Mock Test-04

Complete Syllabus of NEET

Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35
questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total
score. Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on the Answer sheet.
PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:
1. The work function of a metal is w0 and  is wavelength of incident radiation. There is no emission
of photoelectron when
hc hc hc hc
(a)   (b)   (c)   (d)  
w0 w0 w0 w0
2. Two pillars are at distance of 6.28m from each other. What should be the maximum distance of an
observer from pillar to see them separately?
(R = 1 arc minute)
(a) 21.6 km (b) 43.2 km (c) 10.8 km (d) 5.1 km
3. The velocity of liquid coming out of a small hole of a large vessel containing two different liquids
shown in figure is

(a) 2 gh (b) 2gh (c) gh (d) 3 gh

4. A liquid of coefficient of cubical expansion  is filled in a container having coefficient of linear

expansion . On heating, liquid level in the container will
3
(a) Fall (b) Rise (c) Remain same (d) Becomes half
5. The kinetic energy of a body varies directly as square of time elapsed. The force acting varies
directly as
1
(a) t (b) t (c) (d) t0
t
6. For the arrangement shown in figure, the tension in the string to prevent it from sliding down, is (g
= 10 m/s2)

(a) 12 N (b) 21.6 7N (c) 0 N (d) 2.4 N

7. A charged particle of mass m and charge q is released from rest in a uniform electric field E. The KE
of particle after time t is:
qEt2 q2E2 t2 q2E2 t qE2 t2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2m 2m 2m 2m
8. A body possesses kinetic energy x, moving on a rough horizontal surface, is stopped in a distance y.
The friction force exerted on the body is
x x x y
(a) (b) (c) (d)
y y y x
9. Figure shown four plates each of area A and separated from another by a distance d. What is the
capacitance between P and Q?

A 0 2A 0 3A 0 4A 0

(a) (b) (c) (d)
d d d d

10. A farsighted person cannot focus distinctly objects closer than 100cm. The lens that will permit him
to read from a distance of 50cm, will have a focal length:
11. The value of alternating emf (E) in the given circuit will be

220
(a) 200V (b) 220V (c) V (d) 100V
2
12. What is the current through an ideal P – N junction diode shown in figure below?

(a) 40 mA (b) 20 mA (c) 10 mA (d) 80 mA

13. If force (F), mass (M), length (L) are taken as fundamental quantities, dimensions of time will be
(a) [M L F] (b) [M L F1] (c) [M1/2 L1/2 F1/2] (d) [M1/2 L1/2 F1/2]
14. Resistance of given carbon resistor is

(a) 10 × 103   5% (b) 10 × 104   5% (c) 10 × 104   10% (d) 10 × 104   10%
15. The correct graph between logeR and loge( - 0) during cooling of a body may be (R is the rate of
cooling and 0 is surrounding temperature)

T
16. If T is the half-life of a radioactive material, then the fraction that would remain after a time is
2
1 1 2 1 2 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 2 2 2
17. Two balls each of mass 1kg moving in opposite directions with speed 15m/s collides and rebounds
with the same speed. The magnitude of impulse imparted to each ball due to other is
(a) 15 kg m s1 (b) 5 kg m s1 (c) 30 kg m s1 (d) 10 kg m1
18. If length of stretched string is increased by 50% keeping mass per unit length same, then in order to
keep its frequency of vibration constant, its tension must be increases by
(a) 50% (b) 100% (c) 75% (d) 125%
19. In case of horse pulling a cart , the force that causes the horse to move forward is the force that
(a) The cart exerts on the horse (b) The ground exerts on the horse
(c) The horse exerts on the cart (d) The horse exerts on the ground
20. The position x of a particle of mass 2kg moving along straight line is given as x = (t – 2) 2, where t is
in second and x is in metre. The work done by the force in first 2s is
(a) 0 J (b) 16J (c) 16 J (d) 32 J
k
21. A particle moves in a circular orbit of radius r under a central attractive force F =  , k is constant.
r
The time period of its motion is proportional to
(a) r1/2 (b) r (c) r2/3 (d) r3/2
22. An insect of mass m = 2g is inside a vertical drum of radius 1m that is rotating with an angular
velocity of 10 rad/s. If the insect does not fall off then the minimum coefficient of friction is

(a) 0.1 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.3 (d) 0.4

2
23. A body of moment of inertia 4 kg m rotating with an angular speed of 4 rad/s has the 4x J of kinetic
energy. Determine the value of x.
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16
24. In rotational motion of a rigid body about an axis, particles move with
(a) Same linear and angular velocity (b) Same linear but different angular velocity
(c) Different linear but same angular velocity (d) Different linear and different angular velocity
25. Two circular rings (of same material) are of same thickness. The diameter of first ring is twice that
of second. The moment of inertia of first ring as compared to that of second is
(a) 4 times (b) 8 times (c) 16 times (d) 2 times
26. A rain drop of radius r falls in air with terminal velocity v. What is the terminal velocity of a rain
drop of radius 3r?
v v
(a) (b) 3v (c) (d) 9v
3 9
27. Consider a process on a system shown in figure below. During the process, the work done by the
system

(a) First increases then decreases (b) Firs decreases then increases
(c) Continuously increases (d) Continuously decreases
28. A Carnot engine working between the temperature 500 K and 1000 K does a work of 1000 J. The
heat energy supplied by the source to the engine per cycle is
(a) 1000 J (b) 1500 J (c) 2000 J (d) 2500 J
29. An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound with a velocity one-fourth of the velocity
of sound. What is the percentage increase in the apparent frequency?
(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 10% (d) 20%
   x 
30. The equation of a wave traveling on a string is y = 10sin    5t    , where x, y are in cm and t is
  4 
in second. The velocity of wave is
(a) 40 cm/s, in x-direction (b) 40 cm/s, in x-direction
(c) 20 cm/s, in x-direction (d) 20 cm/s, in x-direction
31. A metal wire of uniform mass is used as simple pendulum. If the temperature of metal wire is
increases by 10C and coefficient of linear expansion of the wire is 2 × 10 6 C1 , the time period
of pendulum will increase by
(a) 1 × 103 % (b) 1 × 103 % (c) 2 × 103 % (d) 2 × 103 %
32. Magnetic flux through a closed conducting loop of resistance 4 changes with time as
   2t2  8t  6  Wb, where t is time in seconds. The heat produced from t = 0 to t = 2 s is
224 112 86 172
(a) J (b) J (c) J (d) J
3 3 3 3
33. ISRO observed the wavelength of sodium line emitted by a star is 589.6 nm. The actual wavelength
emitted by star is 589 nm. The speed of the star with respect to us would be
(a) 306 km/s (b) 206 km/s (c) 406 km/s (d) 106 km/s
34. An electromagnetic wave propagates in a medium, whose electric field vector is given as E = 200sin
(18 × 108t + 8x) V m1. Retractive index of medium and amplitude of magnetic field will be
3 2 4 2
(a)   ; B0   10 6 T (b)   ; B0   10 6 T
2 3 3 3
3 8 4 8
(c)   ; B0   10 6 T (d)   ; B0   10 6 T
2 9 3 9
35. A direct current of 4 A and an alternating current of 4 A flows through two identical resistors. The
ratio of heat produced in the two resistances in same time interval will be
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1

SECTION-B
36. An electric bulb and a capacitor are connected in series with an AC source. On increasing the
frequency of the source, the brightness of the bulb:
(a) Remains same (b) Increases
(c) Decreases (d) First increases then decreases
37. In a meter bridge experiment, the galvanometer shows a null point when jockey is pressed at
40.0cmusing a standard resistance of 100  as per the diagram. The least count of the scale used
is 1 mm. The unknown resistance is nearly
 (a)  66.7  0.1   (b)  66.7  0.3   (c)  33.3  0.1   (d)  33.3  0.3  
38. Determine the energy required to launch a satellite of mass m from the surface of a planet of mass
M and radius R in a circular orbit at an altitude of 3R
5GMm 5GMm GMm 7GMm
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6R 3R 3R 8R
39. A photocell works on the principle of
(a) Bernoulli’s principle (b) Photoelectric effect (c) Kirchhoff’s rule (d) Radioactivity law
40. Density of nucleus is of the order of
(a) 1012 kg/m3 (b) 1016 kg/m3 (c) 1017 kg/m3 (d) 1024 kg/m3
41. Power factor of series LCR circuit at resonance is
1 3
(a) (b) (c) 1 (d) Zero
2 2
42. Which of the following represent the variation of intensity of magnetization (I) versus magnetizing
force (H) graph for a diamagnetic substance?


43. Electric field in a region is E  3jˆ N / C. Equipotential surfaces are parallel to
(a) xy plane (b) xz plane (c) yz plane (d) All of these
44. A square loop of side l is laced at a separation of with a very long wire AB, in same plane. If the
current through BA is increasing in the direction shown, the induced current produced in the loop is
 (a) Clockwise (b) Anti-clockwise
(c) Zero (d) First clockwise then anti-clockwise
45. A proton is revolving in a circular path with constant speed. Angle between angular momentum
and magnetic dipole moment associated with it is
(a) 0 (b) 45 (c) 90 (d) 180
46. The potential energy of a particle varies with x according to the relation U(x) = x 2 – 4x. The point x =
2 is a point of
(a) Stable equilibrium (b) Unstable equilibrium
(c) Neutral equilibrium (d) None of these
     
47. If A  B  3 A  B then angle between A and B will be
   
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6 4 3 2
48. In an isobaric process, the absolute temperature is doubled. The mean free path    and the
relaxation time    will become respectively
1
(a) times and 2 times (b) 2 times and 2 times
2
1 1
(c) 2 times and times (d) 2 times and times
2 2
49. A man is swimming with speed 10 km/h in still water crosses a river of width 1 km along the
shortest path in 10 minutes. The velocity of river flow is
(a) 6 km/h (b) 7.5 km/h (c) 10 km/h (d) 8 km/h
50. The displacement wave in a string is given as y = 5sin(62.8x – 157t). Here y and x are in cm and t in
second. The wavelength of the wave is
1
(a) 4 mm (b) mm (c) 1 mm (d) 2 mm
2
 CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. The correct relationship between edge length (a) and radius of atom (r) for BCC unit cell is
3r 4r
(a) a  (b) a  (c) a  2 2r (d) a = 2r
4 3
52. Which of the following is an example of ferromagnetic substance?
(a) CrO2 (b) Co (c) MnO (d) Fe3O4
53. 56g of CO contains (NA) = Avagadro’s No.)
(a) NA molecules (b) 0.5 NA molecules (c) 4 NA molecules (d) 2 NA molecules
rd
54. Angular momentum of electron in 3 stationary orbit of hydrogen atom is
h 3h h h
(a) (b) (c) (d)
 2 2 3
55. Major product of the given reaction is

56. Which among the following compounds on reaction with methyl magnesium bromide followed by
hydrolysis gives a tertiary alcohol?

(c) CH3CHO (d) HCHO

57. In the given reaction sequence, major product B is

58. The amine which is most basic in aqueous solution is

(a) (CH3)2NH (b) (CH3)3N (c) CH3NH2 (d) NH3
59. The maximum prescribed concentration of manganese in drinking water is
(a) 5 ppm (b) 0.05 ppm (c) 0.005 ppm (d) 0.5 ppm
60. Monomer of orlon is
61. Which among the following is not an aromatic species?

dil. KMnO4
62. Major product of the given reaction is CH3CH  CH2   273 K

(a) CH3CH2CH2OH (b) CH3CH(OH)CH2(OH) (c) CH3COCH3 (d) CH3COCH2CH3
63. The compound which will not show geometrical isomerism is
(a) PhCH = CHPh (b) (Ph)2C=CHCH3 (c) CH3CH=CHCH3 (d) CH3CH2CH=CHCH3
64. The molarity of 20 volume H2O2 is nearly
(a) 3.4 (b) 5.1 (c) 2.1 (d) 1.8
65. Which one of the following ions has the largest size in aqueous solution?
(a) Cs+ (b) Na+ (c) K+ (d) Li+
66. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 element is
(a) B > Ga > Al > Tl > In (b) Tl > In > Ga > Al > B (c) Tl > In > Al > Ga > B (d) In > Tl > Ga > Al > B
67. 0.16g of an organic compound gave 0.094g of AgBr by Carius method. The percentage of Br in the
compound is (Atomic mass of Ag = 108 u, Br = 80 u)
(a) 38% (b) 25% (c) 12.5% (d) 50%
68. Which of the following species cannot behave as electrophile?
(a) BF3 (b) AlCl3 (c) NH4 (d) SO3
69. Least stable carbocation among the following is

70. The IUPAC name of the following compound is

(a) 1-mehtyl-3chloro-4-methoxybenzene (b) 2-chloror-4-methylanisole

(c) 1-chloro-2-methoxy-5-methylbenzene (d) 1-methoxy-2-chloror-4-methylbenzene
71 Which of the following gases can be liquefied most easily?
 (a) N2 (b) O2 (c) H2 (d) NH3
72. The total kinetic energy associated with n moles of monoatomic gas is
3 3 1 1
(a) kT (b) nRT (c) nRT (d) kT
2 2 2 2

73. Entropy is a
(a) State function and extensive property (b) State function and intensive property
(c) Path function and intensive property (b) Path function and extensive property
74. Which of the following is correct for a reaction to be spontaneous?
(a) G   ve, H   ve (b) H   ve, S   ve
(c) G   ve, H  ve (d) H   ve, S   ve
75. The pH of 1 M CH3COONa solution in water will be nearly (pKa for CH3COOH = 4.74)
(a) 6.4 (b) 10.4 (c) 9.4 (d) 7.4
76. Conjugate base of H3BO3 is
(b) B  OH4

(a) H2BO3 (c) HBO23 (d) BO33
77. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed to react completely with one mole of oxalate
ion in acidic solution is
5 3 2 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 2 5 2
78. The rate constant for a first order reaction which has half-life 231s is
(a) 104 s1 (b) 3 × 103 s1 (c) 106 s1 (d) 3 × 102 s1
79. For a chemical reaction X  P, the rate of reaction doubles when the concentration of X is
increased 4 times. The order of reaction with respect to X is
1 1
(a) (b) (c) 1 (d) Zero
2 3
80. Among the given options, enthalpy of atomization is maximum for
(a) Sc (b) Ti (c) Mn (d) V
81. The migration of colloidal particles under of the influence of an electric field is known as
(a) Brownian movement (b) Dialysis (c) Electrophoresis (d) Electro-osmosis
82. The coagulating power of ions for haemoglobin decreases in the order
(a) Na+ > Ca2+ > Al3+ (b) PO34  SO24  Cl (c) Al3+ > Ca2+ > Na+ (d) Cl > SO24  PO34
83. Which of the following processes is endothermic?
(a) O  O (b) O  O2 (c) Na  Na (d) Cl  Cl
3
84. Correct electronic configuration of cobalt in complex cation Co  NH3 6  is (Atomic No. of Co is
27)
4 2 4 1 6
(a) t2g eg (b) t2g eg (c) t2g e0g 5 1
(d) t2g eg
85. Select the compound of highest covalent character.
(a) NaCl (b) NaF (c) NaBr (d) Nal
 SECTION-B
86. Anionic species obtained on reaction of XeF2 with PF5 is
(a)  XeF7  (b) PF4  (c) PF6  (d)  XeF3 
   

87. Which among the following carboxylic acids has the highest pK a value?
(a) HCOOH (b) C6H5COOH (c) O2NCH2COOH (d) CH3COOH
88. Select the ion of minimum limiting molar conductivity in water at 298 K.
(a) CH3COO (b) SO24 (c) Cl (d) OH
89. Shape of XeF4 molecule is
(a) Tetrahedral (b) Octahedral (c) Square planar (d) Pyramidal
90. Species having two unpaired electrons is
(a) He2 (b) B2 (c) O2 (d) N2
91. Depletion of ozone in stratosphere is due to
(a) CF2Cl2 (b) CO2 (c) C6H6 (d) C6H6Cl6
92. Major product of the given reaction is

93. When glucose reacts with Br2 water, it gives

(a) Saccharic acid (b) Gluconic acid (c) n-Hexane (d) Formic acid
94. Aldol condensation will take place in

(a) HCHO (b) PhCHO (c) (d) (CH3)3CCHO

95. Correct formula of calamine is
(a) ZnO (b) ZnS (c) ZnCO3 (d) CuCO3
96. An ideal solution made by mixing two volatile components A and B. IF the vapour pressure of
solution is 170mm Hg, then mole fraction of A in vapour phase is
Po
A  200mm Hg, PBo  100mm Hg 
 (a) 0.72 (b) 0.82 (c) 0.68 (d) 0.50
97. Strongest reducing agent among the following is
(a) NH3 (b) BiH3 (c) AsH3 (d) PH3
98. Which of the following compounds is not an antacid?
(a) Ranitidine (b) Cimetidine (c) magnesium hydroxide (d) Serotonin
99. The cis-alkenes are formed by the reduction of alkynes with
(a) NaBH4 (b) Na/liq. NH3 (c) H2 – Pd/C, BaSO4 (d) Fe + HCl
100. Consider the following chlorides

The correct order of reactivity towards SN1 reaction is

(a) C > B > A (b) B > A > C (c) C > A > B (d) B > C > A
BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. The taxonomic category which comes just after species in ascending order of taxonomic hierarchy
is
(a) Family (b) Genus (c) Order (d) Division
102. Select the incorrect statement
(a) In unicellular organisms growth is synonymous with reproduction
(b) A scientific name has two words in binomial nomenclature
(c) Herbarium contains pressed and preserved plant specimens
(d) Botanical gardens are ‘in situ’ conservation strategies
103. Which of the following are good indicators of water pollution?
(a) Diatoms (b) BGA (c) Mathanogens (d) Archaebacteria
104. The organism which perform oxygenic photosynthesis is
(a) Chlorobium (b) Nostoc (c) Nitrosomonas (d) Nitrococcus
105. Select the true one about prions
(a) Has RNA as genetic material (b) Abnormally folded proteins
(c) Larger than viruses (d) RNA shape is same as in TMV
106. Mark the incorrect about ribosomes
(a) Smallest cell organelle (b) Membraneless
(c) Found in cytoplasm of prokaryotes (d) Not found in double membrane bound cell
organelles of any eukaryotes
107. Select the incorrect statement about plasma membrane
(a) Most common types of lipids are phosphoglycerides
(b) Tails of lipids are non-polar
(c) Proteins show flip fop movement within the membrane
(d) Polar heads are present towards outer side
108. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is synthesized during which phase of cell cycle in animal cells
(a) G1 phase (b) S phase (c) G2 phase (d) M phase
109. Pairing of homologous chromosomes during zygotene is called
(a) Dyad formation (b) Synapsis
(c) Congression of chromosomes (d) Agglutination of chromosomes
110. The feature not related to family Fabaceae is
(a) Vexillary aestivation (b) Pod fruit
(c) Non endospermous seeds (d) Presence of perianth
111. All of the following havehalf inferior ovary, except
(a) Rose (b) Plum (c) Mustard (d) Peach
112. Parenchyma is living tissue. Select the incorrect one about it
(a) Cells are generally isodiametric
(b) Walls are thin and cellulosic
(c) May have small intercellular spaces
(d) Provides mechanical support to young stem as has lignin deposition
113. Select the odd one w.r.t. ground tissue system
(a) Pericycle (b) Pith (c) Epidermis (d) Cortex
114. Select the incorrect match.
(a) Cycas - have seeds but no fruits (b) Selaginella – heterosporous
(c) Marchantia – Dioecious liverwort (d) Wolffia – non vascular plant
115. Egg apparatus of embryo sac has
(a) Two egg cells (b) One egg cell + one synergid
(c) One egg cell + one antipodal (d) One egg cell + two synergids
116. Movement of molecules takes place along the concentration gradient in
(a) Simple diffusion (b) Facilitated diffusion (c) Active transport (d) Both (a) and (b)
117. If two molecules A & B move in the same direction. This movement can be called
(a) Antiport (b) Symport (c) Uniport (d) Guttation
118. Biological nitrogen fixation is conversion of
(a) N2  NH3 (b) NH3  NO2 (c) NO2  NO3 (d) NO3  N2 / NH3
119. Which of the following nutrient is required for auxin synthesis?
(a) B (b) Mg (c) Ca (d) Zn
120. The chlorophyll molecule in reaction center of PS II has maximum absorption at
(a) 680 nm (b) 700 nm (c) 720 nm (d) 460 nm
121. Select the incorrect one about Photosystem
(a) Found in stroma lamellae
(b) Involves in non cyclic photophosphorylation
(c) Has chl a which shows maximum absorption at 700 nm
(d) Is not involved in cyclic photophosphorylation
122. Which of the following steps of respiration takes place in cytoplasm?
(a) ETS (b) Krebs cycle (c) Glycolysis (d) Link's reaction
123. The respiratory quotient is unity for
(a) Proteins (b) Carbohydrates (c) Fats (d) Organic acids
124. The plant hormone which counteracts apical dominance is
 (a) Auxin (b) Cytokinin (c) Ethylene (d) ABA
125. Which of the following hormones is also known as stress hormone?
(a) Cytokinin (b) ABA (c) Auxin (d) Ethylene
126. Algae are/have
(a) Always diploid (b) Chlorophyllous
(c) Only unicellular (d) Well developed vascular tissues
127. Isogametes are not produced by
(a) Ulothrix (b) Volvox (c) Spirogyra (d) Rhizopus
128. Myotonic dystrophy is
(a) Autosomal dominant disorder (b) Autosomal recessive disorder
(c) Sex linked recessive disorder (d) Sex linked dominant disorder
129. Cleistogamy ensures seed set formation. This is an advantage but still there are disadvantages too.
One of the disadvantage is
(a) It brings genetic variations (b) Pollinators are not required
(c) Genetic variations are limited in progeny (d) Flowers remain fragrant throughout the life
130. Two to three layers of anther wall which are ephemeral called
(a) Middle layer (b) Epidermis (c) Endothecium (d) Tapetum
131.Females are heterogametic in all, except
(a) Birds (b) Grasshopper (c) Butterflies (d) Moth
132. In lac operon, the product of 'i' gene binds to the operator
(a) When bacterial cell has abundant amount of lactose
(b) When bacterial cell has no lactose
(c) RNA polymerase binds to the promoter
(d) RNA polymerase synthesizes ẞ galactosidase continuously
133. The size of mini satellites is
(a) 1 to 2 kb (b) 0.1 to 20 kb (c) 1-6 bp (d) 100-120 bp
134. Protoplast is
(a) Cell without tonoplast
(b) Cell without cell wall
(c) Cell without cell membrane
(d) Cell without double membrane bound cell organelles
135. Variety of Brassica resistant to white rust is
(a) Pusa komal (b) Pusa sadabahar (c) Pusa swarnim (d) Pusa shubra

SECTION-B
136. A bioactive molecule __________ is used as an immunosuppressive agent in organ transplant
patients produced by the fungus Trichoderma polysporum.
(a) Statins (b) Amylase (c) Cyclosporin A (d) Streptokinase A
137. Biocontrol agent Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is used to control
(a) Butterfly caterpillars (b) Nucleopolyhedrovirus
(c) Aphids (d) Mosquitoes
138. A population interaction in which one species is benefitted and other species remains unaffected(+,
0) is called
(a) Mutualism (b) Proto-cooperation (c) Commensalism (d) Parasitism
139. Mortality refers to
(a) Death rate (b) Birth rate (c) Immigration (d) Emigration
140. The Pioneer community in xerarch succession is
(a) Phytoplankton (b) Zooplankton (c) Lichens (d) Ferns
141. Reservoir for phosphorus cycle is
(a) Troposphere (b) Ionosphere
(c) Located in Earth's crust (d) Stratosphere
142. Which of the following is most important cause of animals and plants to become extinct?
(a) Co-extinction (b) Co-evolution
(c) Habitat loss and fragmentation (d) Alien species invasion
143. Which of the following is ex-situ conservation strategy?
(a) Wildlife safari park (b) Biosphere reserves (c) Hotspots (d) National parks
144. Montreal protocol was signed is 1987 but became effective in
(a) 1989 (b) 1994 (c) 1992 (d) 1999
145. The part of atmosphere which acts as a shield absorbing UV radiations from the sun is called
(a) lonosphere (b) Stratosphere (c) Troposphere (d) Both (a) and (c)
146. Mark the incorrect match w.r.t. symbols used for pedigree analysis

(a)  Affected male (b)  Affected female

(c)  Five unaffected offspring (d)  Mating between relatives

147. There is no tRNA for codon which has sequence
(a) AGU (b) AUG (c) UAA (d) UUU
148. Starch sheath is found in endodermis of
(a) Dicot stem (b) Dicot root (c) Monocot root (d) Monocot stem
149. Roots have all, except
(a) Pericycle (b) Hypodermis (c) Radial vascular bundles (d) Epiblema
150. Loading of sucrose in sieve tube elements is
(a) Simple diffusion (b) Active process (c) Facilitated diffusion (d) Osmosis

SECTION-A
151. Number of chromosomes present in the meiocyte of house fly is
(a) 12 (b) 6 (c) 24 (d) 48
152. Read the following statement and choose the option that correctly fills the blank. Small amounts of
urea could be eliminated through
(a) Lungs (b) Saliva (c) Bile (d) Liver
153. The first human hormone produced by recombinant DNA technology is
(a) Insulin (b) Melatonin (c) Testosterone (d) Progesterone
154. The human embryo develops from
 (a) Only hypoblast cells (b) Inner cell mass (c) Allantois (d) Trophoblast
155. Given below is the percentage of nitrogenous bases present in four different samples of the genetic
material. Identify, which sample belongs to an RNA virus
(a) Sample A: A-23%, G-27%, C-27%, T-23% (b) Sample B: G-22%, A-28%, C-22%, T-28%
(c) Sample C U-22%, G-23%, C-23%, A-32% (d) Sample D: C-8%, A-42%, G-8%, T-42%
156. Select the mismatch among the following.
(a) ZIFT Transfer of zygote or early embryos (with upto 8 blastomeres) into fallopian tube
(b) GIFT Gametes are transferred in uterus
(c) IUT Transfer of embryos with more than 8 blastomeres within uterus
(d) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection - Sperm is directly injected into the ovum
157. Read the following statements about Echinoderms and choose the option that correctly fill the
blanks A and B.
Adult echinoderms show A symmetry, but their larvae show B symmetry.
(a) (A) - Radial; (B) - Radial
(b) (A) Bilateral; (B) - Bilateral
(c) (A) - Radial; (B) - Bilateral
(d) (A) Bilateral; (B) - Radial
158. Which type of vector is used to introduce a functional ADA cDNA into lymphocytes, in gene therapy
for ADA deficiency?
(a) Plasmid (b) Bacteriophage (c) BAC (d) Retrovirus
159. Match column I with column II w.r.t. gestation and choose the correct option.
Column I Column II
(a) Foetus develop limbs and digits (i) End of second trimester
(b) First movements (ii) End of first month
(c) Heart formed (iii) Fifth month
(d) Eye-lids separate and eye lashes are formed (iv) End of second month
(a) a(i), (iv), c(ii), d(iii) (b) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(c) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (d) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
160. Which of the following is an active ATPase enzyme?
(a) Light meromyosin (b) Globular head of meromyosin
(c) Tropomyosin (d) Tail of meromyosin
161. Enzyme commission number of amylase is
(a) 6.2.7.1.2 (b) 3.2.1.1 (c) 2.3.1.4.1 (d) 3.2.1
162. Consider the following statements and choose the option that correctly fill the blanks (A) and (B).
Statement : The intercellular material of cartilage is A and resists compression.
Statement II: Bones have a B ground substance rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres which
give bone its strength.
(a) (A) Hard and non-pliable
(B) Solid and pliable
(b) (A) Solid and pliable
(B) Hard and non-pliable
(c) (A)-Soft and non-pliable
 (B) Solid and pliable
(d) (A)-Solid and pliable
(B) Soft and non-pliable
163. Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the
concerned country and its people is called
(a) Bio-infringement (b) Biopatent (c) Biopiracy (d) Bio-exploitation
164. All of the following are complications of STIs, except
(a) Pelvic inflammatory diseases (b) Periodic abstinence
(c) Ectopic pregnancy (d) Still births
165. Colostrum is the milk produced during the initial few days of lactation. It is essential to develop
resistance for the new-born babies because it contains antibodies of
(a) IgG type (b) IgM type (c) IgA type (d) IgE type
166. Carefully read the following statements and choose the option that correctly fill the blanks (A) and
(B).
In human ear, the membranous labyrinth is surrounded by a fluid called A , and is itself filled with
a fluid called B .
(a) A-Perilymph, B-Endolymph
(b) A-Endolymph, B-Perilymph
(c) A Perilymph, B-Perilymph
(d) A-Endolymph, B-Endolymph
167. Which of the following will not be released when there is a decrease in blood pressure/volume?
(a) Atrial natriuretic factor (b) Aldosterone (c) ADH (d) Renin
168. Bioluminescence can be seen commonly in the organisms of Phylum
(a) Cnidaria (b) Ctenophora (c) Coelenterata (d) Cyclostomatal
169. Read the following statements about enzyme co- factors and choose the option that correctly
states them true (T) or false (F).
(A) Co-enzyme nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide contain the vitamin B 3
(B) Haem is the transient bound co-enzyme for enzyme catalase
(C) Co-factors are non-protein constituents that bound to some enzymes, to make them
catalytically active
(D) Zinc is a co-enzyme for enzyme carboxypeptidase
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) T F T F
(b) F F T T
(c) F F T F
(d) T T T F
170. The mating of more closely related individuals within the same breed for 4-6 generations is known
as
(a) Out-crossing (b) Inbreeding (c) Cross-breeding (d) Interspecific
hybridisation
171. A gene is expressed in a host organism, which does not naturally have this gene or gene fragment.
Such a host organism is called as
 (a) Novel host (b) Heterologous host
(c) Non-recombinant host (d) Homologous host
172. The crops engineered for glyphosate are resistant/tolerant to
(a) Nematodes (b) Herbicides (c) Worms (d) Bacteria
173. Study the following given cases carefully.
Case I : A person is infected by SARS COV-2, with very mild symptoms and is quarantined at home.
He gets healthy within few days without taking any medications.
Case II : Another person also got infected by same coronavirus strain, with severe symptoms like
difficulty in breathing, sore throat, fever and has lost the sense of smell and taste. He has been
admitted to hospital and given convalescent plasma therapy.
Which type of immunity is associated with the above two cases?
Case I Case II
(a) Natural passive immunity Artificial passive
(b) Natural active immunity Natural passive
(c) Natural active immunity Artificial passive
(d) Natural active immunity Artificial active
174. Choose the incorrect match.
(a) Oral steroidal contraceptive pills – Inhibition of ovulation
(b) IUDs – Inserted by doctors and expert nurses in uterus
(c) Copper releasing IUDs – Make the uterus unsuitable for implantation, inhibit ovulation
(d) Hormone releasing IUDs – Make cervix hostile to the sperms
175. Study the alimentary canal of cockroach and select the option that correctly define the structure
whose function is given below.

(i) A structure which secrete digestive juice.

(ii) A structure used for storing of food.
(iii) A structure which helps in removal of excretory products from haemolymph.
(iv) A structure which help in grinding the food particles.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) A B C D
(b) D A C B
(c) C B D A
(d) C A D B
176. Which of the following can be caused by anxiety, food poisoning, over eating and spicy food?
(a) Indigestion (b) Constipation (c) Diarrhoea (d) Jaundice
177. Read the statements w.r.t dinosaurs and choose the correct option.
Statement I : About 85 mya, the dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth.
Statement II: Tyrannosaurus rex was about 20 feet in height and had huge fearsome dagger like
teeth.
(a) Both statements are correct
(b) Both statements are incorrect
(c) Statement is correct but statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
178. Select the incorrect match.
(a) JG cells of kidney - Erythropoietin
(b) CCK - Stimulate secretion of gastric juice
(c) Gastrin - Stimulates secretion of HCI and pepsinogen.
(d) GIP - Inhibits gastric motility
179. An Rh -ve female, conceive twin boys in her first pregnancy. What is the probability of suffering
from erythroblastosis foetalis foetalis in this first pregnancy by the Rh +ve foetus?
(a) 33.3 per cent (b) 50 per cent (c) 0 per cent (d) 100 per cent
180. How many features given below in the box are present in skeletal muscles?
Voluntary, Uninucleate, Attached to bones, Striations, Intercalated discs
(a) Two (b) Three (c) One (d) Four
181. Read the following statements about cells present in gastric glands and choose the correct option.
Statement I: Paneth cells secrete mucus.
Statement II: Chief cells sete HCI and intrinsic factor.
(a) Statement is incorrect but statement II is correct
(b) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(c) Both statements are correct
(d) Both statements are incorrect
182. To form the shoulder joint, glenoid cavity articulates with the
(a) Clavicle (b) Scapula
(c) Head of the humerus (d) Acromian process
183. Flavr savr variety of tomato, remains fresh for a longer period than normal tomato due to
(a) Presence of pest resistance gene
(b) Over expression of gene coding for enzyme polygalacturonase
(c) Silencing of gene coding for polygalacturonase enzyme
(d) Presence of vitamin A and C
184. Study the given statements about HIV.
(i) The primary target cells for HIV are macrophages and helper T-lymphocytes
(ii) HIV is a non-enveloped retrovirus, having two identical molecules of ss RNA genome
(iii) HIV gets attached to the CD8 receptors present on helper T-lymphocytes, to gain entry in them
(iv) A widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is enzyme linked immuno-sorbent assay (ELISA)
(v) Treatment of AIDS with anti-retroviral drugs is only partially effective
How many of the above given statements are correct?
 (a) Two (b) Four (c) Five (d) Three
185. Which of the following animal evolved into first amphibians that lived on both land and water?
(a) Neopilina (b) Lobe finned fishes (c) Archaeopteryx (d) Ichthyosaurs

SECTION-B
186. All of the following structures of internal ear are responsible for maintenance of balance of the
body and posture except
(a) Crista ampullaris (b) Macula utriculi (c) Macula sacculi (d) Organ of Corti
187. Which part of the brain is involved in the regulation of sexual behaviour?
(a) Corpora quadrigemina (b) Only hypothalamus
(c) Limbic system and hypothalamus (d) Cerebellum
188. Read the following statements w.r.t regulation of respiration and choose the correct option.
Statement I: Respiratory rhythm centre present in the medulla region of brain, is primarily
responsible for regulation of normal rhythm of breathing.
Statement II: The role of oxygen in the regulation of respiratory rhythm is very significant.
(a) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(b) Statement is correct but statement II is incorrect
(c) Both statements are correct
(d) Both statements are incorrect
189. How many external rows of ciliated comb plates are usually present in the body of comb jellies?
(a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 10 (d) 16
190. Evolution of DDT resistant mosquitoes is an example of
(a) Stabilising selection (b) Balancing selection (c) Disruptive selection (d) Directional selection
191. In which of the following connective tissue, cells does not secrete fibres of collagen or elastin?
(a) Areolar tissue (b) Adipose tissue. (c) Blood (d) Bone
192. Read the following statements about blood and choose the option that correctly states them true
(T) or false (F).
(A) A healthy individual has 12-16 g of haemoglobin in every 100 ml of blood
(B) IgA antibodies are mainly involved in allergic reactions are
(C) Eosinophils resist infections and associated with allergic reactions
(D) Spleen is the graveyard of RBCs
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) T T T T
(b) F T T T
(c) T F F T
(d) T F T T
193. The brain capacities of Homo habilis were
(a) 900cc (b) 650-800cc (c) 1400cc (d) 1350cc
194. Complete the analogy
Industrial pollutants : Occupational respiratory disorders : : Cigarette smoking : _________
(a) Asthma (b) Emphysema (c) Rhinitis Rhinitis (d) Heart attack
195. The copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is controlled by a sequence called as
 (a) Ori site (b) Selectable marker
(c) Palindromic sequence (d) Recognition site.
196. Select the mismatch among the following w.r.t. Animal kingdom
(a) Ctenophora - Radial symmetry
(b) Aschelminthes - Coelomate
(c) Annelida - Segmentation present
(d) Platyhelminthes – Incomplete digestive system
197. Select the odd one out regarding excretion in cockroach.
(a) Urecose glands (b) Nephrocytes (c) Antennal glands (d) Fat body
198. Complete the analogy for the following
Flagellar movement: Spermatozoa :: Amoeboid movement
(a) Ciliated epithelial cells (b) RBCs
(c) Leucocytes (d) Cuboidal epithelial cells
199. Consider the following statements regarding hormonal disorders
a. Grave's disease is a form of hypothyroidism
b. Excessive secretion of growth hormone after puberty leads to acromegaly
c. Prolonged hyperglycemia leads to a complex disorder called diabetes mellitus
d. Cretinism is the defective development and maturation of the growing baby due to
hypothyroidism during pregnancy
Choose the option that mention only correct statements.
(a) Only a, b and c (b) Only a and c (c) Only b, c and d (d) a, b, c and d
200. Select the mismatch among the following w.r.t. contraceptives
(a) Natural method of contraception – Periodic abstinence
(b) Copper releasing IUD – CuT
(c) Hormone releasing IUD – Multiload 375
(d) Non-medicated IUD – Lippes loop