
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:a
Explanation: for y = 0.15m, velocity gradient = 0.2
viscosity= shear stress/velocity gradient
shear stress = 0.86*0.2 = 0.172N/m2.

5. In which types of fluids it is observed that momentum transfer dominates cohesive

forces with increase in temperature and hence viscosity increases
a) Gases
b) Liquids
c) Solids
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:a
Explanation: It is the characteristic property of gases which show increase in viscosity
with increase in temperature.
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6. What is the characteristic variation shown by the thixotropic fluids in their shear stress
vs. rate of shear strain graph?
a) shear stress increases with increase in rate of shear strain
b) shear stress decreases with increase in rate of shear strain
c) shear stress shows variation only after a definite shear stress is reached
d) shear stress has decreasing constant and then variation relationship with rate of shear
strain
Answer: c
Explanation: Thixotropic fluid show a Non-Newtonian variation for shear stress vs. rate
of shear strain graph after a characteristic limiting value of shear stress is reached.

7. What happens to viscosity in the case of incompressible fluids as temperature is

increased?
a) It remains constant
b) It increases
c) It decreases
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: In case of incompressible fluids, cohesive forces govern the viscosity. As
temperature increases the cohesive forces between fluid molecules decreases due to
increase in molecular agitation. Hence, as a result, viscosity decreases.

8. If a fluid, which has a constant specific gravity, is taken to a planet where acceleration
due to gravity is 3 times compared to its value on earth, what will happen to its kinematic
viscosity.
a) It increases
b) It decreases
c) It remains constant
d) None of the above
Answer: c
Explanation: Kinematic viscosity depends on density and dynamic viscosity. Both,
density and dynamic viscosity, are independent of acceleration due to gravity. Therefore,
kinematic viscosity is independent of acceleration due to gravity.

9. In liquids in order to measure the viscosity of fluid experimentally we consider the

variation of shear stress with respect to what property?
a) strain
b) shear strain
c) rate of shear strain
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: By definition, viscosity is shear stress per unit ‘rate of shear strain’.

10. For a compressible fluid the kinematic viscosity is affected by temperature and
pressure variation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
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Explanation: Viscosity shows variation for change in temperature and pressure for
compressible fluids. Hence, kinematic viscosity is affected by temperature and pressure
variation.

Types of Fluids

1. The relation between shear stress Z and velocity gradient of a fluid is given

by where A and n are constants. If n = 1, what type of fluid will it be?

a) Newtonian fluid
b) Non-Newtonian fluid
c) Pseudoplastic
d) Bingham plastic
Answer: a

Explanation: When n = 1, the relation reduces to Newton’s law of viscosity: z = A * ,

where A will represent the viscosity of the fluid. The fluid following this relation will be
a Newtonian fluid.

2. The relation between shear stress Z and velocity gradient of a fluid is given

by where A and n are constants. If n > 1, what type of fluid will it be?
a) Newtonian fluid
b) Dilatant
c) Pseudoplastic
d) Bingham plastic
Answer: b
Explanation: When n ≠ 1, the relation will be treated as Power law for Non-Newtonian
fluids:

. For n > 1, the rate of change of the shear stress increases with the
increase in the value of velocity gradient. Such fluids are called Dilatants.

3. The relation between shear stress Z and velocity gradient of a fluid is given

by where A and n are constants. If n < 1, what type of fluid will it be?
a) Newtonian fluid
b) Dilatant
c) Pseudoplastic
d) Bingham plastic
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When n ≠ 1, the relation will be treated as Power law for Non-Newtonian
fluids:
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. For n < 1, the rate of change of the shear stress decreases with the
increase in the value of velocity gradient. Such fluids are called Pseudoplastics.
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4. The relation between shear stress Z and velocity gradient of a fluid is given

by + B where A, n and B are constants. Which of the following

conditions will hold for a Bingham plastic?
a) A = 0;B ≠ 0; n ≠ 1
b) A ≠ 0;B = 0; n ≠ 1
c) A = 0;B = 0; n = 1
d) A ≠ 0;B ≠ 0; n = 1
Answer: d
Explanation: For Bingham Plastics, shear stress will not remain constant after an yield
value of stress. Thus, A ≠ 0;B ≠ 0. After the yield value, the relation between the shear
stress and velocity gradient will become linear. hus, n = 1.

5. The relation between shear stress Z and velocity gradient of a fluid is given

by + B where A, n and B are constants. Which of the following

conditions will hold for a Rheopectic?
a) A = 0;B ≠ 0; n > 1
b) A ≠ 0;B = 0; n < 1
c) A = 0;B = 0; n < 1
d) A ≠ 0;B ≠ 0; n > 1
Answer: d
Explanation: For Rheopectics, shear stress will not remain constant after an yield value of
stress. Thus, A ≠ 0; B ≠ 0. After the yield value, the rate of change of the shear stress
increases with the increase in the value of velocity gradient. Thus, n > 1.

6. The relation between shear stress Z and velocity gradient of a fluid is given

by + B where A, n and B are constants. Which of the following

conditions will hold for a Thixotropic fluid?
a) A = 0;B ≠ 0; n > 1
b) A ≠ 0;B = 0; n > 1
c) A = 0;B = 0; n < 1
d) A ≠ 0;B ≠ 0; n < 1
Answer: d
Explanation: For Thixotropics, shear stress will not remain constant after an yield value
of stress. Thus, A ≠ 0;B ≠ 0. After the yield value, the rate of change of the shear stress
decreases with the increase in the value of velocity gradient. Thus, n < 1.
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7. The graph shows relation between shear stress Z and velocity gradient of a fluid is

given by where A and n are constants. The graphs are drawn for three
values of n. Which one will be the correct relationship between n1, n2 and n3?

a) n1 > n2 > n3
b) n1 < n2 < n3
c) n1 > n3 > n2
d) n1 < n3 < n2
Answer: b
Explanation: The graph corresponding to n = n1 represents Pseudoplastics, for which the
rate of change of the shear stress decreases with the increase in the value of velocity
gradient. The graph corresponding to n = n2 represents Newtonian fluids, for which shear
stress changes linearly with the change in velocity gradient. The graph corresponding to n
= n3 represents Dilatents, for which the rate of change of the shear stress increases with
the increase in the value of velocity gradient.

8. Which of the following is a shear-thinnning fluid?

a) Bingham plastic
b) Rheopectic
c) Dilatant
d) Pseudoplastic
Answer: d
Explanation: Shear-thinning fluids are those which gets strained easily at high values of

shear stresses. The relation between shear stress Z and velocity gradient of a shear-

thinning fluid is given by , where A and n are constants and n < 1. This
relation is followed by Pseudoplastics.
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9. Which of the following is a shear-thickening fluid?

a) Bingham plastic
b) Thixotropic
c) Dilatant
d) Pseudoplastic
Answer: c
Explanation: Shear-thickening fluids are those for which it gets harger to strain it at high

values of shear stresses. The relation between shear stress Z and velocity gradient of

a shear-thickening fluid is given by where A and n are constants and n

> 1. This relation is followed by Dilatants.

10. For what value of flow behaviour index, does the consistency index has a dimension
independent of time?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Answer: c

Explanation: The relation between shear stress Z and velocity gradient of a fluid is

given by
where A is the flow consistency index and n is the flow behaviour index.

Thus [A] will be independent of time when n = 2.

11. What will be the dimension of the flow consistency index for a fluid with a flow
behaviour index of 3?
a) [M L-2 T].
b) [M L-2 T-1].
c) [M L-1 T-2].
d) [M L-1 T].

12. What will be the dimension of the flow consistency index for a fluid with a flow
behaviour index of -1?
a) N/m2 s2
b) N/m2 s
c) N/ms
d) N/ms2
Answer: b
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Explanation: The relation between shear stress Z and velocity gradient of a fluid is

given by where A is the flow consistency index and n is the flow

behaviour index. If n = -1, A = Z * Unit of Z is N/m2 and is s-1. Thus, the unit of A
will be N/m2

Fluid Pressure

1. What is the pressure in Pascals at a depth of 1m below the water surface?

a) 98100 Pa
b) 980 Pa
c) 98 Pa
d) 1 Pa
Answer: a
Explanation: It’s the summation of weights on top of the water surface. In this case, it is
the weight of the atmosphere and water above 1m. [Formula: P (depth) = Patm +(density
of water*gravitational constant*depth)].

2. 15 bar equals to __________ Pascals.

a) 105Pa
b) 1.5 x 106 Pa
c) 100 Pa
d) 1000 Pa
Answer: b
Explanation: Bar is a metric unit of pressure, but it does not fall under the SI units. One
bar is exactly equal to a 100,000 Pascals. This value is taken from the atmospheric
pressure on the earth at sea level.

3. The pressure at any given point of a non-moving fluid is called the ____________
a) Gauge Pressure
b) Atmospheric Pressure
c) Differential Pressure
d) Hydrostatic Pressure
Answer: d
Explanation: Hydrostatic pressure varies with the increase in depth. Hydrostatic pressure
is measured from the surface of the fluid because of the increasing weight of the fluid.
The fluid exerts a downward force from the surface of water thus making it a non-moving
fluid.

4. The device used to measure the fluid pressure is _____________

a) Hygrometer
b) Calorimeter
c) Manometer
d) Thermometer
Answer: c
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Explanation: Manometer is the most preferred measuring device as the pressure is

measured by difference in the column heights of the manometer. It is expressed in terms
of inches or centimeters of fluid making it easier for the conversion process.

5. What type of liquids are measured using a manometer?

a) Heavy liquids
b) Medium Liquids
c) Light Liquids
d) Heavy and light liquids
Answer: c
Explanation: Measurement of liquid in a manometer takes place through differential
pressures by balancing the weight. Thus, it is easier for the manometer to measure liquids
of lesser density than the heavier ones. Example of a light liquid is Water.

6. Which among these devices are the best suited for the measurement of high pressure
liquids with high accuracy?
a) Dead Weight Gauge
b) Vacuum Gauge
c) Manganin wire pressure
d) Ionization Gauge
Answer: c
Explanation: Manganin wire is the most suitable measurement device for high pressure
liquids. It has a high stability and durability on a long term basis. It also has a high
hydrostatic pressure sensitivity and low strain sensitivity.

7. How do we measure the flow rate of liquid?

a) Coriolis method
b) Dead weight method
c) Conveyor method
d) Ionization method
Answer: a
Explanation: Coriolis concept of measurement of fluid takes place through the rotation
with the reference frame. It is an application of the Newton’s Law. The device
continuously records, regulates and feeds large volume of bulk materials.

8. What is the instrument used for the automatic control scheme during the fluid flow?
a) Rotameters
b) Pulley plates
c) Rotary Piston
d) Pilot Static Tube
Answer: d
Explanation: Pilot static tube is a system that uses an automatic control scheme to detect
pressure. It has several holes connected to one side of the device. These outside holes are
called as a pressure transducer, which controls the automatic scheme during fluid flow.

9. Define Viscosity?
a) Resistance to flow of an object
b) Resistance to flow of air
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c) Resistance to flow of fluid

d) Resistance to flow of heat
Answer: c
Explanation: Viscosity is developed due to the relative motion between two surfaces of
fluids at different velocities. It happens due to the shear stress developed on the surface of
the fluid.

10. What is the viscosity of water at 30oC?

a) 80.1
b) 0 .801
c) 801
d) 0.081
Answer: b
Explanation: A graph is plotted with temperature in the x-axis and dynamic viscosity in
the y-axis. With the increase in pressure the viscosity decreases. It corresponds to an
informal concept of thickness.

Fluid Pressure at a Point & Pascal’s Law

1. A Hydraulic press has a ram of 30 cm diameter and a plunger of of 2 cm diameter. It is

used for lifting a weight of 35 kN. Find the force required at the plunger.
a) 233.3 kN
b) 311.1 kN
c) 466.6 kN
d) 155.5 kN
Answer: d
Explanation: F/a=W/A
F=(35000*3.142*.02*.02)/(3.142*0.3*0.3)
=155.5 kN.

2. The pressure at a point in the fluid is 4.9 N/cm2. Find height when the fluid under
consideration is in oil of specific gravity of 0.85.
a) 5.83 m
b) 11.66 m
c) 17.49 m
d) 8.74 m
Answer: a
Explanation: Height=p/ρg
=48620/850*9.81
=5.83 m.

3. An open tank contains water upto a depth of 350 cm and above it an oil of specific
gravity 0.65 for a depth of 2.5 m. Find the pressure intensity at the extreme bottom of the
tank.
a) 5.027 N/cm2
b) 10.05 N/cm2
c) 2.51 N/cm2
d) None of the mentioned
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Answer: a
Explanation: p= (specific gravity of water* height of water + specific gravity of oil*
height of oil) * 9.81
= 5.027 N/cm2.

4. The diameters of a small piston and a large piston of a hydraulic jack are 45 mm and
100 mm respectively.Force of 0.09 kN applied on smaller in size piston. Find load lifted
by piston if smaller in size piston is 40 cm above the large piston. The density of fluid is
850 kg/m3
a) 60 N/cm2
b) 12 N/cm2
c) 30 N/cm2
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Pressure at bottom of tank =ρgh + F/a
=850*9.81*0.4 + 90/3.142*0.045*0.045
=60 N/cm2.

5. If fluid is at rest in a container of a narrow mouth at a certain column height and same
fluid is at rest at same column height in a container having broad mouth, will the pressure
be different at certain depth from fluid surface.
a) Pressure will be same for both.
b) Pressure will be more for narrower mouth
c) Pressure will be less for narrower mouth
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: As per hydrostatic law, the pressure depends only on the height of water
column and not its shape.

6. We can draw Mohr’s circle for a fluid at rest.

a) True
b) false
Answer: b
Explanation: Mohr’s circle is used to denote shear stress distribution. For fluid at rest,
there is no shear stress. Hence, we cannot draw Mohr’s circle for fluid at rest.

7. Pressure intensity or force due to pressure gradient for fluid at rest is considered as
which kind of force?
a) Surface force
b) Body force
c) Force due to motion
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Pressure force is surface force.

8. Calculate the hydrostatic pressure for water moving with constant velocity at a depth of
5 m from the surface.
a) 49 kN/m2
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b) 98 kN/m2
c) since fluid is in motion, we cannot analyse
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: If fluid is moving with uniform velocity we treat it analytically same as if
fluid is at rest
p= ρgh.

9. Pressure distribution for fluid at rest takes into consideration pressure due to viscous
force.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Viscous force term in pressure expression for fluid at rest is absent as their
is no motion of liquid.

10. Barometer uses the principle of fluid at rest or pressure gradient for its pressure
calculation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Principle of Barometer is Hydrostatic law.

Pressure Distribution in a Fluid – 1

1. Which one of the following is the unit of pressure?

a) N
b) N/m
c) N/m2
d) N/m3
Answer: c
Explanation: Pressure is defined as the force per unit area acting normal to a surface. The
SI unit of force is N and area is m2. Thus, the unit of pressure will be N = m2.

2. Which one of the following is the dimension of pressure?

a) [MLT2].
b) [MLT-2].
c) [ML-1T2].
d) [ML-1T-2].
Answer: d
Explanation: Pressure (p) is defined as the force (F) per unit area (A) acting normal to a
surface.

Thus,
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3. Which one of the following statements is true regarding pressure?

a) Pressure is a scalar quantity
b) Pressure is a vector quantity
c) Pressure is a scalar quantity only when the area is infinitesimally small
d) Pressure is a vector quantity only when the area is infinitesimally small
Answer: a
Explanation: Pressure is defined as the force per unit area acting normal to a surface. Both
force and area are vectors, but the division of one by the other leads to a scalar quantity.
advertisement

4. A beaker half-filled with water is exposed to the atmosphere. If the pressure at points
A, B and C as shown are Pa, Pb and Pc respectively, which one of the following will be the
relation connecting the three?

a) Pa > Pb = Pc
b) Pa > Pb > Pc
c) Pa < Pb < Pc
d) Pa < Pb = Pc

Answer: d
Explanation: Since the beaker is exposed to the atmosphere, the pressure at point A will
be atmospheric, Pa = 0. Pressure increases in the vertically downward direction, Pa <
Pb and Pa < Pc.
Pressure remains constant in the horizontal direction, Pb = Pc. Therefore, Pa < Pb = Pc.

Continuity Equation

1. If a liquid enters a pipe of diameter d with a velocity v, what will it’s velocity at the
exit if the diameter reduces to 0.5d?
a) v
b) 0.5v
c) 2v
d) 4v
Answer: d
Explanation: According to the Continuity Equation,
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where a represents flow area, v represents flow velocity, i is for inlet conditions and o is
for outlet conditions.

2. The continuity equation is based on the principle of

a) conservation of mass
b) conservation of momentum
c) conservation of energy
d) conservation of force
Answer: a
Explanation: According to the Continuity Equation, if no fluid is added or removed from
the pipe in any length then the mass passing across different sections shall be the same.
This is in accordance with the principle of conservation of mass which states that matter
can neither be created nor be destroyed.

3. Two pipes of diameters d1 and d2 converge to form a pipe of diameter d. If the liquid
flows with a velocity of v1 and v2 in the two pipes, what will be the flow velocity in the
third pipe?

Answer: d
Explanation: According to the Continuity Equation,

where a represents flow area, v represents flow velocity, i is for inlet conditions and o is
for outlet conditions. Thus,
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4. Two pipes of diameters d1 and d2 converge to form a pipe of diameter 2d. If the liquid
flows with a velocity of v1 and v2 in the two pipes, what will be the flow velocity in the
third pipe?
a) v1 + v2
b) v1 + v2/2
c) v1 + v2/4
d) 2(v1 + v2)
Answer: c
Explanation: According to the Continuity Equation,

where a represents flow area, v represents flow velocity, i is for inlet conditions and o is
for outlet conditions. Thus,

5. Two pipes, each of diameter d, converge to form a pipe of diameter D. What should be
the relation between d and D such that the flow velocity in the third pipe becomes double
of that in each of the two pipes?
a) D = d
b) D = 2d
c) D = 3d
d) D = 4d
Answer: a
Explanation: According to the Continuity Equation,

where a represents flow area, v represents flow velocity, i is for inlet conditions and o is
for outlet conditions. Thus,
A1v1 + A2v2 = Av
d2v + d2v = D2v
D = d.

6. Two pipes, each of diameter d, converge to form a pipe of diameter D. What should be
the
relation between d and D such that the
ow velocity in the third pipe becomes half of that in each
of the two pipes?
a) D = d/2
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b) D = d/3
c) D = d/4
d) D = d/5
Answer: a
Explanation: According to the Continuity Equation,

where a represents flow area, v represents flow velocity, i is for inlet conditions and o is
for outlet conditions. Thus,
A1v1 + A2v2 = Av
d2v + d2v = Dv/2
d = D ⁄ 4.
Bernoulli’s Equation for Real Fluids & Applications of Bernoulli’s Equation
1. Which is the cheapest device for measuring flow / discharge rate.
a) Venturimeter
b) Pitot tube
c) Orificemeter
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Orificemeter is the cheapest available device for measuring flow/discharge
rate.
2. The principle of Orificemeter is same as that of Venturimeter.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The working principle for both Orificemeter and Venturimeter is same.

3. What is the relationship between Orificemeter diameter and pipe diameter

a) Orificemeter diameter is 0.5 times the pipe diameter
b) Orificemeter diameter is one third times the pipe diameter
c) Orificemeter diameter is one fourth times the pipe diameter
d) Orificemeter diameter is equal to the pipe diameter
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

4. The Orificemeter readings are more accurate than Venturimeter.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The Venturimeter readings are more accurate than Orificemeter.

5. The Orificemeter readings are more accurate than Pitot tube readings.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The Pitot tube readings are more accurate than Orificemeter.
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6. The Orificemeter has a smooth edge hole.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The Orificemeter has a rough edge hole.

7. A nanometre is connected to a section which is at a distance of about 4 to 6 times the

pipe diameter upstream from orifice plate.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A manometre is connected to a section which is at a distance of about 1.5 to
2.0 times the pipe diameter upstream from orifice plate.

8. Venturimeter is based on integral form of Euler’s equation.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Venturimeter is based on Bernoulli’s equation.

9. Orifice Meter can only be used for measuring rate of flow in open pipe like structure.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Orificemetre can only be used for measuring rate of flow in an enclosed pipe
like structure.

10. Orifice meter consists of a flat rectangular plate.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Orifice meter consists of a flat circular plate.

FLUID MACHINERY (OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION)

1. Hydraulic energy is converted into another form of energy by hydraulic machines.

What form of energy is that?
a) Mechanical Energy
b) Electrical Energy
c) Nuclear Energy
d) Elastic Energy
Answer: a
2. Buckets and blades used in a turbine are used to:
a) Alter the direction of water
b) Switch off the turbine
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c) To regulate the wind speed

d) To regenerate the power
Answer: a
3. Which kind of turbines changes the pressure of the water entered through it?
a) Reaction turbines
b) Impulse turbines
c) Reactive turbines
d) Kinetic turbines
Answer: a
4. Which type of turbine is used to change the velocity of the water through its flow?
a) Kinetic turbines
b) Axial flow turbines
c) Impulse turbines
d) Reaction turbines
Answer: c
5. Pipes of largest diameter which carry water from reservoir to the turbines is known
as_____________
a) Head stock
b) Tail race
c) Tail stock
d) Pen stock
Answer: d
6. Pen stocks are made up of_____________
a) Steel
b) Cast iron
c) Mild steel
d) Wrought iron
Answer: a
7. The important type of axial flow reaction turbines are ______________
a) Propeller and Pelton turbines
b) Kaplan and Francis turbines
c) Propeller and Francis turbines
d) Propeller and Kaplan turbines
Answer: d
8. ______________ is a axial flow reaction turbines, if vanes are fixed to hub of turbine
a) Propeller turbine
b) Francis turbine
c) Kaplan turbine
d) Pelton turbine
Answer: a
9. Francis and Kaplan turbines are known as _______
a) Impulse turbine
b) Reaction turbine
c) Axial flow turbine
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d) Mixed flow turbine

Answer: b
10. Specific speed of reaction turbine is between?
a) 5 and 50
b) 10 and 100
c) 100 and 150
d) 150 and 300
Answer: b
11. If energy available at inlet of turbine is only kinetic energy then it is classified based
on
a) Type of energy at inlet
b) Direction of flow through runner
c) Head at inlet of turbine
d) Specific speed of turbine
Answer: a
12. If water flows in radial direction at inlet of runner and leaves axially at outlet then
turbine is named as
a) Tangential flow turbine
b) Axial flow turbine
c) Radial flow turbine
d) Mixed flow turbine
Answer: d
13. Pelton turbine is operated under
a) Low head and high discharge
b) High head and low discharge
c) Medium head and high discharge
d) Medium head and medium discharge
Answer: b
14. Kaplan turbine is operated under __________
a) Low head and high discharge
b) High head and low discharge
c) Medium head and high discharge
d) Medium head and medium discharge
Answer: a
15. Medium specific speed of turbine implies _____________
a) Pelton turbine
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Francis turbine
d) Propeller turbine
Answer: c
16. In which of following turbine inlet and outlet blade velocities of vanes are equal?
a) Francis turbine
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Pelton turbine
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d) Propeller turbine
Answer: c
17. Tangential velocity of blade of Pelton wheel is proportional to ____________
a) Speed of wheel
b) Angular velocity of wheel
c) Rpm of wheel
d) Speed, angular velocity, RPM of the wheel
Answer: a
18. In which of following turbine inlet whirl velocity and inlet jet velocity are equal in
magnitude?
a) Pelton turbine
b) Propeller turbine
c) Kaplan turbine
d) Francis turbine
Answer: a
19. In Pelton wheel, relative inlet velocity of jet with respect to velocity of vane is
_____________
a) Difference between inlet jet velocity and blade velocity
b) Sum of inlet jet velocity and blade velocity
c) Inlet jet velocity
d) Blade velocity
Answer: a
20. In Pelton wheel if angle of deflection is not mentioned then we assume it
as______________
a) 150 degrees
b) 200 degrees
c) 165 degrees
d) 185 degrees
Answer: c
21. The work done per unit weight of water jet striking runner blades of Pelton turbine is
given by expression
a) [Vw1+Vw2] u/g
b) Vw1*u/g
c) [Vw1+Vw2]/g
d) [Vw1+Vw2]u
Answer: a
22. In Pelton turbines the expression for power delivered at inlet to runner is given by
a) W*[Vw1+Vw2]u/g
b) W*[Vw1-Vw2]u/g
c) W*[Vw1+Vw2]u/g, W*[Vw1-Vw2]u/g
d) [Vw1+Vw2]u/g
Answer: c
23. Kinetic energy of jet at inlet of turbine is given as __________________
a) 0.5(paV1)*V1
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b) 0.5(paV1)*V1*V1
c) 0.5(aV1)*V1*V1
d) 0.5(pV1)*V1*V1
p= density of liquid, a= area of jet, V1= inlet jet velocity
Answer: b
24. The force exerted by a jet of water in the direction of jet of jet on a stationary curved
plates Fx is
a) pav*v
b) pav
c) pav*v(1+cos k)
d) pav*v(1+sin k)
p=density, v= velocity of jet, k= blade angle
Answer: c
25. The force exerted by a jet of water in the direction of jet of jet on moving curved
plates is
a) pa(v-u)*(v-u)
b) pa(v-u)
c) pav*(v-u)(1+cos k)
d) pa(v-u)*(v-u)(1+sin k)
p=density, v= velocity of jet, k= blade angle, u= blade velocity
Answer: c
26. The power supplied at inlet of turbine in S.I units is known as_____________
a) Shaft power
d) Runner power
c) Water power
d) Total power
Answer: c
27. The expression for water power in Pelton wheel is ________________
a) (P*g*Q*H) Kw
b) (g*Q*H*a) Kw
c) (g*Q) Kw
d) (g*H) Kw
Answer: a
28. The number of buckets of Pelton wheel is 25 and diameter of runner is 1.5meters then
calculate diameter of jet is
a)80mm
b)85mm
c)90mm
d)82mm
Answer: b
29. In order to have maximum power from a pelton turbine, the bucket speed must be
(A) Equal to jet speed
(B) Equal to half of the jet speed
(C) Equal to twice of the jet speed
(D) Independent of the jet speed
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Ans-b
30. Total head of turbines is_______
a) Pressure head + Static head
b) Kinetic head + Static head
c) Static head + Pressure head
d) Pressure head + Kinetic head + Static head
Answer: d
31. Which type of turbine is a Francis Turbine?
a) Impulse Turbine
b) Screw Turbine
c) Reaction turbine
d) Turgo turbine
Answer: c
32. The overall efficiency of a reaction turbine is the ratio of
a) Actual work available at the turbine to the energy imparted to the wheel
b) Work done on the wheel to the energy (or head of water) actually supplied to the
turbine
c) Power produced by the turbine to the energy actually supplied by the turbine
d) Actual work available at the turbine to energy imparted to the wheel
Answer: a
33. In a reaction turbine, the draft tube is used to
a) To increase the head of water by an amount that is equal to the height of the runner
outlet above the tail race
b) To prevent air to enter the turbine
c) To increase pressure energy of water
d) To transport water to downstream
Answer: a
34. In reaction turbine hydraulic efficiency is
a) Ratio of actual work at the turbine to the energy imparted to the wheel.
b) Ratio of work done on the wheel to energy that is supplied to the turbine.
c) Ratio of power produced by the turbine to the energy actually supplied by the
turbine.
d) Ratio of Work done on the wheel to the energy (or head of water) actually supplied
to the turbine.
Answer: b
35. Among the following which turbine requires more head?
a) Pelton Turbine
b) Kaplan Turbine
c) Francis turbine
d) Tube Turbine
Answer: a
36. Head under which Kaplan turbine is operated______
a) 10-70 meters
b) 70 -100 meters
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c) 100-200 meters
d) Above 200 meters
Answer: a
37. Head under which Francis turbine is operated
a) 10-70 meters
b) 70-100 meters
c) 100-200 meters
d) 40 -600 meters
Answer: d
38. The turbine is preferred for 0 to 25 m head of water?
a) Pelton wheel
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Tube turbine
d) Francis turbine
Answer: b
39. Head lost due to friction is given by k*f*L*v*v/D*2g where f- friction coefficient, L-
length of pen stock, D- diameter of penstock and” k” is constant and its value is
____________
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: c
34. The difference between gross head and friction losses is ____________
a) Net head
b) Gross head
c) Manometric head
d) Net positive suction head
Answer: a
40. _______ is defined as ratio between power delivered to runner and power supplied at
inlet of turbine.
a) Mechanical efficiency
b) Volumetric efficiency
c) Hydraulic efficiency
d) Overall efficiency
Answer: c
41. The ratio of power at the shaft of turbine and power delivered by water to runner is
known as?
a) Mechanical efficiency
b) Volumetric efficiency
c) Hydraulic efficiency
d) Overall efficiency
Answer: a
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42. The product of mechanical efficiency and hydraulic efficiency is known as?
a) Mechanical efficiency
b) Volumetric efficiency
c) Hydraulic efficiency
d) Overall efficiency
Answer: d
43. Among the following which turbine has highest efficiency?
a) Kaplan turbine
b) Francis turbine
c) Pelton turbine
d) Propeller turbine
Answer: a
44. In the expression for overall efficiency of turbine, which is p/(k*g*q*h), where “k” is
known as
a) Density of liquid
b) Specific density of liquid
c) Volume of liquid
d) Specific gravity of liquid
Answer: a
45. Among the following which turbine has least efficiency?
a) Pelton turbine
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Francis turbine
d) Propeller turbine
Answer: a
46. Radial flow reaction turbines contain spiral casing which area ____________
a) Remains constant
b) Gradually decreases
c) Gradually increases
d) Suddenly decreases
Answer: b
47. ____________ consists of stationary circular wheel all around the runner of turbine
a) Casing
b) Guide mechanism
c) Runner
d) Drafting
Answer: b
48. The casing of radial flow reaction turbine is made of spiral shape, so that water may
enter the runner
a) Variable acceleration
b) Constant acceleration
c) Variable velocity
d) Constant velocity
Answer: d
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49. _____________ allow the water to strike the vanes fixed on runner without shock at
inlet
a) Casing
b) Guide vanes
c) Runner
d) Draft tube
Answer: b
50. Runner blades are made up of _____________
a) Cast steel
b) Cast iron
c) Wrought iron
d) Steel
Answer: a
51. The pressure at the exit of runner of reaction turbine is generally_____than
atmospheric pressure
a) Greater
b) Lesser
c) Constant
d) Equal
Answer: b
52. ___________is a pipe of gradually increasing area used for discharging water from
exit of the turbine to the tail race
a) Casing
b) Guide mechanism
c) Draft tube
d) Runner
Answer: c
53. The formation of vapour cavities is called _____
a) Static pressure drop
b) Cavitation
c) Isentropic expansion
d) Emulsion
Answer: b
54. Cavitation usually occurs due to the changes in ________
a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Volume
d) Heat
Answer: a
55. The efficiency of the vane is given by_________
a) 1-V22/ V12
b) 1-(V22/ V12)
c) V22/ V12
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d) 1- V12
Answer: a
56. Hydrodynamic cavitation is due to the process of _________
a) Vaporisation
b) Sedimentation
c) Filtration
d) Excavation
Answer: a
57. The process of bubble generation leads to __________
a) High temperatures
b) High pressures
c) High energy densities
d) High volumetric ratio
Answer: c
58. In general, reaction turbines consist of which types of energies?
a) kinetic energy and potential energy
b) potential energy and pressure energy
c) kinetic energy and pressure energy
d) gravitational energy and potential energy
Answer: c
59. ___________ is a circular wheel on which a series of smooth, radial curved vanes are
fixed.
a) Guide wheel
b) Runner
c) Casing
d) Draft tube
Answer: b
60. In an outward radial flow reaction turbine the ratio of tangential wheel at inlet to
given velocity of jet is known as ___________
a) Speed ratio
b) Flow ratio
c) Discharge
d) Radial discharge
Answer: b
61. An outward radial reaction turbine has ______
a) u1 < u2
b) u1 > u2
c) u1 = u2
d) u2 = u1 = 0
Answer: a
62. What is the water flow direction in the runner in a Francis turbine?
a) Axial and then tangential
b) Tangential and then axial
c) Radial and then axial
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d) Axial and then radial

Answer: c
63. Which of the following is true in case of flow of water before it enters the runner of a
Francis Turbine?
a) Available head is entirely converted to velocity head
b) Available head is entire converted to pressure head
c) Available head is neither converted to pressure head nor velocity head
d) Available head is partly converted to pressure head and partly to velocity head
Answer: d
64. Why does the cross sectional area of the Spiral casing gradually decrease along the
circumference of the Francis turbine from the entrance to the tip?
a) To ensure constant velocity of water during runner entry
b) To prevent loss of efficiency of the turbine due to impulsive forces caused by extra
area
c) To prevent leakage from the turbine
d) To reduce material costs in order to make the turbine more economical
Answer: a
65. Francis turbine is typically used for which of the following values of available heads?
a) 300 m
b) 100 m
c) 30 m
d) 5 m
Answer: b
66. Work done per second by a Francis turbine can be given by ρAVf (Vw1u1 + Vw2u2).
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
67. Which of the following terms is considered to be zero while deriving the equation for
work done per second for Francis Turbine having radial discharge at outlet.
a) Vr1
b) Vw2
c) Vf2
d) Vr2
Answer: b
68. Power developed by Francis turbine are calculated for a certain set of conditions.
Now, the inlet whirl velocity is doubled, the blade velocity at inlet is doubled and the
flow velocity is quartered. The power developed:
a) Is 4 times the original value
b) Is 2 times the original value
c) Is ½ times the original value
d) Is same as the original value
Answer: d
69. In a Kaplan turbine, what is the direction of water flow?
a) Axial and then axial
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b) Radial and then axial

c) Tangential and then axial
d) Tangential and then radial
Answer: a
70. For which of the following values of available heads may Kaplan turbine be used?
a) 250 m
b) 100 m
c) 80 m
d) 50 m
Answer: d
71. In this type of low head turbine, the guide vanes are fixed to the hub of the turbine
and are not adjustable. What is this type of turbine called?
a) Francis turbine
b) Kaplan Turbine
c) Propeller Turbine
d) Pelton turbine
Answer: a

72. Which of the following turbines will have the lowest number of blades in it?
a) Pelton turbine
b) Steam turbine
c) Francis turbine
d) Kaplan turbine
Answer: d
73. Which among the following is not a unit quantity of turbine?
a) Unit speed
b) Unit discharge
c) Unit power
d) Unit temperature
Answer: d
74. The main function of centrifugal pumps are to ________
a) Transfer speed
b) Transfer pressure
c) Transfer temperature
d) Transfer energy
Answer: d
75. Centrifugal pumps transfer energy from _______
a) Rotor to fluid
b) Fluid to rotor
c) Draft to rotor
d) Rotor to draft
Answer: a
76. The fundamental significance of all the turbomachinery is _______
a) Conservation of momentum
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b) Conservation of mass
c) Conservation of heat
d) Conservation of speed
Answer: a
77. The change of angular momentum in a pump is equal to the _________
a) Sum of speeds
b) Sum of individual momentum
c) Sum of temperatures
d) Sum of energy transferred from a body
Answer: b
78. Conservation of angular momentum is described by _______
a) Newtons equation
b) Euler’s equation
c) Rutherford’s equation
d) Maxim equation
Answer: b
79. The inlet passage of centrifugal pump is controlled by ________
a) Gate
b) Head race
c) Turbine
d) Pump
Answer: a
80. The fluid gains _________ while passing through the impeller.
a) Velocity
b) Pressure
c) Temperature
d) Velocity and pressure
Answer: d
81. What is the shape of the diffuser in the centrifugal pump?
a) Round
b) Dough nut
c) Rectangle
d) Cylindrical
Answer: b
82. When the casing in a centrifugal pump decelerates the flow, what increases?
a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Volume
d) Flow rate
Answer: a
83. The velocity imparted by the impeller is converted into _________
a) Pressure energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Momentum
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d) Potential energy
Answer: a
84. The consequence of Newtons second law is_________
a) Conservation of angular momentum
b) Conservation of mass
c) Conservation of potential energy
d) Conservation of kinetic energy
Answer: a
85. What is the unit of flow rate?
a) kg.m
b) kg/m
c) m3/s
d) /s
Answer: c
86. With the increase in the flow rate, efficiency ______
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) Independent
Answer: b
87. Pump efficiency is defined as the ratio of ___________
a) Pressure to temperature
b) Temperature to pressure
c) Water horsepower to pump horsepower
d) Pump horse power to water horse power
Answer: c
88. The difference in the total head of the pump is called _______
a) Manometric head
b) Euler head
c) Pressure head
d) Shaft head
Answer: a
89. The ratio of manometric head to the work head is called _______
a) Manometric head
b) Euler head
c) Pressure head
d) Shaft head
Answer: b
90. What is the unit of energy per unit weight?
a) m
b) m/s
c) m3/s
d) /s
Answer: a
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91. The energy usage of a pump is determined by _______

a) Adiabatic expansion
b) Power required
c) Adiabatic compression
d) Isentropic expansion
Answer: b
92. If we lower the temperature, the water pump cavitation ________
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) Independent
Answer: b
93. Centrifugal pumps work under the same principle, but differ in their _______
a) Working
b) Functions
c) Dimensions
d) Impeller
Answer: b
94. When a pump casing is filled with liquid before it is started, it is called as _________
a) Adiabatic expansion
b) Priming
c) Adiabatic compression
d) Isentropic expansion
Answer: b
95. The pump will become incapable of pumping in case of _______
a) Gas bounding
b) Throttle bush
c) Stuffing box
d) Casing breakage
Answer: d
96. Priming is needed when impeller cannot impart enough _________
a) Draft speed
b) Energy
c) Pressure
d) Heat
Answer: b
97. Priming performs response using ________
a) Stimulus
b) Froth
c) Slurry
d) Heat
Answer: a
98. In hydraulic head, NPSH is used for the analysis of __________
a) Adiabatic expansion
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b) Priming
c) Wear
d) Cavitation
Answer: d
99. NPSH is the difference between _______
a) Suction pressure and vapour pressure
b) Vapour pressure and suction pressure
c) Suction pressure and heat
d) Shaft and head
Answer: a
100. What can NPSH be used to determine _______
a) Friction characteristics
b) Pipe diameter
c) Cavitation
d) Thermal expansion
Answer: c
101. What is the dimension for Darcy’s friction factor?
a) kg/m
b) N/mm
c) kg
d) Dimensionless
Answer: d
102. When the NPSH is low, it leads to ________
a) Breaking
b) Wear
c) Corrosion
d) Cavitation
Answer: d
103. The characteristic curves of a centrifugal pump, plots ______ required by the
pump.
a) Velocity
b) Pressure
c) NPSH
d) Velocity and pressure
Answer: c
104. What is the shape of the diffuser in the centrifugal pump?
a) Round
b) Dough nut
c) Rectangle
d) Cylindrical
Answer: b
105. When the casing in a centrifugal pump decelerates the flow, what increases?
a) Pressure
b) Temperature
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c) Volume
d) Flow rate
Answer: a
106. Discharge of a centrifugal pump is
(a)directly proportional to diameter of its impeller
(b)inversely proportional to diameter of its impeller
(c)directly proportional to (diameter)2 of its impeller
(d)inversely proportional to (diameter)2 of its impeller
Ans-c
107. Discharge of a centrifugal pump is (where N = Speed of the pump impeller)
(a)directly proportional to N
(b)inversely proportional to N
(c)directly proportional to N2
(d)inversely proportional to N2
Answer: Option A
Ans-c
108. The specific speed from 160 to 500 r.p.m. of a centrifugal pump indicates that
the pump is
(a).slow speed with radial flow at outlet
(b)medium speed with radial flow at outlet
(c)high speed with radial flow at outlet
(d)high speed with axial flow at outlet
Ans-d
109. Delivery head of a centrifugal pump is
(a)directly proportional to N
(b)inversely proportional to N
(c)directly proportional to N2
(d)inversely proportional to N2
Ans-c
110. Head developed by a centrifugal pump is
(a)proportional to diameter of impeller
(b)proportional to speed of impeller
(c)proportional to diameter and speed of impeller
(d)none of the above
Ans-c
111. If the ratio of all the corresponding linear dimensions are equal, then the
model and the prototype are said to have
(a)geometric similarity
(b)kinematic similarity
(c)dynamic similarity
(d)none of these
Ans-a
112. Which of the following pump is suitable for small discharge and high heads?
(a)Centrifugal pump
(b)Axial flow pump
(c)Mixed flow pump
(d)Reciprocating pump
Ans-d
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113. Mechanical efficiency of a centrifugal pump is the ratio of

(a)energy available at the impeller to the energy supplied to the pump by the prime
mover
(b)actual workdone by the pump to the energy supplied to the pump by the prime
mover
(c)energy supplied to the pump to the energy available at the impeller
(d)manometric head to the energy supplied by the impeller per kN of water
Ans-a
114. The cavitation in a hydraulic machine
A.causes noise and vibration of various parts
B.reduces the discharge of a turbine
C.causes sudden drop in power output and efficiency
D.all of the above
Ans-d
115. If the net positive suction head (NPSH) requirement for the pump is not
satisfied, then
A.no flow will take place
B.avitation will be formed
C.efficiency will be low
D.excessive power will be consumed
Ans-d
116. Which of the following pump is successfully used for lifting water to the
turbines?
A.Centrifugal pump
B.Reciprocating pump
C.Jet pump
D.Air lift pump
Ans-c
117. Which of the following statement is correct ?
A.The centrifugal pump is suitable for large discharge and smaller heads.
B.The centrifugal pump requires less floor area and simple foundation as compared to
reciprocating pump.
C.The efficiency of centrifugal pump is less as compared to reciprocating pump.
D.all of the above
Ans-d
118. The centrifugal pump preferred for a specific speed between 80 to 160 r.p.m.
is
A.slow speed with radial flow at outlet
B.medium speed with radial flow at outlet
C.high speed with radial flow at outlet
D.high speed with mixed flow at outlet
Ans-d
1. Reciprocating pump is a ________
a) Negative displacement pump
b) Positive displacement pump
c) Diaphragm pump
d) Emulsion pump
Answer: b
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2. Reciprocating pumps operate by drawing ______ into the chamber

a) Liquid
b) Pressure
c) Heat
d) Electricity
Answer: a
3. The cylinder of reciprocating cylinder is made up of _______
a) Cast iron
b) Wrought iron
c) Aluminium
d) Copper
Answer: a
4. Reciprocating pump is divided into how many types, based on its cylinders?
a) 0
b) 5
c) 2
d) 3
Answer: b
5. The maximum efficiency of the reciprocating pump is _________
a) 20
b) 50
c) 70
d) 85
Answer: d
6. The two opposite motion that comprise a single reciprocation is called _________
a) Turbocharger
b) Stokes
c) Fluid motion
d) Auto motion
Answer: a
7. In a positive displacement pump, what gets displaced?
a) Fluid
b) Volume
c) Pressure
d) Temperature
Answer: b
8. Positive displacement pumps are capable of developing ______ pressures, in _______
suction pressure.
a) High, low
b) Low, high
c) High, high
d) Low, low
Answer: a
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9. When is a reciprocating pump used?

a) When quantity of liquid is small
b) When quantity of liquid is large
c) To pump high pressure
d) To pump low pressure
Answer: a
10. Positive displacement pumps are also called as__________
a) Constant pressure pump
b) Pressure drag pumps
c) Constant volume pumps
d) Constant head pumps
Answer: c
11. When the hydraulic fluid forms on only one side of the piston, it is called _______
a) Single acting pump
b) Double acting pump
c) Froth pump
d) Draft tube
Answer: a
12. The speed of the reciprocating pump is generally measured in ______
a) Stokes.min
b) Stokes/min
c) rps
d) rp/s
Answer: b
13. A pressure vessel is used to hold _______
a) Air
b) Gases
c) Molecules
d) Solids
Answer: b
14. Why do we need a maximum safe operating pressure?
a) Pressure vessel might explode
b) Temperature increase needs to be controlled
c) Heat transfer is rejected
d) Improve overall efficiency
Answer: a
15. When is a reciprocating pump used?
a) When quantity of liquid is small
b) When quantity of liquid is large
c) To pump high pressure
d) To pump low pressure
Answer: a
16. The maximum efficiency of the reciprocating pump is _________
a) 20
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b) 50
c) 70
d) 85
Answer: d
17. A tank that is used to protect closed water heating systems is called ________
a) Pressure vessel
b) Expansion vessel
c) Heat vessel
d) Auto vessel
Answer: b
18. When a cylinder has inlet and outlet ports at each end, then it is called as __________
(a) Double acting
b) Air lift pumps
c) Reciprocating pumps
d) Centrifugal pumps
Answer: a
19. When the piston moves forward, liquid is drawn ________
a) Into the cylinder
b) Away from the cylinder
c) Into the draft tube
d) Away from the draft tube
Answer: a
20. In a reciprocating pump, with the change in discharge pressure, ________
a) The Volume delivered increases
b) The volume delivered decreases
c) Volume delivered remains the same
d) Volume delivered is independent
Answer: c
21. The amount of fluid that leaks internally is called ________
a) Head rac
b) Slip
c) Tail race
d) Internal friction
Answer: b

22. For a good condition, slip should be________

a) Below 1 percent
b) 1 to 2 percent
c) 3 to 4 percent
d) Above 5 percent
Answer: a
23. If the slip is above 5 percent, the pumps needs to be ______
a) Dragged
b) Overhauled
c) Retracted
d) Intermittent
Answer: b
24. Slip in a pump depends on which of following parameters?
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a) Wear
b) Pressure
c) Temperature
d) Heat
Answer: a
25. Air vessel provided in a reciprocating pump
(a)Smoothens the flow by avoiding pulsations
(b)Increases the volumetric efficiency of the pump
(c)Saves the pump from the danger of cavitation
(d)None of these
Answer: Option A
26. What is the maximum theoretical suction lift (metres) of a reciprocating pump?
(a). 5
(b). 10
(c). 50
(d). 100
Answer: Option B
27. Which among the following can be assessed based on the indicator diagram?
a) Overall performance of engine
b) Area of the reservoir
c) Load the engine can take
d) Speed of the Engine
Answer: a
28. How are the indicator diagrams drawn for the ship?
a) By providing the ship’s mass
b) By providing the ship’s volume
c) By matching ships sea trial diagrams
d) By differentiating the diagrams
Answer: c
29. Which among the following is not a type of indicator diagram?
a) Power card
b) Draw card
c) Compression diagram
d) Power house
Answer: d
30. Which among the following cannot be determined by indicator diagram?
a) The actual power generated
b) Cogeneration
c) Compression inside the cylinder
d) Exhausting and scavenging process
Answer: b

31. What type of indicator device is used nowadays?

a) Digital pressure indicator
b) Mechanical indicator
c) Electrical indicator
d) Ionization Gauge
Answer: a
32. How can we asses the indicator diagram by looking at the card diagram?
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a) Comparing the maximum firing pressure and compression pressure

b) Dead weight method
c) Conveyor method
d) Ionization method
Answer: a
33. Purpose of relief valve in a reciprocating pump is to
(a)protect the pump against developing excessive pressure.
(b)facilitate unidirectional flow of liquid.
(c)reduce the discharge pressure.
(d)control the rate of discharge.
Ans –A
34. Theoretical power required (in watts) to drive a reciprocating pump is (where w =
Specific weight of liquid to be pumped in N/m3, Q = Discharge of the pump in m3/s,
Hs = Suction head in metres, and Hd = Delivery head in metres)
A.wQHs
B.wQHd
C.wQ(Hs - Hd)
D.wQ(Hs + Hd)
Ans-d
35. Indicator diagram of a reciprocating pump is a graph between......
A.Floor vs swept volume
B.Pressure in cylinder vs swept volume
C.Flow vs speez
D.Pressure vs speed
Ans-b
36. Slip of a reciprocating pump is negative, when
A.suction pipe is short and pump is running at low speeds
B.delivery pipe is long and pump is running at high speeds
C.suction pipe is short and delivery pipe is long and the pump is running at low
speeds
D.suction pipe is long and delivery pipe is short and the pump is running at high
speeds
Ans-b
37. A jet of water is striking at the centre of a curved vane moving with a uniform
velocity in the direction of jet. For the maximum efficiency, the vane velocity is
__________ of the jet velocity
A.one-half
B.one-third
C.two-third
D.three-fourth
Ans-b
38. What is Maximum speed of a Reciprocating Pump?
(a) speed at which no separation flow is taking place in the cylinder
(b) speed at which no cavitation is taking place in the cylinder
(c) speed at which no loss is taking place in the cylinder
(d)none
39. Advantages of centrifugal pump over displacement pump is
(a)discharging capacity is much greater than that of a reciprocating pump
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(b) pressure capacity is much greater than that of a reciprocating pump

(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
40. Gauge pressure is equal to
(a)Absolute pressure + Atmospheric pressure
(b)Absolute pressure - Atmospheric pressure
(c)Absolute pressure + vacuum pressure
(d)None

41. Due to acceleration head inside the cylinder, the work done by reciprocating pump
(a)Decreased
(b)Increased
(c)No effect
(d)none

42. What is the effect of frictional head loss inside the cylinder on the indicator diagram
(a)Area of indicator diagram increases
(b)Area of indicator diagram decreases
(c)No effect
(d)None

43. During first half of suction stroke in reciprocating pump

(a)Piston accelerate
(b)Piston decelerate
(c)Piston move with uniform velocity
(d)none
44. During delivery stroke of reciprocating pump
(a)Piston first accelerate then decelerate
(b)Piston first decelerate then accelerate
(c)Piston moves with uniform velocity
(d)none

45. The Pascal’s law is applicable to the liquid which is __________________

a) Compressible
b) In-compressible
c) Solid in phase
d) Super-compressive
Ans-b
46. 15 bar equals to __________ Pascals.
a) 105Pa
b) 1.5 x 106 Pa
c) 100 Pa
d) 1000 Pa
Ans-b
47. With respect to reciprocating pump which of the following statement is true?
(A) The limiting value of separation pressure head for water is 6.8 m (Absolute)
(B) During suction, the separation ,ay takes place at the beginning of suction.
(C) Durinf delivery, the separation may take place at the end of delivery stroke.
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(D) Indicartor diagram shows variartion of pressure head in the cylinder for one
revolution of crank
Ans-(A)

1. If the diameters of the two pistons used in the arrangement are different, the _______ in
each cylinder will vary.
a) Hydraulic velocities
b) Hydraulic acceleration
c) Hydraulic pressure
d) Hydraulic force
Answer: c
2. In a hydraulic lift ______ is fixed on the crown of the sliding ram where the carried load
is located.
a) Cage
b) Wire rope
c) Pulleys
d) Jiggers
Answer: a
3. When fluid is subjected to _______ it is pushed into the cylindrical chamber which gives
the ram gets a push in the upward direction.
a) Pressure
b) Force
c) Momentum
d) Acceleration
Answer: a
4. ______ is attached to the fixed cylindrical chamber which moves in the upward or
downward direction.
a) Jiggers
b) Sliding Ram
c) Crown
d) Pulley
Answer: b
5. The two types of pulleys in a hydraulic lift are ______ and ______
a) fixed, fixed
b) movable, fixed
c) movable, movable
d) semi-movable, movable
Answer: b
6. _________ is attached to the wall of the floor, where the sliding ram moves upwards or
downwards depending on how the pressure is applied.
a) Cage
b) Fixed cylinder
c) Pulleys
d) shaft
Answer: b
7. Turbomachines work under ________
a) Newtons first law
b) Newtons second law
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c) Newtons third law

d) Kepler’s law
Answer: b
8. A hydraulic coupling belongs to the category of________
a) Energy absorbing machines
b) Energy generating machines
c) Power absorbing machines
d) Energy transfer machines
Answer: d
9. The discharge of a double acting reciprocating pump is (where L = Length of stroke, A = Cross-
sectional area of piston, and N = Speed of crank in r.p.m.)
(A) L.A.N
(B) 2 L.A.N
(C) (L.A.N)/60
(D) (2 L.A.N)/60
10. Indicator diagram of a reciprocating pump is a graph between
(A) Flow vs. swept volume
(B) Pressure in cylinder vs. swept volume
(C) Flow vs. Speed
(D) Pressure vs. Speed
11. Which type of pump is used for lifting water from the ground surface to the top of the
building?
a. centrifugal pump
b. turbine pump
c. submersible pump
d. all the above
ANSWER: d. all the above
12. Pumps used in hydraulic applications are
a. positive displacement pumps
b. variable displacement pumps
c. fixed displacement pumps
d. all the above
ANSWER: d. all the above
13. Heavy lifting work is often accomplished by shifting fluids in big machines. The power
system of such machines can be described as
a) Reciprocating
b) Pneumatic
c) Hydraulic
d) Hybrid
Answer: c
14. The scientific principle that makes hydraulic systems possible is
a) Pascal’s principle
b) Boyle’s law
c) Bernoulli’s principle
d) The fluid flow principle
Answer: a
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UNIT-4
MEASUREMENT

1. Bourdon tube is used for the measurement of gauge pressure of ……………

a. Gas
b. Liquid fluid
c. Solid
d. Only (1) and (2)
e. All the above
Ans. d

2. Random errors in a measurement system are due to …………...

a. Environmental changes
b. Use of uncalibrated instrument
c. Poor cabling practices
d. Unpredictable effects
Ans. d

3. Calibration of instrument is an important consideration in measurement

system. The errors due to instruments being out of calibration can be rectified
by …………...
a. Increasing the frequency of recalibration
b. Increasing the temperature coefficient
c. Increasing the susceptibility of measuring instrument
d. Decreasing the frequency of recalibration
Ans. a

4. The undesirable characteristics of a measuring system is …………….

a. Drift
b. Dead zone
c. Non linearity
d. All of these
Ans. d

5. If the instrument is used in wrong manner while application, then it will results
in ……….
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a. Systematic error
b. Instrument error
c. Random error
d. Environmental error
Ans. b

6. Suitable method for the reduction of systematic errors is / are ……………

a. Instrument must be designed carefully
b. By introducing an equal and opposite environmental input for compensating the effect
of environmental input in a measurement system
c. By adding high gain feedback to measurement system
d. All of these
Ans. d

7. The systematic errors of an instrument can be reduced by making ………….

a. The sensitivity of instrument to environmental input as low as possible
b. The sensitivity of instrument to environmental input as high as possible
c. Systematic errors does not depend on the sensitivity of instrument
d. None of these
Ans. a

8. The magnitude of environment – induced variation from the specified

calibration condition is quantified by ………
a. Sensitivity drift
b. Zero drift
c. Backlash
d. Both (1) & (2)
Ans. d

9. The displacement measuring instruments is / are ………

a. Potentiometer
b. LVDT
c. RVDT
d. All of these
Ans. d
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10. For the measurement of pressure the instruments used can be ……….
a. Mechanical
b. Electro – mechanical
c. Electronic
d. All of these
Ans. d

11. If at one end, the two wires made of different metals are joined together then a
voltage will get produced between the two wires due to difference of temp
between the two ends of wires. This effect is observed in ……….
a. Thermocouples
b. Thermistors
c. RTD
d. Ultrasonics
Ans. A

12. Which of the following devices does not measure pressure?

a. barometer
b. McLeod gauge
c. thermocouple
d. Manometer

MEASUREMENT
(Answer key of Q.1-Q.49 is available after Q.49)
1. When a set of readings of a measurement has awide range, it indicates
a. high precision
b. high accuracy
c. low precision
d. low accuracy

2. The difference between the lower and highervalues that an instrument is able to
measure iscalled
a. accuracy
b. sensitivity
c. range
d. error
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3. When determining the uncertainty for aparticular measurement device, the

commonuncertainty factors that should be included are
a. errors in the measurement technique andmethod
b. random variability of the measurement process
c. technician’s error
d. all of these

4. The aim of calibration is to

a. meet customer requirement
b. detect deterioration of accuracy
c. comply with ISO 9000 standard requirements
d. practise measurement procedures

5. Which of the following defines parallax error?

a. Same as observational error
b. Apparent shift of an object when the positionof the observer is altered
c. Error caused by the distance between thescale and the measured feature
d. Mean of the values of measurements whenthe object is observed from the right
andfrom the left

6. The best way to eliminate parallax error is to

a. use a magnifying glass while taking measurements
b. use a mirror behind the readout pointer orindicator
c. centre the scale along the measured feature
d. take consistent measurements from one sideonly

7. Which of the following errors is eliminated orminimized by zero setting adjustment

on a dialindicator?
a. Parallax error
b. Inherent error
c. Alignment error
d. Computational error

8. The best standard characteristic when calibratingan instrument for production

inspection is
a. ten times the accuracy
b. new and seldom used since calibration
c. permanently assigned to this particularinstrument
d. using a standard similar in size, shape, andmaterial, with part being measured

9. Interpretation of repeated measurement results on the same feature is considered

theinstrument’s
a. accuracy
b. precision
c. range
d. sensitivity
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10. When a steel rule is used, which of the followingis the source of measurement
uncertainty?
a. Inherent instrument error, temperature error,and manipulative error
b. Attachment error, manipulative error, andtemperature error
c. Attachment error, bias, and inherentinstrument error
d. Inherent instrument error, manipulativeerror, and observational error

11. Accuracy is defined as

a. a measure of how often an experimentalvalue can be repeated
b. the closeness of a measured value to the realvalue
c. the number of significant figures used in ameasurement
d. none of these

12. Conformity of a physical quantity to the nationalstandard of measurement is known

as
a. calibration
b. sensitivity
c. traceability
d. repeatability

13. Systematic errors are

a. controllable errors
b. random errors
c. uncontrollable errors
d. none of these

14. When a series of repeated measurements that aremade on a component under similar
conditionsare plotted, it follows
a. log-normal distribution
b. Weibull distribution
c. binomial distribution
d. Gaussian distribution

15. Random errors can be assessed

a. experimentally
b. by performing sensitivity analysis
c. statistically
d. empirically

16. Which of the following represents the type of fitfor a hole and shaft pair, given that
+0.04 +0.060

hole = 50 +0.00 mm and shaft = 50 +0.041 mm?

a. Clearance fit
b. Transition fit
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c. Loose fit
d. Interference fit

17. In a shaft basis system, the upper deviation ofthe size of shaft is
a. 1
b. less than 0
c. not related to size
d. 0

18. An allowance is provided

a. to help the operator
b. to aid in production
c. intentionally
d. as permissive tolerance

19. MML corresponds to the

a. higher limit of a hole and lower limit of theshaft
b. lower limit of a hole and lower limit of theshaft
c. higher limit of a hole and higher limit of theshaft
d. lower limit of a hole and higher limit of theshaft

20. LML corresponds to the

a. lower limit of a hole and higher limit of theshaft
b. higher limit of a hole and lower limit of theshaft
c. lower limit of a shaft and lower limit of thehole
d. higher limit of a shaft and higher limit of thehole

21. The relationship that results between the twomating parts before assembly is called
a. tolerance
b. allowance
c. limit
d. fit

22. What is the correct definition of resolution?

a. Difference between accuracy and precision
b. Smallest graduation on the scale or dial
c. Visual separation between graduations
d. Difference between the instrument readingand actual dimension

23. Hysteresis of an instrument affects its

a. resolution
b. accuracy
c. repeatability
d. zero stability

24. Loading effect means

a. effect of the applied load on the instrument
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b. impact of the applied load on the accuracyof the instrument

c. capability of the instrument to withstand theapplied load
d. incapability of the instrument to measure themeasurand in an undistorted form

25. In the intermediate modifying stage, the transducedsignal is

a. amplified
b. filtered
c. conditioned
d. all of these

26. Which one of the following is not a dynamiccharacteristic?

a. Drift
b. Speed of response
c. Measuring lag
d. Fidelity

27. The behaviour of an instrument under varyingconditions of input with time is known
as
a. loading effect
b. hysteresis
c. dynamic response
d. linearity

28. Dead time is the time required by a measuringsystem to

a. respond to a change in the quantity to bemeasured
b. eliminate loading error
c. overcome zero drift
d. increase the threshold value

29. Threshold value corresponds to the minimumvalue of an input required to

a. reduce dynamic error
b. detect an output
c. increase drift
d. reduce dead time

30. Many instruments do not reproduce the samereading irrespective of whether the
measurementshave been obtained in an ascending or adescending order. This is due
to
a. linearity error
b. drift error
c. systematic error
d. hysteresis

31. Fidelity is a/an

a. static character
b. dynamic character
c. neither a static nor a dynamic character
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d. undesirable error

32. The ability of an instrument to return to zeroimmediately after the removal of input is
knownas
a. drift
b. hysteresis
c. zero stability
d. loading effect

33. The maximum deviation of the output of ameasuring system from a specified straight
line,applied to a plot of data points on a curve of themeasured values versus the
measured values iscalled
a. linearity
b. threshold
c. measurement lag
d. resolution
34. Dead time is a type of
a. drift
b. loading error error
c. measurement lag
d. threshold value

35. The degree to which a measurement systemindicates the changes in the measured
quantitywithout any dynamic error is called
a. loading effect
b. fidelity
c. drift error
d. measurement lag

36. Temperature gives a measure of

a. internal energy of the system
b. external energy of the system
c. total energy of the system
d. no relationship with energy
37. The first thermometer was developed by
a. Rankine
b. Celsius
c. Kelvin
d. Galileo Galilei

38. If two bodies that are at different temperaturesare so positioned that they are in
contact withone another, then
a. heat will flow from the colder to the hotterbody until they are at the same
temperature
b. heat will flow from the hotter to the colderbody until they are at the same
temperature
c. heat will not flow
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d. heat will continue to flow from the hotter tothe colder body until you move them
apart

39. The measurable property that varies withtemperature in a thermocouple is

a. expansion
b. thermal radiation
c. voltage
d. electrical resistance

40. Which of the following temperatures is correct?

a. F = 1.6C + 32
b. F = 1.8C + 32
c. F = 1.8C + 273
d. F = 1.8C + 212

41. When there is no heat exchange between twobodies that are at the same temperature,
they aresaid to be in
a. thermal equilibrium
b. energy equilibrium
c. heat equilibrium
d. electrical equilibrium

42. Iron–constantan is a
a. K-type thermocouple
b. J-type thermocouple
c. S-type thermocouple
d. R-type thermocouple

43. Peltier effect states that when two dissimilarmetals are in contact with each other,
thereexists a
a. current difference
b. energy difference
c. potential difference
d. temperature difference

44. Semiconductors used for temperature measurementare called

a. thermistors
b. thermopiles
c. resistance temperature detectors
d. pyrometers

45. The metal extensively used in high-accuracyresistance thermometers is

a. rhodium
b. nickel
c. iridium
d. platinum
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46. When a thermistor is employed for temperaturemeasurement, its

a. resistance increases with the increase intemperature
b. resistance decreases with the increase intemperature
c. resistance increases with the decrease intemperature
d. resistance decreases with the decrease intemperature

47. Which of the following statements is true?

a. When radiation intensity falls, thewavelength increases.
b. When radiation intensity falls, thewavelength decreases.
c. When radiation intensity falls, thewavelength remains the same.
d. No relationship exists between thewavelength and radiation intensity.

48. Current flows through a circuit spontaneouslywhen two dissimilar metals are joined
to forma thermocouple, provided the two junctionsformed are maintained at different
temperatures.This effect is termed as
a. Thomson effect
b. Seebeck effect
c. Rankine effect
d. Stefan effect

49. To reduce the band width of a wavelength, an optical pyrometer is provided with a
a. radiation filter
b. blue filter
c. absorption filter
d. red filter

ANSWER: 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. 9. (b) 10.
(d) 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (d)18. (c) 19. (d) 20.
(b) 21. (d), 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (b)
30. (d) 31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (b)36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (d) 39.
(c) 40. (b) 41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (c)44. (a) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (b)
49. (d)

Tolerances

1. What are the functional dimensions?

a) Have to be machined and fit with other mating components
b) Which have no effect on the performance of quality
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c) Need not to be machined to an accuracy of the high degree

d) Function is more important than accuracy
Answer: a
Explanation: Non-functional dimensions have no effect on the performance of quality of
the assembly or component. Non-functional dimensions need not to be machined to
higher accuracy.

2. Why tolerances are given to the parts?

a) Because it’s impossible to make perfect settings
b) To reduce weight of the component
c) To reduce cost of the assembly
d) To reduce amount of material used
Answer: a
Explanation: Tolerances are provided to the parts because variations in the material
properties introduce errors and production machines themselves have inherent
inaccuracies. Another reason to introduce tolerance is that it is not possible to make
perfect settings by operator so some tolerances are provided.

3. What is bilateral tolerance?

a) Total tolerance is in 1 direction only
b) Total tolerance is in both the directions
c) May or may not be in one direction
d) Tolerance provided all over the component body
Answer: b
Explanation: Total tolerance is specified on both the sides of the basic dimension. This
usually have + and – tolerance of equal amount.

4. Which type of tolerance provided in drilling mostly?

a) Bilateral
b) Unilateral
c) Trilateral
d) Compound
Answer: b
Explanation: Mostly unilateral tolerance is provided in drilling as dimension is allowed
to vary in one direction only. Hole is always oversize, not undersize.

5. What is mean clearance?

a) Maximum size of hole minus maximum size of shaft
b) Minimum size of hole minus minimum size of shaft
c) Mean size of hole minus mean size of shaft
d) Average of both size of shaft and hole
Answer: c
Explanation: Statistical approach allows wider tolerances compared to complete
interchangeability approach. Methods used by statistical approach are usually permits
cheaper production. Mean clearance is equal to (mean size of hole – mean size of shaft).

6. Which of the following is incorrect about tolerances?

a) Too loose tolerance results in less cost
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b) Tolerance is a compromise between accuracy and ability

c) Too tight tolerance may result in excessive cost
d) Fit between mating components is decided by functional requirements
Answer: a
Explanation: Loose tolerance results in increase in cost, assembly problems and poor
performance of the product. Tight tolerance results in unnecessary machining and
inspection time.

7. Quality control charts doesn’t depend on which factor?

a) Normal distribution
b) Random sampling
c) Independence between samples
d) Binomial distribution
Answer: d
Explanation: In establishing of realistic specifications, control charts are considered as a
good guide for the design office. Quality control charts are based on the assumptions of
random sampling and normal distribution.

8. Which of the following option is true for given statements?

Statement 1: Bilateral tolerances are used in mass production techniques.
Statement 2: The basic size should be equal to upper and lower limits.
a) T, T
b) F, F
c) T, F
d) F, T
Answer: c
Explanation: Bilateral tolerances are preferred in mass production techniques where
setting of a machine is done for the basic size. If unilateral tolerances are specified in
place of bilateral, then basic size should be changed to make it bilateral. Basic size is in
half way between lower and upper limits.

9. If a clearance fit is present between shaft and hole, what is the tolerance on shaft or
hole for a complete interchangeable approach?
a) ½ of maximum clearance – ½ of minimum clearance
b) ¼ of maximum clearance – ¼ of minimum clearance
c) Maximum clearance – minimum clearance
d) ¾ of maximum clearance – ¾ of minimum clearance
Answer: a
Explanation: There are two approaches for deciding of tolerances and shafts i.e.
statistical and complete interchangeable approach. There is no risk is taken about a single
non-conforming assembly in complete interchangeable approach.

Interchangeability.
1. Which of the following option is incorrect about interchangeability?
a) Increase output
b) Increase cost of production
c) Useful in mass production
d) Assembly time increases
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Answer: d
Explanation: An interchangeable part is one that can be replaced with a similar part
manufactured to the same drawing. It can be used in mass production with an economic
oriented approach. Assembly time decreases as mating parts are interchangeable.

2. What are the main considerations for deciding the limits of a particular part?
a) Functional requirement
b) Economics and interchangeability
c) Interchangeability and functional requirement
d) Interchangeability, functional requirement and economics
Answer: d
Explanation: Functional requirements are related to the function of a component that is
what is required to do. Interchangeability is for ease of replacement of part. Economics is
related to the minimum cost and time.

3. For full interchangeability, what is the relation between the process capability of a
machine and manufacturing tolerance of the part?
a) Process capability = Manufacturing tolerance
b) Process capability ≥ Manufacturing tolerance
c) Process capability > Manufacturing tolerance
d) Process capability ≤ Manufacturing tolerance
Answer: d
Explanation: For full interchangeability, only such machines are selected for
manufacturing whose process capability ≤ manufacturing tolerance. If this condition is
satisfied, then the component will meet the desired tolerance and capable of mating with
other.

4. Which of the following option is correct in given statements about interchangeability?

Statement 1: Standardisation is not so much of importance for interchangeability.
Statement 2: Interchangeability follows ‘normal distribution’.
a) F, T
b) T, T
c) F, F
d) T, F
Answer: a
Explanation: Standardisation is important in interchangeability. It is essential to follow a
common standard by all, only then interchangeability is possible. All standards used by
the manufacturing unit are traceable to international standards.

5. Which of the following option is not correct for ‘full interchangeability’?

a) This type of interchangeability is not feasible sometimes
b) Requires machine which can maintain low process capability
c) Machines with very high accuracy are necessary
d) For interchangeable production, this type of interchangeability is not must
Answer: b
Explanation: Full interchangeability is also known as universal interchangeability. Many
times, universal interchangeability is not feasible because it requires machine capable of
maintaining very high accuracy and high process capability.
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6. What is the main use of automatic gauge in selective assembly?

a) Check accuracy of parts
b) Check parallelism of parts
c) Divide group of parts with some tolerance in smaller groups
d) Use to check errors in parts
Answer: c
Explanation: If parts to be assembled have normal tolerance of 0.01 mm then a gauge
can be divided them into 10 different groups of 0.001 mm, this gauge is known as
automatic gauge. It is for selective assembly of different parts.

7. What is the correct formula to find no. of groups in selective assembly?

a) Process capability / Tolerance desired
b) Tolerance desired / Process capability
c) Tolerance desired * Process capability
d) Tolerance desired + Process capability
Answer: a
Explanation: No. of groups segregated in selective assembly depends upon desired
tolerance and process capability of machine. Conditions like high quality and low cost
can be achieved by selective assembly technique.

8. What is a limit system?

a) Series of tolerances
b) Series of fits
c) Series of clearances
d) Series of limits
Answer: a
Explanation: Limit system is a series of tolerances arranged to suit a specific range of
size. By this, limits of size are selected and given to mating parts to ensure specific
classes of fit.

9. Which of the following is correct for selective assembly?

a) Not suitable for industrial purposes
b) Cost increases due to automatic gauging
c) Wastage is high due to selective selection
d) This method is followed in ball and roller bearing units
Answer: d
Explanation: Selective assembly technique is widely used in industries. It is followed in
automobile, air craft industries and in ball and roller bearing units. Tolerances desired in
these industries are very narrow.

Terminology

1. What does ‘50’ represents in 50H8/g7?

a) Basic size
b) Actual size
c) Maximum limit of size
d) Minimum limit of size
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Answer: a
Explanation: 50 represent the basic size of the hole and shaft. H and g are the positions
of tolerance zone with respect to zero line for hole and shaft respectively. 8 and 7 are the
tolerance size.

2. What is ‘Go limit’?

a) Lower limit of shaft and upper limit of hole
b) Lower limit of shaft and hole
c) Upper limit of shaft and lower limit of a hole
d) Upper limit of shaft and hole
Answer: c
Explanation: ‘Go limit’ deals with upper limit of shaft and lower limit of hole and refers
to the maximum material condition. ‘No-go’ limits deals with lower limit of shaft and
upper limit of hole and refers to the minimum material condition.

3. Which of the following is incorrect regarding terminology?

a) Grades of tolerances decides manufacture’s accuracy
b) For any basic size there are 20 different shafts
c) Line of zero deviation is known as zero line
d) Tolerance has no sign
Answer: b
Explanation: For any basic size, there are 25 different shafts. These are designated by
small letters from a to zc. Each shaft has 20 tolerance grades. Tolerance is the algebraic
difference between lower and upper deviation.

4. What is the actual deviation?

a) Algebraic sum between actual size and corresponding basic size
b) Algebraic difference between actual and corresponding basic size
c) Average of actual and basic size
d) Algebraic difference between upper and lower deviation
Answer: b
Explanation: Algebraic difference between a size and a corresponding basic size is
called deviation. Limit deviations are upper and lower deviations. Algebraic difference of
actual size with basic size is called actual deviation.
5. What is the condition for a positive upper deviation?
a) Maximum limit of size > basic size
b) Maximum limit of size is < basic size
c) Minimum limit of size > basic size
d) Maximum limit of size < basic size
Answer: a
Explanation: Upper deviation is positive when maximum limit of size > its basic size
and negative when maximum limits size < basic size. For lowers deviations, it is a
positive quantity when minimum limit size is more than its corresponding basic size.

6. How many holes are there for any basic size?

a) 22
b) 24
c) 26
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d) 28

Answer: d
Explanation: There are 28 different holes for any basic size. These are designated by
capital letters. A, B, CD, C, D, E, EF, F, FG, G, H, JS, J, K, M, N, P, R, S, T, U, V, X, Y,
Z, ZA, ZB, ZC these are the 28 holes.

7. What does ES represent in terminology as per IS: 919?

a) Lower deviation of hole
b) Upper deviation of shaft
c) Lower deviation of shaft
d) Upper deviation of hole
Answer: d
Explanation: ‘ES’ and ‘es’ represents upper deviation for hole and shaft respectively.
‘EI’ and ‘ei’ represents lower deviation for hole and shaft respectively.

8. What is ‘IT01’?
a) Basic size of hole
b) Basic size of shaft
c) Tolerance grade
d) Standard tolerance factor
Answer: c
Explanation: ‘IT’ refers to the standard tolerance which belongs to any standard grade of
tolerance. Tolerance grades are designated by ‘IT’ letters followed by a number. For
example, IT01 is a tolerance grade.

9. For tolerance grades 5 to 16, what is the formula for standard tolerance factor?
(D=mean diameter in mm)
a) 0.45 (D)1/3 + 0.001D
b) 10*D
c) 0.45 (D)3 + 0.001 D
d) 20*D
Answer: a
Explanation: For tolerance grades 5 to 16 the value of tolerance magnitude is in terms of
standard tolerance factor, i = 0.45 (D)1/3 + 0.001 D. For grade IT6, tolerance is 10i. Above
it, at each 5th step the tolerance magnitude is multiplied by 10.

10. What is the hole size which is covered by IT05?

a) 500 mm
b) 600 mm
c) 700 mm
d) 800 mm
Answer: a
Explanation: There are 7 finest tolerance grades from 1T01 to IT05. It covers sizes up to
500 mm. There are 11 coarsest grades which cover sizes up to 3150 mm. Tolerance
grades depend upon shaft or hole size.

Guide for Selection of Fits

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1. Which of the following is not true for hole and shaft basis systems?
a) Hole basis system is generally preferred over shaft basis system
b) Shaft basis system can be used when products are made from bright drawn bars
c) Choice of the system depends upon nature of the product
d) In hole basis system, allowances are applied to the hole
Answer: d
Explanation: Hole basis system is preferred because it is easy to produce a shaft with
specified tolerances than hole. In hole basis system, all tolerances are applied to shaft and
hole size is taken as basic size.

2. Which of the following grade of a hole is mostly used for non-circular fits?
a) H5
b) H6
c) H7
d) H9
Answer: d
Explanation: H9, H5, H6, H7 these all are the grades of a hole. H9 can be obtained by
reaming and boring. It is used for non-circular fits. H5 can be obtained by honing or
internal grinding. H7 can be produced by broaching and grinding.

3. Which of the following option is incorrect for clearance fits?

a) Shaft ‘a’ gives a large clearance
b) Shaft ‘n’ is used for clearance fits
c) Shaft ‘d’ can be used for loose pulleys
d) Shaft ‘g’ is expensive to manufacture
Answer: b
Explanation: Shaft ‘n’ gives transition fit. It gives clearance to only extreme sizes. It is
recommended for tight fits. Grades 5, 6 and 7 are available. Shafts a, b and c gives
clearance fit. They all gives large clearance so they are not widely used.

4. What is the range of shafts which produce transition fits?

a) Shaft ‘a’ to ‘h’
b) Shaft ‘e’ to ‘n’
c) Shaft ‘d’ to ‘h’
d) Shaft ‘j’ to ‘n’
Answer: d
Explanation: ‘a’ to ‘h’ shafts produces clearance fits with H7 basic hole. ‘j’ to ‘n’
produce transition fit with H7 basic size. Transition fits may result in either interference
or clearance fit. It will depend upon the actual size of tolerance of mating component.

5. Which grades are available in shaft ’j’ assembly?

a) 1 to 5
b) 2 to 6
c) 3 to 7
d) 5 to 11
Answer: d
Explanation: Shaft ‘j’ is a transition fit and available in grades 5 to 11. It is good for
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location fits which require less clearance than ‘h’ and also where a slight interference is
permitted. It can be used in gear rings clamped to steel hubs.

6. Which of the following grade is never used for fits?

a) H10
b) H11
c) H8
d) H9
Answer: b
Explanation: H5, H6, H7, H8, H9, H10, H11 these are the hole grades. H10 is not used
for diameter fits. It can be used for milled widths. H11 is never used for fits because this
grade is very coarse. H11 is useful only for coarse punched holes or drilled holes.

7. Which of the option is correct about the preference of shaft and holes in machine tool
industries?
a) ‘A11’ is of first preference in shafts
b) ‘B9’ is of first preference in holes
c) ‘c2’ is of first preference in shafts
d) ‘b11’ is of second preference in holes
Answer: c
Explanation: a11, c2, d9, d11, e8 etc. are the first preference for shafts and b9, b11, c8,
c11, d8 etc. are the second preferences for shafts. First preference of holes are A11, D11,
E11, F7, F8 etc. and B9, B11, C9, C11, D9 etc. are the second preferences for holes.

8. Which of the following option is correct for given statements regarding the selection of
fits?
Statement 1: Shaft ‘h’ is an interference fit and used only for running parts.
Statement 2: Shaft ‘k’ is the true transition fit.
a) T, F
b) F, F
c) T, T
d) F, T
Answer: d
Explanation: Shaft ‘h’ gives clearance fit and available in grades 5 to 11. It is useful for
spigot fits. Shaft ‘k’ is a transition fit and it is best suited for location fits. Grades
available for this category are also 5 to 11.

9. Which shaft is used in valve shaftings?

a) Shaft ‘s’
b) Shaft ‘f’
c) Shaft ‘b’
d) Shaft ‘t’
Answer: a
Explanation: Shaft ‘s’ gives interference fit. It is used for semi-permanent or permanent
assemblies of cast iron and steel members. It can be used for valve shafting’s and collar
pressed on the shaft.
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10. Which of the following gives interference fit?

a) Shaft ‘n’
b) Shaft ‘p’
c) Shaft ‘m’
d) Shaft ‘g’
Answer: b
Explanation: Shaft ‘p’ gives a true interference fit and available in grades 6 or 7. With
hole of grade 8 it behaves as transition fit. It is a standard fit for cast iron and steel. It can
be used for fixing of a bush on a gear. Shaft ‘g’ gives clearance fit. Shaft ‘m’ and ‘n’
gives transition fit

Feedback and Non-feedback Systems

1. The mechanism of control of body temperature is non feedback system?

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: It is feedback system as the temperature of our body is regulated
periodically and being warm blooded we regulate our body temperature w.r.t. to the
climate.

2. Benefits of feedback:
a) Performance of system is greater.
b) Need for system much larger path gain and system instability.
c) Controlled variable accurately follows the desired value
d) Affected by parameter variations
Answer: d
Explanation: Closed loop system is the system with the feedback and this can be positive
or negative feedback and having feedback have less dependence on parameter variation.

3. Feedback always increases the gain?

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: It cannot always increase gain it can also reduce the gain as gain of Open
loop control system is more as compared to it.

4. Effect of feedback on sensitivity is minimum in:

a) Open loop control system
b) Closed loop control system
c) None of the mentioned
d) Both of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Sensitivity is defined as the change in output with respect to change in
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parameter or input and for a good control system the sensitivity must be less and in closed
loop control system it gets reduced by the factor of 1/(1+GH).

5. Feedback control systems are:

a) Insensitive to both forward and feedback path parameter changes
b) Less sensitive to feedback path parameter changes than to forward path parameter
changes
c) Less sensitive to forward path parameter changes that to feedback path parameter
changes
d) Equally sensitive to forward feedback path parameter changes
Answer: c
Explanation: Feedback control system can be positive and negative but positive
feedback systems less widely used as the positive feedback systems are more sensitive to
parameter variations but negative feedback are less sensitive to change in G than change
in H.

6. Consider the following statements with respect to the feedback of the control systems:
1. Feedback can improve stability or be harmful to stability if it is not properly applied.
2. Feedback can always improve stability
3. In many situations the feedback can reduce the effect of noise and disturbance on
system performance.
4. In general the sensitivity of the system gain of a feedback system of a parameter
variation depends on where the parameter is located.
a) 1,2 and 3 only
b) 1,3 and 4 only
c) 1,2 and 4 only
d) 1,2,3 and 4 only
Answer: b
Explanation: Negative feedback increases stability but not positive positive feedback
reduces the stability and for this reason negative feedback systems are used .

7. The closed system has higher ________ than open loop control system, this implies
increased speed of response.
a) Gain
b) Bandwidth
c) Frequency
d) Speed
Answer: b
Explanation: As transient response of the system is improved by the use of feedback and
it causes the settling time to reduce and closed loop system has higher bandwidth than
open loop systems and this implies increase in speed of response.

8. Feedback can always reduce the effects of noise and disturbance on system
performance?
a) True
b) False
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Answer: a
Explanation: Feedback has many advantages as it can reduces the effects of noise and
disturbance on system performance by increasing speed of response.

9. Multiple signals as input can be used in which systems:

a) Feedback systems
b) Non feedback systems
c) Feedforward systems
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: As in feedback system output can be obtained for more than one input as
output can be generated for both the reference input and also for the disturbance input.

10. Feedback can cause a system that is originally stable to become___________

a) Stable
b) Unstable
c) Conditionally stable
d) Either more stable or unstable
Answer: d
Explanation: Feedback can either make a system stable if not stable previously or may
be it can cause instability as it reduces the gain of the system and hence the system can
become stable if unstable or vice versa.

Classification of Control Systems

1. What is the algebraic sum of the reference input and feedback?

a) Error Signal
b) Error Detector
c) Controlled system
d) Controlled output
Answer: a
Explanation: In the block diagram of a basic control system we see that the reference
input is passed through Error detector or Comparator. The signal which leaves the same is
the algebraic sum of reference input and feedback as the feedback wire is connected to
the detector, so we call it error signal.

2. Feedback control systems are referred to as closed loop systems.

a) True
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b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Feedback control systems are also referred to as closed loop systems. In a
closed loop, the actuating error signals, which is the difference between the input signal
and the feedback signal is fed to the controller so as to reduce the error and bring the
output of the system to the desired value.

3. Which principle does the linear system follow?

a) Principle of energy conservation
b) Principle of mass conservation
c) Principle of electromagnetism
d) Principle of superposition
Answer: d
Explanation: A linear system is one who obeys the principle of superposition. The
principle of superposition states that the response produced by simultaneous application
of two different forcing functions is equal to the sum of individual responses.

4. ______ control systems have unpredictable & non-repeatable.

a) Static
b) Dynamic
c) Deterministic
d) Stochastic
Answer: d
Explanation: Stochastic control systems are those who have unpredictable and non-
repeatable response due to involvement of random parameters. Static systems is the
system whose current output depends only on current input, dynamic system is a time
dependent system and deterministic system’s response is predictable and repeatable.

5. The pressure inside the furnace is measured by _______

a) Gauge
b) Thermometer
c) Manometer
d) Barometer
Answer: a
Explanation: The pressure inside the furnace is measured by pressure gauge. In case the
pressure increases or decreases beyond the desired value, the controller and the actuator
will cause a change in the position of the damper.

6. On what difference does the pneumatic system works?

a) Speed
b) Pressure
c) Area
d) Length
Answer: b
Explanation: A pneumatic system works due to pressure difference of air or any other
gas. Air at a pressure, pi is injected through the input manifold. It also consists of mass,
coefficient of viscous friction and spring constant and the pressure difference created due
to that, gives rise to pneumatic system.
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7. In a thermal system, the temperature of the medium is ______

a) increasing
b) decreasing
c) zero
d) uniform
Answer: d
Explanation: To analyze a thermal system and determine its transfer function the
temperature of the medium should be uniform. If the temperature is varying or zero the
analysis will not be proper and a legitimate transfer function will not be the result.

8. How many parameters does process control refer to?

a) 1
b) 3
c) 5
d) 7
Answer: c
Explanation: Process control refers to control of five parameters which are level, flow,
pressure, temperature, acidity of the process variable. A particular parameter has only one
desired value.

9. What is the effect of feedback in the overall gain of the system?

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Zero
d) No change
Answer: b
Explanation: The feedback reduces the overall gain of the system. As soon as we
introduce feedback in the system to make the system stable, gain is reduced.

10. In a temperature control system, what conversion in signal takes place?

a) Digital to Analog
b) Analog to Digital
c) Error to Digital
d) Error to Analog
Answer: b
Explanation: In a temperature control system, analog to digital conversion of signals
take place. Automatic systems don’t understand analog signals as they only take digital
inputs in the form of 0 & 1 so we use a analog to digital converter which converts the
signal

11. In open loop control system

A. Output is independent of control input
B. Output is dependent of control input
C. Only system parameters have effect on the control output
D. None of the above
A. Output is independent of control input
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12. In open loop control system

A. The control action depends on the size of the system
B. The control action depends on system variables
C.. The control action depends on the input signal
D. The control action is independent of the output
D. The control action is independent of the output

13. An automatic toaster is a .............loop control system

A. Open
B. Closed
C. Partially closed
D. Any of the above
A. Open

14. For open loop control system which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. Less expensive
B. Recalibration is not required for maintaining the required quality of the output
C. Construction is simple and maintenance easy
D. Errors are caused by disturbances
B. Recalibration is not required for maintaining the required quality of the output

15. In closed loop control system, with positive value of feedback gain the overall gain of
the system will
A. Decrease
B. Increase
C. Be unaffected
D. Any of the above
A. Decrease

16. A closed loop system is distinguished from open loop system by which of the
following ?
A. Servomechanism
B. Feedback
C. Output pattern
D. Input pattern
B. Feedback

17. .............is a closed loop system

A. Auto-pilot for an aircraft
B. Direct current generator
C. Car starter
D. Electric switch
A. Auto-pilot for an aircraft

18. A control system in which the control action is somehow dependent on the output is
known as
A. Closed loop system
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B. Semiclosed loop system

C. Open system
D. None of the above
A. Closed loop system

19. A good control system has all the following features except
(a) good stability
(b) slow response
(c) good accuracy
(d) sufficient power handling capacity
Ans: b

20. A car is moving at a constant speed of 50 km/h, which of the following is the
feedback element for the driver ?
(a) Clutch
(b) Eyes
(c) Needle of the speedometer
(d) Steering wheel
(e) None of the above
Ans: c

21. ___ is a part of the human temperature control system.

(a) Digestive system
(b) Perspiration system
(c) Ear
(d) Leg movement
Ans: b
22. By which of the following the control action is determined when a man walks along a
path ?
(a) Brain
(b) Hands
(c) Legs
(d) Eyes
Ans: d
23. In an automatic control system which of the following elements is not used ?
(a) Error detector
(b) Final control element
(c) Sensor
(d) Oscillator
Ans: d
24. In a control system the output of the controller is given to
(a) final control element
(b) amplifier
(c) comparator
(d) sensor
(e) none of the above
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Ans: a
25. ___ Signal will become zero when the feedback signal and reference signs are equal.
(a) Input
(b) Actuating
(c) Feedback
(d) Reference
Ans: b
26. A signal other than the reference input that tends to affect the value of controlled
variable is known as
(a) disturbance
(b) command
(c) control element
(d) reference input
Ans: a
27. ___ is the reference input minus the primary feedback.
(a) Manipulated variable
(b) Zero sequence
(c) Actuating signal
(d) Primary feedback
Ans: c

Limits, Tolerance and Types of Fits

1. Limit system accepts the variations with permissible values.

a) True
b) False

2. The relation between mating parts is called _____

a) Connection
b) Fits
c) Joints
d) Link

3. _______________ is the difference between the size of the manufactured product and
the corresponding basic size.
a) Deviation mating parts, based on the limits of the sizes of connecting parts the fits are
again classified.
b) Upper deviation
c) Actual deviation
d) Allowance
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4. Upper deviation is the algebraic difference between the ____________________ and

corresponding basic size.
a) actual size
b) minimum limit of the size
c) maximum limit of the size
d) design size

5. Lower deviation is the algebraic difference between the ____________________ and

corresponding basic size.
a) actual size
b) minimum limit of the size
c) maximum limit of the size
d) design size

6. The difference between the maximum and minimum permissible limits of the sizes is
called _________
a) Deviation
b) Allowance
c) Tolerance
d) Actual deviation

7. The difference between the maximum material limits of the mating parts is called
_________
a) Deviation
b) Allowance
c) Tolerance
d) Actual deviation

8. Minimum clearance is the difference between ________ size of the hole and the
_________ size of the shaft.
a) minimum, maximum
b) minimum, minimum
c) maximum, maximum
d) maximum, minimum

9. Maximum clearance is the difference between ________ size of the hole and the
_________ size of the shaft.
a) minimum, maximum
b) minimum, minimum
c) maximum, maximum
d) maximum, minimum

10. If the allowance is positive, which of the following is true between the mating parts?
a) Minimum clearance
b) Maximum clearance
c) Minimum interference
d) Maximum interference
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11. If the allowance is negative, which of the following is true between the mating parts?
a) Minimum clearance
b) Maximum clearance
c) Minimum interference
d) Maximum interference

12. Maximum interference is the magnitude of the difference between ________ size of
the hole and the _________ size of the shaft.
a) minimum, maximum
b) minimum, minimum
c) maximum, maximum
d) maximum, minimum

13. Minimum interference is the magnitude of the difference between ________ size of
the hole and the _________ size of the shaft.
a) minimum, maximum
b) minimum, minimum
c) maximum, maximum
d) maximum, minimum

14. Tolerance for the holes is indicated with the letter symbols ranging from a to ZC.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Tolerance is denoted by a letter symbol and a number called grade. For
holes, the letter symbols used ranges from A to ZC, and for shafts, it is a to ZC.

15. If the allowance of 0.05 mm for clearance is given and the shaft diameter is 30mm,
then the design size is ________
a) 30.05 mm
b) 29.05 mm
c) 29.95 mm
d) 30.95 mm
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UNIT-5

Mechanical Actuation System - Types of Motion

1. Which type of motion is said to be covered by an object, moving back and forth in the
same track?
a) Rectilinear type
b) Oscillatory type
c) Circular type
d) Helical type
Answer: b

2. What is the type of motion covered by a ball, when thrown at an angle of 45 degree
with the horizontal under gravity?
a) Rectilinear motion
b) Curvilinear motion
c) Oscillatory motion
d) Rotational motion
Answer: b

3. What is the type of motion covered by a particle in a plane?

a) One-Dimensional motion
b) Two-Dimensional motion
c) Three-Dimensional motion
d) Four-Dimensional motion
Answer: b

4. What does the gradient of a displacement time graph depict?

a) Velocity
b) Revolutions
c) Acceleration
d) Speed
Answer: a

5. The graph of a displacement time graph depicting an object at rest is parallel to X-axis.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a

6. Translatory motion and rectilinear motions are same.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b

7. What does RPM stand for?

a) Revolution per milliseconds
b) Revolution per minute
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c) Rotation per minute

d) Rotation per millisecond
Answer: b
Explanation: RPM stands for revolution per minute. It is the most commonly used unit in
motor appliances and motor vehicles for denoting the speed of the crank shaft in the
engine.

8. A object is said to be in motion if it’s_______ changes with respect to time.

a) Permittivity
b) Permeability
c) Size
d) Position
Answer: d
Explanation: A object is said to be in motion if it’s position changes with respect to time.
This is the most common and widely used definition used to define motion. For an object
to be in motion the position of an object recorded at different intervals of time should be
different.

9. Rectilinear motion refers to a motion of an object in ________

a) Straight line
b) Circular Path
c) Tangential Path
d) Non-Linear path
Answer: a
Explanation: Rectilinear motion refers to a motion of an object in straight line. When an
object moves in a straight line the motion is said to be rectilinear motion of that object.

10. Which is a motion sensor?

a) Piezoelectric sensor
b) PIR sensor
c) MPU 6050
d) Node MCU
Answer: b
Explanation: PIR sensor is a motion sensor. PIR stands for Passive Infrared. This sensor
can detect the presence of an object if it is in motion in a given range. The infrared
emitted by warm objects is detected by these sensors, which is used to estimate the
position of object.

11. What does the gradient of a distance time graph depict?

a) Velocity
b) Revolutions
c) Acceleration
d) Speed
Answer: d
Explanation: Gradient of a distance time graph depicts the speed of the object. It shows
how much distance is covered by an object in certain interval of time. The gradient of a
displacement time graph depicts the velocity of the object.
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12. What is the nature of graph of displacement time graph depicting an object with
uniform velocity?
a) Constant
b) Parabolic
c) Hyperbolic
d) Exponential
Answer: a
Explanation: The displacement time graph depicting an object with uniform velocity is
constant. It is because, in uniform motion, the displacement covered by the object is same
in equal interval of time.

13. What is the SI unit of velocity?

a) m/s2
b) m/s
c) km/hour
d) km/hour2
Answer: b
Explanation: The SI (International System) unit of velocity is m/s. The SI (International
System) unit of speed is also m/s. The SI (International System) unit of acceleration is
m/s2.

14. What does the gradient of a velocity-time graph depict?

a) Velocity
b) Revolutions
c) Acceleration
d) Speed
Answer: c
Explanation: Gradient of a velocity-time graph depicts the acceleration of the object. It
shows how much is the velocity an object in different intervals of time. The gradient of a
speed-time graph also depicts the acceleration of the object.

15. What does the area under velocity-time graph depict?

a) Velocity
b) Displacement
c) Acceleration
d) Speed
Answer: b
Explanation: Area under velocity-time graph depicts the displacement of the object. It
shows how much the object has displaced in different intervals of time. The area speed-
time graph depicts the distance covered by the object.

Degree of Freedom

1. What is Degree of freedom?

a) Total number of observations
b) Total number of independent constraints
c) Total number of observations minus the total number of independent constraints
d) Total number of independent constraints minus the total number of observations
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Answer: c
Explanation: Degree of Freedom is the total number of observations minus the total
number of independent constraints. It defines the mobility and the possible number of
movements that can be achieved by a system.

2. Degree of freedom is denoted by which Greek symbol?

a) α(alpha)
b) λ(lamda)
c) v(mu)
d) β(beta)
Answer: c
Explanation: “Degrees of Freedom” is denoted by the Greek symbol ν (mu). The
abbreviation “d.f” is commonly used to denote the degree of freedom in most of the
books and writings. Degree of freedom is a quantity that represents the mobility of a
system.

3. What is the statistical formula of degree of freedom? (where “df” represents degree of
freedom and “n” represents the number of values in the sample set)
a) df = n2
b) df = 2*n
c) df = n-1
d) df = (n2)-1
Answer: c
Explanation: The statistical formula of degree of freedom is given by df=n-1 (where “df”
represents degree of freedom and “n” represents the number of values in the sample set).
In statistics degree of freedom represents that can be varied without violating the
constraints.

4. What is the degree of freedom of a system, that has 5 variables and only 2 equations
are known?
a) 3
b) 7
c) 1
d) 2
Answer: a
Explanation: The degree of freedom can be found out by subtracting number of
equations from number of variables. Degree of freedom is the number of independent
variables that we can vary without violating the constraint. Here degree of freedom =
5(no. Of variable) – 2(no. of equation); therefore degree of freedom = 3.

5. Degree of freedom can be found out by subtracting number of equations from number
of variables.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Degree of freedom can be found out by subtracting number of equations
from number of variables. Degree of freedom is the number of independent variables that
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can be varied without violating the constraints. So by subtracting number of equations

from number of variables we can get the number of independent variables.

6. The degree of freedom of all the gases is same.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The degree of freedom of all the gases is not same. It depends on the
number of atoms present in a molecule. The degree of freedom for mono-atomic gases is
3, for di-atomic gases it is 5 and for tri-atomic gases it is 6.

7. How many degrees of freedom are present in a bionic arm?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 6
d) 7
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Bionic arm consists of 7 degrees of freedom. The 7 degrees of freedom
include shoulder joint that has 3 degrees of freedom, elbow joint has 1 degree of freedom,
forearm with 1 degree of freedom and wrist with 2 degrees of freedom.

8. What will be the degree of freedom for two given independent samples whose sizes are
N1 and N2 respectively?
a) N1+N2
b) N1-N2
c) (N1+N2)-2
d) (N1-N2)/2
Answer: c
Explanation: The degree of freedom for two given independent samples whose sizes are
N1 and N2 respectively is given by (N1+N2)-2. This method is mostly used while
statistical calculating of the degree of freedom.

9. What is the degree of freedom of mono-atomic gases?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c
Explanation: The degree of freedom of mono-atomic gases is 3. Mono-atomic gases
have only one atom in the molecule. This molecule can move in any direction in the
space; therefore it has 3 degrees of freedom.

10. What is the degree of freedom of a system, that has 5 variables and only 3 equations
are known?
a) 3
b) 7
c) 2
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d) 5
Answer: c
Explanation: The degree of freedom can be found out by subtracting number of
equations from number of variables. Degree of freedom is the number of independent
variables that we can vary without violating the constraint. Here degree of freedom =
5(no. Of variable) – 3(no. of equation); therefore degree of freedom = 2.

11. What is the degree of freedom of a system, that has 5 variables and only 4 equations
are known?
a) 3
b) 7
c) 1
d) 2
Answer: c
Explanation: The degree of freedom can be found out by subtracting number of
equations from number of variables. Degree of freedom is the number of independent
variables that we can vary without violating the constraint. Here degree of freedom =
5(no. Of variable) – 4(no. of equation); therefore degree of freedom = 1.

12. What is the degree of freedom of di-atomic gases?

a) 6
b) 5
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: The degree of freedom of di-atomic gases is 5. Di-atomic gases have two
atoms in the molecule. This molecule can move in any direction in the space; therefore it
has 3 translational degrees of freedom. Also it can rotate in clockwise or anti clockwise
direction which gives it additional 2 rotational degrees of freedom. So it has total 5
degrees of freedom.

13. What is the degree of freedom of tri-atomic gases?

a) 6
b) 5
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: a
Explanation: The degree of freedom of tri -atomic gases is 6. Tri -atomic gases have
three atoms in the molecule. This molecule can rotate in clockwise or anti clockwise
direction from any of the three co-ordinate axis. So it has total 6 degrees of freedom.

14. What is the degree of freedom of Ozone?

a) 6
b) 5
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: a
Explanation: The degree of freedom of Ozone gases is 6. The six degrees of freedom
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constitute of three rotational degrees of freedom and three translational degrees of

freedom. Ozone is a tri-atomic molecule and the atoms are arranged in non-linear fashion.

15. What is the degree of freedom of Oxygen molecule?

a) 6
b) 5
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: The degree of freedom of Oxygen molecule is 5. The five degrees of
freedom constitute of two rotational degrees of freedom and three translational degrees of
freedom. The molecular formula of oxygen is O2, so it a diatomic molecule and hence the
degree of freedom is 5.

Mechanical Actuating Systems – KInematic Chains

1. Which Equation can be used to determine the “degree of freedom” of a system?

a) Gruebler’s equation
b) Fourier Transform
c) Simon’s equation
d) Maxwell’s equation
Answer: a
Explanation: Gruebler’s equation can be used to determine the “degree of freedom” of a
system. This equation is used to determine the degree of freedom of planar linkages that
are joined with a common joint.

2. Which combination of pairs forms compound joints?

a) Higher pair-Higher pair combination
b) Higher pair-Lower pair combination
c) Lower pair-Lower pair combination
d) Universal pair-Lower pair combination
Answer: b
Explanation: A compound joint is a combination of higher pair and lower pair. These
pairs are combined according to the requirement of the design. The arrangement of these
combinations can be altered to obtain robust joints.

3. Which kinematics is used to calculate the joint parameter which will be used to place at
the end of the kinematic chain?
a) Forward Kinematics
b) Reverse Kinematics
c) Inverse Kinematics
d) Backward Kinematics
Answer: c
Explanation: Inverse kinematics is used to calculate the joint parameter which will be
used to place at the end of the kinematic chain. It is a mathematical process that is
generally used in animating the skeleton of a character.
4. Which kinematics is used to calculate the position of end-effector from some specified
values?
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a) Forward Kinematics
b) Reverse Kinematics
c) Inverse Kinematics
d) Backward Kinematics
Answer: a
Explanation: Forward kinematics is used to calculate the position of end-effector from
some specified values. It is a kinematic equation, generally used in robots for the gripping
purpose of any object.

5. Gruebler’s equation can be used to determine degree of freedom of non planar

linkages.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Gruebler’s equation cannot be used to determine degree of freedom of non
planar linkages. It can be used to determine the degree of freedom of planar linkages that
are joined with a common joint.

6. Cam joint is a lower pair.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Cam joint is not a lower pair. It is an example of higher pair. In these types
of pairs the contact between the members has a line or point geometry. These pairs
experience high stress at the point of contact due to very less area of contact.

7. Hinge joint is an example of higher pair.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Hinge joint is not an example of higher pair. It is an example of lower pair.
The members of lower pairs have common mating surface. Hinge joint has a considerable
amount of contact area, so it is an example of lower pair.

8. What does degree of freedom in a kinematic chain denotes?

a) Total parameters of kinematic chain
b) Length of kinematic chain
c) Joints in kinematic chain
d) Type of kinematic chain
Answer: a
Explanation: The degree of freedom represents parameters that are used to define the
configuration of a kinematic chain. It also represents the mobility or the total possible
movements of a kinematic chain.

9. What is the joint called if only four links are joined at a point?
a) Binary joint
b) Ternary joint
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c) Quaternary joint
d) Quad-joint
Answer: c
Explanation: When only four links are joined at a point then the joint is known as
Quaternary joint. When only three links are joined at a point then the joint is known as
Ternary joint. When only two links are joined at a point then the joint is known as Binary
joint. Bi-joint does not exist.

10. Who is termed as the father of kinematics?

a) Nick brown
b) Franz Reuleaux
c) Stefencolumbus
d) Billy Stern
Answer: b
Explanation: Franz Reuleaux is termed as the father of kinematics. He was German
mechanical engineer and a lecturer at the Berlin Royal Technical Academy born on
September 30, 1829. He was later declared as the president of the academy.

11. What is the joint called if only three links are joined at a point?
a) Binary joint
b) Ternary joint
c) Quaternary
d) Tri-joint
Answer: b
Explanation: When only three links are joined at a point then the joint is known as
Ternary joint. When only two links are joined at a point then the joint is known as Binary
joint. When only four links are joined at a point then the joint is known as Quaternary
joint. Tri-joint does not exist.

12. Members of lower pairs have line geometry.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Members of lower pairs do not have line geometry. They have plane
geometry. They have a large area of contact; therefore the stress at the area of contact is
less. Members of higher pairs have line or point geometry.

13. Lower pairs are the pairs that are joined together with surface contact between them.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Lower pairs are the pairs that are joined together with surface contact
between them. There are two types of pair’s lower pairs and higher pairs. The members of
higher pairs have a line or point geometry.

14. Which equation represents Grubler’s equation? (where “F”represents Degrees of

freedom, n represents number of links, l represents Number of lower pairs, h represents
Number of higher pairs)
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a) F = 3(n-1)-2l-h
b) F = 2(n-1)-2l-h
c) F = 2(n-1)-3l-h
d) F = 3(n-1)-2l-2h
Answer: a
Explanation: F = 3(n-1)-2l-h represents Grubler’s equation. (where “F”represents
Degrees of freedom, n represents number of links, l represents Number of lower pairs, h
represents Number of higher pairs). This equation is used to determine the Degree of
freedom of a system.

15. What is the joint called if only two links are joined at a point?
a) Binary joint
b) Ternary joint
c) Quaternary joint
d) Bi-joint
Answer: a
Explanation: When only two links are joined at a point then the joint is known as Binary
joint. When only three links are joined at a point then the joint is known as Ternary joint.
When only four links are joined at a point then the joint is known as Quaternary joint. Bi-
joint does not exist.

Cams

1. Who invented Abalakov Cam?

a) GrueblerAbalakov
b) Vitaly Abalakov
c) Simons Abalakov
d) Reiston Abalakov
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Vitaly Abalakov was the inventor of Abalakov Cam. Vitaly Abalakov
was a Soviet chemical engineer and a mountaineer who invented the mounted
climbing equipment Abalakov Cam.
2. What is the full form of SLCD?
a) Spring loaded camming device
b)Spring loading camming device
c) Spring leaver camming device
d) Straight leaver camming device
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SLCD stands for “Spring loaded camming device”. They are rock
climbing or mountaineering protection devices. It constitutes of several cams
which are mounted on a common or adjacent axles which favours the rock
climbers to climb easily.
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3. Which cam is also known as barrel cam?

a) Disc cam
b) Cylindrical cam
c) Face cam
d) Snail drop cam
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cylindrical cam is also known as barrel cam. In these type of cams
the followers rides over the cylindrical surface of the cam. They are generally
used to convert rotational motion to linear motion.
4. Which cam is also known as radial cam?
a) Disc cam
b) Cylindrical cam
c) Face cam
d) Snail drop cam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Disc cam is also known as radial cam. This cam is also generally
referred as plate cams. These cams are cut-outs of flat metal plates. The follower
moves on a plane which is perpendicular to the camshaft axis.
5. The follower of a cylindrical cam is permanently attached to the cylinder
surface.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The follower of a cylindrical cam is not permanently attached to the
cylinder surface. The follower just touches the cylindrical surface and has a
physical contact. The follower rides on the surface of the cam.
6. Cam joint is an example of lower pair.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cam joint is not a lower pair. It is an example of higher pair. In these
types of pairs the contact between the members has a line or point geometry.
These pairs experience high stress at the point of contact due to very less area of
contact.
7. Which is the smallest circle that can be drawn on a cam profile?
a) Prime circle
b) Base circle
c) Addendum circle
d) Dedendum circle
View Answer
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Answer: b
Explanation: Base circle is the smallest circle that can be drawn on a cam profile.
Prime circle is the circle that passes through the pith curve and its radius is larger
than the base circle. Addendum and Dedendum circles are drawn in a gear.
8. What is the nature of the movement of follower in the constant lead cam?
a) Linear
b) Parabolic
c) Circular
d) Elliptical
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The nature of the movement of follower in the constant lead cam is
linear. The displacement of the lead is linear with respect to the rotation of the
cam. In this type of configuration the lead remains stationary and just touches the
surface of the rotating cam which gives it a linear motion.
9. Which cam follower experiences least sliding motion?
a) Knife edged
b) Roller Follower
c) Mushroom Follower
d) Flat faced Follower
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Roller Follower experiences least sliding motion. It is so because all
other cam followers are stationary followers whereas roller followers have a roller
built on it. So most of the sliding motion gets converted to rolling motion.
10. What is the nature of movement of the scroll plate present in the scroll chuck?
a) Linear
b) Parabolic
c) Circular
d) Elliptical
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The nature of the movement of the scroll plate present in the scroll
chuck is linear. The displacement of the lead is linear with respect to the rotation
of the cam. It is a type of constant lead cam. In this type of configuration the lead
remains stationary and just touches the surface of the rotating cam which gives it
a linear motion.
11. Which type of cam is used in stereo phonograph?
a) Heart shaped cam
b) Cylindrical cam
c) Face cam
d) Snail drop cam
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Face cam is used in stereo phonograph. Face cams have followers
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rotating on the face of a disc. In stereo phonograph a disc is placed on which a

constant lead follower rides. This follower acts as a tone arm helps in producing
music from the phonograph.
12. Pin tumbler lock is an example of cylindrical cam.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pin tumbler lock is not an example of cylindrical cam. It is an
example of linear cam. Linear cams are those types of cam in which the cam
element moves in a straight line rather than rotating. In “Pin tumbler locks” the
key moves straight inside the lock and the stationary follower rides over it.
13. The motion generated by a face cam is perpendicular to the motion of the
rotation of the cam.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The motion generated by a face cam is not perpendicular to the
motion of the rotation of the cam. It is parallel to the rotation of the cam. Face
cams have followers rotating on the face of a disc; therefore the cam as well as
the follower generated motion in same fashion.
14. Which cams are also known as drop cams?
a) Linear cams
b) Cylindrical cams
c) Face cams
d) Snail cams
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Snail cams are also known as drop cams. These cams have a snail
like structure which is why they are called so. Also when it rotates the constant
lead follower experiences a sudden drop due to the structure of cam which is why
it is also called as drop cam.
15. Which cam is used in ordinary key locks?
a) Linear cams
b) Cylindrical cams
c) Face cams
d) Snail cams
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Linear cam is used in ordinary key locks. Linear cams are those
types of cam in which the cam element moves in a straight line rather than
rotating. In “Key locks” the key moves straight inside the lock and the stationary
follower rides over it.
Gear and Gear Trains – 1.
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1. What is the module of a gear if its pitch diameter is 10mm and it contains 5
teeth?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Pitch diameter = 10mm
No. Of teeth=5 teeth
Module=Pitch diameter/No. Of teeth
Module=>10/5 =2.
2. What is the pitch of a gear if the gear contains 30 teeth and diameter of the
gear is 6 inches?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
No. Of teeth=30 teeth
Diameter=6 inches
Pitch=Number of teeth/Diameter
Pitch=30/6=5.
3. What is the torque offered by a gear, if the tangential force is 20 N and radius
of the gear is 1m?
a) 5Nm
b) 15Nm
c) 20Nm
d) 2.55Nm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Tangential force=20N
Radius of the gear=1m
Torque=tangential force (F)*Radius(R)
Torque=20*1=>20Nm.
4. What is the radius of a gear, if torque generated by the gear is 20Nm and the
tangential force is 5N?
a) 5m
b) 15m
c) 10m
d) 4m
View Answer
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Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
No. Of teeth=30 teeth
Diameter=6 inches
Pitch=Number of teeth/Diameter
Pitch=30/6 = 5.
5. The pitch of a gear is defined as the number of teeth per unit pitch circle
radius.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The pitch of a gear is not the number of teeth per unit pitch circle
radius. It is defined as the number of teeth per unit pitch circle diameter. The
diameter is taken in inches.
6. The radial distance between root circle and pitch circle is called addendum.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The radial distance between root circle and pitch circle is not called
addendum. The radial distance between root circle and pitch circle is called
dedendum. Radial distance between addendum circle and pitch circle is called
addendum.
7. What is the velocity ratio of two gears if the driver gear has 15 teeth and driven
gear has 5 teeth?
a) 2:1
b) 3:1
c) 4:3
d) 5:1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
No. Of teeth of driver gear=15
No. Of teeth of driven gear=5
Velocity ratio=No. of teeth of driver gear/No. of teeth of driven gear
Velocity ratio => 15/5=3:1.
8. What is the torque offered by a gear, if the tangential force is 10N and radius of
the gear is 0.5m?
a) 5Nm
b) 15Nm
c) 10Nm
d) 2.55Nm
View Answer
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9. What is the radius of a gear, if torque generated by the gear is 20Nm and the
tangential force is 5N?
a) 5m
b) 4m
c) 10m
d) 2m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 4m is the radius of a gear, if torque generated by the gear is 20Nm
and the tangential force is 5N. Since the formula for torque(T) is tangential force
(F)*Radius(R), so radius=Torque(T)/Tangential force(F) which gives radius =
20Nm/5m => 4m.
10. What is the module of a gear if its pitch diameter is 15mm and it contains 3
teeth?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Pitch diameter = 15mm
No. Of teeth=3 teeth
Module=Pitch diameter/No. Of teeth
Module=>15/3=5.
11. What is the velocity ratio of two gears if the driver gear has 20 teeth and
driven gear has 10 teeth?
a) 2:1
b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
No. Of teeth of driver gear=20
No. Of teeth of driven gear=10
Velocity ratio=No. of teeth of driver gear/No. of teeth of driven gear
Velocity ratio => 20/10=2:1.
12. What is the speed ratio of two gears if the speed of the driver gear has 20
km/hr and driven gear has 10km/hr?
a) 2:1
b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:1
View Answer
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Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Speed of the driver gear=20km/hr
Speed of the driven gear = 10km/hr
Speed ratio=speed of the driver gear/speed of the driven gear
Speed ratio=>20/10=2:1.
13. What is the speed ratio of two gears if the speed of the driver gear has 25
km/hr and driven gear has 10km/hr?
a) 2:1
b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Speed of the driver gear=25km/hr
Speed of the driven gear = 10km/hr
Speed ratio=speed of the driver gear/speed of the driven gear
Speed ratio=>25/10=5:2.
14. What is the train value of a gear train if the velocity ratio is 2:5?
a) 2:1
b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation:
Given: velocity ratio=2:5
Train value=1/(velocity ratio)
Train value=1/(2:5)=5:2.
15. What is the train value of a gear train if the velocity ratio is 2:1?
a) 2:1
b) 1:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation:
Given: velocity ratio=2:1
Train value=1/(velocity ratio)
Train value=1/(2:1)=1:2.
“Mechanical Actuating Systems – Gear and Gear Trains – 2”.

1. What is the velocity ratio of a gear train if the train value is 2:5?
a) 2:1
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b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation:
Given: Train value velocity ratio=2:5
Velocity ratio=1/( Train value)
Train value=1/(2:5)=5:2.
2. What is the train value of a gear train if the velocity ratio is 1:5?
a) 2:1
b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:1
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given: Train value velocity ratio=1:5
Train value=1/( Velocity ratio)
Train value=1/(1:5)=5:1.
3. What is the velocity ratio of two gears if the driver gear has angular velocity of
20m/s and driven gear has angular velocity of 10m/s?
a) 2:1
b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Angular velocity of the driver gear=20km/hr
Angular velocity of the driven gear = 10km/hr
Velocity ratio= speed of the driver gear/ speed of the driven gear
Velocity ratio=>20/10=2:1.
4. What is the angular velocity of driven gear if the driver gear has angular
velocity of 30m/s and velocity ratio of two gears is 3:2?
a) 10m/s
b) 20m/s
c) 30m/s
d) 40m/s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Angular velocity of the driver gear=30 km/hr
Velocity ratio= speed of the driver gear/speed of the driven gear
3/2=30/Angular velocity of the driven gear
Angular velocity of the driven gear=20m/s.
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5. Which gear cannot connect two parallel shafts?

a) Spur gear
b) Helical gear
c) Bevel gear
d) Double helical gear
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bevel gear cannot connect two parallel shafts. It is used to transmit
torque or power between shafts that are not parallel to each other. Generally it is
used to transmit power between perpendicular shafts.
6. Spur gears can transmit power between perpendicular shafts.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Spur gears cannot transmit power between perpendicular shafts.
These are simplest type of gear. It can transmit power between parallel shafts.
Bevel gears are used to transmit power between perpendicular shafts.
7. Which gear can be used to transmit rectilinear motion?
a) Spur gear
b) Helical gear
c) Bevel gear
d) Rack and pinion gear
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Rack and pinion gear can be used to transmit rectilinear motion.
This setup contains a straight rack and a circular spur gear. When the spur gear
moves, it drives the rack in rectilinear fashion.
8. Which gear train is also called as “Sun and planet gear train”?
a) Simple gear train
b) Reverted gear train
c) Compound gear train
d) Epicyclic gear train
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Epicyclic gear train is also called as “Sun and planet gear train”. It is
called so because the driven gear revolves around the driver gear when the gear
moves. The driver and the driven gear are connected to each other.
9. Which gear train contains more than one gear in a single shaft?
a) Simple gear train
b) Helical gear train
c) Compound gear train
d) Epicyclic gear train
View Answer
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Answer: d
Explanation: Compound gear train contains more than one gear in a single shaft.
The size of the gears may or may not be same, but a single shaft must contain
more than one gear to be called as compound gear train.
10. In reverted gear train, the input and output gears should be co-axial.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In reverted gear train, the input and output gears should be co-axial.
Reverted gear train is a type of compound gear train, where the shaft of the driver
gear and driven gear must be parallel to each other.
11. Which gear train contains only one gear in a single shaft and the driven gear
does not revolve driven gear around it?
a) Simple gear train
b) Reverted gear train
c) Compound gear train
d) Epicyclic gear train
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Simple gear train contains only one gear in a single shaft and the
driven gear does not revolve driven gear around it. It is the mist simple and most
commonly used gear train. The shafts of driver and driven gear are also parallel
to each other.
12. What is the velocity ratio of a gear train if the train value is 2:7?
a) 2:1
b) 2: 7
c) 7:2
d) 5:1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given: Train value velocity ratio=2:7
Velocity ratio=1/( Train value)
Train value=1/(2:7)=7:2.
13. What is the velocity ratio of two gears if the driver gear has angular velocity of
15m/s and driven gear has angular velocity of 10m/s?
a) 2:1
b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Angular velocity of the driver gear=15km/hr
Angular velocity of the driven gear = 10km/hr
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Velocity ratio=speed of the driver gear/speed of the driven gear

Velocity ratio=>15/10=3:2.
14. Reverted gear train is also called as planetary gear train.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Reverted gear train is not called as planetary gear train. Planetary
gear train is the other name of epicyclic gear train. They are called so because
the driven gear revolves around the driver gear like the planets around moon.
15. Rack and pinion gear can be termed as linear actuator.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Rack and pinion gear can be termed as linear actuator. Linear
actuators are devices that can perform rectilinear motion. When the pinion is held
stationary and revolved then the rack performs rectilinear motion.