MHT CET 2025 9 April PCB Question Paper

General Instructions
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them:

1. This question booklet contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs).

2. Section-A: Physics & Chemistry - 50 Questions each and Section-B: Biology - 50

Questions.

3. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of
the candidate.

4. Read each question carefully.

5. Determine the one correct answer out of the four available options given for each
question.

6. Physics and Chemistry have 1 mark for each question, and Bio have 2 marks for
every question. There shall be no negative marking.

7. No mark shall be granted for marking two or more answers of the same question,
scratching, or overwriting.

8. Duration of the paper is 3 Hours.

1
1. A wire of length L and resistance R is falling vertically through Earth’s horizontal
magnetic field B . What is the current induced in the wire when it has fallen a height L?
(Take acceleration due to gravity as g )
√
BL 2gL
(a) R
√
B 2gL
(b) R
√
BL2 2g
(c) R
BLg
(d) R

2. The mass of an object is measured as (28 ± 0.01) g and its volume as (5 ± 0.1) cm3 .
What is the percentage error in density?

(A) 1.20%
(B) 2.04%
(C) 0.35%
(D) 0.71%

3. At a height h above the Earth’s surface, the acceleration due to gravity becomes √g .
3
What is the value of h in terms of the Earth’s radius R?

(a) R
√
(b) 2R
(c) 2R
R
(d) 2

4. A block slides down a smooth inclined plane, and its acceleration is found to be g8 . If
g is the acceleration due to gravity, what is the angle of inclination θ of the plane?

(a) tan−1 1


8

(b) tan−1 1


2

(c) tan−1 1


4

(d) tan−1 1


16

2
 √
5. An AC voltage V = 50 2 sin(100t) is applied across a capacitor of capacitance
C = 1µF . What is the rms value of the current through the capacitor?

(a) 0.0025 A
(b) 0.01 A
(c) 0.005 A
(d) 0.007 A

6. Two black bodies emit the same amount of radiation per second. The radius of the
first is R1 = 2 m and its temperature is T1 = 400 K. If the second body has a radius
R2 = 4 m, what is its temperature T2 in Kelvin?

(a) 200 K
(b) 300 K
(c) 250 K
(d) 400 K

7. What is the ratio of the wavelength of the Lyman series limit to that of the Paschen
series limit in the hydrogen spectrum?

9
(a) 9
1
(b) 4
9
(c) 3
2
(d) 2

8. A photon and an electron have the same energy E . If λp is the wavelength of the
λp
photon and λe is the de Broglie wavelength of the electron, then the ratio λe is:

E
(a) mc2
√
2mE
(b) c2
√
2mE
(c) c

3
 √
2mE
(d) R

9. What is the ratio of the wavelength of the Lyman series limit to that of the Paschen
series limit in the hydrogen spectrum?

9
(a) 9
1
(b) 4
9
(c) 3
2
(d) 2

10. A photon and an electron have the same energy E . If λp is the wavelength of the
λp
photon and λe is the de Broglie wavelength of the electron, then the ratio λe is:

E
(a) mc2
√
2mE
(b) c2
√
2mE
(c) c
√
2mE
(d) R

11. A mass of 0.5 kg is attached to a spring of force constant 200 N/m. What is the time
period of oscillation?

(a) 0.25 s
(b) 0.50 s
(c) 1.00 s
(d) 2.00 s

12. A solid cylinder and a hollow cylinder, each of mass M and radius R, are rotating
with the same angular velocity ω . What is the ratio of their rotational kinetic energies
Khollow


Ksolid ?

(a) 1

4
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 3/2

13. A uniform circular disc of mass 2 kg and radius 0.5 m is mounted on a frictionless
axle. A force of 4 N is applied tangentially at the rim for 2 seconds. Find the angular
velocity acquired by the disc at the end of 2 seconds.

(a) 8 rad/s
(b) 10 rad/s
(c) 12 rad/s
(d) 16 rad/s

14. A circular loop of radius 0.2 m carries a current of 4 A. What is the magnetic field
at a point on the axis of the loop at a distance 0.2 m from the center?

4×10−6
(a) 4×10−7 T
√
(b) 2T
(c) 4 × 10−7 T
(d) (0.2)2 T

15. An electron enters a magnetic field of magnitude 0.05 T at a speed of 3 × 106 m/s
making an angle of 30° with the field direction. What is the magnitude of magnetic
force on it? (Charge of electron = 1.6 × 10−19 C)

(a) 2.4 × 10−14 N

(b) 1.2 × 10−14 N
(c) 3.0 × 10−14 N
(d) 4.8 × 10−14 N

5
16. A spherical air bubble is formed inside a liquid (like water). The radius of the
bubble is 0.5 mm, and the surface tension of the liquid is 0.072 N/m. What is the
pressure inside the bubble relative to the outside pressure?

(a) 1.44 × 103 Pa more

(b) 1.44 × 102 Pa more
(c) 2.88 × 103 Pa more
(d) 2.88 × 102 Pa more

17. A particle on a string undergoes a transverse wave motion given by:

πx
 
y = 5 sin 4πt −
2
(All quantities in SI units.) How much time does a particle at x = 0 take to go from
mean position to extreme (maximum displacement) for the first time?

1
(a) 4 S
1
(b) 8 S
1
(c) 2 S
1
(d) 16 S

π
18. Assertion (A): When two waves of equal amplitude and a phase difference of 2

interfere, the resulting intensity is equal to the intensity of one wave.

Reason (R): In interference, the resultant intensity is always the sum of individual intensities
if the phase difference is non-zero.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

19. Two resistors, 4 and 6, are connected in parallel, and this combination is connected
in series with a 2 resistor to a 12V battery. What is the total power dissipated?

6
(a) 32.7 W
(b) 28.8 W
(c) 24.0 W
(d) 36.0 W

20. A small object is tied to a string and whirled in a vertical circle of radius L. What
should be the minimum speed at the topmost point of the circle so that the string just
remains taut?
√
(a) 2gL
√
(b) gL
√
(c) 3gL
(d) Zero

21. The reverse saturation current (I0) of a silicon diode at 27°C is 10−6 A. What will be
the approximate value of I0 at 67°C? (Assume I0 doubles for every 10°C rise in
temperature)

(a) 1.6 × 10−6 A

(b) 4.0 × 10−6 A
(c) 8.0 × 10−6 A
(d) 1.6 × 10−5 A

22. A conducting rod of length L and mass m falls vertically under gravity through a
region of uniform magnetic field B, directed into the plane of the page. The rod is
placed on two smooth, vertical conducting rails connected at the bottom by a resistor R.
Assuming no friction or air resistance, and the rod quickly reaches a constant terminal
velocity, find the expression for v in terms of B, L, m, R.

mgR
(a) B 2 L2
mg
(b) B 2 L2
mgR
(c) B2L

7
 mR
(d) gB 2 L

23. A gas undergoes a process P V 2 = constant. Initially, pressure = 2 atm, volume = 1

L. It expands to 2 L. Find the work done by the gas in joules. (a) 50.5 J

(b) 10.1 J
(c) 202 J
(d) 303 J

24. Three point charges +Q, +Q, and -Q are placed at the corners of an equilateral
triangle of side a. What is the total electrostatic potential energy of the system?

kQ2
(a) a

(b) 0
a
(c) 3kQ2
a
(d) 3Q2

25. A passenger is sitting in a fast moving train. The engine of the train blows a whistle
of frequency N. If the apparent frequency of sound heard by the passengers is N ′ , then:

(a) N ′ = N
(b) N ′ < N
(c) N ′ > N
(d) N ′ N = 1

26. An object is dropped from a helicopter flying horizontally at 360 km/h. It falls from
a height of 2 km and reaches the ground in 20 seconds. What is the displacement of the
package relative to the helicopter’s position when it was dropped?

(a) 2 km
√
(b) 2 2 km

8
(c) 4 km
(d) 8 km

27. In adiabatic compression, which of the following is true?

(a) Temperature increases

(b) Temperature decreases
(c) Pressure remains constant
(d) Amount of heat exchanged with surround

28. In a vertical circle of radius r, at what point in its path does a particle have tension
equal to zero if it is just able to complete the vertical circle?

(a) Lowest point

(b) Highest point
(c) Horizontal point
(d) Any point

29. In Young’s double slit experiment, we get 15 fringes per cm on the screen, using
light of wavelength 5600 Å. For the same setting, how many fringes per cm will be
obtained with light of wavelength 7000 Å?

(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 15
(d) 18

30. A uniform circular disc of mass 2 kg and radius 0.5 m is mounted on a frictionless
axle. A force of 4 N is applied tangentially at the rim for 2 seconds. Find the angular
velocity acquired by the disc at the end of 2 seconds.

(a) 8 rad/s

9
(b) 10 rad/s
(c) 12 rad/s
(d) 16 rad/s

30. An electron enters a magnetic field of magnitude 0.05 T at a speed of 3 × 106 m/s,
making an angle of 30° with the field direction. What is the magnitude of magnetic
force on it?

(a) 2.4 × 10−14 N

(b) 1.2 × 10−14 N
(c) 3 × 10−14 N
(d) 4.8 × 10−14 N

31. Two resistors, 4 ohm and 6 ohm, are connected in parallel, and this combination is
connected in series with a 2 ohm resistor to a 12V battery. What is the total power
dissipated?

(a) 32.7 W
(b) 28.8 W
(c) 24.0 W
(d) 36.0 W

32. How much time does a particle at x = C take to go from the mean position to the
extreme (maximum displacement) for the first time?

(a) T /2
(b) T /4
(c) T /3
(d) T

10
33. A transverse wave along a string is given by y = 2 sin 2π(3t − x) + π4 , where x and y

are in cm and t in second. Find the acceleration of a particle located at x = 4 cm at t = 1

s.

(a) 36 cm2 /s2

(b) 36 cm/s2
(c) −36 cm2 /s2
(d) −36 cm/s2

34. Three-point charges Q, q , and −q are kept at the vertices of an equilateral triangle
of side L. What is the total electrostatic potential energy of the system?

kQ2
(a) a

(b) 0
2
(c) − kQ
3a
a
(d) 3kQ2

35. Two resistors, 4Ω and 6Ω, are connected in parallel, and this combination is
connected in series with a 2Ω resistor to a 12V battery. What is the total power
dissipated?

(a) 32.7 W
(b) 28.8 W
(c) 24.0 W
(d) 36.0 W

36. A block slides down a smooth inclined plane and its acceleration is found to be half
the acceleration due to gravity. What is the angle of inclination θ of the plane?

(a) 45◦
(b) 60◦
(c) 30◦

11
(d) 90◦

37. A uniform circular disc of mass 2 kg and radius 0.5 m is mounted on a frictionless
axle. A force of 4 N is applied tangentially at the rim for 2 seconds. Find the angular
velocity acquired by the disc at the end of 2 seconds.

(a) 8 rad/s
(b) 10 rad/s
(c) 12 rad/s
(d) 16 rad/s

38. A mass of 0.5 kg is attached to a spring of force constant 200 N/m. What is the time
period of oscillation?

(a) 0.314 s
(b) 0.451 s
(c) 0.567 s
(d) 0.789 s

39. In Young’s double slit experiment, we get 15 fringes per cm on the screen, using
light of wavelength 5600 Å. For the same setting, how many fringes per cm will be
obtained with light of wavelength 7000 Å?

(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 15
(d) 18

40. The clarity of the image formed on the retina of the eye depends on the

(a) visual angle

(b) environmental condition

12
(c) distance of eye-lens from retina
(d) material of the object whose image is observed

1 CHEMISTRY

1. Which of the following reagents is used in Rosenmund reduction?

(a) H2 /Pd - BaSO4 (poisoned)

(b) Zn/HCl
(c) LiAlH4
(d) NaBH4

2. Which reagent will best convert alcohol to aldehyde selectively?

(a) KMnO4
(b) PCC
(c) K2 Cr2 O7
(d) HNO3

3. How many isomers are possible for C4 H8 Cl2 (including chain and positional)?

(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9

4. Which of the following shows resonance but not hyperconjugation?

(a) Propene
(b) Aniline
(c) Toluene

13
(d) Ethylbenzene

5. Which compound gives white precipitate with AgNO3 in ethanol?

(a) CH3 CH2 Br

(b) C6 H5 CH2 Cl
(c) (CH3 )3 CCl
(d) CH3 Cl

6. Which of the following is most reactive towards nucleophilic substitution?

(a) Vinyl chloride

(b) Allyl chloride
(c) Benzyl chloride
(d) Tert-butyl chloride

7. Which of the following shows resonance but not hyperconjugation?

(a) Propene
(b) Aniline
(c) Toluene
(d) Ethylbenzene

8. ”A given compound always contains the same proportion of elements” is a statement

of

(a) Law of combining volumes of gases

(b) Law of conservation of mass
(c) Law of multiple of mass
(d) Law of definite proportions

14
9. What is the molar mass of the third member of the homologous series if the molar
mass of the first member is 46 g?

(a) 60 g
(b) 74 g
(c) 138 g
(d) 80 g

10. Which of the following pairs of compounds cannot demonstrate the law of multiple
proportions?

(a) NO, NO2

(b) CO, CO2
(c) H2 O, H2 O2
(d) Na3 S, NaF

11. Which law is illustrated by compounds H2 O and H2 O2 formed from two different
elements, H and O?

(a) Law of Constant proportion

(b) Law of Conservation of mass
(c) Law of Multiple proportion
(d) Avogadro’s law

12. Which of the following has the maximum percentage of gas in the air?

(a) Carbon dioxide

(b) Oxygen
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Nitrogen

13. Which of the following is the strongest acid?

15
(a) Trichloroacetic acid
(b) Acetic acid
(c) Dichloroacetic acid
(d) Chloroacetic acid

14. Which of the following compounds gives a secondary alcohol upon reaction with
methylmagnesium bromide?

(a) Butyl formate

(b) 3-pentanone
(c) Pentanal
(d) Methyl butanoate

15. A sample of gas occupies 10 L at 300 K and 2 atm. What will be its volume at 400 K
and 1 atm?

(a) 15 L
(b) 20 L
(c) 25 L
(d) 30 L

16. The solubility of BaSO4 is 1.1 x 10−5 mol/L. What is its Ksp?

(a) 1.21 x 10−9

(b) 1.21 x 10−10
(c) 2.42 x 10−10
(d) 2.1 x 10−11

17. A solution is made by mixing 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl and 100 mL of 0.2 M NaOH. pH
of resulting solution is:

(a) 12.0

16
(b) 11.0
(c) 7.0
(d) 10.0

18. For a reaction A → B, the rate doubles when temperature increases from 298 K to
308 K. What is the activation energy (Ea)?

(a) 52 kJ/mol
(b) 48 kJ/mol
(c) 62 kJ/mol
(d) 66 kJ/mol

19. Which of the following solutions will show highest freezing point depression?

(a) 1 M glucose
(b) 1 M NaCl
(c) 1 M AlCl3
(d) 1 M MgCl2

20. Which reagent will best convert alcohol to aldehyde selectively?

(a) KMnO4
(b) PCC
(c) K2Cr2O7
(d) HNO3

21. How many molecules of carbon dioxide are formed when 0.6 g carbon is burnt in
air?

(a) 3.01 × 1022

(b) 2.01 × 1023
(c) 6.02 × 1023

17
(d) 5.06 × 1023

22. What is the volume of oxygen required for complete combustion of 0.25 mole of
methane at S.T.P.?

(a) 22.4 L
(b) 5.6 L
(c) 11.2 L
(d) 7.46 L

23. Calculate the mass in kg of 4.48 dm3 carbon dioxide at STP.

(a) 2.2 × 10−3 kg

(b) 4.4 × 10−3 kg
(c) 6.6 × 10−3 kg
(d) 8.8 × 10−3 kg

24. What is the volume occupied by 1 molecule of water, if its density is 1 g/cm3 ?

(a) 9.09 × 10−23 cm3

(b) 2.98 × 10−23 cm3
(c) 4.03 × 10−23 cm3
(d) 5.50 × 10−23 cm3

25. Calculate number of moles present in 9.10 × 1016 kg of water.

(a) 0.9
(b) 1.8
(c) 4.5
(d) 5

18
26. Which of the following is the correct decreasing order of electronegativity?

(a) F ¿ Cl ¿ O ¿ N
(b) F ¿ O ¿ N ¿ Cl
(c) O ¿ Cl ¿ F ¿ N
(d) F ¿ Cl ¿ N ¿ O

27. The IUPAC name of glyoxal is:

(a) 1,2-ethanedione
(b) ethane-1,2-dione
(c) ethane-1,2-dial
(d) Ethano-1,2-dial

28. Electronegativity of chlorine is less than oxygen because:

(a) Oxygen has larger size than chlorine

(b) Oxygen has smaller size and more effective nuclear charge
(c) Chlorine has higher nuclear charge
(d) Both have same electronegativity

29. Which of the following halogens has the highest electronegativity?

(a) Iodine
(b) Bromine
(c) Chlorine
(d) Fluorine

30. Among 2nd period elements, correct electronegativity trend is:

(a) B < C < N < O < F

(b) F < O < N < C < B

19
(c) N < C < O < F < B
(d) F < N < C < B

31. Which of the following reactions is an example of the Finkelstein reaction?

(a) C6 H5 Br + AgNO3 → C6 H5 NO3 + AgBr

(b) C6 H5 Br + NaI → C6 H5 I + NaBr
(c) CH3 Cl + KOH → CH3 OH + KCl
(d) C6 H5 Br + Mg → C6 H5 MgBr

32. The oxidation number of oxygen in peroxides is .

(a) -1
(b) -2
(c) +1
(d) 0

33. Which of the following compound has high melting point?

(a) 1-Bromopropane
(b) 1-Bromopropane
(c) 1-Bromobutane
(d) 1-Bromo-2-methylpropane

34. The decomposition of a compound A follows first-order kinetics. The concentration

of A at time t = 0 is 1.0 mol L−1 . After 60 minutes, it reduces to 0.25 mol L−1 . What is
the initial rate of the reaction at t = 0? (Take ln 2 = 0.693)

(a) 0.0115 mol L−1 min−1

(b) 0.0173 mol L−1 min−1
(c) 0.277 mol L−1 min−1
(d) 0.0364 mol L−1 min−1

20
35. Which of the following compounds can exhibit geometrical isomerism, and why? 1)
2-butene 2) 1-butene 3) Pent-2-ene 4) But-2-yne

(a) Only 2 and 3

(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 1, 2 and 3
(d) All of the above

36. Which of the following alkyl chloride will have the lowest boiling point?

(a) CH3 CH2 Br

(b) C6 H5 CH2 Cl
(c) (CH3 )2 CHCl
(d) CH3 Cl

37. What is the oxidation number of sulfur in sulfuric acid (H2 SO4 )?

(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) None of the above

38. Which alkane would have only the primary and tertiary carbon?

(a) Pentane
(b) 2-Methylbutane
(c) 2,2-Dimethylpropane
(d) 3,3-Dimethylbutane

39. Which of the following is a primary amine?

21
(a) 1-Butylamine
(b) Isobutylamine
(c) N-Butylamine
(d) All of these

40. In 2-chloro-3,4-dimethylhexane, how many chiral C atoms are present?

(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 1

41. What will be pH of aqueous salt solution of AB if pKa of weak acid HA is 4 and
pKb of weak acid BOH is 5?

(a) 5
(b) 6.5
(c) 7.5
(d) 11.5

43. If the total volume of a simple cubic unit cell is 6.817 × 10−23 cm3 , what is the
volume occupied by particles in the unit cell?

(a) 3.57 × 10−23 cm3

(b) 4.57 × 10−23 cm3
(c) 5.57 × 10−23 cm3
(d) 6.57 × 10−23 cm3

44. IUPAC name of the following compound:

(a) 3,4-dimethylpentanol
(b) 2,3-dimethyl-5-pentanol

22
(c) 2,3-dimethylpentanol
(d) 3,4-dimethyl-1-pentanol

45. Which is the inner transition element of the following?

(a) Eu
(b) Zn
(c) Hg
(d) Sc

2 Biology

1. Plasmodium that affects humans

(a) P. Vivax
(b) P. Ovale
(c) P. Malaria
(d) All of the above

2. How many dehydrogenation reactions in Krebs cycle?

Answer: 4 Dehydrogenation reactions per cycle

Solution:
The Krebs cycle (also called the citric acid cycle or tricarboxylic acid cycle) consists of a
series of reactions in the mitochondrial matrix where acetyl-CoA is oxidized to produce ATP,
NADH, and FADH2.
There are 4 dehydrogenation reactions during the cycle: 1. Isocitrate to -Ketoglutarate
(catalyzed by isocitrate dehydrogenase)
2. -Ketoglutarate to Succinyl-CoA (catalyzed by -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase)
3. Succinate to Fumarate (catalyzed by succinate dehydrogenase)
4. Malate to Oxaloacetate (catalyzed by malate dehydrogenase)

23
These reactions involve the removal of hydrogen atoms from the substrate, transferring
electrons to NAD+ or FAD, forming NADH or FADH2.

Quick Tip
Remember that the dehydrogenation reactions in the Krebs cycle are critical for gen-
erating NADH and FADH2, which are used in the electron transport chain to produce
ATP.

3. Which water is absorbed by plants?

Answer: Capillary water

Solution:
Plants absorb water mainly from the soil. The types of water in the soil can be categorized
as: 1. Gravitational water: Water that moves downward through the soil due to gravity and
drains away quickly.
2. Capillary water: Water held in the tiny pores of the soil, available to plants. It is the most
important type of water for plant absorption.
3. Hygroscopic water: Water that adheres tightly to soil particles and is unavailable to plants.
Capillary water is the water that plants mainly absorb as it is readily available for uptake by
plant roots.

Quick Tip
Capillary water is the most available form of water for plant roots, while gravitational
water drains away and hygroscopic water is too tightly bound to the soil particles for
absorption.

4. How many time needed for PCR?

5. What is the primary function of Bowman’s capsule in nephron?

6. The first step in plant growth is

24
(a) Dispersal of seed
(b) Germination of seed
(c) Formation of fruit
(d) Formation of zygote

7. Which part of root absorb mineral, which part of root absorb mineral?
(a) Root hairs
(b) Root tips
(c) Root cap
(d) Root cortex

8. Which of the following is false regarding adsorption?

(a) ”Adsorption is the process where particles are attracted to the surface of another
material.”
(b) ”The adsorbate binds directly to the adsorbent surface.”
(c) ”Particle size of the adsorbent will not affect the amount of adsorption.”
(d) ”Adsorption can be physical or chemical.”

9. Identify linear polymer from following

(a) Nylon
(b) Poly-vinyl chloride (PVC)
(c) High-density polyethylene (HDPE), and polystyrene
(d) None of these

10. Which of the following converting a testis originates from peritoneum?

(a) Tunica vaginalis
(b) Tunica albuginea
(c) Epididymis
(d) Spermatic cord

25
11. Disorder caused due to accumulation of amyloid proteins in CNS.

12. Germ pores of pollen grains are useful for

(a) Helps in the formation of the pollen tube and the release of the male gametes during
fertilisation
(b) Germination of the seed
(c) Growth of the pollen tube
(d) Helps in the formation of female gametes

13. In genetic engineering the Foreign DNA is called

(a) Recombinant DNA
(b) Exogenous DNA
(c) Mutated DNA
(d) Transferred DNA

14. Stomatal transpiration takes place during day time in the following plants except
(a) Succulent plants
(b) Desert plants
(c) Aquatic plants
(d) All plants during day time

15. In a dihybrid cross, 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio denotes

(a) Independent assortment of two genes
(b) Linkage between genes
(c) Epistasis
(d) Incomplete dominance

16. Which is not a prime element?

(a) Carbon
(b) Nitrogen

26
(c) Hydrogen
(d) An element that can be factored into non-unit factors

17. Which of the following is a commercial blood cholesterol lowering agent?

(a) Statins
(b) Aspirin
(c) Antibiotics
(d) Antioxidants

18. Which is an intensive property?

(a) Temperature
(b) Density
(c) Color
(d) Pressure

19. What is an example of chiropterophily?

(a) Pollination by birds
(b) Pollination by insects
(c) Pollination by bats
(d) Pollination by wind

20. What is the typical voltage of the resting membrane potential in a neuron?
(a) +70 mV
(b) -70 mV
(c) 0 mV
(d) +30 mV

21. Match the columns and select the right option from the given codes:

27
(a) A (iii), B (iv), C (ii), D (ii)
(b) A (iv), B (iii), C (ii), D (ii)
(c) A (ii), B (ii), C (iii), D (ii)
(d) A (i), B (ii), C (ii), D (ii)

22. Which of the following organisms or organelles contain 70S ribosomes?

(a) Animal cell cytoplasm
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Plant cell cytoplasm
(d) Nucleus

23. Which of the following acts as hemoglobin (Hb) in the blood buffer system?
(a) NaHCO
(b) HHb
(c) HbCO
(d) HbCl

24. Which of the following events occurs only during meiosis and not in mitosis?
(a) Chromosome condensation
(b) Spindle formation
(c) Separation of sister chromatids
(d) Synapsis and crossing over of homologous chromosomes

28
25. In which of the following phases of karyokinesis do chromosomes align at the
equatorial plate, and spindle fibres are completely formed?
(a) Prophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Telophase

26. During which phase of karyokinesis does the disappearance of the nucleolus and
nuclear envelope occur?
(a) Prophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Telophase

27. In karyokinesis of meiosis - I, which of the following separates?

(a) Sister chromatids
(b) Homologous chromosomes
(c) Sister chromatids and homologous chromosomes
(d) Spindle poles

29