MM : 720 Test Time : 3 Hrs.

Instructions :
(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer :

1. The dimensional formula of magnetic intensity is 4. For a projectile motion in x-y plane on some planet
(1) [MLT–2A–1] (2) [ML2T–3A–1] the position co-ordinates as a function of time t are
given as x = 4t and y = 4t – 6t2, where x, y are in
(3) [ML2T–2A–1] (4) [L–1A]
metre and time t is in second. Assume x is
2. The velocity-time (v–t) graph of a particle moving horizontal and y is vertical. The horizontal range of
along x-axis is as shown. It can be concluded that the projectile is
v 3
(1) m (2) 6 m
8

8 16
(3) m (4) m
3 3
t
5. For a particle moving on a circle of radius 18 m, the
(1) Acceleration of the particle continuously distance covered s as a function of time t is given
decreases
as s = 3t2 (s is in metre and t is in second). The
(2) Position of the particle continuously increases acceleration of the particle at t = 2 second is
(3) Acceleration remains constant (1) 6 m/s2 (2) 8 m/s2
(4) Both (1) & (2) (3) 10 m/s2 (4) 14 m/s2
3. The position co-ordinate of a particle moving along 6. A water pump of 0.5 horse power is required to flow
y-axis as a function of time t (in second) is given as water through a cylindrical pipe line at 1 m/s. If flow
y = (t – 3)2 – 6 (metre). The distance covered by rate of water is to be doubled then the power of new
the particle in first four second is water pump required is
(1) 5 m (2) 10 m (1) 1 HP (2) 2 HP
(3) 7 m (4) 9 m (3) 4 HP (4) 8 HP

(1)
7. A slab of mass m1 = 30 kg is kept over a smooth 12. By the side of a lake the mercury in a barometer
horizontal surface above which a block of mass stands at 75 cm. Mercury used in the barometer
m 2 = 10 kg has been kept as shown. The 40
coefficient of friction μ between the block and the has specific gravity of . The volume of an air
3
slab is 0.5. A horizontal force F acts on the block. bubble increases by 50% while travelling from the
The value of F for which both the masses will move bottom to the top of the lake. The depth of the water
together is (g = 10 m/s2) lake is approximately.

μ (1) 5 m (2) 10 m
m2 F
(3) 70 m (4) 15 m
m1 13. In a large rectangular water tank, water is coming
out of a small hole at the bottom of the tank. It takes
Smooth
almost 4 min to empty half of the tank. How much
200 approximate further time will be needed to empty the
(1) 50 N (2) N tank completely?
3
(1) 4 min (2) 6 min
100
(3) N (4) All of these (3) 10 min (4) 8 min
3
14. A small solid ball is projected vertically up from
8. A block of mass m = 5 kg is kept on a horizontal rough
platform undergoing rotation. If coefficient of friction 3
ground at a large initial speed u = gR , where g
between the block and the platform is 0.4 and the block 2
is rotating in a circle of radius 4 m then its possible time is acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the
period (in second) may be (g = 10 m/s2) earth and R is earth’s radius. The maximum altitude
upto which the ball will go is (neglect air friction)
(1) π (2) 3π
R R
(3) 4π (4) Both (2) & (3) (1) (2)
2 3
9. A bomb of 10 kg at rest explodes in two parts. One 2R 3R
part of 4 kg moves with kinetic energy 72 J. Kinetic (3) (4)
3 4
energy of the other part just after explosion is
15. The volume flow rate of a viscous liquid through a
(1) 72 J (2) 48 J horizontal cylindrical capillary is P. If all the linear
dimensions of the capillary is doubled (keeping other
(3) 120 J (4) 108 J factors same) then the new volume flow rate will be
10. A solid sphere of mass 2 kg and radius 2 cm is (1) P (2) 4P
rolling down a rough incline of inclination θ = 30º. (3) 8P (4) 16P
The acceleration of its centre down the incline is
16. A steel scale (calibrated at 25°C) has been employed
(g = 10 m/s2)
to measure the length of a copper pipe at 25°C.
However the reading has been taken at 45ºC. If
25
(1) 5 m/s2 (2) m/s2 thermal coefficient of linear expansion of steel and
7 copper are 3 × 10–5 per ºC and 2 × 10–5 per ºC
(3) 3 m/s2 (4) 7 m/s2 respectively then percentage error in reading taken is
(1) 0.01% (2) 0.02%
11. You have been given the standard stress-strain
diagram of a steel rod sample of known dimensions. (3) 0.04% (4) 0.05%
The physical quantity that can be calculated from the 17. A thermodynamic cyclic process abcd has two
diagram is isothermals, one isobaric and one isochoric process
as shown on pressure-volume (P–V) diagram.
(1) Young’s modulus of elasticity
P a b
(2) Breaking stress

(3) Stored energy density in the sample c

(4) All of these d V

(2)
 The same cyclic process on a volume-temperature 21. A train moving at 72 kmph is approaching a hill
(V – T) diagram is best represented by while blowing horn at 1.24 kHz. The frequency of
sound (reflected by the hill) as heard by the driver of
V the train is (take speed of sound in air = 330 m/s)
d c
(1) 1370 Hz (2) 1400 Hz
b (3) 1290 Hz (4) 1600 Hz
(1) (2) 22. Four organ pipes of equal length have their overtones
a as shown. Frequency ratio of sound waves in them is
T

c b

(3) (4) d a

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 4 : 3 : 2 : 1 (2) 6 : 5 : 4 : 3
18. If the source as well as sink temperature of a heat
engine is increased then the efficiency of the ideal (3) 8 : 7 : 6 : 5 (4) 5 : 3 : 2 : 1
engine 23. A particle is undergoing simple harmonic motion on
a straight line of amplitude 1 cm and time period
(1) May increase 8 second. Starting from mean position the distance
(2) May decrease covered by the particle in first five seconds is
approximately.
(3) May remain unchanged
(1) 2.1 cm (2) 2.3 cm
(4) Any of these (3) 2.5 cm (4) 2.7 cm
19. From a uniform circular plate of radius R and area 24. In which of the following motions the time T will have
approximate value of 84.6 minute?
A
A, a small circular portion of area is cut out at a. Time period T of a satellite rotating very close to
21 the surface of the earth.
3R b. Time period T of rotation of the earth so that a
a distance from the centre O as shown. The body kept on equator feels weightlessness.
4
c. Time period T of oscillation of an infinitely large
centre of mass of leftover disc is at a distance x
simple pendulum.
from O, where x is
d. Time period T of oscillation of a body along a
3R complete tunnel through a chord of the earth.
(1)
84 (1) a, b, c (2) a, b, c, d
R (3) a, b (4) b, c
(2)
21 O 3R 25. A plastic cylinder of mass M and cross-sectional
4 area A is undergoing vertical SHM while floating in
3R
(3) R a liquid of density d. The time period of oscillation
80 can be increased by increasing
R (1) M (2) A
(4)
20 (3) d (4) All of these
20. A vertical spring of constant k is kept fixed on a 26. A parallel plate capacitor with dielectric is charged
horizontal ground. A block of mass 1 kg is kept at completely and then the battery is disconnected.
the top of the spring and gently released. The Now the dielectric is pulled out. Due to such pulling
the
compression produced in the spring at equilibrium is
2 cm. Had the mass been suddenly released, the (1) Charge stored on the capacitor will decrease
maximum compression in the spring would be (2) Potential difference between the plates will
decrease
(1) 1 cm (2) 2 cm
(3) Capacitance will increase
(3) 4 cm (4) 8 cm (4) Energy stored in the capacitor will increase
(3)
27. The electric potential V as a function of position 32. The magnetic dip angle at magnetic equator of the
(x, y, z) in a space is given by V = xy2z3 (volt). The earth is
electric field (in N/C) at point P(1, 2, –1) m will be
(1) 0º (2) 30º
given as
(3) 45º (4) 90º
(1) 4iˆ + 8 jˆ + 12kˆ (2) 4iˆ + 4 jˆ − 8kˆ
33. A metallic slider of length L is moving on wire frame
with resistance R (kept in uniform magnetic field B)
(3) 4iˆ − 4 jˆ + 12kˆ (4) 4iˆ + 4 jˆ − 12kˆ
at a speed v as shown. Force F applied by external
28. A portion of electrical network is as shown in figure. agent in pulling this slider is
The energy stored in the capacitor is
1A B

2Ω
2A
R F
1Ω 2Ω
2 μF 1Ω
1Ω
5Ω
7Ω BLv
(1)
R
1A
(1) 12 μJ (2) 288 μJ B2Lv
(2)
R
(3) 144 μJ (4) 72 μJ
29. In the electrical circuit shown, the bulb B 1 of B2L2v
(3)
resistance 200 Ω glows at 40 W. The bulb B2 of R
resistance 300 Ω will glow at
B2 L2v 2
(4)
R = 400 Ω R
B1 34. In the circuit shown the power consumed by the
bulb B 1 long time after the key K is closed is
(inductor is ideal)
i i

B2
B1 = 5 Ω
(1) 40 W (2) 80 W
(3) 160 W (4) 240 W B2 = 5 Ω
L = 5 mH
30. In the standard notations the Bohr’s Magneton is
expressed as
K
eh eh
(1) (2)
πm 2πm 10 volt
(1) 5 W
eh 4eh
(3) (4)
4πm πm (2) 10 W
31. A regular hexagonal loop of side a is formed by a (3) 20 W
uniform wire. A current flows into it as shown. The (4) 40 W
magnetic field at the centre C of the hexagon is
35. Across a capacitor C = 10 μF the voltage is
μ0i i changing at a rate of 200 volt/second. The
(1)
16πa displacement current in the capacitor is
μ0i a (1) 20 mA
(2) i
24πa
C (2) 2 mA
3μ0i
(3) (3) 2 A
8πa
(4) Zero (4) 20 A
(4)
36. In the situation shown the distance between the 41. An atom of mass M gets deexcited and the
object O and its image is 24 cm. The object is 6 cm wavelength of photon emitted is λ. Linear momentum
above water level and the beaker containing water of the recoiling atom is
upto 8 cm is kept on a plane mirror. Refractive index ( h / λ )2 hc
(1) (2)
of the water is 2M λ
O h (hλ)2
(3) (4)
6 cm λ 2M
42. Assuming Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, the
Water wavelength of α-line of Balmer series is λ. The
wavelength of β-line of Lyman series is
8 cm
6λ 5λ
(1) (2)
Mirror 33 32
3 4 7λ 5λ
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 3 13 36
43. Radioactive decay is an exponential decay process.
5 7
(3) (4) Assume that the half life of a radioactive decay is
4 6 2 years. The time interval between 20% decay to
37. A parallel beam of light enters a convex lens of focal 80% decay of such nuclei will be
length 50 cm. A concave lens of focal length 20 cm (1) 2 years (2) 4 years
is kept coaxially at a distance D behind the convex (3) 6 years (4) 8 years
lens such that rays coming out of concave lens are 44. Which of the following current-voltage (I - V) graph is
parallel again. Here the D is equal to characteristics of solar cell?
(1) 20 cm (2) 30 cm I I

(3) 40 cm (4) 80 cm
V V
38. In a demonstration of dispersion without deviation (1) (2)
phenomenon of thin prism combination, a prism X is
chosen with refracting angle 5º and refractive index I I
1.40. It is combined with another prism Y of material
refractive index 1.50. The refracting angle of prism Y
V V
is (3) (4)

(1) 3º (2) 4º
(3) 6.25º (4) 6º 45. The truth table for the circuit shown will be

39. Polarization of wave is a manifestation of its x

transverse nature. In an experiment light wave is
polarized by reflection as per Brewster’s law. The
angle between reflected and refracted light is
y
(1) 0º (2) 30º
x z x z
(3) 45º (4) 90º 0 0 0 0
40. Originally the Young’s double slit experiment was 0 0 0 1
(1) 0 (2)
performed in white light in which higher order spectra 1 1 1
in the fringe pattern overlap each other. Assume that 1 1 1 1
wavelength of blue light is 520 nm and that of red
x z x z
light is 780 nm. The value of x for which xth bright red
0 0 0 1
band coincides with (x + 1)th blue band is
0 1 0 0
(3) (4)
(1) 5 (2) 4 1 1 1 0
(3) 3 (4) 2 1 0 1 1

(5)
 CHEMISTRY
46. The weight of 50% H2SO4 solution required to react 55. n-factor of HCl in the reaction is
completely with 50 g pure CaCO3 is
2KMnO4 + 16HCl → 2KCl + 2MnCl2 + 5Cl2 + 8H2O
(1) 49 g (2) 98 g
(1) 1 (2) 16
(3) 24.5 g (4) 196 g
5
47. The ratio of time taken for one complete revolution of (3) 10 (4)
electron of an atom moving in the orbit of radii R and 8
9R is 56. The number of moles of K2Cr2O7 required to react
(1) 1 : 27 (2) 27 : 1 completely with 0.1 mole of H2S in acidic medium if
H2S is oxidised into sulphur
(3) 1 : 9 (4) 9 : 1
48. Highest third ionisation energy among the following 1 2
(1) (2)
is 30 5
(1) N (2) F 4 1
(3) (4)
(3) Ne (4) Be 9 9
49. Which of the following has zero dipole moment? 57. Which of the following relation is correct regarding
H2O2?
(1) XeF4 (2) PCl3F2
(1) Volume strength = 11.2 × Molarity
Cl (2) Volume strength = 5.6 × Normality
(3) 10 Volume H2O2 = 1.78 N
(3) (4) All of these
(4) All of these
Cl 58. The alkaline earth metal which does not exhibit
colour when heated in flame
50. The highest bond order and paramagnetic among the
(1) Be (2) Mg
following is
(1) N2+ + (2) N2 (3) Ca (4) Both (1) & (2)

(3) CO+ (4) O2– – 59. Alkali metal which reacts with N2 to form nitride is

51. At room temperature, helium gas is present in a (1) Na (2) Li

5 L cylinder at 10 atm pressure. How many balloons (3) K (4) All of these
having a maximum inflation volume of 200 cc at
60. The number of five and six membered rings in C60
0.1 atm limiting pressure, can be filled using helium
fullerene respectively are
gas in the cylinder at its maximum inflation and room
temperature? (1) 12, 20 (2) 12, 25
(1) 450 (2) 556 (3) 10, 20 (4) 10, 18
(3) 2475 (4) 2225 61. The possible distance between two tetrahedral voids
in CCP unit cell is (a = edge length)
52. If enthalpy of solution of BaCl2 and BaCl2.2H2O are
– a and b kJ/mol respectively. The enthalpy of a
a
hydration of BaCl2 to BaCl2.2H2O would be (1) (2)
2 2
(1) (a – b) kJ (2) (b – a) kJ
(3) (a + b) kJ (4) – (a + b) kJ 3a
(3) (4) All of these
53. Melting of ice increases on 2

(1) Increasing pressure 62. If M = Molarity of solution, m = Molality of solution,

d = Density of solution in g/mL and M2 = Mol. wt.
(2) Decreasing temperature of solute, then which of the following relation is
(3) Increasing amount of ice correct?
(4) All of these 1000 M 1000 M
(1) m = (2) m =
54. pH of Ca(OH)2 solution is (Ksp = 4 ×10–15) 1000 d − MM2 1000 d + MM2
(1) 5 (2) 7.65 1000 M 100 M
(3) m = (4) m =
(3) 9.30 (4) 8.20 100 d − MM2 1000 d − MM2
(6)
63. Aqueous solution of ZnSO 4 is electrolysed by 72. Which of the following molecule has only π-bond?
passing current of 965 ampere for 100 s; using inert
(1) B2 (2) N2
electrode then total volume of gases liberated at
electrode is (3) O2 (4) CO
(1) 5.6 litre (2) 11.2 litre 73. The complex of the type MABCD exhibit total ________
(3) 16.8 litre (4) 22.4 litre geometrical isomer.
64. Dissociation of NH3(g) on the surface of solid (1) 1 (2) 2
catalyst follows
(3) 4 (4) 3
(1) Zero order reaction when concentration of NH3 is
low 74. Maximum number of mole in
(2) First order reaction when concentration of NH3 is (1) 106 g Na2CO3 (2) 44.8 litre H2 at STP
high (3) 16 g He (4) 67.2 litre N2 at STP
(3) Second order reaction when concentration of
75. The degree of dissociation (α) of a first order reaction
NH3 is high
is given by
(4) Zero order reaction when concentration of NH3 is
high (1) 1 – e–kt (2) 1 – ekt
65. Argyral is (3) 1 + e–kt (4) 1 + ekt
(1) Colloidal solution of Ag
76. C C6H5 C C6H5 (CH3)3C CH3CO
(2) Colloidal solution of Au
(3) Colloidal solution of graphite C6H5
(4) Colloidal solution of carbon I II III IV
66. Zr and Ti metal are purified by The correct stability order of the above cation is
(1) Mond process (1) I < II < III < IV (2) III < IV < II < I
(2) van Arkel method
(3) IV < III < II < I (4) IV < II < I < III
(3) Zone refining
77. The most stable carbanion is
(4) Liquation
67. The correct acidic nature order is
(1) CH3 CH2 (2) CH3
(1) HOCl > HOBr > HOI
(2) HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HClO
(3) CH2 CH (4) CH C
(3) H3PO2 > H3PO3 > H3PO4
(4) All of these 78. A hydrocarbon on ozonolysis followed by reductive
hydrolysis gives one mole of each CO2, CH3CHO and
68. Which of the following oxide is known as mixed CH2O. The hydrocarbon is
anhydride?
(1) N2O3 (2) NO2 (1) CH 3 CH C CH2
(3) N2O5 (4) All of these (2) CH 2 CH CH CH2
69. The colour of K2Cr2O7 in acidic and alkaline medium
(3) CH 3 C C CH3
respectively are
(1) Yellow, Orange (2) Orange, Yellow (4) CH3 CH CH CH CH2
(3) Pink, Red (4) Red, Pink CH3
70. Facial and meridional isomerism exhibited by which
CH3 CH2 CH3 CH CH3 C(CH3)3
of the followingh type of complex?

(1) MA4B2 (2) M( AA )2 B2 79.

(3) MA3B3 (4) M(AA)3 I II III IV

71. Hybridisation of central metal in [Ni(CN)4]2– and The correct reactivity order for electrophilic
Ni(CO)4 respectively are substitution reaction is
(1) sp3 and dsp2 (2) sp3 and sp3 (1) I < II < III < IV (2) IV < III < II < I
(3) dsp2 and dsp2 (4) dsp2 and sp3 (3) II < I < III < IV (4) III < I < II < IV
(7)
 CH3 O NO2
80. IUPAC name of the compound N C H is CH2 CH OH
CH3
(3)
(1) N, N–Dimethylmethanal
(2) N, N–Dimethylmethanamide
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) N, N–Dimethylformamide CH3
(4) N–Formyldimethylamine 84. CH3 C Cl + C2H5ONa A . What is A?
(Major)
OCH3 CH3
Cl
KNH2 CH3
81. P. What is P?
NH3(l)
(Major) (1) CH3 C O CH2 CH3

OCH3 OCH3 CH3

NH2 CH 3
(1) (2)
(2) CH 3 C CH2
NH2
OCH3 (3) CH 3 CH CH2
OCH3
CH3
NH2
(3) (4)
(4) CH3 C OH

NH2 NH2 CH3

85. Claisen condensation is given by
Cl2
A CH3
500°C (Major)
82. CH3 CH CH2
NBS (1) CH3COOC2H5 (2) CH3 C COOC2H5
B
(Major) CH3
O
A and B are respectively
(3) CH3CHO (4) CH3 C CH3
(1) CH2 CH CH2 & CH2 CH CH2
CHO
Cl Br
conc.NaOH
86. HCHO + A + B
(2) CH2 CH CH2 & CH2 C CH2 (Salt) (Alcohol)

Cl Br Br
A and B respectively are
(3) CH2 CH CH2 & CH3 CH CH2 (1) CH3COONa + CH3OH
Cl Br Br COONa

(4) CH3 CH CH2 & CH2 CH CH2 (2) + CH3OH

Cl Cl Br
CH2OH
83. Which of the following alcohol react with Lucas
reagent as fast as tertiary alcohol? (3) HCOONa and
(1) CH 2 CH CH2 OH
CH2OH
CH2 OH
(4) COONa and
(2)
COONa
(8)
87. Which of the following does not reduce Fehling 89. The number of moles of phenylhydrazine required for
solution? the formation of glucosazone (osazone) when reacts
with glucose is
(1) C6H5CHO (2) HCHO
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) CH3CHO (4) HCOOH
(3) 2 (4) 1
88. Carbylamine reaction is given by
90. Captrolactam is the monomer of
(1) (CH3)2NH (2) (CH3)3N (1) Nylon - 6 (2) Nylon - 6, 6
(3) C6H5NH2 (4) All of these (3) Nylon - 2, 6 (4) Nylon - 6, 10

BOTANY
91. Select correct statements from the given below w.r.t. (1) It has symbiotic association with coralloid root of
the living world. Cycas
a. Reproduction is synonymous with growth for (2) The labelled structure ‘A’ contains nitrogenase,
bacteria, protistans and most of the plants.
PS-I and PS-II
b. Modern taxonomy includes ecological
(3) The labelled structure ‘B’ is cell wall with
information of organisms.
peptidoglycan
c. Sweet potato and wheat belong to different
orders but same division. (4) It does not possess motile structure in
vegetative and reproductive stage
d. Lower the category, greater is the difficulty of
determining the relationship to other taxa at the 94. In how many members from the given box, an
same level. intervening short dikaryotic stage is present in sexual
e. Herbaria serve as quick referral system in life cycle?
taxonomical studies.
Puccinia, Neurospora, Agaricus, Albugo,
(1) All correct, except c & d Claviceps, Ustilago, Rhizopus, Morchella
(2) All correct, except c (1) Three (2) Six
(3) b, c & e (3) Two (4) Seven
(4) b, d & e 95. Pathogen of potato spindle tuber disease
92. Which one of the following pair of organisms were (1) Is found to be free double stranded RNA
placed in different kingdoms in Linnaeus system of
classification? (2) Has capsomeres arranged in helical form

(1) Bacillus and Spirogyra (3) Has ssRNA of low molecular weight

(2) Chlamydomonas and Paramoecium (4) Is infectious agent with protein coat only

(3) Marchantia and Mangifera 96. Phytochemistry is not the basis of classification in

(4) Spirogyra and Pinus (1) Artificial system

93. Find correct statement w.r.t. given diagram. (2) Chemotaxonomy

(3) Natural system
(4) More than one option is correct
A
97. Asexual reproduction is common by motile spores
B having two unequal lateral flagella in the members of
(1) Chlorophyceae
(2) Rhodophyceae
(3) Phaeophyceae
(4) Myxophyceae

(9)
98. Find the correct match. 105. Consider the following and select correct statements
Column I Column II for monocot stem.
a. Autotrophic gametophyte (i) Algae a. Absence of phloem parenchyma.
with multicellular rhizoids
b. Conjoint, closed vascular bundles with exarch
b. Photosynthetic thalloid (ii) Bryophyta protoxylem.
gametophyte with (Mosses)
unicellular rhizoids c. Sclerenchymatous bundle sheath present.
c. Dependent or heterotrophic (iii) Pteridophyta d. Semi-lunar patches of sclerenchyma above the
gametophyte as one or few (Ferns) phloem.
celled structure
(1) a & c (2) a, b & c
d. Sporophytic generation (iv) Gymnosperms
represented by one-celled (3) b & c (4) b, c & d
structure 106. Which of the following pair of tissues are formed by
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) the activity of dedifferentiated tissue in extra-stelar
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) region?
99. The structures which provide nourishment to (1) Phellogen and phellem
developing embryo in flowering and non-flowering
seeded plants are respectively (2) Phellem and phelloderm

(1) Triploid and haploid (2) Haploid and triploid (3) Vascular cambium and cork cambium

(3) Triploid and diploid (4) Triploid and triploid (4) Heart wood and sapwood
100. Select odd one w.r.t. modification of stem 107. Select the correct match.
(1) Tendril in watermelon (2) Tendril in pea Column I Column II
(3) Thorn in Citrus (4) Sucker in pineapple a. Steroidal hormone synthesis (i) Golgi body
101. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?
b. Lysosomes formation (ii) SER
(1) Cymose – Solanum
c. Release of oxygen (iii) Aleuroplast
(2) Superior stamen – China rose
d. Storage of protein (iv) Ribosomes
(3) Irregular flower – Canna
e. Palade granules (v) Chloroplast
(4) Vexillary aestivation – Bean
102. Seed coat is membranous and generally fused with (1) a(ii), b(i), c(v), d(iii), e(iv)
fruit wall in (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(v), e(iv)
(1) Castor (2) Pea (3) a(i), b(ii), c(v), d(iv), e(iii)
(3) Coconut (4) Maize (4) a(iii), b(i), c(v), d(iv), e(ii)
103. Features like actinomorphic, bisexual flowers and
108. Kinetochore is disc-shaped proteinaceous structure
axile placentation are represented by
(1) Present on outer surface and inner surface of
(1) Solanaceae and liliaceae
centromere
(2) Liliaceae and fabaceae
(2) Present on outer surface of centriole
(3) Solanaceae and fabaceae
(3) As the site of the attachment of spindle fibres
(4) Brassicaceae and solanaceae
104. Plant tissue providing mechanical support in young (4) More than one option is correct
stem and petiole of a leaf is/has 109. Which of the following statement is incorrect for
(1) Long, narrow cells with few pits in lignified cell diplotene stage of meiosis?
wall
(1) Bivalent stage clearly appears as tetravalent
(2) Present below the epidermis in dicot plants
(2) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(3) Dead mechanical tissue
(3) Desynapsis stage
(4) Always present as homogeneous layer below
epidermis (4) Terminalisation start phase
(10)
110. Select correct statements w.r.t. the given diagram. 114. The given diagram is correct representation for
A B

0.7 M 0.4 M
Solution Solution Above

1M
Solution No flowering CPP

C
a. Cell B has lower ψw.
b. Kinetic energy of free water molecules of cell
A > C. Below
c. ψs of cell C is lower than A and B.
d. Direction of osmosis in cells from A → B → C. Flowering
(1) Tobacco (2) Wheat
(1) All are correct (2) b & c
(3) Radish (4) Sugarbeet
(3) a, b & c (4) a & b
115. Male gamete is motile and the female gamete is
111. Which of the following is incorrectly matched? stationary in
Nitrogenase Photosynthetic (1) Few algae and fungi
activity activity
(2) Few bryophytes and algae
(1) Azotobacter + –
(3) Bryophytes and pteridophytes only
(2) Chlorobium + + (4) Majority of the organisms
(3) Rhizobium + – 116. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. pollen grain.
(4) Anabaena + + (1) Intine is pectocellulosic in nature
112. As electrons move through the photosystems (2) Pollen grains are generally spherical
protons are transported across the membrane
(3) The vegetative cell has abundant food reserve
through
and a small spindle shaped nucleus
(1) PQ in non-cyclic journey of electron only (4) Generative cell floats in the cytoplasm of
(2) Cytochrome complex in cyclic journey of electron vegetative cell
only 117. The flowers pollinated by flies and beetles
(3) PQ in cyclic and non-cyclic journey of electron (1) Have large feathery stigma
(4) Ferredoxin in cyclic and non-cyclic journey of (2) Secrete foul odours to attract insects
electron (3) Have filamentous and long edible pollen grains
113. NADH is oxidised to NAD+ in/on (4) Produce light and non-sticky pollen grains
a. Aerobic respiration 118. The apomictic embryo is diploid if it is produced by
b. Mitochondrial matrix (1) Adventive embryony
c. Inner mitochondrial membrane (2) Sporophytic budding

d. Cytosol (3) Aplospory

(4) Both (1) & (2)
e. Fermentation
119. In a dihybrid cross for seed shape and seed colour
(1) Only a & c are correct
the F2 progeny produced with genotype
(2) a, b & e are correct RrYY : rrYy : RrYy : RRYy are respectively
(3) All correct, except b & d (1) 2 : 2 : 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 : 4 : 1
(4) All correct, except b (3) 2 : 2 : 4 : 2 (4) 1 : 1 : 2 : 4

(11)
120. In grasshopper, male sex is determined by 125. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Ova with X-chromosome (1) Sense codon – UGG

(2) Ova without sex chromosome (2) Ambiguous codon – GUG

(3) Capping of hnRNA – Guanosyl transferase
(3) Sperm with X-chromosome
(4) Severo Ochoa enzyme – Template dependent
(4) Sperm with autosomes only RNA synthesis
121. The possibility of a female becoming a haemophilic 126. In how many base sequences would there be
is possible from differences in human genome?
(1) Haemophilic male and normal homozygous (1) 3 × 106 bp (2) 3 × 109 bp
female
(3) 3 × 104 bp (4) 1.4 billion locations
(2) Normal male and carrier female 127. HD 1553 (Sonalika) is high yielding and disease
(3) Carrier female and haemophilic male resistant variety of

(4) Normal male and haemophilic female (1) Rice (2) Maize
(3) Wheat (4) Sugarcane
122. Find correct match w.r.t. features/chromosome
composition of genetic disorders 128. Which of the following is incorrectly matched w.r.t.
improved crop varieties for disease and insect pest
Column I Column II resistance?
a. Gynaecomastia (i) AA + 1 + XX/XY (1) Pusa shubhra – Black rot
b. Sterile female with (ii) AA + XXY (2) Pusa sadabahar – TMV
rudimentary ovaries
(3) Pusa gaurav – Fruit borer
c. Short statured with (iii) Mendelian disorder (4) Pusa sem 2 – Jassids
small round head
129. The technology for biogas production has developed
d. Increased level of (iv) AA + XO in India mainly due to the efforts of
phenyl pyruvic acid
(1) IARI & IRRI (2) CSIR & IARI
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(3) KVIC & IARI (4) KVIC & NEERI
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) 130. The biofertilisers are some micro-organisms
123. Which of the following is correct representation for belonging to
labelled structure / phenomenon and associated (1) Bacteria and cyanobacteria
enzyme?
(2) Bacteria and filamentoms bacteria
A
(3) Fungi
B C
DNA mRNA Protein (4) All are correct
131. Select correct one w.r.t. given diagram
(1) A – DNA Replication, RNA dependent DNA
polymerase
(2) B – Transcription, DNA polymerase
A
Internal level

(3) B – Transcription, DNA dependent RNA

B
polymerase
(4) C – Transcription, Snurps
Partial regulaters

124. During DNA replication, the discontinuous fragments

are
A. Synthesised on the template with polarity External level
3′ → 5′. (1) A – Nearly all plants
B. Later joined by the enzyme RNA ligase in (2) B – Majority of animals
5′→ 3′ direction.
(3) A – Birds and mammals
(1) Both are correct (2) Both are incorrect
(4) B – A very few lower invertebrates and
(3) Only A is correct (4) Only B is correct amphibians only
(12)
132. The most spectacular and evolutionary fascinating 134. Read the statements and select incorrect one for
examples of mutualism are found in biodiversity and conservation
(1) Plant - bacteria relationships (1) Species inventories for more taxonomic groups
(2) Plant - fungi relationships are more complete in tropical countries.
(2) Plants comprise no more than 22% of the total
(3) Plant - cyanobacteria relationships
species diversity
(4) Plant - animal relationships
(3) Steller’s sea cow extincted due to overexploitation
133. In hydrarch succession, the successional series
(4) All the biodiversity hotspots cover less than
progress from
2 percent of the earth’s land area
(1) Hydric ⎯→ Hydric conditions
135. The most effective green house gas w.r.t. ozone
(2) Mesic ⎯→ Hydric conditions depletion is
(3) Hydric ⎯→ Mesic conditions (1) CO2 (2) CH4
(4) Xeric ⎯→ Hydric conditions (3) CFCs (4) N2O

ZOOLOGY
136. If in animals the same structure developed along 139. Find out the correct match
different directions due to adaptations to different (1) Thyroid : Hyperthyroidism causes
needs, is called cretinism in children
(1) Divergent evolution (2) Parathyroid : Secretes parathormone which
gland stimulates the movement of
(2) Adaptive radiation calcium from the blood into
(3) Convergent evolution bones
(3) Pancreas : Alpha cells secrete insulin
(4) Biogeographical evidence
hormone
137. If we have common cold, taking antibiotics does not (4) Adrenal : Secretes catecholamines,
reduce the severity or the duration of the disease. medulla adrenaline and non-adrenaline,
Why antibiotics do not work against viral infections? which increases alertness,
pupillary dilation and cause
A. Antibiotics commonly block biochemical
piloerection
pathways important for bacteria, viruses do not
140. Study the diagrams given below which illustrate
use these pathways.
skulls of
B. Viruses lack cell wall. The antibiotic penicillin
blocks the bacterial processes that build the cell
wall.
C. Viruses are intracellular obligate parasites
D. Viruses cannot be cultured in artificial culture Adult modern Baby chimpanzee Adult chimpanzee
human
medium.
The skull of baby chimpanzee does not resemble
Options adult chimpanzee skull but is more like adult human
skull. Why?
(1) A only (2) A and B
(1) In chimpanzee, the size of the brain keeps
(3) A, B and C (4) B and C increasing
138. Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the respiratory, (2) The size of the brain and cerebral portion of the
gastrointestinal and urogenital tracts, which help in skull do not increase in size after birth as
trapping the microbes entering our body, is included compared to jaw size in chimpanzee
in _____ barrier of innate immunity. (3) In chimpanzee, the size of the jaw recedes after
birth
(1) Physical (2) Physiological
(4) The size of the brain and jaw both keep
(3) Cellular (4) Cytokine increasing after birth in chimpanzee
(13)
141. Which of the following is mismatched? 145. Which of the following are the examples of artificially
acquired passive immunity?
(1) Squamous epithelium : Walls of blood vessels
and air sacs a. The foetus receives IgG antibodies from the
mother, through placenta during pregnancy
(2) Cuboidal epithelium : Ducts of glands and
tubular part of b. IgA antibodies present in milk and colostrum to
nephrons protect the infant
c. ATS, injection
(3) Ciliated epithelium : Bronchioles and
fallopian tubes d. Antivenom injection given in case of snake bites
containing preformed antibodies against snake
(4) Columnar epithelium : Dry surface of the skin,
venoms
moist surface of buccal
cavity and pharynx (1) a and b (2) a and c

142. Which of the following is mismatched regarding (3) a, b and c (4) c and d
disorders of muscular and skeletal system? 146. Base the answer to your question on the table given
below:
(1) Myasthenia gravis : Autoimmune disorder
affecting neuromuscular Amount/serving Amount/serving
junction, can cause Saturated fat 1 g Starch 43 g
paralysis of skeletal Oil 9 g Dietary fibre 2 g
muscles Cholesterol 0 mg Sugar 3 g
(2) Tetany : Rapid spasms in muscle Protein 6 g
due to low Ca++ in body Approximately how much total kilocalories are
fluid supplied by this food? How much kilocalories in this
food come from carbohydrates?
(3) Osteoporosis : Inflammation of joints
(1) 298 and 184 (2) 304 and 192
due to accumulation of
uric acid crystals (3) 302 and 184 (4) 298 and 192
(4) Muscular dystrophy : Progressive degeneration 147. Rheumatoid arthritis which affects many people in
of skeletal muscle mostly our society is an example of
due to genetic disorder (1) An allergic reaction
143. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t. (2) An autoimmune disease
mechanism of estrogen hormone? (3) An AIDS related infection
(1) It will directly pass through the uterine cell (4) A bacterial infection
membrane and bind with the intracellular
148. The diagram illustrated below depicts the reabsorption
receptors in nucleus
and secretion of major substances at different parts of
(2) It regulates gene expression by interaction of the nephron marked P, Q, R, S and T.
hormone-receptor complex with genome Proximal convoluted tubule
Distal convoluted tubule
NaCl Nutrients
(3) It binds with the membrane bound intracellular H2O K+ H2O HCO3
HCO3 NaCl
receptors in cytoplasm
(4) No second messenger is required P S
+
H NH 3 K
+
H
+
144. Which of the following is mismatched w.r.t. the
following events which occur in the life cycle of
Plasmodium? Descending Thick segment
limb of loop of Henle of ascending
(1) Fertilisation : Takes place in mosquito’s Q R limb
T
stomach/intestine NaCl
Collecting
H2O
duct
(2) Development : In red blood cells of man
of sexual stages, Thin segment
gametocytes of ascending
limb
(3) Erythrocytic : Parasites reproduce asexually NaCl
schizogony in RBCs, bursting the red blood
Urea
cells, causing cycles of fever HO
2

and other symptoms

(4) Sporozoites : Infect red blood cells and liver
(14)
 Mark the incorrect statement (1) BamHI and Sal I are the restriction sites in
tetracycline resistance gene
(1) Segments P, S and T help to maintain the pH
and ionic balance of the body fluids by selective (2) Rop gene codes for the proteins involved in the
replication of plasmid,. Its restriction site is Pvu II
secretion of H+ and K+ ions into the filtrate and
by absorption of HCO3– from it (3) If we ligate the foreign DNA at BamHI site, the
recombinants will lose ampicillin resistance
(2) Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water takes
(4) Ori site is responsible for controlling the copy
place in segment S
number of the target DNA
(3) In segments Q and R the reabsorption is 152. Following is a diagrammatic representation of
minimum. Segment Q concentrates the filtrate anatomy of a muscle fibre showing a sarcomere
as it moves down and in segment R
A A
concentrated filtrate is diluted as it moves C D D
upwards
(4) In segment P 70% to 80% electrolytes and
water are reabsorbed by the segment and filtrate
becomes hypertonic
149. Which amongst the following is not a pair of direct
gene transfer method in organisms? B
(1) Chemical mediated gene transfer and Use the following terms to label the structures in the
electroporation figure
(2) Microinjection and particle gun A- Band H - Zone
(3) Biolistics and electroporation I - Band Z - Line
(4) Cosmid and chemical mediated gene transfer Choose the correct option
150. Once a DNA fragment has been ligated into a A B C D
suitable vector it is transferred into a bacterial, plant (1) M-line H-zone A-band I-band
or animal host. Which of the following have been
(2) Z-line H-zone A-band I-band
disarmed and are now used to deliver desirable
genes into mammalian cells? (3) Z line I-band A-band H-zone

A. Retroviruses B. SV40 (4) Z-line H-zone I-band A-band

153. Following is a diagrammatic representation of a
C. Geminiviruses D. Adenoviruses
portion of glycogen. Study the diagram and mark the
E. Papilloma virus F. Agrobacterium vectors wrong statements.
(1) A only
(2) A and F
(3) A, B, D and E
(4) A, B, C, D and E
151. Following is a diagrammatic representation of E.coli O
CHOH
2 CHOH
2
O O O
cloning vector pBR322 showing restriction sites. OH OH
O O O OH
Study the diagram and tick the wrong statement O
OH OH

Cla I CH 2
EcoR I Hind III O

Pvu I O O O O
BamH I
Pst I (1) The right hand side of this molecule is called
reducing end and the left hand side the non
pBR322 Sal I reducing end
(2) It is homopolymer
Ori
(3) It is branched polymer with α-l-4 glycosidic and
β-1-6 glycosidic bonds
Pvu II (4) It can hold I2 and gives red-violet colour with it

(15)
154. Following is the representation of transverse section 157. Following is a diagrammatic sectional view of female
of vertebrate gut. Study the diagram and mark the pelvis showing reproductive system. What is the
wrong statement correct identification of labelled structures A, B, C
and D?
A
C
B
D
E

Lumen C
B
(1) A is serosa the outermost layer and is made up A
of a thin mesothelium with some connective D
tissue (1) A – Labia minora, B – Labia majora
(2) B is smooth muscles arranged longitudinally and C – Urethra D – Clitoris
C smooth muscles arranged in circular manner.
Both together form muscularis externa (2) A – Labia majora B – Clitoris
(3) D is oblique muscle layer in stomach C – Vaginal orifice D – Urethra
(4) E is innermost lining of the alimentary canal (3) A – Labia majora B – Clitoris
called mucosa.This layer forms irregular folds, C – Urethra D – Vaginal orifice
rugae in stomach and villi in intestine
(4) A – Labia minora B – Clitoris
155. Genetic engineers have developed crop plants that
C – Urethra D – Vaginal orifice
are resistant to herbicides, example a biodegradable
weed killer, glyphosate. Why? 158. Following is a graphic representation of ovarian and
menstrual cycle. Study the graph and mark the
A. It leads to reduced reliance on herbicides.
statement which is incorrect interpretation of
B. To apply herbicide without killing the crop plants. graphics.
C. To save mannual labour.
Hormone levels
Pituitary

D. Field does not need to be tilled to control

weeds, less top soil is lost
Choose the correct option
Developing Regressing
Ovarian events

(1) A and D only (2) B and C only Developing follicle Mature follicle corpus luteum corpus luteum

(3) A, B and C (4) B, C and D

Ovulation
156. Mark the statement/s which is not correct about HIV
Hormone levels

infection and AIDS?

Ovarian

A. HIV virus binds to CD4 and CCR5 receptors in

macrophage membrane.
Uterine events

B. Virus enters the cell by receptor mediated Menses

endocytosis along with capsid layer, leaving

envelope outside. Days
1 3 5 7 9 11 13 15 17 19 21 23 25 27 29/1
C. Macrophages are HIV factory. Menstruation Follicular phase
(Proliferative phase)
Luteal phase
(Secretory Phase)
Next cycle
begins

D. Infected Helper-T-Cell continue to survive while A. In the midcycle positive feedback effect of
viruses are being replicated and released. progesterone on pituitary increases LH secretion
E. There is a time lag between HIV infection and B. In follicular phase estrogen regenerates the
appearance of AIDS symptom of few month to endometrium of uterus through proliferation.
5 to 10 years. C. Ovarian cycle is regulated by hormones
F. Opportunistic infections appear in the early stage produced by corpus luteum.
of HIV infection. D. HCG stimulates the formation of corpus luteum
and also stimulates it to release progesterone
Options
and estrogen in the cycle.
(1) A and B (2) B and D E. Progesterone is essential for maintenance of
(3) D and F (4) B, D and F endometrium in luteal phase.
(16)
 F. Negative feedback mechanism of progesterone 162. Which of the following is incorrect about NAD?
and estrogen decrease the secretion of LH and (1) It is a nucleotide
FSH during luteal phase. (2) It contains one phosphate group
Options (3) It contains the vitamin niacin
(1) A only (2) A and C only (4) It is a coenzyme of oxidation reactions and acts
(3) A, B and F only (4) A, C and D only as hydrogen acceptor
159. Tick the incorrect statement 163. Match the following and mark the correct option
(1) The secretions of acrosome help the sperm to Column I Column II
enter into the cytoplasm of the ovum through a. Healthy man can inspire (i) 1100 ml to 1200 ml
zona pellucida and the plasma membrane or expire approximately
(2) The entry of sperm induces the completion of the ___ ml of air per minute
meiotic division of the secondary oocyte b. Additional volume of air, (ii) 6000 ml to 8000 ml
(3) Implantation occurs in blastocyst stage in the a person can inspire by
presence of progesterone a forcible inspiration
(4) The signals for parturition originate from fully c. Residual volume (iii) ERV + TV + IRV
developed foetus and mother which induce foetal d. Maximum volume of (iv) 2500 to 3000 ml
ejection reflex air a person can breathe
160. The graph given below represents the effect of A on in after a forced expiration
enzymatic activity. What is A? (1) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
Vmax (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
164. When a person is running up the stairs, he
Velocity of reaction (V)

experiences sweating, increased heart rate,

respiration and cardiac output etc. This is due to
Vmax A. Stimulation of sympathetic nervous system.
2 B. Release of catecholamines.
C. Release of adrenal medullary hormones
epinephrine and nor-epinephrine.
D. Stimulation of vagus nerve.
Choose the correct option
Km A (1) A & B only (2) B & C only
(1) Temperature
(3) A, B & C (4) B, C & D
(2) pH 165. Following is diagrammatic representation of the
(3) Substrate concentration sectional view of a part of cochlea. What is the
correct identification of structures labelled as A, B,
(4) Product concentration
C and D along with their description?
161. Following is a diagrammatic view of human skull. C
Mark incorrect description

Q
A
P

D B
(1) A - Organ of Corti, located on the Reissner’s
membrane which contain hair cells that act
(1) Fibrous joint is present between the skull bones
as auditory receptors
which fuse end to end with the help of dense
fibrous connective tissues in the form of sutures (2) B - Tectorial membrane, an elastic membrane
above the sensory hair cells with stereocilia,
(2) The bones of skull are a part of axial skeleton which are supplied by a branch of auditory nerve
(3) Cranial bones are eight in number (3) C - Scala media, filled with perilymph
(4) P is parietal bone and Q is occipital bone (4) D - Reissner’s membrane
(17)
166. Which of the following is not a factor that causes 169. Pila (gastropod) differs from Unio (bivalve) by
change in the proportions of homozygous and
heterozygous individuals in a population, not (1) It is sedentary filter feeder. Its gills are modified
disturbing Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? for straining plankton as it passes through the
A. Mutation mouth cavity

B. Migration (2) It has no sensory tentacles

C. Genetic drift (3) Its larvae are bilaterally symmetrical, but in the
D. Random mating adult, the twisting of viscera makes it lose this
E. Natural selection symmetry

F. Inbreeding (4) It has two hinged shells

(1) D & E (2) D, E & F 170. Which of the following is incorrect match?
(3) D only (4) A, B, C, D & E (1) Notochord present only : Ascidia, Salpa,
167. Which of the following is/are correct w.r.t. diagram in larval tail Doliolum
illustrated below?
(2) Notochord extends from : Cephalochordata
head to tail region and
is persistent throughout
their life
(3) A chordate having flame : Amphioxus
cells as excretory
structures
(4) Protochordates : Exclusively in
A. It is copper T (CuT). marine waters,
includes urochordata,
B. Increases phagocytosis of sperms within the
uterus. cephalochordata and
cyclostomata
C. Cu ions released suppress sperm motility and
the fertilising capacity of sperms. 171. Sharks, differ from rays by
D. If used within 72 hours of coitus has been found (1) It is bottom feeder
to be very effective as emergency contraceptive
as it could be used to avoid possible pregnancy. (2) Gill slits are situated on the lateral sides of the
(1) A & C only (2) C & D only body

(3) A, B & C only (4) A, B, C & D (3) Pectoral fins are not distinct
168. Which of the following is incorrect match w.r.t. the (4) Body is flattened dorsoventrally
animals, its characteristics and taxon?
172. Study the characters given
Animal Charactericitics Taxon
A. Body is divisible into head and trunk. Two pairs
(1) Silver (i) Wingless form Insecta of limbs, tail absent
fish (ii) No metamorphosis
B. Skin is moist without scales
(i) Cephalothorax and
(2) Scorpion C. Fertilisation is external, oviparous
abdomen Arachnid
(ii) Eight legged animal
In which of the following all these characters are
(3) Prawn (i) Cephalothorax Crustacean presents?
and abdomen
(ii) Excretory organs (1) Bufo
green glands
(2) Rana
(4) Millipede (i) One pair of legs Arthropod
per segment (3) Salamandra
(ii) Carnivorous
(4) Ichthyophis
(18)
173. Which of the following statements is true for 177. Tick the incorrect statement
cockroach?
(1) Mutations are random and directionless while
(1) Excretion is performed by malpighian tubules, Darwinian variations are small and directional
they are ureotelic
(2) Neanderthal man with a brain size of 1400 c.c.
(2) Anal styles are present in females
lived near east and central Asia between
(3) Each ovary has ten-twelve ovarioles 1,00,000-40,000 years back
(4) Fore wings called tegmina are opaque dark and (3) If more individuals acquire value other than mean
leathery and cover the hind wings
character value it is directional change
174. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. animals,
(4) During post industrialisation period, the moths
their excretory structure, and the type of nitrogenous
become dark due to industrial smoke and soot
waste excreted by them?
Animals Excretory Nitrogenous 178. Breeding of unrelated animals, which may be
structure waste between individuals of the same breed, but having no
common ancestor, or between different breeds or
(1) Rana Kidneys Uricotelic
different species is called
(2) Pheretima Nephridia Urea
(1) Outcrossing
(3) Periplaneta Malpighian Uricotelic
(2) Crossbreeding
tubules
(4) Tadpole larva Kidneys Ammonotelic (3) Out breeding
of frog (4) Interspecific hybridisation
175. Which of the following is incorrect about the 179. Why the membrane of a neuron is polarised? Mark
alimentary canal of cockroach? the wrong statement
(1) A ring of 6-8 blind tubules called gastric caecae (1) The outer surface of the axonal membrane
are present at the junction of gizzard and midgut possesses a positive charge while its inner
(2) Hindgut is differentiated into ileum, colon and surface is negatively charged
rectum (2) The axoplasm inside the axon contains high
(3) Movement of food occurs in following sequence concentration of K + and negatively charged
Mouth → Crop → Oesophagus → Gizzard → proteins and low concentration of Na+
Mesenteron → Colon → Ileum → Rectum (3) The fluid outside the axon contains a low
(4) The gizzard has six highly chitinous teeth like concentration of K+, and high concentration of
structures for grinding Na+, forming a concentration gradient
176. Which of the following interferes with transport of the (4) A resting membrane is comparatively more
neurotransmitter dopamine? What is the source of permeable to Na+ and nearly impermeable to
this drug? K+
(1) Morphine : Extracted from the latex of 180. What is incorrect about ECG?
Papaver somniferum
(1) Depolarisation of both the atria : P-wave
(2) Cocaine : Leaves of coca plant Erythroxylum
coca (2) Depolarisation of ventricles : QRS complex

(3) Ganja : Leaves of Cannabis sativa (3) Repolarisation of ventricles : T-wave

(4) LSD : Ergot fungus (4) Begining of ventricular systole : S-wave

(19)
 ANSWERS

1. (4) 37. (2) 73. (4) 109. (1) 145. (4)

2. (4) 38. (2) 74. (3) 110. (2) 146 (1)
3. (2) 39. (4) 75. (1) 111. (2) 147. (2)
4. (3) 40. (4) 76. (2) 112. (3) 148. (4)
5. (3) 41. (3) 77. (4) 113. (4) 149. (4)
6. (3) 42. (2) 78. (1) 114. (1) 150. (3)
7. (4) 43. (2) 79. (2) 115. (4) 151. (3)
8. (4) 44. (4) 80. (2) 116. (3) 152. (2)
9. (2) 45. (4) 81. (2) 117. (2) 153. (3)
10. (2) 46. (2) 82. (1) 118. (4) 154. (3)
11. (4) 47. (1) 83. (4) 119. (3) 155. (4)
12. (1) 48. (4) 84. (2) 120. (4) 156. (3)
13. (3) 49. (4) 85. (1) 121. (3) 157. (3)
14. (4) 50. (3) 86. (3) 122. (1) 158. (4)
15. (3) 51. (3) 87. (1) 123. (3) 159. (4)
16. (2) 52. (4) 88. (3) 124. (2) 160. (3)
17. (2) 53. (1) 89. (2) 125. (4) 161. (4)
18. (4) 54. (3) 90. (1) 126. (1) 162. (2)
19. (3) 55. (4) 91. (3) 127. (3) 163. (4)
20. (3) 56. (1) 92. (2) 128. (3) 164. (3)
21. (2) 57. (4) 93. (4) 129. (3) 165. (2)
22. (3) 58. (2) 94. (1) 130. (4) 166. (3)
23. (4) 59. (2) 95. (3) 131. (1) 167. (4)
24. (2) 60. (1) 96. (1) 132. (4) 168. (4)
25. (1) 61. (4) 97. (3) 133. (3) 169. (3)
26. (4) 62. (1) 98. (4) 134. (1) 170. (4)
27. (4) 63. (3) 99. (1) 135. (3) 171. (2)
28. (3) 64. (4) 100. (2) 136. (1) 172. (2)
29. (4) 65. (1) 101. (2) 137. (2) 173. (4)
30. (3) 66. (2) 102. (4) 138. (1) 174. (1)
31. (4) 67. (4) 103. (1) 139. (4) 175. (3)
32. (1) 68. (2) 104. (2) 140. (2) 176. (2)
33. (3) 69. (2) 105. (1) 141. (4) 177. (4)
34. (3) 70. (3) 106. (2) 142. (3) 178. (3)
35. (2) 71. (4) 107. (1) 143. (3) 179. (4)
36. (2) 72. (1) 108. (3) 180. (4)
144. (4)

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 Answers and Hints

PHYSICS

1. Answer (4) 9. Answer (2)

Unit is ampere per metre p2 K m
K = ⇒ 2 = 1
2. Answer (4) 2m K1 m2
3. Answer (2) 10. Answer (2)

–6 3 g sin θ 5 25
a= = g sin θ = m/s2
∴ 9 + 1 = 10 m Icm 7 7
–6 –5 +1
MR 2
4. Answer (3) 11. Answer (4)
4 12. Answer (1)
y=0⇒t=
6 40
50% × 75 cm × =5m
3
16 8
R= = m 13. Answer (3)
6 3
5. Answer (3) x 1
= ⇒ x = 10 min
at = 6 m/s2
4 2 −1
14. Answer (4)
v 2 (6t )2 144
ac = = = = 8 m/s2 1 GMm −GMm
R R 18 mu 2 − =
2 R R +h
a= 2
62 + 82 = 10 m/s
3R
h=
6. Answer (3) 4
Power ∝ v3 15. Answer (3)
7. Answer (4)
R4
Volume flow rate ∝
μm2 g L
Fmax = (m1 + m2 )
m1 16. Answer (2)

5 200 (α1 – α2) Δθ × 100 = 10–5 × 20 × 100 = 0.02%

= (30 + 10) = N
3 3 17. Answer (2)
8. Answer (4) 18. Answer (4)
ω2R ≤ gμ 19. Answer (3)
3R
R
∴T≥ 2π ∴ T ≥ 2π 4 3R
gμ x= =
(21 − 1) 80

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20. Answer (3) 35. Answer (2)
Maximum compression is twice the compression at
d φE d ⎛V ⎞ dV
equilibrium. ID = ε0 = ε0 ⎜ A ⎟ = C ⋅
dt dt ⎝ d ⎠ dt
21. Answer (2)

⎛ 330 + 20 ⎞ = 10 × 200 = 2000 μA = 2 mA

1240 ⎜ ⎟ = 1400 Hz
⎝ 330 − 20 ⎠ 36. Answer (2)
22. Answer (3)
⎡ 8⎤ 8 4
23. Answer (4) 2 ⎢6 + ⎥ = 24 ⇒ μ = =
⎣ μ⎦ 6 3
A
A+ A+ = 2.7 cm 37. Answer (2)
2
D = f1 – f2 = 30 cm
24. Answer (2)
38. Answer (2)
25. Answer (1)
(1.40 – 1)5º = (1.50 – 1)A ⇒ A = 4º
M
T = 2π 39. Answer (4)
dAg
40. Answer (4)
26. Answer (4)
27. Answer (4) 520
(x + 1)520 = (x)780 ⇒x= =2
260
−∂V
Ex = = − y 2 z 3 = −(2)2 ( −1)2 = 4 41. Answer (3)
∂x

h
−∂V Momentum =
Ey = = − x 2yz3 = −(1)2(2)( −1)3 = 4 λ
∂y
42. Answer (2)
−∂V
Ez = = − xy 2 3 z 2 = −(1)(2)2 3(−1)2 = −12
∂z 1 ⎡1 1⎤
= RZ 2 ⎢ 2 − 2 ⎥
λ ⎣2 3 ⎦
28. Answer (3)

U=
1 1
CV 2 = (2)(12)2 = 144 μJ
1 ⎡1 1⎤
= RZ 2 ⎢ 2 − 2 ⎥
2 2 x ⎣1 3 ⎦
29. Answer (4)
5
x 2 (200) 40W x 36 5 5λ
= ⇒ x = 240 W = =
2
(2 x ) (300) x ∴ λ 8 32 ∴ x=
32
9
30. Answer (3)
31. Answer (4) 43. Answer (2)

32. Answer (1) N0 = 80%

33. Answer (3) N = 20%

B 2L2v ∴ time interval = 2 half lives = 4 years.

F = iLB =
R 44. Answer (4)
34. Answer (3) 45. Answer (4)
10
i= = 2 A ∴ P = i2R = 22 × 5 = 20 W z = xy + xy
5
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 CHEMISTRY
68. Answer (2)
46. Answer (2)
69. Answer (2)
47. Answer (1)
70. Answer (3)
48. Answer (4)
71. Answer (4)
49. Answer (4)
72. Answer (1)
50. Answer (3)
73. Answer (4)
51. Answer (3)
74. Answer (3)
52. Answer (4)
75. Answer (1)
53. Answer (1)
76. Answer (2)
54. Answer (3)
77. Answer (4)
55. Answer (4)
78. Answer (1)
56. Answer (1)
79. Answer (2)
57. Answer (4)
80. Answer (2)
58. Answer (2)
81. Answer (2)
59. Answer (2)
82. Answer (1)
60. Answer (1)
83. Answer (4)
61. Answer (4)
84. Answer (2)
62. Answer (1)
85. Answer (1)
63. Answer (3)
86. Answer (3)
64. Answer (4)
87. Answer (1)
65. Answer (1)
88. Answer (3)
66. Answer (2)
89. Answer (2)
67. Answer (4)
90. Answer (1)

BOTANY
91. Answer (3) 101. Answer (2)
Difficulty arises at higher category level due to more China rose - hypogynous flower.
general characters. 102. Answer (4)
92. Answer (2) Caryopsis fruit
Plants and animals kingdom. 103. Answer (1)
93. Answer (4) Common in potato and lily family.
Nostoc 104. Answer (2)
94. Answer (1) Collenchyma
Ascomycetes. 105. Answer (1)
95. Answer (3) Exarch in roots
Viroids. 106. Answer (2)
96. Answer (1) Dedifferentiated tissue in cork cambium in extrastelar
Only morphological characters. region and it cuts off phellem and phellodersm.
97. Answer (3) 107. Answer (1)
Brown algae. 108. Answer (3)
98. Answer (4) Present on both sides on outer surface of centromere.
One-celled zygote (2n) as sporophyte in algae. 109. Answer (1)
99. Answer (1) Pachytene
Triploid endosperm in angiosperms. 110. Answer (2)
Haploid endosperm in gymnosperms. Higher solute molecules, lower ψs.
100. Answer (2) 111. Answer (2)
Leaf modification N2-fixation absent in Chlorobium.

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112. Answer (3) 121. Answer (3)
PQ as hydrogen carrier. X+Xc X XcY
113. Answer (4) 122. Answer (1)
Slow oxidation in fermentation.
123. Answer (3)
114. Answer (1)
Replication by DNA polymerase.
SDP
124. Answer (2)
115. Answer (4)
Most of the algae, fungi and all bryophytes and By DNA ligase
pteridophytes 125. Answer (4)
116. Answer (3) Template independent or enzymatic synthesis.
Large nucleus. 126. Answer (1)
117. Answer (2)
0.1% difference is 3 × 106 bp.
Long pollen grains in Zostera.
127. Answer (3)
118. Answer (4)
128. Answer (3)
Haploid plants
119. Answer (3) Aphids.
RrYy × RrYy 129. Answer (3)
↓ 130. Answer (4)
2 1 2 131. Answer (1)
RrYY → × =
4 4 16 132. Answer (4)
1 2 2 Plants pollinators.
rrYy → × =
4 4 16 133. Answer (3)
2 2 4
RrYy → × = Mesic in hydrach and xerarch.
4 4 16
134. Answer (1)
1 2 2
RRYy → × = Temperate countries.
4 4 16
135. Answer (3)
120. Answer (4)
Releases Cl– which breaks O3.
XX( ) – XO( ) type

ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (1) 143. Answer (3)
Whales, bats, cheetah and human share similarities 144. Answer (4)
in the pattern of bones of forelimbs. Though
forelimbs perform different functions in these Sporozoite attack liver cells not RBCs.
animals, they have similar anatomical structure. 145. Answer (4)
137. Answer (2)
a and b naturally acquired passive immunity.
Viruses lack cell wall and metabolic pathway of
their own. 146 Answer (1)
138. Answer (1) The amount of energy liberated in the human body
139. Answer (4) due to combustion of 1 g of food is the physiologic
value of food. Values of carbohydrates, protein and
140. Answer (2)
fats are 4.0 kcal/g, 4.0 kcal/g and 9.0 kcal/g
141. Answer (4)
respectively.
Dry surface of the skin, moist surface of buccal cavity
and pharynx are covered by stratified compoud 147. Answer (2)
epithelium. 148. Answer (4)
142. Answer (3) In the segment P(PCT) 70 to 80% electrolytes and
Osteoporosis : Age-related disorder characterised water are reabsorbed, this is obligatory reabsorption
by decreased bone mass and increased chances of of water, filtrate still remains isotonic to blood,
fractures. Decreased levels of estrogen is a common
plasma minus the plasma proteins.
cause.
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149. Answer (4) 164. Answer (3)
Cosmid is indirect method of gene transfer. Vagus nerve is a part of parasympathetic nervous
system, which decreases the heart rate.
150. Answer (3)
165. Answer (2)
151. Answer (3)
166. Answer (3)
BamHI site is the restriction site of tetR (tetracycline)
Random mating does not bring about a change in the
resistance gene. So, if we ligate the foreign DNA at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
Bam HI site, the recombinants will lose tetracycline
167. Answer (4)
resistance.
168. Answer (4)
152. Answer (2)
Millipede has two pairs of legs per segment and it
153. Answer (3) is herbivorous, a diplopod.
Glycogen is the branched polymer of glucose with 169. Answer (3)
α-1-4 and α-1-6 glycosidic bonds. 170. Answer (4)
154. Answer (3) Protochordates include only urochordates and
D is submucosa oblique muscle layer is present cephalochordates.
only in stomach in muscularis. 171. Answer (2)
155. Answer (4) 172. Answer (2)

156. Answer (3) 173. Answer (4)

174. Answer (1)
Helper T-cells are not able to survive when the virus
becomes active. However, during dormant phase of Rana is ureotelic.
virus, the Helper T-cells are able to survive. 175. Answer (3)
157. Answer (3) Movement of the food occurs in the following
sequence
158. Answer (4)
Mouth → Oesophagus → Crop → Gizzard → Mouth
In the mid cycle positive feedback effect of estrogen → Mesenteron → Ileum → Colon → Rectum
on pituitary increases LH secretion. Ovarian cycle is
176. Answer (2)
regulated by hormones produced by pituitary. LH
stimulates the formation of corpus luteum and also Cocaine is a stimulant.
stimulates it to release progesterone and estrogen. 177. Answer (4)
159. Answer (4) Biston carbonaria, the melanic form is dominant
mutant of the same gene.
160. Answer (3)
178. Answer (3)
161. Answer (4)
179. Answer (4)
P is temporal bone and Q is parietal bone. 180. Answer (4)
162. Answer (2) The contraction starts shortly after Q wave and
163. Answer (4) marks the beginning of the systole.

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