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Psych Ass Refresher Diagnostics

This document discusses concepts related to psychological testing and assessment including reliability, validity, test construction, and interpretation. It provides examples of different types of tests and discusses important principles like ensuring tests are appropriate for the person and context. Interpretation should consider multiple sources of data rather than rely on any single test in isolation.

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Mary Joy Elevera
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
113 views6 pages

Psych Ass Refresher Diagnostics

This document discusses concepts related to psychological testing and assessment including reliability, validity, test construction, and interpretation. It provides examples of different types of tests and discusses important principles like ensuring tests are appropriate for the person and context. Interpretation should consider multiple sources of data rather than rely on any single test in isolation.

Uploaded by

Mary Joy Elevera
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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1.

The following typically characterizes Psychological


Assessment EXCEPT:

A. Psychological assessment requires a critical judgment in


selection tools of evaluation and thoughtful integration of data from B.D.The
Measures how
assessor wellthe
is not testtaker
key to can
the
tools used. communicate
process but theideas
clientinand
writing.
the referral
B. The assessor is not the key to the process but the client and the party.
referral party.
C. The process is typically individualized, differing from one client
to another.
D. It entails a logical problem-solving approach to answer a referral
question.

2. When a student comes to you for career counseling and asks


if she could take a test to find out what field she would be good at,
what kind of test would you recommend?
D. Aptitude test
A. Achievement test
B. Diagnostic test
C. Interest test
D. Aptitude test

3. Objective tests are objective because


B. They are scored in a simple,
A. Scoring is heavily dependent on the judgment of the scorer. straightforward manner.
B. They are scored in a simple, straightforward manner.
C. They contain items that have right or wrong answers.
D. They are based on responses to ambiguous stimuli.

4. One of the principles of ethics in psychological assessment is D. Measures how well test taker can
to ensure that one test is complemented with another assessment communicate ideas in writing.
method to arrive at a more comprehensive profile of the client. This C. Tests and other measurement
ensures that the limitation in the test is being addressed and techniques have strengths and
compensated by another assessment method. What assumption of weaknesses.
psychological testing does this refer to?

A. Testing and assessment can be conducted in a fair and


unbiased manner.
B. Psychological traits and states can be quantified and measured.
C. Tests and other measurement techniques have strengths and
weaknesses.
D. Test-related behavior predicts non-test related behavior.

5. In her assigned community, the social worker observed that


the parents are struggling on how to discipline their children in
terms of doing their homework. The social worker started by A. Testing and assessment benefit
assessing the reasons for these struggles by interviewing the society.
parents and letting them respond to a questionnaire. Through this,
the social worker was able to know the reasons for the struggle
and provided interventions accordingly. What assumption of
psychological testing does this refer to?

A. Testing and assessment benefit society.


B. Psychological traits and states exist.
C. Test-related Behavior Predicts Non-test Related Behavior.
D. Various Sources of Error Are Part of the Assessment Process

6. Which of the following was the main reason for developing


the first intelligence test?
B. to identify intellectually subnormal
A. to measure the emotional stability of individuals children
B. to identify intellectually subnormal children
C. to identify children who were exceptionally gifted
D. to find equipped recruits for the Army
7. The following accurately describe the role of test publishers,
LEAST of which is:
D. They conceive, prepare, and develop
A. They publish, market and sell psychological tests. tests.
B. They may require the test user to submit a proof of their
credentials.
C. They prepare test catalogues, providing a description of the
tests they are selling.
D. They conceive, prepare, and develop tests.
19. Categories with proper order fall under _.
B. ordinal
A. nominal
B. ordinal
C. ratio
D. interval

20. The following are measures of correlation, EXCEPT for:

A. Pearson-r C. Shapiro-Wilk
B. Spearman rho
C. Shapiro-Wilk
D. Kendall's tau

21. Joey, who is pursuing a degree in psychology, achieved a


score of 45 on the Social Psychology exam and 73 on the B. Joey has a lesser aptitude for Social
Cognitive Psychology exam. In the Social Psychology test, the Psychology than Cognitive Psychology.
class average is 35 with a standard deviation of 7, while in the
Cognitive Psychology test, the class average is 58 with a standard
deviation of 8. What conclusions can be drawn from her test
performance?

A. It is difficult to make a reliable inference.


B. Joey has a lesser aptitude for Social Psychology than Cognitive
Psychology.
C. Joey has equal aptitude for both Social Psychology than
Cognitive Psychology.
D. Joey has greater aptitude for Social Psychology than Cognitive
Psychology.

22. In a(n) ____ test, the objective is to determine where the


examinee stands with respect to very tightly defined educational D. criterion-referenced
standards.

A. norm-referenced
B. intelligence
C. speed test
D. criterion-referenced

23. The first step in constructing a psychological test is to

A. determine the sample size to which the test is administered. D. be clear about the construct to be
B. conduct quantitative item analysis. assessed with the test.
C. identify a likely publisher for the test.
D. be clear about the construct to be assessed with the test.

24. Which of the following difficulty indices would result to a


positively skewed distribution? D. p = .30

A. d = .80
B. d = .50
C. p = .80
D. p = .30

25. Which of the following discrimination indices would be obtained


if the item was answered by both the lower group and the higher A. d = 0.00
group?

A. d = 0.00
B. d = 1.00
C. p = .99
D. p = .20
26. In test construction

A. random samples from the general population are always B. representative samples from the
employed. population of interest are employed.
B. representative samples from the population of interest are
employed.
C. accidental or convenience samples have been found to be as
good as any other.
D. random samples are employed for the initial analysis but not
subsequently.

27. Before administering a psychological test, the most important


thing a psychologist should ensure is that.
D. the test is appropriate for the client’s
A. the test has local norms. profile and background.
B. the test was developed by a local test developer.
C. the test has been reviewed in the Mental Measurements
Yearbook.
D. the test is appropriate for the client’s profile and background.

28. Results for a client on a psychological test

A. should not be interpreted by a person. D. should not be interpreted in isolation.


B. should be interpreted in isolation.
C. should always be interpreted by a computer.
D. should not be interpreted in isolation.

29. The following are measures of psychopathology, LEAST of


which is: B. WGCTA

A. PAI
B. WGCTA
C. MMPI-3
D. BPI
30. Which estimate of reliability is most consistent with the domain
sampling theory? D. interscorer

A. test-retest
B. internal-consistency
C. alternate-form
D. interscorer

31. KR-20 would be the MOST suitable measure of internal


consistency for test that measure:
A. Mathematical and English ability
A. Mathematical and English ability
B. Somatic complaints and hypochondriasis
C. Positive and negative affectivity
D. Malingering, nay-saying, acquiescence and impression
management

32. The following are measures of internal consistency, LEAST


of which is:
D. Spearman Rho
A. McDonald’s Omega
B. Split-half
C. Cronbach’s alpha
D. Spearman Rho

33. If a particular test is reliable, the following can be said about it,
LEAST of which is:
D. The test is easy for the lower group
A. The test generates consistent results. which it is difficult for the upper group.
B. The impact of error on the test is very minimal.
C. The observed scores are good estimates of the true scores or
true abilities of the test takers.
D. The test is easy for the lower group which it is difficult for the
upper group.

34. Which of the following situations depicts content validation?

A. Division of the test into two using odd-even methodology. C. Evaluating the adequacy of items
B. Correlating a test with other test to test an existing theory. covering the construct of interest.
C. Evaluating the adequacy of items covering the construct of
interest.
D. Developing a similar type of test with comparable difficulty level.

35. “I do not like spending time with people which is why I spend
a lot time in the library alone.” What could be wrong with this item?
A. The item is double-barreled.
A. The item is double-barreled.
B. The item is too easy for the test takers.
C. The item is too simplistic for a psychological test.
D. The item should undergo discriminability analysis.

36. The following are facets of Extraversion in the NEO-Pi-r


EXCEPT
D. Straightforwardness
A. Activity
B. Gregariousness
C. Positive emotions
D. Straightforwardness

37. What makes performance tests unique in contrast to their


verbal counterparts?
D. They rely less on language.
A. There is an object or material to be manipulated to measure the
ability.
B. It measures the ability of the person to analyze sentences.
C. They do not measure knowledge.
D. They rely less on language.
38. Aside from the MMPI, which of the following scales has
validity scales?
A. PAI
A. PAI
B. BPI
C. NEO-Pi-r
D. PANAS

39. Which of the following scales can be utilized in determining if a


person has PTSD?
D. MMPI-3
A. PAI
B. MCMI
C. BPI
D. MMPI-3

40. Which of the following has the capacity to measure the ability
to hold information in the mind for a brief period of time?
B. DAT
A. PAI
B. DAT
C. RPM
D. OLSAT

41. If Robert is determining the difficulty and the discriminability of


the test items, then he is already in the _________ stage of test
development. A. item analysis

A. item analysis
B. test conceptualization
C. test revision
D. test construction
42. You were asked to familiarize personality test which will be
used as a one of the bases for selection to the university you are
working in. You want to find out if the personality test is internally D. Split-half reliability
consistent. What aspect of the test are you going to look at?

A. Inter-rater reliability
B. Test-retest reliability
C. Content validity
D. Split-half reliability

43. When your teacher decided to give you an achievement test


for Psychological Assessment but only included items on validity,
what category of validity is most likely in question? B. Content validity

A. Face validity
B. Content validity
C. Criterion validity
D. Construct validity

44. If a test developer finds that the scores on a new employment


test designed to predict success on the job correlated with the
employee’s performance appraisal ratings, the test shows C. validity based on the test’s
evidence of what? relationship with a criteria

A. validity based on a test’s appearance.


B. validity based on a test’s relationship with a construct.
C. validity based on the test’s relationship with a criteria
D. validity based on a test’s content.

45. Which best describes the concept of validity as applied to


tests?
B. It refers to how well at test measures
A. It refers to whether a test is administered under standardized what the test authors intend to measure.
conditions.
B. It refers to how well at test measures what the test authors
intend to measure.
C. It refers to whether the same results could have occurred by
chance less than five times in a hundred.
D. It refers to how well a specific sample performs on an
administration of a test.

46. The following are typical questions that are raised and
answered during the test conceptualization stage of test
development, LEAST of which is: D. How valid are the items on the test?

A. What is the objective of the test?


B. Is there a need for the test?
C. What types of responses will be required of the test-taker?
D. How valid are the items on the test?

47. A competent psychometrician/psychologist should ______.

A. be equally competent in all the different subareas of the field B. recognize the boundaries of their
B. recognize the boundaries of their competence competence
C. offer assistance even outside the boundaries of competence at
all times
D. all of the above

48. When Delia, the school psychologist, was asked by a parent if


she can give them a copy of the entrance exam, Delia refused and
said that this is considered unethical. What ethical principle is D. Maintaining test security
being observed?

A. Bases for assessment


B. Interpreting assessment results
C. Test construction
D. Maintaining test security
49. You (A psychologist) got sick during the day of your
appointment with a patient. You do not want to cancel the
appointment, so you called your newly accepted psychometrician C. No, because continuing the
to do the intake interview. You also called your client to explain appointment will only compromise the
your condition and told him not worry because you provide close service we can provide.
supervision to your apprentice. Is there an ethical violation?

A. Yes, because you asked a psychometrician to perform a


function that he is not part of his responsibilities.
B. Yes, because of cancellation of the appointment.
C. No, because continuing the appointment will only compromise
the service we can provide.
D. No, because psychometricians are trained to perform
psychotherapy as well.

50. Which of the following is unethical?

A. Having a multiple relationship with your client. A. Having a multiple relationship with
B. Accepting a gift from your client. your client.
C. Protecting the privacy and confidentiality of your client.
D. Referring clients whose problems are beyond your expertise.

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