Sri Chowdeshwari Education Trust(r)

ORACLE PU COLLEGE, CHANNAPATNA - BR0221

Time: 3:00 Hour NEET MOCK TEST - 07 Date: 29-04-2024

PHYSICS List – I List –II

Section-A A) s1 I) Zero
1. Two charges are at a distance ‘d’ apart. If − 2Q
B) s2 II)
a copper plate (Conducting medium) of ε0
d
thickness is placed between them, the +Q
2 C) s3 III)
effective force will be __ ε0
(1) 2F (2) F/2 −Q
D) s4 IV)
(3) 0 (4) 2F ε0

2. A soap bubble of radius r is blown up to A B C D

form a bubble of radius 2r under isothermal (1) I III IV II
conditions. If T is the surface tension of
(2) II I IV III
bubble the energy spent in the blowing is
(3) IV III I II
(1) 3πTr 2
(4) IV I II III
(2) 6πTr 2
5. A fish in water (refractive index n) looks at
(3) 12πTr 2 a bird in air vertically above. If x is depth
(4) 24πTr 2 of fish and y is height of bird, then distance
of bird as estimated by fish is
3. The de – Broglie wavelength of a particle
moving with a velocity 2.25 × 108 m/s is  1  1
equal to wavelength of photon. The ratio (1) x + y  1 +  (2) y + x 1 − 
of K.E of particle to the energy of photon  n  n
is__  1
(3) x + y  1 −  (4) x + ny
 n
1 3
(1) (2) 6. The following diagram indicates the energy
8 8
levels of a certain atom when the system
5 7 moves from 4E level to E. Then A photon of
(3) (4)
8 8 wavelength λ1 is emitted. The wavelength
4. Following figure shows four Gaussian of photon produced during transition from
surface S1, S2, S3 and S4. The electric flux
through different surfaces 7 λ
E to E is λ 2 . Then 1 is___
3 λ2
 9 4 λ λ
(1) (2) (1) sin −1   (2) sin −1
4 9 d
  2d
3 2 λ λ
(3) (4) (3) sin −1 (4) sin −1
2 3 3d 4d
7. Same force acts on two bodies of different 12. Read assertion and reason carefully to mark
masses 3 kg and 5 kg at rest. The ratio of correction option of the following
times required to acquire same final velocity
Assertion (A) : The velocity increases when
is water flowing in broader
(1) 5 : 3 (2) 25: 9 pipe enters into narrow
(3) 9 : 25 (4) 3: 5 pipe
Reason (R) : According to equation of
8. Two identical circular loops of metal wire
continuity product of area
are lying on a table without touching each and velocity is constant
other. Loop A carries a current which
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
increases with time. In response, the loop
correct explanation of A
B___
(1) Remains stationary (2) Both A and R are correct but R is not
the correct explanation of A
(2) Attracted by A
(3) A is correct but R is not correct
(3) Repelled by A
(4) A is not correct but R is correct
(4) Rotates about A
9. The potential energy of a particle in force 13. The combination of gates shown below
A B produces
field is U= 2 − . Where A and B are
r r
positive constants, r is the distance of
particle from centre of field. For stable
equilibrium, the distance of particle is___

B 2A
(1) (2)
2A B (1) AND gate
A B (2) XOR gate
(3) (4)
B A (3) NOR gate
10. An alternating voltage E = 200 2 sin (100t ) (4) NAND gate
is connected to a 1 microfarad capacitor
14. Moment of inertia of a thin rod of mass M
through an ac ammeter. The reading of
and length L about an axis perpendicular
ammeter is
L
(1) 10 mA (2) 20 mA to the rod at a distance from end is
4
(3) 40 mA (4) 80 mA
ML2 ML2
11. In Young’s double slit experiment, intensity (1) (2)
1 6 12
at a point is of maximum intensity.
4 7 ML2 7 ML2
(3) (4)
Angular position of this point is 24 48
 19. Six moles of an ideal gas perform a cycle
15. If M P , Mn are masses of proton and neutron
and a given nucleus of binding energy B as shown. The temperature TA = 600K
contains Z protons and N neutrons the mass TB = 800K TC = 2200K and TD = 1200K .
of nucleus is___ The work done per cycle is nearly
(1) M0 = NMn + ZM P − BC 2

(2) M0 = NMn + ZM P + BC 2

(3) M 0 = NMn + ZM P − B / C 2

(4) M 0 = NMn + ZM P + B / C 2
16. A magnetic needle is kept in non-uniform (1) 20 kJ (2) 30 kJ
magnetic field experiences (3) 40 kJ (4) 60 kJ
(1) A force and torque 20. The rope shown at an instant is carrying a
(2) A force but not torque wave travelling towards right created by a
(3) A torque but not a force source vibrating at a frequency n. Consider
the following statements
(4) Neither torque nor force

17. A wire has a mass 0.3 ± 0.003gm radius

0.5 ± 0.005 mm and length 6 ± 0.06cm .
The maximum percentage of error in its
density is
(1) 1 (2) 2
I) The speed of the wave is 4nab
(3) 3 (4) 4
II) The medium at a will be in the same
18. Two batteries of emf 4 V and 8 V with 4
phase as d after s
internal resistance 1Ω and 2Ω are 3n
connected in a circuit with a resistance a III) The phase difference between b and e
of 9Ω . The current and potential difference 3π
is
between P and Q are 2
Which of these statements are correct
(1) I, II and III (2) II only
(3) I and III (4) III only
21. The magnetic field at the centre of a coil of
n turns bent in the form of a square of side
2l carrying a current i is
1 1 µ0ni µ0ni
(1) A & 3V (2) A& 4V (1) 2 (2) 2
3 6 πl 2πl
1 1 µ0ni µ0ni
(3) A& 9V (4) A & 12 V (3) 2 (4) 2
9 2 4 πl πl
22. A train accelerates from rest at a constant 26. In a hollow spherical shell potential (V)
rate a for distance x 1 and time t 1. After changes with respect to distance (r) from
that it retards to rest at a constant rate β centre___
for distance x and time t . Which of the (1)
2 2
following relation is correct?

x1 a t1
(1) = =
x2 β t 2
x1 β t1
(2) = =
x2 a t 2 (2)
x1 a t 2
(3) = =
x 2 β t1
x1 β t 2
(4) = =
x 2 a t1
23. In the adjoining figure the potential
difference between X and Y is 60V. The
potential difference between MN is (3)

(1) 10V (2) 15V

(4)
(3) 20V (4) 30 V
24. The time period of a mass suspended from
a spring is T. If spring is cut into four equal
parts and same mass is suspended from one
part the new period is
(1) 2T (2) 4T

T T 27. A body is projected vertically upwards at

(3) (4)
2 4 time t = 0 and it is seen at a height H at
4 −2
25. Light with an energy flux 25 × 10 Wm falls instants t1 and t2 seconds during flight the
on a perfectly reflecting surface at normal maximum height attained is___
incidence. If the surface area is 15 cm , the
2
( t 2 − t1 )
2
( t 2 + t1 )
2

average force exerted on the surface is (1) g (2) g

8 4
−6 −6
(1) 1.2 × 10 N (2) 3 × 10 N
g ( t 2 − t1 )
2
g
( t1 + t 2 )
2
(3) 1.25 × 10 −6 N (4) 2.5 × 10−6 N (3) (4)
8 4
28. The energy of radiation emitted by LED is If the boat moves in still water the centre
(1) Gre ate r t han t he b and g ap of of mass shifts by
semiconductor (1) 3 m (2) 2.3m
(2) A lw ay s l e ss t han b and g ap of (3) Zero (4) 0.75m
semiconductor 32. The effective resistance between points P
(3) A l w ay s e q u a l t o b a n d g ap o f and Q of the electric circuit shown in fig
semiconductor is__
(4) Equal or less than band gap of
semiconductor
29. An insect crawls up a hemispheric surface
very slowly. The coefficient of friction
1
between the insect and the surface is . If
3
the line joining the centre of hemispherical
surface to the insect makes and angle a with
the vertical the maximum possible value of
a is___ 2Rr 8R ( R + r )
(1) (2)
R+r 3R + r
5Rr
(3) 2r + 4 R (4)
R + 2r
33. A mass m moves with a velocity V and
collides inelastically with another identical
mass. After collision the first mass
(1) cot a =3 (2) tan a =3
V
moves with a velocity in a direction
(3) sec a =3 (4) cos ec a =3 3
30. Two infinitely long parallel wires having perpendicular to the initial direction. The
line ar charge densit ies λ1 and λ 2 speed of second mass after collision is
respectively are placed at a distance of R.
The force per unit length on either will be 2V V
(1) (2)
 1  3 3
 K = 
 4 π∈0  (3) V (4) 3V
34. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i
2λ λ 2λ λ on one surface of small angle A and emerges
(1) K 12 2 (2) K 1 2
R R normally from the opposite surface. If the
refractive index of the material is µ , the
λ1λ 2 λ1λ 2
(3) K 2 (4) K angle of incidence is
R R
A A
31. Two persons of masses 55 kg and 65 kg are (1) (2)
µ 2µ
at opposite ends of a boat. The length of boat
is 3 m and weight 100kg. The 55 kg man µA
(3) µA (4)
walks up to 65 kg man and sits with him. 2
35. A car of mass m is driven with acceleration a 39. If the ratio of lengths, radii and Young’s
along a straight level road against a constant moduli of steel and brass wires in the
external resistive force R when the velocity figure are a, b and c respectively. Then the
of car is V, the rate at which the engine of corresponding ratio of increase in their
the car doing work will be lengths would be
(1) RV
(2) maV Steel
(3) (R+ma)V M
(4) (ma – R)V Brass
SECTION – B 2M
36. Consider the following statements A and
B. Identify the correct answer. 2a 2c
(1)
A) Polarised light can be used to study the b
helical surface of nucleic acids 3a
(2)
B) Optic axis is a direction and not any 2b2c
particular line in the crystal 2ac
(3) 2
(1) A and B are correct b
(2) A and B are wrong 3c
(4)
(3) A is correct but B is wrong 2ab2
(4) A is wrong but B is correct 40. In an LCR series circuit which of the
following cannot be the expression for the
37. In a unbiased P –N junction holes diffuse
Q – factor
from P – region to N – region because
(1) Free electron in the N – region attract ωL 1
them (1) (2)
R ωCR
(2) They move across the junction by
potential difference L 1 R
(3) (4)
(3) Hole concentration in P –region is more CR LC
as compared to N – region 41. A rectangular loop carrying a current i is
(4) All the above situated near a long straight wire such that
the wire parallel to the one of the sides of
38. A lead bullet of 10g travelling at 300m/s the loop and it is in the plane of loop. If
strikes against a block of wood and comes a study current I is established in wire as
to rest. Assuming 50% of heat is absorbed by shown. The loop will
bullet. Then the increase in its temperature
is (Specific heat of the bullet =150 J kg–1K–1)
(1) 1000 C
(2) 1250 C
(3) 1500 C
(4) 2000 C
 (1) Rotate about an axis parallel to wire
(2) Move away from the wire or towards Q 1 1 
right (2)  − 
4 π∈0 R R2 + d 2 
(3) Move towards the wire
(4) Remain stationary QR
(3)
42. Two plano concave lenses (1 and 2) of glass 4π∈0 d 2
of refractive index 1.5 have radii of curvature
25 cm and 20cm. They are placed in contact Q 1 1 
(4)  − 
with their curved surfaces towards each 2π∈0  R R2 + d 2 
other and the space between them is filled 45. Three resonant frequencies of a string are
with liquid of refractive index 4/3. Then 90 Hz, 150 Hz and 210 Hz. If the length
the combination is (f is focal length)
of string is 80cm. What is the speed of
transverse wave in the string?
(1) 45 m/s
1 2 (2) 75 m/s
(3) 48 m/s
(4) 80 m/s
(1) convex lens of f = 70cm 46. A vernier calipers has 20 divisions on
(2) concave lens of f = 70 cm the vernier scale which coincide with 19
(3) concave lens of f = 66.6 cm divisions on the main scale. The least count
(4) convex lens of f =66.6cm of instrument is 0.01 cm. Find the value of
43. Three particles each if mass m are connected 1main scale division.
to a string as shown in the figure. Find the (1) 0.4 mm
ratio of tensions T1, T2 and T3 when the wire (2) 4 mm
is rotated about O. (m1 = m2 = m3)
(3) 1 mm
m1 m2 m3
(4) 2 mm
3l 47. A solid sphere is placed over two smooth
l 2l
T3 T2 T1 inclined planes as shown. If N1 and N2 are
normal reaction on surfaces 1 and 2 then
(1) 3:4:5
(2) 3:5:6
(3) 6:5:3
(4) 6:5:4
44. Two thin wire rings each having a radius R (1) N1 = N2
are placed at a distance d apart with their
axes coinciding. The charges on the two (2) N1 < N 2
rings are +q and –q. The potential difference (3) N1 > N 2
between the centre of two rings is
(4) None
(1) Zero
48. A Zener diode having breakdown voltage BOTANY
equal to 15 V is used in a voltage regulator
as shown. The current through diode is Section-A
51. Why is chilled ethanol added during the
isolation of DNA?
(1) To activate restriction enzymes for
cutting DNA
(2) To dissolve the cell membrane and
release DNA
(1) 20 mA (2) 5 mA (3) To precipitate purified DNA from the
(3) 10 mA (4) 15 mA solution
(4) To break down proteins and separate
49. A torch bulb rated 4.5 W, 1.5 V is connected
them from DNA
as shown in the figure. The emf of cell
needed to make the bulb glow at full 52. What distinguishes viroids from viruses?
intensity is__ (1) Viroids have a protein coat, while
viruses do not.
(2) Viroids are larger than viruses and cause
diseases in animals.
(3) Viroids are made up of low molecular
weight free RNA molecules. Unlike
viruses, viroids are devoid of a protein
coat.
(1) 4.5 V (2) 1.5V (4) Viroids and viruses both have high
(3) 2.67 V (4) 13.5 V molecular weight RNA.
50. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 are initially 53. Match column I with column II.
at rest at infinite distance apart. They are Column I Column II
then allowed to move towards each other
under mutual gravitational force. Their A) Chlamydomonas I) Coralloid
relative velocity of approach at a separation roots
r between them is
B) Cycas II) Heterophylly
 2G ( m1 − m2 ) 
1/2
C) Selaginella III) Dependent
(1)  
r sporophyte
 
1/2
Sphagnum IV) Zoospores
 2G 
(2)  ( m1 + m2 )  Choose the correct answer from the options
 r  given below.
1/2
 r  (A) (B) (C) (D)
(3)   (1) IV III I III
 2G ( m1m2 ) 
(2) I IV II III
1/2
 2G  (3) IV I II III
(4)  m1m2 
 r  (4) III I IV II
54. Which of the following statements about 58. What was a major drawback of the earliest
Phycomycetes is incorrect? systems of classification of angiosperms?
(1) Mycelium is septate and multicellular. (1) They relied on a wide variety of
(2) They reproduce asexually by zoospores characteristics, making classification
or aplanospores. too complex.
(3) They can be found in aquatic habitats (2) They were based on natural affinities
and on decaying wood. among organisms.
(4) Some are obligatory parasites on plants. (3) They primarily used superficial
morphological characters, separating
55. Which of the following statements is NOT
closely related species.
correct?
(4) They only used internal features for
(1) Rhizome is an underground modified
storage stem. classification.
(2) Thorns help to reduce transpiration 59. What is the primar y reason for the
and are present on phylloclades. characteristic red color of Rhodophyceae
(3) Phyllode in Australian Acacia is a (red algae)?
modified petiole. (1) The presence of the pigment chlorophyll
(4) Fasciculated roots in Asparagus store ‘d’
food. (2) The storage of food as floridean starch
56. What is the technique where cells are (3) The predominance of the red pigment,
bombarded with high velocity micro r- phycoerythrin
particles coated with DNA? (4) The production of non-motile spores
(1) Micro injection 60. W h i c h a m o n g t h e f o l l o w i n g a r e
(2) Gene splicing biofertilisers?
(3) Biolistics or gene gun (1) Trichoderma and Baculoviruses
(4) Vector transformation (2) Yeast and Penicillium
57. Identify the diagram given below. (3) Rhizobium and Frankia
(4) Methanogens and Flocs
61. What is the mechanism through which Bt
toxin produced by Bacillus thuringiensis
kills insects?
(1) By inhibiting the synthesis of essential
nutrients
(2) By disrupting the insect’s reproductive
system
(1) Laminaria (3) By creating pores in the midgut epithelial
(2) Fucus cells leading to cell lysis
(3) Chara (4) By neutralising the acidic environment
(4) Chlamydomonas of the insect’s gut
62. What role does agarose gel play in gel A B C D
electrophoresis? (1) 1 4 2 3
(1) It increases the viscosity of the DNA (2) 1 4 3 2
fragments.
(3) 1 2 4 3
(2) It serves as a matrix that allows DNA (4) 4 3 2 1
fragments to resolve according to size.
65. What is the function of the cuticle in the
(3) It stains the DNA fragments for
epidermal tissue system of plants?
visualization.
(1) To absorb water and minerals from the
(4) It degrades the DNA fragments for soil
easier manipulation.
(2) To regulate the opening and closing of
63. Which of the following growth regulator is stomata
derived from carotenoid pigments? (3) To prevent the loss of water through
(1) Auxin (2) Cytokinin transpiration
(3) Ethylene (4) ABA (4) To facilitate gaseous exchange through
stomata
64. Match the components of xylem with their
functions 66. How does the monocotyledonous root differ
from the dicotyledonous root in terms of
Column - I Column - II xylem bundles?
A) Tracheids I) Main water trans- (1) Monocot roots have fewer xylem
porting elements bundles than dicot roots.
in pteridophytes (2) Monocot roots have exactly six xylem
and gymnosperms, bundles.
elongated spindle
shaped cells with (3) Monocot roots usually have more than
thick and lignified six xylem bundles.
walls. (4) Monocot roots lack xylem bundles
B) Vessels II) Provide mechan- entirely.
ical support with 67. What is the primary function of the Golgi
highly thickened apparatus in eukaryotic cells?
walls and obliterat-
(1) Synthesis of proteins
ed central lumens.
C) Xylem III) Living cells (2) Packaging of materials for intracellular
fibres delivery or secretion
involved in the
storage of food (3) DNA replication
materials and (4) Lipid synthesis
radial conduction 68. Why are mitochondria referred to as the
of water. ‘powerhouses’ of the cell?
D) Xylem pa- IV) Long cylindrical (1) They contain enzymes for digestion.
renchyma structures made (2) They are involved in the synthesis of
of many cells, lipids.
characteristic of (3) They produce ATP through aerobic
angiosperms, and respiration.
responsible for (4) They store genetic information for the
water transport. cell.
69. What is the effect of enzymes on the rate (1) G1 phase
of chemical reactions? (2) S phase
(1) Enzymes slow down the reaction by (3) G2 phase
utilising more activation energy.
(4) M phase
(2) Enzymes have no effect on the rate of
74. What did Mendel obser ve in the F 1
chemical reactions.
generation when he crossed pure tall and
(3) Enzymes significantly increase the
dwarf pea plants?
reaction rate by lowering the activation
energy. (1) All F1 progeny plants were of intermediate
height between tall and dwarf.
(4) Enzymes change the direction of
chemical reactions rather than affecting (2) Half of the F1 progeny plants were tall,
the rate. and the other half were dwarf
70. Which molecule is considered as an adaptor? (3) All F 1 progeny plants were tall,
resembling one of the parents
(1) mRNA
(2) tRNA (4) All F 1 progeny plants were dwarf,
resembling one of the parents
(3) rRNA
(4) hnRNA 75. At what CO2 concentration do C4 plants
show saturation in their photosynthesis
71. What distinguishes Co-enzymes from
rate?
prosthetic groups?
(1) About 360 µlL-1
(1) Co-enzymes are metal ions required
for enzymatic activity. (2) About 450 µlL-1
(2) Co-enzymes are tightly bound to the (3) Below 0.03 percent
apoenzyme and cannot be removed. (4) Above 0.05 percent
(3) Co-enzymes are organic compounds 76. Which scientist demonstrated that sunlight
that transiently associate with the is essential for the plant process that purifies
apoenzyme during catalysis. the air, using experiments with aquatic
(4) Co enzymes are permanent substrates plants?
of enzymes.
(1) Joseph Priestley
72. Which of the following structures acts as a (2) Jan Ingenhousz
catalyst in the formation of peptide bonds
(3) Julius von Sachs
during translation?
(4) Cornelius van Niel
(1) mRNA
(2) 23S rRNA in the large subunit of the 77. How many ATP and NADPH molecules
ribosome are required for one turn of Calvin cycle?
(3) tRNA (1) 1 ATP and 1 NADPH + H+
(4) Amino acids (2) 2 ATP and 2 NADPH + H+
73. During which phase does the actual cell (3) 3 ATP and 2 NADPH + H+
division occur in the cell cycle? (4) 3 ATP and 3 NADPH + H+
78. How many ATP molecules are produced (3) A is true, but R is false.
from the oxidation of one molecule of (4) A is false, but R is true.
NADH + H+ during the electron transport
chain of aerobic respiration? 82. Which of the following PGRs is known for
its role in inhibiting growth activities such
(1) 1 ATP
as dormancy and abscission?
(2) 2 ATP
(1) Cytokinins
(3) 3 ATP
(2) Abscisic Acid (ABA)
(4) 4 ATP
(3) Gibberellins
79. Trimerous flower, superior ovary with axile
(4) Kinetin
placementation are characteristic of
(1) Liliaceae 83. Which of the following statements about
(2) Fabaceae gibberellins is incorrect?
(3) Solanaceae (1) Gibberellins are primarily known to
suppress plant growth and development.
(4) Asteraceae
(2) GA3 is used to enhance the malting
80. How many ATP molecules are utilised in the
process in the brewing industry.
initial steps of glycolysis for the conversion
of one molecule of glucose? (3) Spraying sugarcane with gibberellins
(1) Six can significantly increase the yield.
(2) Two (4) Gibberellins promote bolting in plants
with a rosette habit, such as beet and
(3) Three
cabbages.
(4) Four
84. What is the purpose of emasculation in
81. Given below are two statements. One is
artificial hybridisation?
labelled Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled Reason (R). (1) To fertilise the flower directly
Assertion (A) : Dedifferentiation allows (2) To prevent self pollination by removal
mature cells to regain the of male parts from a bisexual flower
capacity to divide. (3) To add more pollen to the flower
Reason (R) : Dedifferentiated cells can (4) To protect the flower from pests
form new meristems, such
85. What is a coleoptile in monocotyledonous
as interfascicular cambium,
seeds?
from fully differentiated
parenchyma cells. (1) It acts as the protective covering for the
radicle and root cap.
In light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given (2) It is the lateral cotyledon called
below. scutellum.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the (3) It encloses the shoot apex and a few
correct explanation of A. leaf primordia.
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the (4) It provides nutrition to the developing
correct explanation of A. embryo.
 Section-B 90. During which stage of prophase I does
synapsis of homologous chromosomes
86. Which molecule is directly produced from
occur?
succinyl Co A during the TCA cycle?
(1) Leptotene
(1) Oxaloacetic acid
(2) Zygotene
(2) Citric acid
(3) Pachytene
(3) Succinic acid (4) Diplotene
(4) a - ketoglutaric acid
91. Which type of enzyme catalyses the transfer
87. What is the main event that characterises of a group other than hydrogen between
anaphase of mitosis? substrates?
(1) Spindle fibers begin to form and attach (1) Oxidoreductases
to chromosomes. (2) Transferases
(2) Chromosomes line up at the metaphase (3) Hydrolases
plate. (4) Ligases
(3) Centromeres split and sister chromatids 92. What does the degeneracy of genetic code
move to opposite poles. signify?
(4) Nuclear envelope re-forms around (1) Each codon codes for a different amino
separated chromatids. acid.
88. Which of the following best describes (2) A single amino acid is coded by only
one codon.
Mendel’s Law of segregation?
(3) Multiple codons can code for the same
(1) Only the dominant trait is expressed
amino acid
in the offspring.
(4) The genetic code varies significantly
(2) Traits are blended in the offspring, between different organisms
resulting in intermediate characteristics.
93. Which scientist developed a chemical
(3) Each parent contributes two alleles for
method for synthesising RNA molecules with
a trait to the offspring defined combinations of (homopolymers
(4) Alleles for a trait separate during gamete and copolymers) bases?
formation, and each gamete carries only (1) George Gamow
one allele for each trait. (2) F C Crick
89. What role does lactose play in the regulation (3) Marshall Nirenberg
of the Lac operon? (4) Har Gobind Khorana
(1) Acts as a repressor binding to the 94. Which microorganism is commonly used
operator region in the production of alcoholic beverages
(2) Functions as an inducer by inactivating like wine and beer?
the repressor and allowing transcription. (1) Lactobacillus
(3) It codes for the repressor protein (2) Escherichia coli
(4) Decreases the permeability of the cell (3) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
to β-galactosides. (4) Aspergillus niger
95. What is the primary role of heterotrophic (2) Separation and purification of the
microbes in sewage treatment plants product
(STPs)? (3) Formulation with suitable preservatives
(1) To increase the amount of sewage (4) Quality control testing
(2) To purify water by removing pollutants 98. Environmental plasticity is observed in
(3) To generate electricity (1) Cotton
(4) To produce drinking water directly (2) Butter cup
96. Match the types of root systems with their (3) Peat moss
descriptions. (4) China rose
Column-I Column-II 99. Why viruses did not find a place in
A) Tap root I) Arise from any Whittaker’s five kingdom classification?
system part of the plant
(1) Because they are considered as true
other than radicle
and observed in living organisms with a complex cellular
monocotyledon- structure.
ous or dicotyle- (2) They are cellular organisms that do not
donous plants
have a crystalline structure outside the
B) Fibrous II) Arises from base
living cell.
root system of stem, seen
in plants like (3) Viruses are non-cellular organisms with
grasses an inert crystalline structure outside the
C) Adventi- III) Characteristic of living cell, not fitting the definition of
tious root dicotyledonous ‘living’ based on cellular structure.
system plants, where (4) They are larger than bacteria and can
the primary be easily classified under existing
root continues kingdoms.
to grow and
branches to form 100.Which of the following is a correct statement
the main root regarding certain underground stems?
system, as seen (1) Underground stems of potato and ginger
in the mustard cannot store food
plant. (2) Underground stems like those of potato,
A B C ginger and turmeric are modified to
(1) 3 1 2 perform photosynthesis
(2) 1 2 3 (3) Underground stems of potato, ginger,
(3) 3 2 1 turmeric, zaminkand and Colocasia are
(4) 1 3 2 modified for food storage and help the
97. Which of the following is NOT a step in plant survive in unfavorable conditions
downstream processing? (4) Underground stems of plants are solely
(1) Alteration of the product’s biological for supporting the plant structure above
activity ground
 ZOOLOGY (1) nephrocyte
Section-A (2) fenestrae
(3) ostia
101. Match the following groups of organisms
(4) anterior aorta
with their respective distinctive
characteristics and select the correct option. 105. C o r r e c t l y m a t c h C o l u m n I w i t h
Organisms Characteristics Column II.
Column I Column II
A) Platyhelminthes I) Cylindrical
body with no A) Cardiac arrest I) Heart not
segmentation pumping blood
B) Echinodermata II) Warm blooded effectively
animals B) Heart failure II) Heart muscle
with direct is suddenly
development damaged
C) Hemichordata III) Bilateral C) Heart attack III) Acute chest pain
symmetry with D) Angina IV) Heart stops
incomplete beating
digestive system
(1) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
D) Aves IV) Radial
(2) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III
symmetry
with indirect (3) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
development (4) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I
(1) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II 106. Given below are two statements.
(2) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I Statement I : Lymph originates from
(3) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III interstitial fluid that leaks
(4) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV out of blood capillaries and
is drained back to the major
102. Which of the following is not a hormone veins.
of the gastrointestinal tract? Statement II : Lymph is an important
(1) Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) carrier for nutrients,
(2) Cholecystokinin (CCK) hormones and fats, etc.
(3) Secretin In light of the above statement, choose
(4) Trypsinogen appropriate answer from the above options
given below.
103. Blood vessels and air sacs of lungs are lined
(1) Both statement I and statement II are
by
true.
(1) simple squamous epithelium
(2) Statement I is false but statement II is
(2) simple columnar epithelium true.
(3) simple cuboidal epithelium (3) Statement I is true but statement II is
(4) pseudostratified epithelium false.
104. The blood vessel which arises from first (4) Both statement I and statement II are
chamber of heart in cockroach is false.
107. Select the incorrect statements. (3) Cartilaginous joint
(A) Angiotensin-II activates the cortex of (4) Synovial joint
adrenal gland to release aldosterone. 110. If sodium-potassium pump stops working,
(B) Aldosterone leads to an increase in it results in
blood pressure. (1) increase in the K+ inside the axon
(C) ANF acts as a check on rennin- (2) decrease in the K+ outside the axon
angiotensin mechanism.
(3) increase in the Na+ outside the axon
(D) ADH causes vasodilation.
(4) increase in the Na+ inside the axon
(E) Va s o p r e s s i n i s r e l e a s e d f r o m
adenohypophysis. 111. Which of the following hormones are
produced in women only during pregnancy?
Choose the most appropriate answer from
(a) hPL
the options given below.
(b) Relaxin
(1) A, B and E only
(c) PRL
(2) C, D and E only
(d) FSH
(3) B, C and D only
(e) hCG
(4) D, E only
(f) LH
108. Given below are two statements. One is
(1) a, b, e (2) b, e
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labeled as Reason (R). (3) c, d, e f (4) a, b, c, d, e, f
Assertion (A) : Increase in Ca +2 level in 112. IUDs are small objects made up of plastic
the sarcoplasm leads to the or copper that are inserted in the uterine
binding of calcium with cavity.
a subunit of troponin on
actin filaments. Which of the following statements are
incorrect about IUDs?
Reason (R) : Action potential spreads
across the muscle fibre (a) IUDs decrease phagocytosis of sperm
and causes the release within the uterus.
of calcium ions into the (b) The released copper ions suppress the
sarcoplasm. sperm motility.
In light of the above statements, choose the (c) IUDs do not make the cervix hostile
correct answer from the option given below. to the sperm.
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is not (d) IUDs suppress the fertilisation capacity
the correct explanation of A. of sperms.
(2) Both A and R are correct and R is correct (e) The IUDs require surgical intervention
explanation of A. for their insertion in the uterine cavity.
(3) A is correct but R is not correct. Choose the most appropriate answer from
(4) A is not correct but R is correct. the options given below.
109. Which of the following joints would allow (1) a, b and e only
no movement? (2) b and c only
(1) Ball and socket joint (3) a, c, e only
(2) Fibrous joint (4) d only
113. Given below are four methods (A–D) and 116. Select the incorrect statements.
their modes of action (I–IV) in achieving (1) Natural selection is the mechanism by
contraception. Select their correct matching which individuals possessing heritable
from the four options that follow. variations that enhance survival produce
Column I Column II a larger number of offspring.
A) The pill I) prevents sperms (2) During stabilising natural selection
reaching cervix more individuals acquire value other
B) Condom II) suppresses than mean character value.
sperm motility (3) 500 million years ago, invertebrates
C) Vasectomy III) prevents emerged and were active.
ovulation (4) Reptiles lay thick-shelled eggs which
D) Copper T IV) semen contains do not dry up in sun unlike those of
no sperms
amphibians.
Match the following. 117. Given below are two statements. One is
(1) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is
(2) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV labeled as Reason (R).
(3) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II Assertion (A) : The number of torphic
levels in the grazing food
(4) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III chain is restricted.
114. Select the correct match regarding the Reason (R) : The transfer of energy
symbols used in pedigree analysis. follows 10 percent law
i.e., only 10 percent of
(1) - Sex specified the energy is transferred
to each trophic level from
(2) - Affected male individual each trophic level to the
next higher trophic level.
(3) -Consanguineous mating In light of the above statements, choose the
(4) - Parents with female child correct answer from the option given below.
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is not
affected with disease the correct explanation of A.
115. Repetitive sequences are stretches of DNA (2) Both A and R are correct and R is correct
sequences that are repeated many times. explanation of A.
They (3) A is correct but R is not correct.
(1) have direct coding functions (4) A is not correct but R is correct.
(2) shed light on chromosome structure, 118. What is the primary goal of bioprospecting?
dynamics and evolution (1) To conserve biodiversity
(3) form a very small portion of the human (2) To identify new species
genome (3) To explore the potential of organism for
(4) do not show polymorphism and are their products of economic importance.
identical in all individuals (4) To study ecosystems.
 20

119. Which of the following is applicable to 122. Given below are two statements.
Cuscuta growing on hedge plants?
Statement I : A special neural centre
(1) Predation in the medulla oblongata
(2) ‘+’ and ‘–’ interaction can moderate the
(3) Resource partitioning cardiac function through
(4) Intraspecific competition autonomic nervous system.
120. Identify the correct statements. Statement II : Neural signal through
A. At present, 30 recombinant therapeutics the sympathetic nerves
have been approved world-wide, 12 of can increase the rate of
these are marketed in India heartbeat, strength of
B. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is ventricular contraction and
now routinely used to detect HIV in there by cardiac output.
suspected AIDS patients
In light of the above statement, choose
C. In mammals (including human) insulin
appropriate answer from the above options
is synthesised as a pro-hormone, which
given below.
contains A, B polypeptide chains and
without extra C- peptide (1) Both statement I and statement II are
D. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency true.
(SCID) disorder is due to the deletion (2) Statement I is false but statement II is
of the gene for adenosine deaminase. true.
E. Currently, monkeys are becoming (3) Statement I is true but statement II is
increasingly preferred over transgenic false.
mice for vaccine safety testing.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are
Choose the correct answer from the options false.
given below.
123. Match the following.
(1) A B C
Column I Column II
(2) A B D
A) Scoliodon I) Stingray
(3) B C E
B) Pristis II) Great white shark
(4) A D E
C) Carcharodon III) Dogfish
121. The transgenic cow named Rosie produced
milk enriched with human protein alpha D) Trygon IV) Sawfish
lactalbumin at a concentration of
(1) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
(1) 1.4 g/litre
(2) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
(2) 2.4 g/litre
(3) 2.4 mg/litre (3) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
(4) 4.1 g/litre (4) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
124. Given below are two statements. (3) ii, iv, iii, i
Statement I : D u r i n g s u m m e r a n d (4) i, iii, iv, ii
winter, frogs take shelter 127. Match the animals with their corresponding
in deep burrows to protect
excretory structures.
themselves from extreme
heat and cold. Animals Excretory
structures
Statement II : Frogs are poikilotherms; A) Amphioxus I) Malpighian
they do not have a constant tubules
body temperature, i.e., their
body temperature varies B) Cockroach II) Nephridia
with the environmental C) Prawn III) Protonephridia
temperature.
D) Earthworm IV) Antennal
In light of the above statement, choose glands
appropriate answer from the above options
given below. (1) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III
(1) Both statement I and statement II are (2) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II
true.
(3) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV
(2) Statement I is false but statement II is
true. (4) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is 128. Select the mismatched pair.
false. (1) Ball and socket joint – Between humerus
(4) Both statement I and statement II are and pectoral girdle
false.
(2) Pivot joint – between atlas and axis
125. Tendon is made up of (3) Hinge joint – between the carpals
(1) elastic connective tissue
(4) Saddle joint – between carpal and
(2) dense irregular connective tissue
metacarpals of thumb
(3) dense regular connective tissue
129. Afferent nerve fibres carry impulses from
(4) fibrous cartilage
(1) central nervous system to muscles.
126. The following are the events that occur
during expiration. (2) central nervous system to receptors
(i) Diaphragm and external intercostal (3) effector organs to central nervous
muscles relax. Diaphragm and sternum system
return to their normal position. (4) receptors to central nervous system
(ii) Air is expelled out of the lungs
130. Hypersecretion of growth hormone in the
(iii) Volume of thoracic cavity decreases middle-aged adults leads to
(iv) Intrapulmonary pressure increases
(1) gigantism
Select the correct sequence of their
(2) dwarfism
occurrence.
(3) acromegaly
(1) ii, iii, iv, i
(2) i, ii, iii, iv (4) cretinism
 2

131. The diaphragm, cervical cap and vaults are 135. The cell-mediated adaptive immunity in
(1) disposable barriers human is mediated by
(2) reusable barriers (1) T-lymphocytes
(3) intrauterine devices (2) B-lymphocytes
(4) sterilising devices (3) macrophages
(4) NK cells
132. Which was the last human chromosome to
be completely sequenced? Section-B
(1) Chromosome – 1 136. Identify the correct statements.
(2) Chromosome – Y A. Detritivores perform fragmentation of
(3) Chromosome – X detritus.
(4) Chromosome – 22 B. The humus is further degraded by some
133. A haemophilic woman marries a normal microbes during mineralisation.
man. Which of the following represents the C. Water soluble inorganic nutrients go
correct genetic probability of haemophilia down into the soil and are precipitated
in their children? by a process called leaching.
(1) All children will be haemophilic D. The detritus food chain begins with
(2) All daughters will be haemophilic living organisms.
(3) All sons will be haemophilic E. Earthworms break down detritus into
smaller particles by a process called
(4) Half of the daughters and half of the catabolism.
sons will be haemophilic
(1) B, C, D only (2) C, D, E only
134. Given below are two statements. (3) D, E, A only (4) A, B, C only
Statement I : S o m e o r g a n i s m s a r e
137. Given below are two statements.
better adapted to survive
in an otherwise hostile Statement I : Population ecology is an
environment and this important area because it
adaptive ability has a links ecology to population
genetic basis. genetics and evolution.
Statement II : Fitness is the end result of Statement II : Although an individual
the ability to adapt and get organism is the one
selected by nature. that has to cope with a
changed environment, it
In light of the above statement, choose is at population level that
appropriate answer from the above options natural selection operates
given below. to evolve the desired traits.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are (1) Both statement I and statement II are
true. true.
(2) Statement I is false but statement II is (2) Statement I is false but statement II is
true. true.
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is (3) Statement I is true but statement II is
false. false.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are (4) Both statement I and statement II are
false. false.
138. The process by which organisms with Reason (R) : Children without previous
different evolutionary history evolve similar dengue infection are at
phenotypic adaptations in response to a increased risk for severe
common environmental challenge, is called dengue disease and
(1) natural selection hospitalisation if they
get dengue after they are
(2) convergent evolution
vaccinated with Dengvaxia.
(3) divergent evolution
In light of the above statements, choose the
(4) adaptive radiation
correct answer from the option given below.
139. Which of the following statements is not (1) Both A and R are correct but R is the
correct? correct explanation of A.
(1) Implantation takes place at blastocyst (2) Both (A) and R are correct and R is
stage. not correct explanation of A.
(2) The blastomeres in the blastocyst are (3) A is correct but R is not correct.
arranged into an outer trophoblast layer
(4) A is not correct but R is correct.
and inner cell mass.
(3) The trophoblast is divided into an outer 142. Given below are two statements.
ectoderm, a middle mesoderm and an Statement I : In cephalochordates, the
inner endoderm. notochord is persistent
(4) The inner cell mass contains certain throughout their life.
cells called stem cells which have the Statement II : Branchisotoma is an example
potency to give rise to all the tissues of Cephalopoda.
and organs.
In light of the above statement, choose
140. A person passes much urine and drinks appropriate answer from the above options
much water with normal blood glucose given below.
levels, this condition may be due to (1) Both statement I and statement II are
(1) hyposecretion of insulin true.
(2) hypersecretion of glucagon (2) Statement I is false but statement II is
(3) hypersecretion of cortisol true.
(4) hyposecretion of vasopressin (3) Statement I is true but statement II is
false.
141. Given below are two statements. One is
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is (4) Both Statement I and statement II are
labeled as Reason (R). false.
Assertion (A) : CDC recommends dengue 143. A plant native to South America yields a
vaccination (Dengvaxia) drug of addiction, functioning as a CNS
for 9 to 16 ye ars old stimulant. This substance interferes with
children but only when the transport of
they have been previously (1) acetylcholine
infe c te d w it h dengue (2) dopamine
and living in areas where (3) serotonin
dengue is common. (4) adrenaline
 24

144. The genetic defect-adenosine deaminase (3) genetic diversity

(ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently (4) alpha diversity
by
148. Given below are two statements.
(1) enzyme replacement therapy
Statement I : In contrast to predator
(2) periodic infusion of genetically
food chains, the size of
engineered lymphoc ytes having
the organisms decreases
functional ADA cDNA
at higher trophic levels in
(3) bone marrow transplantation parasitic food chains.
(4) introducing gene producing ADA Statement II : In an aquatic ecosystem,
isolated from bone marrow cells into DFC is the major conduit
cells at early embryonic stages of energy flow.
145. Two butterfly species are competing for the In light of the above statement, choose
nectar of flowers from the same plants in appropriate answer from the above options
a garden. To survive and coexist together, given below.
they may avoid competition by
(1) Both statement I and statement II are
(1) feeding at the same time of the day true.
(2) choosing different foraging patterns (2) Statement I is false but statement II is
(3) competitive exclusion true.
(4) reciprocal predation (3) Statement I is true but statement II is
146. If a pond has 40 lotus plants last year and false.
through reproduction 16 new plants are (4) Both statement I and statement II are
added, taking the current population to 56, false.
what will be the birth rate? 149. During oogenesis, a glycoprotein layer called
(1) 0.6 offspring per lotus plant per year zona pellucida is formed by
(2) 0.5 offspring per lotus plant per year (1) ootid
(3) 0.4 offspring per lotus plant per year (2) theca cells
(4) 0.1 offspring per lotus plant per year (3) secondary oocyte

147. Rauwolfia vomitoria growing in Himalayan (4) stromal cells

Ranges exhibits variation in the potency 150. The volume of air remaining in the lungs
and concentration of the active chemical even after a forcible expiration is termed
reserpine it produces. This is an example (1) tidal volume
of (2) residual volume
(1) ecological diversity (3) inspiratory reserve volume
(2) species diversity (4) expiratory reserve volume
 CHEMISTRY 156. For the following Assertion and Reason,
the correct option is
Section-A
Assertion (A) : PH 3 has lower boiling point
151. For the reaction than NH 3 .
Reason (R) : I n l i q u i d s t a t e NH 3
1 molecules are associated
SO2 ( g ) + O2 ( g )  SO3 ( g ) , if
2 t hroug h vander waa l’s
forces, but PH 3 molecules
K p = K c ( RT ) the value of x is
x
are associated through
hydrogen bonding.
1
(1) -1 (2) − In the light of the above statements, choose
2 the correct answer from the option given
1 below.
(3) (4) 1
2 (1) Both A and R are correct but R is not
the correct explanation of A
152. IUPAC name of  Pt ( NH 3 )2 Cl ( NO2 )  is (2) Both A and R are correct and R is correct
(1) platinum diaminechloronitrite explanation of A
(2) chloronitrito – N – ammineplatinum (II) (3) A is correct but R is not correct
(3) diamminechloridonitrito – N – platinum(II) (4) A is not correct but R is correct
(4) diamminechloronitrito–N–platinate (II) 157.Statement-I : Chlorine has less electron
gain enthalpy than fluorine.
153. The type of hybridization and number of
Statement-II: Helium has the highest first
lone pair(s) of electrons of Xe in XeOF4 , ionization enthalpy in the
respectively, are : periodic table.
(1) sp3d 2 and 1 (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is
false
(2) sp3d and 2 (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
false
(3) sp3d 2 and 2
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II is
(4) sp3d and 1 are true.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is
154. Given, ECl0 /Cl − = 1.36V , ECr
0
= −0.74V , are true
3+
2 /Cr
158. Which of the following statements are
= E 0
=
1.33V,E 0
1.51V correct?
Cr2O72− /Cr 3+ MnO4− / Mn2+
(A) The electronic configuration of Cr is
Among the following, the strongest reducing
Ar 3d 5 4 s1 .
agent is
(B) The magnetic quantum number may
2+
(1) Cr (2) Mn have a negative value.
(3) Cr 3+ (4) Cl − (C) The number of radial nodes &
total number of nodes in 4p orbital
155. Which structure of protein remains intact respectively are 2 and 3
after coagulation of egg white on boiling ? (D) According to quantum mechanical
(1) Primary (2) Tertiary model of atom, “ Ψ ” represents
(3) Secondary (4) Quaternary probability function
 (1) A, C and D only
(2) A and B only
162. Given that the standard potentials E 0 ( )
2+ +
of Cu / Cu and Cu / Cu are 0.34 V and
(3) A and C only
0.522V respectively, the E 0 of Cu2+ / Cu +
(4) A, B and C only is:
159. Match List – I (species) and List – II (bond (1) + 0.182 V (2) + 0.158 V
orders and select the correct answer : (3) – 0.182 V (4) – 0.158 V
List – I List – II 163. The orbital angular momentum and orbit
(species) (bond orders) angular momentum (classical, analogue) for
I) 1.0 the electron of 4s - orbital are respectively,
A) N2
equal to
II) 2.0 h h
B) O2 (1) 12 and
2π 2π
C) F2 III) 2.5 2h
(2) zero and
π
+
D) O2 IV) 3.0
2h
(3) 6 h and
A B C D π
(1) IV II I III h 3h
(4) 2 and
2π 2π
(2) I III IV II
164. During the discharge of Lead storage battery,
(3) I II IV III correct statement is
(4) IV III I II (1) H2SO4 is consumed
160. Which among the following is an incorrect (2) PbSO4 is consumed
combination?
(3) Specific gravity of H2SO4 increases
(1) CuSO4 ------- Acidic ------- Cationic
hydrolysis (4) Pb oxidizes to PbO2 at anode

(2) Rb2CO3 -------- Basic ------ Anionic 165. Which of the following compound is not
hydrolysis aromatic according to Huckel’s rule ?
(1) Pyridine
(3) KCl --------- Neutral ------ Both cationic
(2) Pyrrole
and anionic hydrolysis
(3) Naphthalene
(4) Carnalite (KCl.MgCl 2 .6H 2 O) ---
(4) Cyclopentadienyl cation
Acidic----- Cationic hydrolysis
166. Which of the following reactions is an
161. Two nucleotides are joined together by a
example of a redox reaction?
linkage known as :
(1) XeF6 + H 2O → XeOF4 + 2HF
(1) Phosphodiester linkage
(2) XeF6 + 2H 2O → XeO2 F2 + 4 HF
(2) Glycosidic linkage
(3) XeF4 + O2 F2 → XeF6 + O2
(3) Disulphidc linkage
+
(4) Peptide linkage (4) XeF2 + PF5 →  XeF  PF6−
167. Oxidation state of phosophorous in (1) n-butyl chloride and sec-butyl chloride
phosphonic acid is (2) n-butyl chloride and iso- butyl chloride
(1) +1 (3) 1-butene and iso-butene
(2) +3
(4) ethyl alcohol and dimethyl ether
(3) +4
173. The major product obtained in the photo
(4) +5
catalysed bromination of 2 – methylbutane is:
168.The IUPAC symbol for the element with (1) 1 – bromo – 2 – methylbutane
atomic number 119 would be :
(2) 1 – bromo – 2 – methylbutane
(1) uue
(3) 2 – bromo – 3 – methylbutane
(2) une
(3) unh (4) 2 – bromo – 2 – methylbutane
(4) uun 174. The trans – alkenes are formed by the
reduction of non-terminal alkynes with :
169. Select the option with correct property.
(1) [Ni(CO) ] and [NiCl ]2– are diamagnetic (1) H 2 − Pd / C , BaSO4
4 4

(2) [Ni(CO)4] and [NiCl4]2– are paramagnetic (2) NaBH 4

(3) [NiCl 4 ] 2– diamagnetic, [Ni(CO) 4 ] (3) Na / liq.NH 3
paramagnetic (4) Sn − HCl
(4) [Ni(CO) 4 ] diamagnetic, [NiCl 4 ] 2–
175. In the following sequence of reactions:
paramagnetic
KMnO4 SOCl2
170. Which of the following compounds show Toluene  → A  →B
colour due to d – d transition ? H 2 / Pd

BaSO4
→ C the product C is :
(1) CuSO4 ⋅ 5H 2O
(2) K 2Cr2O7 (1) C6 H 5CH 2OH

(3) K 2Cr2O4 (2) C6 H 5CHO

(4) KMnO4 (3) C5 H 5COOH

171. The correct IUPAC name of the following (4) C6 H 5CH 3

compound is : 176. The major product in the reaction
CH 3 CH 3
CH 3 − CH − CH 2 − CN | |
| +

NH 2 CH 3 − C − Cl + K O − C − CH 3 → ? is
| |
(1) 2 – Aminopentanenitrile CH 3 CH 3
(2) 2 – Aminobutanenitrile (1) t – Butyl ethyl ether
(3) 3 – Aminobutanenitrile (2) 2, 2 – Dimethyl butane
(4) 3 – Aminopropanenitrile
(3) 2 – Methyl pent – 1 – ene
172. Which of the following pairs of compounds
(4) 2 – Methyl prop – 1 – ene
are positional isomers ?
 28

177. Phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with 181. Select the correct statements from the
methanol to give following
(1) a mixture of toluene and Mg(OH) Br (A) The boiling point of alcohols and
(2) a mixture of phenol and Mg(Me)Br phenols are higher in comparison to
(3) a mixture of anisole and Mg(OH)Br hydrocarbons, ethers, haloalkanes and
haloarenes of comparable molecular
(4) a mixture of benzene and Mg(OMe)Br
masses
178. Consider the following reaction, (B) Ethanol and propane have comparable
boiling points but differ only in the
molecular masses
(C) The OH group in alcohols and phenols is
involved in the intermolecular hydrogen
bonding
(D) The trend of boiling point is ethanol >
methoxymethane
(1) A, B, C only
What is I and II in the above reaction ? (2) A, C, D only
I II (3) B, C, D only
(1) Phthalamide; Ethanolic KOH (4) A, B, D only
(2) Phthalimide; Ethanolic KOH 182. The I1 , I 2 , I 3 , I 4 values of an element ‘M’ are
(3) Phthalimide; HCl 120, 600, 1000,and 8000 kJ/mole respectively
(4) Phthalamide; then the formula of its sulphate.
HCl
(1) MSO4
Ba(OH)2
179. Acetone → 'X'. ‘X’ is
Ä (2) M 2 ( SO4 )3
(1) (CH3 )2C=CH - CO - CH3 (3) M 2SO4
(2) (CH3 )2C =C(CH3 )2 (4) M 3 ( SO4 )2
183. The percentage composition of carbon by
(3) CH3CH2CH=CH-CO-CH3
weight in methane is
O
(1) 75%
(CH 3 ) 2C = CH -CH 2 -C-CH3 (2) 80%
(4) (3) 25%
180. Which of the following indicators is most (4) 20%
suitable for weak acid vs strong base 184. The stability of +1 oxidation state among
titrations?
Al , Ga, In and Tl increases in the sequence
(1) Methyl orange
(1) Al < Ga < In < Tl
(2) Methyl red
(2) Tl < In < Ga < Al
(3) Starch
(3) In < Tl < Ga < Al
(4) Phenolphthalein
(4) Ga < In < Al < Tl
185. Given below are two statements one is (1) 5.57
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is (2) 3.57
labeled as Reason (R) : (3) 4.57
Assertion (A) : Acetaldehyde and Benzalde-
(4) 2.57
hyde can be distinguished
using Fehling’s reagent 190. What is the activation energy (kJ/mol) for
Reason (R) : Fehling’s reagent can oxi- a reaction if its rate constant doubles when
dise Benzaldehyde but not the temperature is raised from 300 K to 400
Acetaldehyde (
K? R = 8.314 Jmol K . )
−1 −1

(1) Both A and R are correct but R is not (1) 69.1

the correct explanation of A
(2) 6.91
(2) Both A and R are correct and R is correct
(3) 34.4
explanation of A
(4) 3.44
(3) A is correct but R is not correct
(4) A is not correct but R is correct 191. On balancing the given redox reaction,
aCr2O72− + bSO32− ( aq ) + cH + ( aq ) →
SECTION-B
c
2aCr 3+ ( aq ) + bSO42− ( aq ) + H 2O ( l )
186. The Van’t Hoff factor for 0.1 M Ba ( NO3 )2 2
solution is 2.74. The degree of dissociation is The coefficients a, b and c are found to be,
(1) 91.3% respectively.
(2) 87% (1) 3, 8, 1
(3) 100% (2) 1, 8, 3
(4) 74% (3) 8, 1, 3
(4) 1, 3, 8
187. The density of 3M solution of NaCl is 1.25 g
mL-1. Calculate the molality of the solution. 192. Predict in which of the following, entropy
(1) 2.79 m decreases
(2) 4.79 m (1) A liquid crystallizes into a solid.
(3) 6.79 m (2) Temperature of a crystalline solid is
(4) 9.79 m raised from 0 K to 115 K.
188. For the inversion of cane sugar in acidic
(3) 2NaHCO3 ( s ) → Na2CO3 ( s ) + CO2 ( g )
medium, order and molecularity are
+ H 2O ( g )
respectively
(1) 1, 1 (4) H 2 ( g ) → 2H ( g )
(2) 1, 2 193. A reagent which gives brilliant red
(3) 2, 2 precipitate with Nickel ions in basic medium
is
(4) 2, 1
(1) sodium nitroprusside
189. The pH of the solution containing 50 mL
each of 0.10 M sodium acetate and 0.01 M (2) neutral FeCl3
acetic acid is (3) meta - dinitrobenzene
[Given pK a of CH 3COOH =4.57] (4) dimethyl glyoxime
 CH 3 In the light of the above statements, choose
| the most appropriate answer from the
194. CH 3 − CH − CH 2 − O − CH 2 − CH 3
options given below :
Heated
+ HI  →
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is
Which of the following compounds will be false
formed ?
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(1) CH 3 − CH − CH 3 + CH 3CH 2OH
| false
CH 3 (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(2) CH 3 − CH − CH 2OH + CH 3 CH 3 true.
|
CH 3 (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is
CH 3 true
| 198. Crystal field stabilization energy for the
(3) CH 3 − CH − CH 2OH + CH 3CH 2 I
complex, K 3[FeF6 ] is
CH 3
| (1) Zero
(4) CH − CH − CH − I + CH CH OH
3 2 3 2
(2) –2 D0
195. Which compound would give 5 – keto – 2 (3) –2.4 D0
– methylhexanal upon ozonolysis ?
(4) –1.2 D0

CH 3 199. On a thin layer chromatographic plate, an

CH 3 organic compound moved by 4.2 cm, while
the solvent moved by 7 cm. The retardation
(1) (2) H 3C factor of the organic compound is _____
CH 3 (1) 0.6
CH 3 CH 3 (2) 0.06
CH 3 (3) 1.67
(3) (4)
(4) 4.2
CH 3 200. In which of the following reactions, cleavage
196. Enthalpy of atomization is highest in: of O-H bond in R-COOH takes place

(1) CH 4 (g)
a) R − COOH + NaHCO3 → R − COONa
+ H 2O + CO2
(2) H 2 (g) H+
b) 
RCOOH + R ' OH  RCOOR '+ H 2O
(3) Cl2 (g)
c) 3RCOOH + PCl3 → 2RCOCl + H 3 PO3
(4) F2 (g) (1) only b,c
197. Given below are two statements (2) only a
Statement-I : Samerium is steel hard
(3) only a,c
Statement-II: The actinoids show in general
+3 oxidation state. (4) only a,b